©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§ ‚’‚ ™§¬⁄UË ‚Ë‹ ∑§Ê πÊ‹∑§⁄U ¬Îc∆U ‚¥ÅÿÊ 2 •ÊÒ⁄U 3 ∑§ ◊äÿ SÕÊÁ¬Ã OMR

©ûÊ⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ∑§Ê ÁŸ∑§Ê‹ ‹¥– ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‚¥. :

Candidates should open the top side of the seal of this Booklet and take Booklet No. :
out the OMR Answer Sheet placed at page no. 2 and 3.
¬⁄ˡÊÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê oÎ¥π‹Ê —
SA-CS ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê / EXAMINATION QUESTION BOOKLET Test Booklet Series : A
ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà ‚◊ÿ — 180 Á◊Ÿ≈U •Áœ∑§Ã◊ •¥∑§ — 120
Time Allowed : 180 Minutes COMPUTER SCIENCE Maximum Marks : 120
⁄UÊ‹ Ÿ¥. ©ûÊ⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ‚¥.—
Roll No. : Answer Sheet No. :
¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U ŒŸ ‚ ¬„‹ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà •ŸÈŒ‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ ‚ ¬…∏ ‹¥– / Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ •ŸÈŒ‡Ê Instructions to the Candidates
1. ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U Á‹πŸÊ •Ê⁄¥U÷ ∑§⁄UŸ ‚ ¬„‹ •Ê¬ ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ë ¡Ê°ø ∑§⁄U∑§ ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øà 1. Before you start to answer the questions you must check this booklet and
∑§⁄U ‹¥ Á∑§ ß‚◊¥ ¬Í⁄U ¬Îc∆U (1-16) „Ò¥ ÃÕÊ ∑§Ê߸ ¬Îc∆U ÿÊ ©‚∑§Ê ÷ʪ ∑§◊ ÿÊ ŒÈ’Ê⁄UÊ ÃÊ Ÿ„Ë¥ ensure that it contains all the pages (1-16) and see that no page or portion
•Ê ªÿÊ „Ò– ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ÿ„ ÷Ë ¡Ê°ø ∑§⁄UŸË „Ò Á∑§ ©Ÿ∑§Ê ∑§fl‹ ©‚ S≈˛UË◊ ∑§Ë ‚„Ë thereof is missing or repeated. Candidates are also required to check that
¬⁄UˡÊÊ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê Á◊‹Ë „Ò Á¡‚∑§ Á‹∞ ©ã„Ê¥Ÿ •ÊflŒŸ Á∑§ÿÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ¡Ê ©Ÿ∑§ Admit they have got the right question booklet strictly from the stream candidate has
applied for and printed on the Admit Card i.e. Computer Science OR Information
Card ◊¥ ¿U¬Ê „Ò •ÕʸØ ∑¥§åÿÍ≈U⁄U ‚Êߥ‚ ÿÊ ‚ÍøŸÊ ¬˝ÊlÊÁª∑§Ë ÿÊ ß‹Ä≈˛UÊÚÁŸÄ‚– ÿÁŒ •Ê¬
Technology OR Electronics. If you find any defect in this Booklet, you must
ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ ∑§Ê߸ òÊÈÁ≈U ¬Ê∞¥, ÃÊ Ãà∑§Ê‹ ß‚∑§ ’Œ‹ ŒÍ‚⁄UË ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‹– get it replaced immediately.
2. •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U-‡ÊË≈U ¬˝‡Ÿ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ „Ë ©¬‹éœ ⁄U„ªË– ∑Χ¬ÿÊ ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øà ∑§⁄¥U Á∑§ 2. OMR Answer-Sheet is within the Question Booklet. Please ensure
•Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ‚¥ÅÿÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬⁄UˡÊáÊ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‚¥ÅÿÊ ‚◊ÊŸ „Ò¥– •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ¬⁄U OMR Answer-Sheet number and Test Booklet No. of Question Paper
¡ÊŸ∑§Ê⁄UË ÷⁄UŸ ‚ ¬„‹ •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ¬⁄U ¿U¬ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê äÿÊŸ ‚ ¬…∏¥– •Ê¬∑§Ê are same. Read the instructions printed on OMR Answer-Sheet
•Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U-¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U ‚÷Ë Áflfl⁄UáÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê ‚„Ë …¥Uª ‚ ¬Í⁄UÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ∑§Ê«U ∑§⁄UŸÊ „ÊªÊ, ∞‚Ê carefully before filling the information on the OMR Answer-Sheet.
Ÿ ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U •Ê¬∑§Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê ◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑§Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò– ¬˝‡ŸÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©ûÊ⁄U You must complete and code all the details on the OMR answer sheet
ŒŸÊ ‡ÊÈM§ ∑§⁄UŸ ‚ ¬„‹ •Ê¬∑§Ê •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U-¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U ÁŒÿ ª∞ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U correctly failing which your answer sheet may not be evaluated. You
•¬Ÿ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U ∑§⁄UŸ „Ê¥ª– ߟ ÁŸŒ¸‡ÊÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬Íáʸ M§¬ ‚ ¬Ê‹Ÿ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡ÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞, ∞‚Ê must also put your signature on the OMR Answer-Sheet at the
Ÿ ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U •Ê¬∑§Ë •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ∑§Ê ◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑§Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò– prescribed place before you actually start answering the questions.
These instructions must be fully complied with, failing which, your
(ŒÎÁc≈U„ËŸ ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§ Á‹∞ ÿ„ Áflfl⁄UáÊ ‹π∑§ mÊ⁄UÊ ÷⁄U ¡Êÿ¥ª– Á»§⁄U ÷Ë, ‚÷Ë OMR Answer-Sheet may not be evaluated. (For V.H. candidates these
ŒÎÁc≈U„ËŸ ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U-‡ÊË≈U ◊¥ ÁŸœÊ¸Á⁄Uà SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U •¬Ÿ ’Ê∞¥ „ÊÕ ∑§ details will be filled in by the scribe. However, all V.H. candidates must put
•¥ªÍ∆U ∑§Ê ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ •fl‡ÿ ‹ªÊŸÊ øÊÁ„∞– ß‚∑§ •ÁÃÁ⁄UÄÃ, ¡Ê ŒÎÁc≈U„ËŸ ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U their left-hand thumb impression at the space provided in the OMR Answer-
•¬ŸÊ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U ∑§⁄U ‚∑§Ã „Ò¥, fl •¥ªÍ∆U ∑§ ÁŸ‡ÊÊŸ ∑§ •‹ÊflÊ •¬Ÿ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U ÷Ë ∑§⁄¥U–) Sheet. In addition, those V.H. candidates who can sign should also put their
3. •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U-‡ÊË≈U ÃËŸ ¬˝ÁÃÿÊ¥ ◊¥ „Ê¥ªË (◊Í‹ ÃÕÊ ∑§Ê’¸Ÿ ∑§Ë ŒÊ ¬˝ÁÃÁ‹Á¬ÿÊ°)– signatures in addition to thumb impression.)
¬⁄UˡÊÊ ‚◊ÊÁåà ∑§ ’ÊŒ •Ê.∞◊˜.•Ê⁄.U ∑§Ë ◊Í‹ ‡ÊË≈U ÃÕÊ ∞∑§ ∑§Ê’¸Ÿ ¬˝ÁÃÁ‹Á¬ ÁŸ⁄UˡÊ∑§ 3. The OMR Answer-Sheet will be in triplicate (Original and two carbon copies).
∑§Ê ‚ÊÒ¥¬Ÿ ∑§ ¬‡øÊØ ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U •¬Ÿ ‚ÊÕ ∞∑§ ∑§Ê’¸Ÿ ¬˝ÁÃÁ‹Á¬ ‹ ¡Ê ‚∑§Ã/‚∑§ÃË „Ò¥– Candidate has to take one carbon copy (marked as ‘candidate copy’) with
ÿÁŒ ∑§Ê߸ ÷Ë ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U ∞‚Ê ∑§⁄UŸ ◊¥ •‚»§‹ ⁄U„ÃÊ/⁄U„ÃË „Ò ÃÊ ©‚∑§Ë ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UË ⁄Ug ∑§⁄U him/her after examination and handover the original OMR along with one
ŒË ¡ÊÿªË– ÿÁŒ ∑§Ê߸ ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U •¬ŸË ∑§Ê’¸Ÿ ¬˝ÁÃÁ‹Á¬ ◊¥ Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ê »§⁄U- carbon copy to invigilator. If candidate fails to handover the original OMR
’Œ‹ ∑§⁄U ©‚∑§Ê ŒÊflÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ/ ∑§⁄UÃË „Ò ÃÊ ß‚ ÁSÕÁà ◊¥ ÷Ë ©‚∑§Ê/©‚∑§Ë ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UË ⁄Ug along with one carbon copy to invigilator, his /her candidature will be cancelled.
Further, if the candidate tampers with candidate OMR carbon copy and
∑§Ë ¡ÊÿªË– claims for same, in that case also his/her candidature will be cancelled.
4. ß‚ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ 120 ’„ÈÁfl∑§À¬Ëÿ ¬˝‡Ÿ „Ò¥– ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ 4 Áfl∑§À¬ ÁŒ∞ ª∞ „Ò¥, 4. This booklet consists of 120 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4
(A), (B), (C) •ÊÒ⁄U (D)– Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ÁSÕÁà ◊¥ ¬˝àÿ∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§Ê ∑§fl‹ ∞∑§ Áfl∑§À¬ „Ë ‚„Ë (four) alternatives (A), (B), (C) and (D). In any case only one alternative will
©ûÊ⁄U „Ò– ÿÁŒ •Ê¬∑§Ê ∞∑§ ‚ •Áœ∑§ Áfl∑§À¬ ‚„Ë ‹ª¥ ÃÊ ‚’‚ •Áœ∑§ ©Áøà ∞∑§ be the correct answer. In case if you find more than one correct answer, then
Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§Ê øÈŸÊfl ∑§⁄¥U •ÊÒ⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ◊¥ ‚ê’¥ÁœÃ ¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ ‚Ê◊Ÿ flÊ‹ ©¬ÿÈÄà ªÊ‹ ∑§Ê choose the most appropriate single option and darken the appropriate circle in
∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄¥U– the answer sheet in front of the related question.
5. ¬˝‡Ÿ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ ŒÊ ÷ʪ „Ò¥ — ÷ʪ A : ‚Ê◊Êãÿ (42 ¬˝‡Ÿ) •ÊÒ⁄U ÷ʪ B : Ã∑§ŸË∑§Ë (78 5. Question Booklet consists of two parts : Part A : Generic (having 42 questions)
¬˝‡Ÿ)– ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U ∑§Ê ŒÊŸÊ¥ ÷ʪÊ¥ ∑§ ©ûÊ⁄U Á‹πŸÊ •ÁŸflÊÿ¸ „Ò¥– and Part B : Technical (having 78 questions). Candidates has to attempt both
6. ¬˝àÿ∑§ ‚„Ë ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ 1 •¥∑§ ÁŒÿÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ¬˝àÿ∑§ ª‹Ã ©ûÊ⁄U ∑§ Á‹∞ 0.25 •¥∑§ parts compulsorily.
∑§Ê≈U Á‹ÿÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ– 6. For each correct answer One mark will be given and for each incorrect
7. ªÊ‹ ∑§Ê ∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ∑§fl‹ ∑§Ê‹/ŸË‹ ’ÊÚ‹ åflÊߥ≈U ¬UŸ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ∑§⁄¥U– ªÊ‹ ∑§Ê answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
7. Use Black/Blue ball point Pen to darken the circle. Answer once darkened is
∞∑§ ’Ê⁄U ∑§Ê‹Ê ∑§⁄UŸ ∑§ ’ÊŒ ß‚∑§Ê Á◊≈UÊŸ ÿÊ ’Œ‹Ÿ ∑§Ë •ŸÈ◊Áà Ÿ„Ë¥ „Ò– ÿÁŒ Á∑§‚Ë not allowed to be erased or altered. Against any question if more than one
¬˝‡Ÿ ∑§ ‚Ê◊Ÿ ∞∑§ ‚ íÿÊŒÊ ªÊ‹ ∑§Ê‹ Á∑§ÿ ª∞ „Ê¥ ÃÊ ◊‡ÊËŸ mÊ⁄UÊ ©‚∑§ Á‹∞ ‡ÊÍãÿ circle is darkened, machine will allot zero mark for that question.
•¥∑§ ÁŒÿÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ– 8. Do not fold answer sheet in any case.
8. Á∑§‚Ë ÷Ë ÁSÕÁà ◊¥ ©ûÊ⁄U ‡ÊË≈U ∑§Ê Ÿ ◊Ê«∏¥– 9. No rough work is to be done on the Answer-Sheet. Space for rough work has
9. ©ûÊ⁄U-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ¬⁄U ∑§Ê߸ ÷Ë ⁄U»§ ∑§Êÿ¸ Ÿ„Ë¥ ∑§⁄UŸÊ „Ò– ⁄U»§ ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§ Á‹∞ ß‚ ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ◊¥ been provided in this booklet.
SÕÊŸ ÁŒÿÊ ªÿÊ „Ò– 10. Mobile phones and wireless communication devices are completely banned
10. ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§◊⁄UÊ¥ ◊¥ ◊Ê’Êß‹ $»§ÊŸ ÃÕÊ ’ÃÊ⁄U ‚¥øÊ⁄U ‚ÊœŸ ¬Í⁄UË Ã⁄U„ ÁŸÁ·h „Ò¥– in the examination hall/rooms. Candidates are advised not to keep mobile
©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UÊ¥ ∑§Ê ©Ÿ∑§ •¬Ÿ Á„à ◊¥ ‚‹Ê„ ŒË ¡ÊÃË „Ò Á∑§ ◊Ê’Êß‹ $»§ÊŸ/Á∑§‚Ë •ãÿ ’ÃÊ⁄U phones/any other wireless communication devices with them even switching
‚¥øÊ⁄U ‚ÊœŸ ∑§Ê ÁSflø •ÊÚ»§ ∑§⁄U∑§ ÷Ë •¬Ÿ ¬Ê‚ Ÿ ⁄Uπ¥– ß‚ ¬˝ÊflœÊŸ ∑§Ê •ŸÈ¬Ê‹Ÿ Ÿ it off, in their own interest. Failing to comply with this provision will be
∑§⁄UŸ ∑§Ê ¬⁄UˡÊÊ ◊¥ •ŸÈÁøà ©¬ÊÿÊ¥ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÿÊª ◊ÊŸÊ ¡ÊÿªÊ •ÊÒ⁄U ©Ÿ∑§ ÁflL§h ∑§Êÿ¸flÊ„Ë considered as using unfair means in the examination and action will be taken
against them including cancellation of their candidature.
∑§Ë ¡Ê∞ªË, Á¡‚◊¥ ©Ÿ∑§Ë ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄UË ⁄Ug ∑§⁄UŸÊ ÷Ë ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ „Ò–
11. Candidate should not leave the examination hall / room without
11. •èÿÕ˸ •¬ŸË ©ûÊ⁄U ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ¬ÿ¸flˇÊ∑§ ∑§Ê ‚ÊÒ¥¬ Á’ŸÊ •ÊÒ⁄U •¬Ÿ ⁄UÊ‹ Ÿ¥’⁄U ∑§ ‚Ê◊Ÿ handing over his/her Answer-Sheet to the invigilator and without
©Áøà SÕÊŸ ¬⁄U ©¬ÁSÕÁà ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U Á∑§∞ Á’ŸÊ ¬⁄UˡÊÊ „ÊÚ‹/∑§ˇÊ ‚ ’Ê„⁄U Ÿ„Ë¥ signing on the attendance sheet at proper place against your roll
¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ– ß‚∑§ •‹ÊflÊ •èÿÕ˸ ∑§Ê ©¬ÁSÕÁà ¬òÊ∑§ ¬⁄U „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U ∑§⁄UŸ ‚ ¬„‹ ÿ„ number, further candidate should also ensure that booklet no., booklet
÷Ë ‚ÈÁŸÁ‡øà ∑§⁄UŸÊ øÊÁ„∞ Á∑§ ’È∑§‹≈U Ÿ¥’⁄U, ’È∑§‹≈U ‚Ë⁄UË¡ •ÊÒ⁄U •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U series and OMR Answer-Sheet No. are correctly written on attendance
¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê ‚¥ÅÿÊ ‚„Ë …¥Uª ‚ Á‹πË ªß¸ „Ê– ∞‚Ê ŸÊ ∑§⁄UŸ ¬⁄U, •Ê∞◊•Ê⁄U ©ûÊ⁄U ¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê sheet before signing on it, failing in doing so, may lead to
∑§Ê •◊Êãÿ ◊ÊŸÊ ¡Ê∞ªÊ/◊ÍÀÿÊ¥∑§Ÿ Ÿ„Ë¥ Á∑§ÿÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò– disqualification / no evaluation of OMR Answer-Sheet.
¡’ Ã∑§ •Ê¬‚ ∑§„Ê Ÿ ¡Ê∞ Ã’ Ã∑§ ¬˝‡Ÿ-¬ÈÁSÃ∑§Ê Ÿ πÊ‹¥ / DO NOT OPEN THE QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U ∑§Ê ŸÊ◊/Name of Candidate : ________________________ ©ê◊ËŒflÊ⁄U ∑§ „SÃÊˇÊ⁄U/Signature of Candidate : ___________________
 PART - A 5. The day before the day before yesterday is
three days after Saturday. What day is it
GENERIC today ?

Direction (1-3) : Read the following information (A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday
carefully and answer question number 1-3 given
below : (C) Thursday (D) Friday

In an engineering college, four students Diksha,

Shreya, Tanvi and Akriti exhibit a very strange
mix of hobbies and subject interests. One of them 6. John’s house is 100 m North of his uncle’s
studies Computer Science and plays Golf and office. His uncle’s house is located 200 m
Lawn Tennis. Diksha and Shreya study West of his (uncle’s) office. Kabir is the
Mechanical engineering. Diksha plays Billiards. friend of John and he stays 100 m East of
Both the Mechanical Engineering students play John’s house. The office of Kabir is located
chess. Tanvi is a student of Physics. The Physics 100 m South of his house. Then, how far
student plays Chess and Badminton. All the is his uncle’s house from Kabir’s office ?
friends play two games each and study one
subject each. One of the students also does
weight training. (A) 200 m (B) 300 m

1. Who studies Mechanical Engineering and (C) 400 m (D) 500 m

plays Billiards ?
(A) Diksha (B) Shreya
(C) Tanvi (D) Akriti
Direction (7-8) : What value should come in
place of the question mark ( ? ) in the series given
2. How many games are played and subjects
below ?
studied by all the four students ?
(A) 2, 1 (B) 3, 2
(C) 6, 3 (D) 5, 4
7. BEAG, DGCI, FIEK, ? .

3. Who does not play Chess ? (A) HMIE (B) HKGM

(A) Diksha (B) Shreya
(C) Tanvi (D) Akriti (C) HGKJ (D) HKLJ

4. In a certain code language, ‘493’ means

‘Friendship Big Challenge’, ‘961’ means 8. 128, 61, Y, 64, 63, S, 32, 65, N, 16, 67, J, 8,
‘Struggle Big Exam’ and ‘178’ means ‘Exam 69, G, ?, ?, ? :
Confidential Subject’. What does
‘Confidential’ stand for ? (A) 2, 70, J (B) 3, 70, E
(A) 7 or 8 (B) 7 or 9
(C) 8 (D) 8 or 1 (C) 4, 70, E (D) 4, 71, E

A/Page 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SA-CS

Direction (9-13) : Read the information given 12. Which subject succeeds Science ?
below and on the basis of the information, select (A) Psychology (B) Mechanics
the correct alternative for each question (9-13)
(C) Engineering (D) Sociology
given after the information.

A training college has to conduct a refresher 13. The refresher course will start with which
course for teachers of seven different subjects - one of the following subjects ?
Mechanics, Psychology, Philosophy, Sociology, (A) Psychology (B) Mechanics
Economics, Science and Engineering from (C) Economics (D) Sociology
November 22 to November 29.
Direction (14-18) : Read the information given
(i) Course should start with Psychology. below and on the basis of the information, select
(ii) November 23, being Sunday, should be a the correct alternative for each question (14-18)
holiday. given after the information.

(iii) Science subject should be on the previous There are six women, Shalini, Divya, Ritu,
day of the Engineering subject. Rashmi, Nisha and Renu in a family of 12
(iv) Course should end with Mechanics members. There are few married couples in the
subject. family and none of the grand children are
married. Sunil is married into the family. Rohan,
(v) Philosophy should be immediately after Mahesh and Jatin have a nephew Dipesh who
holiday. is the son of Rashmi. Ravi is the paternal
grandfather of Nisha. Ritu is the daughter-in-
(vi) There should be a gap of one day between
law of Shalini. Renu is the first cousin of Dipesh.
Economics and Engineering.
Shalini has only three grand children. Mahesh
(vii) There should be a gap of two days between has two brothers and only one sister Rashmi and
Sociology and Economics. a sister-in-law Divya. Dipesh's only unmarried
maternal uncle Jatin is the brother-in-law of
9. How many days’ gap is there between Sunil. Rohan is the paternal uncle of Nisha. Ritu
Science and Philosophy ? has two daughters one of whom is Nisha.

(A) 1 (B) 2 14. Which of the following is true ?

(C) 3 (D) No gap (A) Dipesh is Mahesh’s son.
(B) Ravi has only two married children.
(C) Ravi is the paternal grandfather of
10. Which subject will be on Tuesday ? Renu.
(A) Psychology (B) Mechanics (D) None of these.
(C) Economics (D) Sociology
15. Rashmi is __________.
(A) Mahesh’s wife
11. Which subject precedes Mechanics ?
(B) Renu’s aunt
(A) Psychology (B) Mechanics (C) Nisha’s Mother
(C) Economics (D) Sociology (D) None of these

A/Page 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SA-CS

16. Dipesh is __________. 20. Which of the following groups of friends
(A) Mahesh’s son is sitting to the right of G ?

(B) Ravi’s grand son (A) IBJA (B) ICHDF

(C) Rohan’s son (C) CHDF (D) CHDE
(D) Sunil’s nephew

21. Which of the following statements is true

17. Which one of the following is a married in the context of the above sitting
couple ? arrangement ?
(A) Rohan and Ritu
(A) There are three students sitting
(B) Shalini and Mahesh between D and G.
(C) Renu and Sunil (B) G and C are neighbors sitting to
(D) Mahesh and Ritu immediate right of H.
(C) B is sitting between J and I.
18. How many married couples are there in
(D) K is sitting between A and G.
the second generation ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4 22. The length, breadth and height of a cuboid
are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and its volume is
3840 cm3, The smallest side has a length
Direction (19-21) : Read the information given of :
below and on the basis of the information, select
the correct alternative for each question (19-21) (A) 12 cm (B) 20 cm
given after the information.
(C) 15 cm (D) 18 cm
(i) Eleven students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J
and K are sitting in a row of the class facing
23. The length, breadth and height of a room
the teacher.
are in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. If its volume be
(ii) D, who is to the immediate left to F, is 1296 m3, find its breadth.
second to the right of C.
(A) 12 m (B) 18 m
(iii) A, is the second to the right of E, who is at
one of the ends. (C) 16 m (D) 24 m
(iv) J is the immediate neighbor of A and B and
third to the left of G.
24. The LCM of two numbers is 45 times their
(v) H is to the immediate left of D and third to
HCF. One number is 125 and the sum of
the right of I.
their HCF and LCM is 1150. Find the
other number.
19. Who is sitting in the middle of the row ?
(A) C (B) I (A) 275 (B) 215

(C) B (D) G (C) 230 (D) 225

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25. The untimely loss of life is a cause of serious 30. Choose the most appropriate word from
global concern as thousands of people get the options given below to complete the
killed __________ accidents every year following sentence: He is __________
while many other die __________ diseases speaker, his discourses are always
like cardio vascular disease, cancer, etc. informative and inspirational.
(A) in, of (B) from, of (A) an eloquent
(C) during, from (D) from, from (B) an amateur
(C) a novice
26. If the numerator of a fraction is increased (D) an inarticulate
by 2 and the denominator is decreased by
1, then it becomes 2/3. If the numerator
is increased by 1 and the denominator is 31. Find the missing number :
increased by 2, then it becomes 1/3. Find
the fraction.
(A) 2/9 (B) 2/7
(C) 1/6 (D) 1/5
(A) 46 (B) 15
27. An aeroplane at an altitude of 3000 m (C) 55 (D) 32
observes the angles of depression of
opposite points on the two banks of a river
to be 458 and 608 respectively. Find the 32. How many eight letter words can be
width of the river in metre. formed from the letters of the word
“COURTESY” beginning with C and
(A) 4730 (B) 4430
ending with Y ?
(C) 4150 (D) 4650
(A) 120 (B) 256
(C) 720 (D) 750
28. Which of the following is true ?
(A) log17 275=log19 375
33. Find the wrong term in the series 5, 11,
(B) log17 275 > log19 375 29, 83, 245, 765, 2189, 6563 :
(C) log17 275 < log19 375
(A) 245 (B) 765
(D) None of these
(C) 2189 (D) 6563

29. In a company ABC Ltd. a certain number

of engineers can develop a design in 40 34. Out of 13 applicants for a job there are
days. If there were 5 more engineers, it 5 women and 8 men. Two persons are to
could be finished in 10 days less. How be selected for the job. Find the probability
many engineers were there in the that at least one of the selected persons will
beginning ? be a women.
(A) 18 (B) 20 (A) 25/39 (B) 10/21
(C) 25 (D) 15 (C) 14/27 (D) 12/51

A/Page 5 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SA-CS

35. Abha can do some work in 10 days, Billu 39. A certain sum of money amounts to ` 6600
can do it in 20 days and Chintu can do it in 4 years at a certain rate percent simple
in 40 days. They start working in turns interest. If the rate of interest be increased
with Abha starting to work on the first day by its 25%, the same sum would amount
followed by Billu on the second day and to ` 7000 during the same period. Find
by Chintu on the third day and again by the sum.
Abha on the fourth day and so on, till the
(A) ` 6000 (B) ` 5500
work is completed fully. Find the time
taken (approx.) to complete the work (C) ` 5000 (D) ` 7000
fully.

(A) 16 days (B) 15 days 40. Given below question has an idiomatic
expression followed by four options.
(C) 17 days (D) 20 days
Choose the one closest to its meaning :
“To smell a rat”

36. “The judge’s standing in the legal (A) science of plague epidemic
community, though shaken by false
(B) bad smell
allegations of wrongdoing, remained
__________.” The word that best fills the (C) suspect foul dealings
blank in the above sentence is :
(D) to be in a bad mood
(A) undiminished (B) damaged

(C) illegal (D) uncertain Direction (41-42) : The question below consists
of a pair of related words followed by four pairs
of words. Select the pair that best expresses the
relation in the original pair.
37. log (x+3)+log (x+5)=log 35, solve for
x:
41. INTIMATE : CLOSE
(A) 1 (B) 2 (A) evanescent : permanency
(C) 3 (D) 4 (B) articulate : speech
(C) enclose : parentheses
(D) obsessed : attracted
38. First bag contains 5 white and 4 black balls.
Second bag contains 7 white and 9 black
balls. A ball is transferred from the first
bag to the second bag and then a ball is 42. QUISLING : BETRAY
drawn from the second bag. Find the (A) appreciate : provoke
probability that the ball drawn is white.
(B) inception : termination
(A) 7/18 (B) 5/9
(C) juggernaut : crush
(C) 4/9 (D) 11/18 (D) obstinate : preserve

A/Page 6 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SA-CS

 PART - B 47. Elicitation of requirements is a _________.

TECHNICAL (A) SDLC Process

(B) Cyclic Process

43. In DPSK technique, the technique used to (C) SRS Process

encode bits is : (D) Development Process
(A) AMI
(B) Differential code
48. Which of the following problems is
(C) Unipolar RZ format undecidable ?
(D) Manchester format (A) Membership problem for CFGs.
(B) Ambiguity problem for CFGs.
44. If the CRC has Polynomial of degree n, (C) Finiteness problem for FSAs.
then what is the probability of detecting
errors greater then n ? (D) Equivalence problem for FSAs.

1 1
(A) n−1 (B) n+1
2 2 49. Let the predicates D(x, y) mean “team x
defeated team y” and P(x, y) mean “team
1 1 x has played team y”. The quantified
(C) n (D) n+2 formula for the statement that there is a
2 2
team that has beaten every team it has
played, is :
45. The DoS attack, in which the attacker (A) ∃x∀y (P(x, y) → D(x, y))
establishes a large number of half-open or
fully open TCP connections at the target (B) ∀x∃y (P(x, y) → D(x, y))
host is __________.
(C) ∀y∃x (P(x, y) → D(x, y))
(A) Vulnerability attack
(D) ∃x∀y (D(x, y) → P(x, y))
(B) Bandwidth flooding
(C) Connection flooding
50. One of the purposes of using intermediate
(D) UDP flooding code in compilers is to :
(A) make parsing and semantic analysis
46. In CSMA/CD after detecting the collision, simpler.
station immediately stops transmission by
sending the __________. (B) improve error recovery and error
reporting.
(A) Stop pattern
(C) increase the chances of reusing the
(B) Preamble pattern machine - independent code
(C) Jam signal optimizer in other compilers.

(D) Block signal (D) improve the register allocation.

A/Page 7 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SA-CS

51. With usual notations, the properties of 55. Which of the following is not a stable
maxima and minima under various sorting algorithm ?
conditions are __________. (A) Insertion sort
I II (B) Selection sort
(P) Maxima (i) rt−s2=0 (C) Bubble sort
(Q) Minima (ii) rt−s2 < 0 (D) Merge sort
(R) Saddle Point (iii) rt−s2 > 0, r > 0
(S) Case of failure (iv) rt−s2 > 0, r < 0 56. More than one word is put in one cache
(A) (P) - (i), (Q) - (iii), (R) - (iv), (S) - (ii) block to :
(B) (P) - (ii), (Q) - (i), (R) - (iii), (S) - (iv) (A) exploit the temporal locality of
(C) (P) - (iii), (Q) - (iv), (R) - (ii), (S) - (i) reference in a program.
(D) (P) - (iv), (Q) - (iii), (R) - (ii), (S) - (i) (B) exploit the spatial locality of
reference in a program.
52. The number of full and half-adders (C) reduce the miss penalty.
required to add 16-bit numbers is : (D) none of the option.
(A) 8 half-adders, 8 full-adders
(B) 1 half-adder, 15 full-adders 57. Total number of nodes at the nth level of a
(C) 16 half-adders, 0 full-adders full binary tree can be given as
__________.
(D) 4 half-adders, 12 full-adders
(A) 2n+1 (B) 2n 2
53. Energy of power signal is : (C) 2^n (D) 2n−1
(A) Finite (B) Zero
(C) Infinite (D) 1 58. Which one of them is a good software ?
(A) High cohesion Low coupling
54. Suppose a binary search tree has been (B) Low cohesion high coupling
constructed from the following sequence (C) High cohesion high coupling
of numbers in the order in which they (D) Low cohesion low coupling
arrive : 6, 2, 10, 1, 5, 7, 11, 3, 9, 4, 8.
Consider the following piece of code : 59. Given the two statements S1 and S2 for
Show(root) { if (root !=NULL) software engineering :
{ printf(“% d”, root → key); S1 : Statement coverage cannot
show (root → right); guarantee execution of loops in
show (root → left); program under test.
} S2 : Use of independent path testing
else criterion guarantees execution of
return ; each loop in a program under test
} more than once.
The sequence printed will be : Then which among the following is true ?
(A) 6, 11, 10, 7, 8, 9, 2, 4, 3, 5, 1 (A) S1 is True, S2 is True
(B) 6, 11, 7, 9, 8, 10, 2, 5, 1, 3, 4 (B) S1 is True, S2 is False
(C) 6, 10, 11, 7, 9, 8, 2, 5, 3, 4, 1 (C) S1 is False, S2 is True
(D) 6, 10, 2, 11, 7, 9, 8, 5, 3, 4, 1 (D) S1 is False, S2 is False

A/Page 8 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SA-CS

60. Consider the grammar with nonterminals 63. Consider the relations :
N={S, C, S1} terminals T={a, b, i, t, e} R1{Roll_no, Name, Grades} and
With S as the start symbol , and the
following set of rules : R2 {Roll_no, Subject_ID, Grades}
S → i Ct SS1|a Which of the following operations cannot
S1 → es |∈ be performed using the above relations ?
C→b (A) Union (B) Select
The grammar is not LL(1) because : (C) Join (D) Project
(A) It is left recursive
(B) It is right recursive
(C) It is ambiguous 64. Which of the following system calls results
in the sending of SYN packets ?
(D) It is not context free
(A) Socket (B) Bind
61. A binary sequence b[n] is given as shown (C) Listen (D) Connect
below b[n] =
{0, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0, 0,
0, 0, 1, 0, 1, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 0, 1} 65. When the left sub-tree of the tree is one
Consider the following statements level higher than that of the right sub-tree,
regarding the above coded sequence : then the balance factor is __________.
(i) It has a DC null in the PSD. (A) 0 (B) 1
(ii) It possesses error detecting (C) −1 (D) 2
capability.
(iii) It possesses error correcting
capability.
n
(iv) It facilitates clock recovery at the 66. Let C(n, r)= ( r ) . The value of
receiver.
Which of the above statements are true ? 20
∑ k = 0 (2k + 1) C(41, 2k + 1) , is :
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) (A) 40(2) 40 (B) 40(2) 39
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (C) 41(2) 40 (D) 41(2) 39
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

62. A demultiplexer is used to : 67. __________ is the most general phase

structured grammar.
(A) Route the data from single input to
one of many outputs. (A) Regular
(B) Perform serial to parallel conversion. (B) Context free
(C) Both (A) and (B).
(C) Context sensitive
(D) Select data from several inputs and
route it to single output. (D) All of the above

A/Page 9 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SA-CS

68. Equalization process includes : 73. Consider a system with page size p and
(A) maximum likelihood sequence average process size m and size of each
estimation and equalization with page table entry is e. What is the amount
filters of space required by page table ?

(B) maximum likelihood sequence (A) me/p (B) mp/e

estimation (C) mpe (D) pe/m
(C) equalization with filters
(D) constant impulse response
74. The recurrence relation for binary search
algorithm is :
69. If for the matrix A, A 3 =I then
(A) T(n)=2T(n/2)+O (1)
A −1 =__________.
(A) A2 (B) T(n)=2T(n/2)+O (n)
(B) A3 (C) T(n)=T(n/2)+O (1)
(C) A (D) T(n)=T(n/2)+O (n)
(D) None of these

75. The largest number of faces in a simple

70. Given the following characteristics : connected maximal planar graph with 100
(i) Optimal substructure vertices is :

(ii) Overlapping subproblems (A) 200 (B) 198

(iii) Memorization (C) 196 (D) 96
(iv) Decrease and conquer
Dynamic programming has the following 76. If T1 and T2 are two Turing machines.
characteristics : The composite can be represented using
(A) (i), (ii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iii) the expression :
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (iii), (iv) (A) T1T2
(B) T1 T2
71. Which NetWare protocol works on layer
(C) T1×T2
3-network layer of the OSI model ?
(A) IPX (B) NCP (D) None of the options
(C) SPX (D) NetBIOS
77. What is the main focus of Reverse
72. The time complexity of solving the Longest Engineering (RE) ?
Common Subsequence problem using (A) Data base structure
Dynamic Programming is : (m and n are
lengths of subsequences) (B) S/W file structure
(A) O(m.n) (B) O(m+n) (C) Memory
(C) O(log m.n) (D) O(m/n) (D) CPU Utilization

A/Page 10 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SA-CS

78. Consider a relation R with attributes 81. In a network, If P is the only packet being
{A, B, C} and functional dependency set transmitted and there was no earlier
S={A → B, A → C }. Then relation R can transmission, which of the following
be decomposed into two relations : delays could be zero ?
(A) Propagation delay
(A) R1{A, B} AND R2 {A, C}
(B) Queuing delay
(B) R1{ A, B} AND R2{ B, C} (C) Transmission delay
(C) R1{A, B, C} AND R2{A, C} (D) Processing delay

(D) None of the above

82. The postfix equivalent of the infix
expression (a+b)*(c*d - e)*f/g is :
(A) ab+cd*e - fg*/*
79. What happens when a bit string is XORed
(B) ab+cd*e - fg/**
with itself n times as shown below ?
(C) ab+cde* - fg/**
[ B ⊕ ( B ⊕ ( B ⊕ ( B ..........n times] (D) abcd+e*fg - /**
(A) Complements when n is even
83. Assume that P and NP are different i.e.
(B) Complements when n is odd P!=NP then for the expression
(C) Divides by 2
n
always NP-Complete P=? Which among the
following is correct ?
(D) Remains unchanged when n is even (A) NP-Hard
(B) ∅
(C) P
80. The Cyclomatic complexity of two modules (D) NP-Complete
A and B are 10 and 15 respectively :

84. Let f(A, B) = A + B , Simplified

expression for function f (f (x+y, y) , z) is :
(A) x+z
(B) xyz
What is the cyclomatic complexity of (C) xy+z
sequential integration of A and B ?
(D) None of the options

85. Worst case scenario in case of linear search

algorithm is __________.
(A) Item is somewhere in the middle of
the array
(B) Item is not in the array at all
(C) Item is the last element in the array
(A) 19 (B) 21
(D) Item is the last element in the array
(C) 24 (D) 25 or is not there at all

A/Page 11 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SA-CS

86. In the case of, Zero-address instruction 90. Let T(n) be the number of different binary
method the operands are stored search trees on n distinct elements-then
in __________. n
(A) Registers T(n)= ∑ T (K−1) T (x ) where x is :
k=1
(B) Accumulators
(C) Push down stack (A) n−k+1 (B) n−k
(D) Cache (C) n−k−1 (D) n−k−2

87. Consider the following statements :

91. Which open addressing technique is free
I - The primary key of a relation cannot from Clustering problems ?
contain null values.
(A) Linear probing
II - Unique Key can have null values.
(B) Quadratic probing
Which among the following is true ?
(C) Double hashing
(A) Both I and II are true
(B) Both I and II are false (D) Rehashing
(C) Only I is true
(D) Only II is true 92. Given a graph with n vertices, deciding if
there exists a clique of size / 195 is :

88. Let L = L 1 L 2 where L 1 and L 2 are (A) Solvable in polynomial time

language defined below : (B) NP
L1={ ambmc an bn ? m, n/0}
(C) NP-Complete
L2={ aibj ck ? i, j, k/0}
(D) None of the above
Then L is :
(A) Not Recursive
(B) Regular 93. To simulate a analog signal of frequency f,
bandwidth requirement of channel is :
(C) Context Free but not regular
(A) 2f (B) f
(D) Recursively enumerable but not
context free (C) f/2 (D) f/4

89. Which of the following step is not a part 94. A modulating signal m(t)=10cos
of the requirement engineering process ? (2π×103 t) is amplitude modulated with
(A) Feasibility Study a carrier signal c(t)=50cos(2π×10 5 t).
Assume R=1Ω. Find the carrier power
(B) Programming Language
required for transmitting this AM wave.
Requirement Specification
(C) Software Requirement Specification (A) 1000 W (B) 1250 W
(D) Requirement Gathering & Validation (C) 1100 W (D) 50 W

A/Page 12 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SA-CS

95. Which of the following Boolean algebra 100. An instance of relational schema
rules is correct ? R (A, B, C) has distinct values of A
including NULL values. Which one of the
(A) A. A = 1 following is true ?

(B) A+AB=A+B (A) A is a candidate key

(C) A(A+B)=B (B) A is not a candidate key
(D) A + AB = A + B (C) A is a primary Key

(D) Both (A) and (C)

96. If R and D are the radius and diameter of
the graph K 4, 7 , then the ordered pair
(R, D) is equal to :
101. In what manner is a state-space tree for a
(A) (2, 2) (B) (1, 2) backtracking algorithm constructed ?
(C) (2, 4) (D) (1, 3) (A) Breadth-first search

(B) Twice around the tree

97. For 8-ary signal or symbol the number of
likelihood functions are : (C) Depth-first search

(A) 16 (B) 8 (D) Nearest neighbour first

(C) 9 (D) 64

102. Which multiple access technique is used

98. What is the annual change in traffic of by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless
software with 1 million lines of code with LAN ?
30% lines added and 10% lines are
deleted ? (A) CDMA (B) CSMA/CA

(A) 0.25 (B) 0.15 (C) ALOHA (D) CSMA/CD

(C) 0.4 (D) 0.6

103. Which type of linked list stores the address

99. The covariance function of a band limited of the header node in the next field of the
white noise is : last node ?
(A) A Dirac delta function
(A) Singly linked list
(B) An exponentially decreasing
function (B) Circular linked list

(C) A sinc function (C) Doubly linked list

(D) A sinc2 function (D) Circular header linked list

A/Page 13 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SA-CS

104. Consider the following sequence of micro 107. Let X be uniform random variable on
operations : [0, 4] and Y be uniform random variable
on [0, 1]. If X and Y are independent, then
MBR ← PC
P(max {X, Y} > 3) is equal to :
MAR ← X (A) 1/4 (B) 1/2
PC ← Y (C) 1/8 (D) 1
MEMORY ← MBR
Which one of the following is possible 108. The Highest Lower Bound on the number
operation performed by this sequence ? of Comparisons in the worst case for
(A) Instruction Fetch comparison-based sorting order of :

(B) Operand Fetch (A) n (B) n2

(C) nlogn (D) n log2n
(C) Conditional Branch
(D) Initiation of interrupt service
109. Which one of the following cannot be
scheduled by the kernel ?
105. In an ER Diagram, a double ellipse is used (A) Kernel level thread
to represent :
(B) User level thread
(A) Simple Attribute
(C) Process
(B) Composite Attribute
(D) None of the option
(C) Descriptive Attribute
(D) Multi-valued Attribute
110. In VCO the output frequency is a linear
function of its input :
106. Consider the finite automata given (A) Frequency
below :
(B) Voltage
(C) Time period
(D) None of the option

111. A microprogrammed control unit :

The language b accepted by this automata
is given by the regular expression : (A) is faster than hardwired control unit

(A) b* a b * a b * a b * (B) allows easy implementation of new

instructions
(B) (a+b)*
(C) is useful when small programs are
(C) b*a (a+b)* to be run
(D) b* ab* ab* (D) none of the options

A/Page 14 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK SA-CS

112. The File Transfer Protocol is built on 117. Non leaf nodes of B+ tree structure form
__________. a:
(A) data centric architecture
(A) Multilevel sparse indices
(B) service-oriented architecture
(C) client server architecture (B) Multilevel dense indices
(D) connection-oriented architecture (C) Sparse indices
(D) Multilevel clustered indices
113. If a hash table is implemented as a search
tree, the expected time required to enter n
names and make m searches is
proportional to : xy
(A) (n+m) log2 n
118. ∫∫ dx dy Over the positive
1−y 2
(B) (n+m) log2 m
quadrant of the circle x 2 +y 2 =1 is
(C) mn log2 n __________.
(D) mn log2 m
1 2
(A) (B)
114. The real root of the equation x3−x−5=0 6 3
lying between 1 and 2 after first iteration
by Newton-Raphson method is ________, 5 5
(C) (D)
if initial approximation is taken as 6 3
x0=2e[1, 2] :
(A) 1.909 (B) 1.904
(C) 1.921 (D) 1.940 119. Which of the following Page Replacement
Algorithm suffers from the Belady’s
anomaly ?
115. Consider a system with three frames in
memory and following memory references (A) LRU
in the working set
2 1 2 3 5 4 1 3 4 2 1 (B) Optimal page Replacement
How many page fault will be there if we (C) FIFO
use second chance page replacement
algorithm ? (D) Both LRU and FIFO
(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 9 (D) 10
120. What is the main objective of ISO 9001 ?

116. The addressing mode/s, which uses the (A) Verification (B) Validation
PC instead of a general-purpose register
(C) S/W Testing (D) H/W Testing
is :
(A) Indexed with offset
(B) Relative -oOo-
(C) Direct
(D) Both Indexed with offset and direct

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