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C Group - Mechanical ENGG 2022 Scheme VTU Question With Model Papers for 1st Semester Till July 2024

This document is a model question paper for the First Semester B.E Degree Examination in Mathematics-I for Mechanical Engineering, effective from 2022 under the CBCS scheme. It includes various modules with questions covering topics such as polar curves, Maclaurin's series, differential equations, and matrix methods, along with Bloom's Taxonomy levels, course outcomes, and program outcomes. The paper requires students to answer any five full questions, ensuring at least one question from each module.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
10 views

C Group - Mechanical ENGG 2022 Scheme VTU Question With Model Papers for 1st Semester Till July 2024

This document is a model question paper for the First Semester B.E Degree Examination in Mathematics-I for Mechanical Engineering, effective from 2022 under the CBCS scheme. It includes various modules with questions covering topics such as polar curves, Maclaurin's series, differential equations, and matrix methods, along with Bloom's Taxonomy levels, course outcomes, and program outcomes. The paper requires students to answer any five full questions, ensuring at least one question from each module.

Uploaded by

Library Cit
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Model Question Paper-I with effect from2022(CBCS Scheme)

USN

First Semester B.E Degree Examination


Mathematics-I for Mechanical Engineering stream (22MATM11)
TIME: 03 Hours Max. Marks: 100
Note: Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing at least ONE question from each module.

Module -1 Marks
Q.01 a Find the angle of intersection of the curves 𝑟 = sin 𝜃 + cos 𝜃 and 𝑟 = 2 sin 𝜃 06
b Find the pedal equation of the curve 𝑟 2 = 𝑎2 𝑠𝑒𝑐2𝜃. 07
4 4
c Find the radius of curvature of the curve 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 2 𝑎𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑜𝑖𝑛𝑡 (1, 1) 07

OR
Q.02 a Derive the radius of curvature for polar curve 𝑟 = 𝑓(𝜃) in the form 06
(𝑟 2 +𝑟1 2 )3/2
𝜌=
𝑟 2 +2𝑟1 2 −𝑟𝑟2

b Find the angle between the radius vector and the tangent and also find the slope 07
of the tangent 𝑟 = 𝑎(1 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃) 𝑎𝑡 𝜃 = 𝜋/3.
c Find that the radius of curvature of 𝑎2 𝑦 = 𝑥 3 − 𝑎3 at the point where the 07
curves cut the X-axis.
Module-2
Q. 03 a Expand log 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 by Maclaurin’s series up to the term containing 𝑥6 06

b 𝑥 2 +𝑦 2 𝜕𝑧 𝜕𝑧 2 𝜕𝑧 𝜕𝑧 07
If 𝑧 = , show that (𝜕𝑥 − 𝜕𝑦) = 4 (1 − 𝜕𝑥 − 𝜕𝑦)
𝑥+𝑦

c 𝜕(𝑥,𝑦,𝑧) 07
If 𝑢 = 𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧, 𝑢𝑣 = 𝑦 + 𝑧 , 𝑢𝑣𝑤 = 𝑧, evaluate 𝜕(𝑢,𝑣,𝑤)

OR
Q.04 a sin 𝑥 1/𝑥 2 6
Evaluate (i) lim ( 𝑥
) (ii) lim (tan 𝑥)tan 𝑥
𝑥→0 𝑥→0

b 1 𝜕𝑢 1 𝜕𝑢 1 𝜕𝑢 07
If 𝑢 = 𝑓(𝑎𝑥 − 𝑏𝑦, 𝑏𝑦 − 𝑐𝑧, 𝑐𝑧 − 𝑎𝑥), show that 𝑎 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑏 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑐 𝜕𝑧 = 0
c Find the extreme values of 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑥 3 + 3𝑥 2 + 4𝑥𝑦 + 𝑦 2 07
Module-3
𝑑𝑦 2
Q. a Solve − 𝑦𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥 = 𝑦 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥 06
𝑑𝑥
05
b Water at temperature10°𝐶 takes 5 minutes to warm up to 20°𝐶 at room 07
temperature of 40°. Find the temperature of the water after 20 minutes.

c 𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑥 𝑥 𝑦 07
Solve 𝑑𝑥
− 𝑑𝑦 = 𝑦 − 𝑥

OR
Q. 06 a Solve(𝑦 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑦)𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥 − 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑦)𝑑𝑦 = 0 06
b Find the orthogonal trajectories of the family curve 𝑟 = 2𝑎(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃). 07

c Find the general and singular solutions of 𝑥𝑝2+ 𝑥𝑝−𝑦𝑝+1− 𝑦=0 07

Module-4
Q. 07 a Solve (𝐷3 − 6𝐷 + 11𝐷 − 6)𝑦 = 𝑒 2𝑥
2 06
b 𝑑2 𝑦 07
Solve 𝑑𝑥2 − 4𝑦 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝑥
c Solve by variation of parameters method (𝐷2 + 1)𝑦 = 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥 07

OR
Q. 08 2 2
a Solve (𝐷 + 𝐷 + 1)𝑦 = 𝑥 + 1 06
b Solve (𝐷 − 2)2 𝑦 = 8(𝑥 2 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥 + 𝑒 2𝑥 ) 07
c 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 07
Solve 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥

Module-5
Q. 09 a 1 2 3 1 06
2 1 −1 0
Find the rank of the matrix [ ]
3 3 2 1
2 4 6 2
b Solve the system of equations by using the Gauss elimination method 07
3𝑥 + 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 3,
2𝑥 − 3𝑦 − 𝑧 = −3,
𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 𝑧 = 4.
c Using the Gauss-Seidel iteration method, solve the equations 07
27𝑥 + 6𝑦 − 𝑧 = 85,
6𝑥 + 15𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 72,
𝑥 + 𝑦 + 54𝑧 = 110.
Carryout four iterations starting with the initial approximations (0, 0, 0)
OR
Q. 10 a Test for consistency and solve 06
5𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 7𝑧 = 4, 3𝑥 + 26𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 9, 7𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 10𝑧 = 5
b Using Gauss-Jordan method, solve 07
𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 11, 3𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 12, 2𝑥 + 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 3
c Find the largest eigenvalue and the corresponding eigenvector of 07
2 −1 0
[−1 2 −1] with the initial approximate eigenvector [1 0 0]𝑇 . Carry out 4
0 −1 2
iterations.
Table showing the Bloom’s Taxonomy Level, Course Outcome and Program Outcome
Question Bloom’s Taxonomy Course Program Outcome
Level attached Outcome
Q.1 (a) L1 CO 01 PO 01
(b) L2 CO 01 PO 01
(c) L3 CO 01 PO 02
Q.2 (a) L1 CO 01 PO 01
(b) L2 CO 01 PO 01
(c) L3 CO 01 PO 02
Q.3 (a) L2 CO 02 PO 01
(b) L2 CO 02 PO 01
(c) L3 CO 02 PO 02
Q.4 (a) L2 CO 02 PO 01
(b) L2 CO 02 PO 01
(c) L3 CO 02 PO 03
Q.5 (a) L2 CO 03 PO 02
(b) L3 CO 03 PO 03
(c) L2 CO 03 PO 01
Q.6 (a) L2 CO 03 PO 02
(b) L3 CO 03 PO 03
(c) L2 CO 03 PO 01
Q.7 (a) L2 CO 04 PO 02
(b) L2 CO 04 PO 02
(c) L2 CO 04 PO 02
Q.8 (a) L2 CO 04 PO 02
(b) L2 CO 04 PO 02
(c) L2 CO 04 PO 02
Q.9 (a) L2 CO 05 PO 01
(b) L3 CO 05 PO 01
(c) L3 CO 05 PO 02
Q.10 (a) L2 CO 05 PO 01
(b) L3 CO 05 PO 01
(c) L3 CO 05 PO 02

Lower order thinking skills


Bloom’s
Remembering Understanding Applying
Taxonom (Knowledge): L1 (Comprehension): L2
y Levels (Application): L3
Higher-order thinking skills
Analyzing (Analysis): L4 Valuating (Evaluation): L5 Creating (Synthesis): L6
Model Question Paper-2 with effect from 2022 (CBCS Scheme)
USN

First Semester B.E Degree Examination


Mathematics-I for Mechanical Engineering Stream (22MATM11)
TIME: 03 Hours Max. Marks: 100
Note: Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing at least ONE question from each MODULE.

Module -1 Marks
Q.01 a Find the angle between the polar curves r  a 1  cos   and r  a cos 22 2 06

b 1 1 1  dr 
2 07
Prove with usual notations  2  4 
p 2
r r  d 
c Find the radius of curvature for the curve 07
1
𝑦 = 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 at 𝑥 = 2𝑎 (√𝑎2 − 1 − 𝑏).

OR
Q.02 a Show that the pedal equation for the curve r m  a m cos m is p a m  r m 1 06

b Derive the radius of curvature in Cartesian form. 07

c Show that for the curve 𝑟 = 𝑎(1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃) is


𝜌2
= constant. 07
𝑟

Module-2
Q. 03 a Expand 𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
up to the terms containing fourth degree using Maclaurin’s series. 06

b u u u 07
If u  f  x  y, y  z, z  x  show that   0
x y z
c Find the extreme values of the function f ( x, y )  x 3  3 xy 2  15 x 2  15 y 2  72 x 07

OR
Q.04 a 1 06
 ax  bx  cx  d x  x

Evaluate lit  
x 0  4 
 
b Find the total derivative 𝑑𝑢 for u  x y 2  x 2 y ; x  at ; y  2at 07
𝑑𝑥

c 07
 u , v, w
If u  x  y  z ,
2 2 2
v  x y yz zx, w  x  y  z find
  x, y , z 
Module-3
Q. 05 a dy 06
Solve  x sin 2 y  x 3 cos 2 y
dx
b Solve x 3  y 3  6 x  dx  x y 2  dy  0 07

c Find the orthogonal trajectories of cardioid r  a 1  cos   07

OR
Q. 06 a Solve 𝑑𝑦 𝑦𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦+𝑦 06
+ =0
𝑑𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥+𝑥𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑦+𝑥

b A body is heated to 110  C and placed in air at 10  C. After an hour its temperature 07
becomes 60  C. How much additional time is required for it to cool to 30  C.
c Find the general solution of x 2  y  px   p 2 y by reducing it to Clairaut’s form 07

using the substitution X  x 2 , Y  y 2 .


Module-4
Q. 07 a Solve [𝐷4 − 4𝐷3 + 8𝐷2 − 8𝐷 + 4]𝑦 = 0. 06

b Solve [𝐷2 − 6𝐷 + 9]𝑦 = 6𝑒 3𝑥 + 7𝑒 −2𝑥 − 𝑙𝑜𝑔2 07

c 𝑑2 𝑦 2 07
Solve by the method of variation of parameter 𝑑𝑥 2 − 𝑦 = 1+𝑒 𝑥

OR
Q. 08 a Solve (𝐷 3 − 3𝐷 2 + 3𝐷 − 1)𝑦 = 0 06

b Solve [𝐷3 + 2𝐷2 + 𝐷]𝑦 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥 07

c 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 07
Solve (2𝑥 + 3)2 − (2𝑥 + 3) − 12𝑦 = 6𝑥
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥

Module-5
Q. 09 a 0 1  3  1 06
1 0 1 1 
Find the rank of the matrix A  
3 1 0 2
 
1 1  2 0 
b Solve the system of equations by Gauss-Jordan method 07
x  y  z  8 ;  x  y  2 z  4 ; 3 x  5 y  7  14
c Using Rayleigh’s power method find the dominant eigenvalue and the 07
25 1 2 
corresponding eigenvector of A   1 3 0  by taking 1, 0, 0 T as initial
 2 0  4
eigenvector by carrying out 6 iterations.
OR
Q. 10 a 06
1 2 4 3 
2 4 6 8 
Find the rank of the matrix A   
4 8 12 16 
 
1 2 3 4 
b Investigate the value of  and  so that the equations 07
2 x  3 y  5z  9 , 7 x  3 y  2 z  8 , 2 x  3 y   z   may have
i) unique solution ii) many solution iii) no solution.
c Solve the system of equations using Gauss-Seidel method by taking (0, 0, 0) as an 07
initial approximate root.
5𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 𝑧 = 12
𝑥 + 4𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 15
𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 5𝑧 = 20
Table showing the Bloom’s Taxonomy Level, Course Outcome and Program Outcome

Question Bloom’s Taxonomy Course Program Outcome


Level attached Outcome
Q.1 (a) L1 CO 01 PO 01
(b) L2 CO 01 PO 01
(c) L3 CO 01 PO 02
Q.2 (a) L1 CO 01 PO 01
(b) L2 CO 01 PO 01
(c) L3 CO 01 PO 02
Q.3 (a) L2 CO 02 PO 01
(b) L2 CO 02 PO 01
(c) L3 CO 02 PO 02
Q.4 (a) L2 CO 02 PO 01
(b) L2 CO 02 PO 01
(c) L3 CO 02 PO 03
Q.5 (a) L2 CO 03 PO 01
(b) L3 CO 03 PO 02
(c) L2 CO 03 PO 01
Q.6 (a) L2 CO 03 PO 01
(b) L3 CO 03 PO 02
(c) L2 CO 03 PO 01
Q.7 (a) L2 CO 04 PO 01
(b) L2 CO 04 PO 01
(c) L2 CO 04 PO 02
Q.8 (a) L2 CO 04 PO 01
(b) L2 CO 04 PO 01
(c) L2 CO 04 PO 02
Q.9 (a) L2 CO 05 PO 01
(b) L3 CO 05 PO 01
(c) L3 CO 05 PO 02
Q.10 (a) L2 CO 05 PO 01
(b) L3 CO 05 PO 01
(c) L3 CO 05 PO 02

Lower order thinking skills


Bloom’s Remembering Understanding Applying
Taxonom (knowledge):L1 (Comprehension): L2 (Application): L3
y Levels Higher order thinking skills
Analyzing (Analysis):L4 Valuating (Evaluation): L5 Creating (Synthesis): L6
pm
USN BCHEM102/202

First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

3
:1
Applied Chemistry for ME Stream

0
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

:3
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.
2. VTU Formula Hand Book is permitted.

H
01
3. M : Marks , L: Bloom’s level , C: Course outcomes.

-M
Module – 1 M L C

3
Q.1 a. Organize the determination of calorific value of a solid fuel using Bomb 7 L2 CO1

H
02
Calorimeter.

-M
b. Sketch and explain the construction and working of photovoltaic cells and 6 L2 CO1
-2
define solar cell.

H
09
c. 0.75 g of coal sample (carbon 90%, H2 5% and 5% ash) was subjected to 7 L3 CO1

-M
combustion in bomb calorimeter. Mass of water taken in calorimeter was
7-

2.5 kg and the water equivalent of calorimeter is 0.65 kg. The rise in
temperature was found to be 3.2C. Calculate higher and lower calorific
H
-2

values of the sample. Latent heat of steam = 2457 kJ/kg and specific heat of
-M
water = 4.187 kJ/kg/C.
U

OR
VT

Q.2 a.
m
Describe the construction and working of methanol oxygen fuel cell and its 7 L2 CO1
-M

applications.
2p
b. Write notes on: (i) Power alcohol (ii) Bio-diesel 6 L2 CO1

H
c. Illustrate the production of hydrogen by electrolysis of water. 7 L2 CO1
H

:4

Module – 2 -M
-M

Q.3 a. Define corrosion. Describe the electrochemical theory of corrosion taking 7 L2 CO2
32

rusting of iron as an example.


H
H

b. Explain: (i) Water line corrosion (ii) Pitting corrosion 6 L2 CO2


-M
:
01
-M

c. What is electroless plating? Explain electroless of Nickel. 7 L2 CO2


OR
H

Q.4 a. What is meant by metal finishing? Mention (any five) technological 6 L2 CO2
23
H

-M

importance of metal finishing.


-M

b. Explain the process of (i) Galvanizing (ii) Anodizing of Al. 7 L2 CO2


20

c. What is electroplating? Explain electroplating of chromium. Mention why 7 L2 CO2


H

-M

chromium cannot be used as anode.


9-
M

Module – 3
-0

Q.5 a. Illustrate about the number average and weight average molecular weight. 6 L3 CO3
H

b. Organize the properties and applications of lubricants. 7 L2 CO3


27

-M

c. Organize the synthesis, properties and applications of polystyrene. 7 L2 CO3


OR
H

Q.6 a. Organize the synthesis, properties and applications of Kevlar. 6 L2 CO3


-M

b. Illustrate the synthesis, properties and applications of polyester. 7 L2 CO3


c. Organize the synthesis, properties and applications of PMMA. 7 L2 CO3
Module – 4
H

Q.7 a. Sketch and explain the optical sensor (colorimetry) and write its 7 L2 CO4
-M

applications.
b. Organize the instrumentation of potentiometric sensor and its application in 6 L2 CO4
H

the estimation of iron.


Explain the concept of phase, components, degree of freedom, phase rule 7 L2 CO4
-M

c.
equation.
1 of 2
H
M
BCHEM102/202

pm
OR
Q.8 a. Explain along with diagram Lead-Silver two component system. 7 L2 CO4

3
b. Explain the principle, instrumentation and working of pH sensor (Glass 7 L2 CO4

:1
electrode).
c. Organize the pH sensors applications in the determination of pH of 6 L2 CO4

0
beverages.

:3
Module – 5

H
01
Q.9 a. Explain the properties and applications of carbon nanotubes and graphene. 6 L2 CO5

-M
b. Define alloys. Explain the composition along with properties of AlNiCo. 7 L2 CO5
c. Explain the chemical composition, properties and applications of 7 L2 CO5

3
perovekites.

H
02
OR

-M
Q.10 a. Explain the synthesis of nanomaterials by sol-gel method.
-2 7 L2 CO5
b. Explain size dependant properties of nanomaterials with respect to surface 6 L2 CO5

H
09
area, catalytical and thermal.

-M
c. Define Alloys. Explain the composition along with properties of Brass. 7 L2 CO5
7-


H
-2

-M
U
VT

m
-M

2p

H
H

:4

-M
-M

32

H
H

-M
:
01
-M

H
23
H

-M
-M

20

H
H

-M
9-
M

-0

H
27

-M
H
-M
H
-M
H
-M

2 of 2
H
M
Model Question Paper-I with effect from 2022

First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination ______________


Chemistry for Mechanical Engineering& Allied Stream (BCHEM102/202)
TIME: 03 Hours Max.Marks: 100
Note
1: Answer FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module
2: VTU Formula Hand Book is permitted.
3: M – Marks, L – Bloom’s Level, C – Course Outcomes

M L C
MODULE 1
What are chemical fuels? Explain about the determination of
a 7 L2 CO1
calorific value of fuel using Bomb calorimeter.
0.945g of a fuel on complete combustion in excess of oxygen
increased temperature of water in a calorimeter from 13.25° C
1 b 7 L3 CO1
to 19.2° C.The mass of water in calorimeter was 1458 g.
Calculate GCV if water equivalent of calorimeter is 144g.
Explain construction, working of Lithium –ion battery along
c 6 L2 CO1
with its applications.
OR
Explain the production of hydrogen by electrolysis method,
a 6 L2 CO1
and mention its advantages.
Explain construction, working of photovoltaic cell along with
2 b 7 L2 CO1
its advantages.
Explain construction, working of Methanol-oxygen fuel cell
c 7 L2 CO1
with acid electrolyte
MODULE 2
Define metallic corrosion? Describe the electrochemical
a 7 L2 CO2
theory of corrosion taking iron as an example.
3 Explain: (i) Differential metal corrosion & (ii) Water-line
b 6 L3 CO2
corrosion
c Describe galvanizing and mention its applications. 7 L2 CO2
OR
What is CPR? A thick brass sheet of area 400 inch2 is
exposed to moist air. After 2 years of period, it was found to
a 6 L3 CO2
experience a weight loss 375 g due to corrosion. If the density
4 of brass is 8.73 g/cm3. Calculate CPR in mpy and mmpy.
What is metal finishing? Mention any five of its
b 7 L2 CO2
technological importance.
c Mention any four properties and applications of QLED 7 L2 CO2
MODULE 3
Explain the synthesis of Polyvinylchloride and mention its
a 7 L2 CO3
applications
5
A polydisperse sample of polystyrene is prepared by mixing
b 6 L3 CO3
three monodisperse samples in the following proportions. 1g
Model Question Paper-I with effect from 2022

of 10000 molecular weight, 2g of 50000 molecular weight


and 2g of 100000 molecular weight. Determine number
average and weight average molecular weight.
c Explain the synthesis of Teflon and mention its applications 7 L2 CO3
OR
Explain the synthesis of Polystyrene and mention its
a 6 L2 CO3
applications
6 Explain the Condensation method of polymerisation with an
b 7 L3 CO3
eaxmple
c Describe properties and application of Lubricants 7 L2 CO3
MODULE 4
a Define phase,components& degree of freedom 7 L2 CO4
Explain the principle, instrumentation and working of
b 7 L2 CO4
7 potentiometric sensor.
Explain the process of estimation of copper in industrial
c 6 L3 CO4
waste by using optical sensor
OR
Explain along with diagram Lead-silver two component
a 7 L2 CO4
system
Explain the principle, instrumentation and working of Glass
8 b 7 L2 CO4
electrode.
Explain the principle, instrumentation and working of
c 6 L2 CO4
colorimetry.
MODULE 5
Define Alloys. Explain the composition along with properties
a 7 L2 CO5
of Brass.
9 b Explain the synthesis of Nanomaterials by Sol-gel method 7 L2 CO5
Explain Size dependant properties of nanomaterials with
c 6 L2 CO5
respect to surface area,catalyical and thermal.
OR
Define Alloys. Explain the composition along with properties
a 7 L3 CO5
of AlNiCo.
Explain the chemical composition, properties and
10 b 6 L2 CO5
applications of perovskites.
Explain the properties and applications of carbon nanotubes
c 7 L2 CO5
and graphene
CBCS 2022 – SCHEME

m
BCEDK103/203

8a
USN

:3
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, Dec.2023/Jan.2024

2
COMPUTER AIDED ENGINEERING DRAWING

:3
08

C
Time: 3 Hours (COMMON TO ALL BRANCHES) Max.Marks:100

-V
Note: 1. Answer all four full question.

4
2. Grid sheets may be provided for making preparatory sketches.

02

C
Module – 1

-V
Q. No. -2 Marks
A rectangular plate of negligible thickness of size 35x20 mm has one of its shorter

C
02

1 edges in HP with that edge inclined at 40° to VP. Draw the front view, if its top 20

-V
6-

view is a square of side 20 mm.


C
Module – 2
-2

-V
A pentagonal pyramid 25 mm sides of base and 60 mm axis length rests on HP on
U

one of the edges of the base which is inclined to VP at 300. Draw the projections of 30
VT

2
C

am
the pyramid when the axis is inclined to HP at 400.
-V

Module – 3
03

C
C

A cone of base diameter 50 mm and height 40 mm is placed centrally on the top face
-V
-V

7:

3 of a square slab side-80 mm and height 20 mm. Draw the isometric projection of the 25
:4

combination.
C

-V
08
-V

Module - 4
Draw the development of the lateral surface of a funnel consisting of a cylinder and a
C
4
C

frustum of a cone. The diameter of the cylinder is 20 mm and the top face diameter
-V
02
-V

4 25
of the funnel is 80 mm. the height of the frustum and cylinders are equal to 60 mm
-2

and 40 mm respectively.
VC

-V
2
-0

C
26

-V
C
-V
C
-V

Examiner 1: Examiner 2:
Name: Name:
C

Signature: Signature:
-V
VC
CBCS 2022 – SCHEME

m
BCEDK103/203

6a
USN

:3
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, Dec.2023/Jan.2024

2
COMPUTER AIDED ENGINEERING DRAWING

:0
11

C
Time: 3 Hours (COMMON TO ALL BRANCHES) Max.Marks:100

-V
Note: 1. Answer all four full question.

4
2. Grid sheets may be provided for making preparatory sketches.

02

C
Module – 1

-V
Q. No. -2 Marks
A hexagonal lamina of sides 25 mm rests on one of its sides on HP. The lamina

C
02

1 makes 450 to HP and the side on which it rests makes 300 to VP. Draw its 20

-V
4-

projections.
C
Module – 2
-2

-V
A pentagonal pyramid 25 mm sides of base and 50 mm axis length rests on HP on
U

one of its slant edges. Draw the projections of the pyramid when the axis is inclined 30
VT

2
C

to VP at 450.
am
-V

Module – 3
53

C
C

A triangular pyramid base side-40 mm and height 50 mm is placed centrally on a


-V
-V

9:

3 square slab side-80 mm and 20mm-thickness. Draw the isometric projection of the 25
:1

combination.
C

-V
11
-V

Module - 4
Draw the development of the truncated portion of the lateral faces of a pentagonal
C
4
C

prism of 20 mm sides of base and 50 mm axis length with one of its rectangular
-V
02
-V

4 faces parallel and nearer to VP so as to produce a one piece development. The 25


-2

0
inclined face of the truncated prism is 30 to its axis and passes through the right
VC

-V
2

extreme corner of the top face of the prism.


-0

C
24

-V
C
-V
C
-V

Examiner 1: Examiner 2:
Name: Name:
C

Signature: Signature:
-V
VC
CBCS 2022 – SCHEME

m
BCEDK103/203

9a
USN

:0
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, Dec.2023/Jan.2024

3
COMPUTER AIDED ENGINEERING DRAWING

:4
08

C
Time: 3 Hours (COMMON TO ALL BRANCHES) Max.Marks:100

-V
Note: 1. Answer all four full question.

4
2. Grid sheets may be provided for making preparatory sketches.

02

C
Module – 1

-V
Q. No. -2 Marks
Draw the projections of the following Points on the same XY line, keeping

C
02
convenient distance between each projectors. Name the Quadrants in which they lie.

-V
4-

 A - 30 mm above HP & 35 mm in front of VP.


1a 8
 B - 35 mm above HP & 40 mm behind VP.
C
-2

-V
 C - 40 mm above HP & on VP.
U

 D - 35 mm below HP & 30 mm in front of VP.


VT

am
A line AB 80 mm long has its end A 20 mm above the HP and 30 mm in front of
-V

1b VP. It is inclined at 30° to HPand45° to VP. Draw the projections of the line and find 12
40

C
C

apparent lengths and apparent inclinations. -V


-V

5:

Module – 2
:4

A Square pyramid 35 mm sides of base and 65 mm axis length rests on HP on one of


C

-V

its edges of the base which is inclined to VP at 300. Draw the projections of the
08

30
-V

2
pyramid when the axis is inclined to HP at 450.
C
4
C

Module – 3
-V
02
-V

A hemisphere of 40 mm diameter is supported co-axially on the vertex of a cone of


-2

base diameter 60 mm and axis length 50 mm. The flat circular face of hemisphere is 25
VC

3
-V
2

facing upside. Draw the isometric projection of the combination of solids.


-0

Module - 4
C
24

-V

A square prism of base sides 30 mm and axis length 60 mm is resting on HP with all
the vertical faces equally inclined to VP. It is cut by an inclined plane 60 0 to HP and
25
C

4
perpendicular to VP and is passing through a point on the axis at a distance of 50
-V

mm from the base. Obtain the development for the truncated portion of the solid.
C
-V

Examiner 1: Examiner 2:
Name: Name:
C

Signature: Signature:
-V
VC
pm
USN BESCKA204/BESCK204A

Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

7
:1
Introduction to Civil Engineering

3
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

:2
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.

01

C
2. VTU Formula Hand Book is permitted.

-V
3. M : Marks , L: Bloom’s level , C: Course outcomes.

3
Module – 1 M L C

02

C
Q.1 a. Briefly explain any 4 branches of Civil Engineering. 10 L1 CO1

-V
-2
b. What is RCC? Explain its advantages and disadvantages. 10 L1 CO1

C
10
OR

-V
Q.2 a. Explain the classification of bricks. Also mention the properties of good 10 L1 CO1
3-

bricks.
C
-0

b. What is PSC? Explain its advantages and disadvantages. 10 L1 CO1


-V
U

Module – 2
VT

Q.3 a. What are the major sustainable development goals Enumerate few? 10 L1 CO2
m
-V

0p
b. Define solid waste management. Explain its importance. 10 L1 CO2

C
C

:2

OR -V
-V

Q.4 a. Write a note on smart city concept. Explain the core elements of smart city 10 L1 CO2
46

infrastructure.
C
C

-V

b. Explain the measures taken to control air pollution. 10 L1 CO2


01
-V

Module – 3
C
23

Q.5 a. Define: 5 L4 CO4


C

-V

i) Resolution and composition of forces.


-V

ii) Principle of superposition and principle of transmissibility of forces.


20

C
VC

b. State and prove Lami’s theorem. 5 L2 CO3


0-

-V

c. Find the equilibrium of forces with respect to point ‘A’ for given system of 10 L3 CO3
-1

forces in Fig.Q.5(c).
03

-V
C
-V
C
-V

Fig.Q.5(c)
C
-V

1 of 3
VC
BESCKA204/BESCK204A

OR

pm
Q.6 a. State and prove Varignon’s theorem of moments. 5 L2 CO3

7
b. Find the tension forces in the given strings. Also find W1 in Fig.Q.6(b). 7 L3 CO3

3 :1
:2
01

C
-V
3
02

C
-V
-2 Fig.Q.6(b)

C
10
c. Find the resultant magnitude and direction with respect to point ‘0’ in 8 L3 CO3

-V
Fig.Q6(c).
3-

C
-0

-V
U
VT

m
-V

0p

C
C

:2

-V
-V

Fig.Q.6(c)
46

Module – 4
C

-V

Q.7 a. State and prove parallel axis theorem. 5 L2 CO4


01
-V

b. Find the centroid of a triangle using first principle. 7 L3 CO4


C
23
C

-V

Locate the centroid for the given shaded area in Fig.Q.7(c).


-V

c. 8 L3 CO4
20

C
VC

0-

-V
-1

C
03

-V

Fig.Q.7(c)
C
-V

OR
Q.8 a. Define centroid and polar moment of inertia. 4 L1 CO4
C

b. Define: 4 L1 CO4
-V

i) Perpendicular axis theorem.


ii) Radius of gyration.
C
-V

2 of 3
VC
BESCKA204/BESCK204A

pm
c. Locate the centroid for the given ‘C’ section in Fig.Q.8(c). 12 L3 CO4

7
3 :1
:2
01

C
-V
3
02

C
-V
-2 Fig.Q.8(c)

C
10
Module – 5

-V
Q.9 a. Find the moment of inertia of a circle along its centroidal axis. (IXX and 10 L2 CO5
IYY).
3-

C
-0

b. Find the polar radius of gyration for the area shown in Fig.Q.9(b). 10 L3 CO5
-V
U
VT

m
-V

0p

C
C

:2

-V
-V

46

Fig.Q.9(b)
C

-V
01
-V

OR
Q.10 a. Derive an expression for moment of inertia of a quarter circle with 10 L3 CO5
C
23
C

radius ‘R’.
-V
-V

20

b. Determine the moment of inertia in Fig.Q.10(b) about horizontal centroidal 10 L3 CO5


C

axis for the shaded area. Also find the radius of gyration. Take R1 = 50mm
VC

0-

-V

and R2 = 20mm.
-1

C
03

-V
C
-V
C
-V

Fig.Q.10(b)
C

*****
-V

3 of 3
VC
pm
USN BESCK104A/BESCKA104

First Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, Jan./Feb. 2023

1
:3
Introduction to Civil Engineering

6
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

:1
Note: 1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing ONE full question from each module.

H
01
2. M : Marks , L: Bloom’s level , C: Course outcomes.

-M
Module – 1 M L C

3
Q.1 a. Explain briefly civil engineering disciplines. 10 L1 CO1

H
02

-M
b. List the qualities of good building stone. 10 L1 CO1
-2
OR

H
05
Q.2 a. Explain the following: 10 L1 CO1

-M
(i) Reinforced Cement Concrete (RCC)
4-

(ii) Pre-Stressed Concrete (PSC)


(iii) Construction Chemicals H
-0

-M
U

b. Explain different types of foundations, briefly. 10 L1 CO1


VT

Module – 2
m
-M

Q.3 a. Explain concept of (i) Smart city (ii) Clean city 10 L1 CO2
0p

H
b. Explain management of (i) Urban air pollution (ii) Solid waste 10 L1 CO2
H

:3

-M
-M

OR
31

Q.4 a. Explain: (i) Energy Efficient Buildings 10 L1 CO2


H

(ii) Temperature Control in Buildings


H

-M
:
01
-M

b. Explain: (i) Security System (ii) Smart Buildings 10 L1 CO2


H
23
H

Module – 3
-M
-M

Q.5 a. Explain classification of force system with neat sketches. 10 L1 CO3


20

b. Determine magnitude and direction of “P” for the system shown in 10 L3 CO3
H
H

Fig.Q5(b). Four coplanar forces acting at a point. One of the forces is


-M
5-
M

unknown. The resultant has a magnitude of 500 N and is acting along


-0

x-axis.
H
04

-M
H
-M
H
-M
H

Fig.Q5(b)
-M

1 of 3
H
M
BESCK104A/BESCKA104

pm
OR
Q.6 a. State and prove Varignon’s theorem of moments. 10 L3 CO3

1
:3
b. Find the magnitude, direction and position of the resultant force with 10 L3 CO3
respect to point ‘A’ as shown in Fig.Q6(b).

6
:1

H
01

-M
3

H
02

-M
-2

H
05
Fig.Q6(b)

-M
4-

Module – 4
a. Explain the following terms: H
-0

Q.7 10 L1 CO4
-M
(i) Centroid (ii) Axis of symmetry (iii) Axis of reference
U

(iv) Centroidial axis (v) Centre of gravity


VT

b. Determine the centroid of the Fig.Q7(b) shown below: m 10 L1 CO4


-M

0p

H
H

:3

-M
-M

31

H
H

-M
:
01
-M

H
23
H

-M
-M

Fig.Q7(b)
20

H
H

OR
-M
5-
M

4R 10 L1 CO4
Q.8 a. Prove that for a semicircle Y  .
-0

3
H
04

-M

b. Determine the centroid of area shown in Fig.Q8(b). 10 L1 CO4


H
-M
H
-M
H

Fig.Q8(b)
-M

2 of 3
H
M
BESCK104A/BESCKA104

pm
Module – 5
Q.9 a. State and prove parallel axis theorem. 10 L1 CO5

1
:3
b. Determine moment of inertia about horizontal centroidal axis for the 10 L2 CO5
Fig.Q9(b).

6
:1

H
01

-M
3

H
02

-M
-2

H
05

-M
Fig.Q9(b)
4-

OR
H
-0

Q.10 a. Derive the moment of inertia equation for a rectangle. 10 L1 CO5


-M
U

b. Determine the moment of inertia of the section shown in Fig.Q10(b) with 10 L2 CO5
VT

respect to horizontal to horizontal centroidal axis (Ixx).


m
-M

0p

H
H

:3

-M
-M

31

H
H

-M
:
01
-M

H
23
H

-M
-M

20

H
H

Fig.Q10(b)
-M
5-
M

-0


H
04

-M
H
-M
H
-M
H
-M

3 of 3
H
M
Model Question Paper-I with effect from 2022

First Semester B.E Degree Examination______________


Introduction to Civil Engineering (BESCK104A)
TIME: 03Hours Max.Marks:100
NOTES:
1. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing at least ONE question from each
MODULE.
2. VTU Formula Hand Book is permitted.
3. M – Marks, L – Bloom’s Level, C – Course Outcomes
Q No. Module - 1 M L C
Explain scope of the following branches of Civil Engineering Disciplines
Q.1 a i) Structural Engineering 10 L2 CO1
ii) Construction Planning and Project Management
Explain the following building materials along with their application in
b construction 10 L2 CO1
i) Cement Mortar
ii) Pre-Stressed Concrete
OR
Explain scope of the following branches of Civil Engineering Disciplines
Q.2 a i) Environmental Engineering 10 L2 CO1
ii) Hydraulics and Water Resource Engineering
Explain the following structural elements of a building with their
b 10 L2 CO1
functions
i) Masonry Wall
ii) Staircase
Module – 2
Q.3 a Define Sustainable Development Goals. List and explain the various 10 L2 CO2
goals of sustainable development set by United Nations.
Explain the causes of Urban Floods. List the remedial measures to
b 10 L2 CO2
control urban floods.
OR
Q.4 a Explain different methods to manage the solid waste in Urban Areas. 10 L2 CO2
Explain the methods to control sound and temperature to create a
b 10 L2 CO2
conducive atmosphere in a building.
Module – 3
Q.5 a State and Prove Parallelogram Law of Forces. 10 L2 CO3
b Determine the resultant of a given system of force Fig.5(b) about point A 10 L3 CO3
Model Question Paper-I with effect from 2022

Fig. 5(b)
OR
Q.6 a Explain the basic idealizations in Engineering mechanics. 10 L2 CO3
Two cylinders are placed in a ditch as shown in Fig.6(b) Determine the
b reactions at all the contact surfaces (A, B, C, D). 10 L3 CO3
Radius Weight
Cylinder 1 100 mm 2000 N
Cylinder 2 50 mm 800 N

Fig.6(b)
Module – 4
Q.7 a Derive an expression to locate the centroid of a semicircle. 8 L2 CO4
Determine the centroid of the shaded region shown in Fig.7(b) about x
b and y axis. 12 L3 CO4

Fig.7(b)
OR
Q.8 a Derive an expression to locate the centroid of a rectangle. 8 L2 CO4
Model Question Paper-I with effect from 2022

Determine the centroid of the shaded region shown in Fig.8(b) about x


b and y axis. 12 L3 CO4

Fig.8(b)
Module – 5
Q.9 a Derive an expression to locate the moment of inertia of a Triangle. 8 L2 CO5
Determine the moment of inertia of the shaded region shown in Fig.9(b)
b about reference x and y axis. 12 L3 CO5

Fig.9(b)
OR
Q.10 a Derive an expression to locate the moment of inertia of a circle. 8 L2 CO5
Determine the polar moment of inertia of the shaded region shown in
b Fig.10(b) 12 L3 CO5

Fig.10(b)
22ETC15H/25H

Model Question Paper-I/II with effect from 2022-23 (CBCS Scheme)

USN

First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination


Introduction to Internet of Things (IOT)

TIME: 03 Hours Max. Marks: 100

Note: 01. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing at least ONE question from each MODULE.

*Bloom’s
Module -1 Taxonomy Marks
Level
Q.01 a Name the four broad categories of computer network based on L1 8
reachability and explain them briefly.
b Differentiate between IoT and M2M. L1 6
c With a neat diagram explain the network communication between two 6
hosts following the OSI model. L1
OR
Q.02 a What is IoT? Write the characteristics of IoT System. L1 5
s b With a neat diagram explain the inter dependency technology for IoT L2 10
Planes.
c With a neat diagram explain Internet protocol suite. L1 5
Module-2
Q. 03 a With a neat diagram explain the working mechanism of actuator. L1 6

b Explain the types of actuators. L1 8


c Define sensor and explain the characteristics of sensor. L2 6
OR
Q.04 a List and explain the characteristics of Actuators. L2 8
b Explain the major factors influence the choice of sensors in IoT-based L1 8
sensing solutions.
c With a neat diagram explain scalar and Multimedia sensing technics. L1 4

Module-3
Q. 05 a List and explain common data types in IoT applications L1 5
b With a neat diagram explain offsite processing topology. L1 10

Page 01 of 02
22ETC15H/25H
c Write a short note on offloading considerations. L1 5
OR
Q. 06 a With a neat diagram explain onsite processing topology. L1 5
b Explain IoT Device Design and Selection Considerations L2 8
c Write a short note on offload location and offload decision making. L1 7
Module-4

Q. 07 a Define Virtualization. Discuss advantages of virtualization L1 8


b Summarize the case study related to Smart irrigation management system. L2 5
c With the help of neat diagrams explain the of cloud models. L1 7
OR
Q. 08 a With a neat diagram explain Architecture of a sensor-cloud platform L1 8
b With a neat diagram explain Components of an agricultural IoT L1 5
c With the help of neat diagrams describe the difference between Network L1 7
computing and cloud computing
Module-5
Q. 09 a With a neat diagram explain the Architecture of vehicular IoT. L1 7
b Define Machine learning and explain the advantages of ML. L1 6
c With a neat diagram explain Architecture of healthcare IoT. L1 7
OR
Q. 10 a List the advantages of vehicular IoT. L1 7
b With a neat diagram explain the types of Machine learning. L1 6
c Write note on advantages and risk of healthcare IoT. L1 7

Page 02 of 02
22ETC15h
Model Question Paper-I with effect from 2022-23 (CBCS Scheme)
USN

First/Second Semester B.E. Degree Examination


Introduction to Internet of Things (IOT)
TIME: 03 Hours Max. Marks: 100

Note: 01. Answer any FIVE full questions, choosing at least ONE question from each MODULE.

*Bloom’s
Module -1 Taxonomy Marks
Level
Q.01 a Classify network types based on physical topologies and connection types with
L2 10
schematic diagrams.
b Explain the IoT planes, various enablers of IoT, and the complex
L2 10
interdependencies among them with a block diagram.
OR
Q.02 a Explain networked communication between two hosts following the TCP/IP
L2 08
suite with a block diagram.
b Outline the interdependence and reach of IoT over various application domains
L2 08
and networking paradigms.
c Summarize the characteristic features of IoT systems. L2 04
Module-2
Q. 03 a Outline the basic differences between transducers, sensors, and actuators. L2 06
c Compare mechanical, soft, and shape memory polymer based actuators. L2 06
b Classify sensing types based on the nature of the environment and the physical
L2 08
sensors.
OR
Q.04 a Compare the common commercially available sensors used for IoT-based L2 06
sensing applications.
b Outline a simple actuation mechanism. L2 06
c Explain four common characteristics actuators used for selection. L2 08
Module-3
Q. 05 a Explain event detection using an off-site remote processing topologywith a
L2 10
block diagram.
b Explain the data offloading strategies: Offload location and Offload decision
L2 10
making.
OR
Q. 06 a Contrast between structured and unstructured data. Outline various data
L2 10
generating and storage sources with a block schematic.
b Outline an IoT deployment (processing offloading) with the various layers of
L2 10
processing involving different application domains with a diagram.
Module-4
Q. 07 a Explain the architecture of a smart irrigation management system. L2 06
b Classify the deployment model of Cloud with relevant explanation. L2 06
c Explain the importance and metrics of Service-Level Agreement (SLA) in
L2 08
Cloud Computing.
OR
Q. 08 a Classify virtualization based on the requirements of the users. Explain. L2 08
b Explain architecture of a sensor-cloud platform with bock diagram. L2 08
c Explain the features of CloudSim. L2 04
Module-5
Q. 09 a Explain fog framework for intelligent public safety invehicular environments L2 10

Page 01 of 02
22ETC15h
(fog-FISVER) with a block diagram.
b Explain hardware components and front end design features of AmbuSens
L2 10
system.
OR
Q. 10 a Explain the architecture and components of healthcare IoT with block
L2 12
diagrams.
b Summarize the advantages of Machine Learning (ML) in IoT. L2 06
*Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Indicate as L1, L2, L3, L4, etc. It is also desirable to indicate the COs and POs to be
attained by every bit of questions.

Page 02 of 02
BENGK106/BENGK206/22BD17

pm
Question Paper Version : A
USN

1
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech./B.Ds. Degree Examination, Dec.2023/Jan.2024

:2
Communicative English

3
:2
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

01

C
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

-V
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

4
02

C
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

-V
3. -2
For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

C
02
corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

-V
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
4-

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly


C
-1

-V
prohibited.
U

1. ‘Communication’ The word originates from Laten word


VT

a) Communicm b) Communico c) Communicativem d) None of these


-V

4p
2. Communication is a _______ process.

C
a) one way b) two - way c) three - way d) None of these
C

:0

-V
-V

3. In order to achieve the production target for a particular month, the discussion held
35

between the production manager and supply manager will certainly be a perfect instance
C

of _______ Communication.
C

-V
01

a) Vertical b) Spiral c) Cross wises d) Horizontal


-V

4. ‘Poor Printing’ it is a type of Barrier____


C
24
C

a) Verbal barrier b) Psychological barrier


-V
-V

c) Physiological barrier d) Physical barrier


20

5. ‘Transcendental meditation’ is example of _______ Communication.


VC

a) Extrapersonal b) Interpersonal c) Intrapersonal d) Non - verbal


2-

-V
-0

6. The most straight forward, basic interpersonal communication meaning is _____


C

Communication.
14

-V

a) Mass Communication b) Interpersonal


c) Extrapersonal d) None of these
C

7. Flashing eyes, avoiding eye contact may also cause ______ to effective Communication.
-V

a) Vernal barrier b) Listening barrier


c) Psychological barrier d) Non – Verbal barrier
C

8. In general oral Communication is the interchange of ______between the sender and the
-V

receiver.
a) cues and clues b) speaking c) gestures d) verbal messages
C

Ver A – 1 of 4
-V
VC
BENGK106/BENGK206/22BD17

pm
9. ‘Follows a set pattern such as sequence of elements in a report’ this is ______
Communication.
a) Professional b) General c) Personal d) None of these

1
:2
10. In Organizations, informal communication also permeates. This informal communication
is called _____

3
a) Personal b) Professional c) Grapevine d) None of thee

:2
01

C
11. One native regional accent that has gained social prestige is the ______ of English.
a) Received pronunciation b) Reverse perception

-V
c) Transcription d) None of these

4
02

C
12. A vowel sound whose quality does not change over the duration of the vowel is

-V
called______
a) Vowel -2
b) Diphthong c) Pure vowel d) Consonant

C
02
13. The consonant sounds that come before vowel sound are called _____

-V
a) Coda b) Onset c) Medical d) None of these
4-

14. What is the division of syllables of word ‘Information’?


C
-1

a) in-form-ation b) inform-ation c) in-formation d) in – for - ma - tion


-V
U

15. Transcribe the word ‘daughter’.


VT

a) / ′dϽ : t Ə / b) / dϽ ′t Ə / c) / dϽ : tr / d) /d3:tƏ/
C

m
-V

16. ‘No. The women with the plastic bag’. In this sentence which words are having falling
4p
tone?

C
C

a) No, The woman b) Plastic bag c) No. bag d) None of these


:0

-V
-V

35

17. Find the silent letter in the word ‘though’


a) th b) ou c) ugh d) gh
C
C

-V
01
-V

18. In the word ‘Sheep’ often mispronounced sound is


a) / ʃ / b) / S / c) ee d) p
C
24
C

19. Correct the spelling of the following word :


-V
-V

a) Renumeration b) Remuneration c) Remunation d) Remuration


20

20. How to pronounce the word ‘Next’?


VC

2-

-V

a) nekast b) nekest c) nekist d) nekst


-0

21. I have ______ to buy a car. (Use appropriate noun)


C

a) no rupees b) no notes c) no money d) no moneys


14

-V

22. ______ and ______ want to purchase a yacht. (fill with suitable pronoun).
a) He. I and you b) You, he and I c) I, he and you d) You, I and he
C
-V

23. The flower smells _____. (Appropriate Adjective is)


a) sweet b) sweetly c) sweeter d) sweetest
C

24. It is ______ hotter today, (place an adverb).


-V

a) most b) very c) more d) much


C

Ver A – 2 of 4
-V
VC
BENGK106/BENGK206/22BD17

pm
25. Hardly had he arrived ______ the portico crumbled. (Choose correct conjunction)
a) than b) then c) when d) None of these

1
26. We could barely do anything. (suitable question Tag).

:2
a) Couldn’t we? b) Could we? c) Can we? d) None of these

3
27. A Person who believes in God, we call him

:2
a) Theist b) Atheist c) Eccentric d) Spinster

01

C
28. ‘I saw a man’ in this sentence which is pronounced with a weak verb, without any special

-V
emphasis.

4
a) I b) man c) saw d) a

02

C
29. Flour is made ______ wheat. (suitable preposition)

-V
a) of -2b) by c) from d) in

30. ________ Humanity is in danger. (Choose the correct option).

C
02
a) A b) An c) The d) Not needed any article

-V
4-

Fill in the banks with appropriate prefixes :


C
-1

31. The army people _____ attacked the enemy.


-V
a) in - b) Inter c) Counter d) Un
U
VT

32. My research Supervisor is ______ critical about everything.


C

a) hyper b) un c) mono m d) intra


-V

4p
Choose the pairs of word / phrases :

C
C

33. Archive : Document


:0

-V
-V

a) Warehouse : merchandise b) Library : Shelves


35

c) Theater : Plays d) Cinema : Projector


C
C

34. Coal : Mineral


-V
01
-V

a) Oxygen : Water b) river : dam c) gold : metal d) silver : mine


C

Choose the correct subject – verb concord in the sentences :


24
C

-V
-V

35. Diabetes _____ a silent killer.


20

a) is b) are c) were d) None of these


C
VC

36. The Jury gave ______ verdict in an unbiased manner.


2-

-V

a) their b) them c) its d) None of these


-0

Complete the sentence with appropriate tense from :


C
14

-V

37. Sir, I _____ passed my B.Tech in 2003


a) have b) has c) was d) Not required
C

38. We _____ finished our assignment just now.


-V

a) have b) has c) had d) None of these

Choose the correct option :


C
-V

39. ______ was visible at this late hour.


a) No man b) No c) No men d) None of these
C

Ver A – 3 of 4
-V
VC
BENGK106/BENGK206/22BD17

pm
40. The tycoon had expired before the _____
a) Physician arrives b) Physician arriving
c) Physician arrived d) Physician had arrived

1
:2
41. When _____, I will tell him everything.
a) he is coming b) he comes c) he will come d) None of the above

3
:2
42. Which of these must be avoided in Presentation?
a) Proper grammar b) Complex words c) Short sentence d) Clear voice

01

C
-V
43. Which of these can be used to break the monotony in a speech?
a) Humour b) Constant tone c) Low voice d) Sad story

4
02

C
44. Mother tongue influence can be effectively minimized in the classroom by ____

-V
a) using the mother tongue more often b) giving examples from the mother tongue
-2
c) giving a lot of exposure in the target language
d) giving inputs from the target language in a simple graded manner.

C
02

-V
45. The art of clear and concise manner of speaking, with clarity of meaning and thought
4-

called ______
a) Elocution b) Latency c) Extempore
C d) Story telling
-1

-V
Read Comprehension : Read the passage carefully and select the suitable answer
U

from the given options :


VT

Quite recently India laid the foundation stone for one of its most sought – after
C

m
projects running a Bullet Train. It was very well considered as a dream project of the
-V

4p
Honorable Prime Minister. Entire India felt proud of having its first ever bullet train
scheduled to run between Mumbai and Ahmedabad, a distance of 508 km in about

C
C

2 hours 35 minutes. In his own words, “To grow, one needs to expand one’s dreams and
:0

-V
-V

decide one’s strength to achieve that. It’s the New India which has to fly high”. “Bullet
35

Train is a project that will provide pace to development. Along with new technology, it
C

will also bring results faster”, he added. According to Achal Khare, the Managing
C

-V

Director of the National High speed Rail Corporation, the project would be completed by
01
-V

December 2005.
C

46. The ______ for the Bullet Train project was laid recently.
24
C

-V

a) railway track b) signaling system c) foundation stone d) None of these


-V

20

47. The bullet train will take about _____ to run between both the States.
C

a) 3 hrs, 25 min b) 2 hr, 55 min c) 2 hr, 35 min d) None of these


VC

2-

-V

48. According to Prime Minister, the two benefits that the bullet train will bring are to
-0

provide pace to ________ to faster _______.


C

a) travel , trains b) train, travel, results


14

-V

c) development, trains d) development, results


49. The bullet train schedule to run between _______ and _______
C

a) Mumbai and Ahmedabad b) Mumbai and Delhi


-V

c) Mumbai and Gujarat d) None of these


50. The project is expected to be ______ by December 2023.
C

a) completed b) operationalised c) started d) None of these


-V

*****
C

Ver A – 4 of 4
-V
VC
pm
BENGK106/206

4
Question Paper Version : A
USN

:4
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

6
Communicative English

:1
01

C
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

-V
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

3
02

C
-V
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.
2.
-2
Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

C
10
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

-V
1-

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.


C
-1

4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
-V
U

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly


VT

prohibited.
C

m
-V

1. Oral communication is different from written communication as it is …


3p
a) spoken in transitory b) written

C
c) spoken and permanent d) non verbal
C

:5

-V
-V

2. Which element is the medium through which a message is sent?


40

a) context b) sender c) channel d) noise


C
C

-V

3. When colleagues share the official communication it is …


01
-V

a) radial b) informal c) horizontal d) vertical


C
23
C

4. When the communication is in between managers and workers it is


-V

a) informal b) vertical c) horizontal d) crosswise


-V

20

5. Manager providing tips to the team is …


C
VC

a) vertically downward b) formal


0-

-V

c) radial d) vertical
-1

6. In communication, the observation of a receiver response is called


C
11

a) message b) feedback c) survey d) channel


-V

7. Written diary every day is an example of which communication?


a) interpersonal b) intrapersonal c) organizational d) extra personal
C
-V

8. The management circulates a memorandum regarding new bonus and incentive schemes
among all the employees, it is a case of ______ communication.
C

a) radial b) upward c) downward d) crosswise


-V

9. What is the type of communication which takes place within an individual?


a) interpersonal b) intrapersonal c) organizational d) extrapersonal
C

Ver A – 1 of 4
-V
VC
pm
BENGK106/206
10. A rumour in the city is a form of ______ communication

4
a) Grapevine b) downward c) radial d) horizontal

:4
11. How many IPAs are there?

6
a) 46 b) 44 c) 21 d) 26

:1
01
12. Do not boast _______ your wealth.

C
a) for b) of c) in d) from

-V
3
13. The ship was bound _______ India.

02

C
a) to b) for c) of d) with

-V
14. I prefer tea _____ cold drinks.
-2
a) to b) from c) than d) for

C
10

15. Tick the correct phonetic transcription of the word ‘Sheep’.

-V
a) / hip/ b) /chi:p/ c) /i:p/ d) /hiip/
1-

C
16. Tick the correct phonetic transcription of the word ‘Judge’.
-1

-V
a) /dƷAdƷ/ b) /dƷjuj/ c) /zuij/ d) /zudƷ/
U

17. Tick the correct phonetic transcription of the word ‘These’.


VT

a) /ði:z/ b) /ðiz/ c) /theez/


m d) /diiz/
-V

3p
18. Tick the correct phonetic transcription of the word ‘Cheese’.

C
a) /chiz/ b) /tiiz/ c) /ti:j/ d) /ti:z/
C

:5

-V
-V

19. Tick the correct phonetic transcription of the word ‘Teacher’.


40

a) /ti:t ǝ/ b) /tiich ǝ/ c) /tiiit ǝ/ d) /techr ǝ/


C
C

20. Tick the correct phonetic transcription of the word ‘Church’.


-V
01
-V

a) /t 3:t/ b) /t v t ǝ/ c) /t 3: ǝ/ d) /t ǝ t ǝ/


C

21. In which of the following words any silent letter is present.


23
C

-V

a) cup b) same c) Post d) pull


-V

20

22. In which of the following words letter P is not is silent


C

a) cupboard b) pneumonia c) coup d) None of these


VC

0-

-V

23. Find collective noun in the sentence : ‘He was part of the film crew’.
-1

a) He b) Film c) Crew d) None of these


C
11

-V

24. Find abstract noun in : ‘The theatre was engulfed in darkness’.


a) Theatre b) Darkness c) Both A & B d) None of these
C

25. Someone’s life history written by another writer ______


-V

a) autobiography b) bibliography c) biography d) story

26. Person who does not believe in the existence of God:


C

a) Heretic b) Fanatic c) Atheist d) Theist


-V

27. Tendency to favour one’s relatives ______


a) Favourisms b) Nepotism c) Expiation d) Spinster
C
-V

Ver A – 2 of 4
VC
pm
BENGK106/206
28. One who totally abstains from drinking _______

4
a) Heretic b) Teetotaller c) Pilgrim d) Stub

:4
29. What is the emphatic form of pronoun ‘I’?

6
a) I b) Me c) Mine d) Myself

:1
01
30. I have ____ my holidays in Kolkata. (Fill with correct verb.)

C
a) spent b) spend c) spending d) spended

-V
3
31. _____ Raktim or Sandip will receive you. (Fill with correct conjunction.)

02

C
a) but b) either c) and d) none of these

-V
32. What is the root word, in the word ‘BILINGUAL’.
-2
a) bi b) bil c) lingual d) ingual

C
10

33. What is the full form of B2C?

-V
a) Business to Counter b) Business to Consumer
1-

c) Bank to Customer d) Brand to Consumer


C
-1

-V
34. What is the full form of CTO?
U

a) Chief Transmission Officer b) Chief Telecom Officer


c) Chief Technology Officer d) Chief Technology Operator
VT

m
-V

35. The correct contracted form of ‘would not’ is?


3p
a) would’nt b) wouldnot c) wouldn’t d) wouldnt’

C
C

:5

36. Tick the minimal pair with medial sound difference. -V


-V

a) mug-jug b) ship-sheep c) cab-cap d) pit-bit


40

37. Tick the minimal pair with final sound difference.


C

-V

a) loop-loot b) day-they c) mat-sat d) pull-pool


01
-V

38. She was very fond of chocolates. (Tick suitable Question Tag.)
C

a) Wasn’t she? b) Do I? c) Isn’t it? d) Isn’t she?


23
C

-V
-V

39. Have some more cold coffee. (Tick suitable Question Tag.)
20

a) Have you? b) Will/would you? c) Won’t you? d) Weren’t you?


C
VC

0-

-V

40. Punctilious. (Tick the word having closest meaning.)


a) meticulous b) casual c) Final d) none of these
-1

41. Opulence. (Tick the word having closest meaning.)


11

-V

a) poverty b) penury c) affluence d) indigence

42. Mr. Chatterjee is _______ MLA. Which article will be suitable to fill this blank?
C

a) A b) An c) The d) None
-V

43. My brother studies in ______ university. Which article will be suitable to fill this blank?
a) A b) An c) The d) None of the above
C
-V

44. He did not wash the clothes. Tick the present progressive form if the sentence
a) He is not washing the clothes. b) He will not be washing the clothes.
c) He was not washing the clothes. d) He has not washed the clothes.
C
-V

Ver A – 3 of 4
VC
pm
BENGK106/206
45. It has been raining. Choose the Future indefinite form of the sentence.

4
a) It would rain. b) It will have been raining.

:4
c) It should rain. d) It will rain.

6
46. The train reached at the railway station. Choose the past perfect form of the sentence.

:1
a) The train had reached at the station.

01

C
b) The train is reaching at the railway station.

-V
c) The train will reach at the railway station
d) The train reaches at the railway station.

3
02

C
47. The gardener had been watering the plants for two hours. Which is the tense of the

-V
sentence?
a) Present Indefinite-2 b) Past Perfect
c) Past Perfect Continuous d) Present Perfect Continuous.

C
10

-V
48. The Sun rises in the East. Choose the Future Perfect Continuous form of the sentence.
1-

a) The Sun will have been rising in the East.


b) The Sun will have risen in the East.
C
-1

c) The Sun will rise in the East.


-V
d) The Sun will be rising in the East.
U
VT

49. “t” The sound is present in


C

a) thin b) shin c) chin m d) tin


-V

3p
50. “” sound is there in

C
a) feet b) treat c) soup d) sheet
C

:5

-V
-V

*****
40

C
C

-V
01
-V

C
23
C

-V
-V

20

C
VC

0-

-V
-1

C
11

-V
C
-V
C
-V
C

Ver A – 4 of 4
-V
VC
BENGK106

pm
Question Paper Version : A
USN

7
First Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, Jan./Feb. 2023

:5
Communicative English

0
:2
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

01

C
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

-V
3
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

02

C
-V
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.
3.
-2
For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

C
05

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

-V
8-

4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
C
-0

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly


-V
U

prohibited.
VT

m
-V

1. Proposals prepared for submission to the boss


3p
a) Upward b) Downward c) Horizontal d) Vertical

C
C

:2

2. Counseling and training -V


-V

a) Downward b) Upward c) Vertical d) Spiral


33

C
C

3. Oral communication is different from written communication as it is,


:

-V
01
-V

a) Spoken and structured b) Spoken and transitory


c) Spoken and Permanent d) Spoken and time consuming
C
23
C

-V

4. Who Encodes the message?


-V

a) Sender b) Receiver c) Transmitting media d) Both (a) and (b)


20

5. Which one of the following is not a feature of grapevine communication?


VC

5-

-V

a) Rapid b) Formal c) Multidirectional d) Cluster


-0

6. Which of the following is oral communication?


C
08

a) Dictation b) Brochure c) Notice d) Letter


-V

7. In communication the observation of a receiver’s response is called,


C

a) Feedback b) Survey c) Channel d) Message


-V

8. Badly encoded message leaves its receiver confused and not well informed.
a) True b) False c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
C
-V
C

Version A – 1 of 4
-V
VC
BENGK106

pm
9. Among the following elements, which element is the medium through which message is
sent.
a) Sender b) Channel c) Context d) Noise

7
:5
10. This type of communication takes place within an individual : _________

0
a) Extrapersonal b) Intrapersonal c) Organizational d) Interpersonal

:2
11. Transcription of the word “Tomb” is _________

01

C
a) /tum/ b) /tu:m/ c) tum:/ d) None of these

-V
12. There are _______sounds in English.

3
a) 44 b) 12 c) 24 d) 8

02

C
-V
13. Silent letter in “Castle”.
a) e -2 b) t c) a d) 

C
05
14. Division of the syllable “information” is _______

-V
a) infor-ma-tion b) in-for-mation c) in-for-ma-tion d) info-rmat-ion
8-

15. How many consonants are there in English?


C
-0

a) 4 b) 12 c) 24 d) 44
-V
U

16. How many Vowels are there in English?


VT

a) 44 b) 12 c) 24 d) 20
C

m
-V

17. Division of the syllable of “window” is ______


3p
a) Win-dow b) Wi-ndow c) Wi-n-dow d) Wind-ow

C
C

:2

18. Silent letter in the word “Knee” is ________


-V
-V

33

a) k b) n c) e d) None of these
C
C

19. Communication is the _________ of business.


:

-V
01
-V

a) back bone b) blood c) nerve d) hand


C

20. Identify the word with one syllable in the following :


23
C

a) grass b) fulfil c) folder d) conquer


-V
-V

20

Identify the Parts of speech of the underlined words :


C

21. Steve Waugh was an inspirational captain.


VC

5-

-V

a) verb b) proper noun c) noun d) adverb


-0

22. Abstract noun form of starve is _________


C

a) Starvation b) Starve c) Starving d) None of these


08

-V

23. Wow! We won the match!


a) Adjective b) Interjection c) Noun d) Verb
C
-V

24. Gandhiji is known for his non-violence.


a) Noun b) Pronoun c) Verb d) Abstract-Noun
C

25. In general hot country like India, it is only winters that one can experience the Soothing
-V

comfort.
a) Verb b) Noun c) Adjective d) Adverb
C

Version A – 2 of 4
-V
VC
BENGK106

pm
Choose the word that can fill the gap appropriately :
26. Man is a __________ of circumstances.
a) Master b) Companion c) Creature d) Slave

7
:5
27. I have been ill__________ last Monday.

0
a) since b) from c) for d) by

:2
28. A lady’s purse ________

01

C
a) Parasol b) Pantomine c) Reticule d) Vertibule

-V
One word substitution :

3
29. Saying things in a roundabout way.

02

C
a) Circumlocution b) Straight away c) Around about d) None of these

-V
-2
30. Someone who compiles a dictionary.
a) Calligrapher b) Teetotaller c) both d) Lexicographer

C
05

-V
Question Tags :
8-

31. They are ‘reaching by Tomorrow’, ________


a) aren’t they b) are they c) both
C d) none of these
-0

-V
32. You ‘told me this ‘earlier’, _______
U

a) Didn’t you? b) Did you? c) Did they? d) Do they?


VT

33. The synonym of “Benefit” is ________ m


-V

3p
a) yield b) benefit c) loss d) none of these

C
C

34. The antonyms of “Crazy” is ________


:2

-V
-V

a) Sane b) Insane c) Unrealistic d) (a) & (b)


33

35. Please give me a peace / piece of advice.


C
C

a) peace b) piece c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these


:

-V
01
-V

36. The closest meaning of the word Slender is,


C

a) Slim b) Sconty c) Weak d) Poor


23
C

-V
-V

37. The day of Judgement _________


20

a) Doomsday b) Verdict c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these


C
VC

5-

-V

38. She ______ the report indignantly.


a) Cast away b) Cast aside c) Cast off d) Cast a way
-0

39. The sick child _________ while waiting at the doctor’s.


08

-V

a) Threw off b) Threw up c) Threw out d) Threw down

40. The suffix of the word “worth” is,


C

a) worth b) worthless c) worthy d) none of these


-V

41. “Types of Cancer” can be presented by ________ method.


a) Topical pattern b) Spatial pattern
C

c) Psychological pattern d) None of these


-V

Version A – 3 of 4
C
-V
VC
BENGK106

pm
42. The weak form of the is,
a) b) c) d) None of these

7
:5
43. The syllable of the word “Fauna” is,
a) CV-CV b) CVVCV c) CVC d) None of these

0
:2
44. Words ending in dz ________

01

C
a) judge b) then c) their d) below

-V
45. Example for initial minimal pair is __________

3
a) Try-Dry b) Set-Sat c) Pull-Pool d) Cab-Cap

02

C
-V
46. RP is known as __________
-2
a) Revised Pronunciation b) Received Pronunciation
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these

C
05

-V
47. Which of these should be avoided for an effective speech?
8-

a) Confidence b) Clarity c) Pauses d) Rudeness


C
-0

48. Which of these should be avoided during delivery of speech?


-V
a) Planning of speech b) Long Pauses
U

c) Organization d) Long sentences


VT

49. The acronym of ‘QA’ is _________ m


-V

a) Question & Answer b) Quality Assurance


3p
c) Quality Assist d) None of these

C
C

:2

-V
50. The simple present of this below sentence - The fruit is smelling sweet,
-V

33

a) The fruit smells sweet b) The fruit is sweet


c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
C
C

-V
01
-V

*****
C
23
C

-V
-V

20

C
VC

5-

-V
-0

C
08

-V
C
-V
C
-V
C

Version A – 4 of 4
-V
VC
BKSKK107/207
USN Question Paper Version : A

6 pm
First/Second Semester B.E/B.Tech. Degree Examination, Dec.2023/Jan.2024

:5
ಾಂಸ ಕ ಕನ ಡ

5
:1
(COMMON TO ALL BRANCHES)

01

C
-V
Time: 1 hrs.] [Max. Marks: 50
¸ÀÆZÀ£ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ

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C
1. J®è 50 ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½UÀÆ GvÀÛj¹j. ¥Àæw ¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ MAzÀÄ CAPÀ.

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2. N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀİè AiÀÄÄ.J¸ï.J£ï ¸ÀASÉå ºÁUÀÆ ¥À±Éß ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ
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±ÉæÃtÂAiÀÄ£ÀÄß CAzÀgÉ A, B, C CxÀªÁ D AiÀÄ£ÀÄß vÀ¦à®èzÀAvÉ PÀqÁØAiÀĪÁV

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UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ C¨sÀåyðAiÀÄ dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.

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3. N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è ¤UÀ¢¥Àr¹gÀĪÀ ¸ÀܼÀzÀ°è ¨sÀwðªÀiÁqÀzÉ


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ºÁUÉAiÉÄà ©lÖ°è CxÀªÁ ¨sÀwðªÀiÁrzÀ ªÀiÁ»wAiÀİè AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ
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ªÀåvÁå¸À«zÀݰè CAvÀºÀ GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß gÀzÀÄÝ ¥Àr¸À¯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
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4..4 PÉêÀ® MAzÀÄ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁvÀæ GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀİè UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀvÀPÀÌzÀÄÝ. MAzÉ


VT

m
¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ JgÀqÀÄ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ CªÀiÁ£Àå.
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J¯Áè GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ªÀÄUÉ MzÀV¸À¯ÁzÀ N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ


4p
5.

C
ºÁ¼ÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É PÀ¥ÀÄà CxÀªÁ ¤Ã° ±Á»AiÀÄ ¨Á¯ï¥Á¬ÄAmï ¥É¤ß¤AzÀ
C

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UÀÄgÀÄvÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ. -V
-V

32

C
C

-V

1. “ಪ ಸರ, ಪರಂಪ ೆ ಾಗೂ ಪ ತ ೕವನದ ಅ ೇಕ ಸಂ ಾ ರಗಳ ಮೂಲಕ ಮನುಷ ನ ಅಂತರಂಗ


01
-V

ಪ ೆಯುವ ಪ ಪಕ ೆ” ಇದನು ಹಂಪ ಾಗ ಾಜಯ ನವರು ಏ ೆಂದು ಕ ೆ ಾ ೆ?


C
24
C

a) ಸಂಸ b) ಆಚರ ೆ c) ಸಮನ ಯ d) ೌಂದಯ


-V
-V

20

C
VC

2. ೆಳ ನವ ಗಳ ಅಂಡಯ ಕ ಯ ಾವ ಾವ ದು?
2-

-V

a) ಾವ ೕ ಾಂ ೆ b) ಕ ಗರ ಾವ
-0

c) ಕ ಾ ಟಕ ಗತ ೈಭವ d) ೕ ಾ ಾಯಣ ದಶ ನಂ
22

-V

3. ಾಜ ಾಜರ ಯುದಗಳ ಏ ೆ ನ ೆಯಯ ದವ ?


C
-V

a) ಾಜ ರ ೆ b) ಾಹಸ ಮ ೋವೃ c) a) ಮತು b) d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ


C

4. ಕ ಾಜ ಾಗ ದ ೇ ರುವಂ ೆ ಕನ ಗರು ಎಂತಹವರು?


-V

a) ೕ ವಂತರು b) ಗುಣ ಾ ಗಳ c) ಾ ಾ ಗಳ d) ಎಲವ ಸ


C

Ver-A 1 of 6
-V
VC
pm
BKSKK107/207

6
5. “ ಘಂಟು ತ ” ಎಂದು ೆಸ ಾದ ಕನ ಡದ ೇಖಕರು ಾರು?

:5
a) . . ೆಂಕಟಸುಬ ಯ b) .ಎಂ. ೕ

5
c) ಕು ೆಂಪ d) ಪ . .ನ

:1
01

C
-V
6. “ಕ ಾ ಟಕ ಗತ ೈಭವ” ಕೃ ಯನು ರ ದವರು ಾರು?

4
a) ೕರಂಗ b) ಆಲೂರು ೆಂಕಟ ಾಯರು

02

C
c) ಾ ವಂಕ ೇಶ ಅಯ ಂ ಾ d) ದಯ ಪ ಾ ಕ

-V
-2

C
02
7. ಾಯಚೂ ನ 1955 ರ ನ ೆದ ಕನ ಡ ಾ ತ ಸ ಳನದ ಅಧ ರು ಾರು?

-V
a) ೆ. ಎ . ನರ ಂಹ ಾ b) ದ. ಾ. ೇಂ ೆ
2-

c) ೕರಂಗ C d) . .
-2

-V
U

8.
VT

ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆಯನು ಧ ರೂಪಗಳ ಸು ಾರು ಎಷು ಜನರು ಆಡುನು ಾ ಬಳಸು ಾ ೆ?


C

m
-V

a) 30 ದಶಲ b) 40 ದಶಲ c) 80 ದಶಲ d) 60 ದಶಲ


4p

C
C

:0

9. ೋ ಾ ಾ ೆಯವರು ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆಯ ಯನು ಏ ೆಂದು ಕ ೆ


-V
ಾ ೆ?
-V

32

a) ಗಳ ಾ b) ಯುವ ಾ c) ಯುವ ಾಜ d) ಗಳ ಾಜ
C
C

-V
01

10. ಾ ಯ ಸಮ ತ ಾದ ಯಮಗಳನು ಸುವ ಾಸ ೆ ಏನನು ಾ ೆ?


-V

a) ಮ b) ಾ ಕರಣ c) ಘಂಟು d) ಾಗು ತ


C
24
C

-V
-V

20

11. ಶರಣ ಚಳವ ಯ ೆ ೕರಕ ಶ ಾರು?


C
VC

a) ಬಸವಣ b) ಜಳ ಮ ಾ ಾಜ c) ಅಲಮಪ ಭು d) ಅಕ ಮ ಾ ೇ
2-

-V
-0

12. “ ಾಮ ಾಥ” ಅಂ ತ ೊಡ ೆ ವಚನಗಳನು ರ ದ ವಚನ ಾರ ಾರು?


22

-V

a) ಆಯ ಾರಯ b) ೇಡರ ಾ ಮಯ c) ಅಲಮಪ ಭು d) ಆಯ ಲಕ ಮ


C
-V

13. ಅಕ ಮ ಾ ೇ ಯ ವಚನಗಳ ಅಂ ತ ಾವ ದು?


a) ಅಮ ೇಶ ರ ಂಗ b) ಗು ೇಶ ರ c) ೆನ ಮ ಾಜು ನ d) ಕೂಡಲಸಂಗಮ ೇವ
C
-V

Ver-A 2 of 6
C
-V
VC
BKSKK107/207

pm
14. ಗುರು, ಂಗ ಮತು ಜಂಗಮ ಈ ಮೂರ ಂತ ಾವ ದು ಅತ ಂತ ೆ ೕಷ ೆಂದು ಆಯ ಾರಯ ತನ
ವಚನದ ೇಳ ಾ ೆ?

6
:5
a) ದ b) ಾನ c) ಬು d) ಾಯಕ

5
:1
15. “ಅದ ಂ ೇನು ಫಲ, ಇದ ಂ ೇನು ಫಲ” ಈ ೕತ ೆಯನು ರ ದವರು ಾರು?

01

C
a) ಪ ರಂದರ ಾಸರು b) ಜಯ ಾಸರು c) ಕನಕ ಾಸರು d) ೋ ಾಲ ಾಸರು

-V
4
02

C
-V
16. ಕನಕ ಾಸರ ಆ ಾದ ೈವ ಾರು?
-2
a) ೆನ ೇಶವ b) ಆ ೇಶವ c) ೋ ೕಶ ರ d) ಪ ರಂದರ ಠಲ

C
02

-V
2-

17. ಹಲವ ಾಲ ಕಲು ೕ ೊಳ ದ ೆ ೆ ೆದು ಅದು ------ ಆಗುವ ೆ?


C
-2

a) ಾಮಂ ರ b) ತ ೆ c) ಅಮೃತ ೆ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ
-V
U
VT

18. ನ ೆ ------ ಬ ೆದವರು ಾರು ಎಂದು ಕನಕ ಾಸರು ತಮ ೕತ ೆಯ ೇಳ ಾ ೆ?


m
-V

a) ಕು b) ಾರ c) ಬಣ d) ತ
4p

C
C

:0

-V
-V

19. ಶು ಾಳ ಶ ೕಫರು ತಮ ತತ ಪದದ ಮಣನು ಾವ ದ ೆ ೋ ಾ ೆ?


32

a) ನ b) ೆ c) ವಜ d) ಾಮ
C
C

-V
01
-V

20. ಎಂತಹ ೆಂ ಯನು ಹ ಕುಂ ಾರ ೊಡಗಳ ಸುಡು ಾ ೆ ಎಂದು ಶ ೕಫರು ೇಳ ಾ ೆ?


C
24
C

a) ಆ ಾರ b) ಅ ವ c) ಾ ನ d) ಭ
-V
-V

20

21. ಹು ಾ ೆಟ ದ , ಮ ೆ ೆ ಏ ಾಗು ಎಂದು ಕ . . ಯವರು ೇಳ ಾ ೆ?


VC

2-

-V

a) ಮ ೆ ಾಗು b) ಕನ ಾಂಬರ ಾಗು c) ೇವಂ ೆ ಾಗು d) ಗು ಾ ಾಗು


-0

C
22

-V

22. ನಗುವ ಸಹಜದ ಧಮ , ನ ಸುವ ದು ಎಂತಹ ಧಮ ಎಂದು ಕ ೇಳ ಾ ೆ?


a) ಅಂತರಂಗದ ಧಮ b) ಪರಧಮ c) ಬ ರಂಗದ ಧಮ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ
C
-V

23. ಋ ಾಕ ೊಡ ೆ ಾವ ಕ ೆ ೇ ದ ೆ ಜನ ೕವನ ಸುಖಕರ ಾ ರುವ ೆಂದು ಕ ೇಳ ಾ ೆ?


C

a) ತಂತ ಾನ b) ತಂ ಾ ಂಶ c) ಾನ d) ಅಂತ ಾ ಲ
-V
C

Ver-A 3 of 6
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VC
BKSKK107/207

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24. ೆಳ ನವ ಗಳ ಾವ ದು . . ಯವರ ಾವ ಅಲ?
a) ೇದ ೆ b) ಉಮರನ ಒಸ ೆ c) ೇತ ವನ d) ೊಳಲು

6
5 :5
25. ದ. ಾ. ೇಂ ೆ ಯವರ ಾವ ಾಮ ಏನು?

:1
a) ಅಂ ಾತನಯದತ b) ಆನಂದಕಂದ c) ಕು ೆಂಪ d) ೕ ಾಸ

01

C
-V
26. “ಕುರುಡು

4
ಾಂ ಾಣ” ಎಂಬ ಪದ ವನು ೇಂ ೆ ಯವರ ಾವ ಕವನ ಸಂಕರಲನ ಂದ

02

C
ಆಯು ೊಳ ಾ ೆ?

-V
a) ಅರಳ ಮರಳ -2 b) ಾದ ೕ ೆ c) ಗ d) ಸ ೕ ೕತ

C
02

-V
27. ಅಂಗ ಳ ೆ ಾಂ ಾಣದ ಸದು ೇ ೆ ಎಂದು ಕ ೇಳ ಾ ೆ?
2-

a) ಗಣಣ b) ತನನ c) ಝಣ ಝಣ d) ೋಂ ೋಂ


C
-2

-V
U

28. ೆಳ ನ ಕೃ ಗಳ ಕು ೆಂಪ ಅವರ ಾದಂಬ ಯನು ಗುರು .


VT

a) ಾ ಂಗ ಾ b) ದು ಾ ಸ ಾನ c) ಸಂ ಾ ಾಗ m d) ಮ ೆಗಳ ಮದುಮಗಳ
-V

4p

C
C

29. ಸವ
:0

ೆ ಸಮ ಾಳ ! ಸವ ೆ -------- ಎಂದು ಕ ಕು ೆಂಪ ೇ -Vಾ ೆ?


-V

32

a) ಸಮ ಾಲು ! b) ಸಹ ಾ ೆ ! c) ಸ ಾನ ಾಲು ! d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ
C
C

-V
01
-V

30. “ ಪವ” ಪದದ ಅಥ ೇನು?


C

a) ಶಬ ೋಶ b) ಾ ಂ c) ತ d) ಶ
24
C

-V
-V

20

31. ಮಂಡ ೆ ೆ ೕರನು ಒದ ಸುವ ಕೃಷ ಾಜ ಾಗರದ ೕಜ ೆಯನು ತ ಾ ದವರು ಾರು?


C
VC

a) ಾ. ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ b) ಾಮ ಮ ೊ c) ಾ.ಹ. ೇಶ ಾಂ ೆ d) ಾರು ಅಲ.


2-

-V
-0

32. ------ ೆಯ ೌಂದಯ ದ ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ ೕವಂತ ಾ ಾ ೆ.


22

-V

a) ದ ಣ ಕನ ಡ b) ಮಂಡ c) ಾಮನಗರ d) ಕ ಮಂಗಳ ರು


C
-V

33. ಾ. ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ ನವರು ಪ ಾಸ ೊರ ಾಗ ಅವರ ಸೂ ೇ ನ ಾವ ಪ ಸಕದ ಪ ಯನು


ಇಟು ೊಳ ದರು.
C
-V

a) ೇದ b) ಉಪ ಷತು c) ಭಗವ ೕ ೆ d) ಾ ಾಯಣ

Ver-A 4 of 6
C
-V
VC
BKSKK107/207

pm
34. ೆಳ ನವ ಗಳ ಾವ ದು ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ ನವರು ಾ ದ ಸಂ ೆ.

6
a) ಕ ಣ ಮತು ಉ ನ ಾ ಾ ೆ, ಭ ಾ ವ b) ೖಸೂರು ಾ ಂಕ

:5
c) ೖಸೂರು ಶ ಾ ಲಯ d) ಎಲವ ಸ

5
:1
01

C
35. “ಎ ೊ ಂದು ಶ ೕ ಾಗು ೆ” ಈ ಾತನು ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ ನವರು ಾವ ಜಲ ಾತವನು ೋ

-V
ೇ ದರು?

4
02
a) ೋಗ b) ವನಸಮುದ c) ೆ ೆ d) ಅರ ನ ಮ

C
-V
-2
36. ಬ ೆ ಗ ೆ ಬಣಕಟು ವ ಕ ೆ ೆ ಏ ೆಂದು ೆಸರು?

C
02

-V
a) ಚ ಾ ೆ b) ಬಣ ಾ ೆ c) ೈನು ಾ ೆ d) ಾತು ಾ ೆ
2-

C
-2

37. ಾರತದ ತ ಾ ಾಗು ದ ಬ ೆ ಗ ೆ ೆಳ ನ ಾವ ೇಶದ ೇ ೆ ಇ ೆಂದು ೇಖಕರು


-V
U

ೇಳ ಾ ೆ?
VT

ೕಲಂ ಾ b) ಾ ಾನ ೕ ಾವ ದು ಅಲ
a) c)
m d)
-V

4p

C
38. ಪ ಸರದ ಗು ದ ಕ ಾ ವಸುಗಳ ಮು ಾಂತರ ಕುಶಲಕ ಯ ------ ಪ ಫ ತ ಾಗು ತು ಎಂದು
C

:0

-V
-V

ೇಖಕರು ೇಳ ಾ ೆ?
32

a) ೈ ೌಶಲ b) ೈಪ ಣ c) ೌಂದಯ ಪ ೆ d) ಎಲವ ಸ


C
C

-V
01
-V

39. ಾಂಪ ಾ ಕ ಕರಕುಶಲ ಕ ೆಗಳ ೕ ೆ ಾ ೆಟು ದದು ಾ ಾಗ?


C
24
C

a) ೈ ಾ ಾ ಾಂ ಯ ಪ ಾಮ b) ಯಂತ ಗಳ ಆ ಾರ
-V
-V

c) ೇ ೆಕ ಾದದು ಾವ ದೂ ಅಲ
20

d)
C
VC

2-

-V

40. ಾರತದ ೇ ೆ ೇ ೆ ಬಣಗಳನು ೕಡುವ ಸು ಾರು ಎಷು ಡಗ ೆ ಎಂದು ಅಂ ಾ ಸ ಾ ೆ?


-0

a) 100 b) 300 c) 200 d) 350


C
22

-V

41. “ಯು ಾ ” ಕ ೆಯನು ಬ ೆದ ಕನ ಡದ ೇಖಕರು ಾರು?


C

a) ವಸು ೇಂದ b) .ಲಂ ೇ c) ೈ ೇ d) ವಸುಂಧ ಾ ಭೂಪ


-V

42 ಯು ಾ ಕ ೆಯ ತ ಾ ರುವ ಯ ೕ ೋಪಣನವರ ವೃ ಏನು?


C
-V

a) ೈದ b) ಕ c) ಅ ಯಂತರ d) ಗು ಾಸ
C

Ver-A 5 of 6
-V
VC
BKSKK107/207

pm
43. ೋಪಣನವರ ಮಗ ಪ ಾದ ಾವ ಪದ ಪ ೆದ?
a) .ಎ b) ೈದ c) ಇಂ ಯ ಂ d) . ಾಂ

6
5 :5
44. ೋಪಣ ಾಸರರನು ೇ ಾಗಲು ಊ ಂದ ಬಂದ ಅವರ ೆ ೆಯ ಾರು?

:1
a) ಇ ಾ b) ನ ೇತ c) ಾ d) ಾ ಂ ಾಬರು

01

C
-V
45. ಸ ಾ ಆಸ ೆ ಯ ೋಪಣ ಾಸರರನು ಗುರು ದ ಅವರ ಷ ಾರು?

4
02

C
a) ಾ ಾ b) ರುಕ c) ೇ ಾ d) ರೂ ಾ

-V
-2
46.

C
ಾ. . . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ಅವರ ಬುಡಕಟು ೕವನವನು ಕು ತ ಾದಂಬ ಾವ ದು?
02

-V
a) ಬುಡಕಟು ೈ ಾ ಾಧ ೆ b) ಆ ೆ ಾಡು
2-

c) ಾಡು ಾಂ d) ಉಜ ೌಡಮ
C
-2

-V
U

47. ಾ ಂ ಾಬರ ಮಗಳ


VT

a) ತ b) ವಂದ ಾ c) ಾಂದ m d) ತ ೕ ಾ
-V

4p

C
C

48. ಾಡುವ ಯ ಂ ನ ೆಸ ೇನು?


:0

-V
-V

a) ಸಂಸ ಪರ b) ಾ ತ ಪ ರ c) ಸಂ ೕತನಗರ d) ಸಂ ೕತಪ ರ


32

C
C

-V
01
-V

49. ಸ ಾ ೇ ಯ “ ಾ ೆ” ಎಂಬ ಹ ಯ ರುವ ಜ ಾಂಗ ಾವ ದು?


C

a) ಕುಣ b) ೊರವ c) ೕವ d) ೊಂಡ


24
C

-V
-V

20

50. ಾಗ ದಶ ಕ ಕುಪ ಯ ೆಗ ೆ ಏನನು ಏ ೊಂಡದ?


C
VC

2-

-V

a) ಲು b) ಾಡ ೋ c) ಶಲ d) ಾ ೕನು
-0

*****
22

-V
C
-V

Ver-A 6 of 6
C
-V
C
-V
VC
i BKSKK107/207

pm
USN Question Paper Version : A

4
:5
First/Second Semester B.E/B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

ಕ ಕನ ಡ - Samskruthika Kannada

6
ಾಂಸ

:0
01

C
(COMMON TO ALL BRANCHES)

-V
Time: 1 hrs.] [Max. Marks: 50

3
¸ÀÆZÀ£ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ

02

C
-V
1. J®è 50 ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½UÀÆ GvÀÛj¹j. ¥Àæw ¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ MAzÀÄ CAPÀ.
-2
2. N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀİè AiÀÄÄ.J¸ï.J£ï ¸ÀASÉå ºÁUÀÆ ¥À±Éß ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ

C
10
±ÉæÃtÂAiÀÄ£ÀÄß CAzÀgÉ A, B, C CxÀªÁ D AiÀÄ£ÀÄß vÀ¦à®èzÀAvÉ PÀqÁØAiÀĪÁV

-V
UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ C¨sÀåyðAiÀÄ dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
6-

3. N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è ¤UÀ¢¥Àr¹gÀĪÀ ¸ÀܼÀzÀ°è ¨sÀwðªÀiÁqÀzÉ


C
-1

-V
ºÁUÉAiÉÄà ©lÖ°è CxÀªÁ ¨sÀwðªÀiÁrzÀ ªÀiÁ»wAiÀİè AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ
U

ªÀåvÁå¸À«zÀݰè CAvÀºÀ GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß gÀzÀÄÝ ¥Àr¸À¯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.


VT

4..4 PÉêÀ® MAzÀÄ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁvÀæ GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀİè UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀvÀPÀÌzÀÄÝ. MAzÉ


m
-V

¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ JgÀqÀÄ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ CªÀiÁ£Àå.


3p
5. J¯Áè GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ªÀÄUÉ MzÀV¸À¯ÁzÀ N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ

C
C

:0

-V
ºÁ¼ÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É PÀ¥ÀÄà CxÀªÁ ¤Ã° ±Á»AiÀÄ ¨Á¯ï¥Á¬ÄAmï ¥É¤ß¤AzÀ
-V

32

UÀÄgÀÄvÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
C
C

1. ಕ ಗರ ಾವ ಇದರ ಕತೃ ಾರು?


-V
01
-V

a) ಆಂಡಯ b) ಹಂಪ ಾ c) ಪಂಪ d) ಬಸವಣ


C
23
C

-V
-V

20

2. ಜಯನಗರ ಾಲದ ಧಮ ಸಮನ ಯ ೆಯನು ಾ ಾ ದ ಾಜ ಾರು?


C
VC

a) ಕೃಷ ೇವ ಾಯ b) ಬುಕ ಾಯ c) ೇವ ಾಯ d) ಹಕ ಾಯ


0-

-V
-1

C
16

3.
-V

ಕನ ಡ ಾ ನ ಾಸನಗಳ ಮು ಾ ಲು ಾಲು ಾವ ದರ ವರ ೆ ಮತು ಪ ಶ ೆ ೕಸ ಾ ೆ?


a) ಾನ b) ೕರ c) ಾ ತ d) ಾ ೆ
C
-V

4. ಸು ಾರು 18೦೦ ರ ೕ ಕ ಾ ಟಕ ಏ ೕಕರಣದ ಅ ಾ ಯವನು ಯ ಅ ಾ ಗ ೆ


C

ದವರು ಾರು?
-V

a) ಾಲ b) ಾಕ ಕಬ c) ಾಮ ಮ ೊ ೕ d) ಾ ೆ.
Ver – A - 1 of 6
C
-V
VC
BKSKK107/207

pm
5. ಕ ಾ ಟಕ ಗತ ೈಭವ ಗ ಂಥದ ೇಖಕರು ಾರು?
a) ಕು ೆಂಪ b) ಆಲೂರು ೆಂಕಟ ಾಯರು c) ಾ d) .ಎ . ಎ .

4
6 :5
6. 1973 ನ ೆಂಬ 1 ರಂದು ೖಸೂರು ಾಜ ೆ ---------ಎಂದು ಾಮಕರಣ ಾಡ ಾ ತು?

:0
a) ೖಸೂರು b) ನವಕ ಾ ಟಕ c) ನವ ೖಸೂರು d) ಕ ಾ ಟಕ

01

C
-V
3
7. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆ ಾವ ಾ ಾ ವಗ ೆ ೇ ೆ?

02

C
-V
a) ೆ -2 b) ತು ೇ ಯ c) ಾ ಡ d) ಇಂ ೋಆಯ

C
10

-V
8. ಎಷ ೇ ಅನು ೇದದ ಅನು ಾರ ಆ ಾ ಾಜ ಗಳ ಬಳ ೆ ಾಗುವ ಾ ೆಗಳ ೆ ೕ ಆಡ ತ ಾ ೆ ಂದು
6-

ೕ ಾ ಸ ಾ ತು. C
-1

-V
a) 343 b) 344 c) 345 d) 346
U
VT

9. m
-V

ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆಯ ಯನು ಗಳ ಾ ಎಂದು ಕ ೆದವರು ಾರು?


3p
a) ಸ ೋ ಾಯ b) ಮದ ೆ ೆ ಾ

C
C

:0

c) ೋ ಾ ಾ ೆ d) ಾ ಾ -V
ಲ ೕ ಾ
-V

32

C
C

-V

10. ಕ ಾ ಟಕದ ಆಡ ತ ಾ ೆ
01
-V

a) ಇಂ ೕಷ b) ಕನ ಡ c) ತುಳ d) ೊಂಕ
C
23
C

-V
-V

20

11. ೇಡರ ಾ ಮಯ ನ ವಚನಗಳ ಅಂ ತ ಾವ ದು?


C
VC

0-

-V

a) ಗು ೇಶ ರ b) ಕೂಡಲಸಂಗಮ ೇ ಾ c) ಾಮ ಾಥ d) ೆನ ಮ ಾಜು ನ


-1

C
16

-V

12. ಹು ಗಂ ಹುತವ ೊಕ ೆ ಏನು ಂಬುದ ಾಬು ೆ?


a) ಸಪ b) ಆ ೆ c) ಕಮ d) ಮೃತು
C
-V

13. ಕ ಘನ ಅಂಕುಶ ೆನ ಬಹು ೆ ಾರದಯ ವಚನದ ವಚನ ಾರರು ಾರು?


C
-V

a ) ಅಕ ಮ ಾ ೇ b) ಆಯ ಲಕ ಮ c) ಆಯ ಾರಯ d) ಬಸವಣ
C

Ver – A - 2 of 6
-V
VC
BKSKK107/207

pm
14. ಕುರುಡ ಕಣ ಾಣಲ ಯ ೆ ಏನನು ಬಯ ನು?
a) ಶ ಯ b) ಕನ ಯ c) ಕಮ ವ d) ರ ಯ

4
6 :5
:0
15. ಾಯಕ ೇ ೈ ಾಸ ಾದ ಾರಣ ಅಮ ೇಶ ರ ಂಗ ಾ ಾದಡು ------ ೊಳಗು.

01
a) ಮನಸು b) ಕಮ c) ಾಯಕ d) ಕನ

C
-V
3
16. ಹಲವ ಾಲ ಕಲು ೕ ೊಳ ದ ೇನು ಬಲು ೆ ೆದು ಈ ೆ ಾಗುವ ೇ?

02

C
-V
a) ಅಮೃತ -2 b) ಅಮದು c) ವ ಥ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ.

C
10

-V
17. ತಲ ಸ ರು ಕಂಡ ಾಳ ಮನ ೇ ೕತ ೆಯ ೕತ ನ ಾರರು ಾರು?
6-

a) ಪ ರಂದರ ಾಸರು b) ಕನಕ ಾಸರು c) ಶು ಾಳ ಶ ೕಫರು d) ವ ೕ


C
-1

-V
U
VT

18. ಕುಂ ಾರ ಮೂರು ಾ ೊಂದು ಏನನು ಾರು ಾ ೆ?


C

m
-V

a) ಕುಡ b) ಗ ೆ c) ಮ ೆ d) ಗು ಾಣ
3p

C
C

:0

-V
-V

19. ಪ ರಂದರ ಾಸರ ವಚನಗಳ ಅಂ ತ ಾಮ ಾವ ದು?


32

a) ಾಮ ಾಥ b) ಠಲ c) ಗು ೇಶ ರ d) ಪ ರಂದರ ಠಲ
C

-V
01
-V

C
23

20. ಕುಂ ಾರ ಮ
C

ೆ ಾಡಲು ಬಳಸುವ ಮಣನು ಶ ೕಫರು ಾವ ದ ೆ ೋ ಾ ೆ?


-V
-V

a) ನ b) ಮುತು c) ರತ d) ಲವಣ
20

C
VC

0-

-V

21. ಮಂಕು ಮ ನ ಕಗ ಾವ ಾಗದ ಕ ಾರು?


-1

a) .ಎಂ. ೕ b) ೕ.ನಂ. ೕ c) .ಎ . ಎ d) .
16

-V
C

22. ಇರು ೆಗಳ ಕ ದ ಗೂಡು ಾವ ದ ೆ ಹುತ ಾಗುವ ದು?


-V

a) ಇ b) ಾವ c) ಼ಷಸಪ d) ಮುಂಗು
C
-V

Ver – A - 3 of 6
C
-V
VC
BKSKK107/207

pm
23. ೇಂ ೆ ಯವರ ಾವ ಕವನ ಸಂಗ ಹ ೆ ಾನ ೕಠ ಪ ಶ ಬಂ ೆ?
a) ಮೂಕ ಯ ಕನಸುಗಳ b) ಾಕುತಂ

4
:5
c) ಸಮಗ ಾ ತ d) ಾ ತ

6
:0
24. ಾ ಾಣ ಪದದ ಅಥ ೇನು?

01

C
a) ಾಬೂನು b) ಸರಕು c) ಸಂಯಮ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ

-V
3
02

C
25. ಾ ೆ ದವರ ಾವ ದು ತು ಯುತ ತು?

-V
a) ಹಣ b) ಾಂ ಾನ
-2 c) ದುಡು d) ಕುರುಡ ಾಂ ಾಣ

C
10

-V
26. ಕು ೆಂಪ ರವರ ಆತ ಕ ೆ ಾವ ದು?
6-

a) ಜನ b) ೆನ ನ ೋ c) ಜನ ಪಯಣ d) ಾವ ದು ಅಲ
C
-1

-V
U

27. ೕ ೆ ಮರು ಾದವರು ಾರು?


VT

a) ಾನವನು b) ಮ ೆಯರು c) ಮೂಖ m ಾನವರು d) ಾರು ಅಲ.


-V

3p

C
C

:0

28. ಭಗವಂತ ಾನವ ೆ ಾ ೊಂಡ ೆ, ದಲು ಅನ ದ ರೂಪದ -V ಾ ೊಳ ೇಕು ಎಂದು


-V

32

ೇ ದವರು ಾರು?
C
C

a) ಾಂ ೕ b) ೆಹರು c) ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ d) ಮೂ ಾ
:

-V
01
-V

29. ಾರು ಹು ದ ನವನು ಇಂ ಯ ನವ ಾ ಆಚ ಸ ಾಗು ೆ?


23
C

-V
-V

a) ಆ ೆ b) ಕ ೋ ೆ ಾ c) ಬು ೆ d) ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ
20

C
VC

0-

-V

30. 56 ೇ ಕನ ಡ ಾ ತ ಪ ಷತು ಾ ಾಗ ನ ೆ ತು?


-1

a) 1983 b) 1984 c) 1985 d) 1986


16

-V

31. ಬ ೆ ಯ ೕ ನ ಮುದ ಣ ಕ ೆ ೆ ಾವ ೇಶವ ಮೂಲ ೆ ೆ ಾ ೆ?


C
-V

a) ಾರತ b) ಇಂ ೆಂ c) ಾ d) ಅ ೕ ಾ
C

32. ಾ. ಕ ೕ ೌಡ ೕಚನಹ ಅವರ ಾದಂಬ ಾವ ದು?


-V

a) ಮ ೆ ಲು b) ಮ ೆ c) ಾಮನ ಲು d) ಮ ೆ ೋ ೆ
C

Ver – A - 4 of 6
-V
VC
BKSKK107/207

pm
33. ಾರತದ ೇ ೆ ೇ ೆ ಬಣಗಳನು ೕಡುವ ಸು ಾರು ಎಷು ಡಗ ೆ ಎಂದು ಅಂ ಾಜು

4
ಾಡ ಾ ೆ?

:5
a) 200 b) 300 c) 400 d) 500

6
:0
01
34. ಎಷು ವಷ ಗ ಂದ ಾರ ೕಯ ಕರಕುಶಲ ಕ ೆಗ

C
ೆ ಅ ಾರ ೇ ೆ ಇ ೆ?

-V
a) . ಪ . 2300 b) . ಶ. 2300 c) . ಪ . 2500 d) . ಶ 2500

3
02

C
-V
35. ಪ ಸುತ ನಗಳ ಇದನು ತ
-2 ಾ ಸಲು ಯಂತ ಗ ೇ ಇಲ.
a) ನ ಬು b) ಬು c) ೆದ ನಬು d) ೆ

C
10

-V
6-

36. ವಸು ೇಂದ ಅವರ ಾದಂಬ ಾವ ದು? C


-1

-V
a) ಹ ತ b) ಸತ c) ತ d) ಹ ತ ಸತ
U
VT

m
-V

37.
3p
ೋಪಣ ಾಸರರ ೆ ೕ ತನ ೆಸ ೇನು?

C
a) ಾ ಂ ಾಬರು b) ಾ ೇ c) ಕ ೕಂ ಾ d) ಾ ಾ ೇ
C

:0

-V
-V

32

C
C

38. ಪ ಾದನ ಾ ಯ ೆಸ ೇನು?


:

-V
01
-V

a) ರುದ ಮ b) ಾಳಮ c) ರು d) ಾಯಮ


C
23
C

-V
-V

39. ಪ ವಷ ಹರಂ ನ ದ ಾ ೆ ೋ ಾವ ೇವ ೆ ೇ ೆಸ ಸುವ ಸಂಪ ಾಯವನು


20

ಾಸರರು ರೂ
಼ ೊಂ ದರು?
VC

0-

-V

a) ೕಲು b) ೕಲು c) ೕರು d) ೕರು


-1

C
16

-V

40. ಾ ಂ ಾಬರ ಮಗನ ೆಸ ೇನು?


a) ಇಸ b) ಇ ಾ c) ಇ ಾ d) ಇ ಾ
C
-V
C

41. ಯು ಾ ಕ ೆಯ ಬರುವ ಾ ಾರು?


-V

a) ರಮ b) ಾ ಾ c) ಾವಣ d) ಾ ಾ
C

Ver – A - 5 of 6
-V
VC
BKSKK107/207

pm
42 ರು ಣಮ ಸತ ಎಷು ವಷ ಗಳ ಕ ೆ ೆ?
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

4
6 :5
43. ಾಡುವ ೆ ೆ ಂ ೆ ಇದ ೆಸ ೇನು?

:0
a) ಸಂ ೕತಪ ರ b) ಸಂ ೕತವ c) ಸಂ ೕತಹ d) ಸಂ ೕತನಗರ

01

C
-V
3
44. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ಾಗ ದಶ ಕರು ಾರು?

02

C
-V
a) ಕ ಯ b) ಕುಪ ಯ c) ಕುಪ ಯ ಕ ಯ d) ಾಳ
-2

C
10

-V
45. ಾ ೆ ಎಂಬ ಪ ೇಶದ ಾಸ ಾ ರುವ ಜ ಾಂಗ ಾವ ದು?
6-

a) ಕುಣ b) ಕುಣ c) ಕುಣವ d) ಕುಣಬ


C
-1

-V
U
VT

46. ಾ ಯ ಯಜ ಾನ ಾರು?
C

m
-V

a) ಯಂಕ b) ಯಶು c) ಯಶ d) ಯಂಕು


3p

C
C

:0

-V
-V

47. ಯಂಕು ನ ಪ ವ ಜರು ಾವ ಕ ೆಯವರು?


32

a) ೋ ಾ b) ಕ ಾ ಟಕ c) ೇರಳ d) ತ ಳ ಾಡು


C

-V
01
-V

48.
C

ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ಪ ಾಸ ಕಥನ ಕೃ ಾವ ದು?


23
C

-V

ಜನ ಜನರು ಜನ ಾ ೆ ಪಯನ ಾವ ದು ಅಲ
-V

a) b) c) d)
20

C
VC

0-

-V

49. ಾ ೆ ಪವ ತದ ಎತರ
-1

a) 6 ಾ ರ ಅ b) 5 ಾ ರ ಅ c) 5 . ೕ d) 5 ಅ
C
16

-V
C

50. ಾ. . ೋರ ಂಗಯ ನವರ ೆ ೕ ತನ ೆಸ ೇನು?


-V

a) ಂ ೇ ೌಡ b) ಾ ೕ ೌಡ c) ಭ ೆ ೕ ೌಡ d) ಂ ೇ ೌಡ
C

*****
-V

Ver – A - 6 of 6
C
-V
VC
BKSKK107

pm
USN Question Paper Version : A

2
:0
First Semester B.E. Degree Examination, Jan./Feb. 2023

8
ಾಂಸ ಕ ಕನ ಡ

:1
01

C
(COMMON TO ALL BRANCHES)

-V
Time: 1 hrs.] [Max. Marks: 50

3
¸ÀÆZÀ£ÉUÀ¼ÀÄ

02

C
-V
1. J®è 30 ¥Àæ±ÉßUÀ½UÀÆ GvÀÛj¹j. ¥Àæw ¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ MAzÀÄ CAPÀ.
-2
2. N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀİè AiÀÄÄ.J¸ï.J£ï ¸ÀASÉå ºÁUÀÆ ¥À±Éß ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ

C
05
±ÉæÃtÂAiÀÄ£ÀÄß CAzÀgÉ A, B, C CxÀªÁ D AiÀÄ£ÀÄß vÀ¦à®èzÀAvÉ PÀqÁØAiÀĪÁV

-V
UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ C¨sÀåyðAiÀÄ dªÁ¨ÁÝjAiÀiÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
2-

3. N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ°è ¤UÀ¢¥Àr¹gÀĪÀ ¸ÀܼÀzÀ°è ¨sÀwðªÀiÁqÀzÉ


C
-1

-V
ºÁUÉAiÉÄà ©lÖ°è CxÀªÁ ¨sÀwðªÀiÁrzÀ ªÀiÁ»wAiÀİè AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ
U

ªÀåvÁå¸À«zÀݰè CAvÀºÀ GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß gÀzÀÄÝ ¥Àr¸À¯ÁUÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.


VT

4..4 PÉêÀ® MAzÀÄ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀiÁvÀæ GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀİè UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀvÀPÀÌzÀÄÝ. MAzÉ


m
-V

¥Àæ±ÉßUÉ JgÀqÀÄ GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ CªÀiÁ£Àå.


2p
5. J¯Áè GvÀÛgÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤ªÀÄUÉ MzÀV¸À¯ÁzÀ N.JA.Dgï GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ

C
C

:4

ºÁ¼ÉAiÀÄ ªÉÄÃ¯É PÀ¥ÀÄà CxÀªÁ ¤Ã° ±Á»AiÀÄ ¨Á¯ï¥Á¬ÄAmï ¥É¤ß¤AzÀ -V


-V

32

UÀÄgÀÄvÀÄ ªÀiÁqÀ¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
C
C

-V
01
-V

1. 1800 ರ ಬ ಾ ೆಯ ಕ ೆಕ ಆ ದವರು---------.
C

A) B) ಪಂ ತ C) ಸ ಾಮ ಮ ೊ ೕ D) ಅ ಾ .
23
C

-V
-V

20

2. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆಯನು ಗಳ ಾ ಎಂದು ಕ ೆದವರು ---------.


C
VC

5-

-V

A) ಅಕ ಮ ಾ ೇ B) ೇ C) ಜನಪದ ೕ D) ೋ ಾ ಾ ೆ.
-0

C
12

-V

3. ಕನ ಡ ಾ ನ ಜನ ೆಯನು ವ ರುವ ಗ ಂಥ ----------.


A) ಗ B) ಸ ೕತ C) ಕಗ D) ಕ ಾಜ ಾಗ .
C
-V

4. ಾ ವಧ ಕ ಸಂಘವ ಎ ಾಪ ೆ ಾ ತು?
C

A) ಾರ ಾಡ B) ಹುಬ C) ಹ ಹರ D) ಾವಣ ೆ ೆ.
-V

Ver-A 1 of 6
C
-V
VC
BKSKK107

pm
5. ಜನಪದ ಾ ತ ದ ಪ ಾರಗಳ -----------.

2
:0
A) ಕವನ B) ಾದಂಬ

8
C) ಾಡು, ಒಗಟು, ಒಡಪ , ಾವ ೕ ೆ D) ತ ೇ ೆ.

:1
01

C
6. ನಗುವ ಸಹಜದ ಧಮ , ನ ೆಸುವ ದು ------------.

-V
A) ಧಮ B) ಅಧಮ C) ಹುಚು D) ಪರಧಮ .

3
02

C
-V
7. ವಸು ೆ ಶು ಾಳ ೕಶನ ಮುಂ ೆ ಾ ನದ ಮ
-2 ಂದು ಇಡು ಾ --------.
A) ಅಗಸ B) ಕುಂ ಾರ C) ಬ ೆ ಾ D) ಮುದು .

C
05

-V
2-

8. ೊತು ಕಣಕಣ ಮಣನು ೆದ ರು ೆಗಳ ಕ ದಗೂ ೆ ೇರುವ ದು ---------.


C
-1

A) B) ೕಜಗ C) ಗು D) ಸಪ .
-V
U
VT

9. m
ೊಟು ಕು ಯಲು ೇಡ, ಇಟು ಹಂ ಸ ೇಡ, ಎಷು ಂಡ ೆಂದು ಅನ ೇಡ, ಈ ಮೂರು ಮು ಾ ವ --------
-V

2p
ಸದ ೕ .

C
C

A) ಬ ಹ ನ B) ಷು ನ C) ಮ ೇಶ ರನ D) ವನ
:4

-V
-V

32

10. ತಲ ಸ ರು ಕಂಡ ಾಳ ಮನ ೇ, ೕತ ೆಯ ರಚ ೆ ಾರರು -------.


C

-V
01
-V

A) ಶರಣರು B) ವಚನ ಾರರು C ) ಕನಕ ಾಸರು D) ಪ ರಂದರ ಾಸರು.


C
23
C

-V
-V

11. ಕುರುಡು ಾಂ ಾಣದ ಕು ತ ಾಮೂಲು ಕು ತವಲ ಅದು ಎ ಾ -------- ಯ ತ.


20

A ) ಆಕೃ B) ೕಕೃ C) ಕೃ D) ಸಂಪತು.


VC

5-

-V
-0

12. ೋಪಣ ಾಸರರ ಮಗನ ೆಸ ೇನು --------?


12

-V

A) ಕ ೕಂ ಾ B) ಪ ಾದ C) ಾಮು D) ವಪ ಾದ.
C
-V

13. ಾ ಂ ಾಬರ ಮಗಳ ೆಸರು ------.


C

A) ರು B) ೇ ಾ C) ಾ ಾ D) ಾಂ .
-V
C

Ver-A 2 of 6
-V
VC
BKSKK107

2 pm
14. ಅ ಾಟ ಂ ನ ಜನರು ೋಪಣ ಾಸರರನು ಕ ೆ ದು ೕ ೆ -------.

:0
A) ಾತ B) ಾಸರ C) ಓ ಾ D) ಮುದುಕ.

8
:1
01

C
15. ಕನಕ ಾಸರ ಅಂ ತ ಾಮ --------.

-V
A) ಕನಕಪ B) ಾಸ

3
02

C
C) ಮ ಪ ಾಯಕ D) ಾ ೆ ೆಆ ೇಶವ ಾಯ.

-V
-2

C
16. ಆ
05
ಕ ಾ ಾಗು ಾ ಾ ಕ ಾ ೆಳಸರದ ರುವ ವ ಗಳ ಉ ೊಂಡು ಬಂ ರುವ

-V
ಾಂಪ ಾ ಕ ೌಲ ಗಳ ರು ಾ ರುವ ಕ ೆ ೕ, ಇ ಾ ೆ.
2-

A) ಶರಪಂಜರ B) ೋಮನದು C) ಾಗರ ಾವ D) ಯು ಾ .


C
-1

-V
U
VT

17. ಕಳ ೆ ಪದದ ಅಥ -------.


C

m
-V

A) ೕಲ B) ಭತ C) ಾ D) ೋಳ.
2p

C
C

:4

18. ಸಮು ಾಯ ಾ
-V
-V

ಾಣ ಾ ಗ ಾಡುವ ೌಯ ದ ಸಂ ೇ ಕ ಾ ಸುವ ಕ ೇ.


32

A) ಾಸನ B) ಗ ಕಲು C) ಾ ಾಸನ D) ೕರಗಲು.


C
C

-V
01
-V

19. ಕುರುಡ ಕಣು ಾಣಲ ಯ ೆ ------- ಬಯದು.


C
23
C

A) B) ಕಣು C) ಕನ D) ೇವರು.
-V
-V

20

20. ಕೂ
VC

ಕಂಬ ಯವರ ಾ ನ ೖ ೊಗಲ ಧೂ ಯ ------- ಹ ೆ ಳ ೊ.


5-

-V

A) ಕುಂಕುಮ B) ಭಂ ಾರ C) ಅಂ ಾರ D) ಶ ಮ.
-0

C
12

-V

21. ಹು ಾಗು ೆಟ ದ ಮ ೆ ೆ ------- ಆಗು.


C

A) ಮ ೆ B) ಅಬ ೆ C) ಾ D) ಸಂ ೆ.
-V

22.
C

ಂ ಾಸನ ೆ ೊ ೆ ಾಲ ಬಂ ರುವ ದು ---------.


-V

A) ಇಂದ B) ೌರವರು C) ಾಮ D) ಮಂ .
C

Ver-A 3 of 6
-V
VC
BKSKK107

pm
23. ಕನ ಡ ೆ ಪ ಥಮ ಾನ ೕಠ ಪ ಶ ತಂದು ೊಟ ವರು ----------.
A) ಾ ೆಂಕ ೇಶ ಅಯ ಂ ಾರ B) ವ ಾಮ ಾರಂತ

2
:0
C) ಕು ೆಂಪ D) . ಎ . ವರುದ ಪ .

8
:1
24. ಧಮ ಸ ಷ ೆ ಬ ೆ ೇಳ ವ ಾಸನ ಇ ಾ ೆ --------.

01

C
-V
A) ಶ ವಣ ೆಳ ೊಳದ ಾಸನ B) ಹ ಾಸನ

3
C) ಚಂದ ವ ಾಸನ D) ೇಲೂರು ಾಸನ.

02

C
-V
25. ನ
-2
ೆ ----------- ಬ ೆದವರು ಾರು?

C
05

A) ಕಣು B) C) ೆ ೆ D) ತ .

-V
2-

C
-1

26. -------- ಸಹಜಧಮ .


-V
U

A) ೇಳ ವ ದು B) ೇಳ ವ ದು C) ಅಳ ವ ದು D) ನಗುವ ದು


VT

m
-V

2p
27. ಾವ ಆ ೆಯನು ಕುಂ ಾರ ಮುಚು ವಳ ------- ?

C
C

A) ಗಡ B) ಆ ಾರ C) ಗುಣ D) ಭ .
:4

-V
-V

32

28. ಕ ಾ ಟಕ ಸಂ ೕತದ ಾಮಹ ಾರು -------- ?


C

-V
01
-V

A) ಆಲೂರು ೆಂಕಟ ಾಯರು B) ಕನಕ ಾಸರು


C) ಪ ರಂದರ ಾಸರು D) ಹ ಾಸರು.
C
23
C

-V
-V

20

29. ಾರ ಎಲುಬನು ಾಂ ಾಣ ರು ೆ ೆ ಾ ಾ ೊಂ ೆ ------- ?


C
VC

5-

-V

A) ಮಕ ಳ B) ಮುದುಕರು C) ೆಂಗಸರು D) ಾಣಂ .


-0

C
12

-V

30. ೊಸ ಗುರು -------- ಕೂ ರಲು ಮರ ೊಬಗು.


A) ಎ ೆ B) ಹ ರು C) ಾಂಡ D) ಹ ೇ ೇರು.
C
-V

31. ೇ ಾಡುವ ೕಘಗಳ ಮ ೆ ಇರುವ ದ ಂದ ೇ ಇದ ೆ ------- ಎಂಬ ೆಸರು ಬಂ ೆ.


C

A) ಸ ಾ B) ಕುಣ C) ಪವ ತ D) ಾ ೆ.
-V
C

Ver-A 4 of 6
-V
VC
BKSKK107

pm
32. ಾಸನದ ಬಯಲು ೕ ಂದ ಅಕ ಾ ಾ ಾ ೆ ೇ ರುವವರು ---------.

2
A) ೕತಮ B) ೕತಮ C) ಲ ಮ D) ಾರಮ .

8 :0
33. ಸಂ ೕತಪ ರವ ಈ ಂ ೆ

:1
ಾರ ಊ ಾ ತು?
A) ಸರು B) ಂದೂಗಳ ೈನರು D) ಾ ನ ಜನರ.

01
C)

C
-V
3
34. ಮನುಕುಲದ ಚ ೆಯ ಮ ೆಯರ ೈಕಸು ಾ ಆರಂಭ ಾದ ಕ ೆ ೕ -------.

02

C
-V
A) ಉದ ಮ B) ಗೃ ೋಪ ೕ C) ಕರಕುಶಲ ಕ ೆ D) ಕ ೆ.
-2

C
05

-V
35. ಸವ ಗೂ ಸಮ ಾಲು, ಸವ ಗೂ ಸಮ ಾಳ ಇದು -------- ದ ಾ .
2-

A) ಕ ಯುಗ B) ೆ ಾಯುಗ C C) ನವಯುಗ D) ಾಯುಗ.


-1

-V
U
VT

36. ೋ , ಾ ನತ ನ, ೋಲಪದ, ಗಮ ೆ, ಪದಗಳ ರಸ ೌತಣ ಇವ ಕುಣ ಯವರ ---------.


m
-V

ಾತುಗಳ B) ಾಡುಗಳ C) ಆಭರಣಗಳ D) ನೃತ ಗಳ .


2p
A)

C
C

:4

-V
-V

32

37. ಬ ೆ ಯ ೕ ನ ಮುದ ಣಕ ೆ ೆ ಮೂಲ ೆ ೆ ಾದ ೇಶ --------.


C
C

A) ಅ ೕ ಾ B) ಆ ಾ C) ಾರತ D) ಇಂ ೆಂ .
:

-V
01
-V

C
23
C

38. ಸತ ತನ ಸತ ೆ ಂದ ೇ ಪ ಾವ ಾ ಾಗಬಲ ೆಂಬುದು ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ ನವರ -------.


-V
-V

20

A) ೕ B) ಾಸ C) ಧಮ D) ನಂ ೆ.
C
VC

5-

-V

39. “ದು ದವ ೆ ಪ ಫಲ ೊ ೆಯ ೇ ೇಕು” ಎಂಬ ತತ --------.


-0

A) ಾಂ ೕ ಯವರದು B) ೆಹರುರವರದು
12

-V

C) ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ ನವರದು D) ಕು ೆಂಪ ರವರದು.


C
-V

40. ಕನ ಡ ಸಂಸ ಈ ೕ ಾ ೆ.
C

A) ಬಹುರೂ ಾ ೆ. B) ವಣ ರಂ ತ ಾ ೆ
-V

C) ೕವಂತ ಾ ೆ D) ೕ ನ ಎಲವ .
C

Ver-A 5 of 6
-V
VC
BKSKK107

pm
41. ಕನ ಡ ೆ ಅಪರೂಪದ ಘಂಟನು ರ ೊಟ ಜಮ ೇಶದ ಕ --------.

2
A) ಟ B) ಅಂ ೋ C) ಅಂ ಾ D) ಾ ೆ.

8 :0
42 ಾರತ ಸ ಾ ರವ ಕನ ಡ ಾ ೆಯನು ಏ ೆಂದು ೂೕ ೆ?

:1
A) B) ಾತೃ ಾ ೆ C) ಆಡ ತ ಾ ೆ D) ಾ ೕಯ ಾ ೆ.

01

C
-V
43. ಯು ಾ ಕ ೆಯ ರುವ ಪ ಾದ ------- ಇಂ ಯ .

3
A) ಾ ೇ ಇಂ ಯ B) ಇಂ ಯ

02

C
-V
C) ಾಫ ೇ ಇಂ ಯ D) ಾ ಕ ಇಂ ಯ .
-2

C
44.
05
ದಲ ಾ ೋಗ ಜಲ ಾತ ಕಂಡು ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ ಅವರು ಉದ ದು -------.

-V
A) ಎಷೂ ಂದು ಶ ೕ ಾಗು ೆ. B) ಎ ೊ ಂದು ೕಕರ ಾ ೆ.
2-

C) ಎ ೊ ಂದು ಗ ೕ ಾ ೆ D) ಇದನು ೋ ದ ಾ ೇ ಧನ .


C
-1

-V
U

45. ಮಂಡ ೆಯ ಜನ ೆ ಅನ ಬ ಹ ಾ ಅವ ಾರ ಪ ರುಷ ಾ ೆ ಾ ೊಂಡವರು ------.


VT

A) ಎ.ಎ . ಮೂ ಾ B) ಸ . ಎಂ. ೆ ೕಶ ರಯ
m
-V

C) ಕಂ ಾರ D) ಕು ೆಂಪ .
2p

C
46. ೋಪಣ ಾಸರರ ಆ ಯ ೆ ೆಯ--------
C

:4

-V
-V

A) ಾ ಂ ಾಬರು B) ನರ ಂಹಮೂ C) ಪ ಾದ D) ಾ ಹ ಣ.
32

C
C

-V
01

47. ರಸಋ
-V

ಎಂದು ಕರಯಲ ಡುವ ಕ ------.


A) B) ಕು ೆಂಪ C) .ಎ . ವರುದ ಪ D) ೋ ಂದ ೈ.
C
23
C

-V
-V

48. ಕ ಗರ ಾವ ಕೃ ಯನು ರ ದವರು ---------.


20

A) ಪಂಪ B) ಆಂಡಯ C) ಹ ಾಸನ D) ಾವ .


VC

5-

-V
-0

49. ಕುಣ
C

ಜ ಾಂಗದವರು ಮೂಲತ: ಾವ ಾಜ ದ ನ ೆ ೊಂ ಾ ೆ.


12

-V

A) ಮಧ ಪ ೇಶ B) ಾಜ ಾ C) ಆಂಧ ಪ ೇಶ D) ೋ ಾ.


C

50. ಾರತದ ಬ ೆ ಗಳ ತ ಾ ೆ ೆ ೇ ೆ ೇ ೆ ಬಣಗಳನು ೕಡುವ ಸು ಾರು -----.


-V

A) 300 B) 2500 C) 600 D) 200.


C
-V

*****
C

Ver-A 6 of 6
-V
VC
pm
BKBKK107/207

6
Question Paper Version : A

:5
USN

5
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, Dec.2023/Jan.2024

:1
Balake Kannada

01

C
(COMMON TO ALL BRANCHES)

-V
Time: 1 hrs.] [Max. Marks: 50

4
02

C
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

-V
1.
-2
Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

C
02
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

-V
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle
2-

C
corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.
-2

-V
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
U

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly


VT

m
-V

prohibited.
1p

C
C

Fill in the blanks with suitable words given:


:0

-V
-V

32

1. niinu
a) yaaru b) adu c) yaake d) avaru
C
C

-V
01
-V

2. adu ________ pustaka?


a) yaara b) enu c) niivu d) avaru
C
24
C

3. idu ____________ Kaaleju


-V
-V

a) niivu b) avaru c) avaLa d) yaake


20

avaru __________gurugaLu.
C

4.
VC

a) enu b) yaake c) namma d) elli


2-

-V
-0

5. ______ nanna Amma


C

a) avaLu b) avanu c) yaake d) idu


22

-V

Write appropriate words to fill the blank and make sentence meaningful.
C

6. idu __________ mane.


-V

a) enu b) avaLa c) huDuga d) yaake

7. naanu ___________bandenu.
C

a) Kaalejige b) avana c) avara d) enu


-V

8. niivu ___________ hoguttiddira?


a) ellige b) enu c) avara d) avana
C
-V

Version A - 1 of 4
VC
pm
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6
9. ivaru ______ akka.

:5
a) nanna b) naNNa c) enu d) Nanna

5
10. adu yaara __________.

:1
a) Mane b) mane c) enu d) nanna

01

C
-V
Change the word as per the model:
(Ex : doDDa + avanu = doDDavanu)

4
02

C
11. SaNNa _________.

-V
a) sannavanu b) saNNavanu
-2 c) SaNNavaNu d) SANNAVANu

12. Chikka _____

C
02
a) ChikkavaLu b) Chikkavanu c) CHIkkavanu d) CiKKaVNu

-V
2-

13. KeTTa
a) kettavanu b) KeTTavanu C c) KeTTavaNu d) KettavaNu
-2

-V
14. ettara
U

a) ettaradavanu b) ettaravanu c) Ettaradavanu d) ETTaradavanu


VT

15. mane m
-V

a) maneyavanu b) Maneyavanu c) ManeYavanu d) maneyavaNu


1p

C
C

:0

Transform the following words of Kannada as per the given model.-V


-V

(SaNNa - SaNNadu)
32

C
C

16. DoDDa ________


:

-V
01

a) DoDDadu b) doDDadu c) doddadu d) DODDADU


-V

17. avara _________


C
24
C

a) avaradu b) Avaradu c) avaraDu d) AVARADU


-V
-V

20

18. namma ________


a) nammadu b) NammaDu c) nammaDu d) NaMMaDu
C
VC

2-

-V

19. hoSa ________


a) hoSadu b) Hosadu c) HoSaDu d) hoSaDu
-0

C
22

20. avaLa _______


-V

a) avaLadu b) AvaLadu c) avaladu d) avanadu


C

Transform the following words of Kannada as per the given model:


-V

(mane – maneyalli)

21. raSte _________


C

a) raSteyalli b) Rasteyalli c) RasTeyalli d) raSteYalli


-V

22. pustaka ___________


a) pustakadalli b) pustakaDalli c) Pustakadalli d) PUSTAKADalli
C
-V

Version A - 2 of 4
VC
pm
BKBKK107/207
23. angaDi __________

6
a) angaDiyalli b) Angadiyalli c) angadiyalli d) angaDiyalli

:5
24. byag ________

5
a) byaginalli b) byagiNalli c) byagalli d) byaGalli

:1
01
25. daari

C
a) daariyalli b) daariYalli c) daarinalli d) Daariyalli

-V
4
Fill in the blanks with suitable words to make the sentence meaningful:

02

C
-V
26. avaLu nimma _________
-2
a) akka b) Akka c) anna d) tamma

C
02

27. avara ________ yaavudu?

-V
a) aane b) mane c) MANE d) Mane
2-

28. nimma hesaru ______? C


-2

a) enu b) yavadu c) yaake d) Enu


-V
U

29. avaLu nanna __________


VT

a) snehite b) snehita c) geleya d) huDuga


m
-V

1p
30. Kaalejige hoguva _____ yaavadu?
a) Daari b) daari c) DAARI d) DaaRi

C
C

:0

-V
-V

Change the word as per the model given:


32

(KuDi – KuDiyiri)
C
C

31. tinni _________


-V
01
-V

a) tinniri b) tinniyiri c) tindiri d) tandiri


C

32. ese __________


24
C

-V

a) eseyiri b) eseiyiri c) Eseyiri d) eseiri


-V

20

33. nuDi _________


C

a) nuDiyiri b) Nudisiri c) NUDIYIRI d) nudiyiri


VC

2-

-V

34. Savi _______


-0

a) Saviyiri b) Savida c) Satya d) Sullu


C
22

-V

35. mare __________


a) mareyiri b) Kareyiri c) MAREYIRI d) Mariri
C

Fill in the blanks using the correct form of the Kannada word to make sentence
-V

meaningful one.

36. niinu _______ (who)


C

a) yaaru b) Yaaru c) YAARu d) yaru


-V

37. indu _________ uurige hogoNavaa? (we)


a) naavu b) Naavu c) NAAvu d) Naau
C
-V

Version A - 3 of 4
VC
pm
BKBKK107/207
38. idu ________ pustaka. (her)

6
a) avaLa b) avana c) avara d) nanna

:5
39. _________ nanna snehita. (He)

5
a) AvaLu b) Avanu c) Avara d) Namma

:1
01
40. indu ___________ Kaalejige baruttiyaa? (You)

C
a) niinu b) Ninu c) neenu d) Neenu

-V
4
Transform the following words into Kannada as per the model:

02

C
(ondu – ondaneya)

-V
41. eradu _________
-2

C
a) eradaneya b) ondaneya c) HattaNeya d) Mooraneya
02

-V
42. muuru _________
2-

a) muuraneya b) Muraneya c) MuuRaneya d) MUURANEYa


C
-2

43. Aidu __________


-V
U

a) aidaneya b) Aidaneya c) aiduaneya d) AIDANEya


VT

44. aaru _______


m
-V

a) aaraneya b) aaraneYa c) Araneya d) AAraneya


1p
45. enTu ________

C
C

a) enTaneya b) Entaneya c) entaneya d) EnTaneya


:0

-V
-V

32

Translate following words as per model: (iru – irutteve)


C
C

-V
01
-V

46. baru _________


a) barutteve b) Barutteve c) Bartivi d) bartivi
C
24
C

47. hogu _________


-V
-V

a) hogutteve b) hoguTTeve c) Hogutteve d) HOGUTTEVE


20

48. tinnu _______


VC

2-

-V

a) tinnutteve b) Tinnutteve c) TinnuTTeve d) TINNUTTEVE


-0

49. KoDu ___________


C

a) Kodutteve b) KoDutteve c) KoDUtteve d) KODUTTEVE


22

-V

50. maadu _____________


a) maadutteve b) maaduTTeve c) maaDutteve d) maaDuTTeve
C
-V

*****
C
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Version A - 4 of 4
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Question Paper Version : A

4
USN

:5
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

6
Balake Kannada

:0
01

C
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

-V
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

3
02

C
-V
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.
2.
-2
Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

C
10
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

-V
6-

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.


C
-1

4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
-V
U

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly


VT

prohibited.
m
-V

1p

C
C

1. ‘Mane’ in kannada means,


:0

-V
-V

a) Mouse b) Spouse c) Home d) Browse


32

2. Choose the suitable kannada word for ‘easy’,


C

-V

a) Nasta b) Ista c) Kashta d) sulabha


01
-V

3. Choose the correct kannada word for ‘brother’?


C

a) amma b) aNNa c) appa d) ajja


23
C

-V
-V

4. avanu _________ huDuga.


20

a) Ondu b) yaake c) OLLeya d) tumba


C
VC

0-

-V

5. niinu means ______.


-1

a) you b) your c) them d) they


C
16

-V

6. avaLu __________.
a) I b) We c) You d) She
C

7. That, means ________.


-V

a) Enu b) yaavadu c) adu d) yaake


C

8. This is house _______.


a) idu Enu b) idu building c) idu guDi d) idu mane
-V
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9. “Good morning” means______.
a) Shubhodaya b) Shubha vagali c) Shubha rathri d) Shubha sanje

4
10. This is story ________

:5
a) idu paaTha b) idu kathe c) idu drama d) idu kavana

6
:0
11. avaru _________ gurugaLaa! (Choose the right word).
a) Enu b) yaake c) nimma d) yaava

01

C
-V
12. avanu nimma _______?

3
a) akkana b) geLeyana c) tangina d) ammana

02

C
13. Krishnanu arjunanige __________

-V
a) aNNa -2b) Saarathi c) geLeya d) maava

C
10
14. naaLe niinu manege _________.

-V
a) baa b) Enu c) yaava d) bara
6-

15. nanage Tea _________.


C
-1

a) kuDi b) tinnu c) bantu d) beaDa


-V
U

16. Taste _________


VT

a) baNNa b) sihi c) Ruchi d) kahi


m
-V

1p
17. “Salty” word in kannada,

C
a) taaja b) uppu c) Kaara d) huLi
C

:0

-V
-V

18. “clean” meaning in kannada,


32

a) Subhra b) asubhra c) shucha d) dark


C
C

-V

19. He is my son _________.


01
-V

a) adu nanna magu b) avanu nanna maga


c) nanna geLeya d) avanu maga
C
23
C

-V
-V

20. _________ yaava Uuru?


20

a) nanna b) namma c) idu d) indu


C
VC

0-

-V

21. nimma hesaru ___________


a) Enu b) yaaru c) yaavdu d) naavu
-1

22. Choose correct English letter for the kannada word “father”.
16

-V

a) amma b) aNNa c) appa d) Chikkappa


C

23. “Identification” means ________ .


a) mark b) gurutu c) chinne d) land
-V

24. Who are you ? Means.


C

a) yaaru niinu b) yaaru nimma c) niinu d) niinu yaaru?


-V
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25. Kaaleju illinda __________ duura ide?
a) heege b) eshtu c) idu d) heenu

4
26. Do you want rice? Means_________.

:5
a) ninage Uuta beaka b) ninage anna c) ninage anna beaka d) aNNa beaka

6
:0
27. He is my friend _________
a) ivanu geLeya b) snehitha

01

C
c) OLLeya geLeya d) ivanu nanna geLeya

-V
3
28. “All the best” word in kannada _______.
a) Shubhavaagali b) VandanegaLu c) Shubhadina d) Shubhoodaya

02

C
-V
29. Which is your place?____________
-2
a) Uuru yaavudu? b) nimma Uuru yaavudu c) nimma Uuru d) yaavudu Uuru

C
10

-V
30. What is this? __________
6-

a) adu Enu? b) idu yaake? c) idu Enu? d) adu esTu?


C
-1

31. Namma gurugaLu. ________


-V
a) Your teacher b) Their teacher
U

c) Them teacher d) Our teacher


VT

m
-V

32. Indu Kaalejige _______.


1p
a) go (hoogu) b) small (chikka) c) white (biLi) d) green (hasiru)

C
C

:0

33. Had your breakfast? ___________ -V


-V

a) UuTa ayitaa b) tinDi ayitaa


32

c) UuTa d) tinDi
C
C

-V

34. Change the word from as per the model :


01
-V

Ex : - Ondu – Ondaneya, muuru _______.


a) maaraneya b) muurudaya c) mooraneya d) mooru
C
23
C

-V
-V

35. Change the word from as per the model :


20

Ex : - KuDi – KuDiyoro, nuDi __________.


C

a) nudi b) nuDiri
VC

0-

-V

c) nuDiye d) nuDiyiri
-1

36. naanu ____________bengalurige hoguve (Tommorrow).


C

a) naaLe b) ivattu c) nenne d) indu


16

-V

37. _________ nanage heLuttiraa (you).


C

a) ninna b) naaVu c) niivu d) nimma


-V

38. Come fast _________.


a) beaga hogu b) beaga nade
C

c) beaga baa d) beaga bande


-V
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39. Stand up __________.
a) eddu baa b) eddu nade
c) eddu hoogu d) eddu nillu

4
:5
40. When did you come? _________

6
a) yaavaga bandiri? b) yaake bandiri

:0
c) enu bandiri? d) yaake baruviri.

01

C
41. What is your name? __________

-V
a) ninna hesarenu? b) niinu yaaru?

3
c) yaaru niinu? d) hesaru yeenu?

02

C
42. Ravivara means ____________

-V
a) Wednesday -2 b) Sunday
c) Monday d) Tuesday

C
10

-V
43. Don’t eat ? _________.
6-

a) tinnu b) beeDa c) tinnabeeDa d) tinde


C
-1

44. Helping verbs “Iru-iralla, baru _______.


-V
a) bande b) baruve
U

c) baru d) baralla
VT

m
-V

45. How are you? _________


1p
a) hege b) hegiddiri c) heegide d) hegittu

C
C

:0

46. Choose the correct English word for the Kannada word “Granthalaya”.
-V
-V

a) Library b) Home c) Cafe d) School


32

47. I want this? _________


C

-V

a) idu beeku b) beekidu


01
-V

c) idu nanage beeku d) beeku adu


C
23
C

48. “Good morning Sir”?__________.


-V
-V

a) namaste b) namaskara Saar c) Sir namaskara d) VandanegaLu Sar


20

49. Translate “hundred” in to kannada?


VC

0-

-V

a) nooru b) aivattu
c) hattu d) eradu
-1

50. “Tomorrow is holiday”. Translate word in kannada.


16

-V

a) naaLe raje b) indu raje


c) rajadina d) raje indu
C

*****
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C
-V

Version A - 4 of 4
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BKBKK107

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:0
Question Paper Version : A
USN

8
First Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, Jan./Feb. 2023

:1
Balake Kannada

01

C
-V
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

3
02
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

C
-V
1.
-2
Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

C
05
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

-V
3. For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle
2-

corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.


C
-1

-V
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
U

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly


VT

m
-V

prohibited.
9p
1. Which of the following are the hints for correct and polite conversation?

C
C

a) pronounce the words properly b) use plural forms to address others


:3

-V
-V

c) use simple sentences for conversation d) All of these


32

Fill in the blank by translating the given English word to Kannada.


C
C

-V
01
-V

2. We : _______
a) NaaVu b) Namage
C

c) Namma d) Nimage
23
C

-V
-V

3. She : _______
20

a) Neenu b) Avanu
C

c) Naanu d) Avalu
VC

5-

-V

4. This : ______
-0

a) Adu b) Alli
C

c) Idu d) Both a and b


12

-V

5. Yaaru : ______
a) where b) who
C

c) what d) when
-V

Complete the following:


C

6. Naanu : Nanna ; Neenu : ________


-V

a) Avala b) Ninna
c) Avana d) Avara
C
-V

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7. Amma : Mother ; Tangi : _______

2
a) Sister b) Brother

:0
c) Father d) Friend

8
8. What : Enu ; Where : _______

:1
a) Elli b) Hege

01

C
c) Eeke d) Yaaru

-V
9. The meaning of Vidyarthi in English

3
a) School b) College

02

C
c) Teacher d) Student

-V
-2
10. Choose the correct Kannada Translation of
“Nimma Hesaru eenu?”

C
05
a) What is your age? b) What is your name?

-V
c) What are you doing? d) What is the college name?
2-

11. “Prarthana’s book is Blue”. Pusthakada Banna Yaavudu?


C
-1

a) Kappu b) Bili
-V
c) Neeli d) Hasiru
U
VT

Note : Match the correct answer using the table given below for Q.12 to Q.17
C

English word m
Kannada word
-V

9p
i - Red a - Dappa
ii - Long b - chikka

C
C

:3

iii - Green c - gidda -V


-V

iv - Thick d - Kempu
32

v - Short e - udda
C

vi - Small f - Hasiru
C

-V

12. Meaning of Red ________


01
-V

a) i - f b) i - a
c) i - d d) i - b
C
23
C

-V

13. Meaning of Long ________


-V

20

a) ii – c b) ii – b
c) ii – d d) ii – e
C
VC

5-

-V

14. Meaning of green ________


a) iii – f b) iii – e
-0

c) iii – d d) iii – a
12

-V

15. Meaning of Thick ______


a) iv – e b) iv – b
C

c) iv – d d) iv – a
-V

16. Meaning of Short _______


a) v – c b) v – e
C

c) v – d d) v – f
-V

17. Meaning of Small ______


a) vi – a b) vi – e
C

c) vi – b d) vi – d
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18. Avanu _____ Huduga.

2
a) JaaNa b) Vidhyarthi

:0
c) Kelasa d) All of these

8
19. Bengaluru _______ Nagara.

:1
a) Dodda b) Bili

01

C
c) Jaasti d) Halli

-V
20. In Kannada what to say for “Little”

3
a) Ishta b) Jaasti

02

C
c) Swalpa d) None of these

-V
-2
Note : Complete the analogy (from Q.21 to Q.23)

C
05
21. Raaja : Rajanadu :: Akka : _______

-V
a) Akkanadu b) Akkadu
2-

c) Akkaninda d) None of these


C
-1

22. Mane : Maneyali :: uuru : ________


-V
a) uurinind b) uurige
U

c) uuralli d) uurannu
VT

23. Seven : Elu :: Ten : _______ m


-V

a) Muuru b) Aaru
9p
c) Hattu d) Ondu

C
C

:3

Note : Translate into English for the given Kannada sentences: -V


-V

32

24. Neevu Yaaru?


C
C

a) Who are you? b) What is your name?


:

-V
01

c) Had your dinner? d) Where are you?


-V

25. oota aita?


C
23
C

a) Had your food? b) Had your exams?


-V
-V

c) Where is oota? d) How was the food?


20

26. Nanna Hesaru Amar.


C
VC

a) My friend is Amar. b) My name is Amar.


5-

-V

c) Amar is my brother. d) Amar is my friend.


-0

27. Kannada gotta?


12

a) I love Kannada b) Kannada is a language


-V

c) I know Kannada d) Do you know Kannada


C

28. Ivaru Nanna Amma.


-V

a) She is my mother b) She is my friend


c) She is my sister d) None of these
C

Note : Fill in the blank choosing the right word (Q.29 to Q.33)
-V

29. Granthalaya means ________


a) Library b) Class room
C

c) Temple d) Lab
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30. “Arogya” means

2
a) Shelter b) House

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c) Wealth d) Health

8
31. “Shubhodaya” means

:1
a) Good morning b) Good night

01

C
c) Have a nice day d) Good evening

-V
32. “Good night” means

3
a) Shubha Raatri b) Danyavadagalu

02

C
c) Kshamisi d) None of these

-V
33. “Ishta Illa” means -2
a) I will not do b) I don’t like

C
05
c) Both a and b are correct d) I will do

-V
2-

Note : Choose the appropriate answer (Q.No. 34 to Q.No. 36)


C
-1

-V
34. Hogu : Hogona :: Ba : _______
U

a) Baralla b) Barona
VT

c) Hodanu d) Bandanu
C

m
-V

35. Kalegu + inda : Kalegininda :: Mane + inda : _________


9p
a) Maneyalli b) Manege

C
c) Maneyinda d) Maneyannu
C

:3

-V
-V

36. Kudi : Kudiyiri :: Haaki : ______


32

a) Haakona b) Beku
C

c) Hakuvudilla d) Haakiri
C

-V
01
-V

37. “Naanu collegige hogutiddene”. Change this to simple past.


a) Naanu collegige Barolla b) Naanu collegige hogalla
C
23
C

c) Namma collegige Raje Ide d) Naanu collegige Hogidde


-V
-V

38. Had your breakfast? Choose the correct answer in Kannada.


20

a) Aitu b) Beda
C
VC

c) Both a and b d) None of these


5-

-V

Write the English word for the given Kannada word


-0

C
12

39. Tale ________


-V

a) Neck b) Head
c) Leg d) Hand
C

40. Kaalu ________


-V

a) neck b) Hand
c) Leg d) Head
C
-V

41. Tarakaari _______


a) Vegetable b) Fruit
c) Banana d) Milk
C
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42. Habba _______

2
a) Festival b) Marriage

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c) Heritage d) Ritual

8
43. Maga _______

:1
a) Father b) Mother

01

C
c) Son d) Daughter

-V
44. Mane _______

3
a) Temple b) House

02

C
c) Hospital d) Church

-V
-2
Note : Write Kannada word for the given English word.

C
05

-V
45. Holiday _______
2-

a) Health b) Festival
c) Celeberations d) Raje
C
-1

-V
46. Song ________
U

a) Kadime b) Nrutya
VT

c) Vignana d) Haadu
C

m
-V

9p
Note : Choose the correct word to complete the sentence.

C
C

:3

47. Ivaru Nanna _______ -V


-V

a) Doddadu b) Sari Ide


32

c) Chikkadu d) Tande
C
C

-V

48. Nanna _______ Bengaluru.


01
-V

a) ooru b) Kaalu
c) ishta d) Nagu
C
23
C

-V

49. Nanage Kannada _______


-V

a) Red b) Gottu
20

c) Blue d) Green
C
VC

5-

-V

50. Neenu ______ Baa


a) Anna b) Akka
-0

c) Bega d) Tande
C
12

-V

*****
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C
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C

Version A - 5 of 5
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BSFHK158/258

pm
Question Paper Version : A
USN
First/Second Semester B.E./B.Tech. Degree Examination, June/July 2023

0
:5
Scientific Foundation of Health

5
Time: 1 hr.] [Max. Marks: 50

:1
01

C
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

-V
3
1. Answer all the fifty questions, each question carries one mark.

02

C
2. Use only Black ball point pen for writing / darkening the circles.

-V
3. -2
For each question, after selecting your answer, darken the appropriate circle

C
10
corresponding to the same question number on the OMR sheet.

-V
4. Darkening two circles for the same question makes the answer invalid.
0-

5. Damaging/overwriting, using whiteners on the OMR sheets are strictly


C
-2

-V
prohibited.
U
VT

1. What is health?
C

a) Physical wellbeing m
b) Mental wellbeing
-V

c) Social wellbeing d) All of the above


7p

C
2. Important roles of health are
C

:4

a) Fighting disease b) Feeling happy c) Enjoy life


-V d) All of the above
-V

32

3. As per WHO health is defined as a state of complete


C
C

a) Physical Wellbeing b) Mental wellbeing


:

-V
01
-V

c) Social wellbeing d) Physical, mental, social wellbeing

Wellness is
C

4.
23
C

a) Positive approach b) Negative approach


-V
-V

c) Positive or Negative approach d) Positive and Negative approach


20

5. Wellness dimensions are


VC

0-

-V

a) 4 b) 2 c) 6 d) 8
-1

6. Intellectual wellness includes


C

a) Eating balanced diet b) Drinking sufficient water


20

-V

c) Having good nutrition d) Mental exercise

7. Physical health enhances


C

a) Heart function b) Breathing c) Both a and b d) None of these


-V

8. Influencing factors of health are


a) Social, economic, political factor b) Social factor only
C

c) Economical factor only d) Political factor only


-V

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BSFHK158/258
9. Factor which influence health are
a) Individual factor b) Individual behavior

pm
c) Public service and infrastructure d) All of the above

10. Psychologic disorders are

0
a) Anxiety, depression, stress b) Stress, Anxiety

:5
c) Depression, anxiety d) None of the above

5
11. BMI stands for

:1
a) Body mass index b) Body material index

01

C
c) Body mass indication d) None of the above

-V
12. Overweight in BMI is (Kg/m2)

3
a) > 30 b) > 25 c) < 25 d) < 30

02

C
13. Cause of obesity and overweight

-V
a) Energy imbalance -2
b) Energy imbalance

C
10
c) Energy balance between calories consumed and calories expended

-V
d) None of the above
0-

14. Hyper obesity value in terms of BMI (in Kg/m2)


C
-2

a) > 25 b) < 25 c) > 40 d) <40


-V
U

15. Hyper is definition of overweight?


VT

a) BMI > 25 Kg/m2 b) BMI = 25 Kg/m2


C

c) BMI 25 - 29.9 Kg/m2 m


d) BMI 25 – 30 Kg/m2
-V

7p
16. Which of the following disease does obesity increase the risk of developing?

C
C

a) Type 2 diabetes b) High blood pressure


:4

-V
-V

c) Cardiovascular dieses d) All of the above


32

17. Communication is part of -------- skill


C
C

a) Soft b) Hard c) Rough d) Short


:

-V
01
-V

18. Communication barriers involves


C

a) Jumping into conclusion b) Arguing and debating


23
C

-V

c) Fear of offending d) All of the above


-V

20

19. Way to improve communication skill are


C

a) Active listening skills b) Passive listening skills


VC

0-

-V

c) Both a and b d) None of the above


-1

20. Goals of communication are


C

a) To inform, to persuade b) To inform


20

-V

c) To persuades, Fear of offending d) None of the above

21. Objective of communication skills are


C

a) Active listening skills b) Aware of own communication


-V

c) Both a and b d) None of the above


C

22. What are the steps to improve the vocal clarity?


-V

a) keep your language simple b) slow down


c) Both a and b d) Feedback
C

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23. How one can improve the communication skills?
a) listen with willingness b) Respond appropriately

pm
c) Provide feedback d) All of the above

24. Body language plays an important role in

0
a) Communication b) Judgment c) Both a and b d) None of the above

:5
25. What is the goal of social engineering?

5
a) Sabotage a person’s social media b) To gain vital personal information

:1
c) To catfish someone d) To build truest

01

C
26. Attitude play an important role in

-V
a) Communication b) Judgment c) Both a and b d) None of the above

3
02

C
27. Using abbreviation in communication leads to which type of communication barrier?
a) Language b) Physical c) Cultural d) Organizational

-V
-2
28. Why communication is key to healthy relationship?

C
10
a) Get to know each other b) Avoid misunderstanding

-V
c) Set clear expectations d) All of the above
0-

29. Bad examples of communication are


C
-2

a) Belittling others b) Openly giving cold shoulders


-V
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
U
VT

30. What are the basic instinct of life?


C

a) Self perseverance b) Social instinct m


c) Both a and b d) None of the above
-V

7p
31. How addiction can be indentified?

C
a) Lack of control b) Decreased socialization c) Both a and b d) None of the above
C

:4

-V
-V

32. SUD stand for


32

a) Substance use disorders b) Substance use disease


C
C

c) Substance usage development d) None of the above


:

-V
01
-V

33. Characteristics of health compromising behaviour


a) Thrill seeking behaviour b) Produce pleasurable effect
C
23
C

c) Act as stress reducing agent d) All of the above


-V
-V

20

34. How to recognize addiction behaviour?


C

a) Inability to stay away from substance b) Ignore other area of life


VC

0-

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c) Both a and b d) None of the above


-1

35. Quality of a true friend are


C

a) Respectful b) Believes in you c) Make time for you d) All of the above
20

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36. Friendship in education is


a) Respectful b) Believes in you c) Make time for you d) Better cooperation
C
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37. Nature of friendship is


a) Friends must enjoy each other company b) Not supporting
c) Make time for oneself d) Little cooperation
C
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38. What is the recommendable daily intake of water


a) 0.5 litre b) 1 litre c) 2 litre d) None of the above
C

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39. What is the general sleep requirements for adults?

pm
a) 8 to 12 hours b) 12 to 14 hour c) 7 to 9 hour d) None of the above

0
40. Which vitamins is good for eyes?

:5
a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin E c) Vitamin A d) None of the above

5
41. How many minutes should an average person walk a day?

:1
a) 30 minutes b) 40 minutes c) 20 minutes d) None of the above

01

C
42. What is the essential first step to a healthier lifestyle?

-V
a) Taking more vitamins
b) Making the decision to abstinent form street drug

3
c) Exercising regularly to the point of exhaustion

02

C
d) None of the above

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-2
43. Behavioral addiction can include

C
10
a) Gambling b) Alcohol c) inhalants d) Medication

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44. Effects and health hazards from additions causes complication of
0-

a) physical b) psychological c) personal d) All of the above


C
-2

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45. Three things which are necessary for an infection to occurs
U

a) source
VT

b) susceptible person with a way for germs to enter the body


C

c) Transmission m
-V

d) All of the above


7p

C
46. Management of chronic illness for quality of life
C

:4

a) Sleep b) Happiness c) Mental health -V d) All of the above


-V

32

47. Community based services to offer support in substance abuse consists of self help
C
C

services such as?


:

-V
01

a) Alcoholic anonymous b) Crack crack


-V

c) Cannabis collective d) Hashish home


C
23
C

48. This causes the maximum accumulation of fat in the liver


-V
-V

a) Meat + egg b) Alcohol c) Saturated fat d) Starch


20

49. Symptoms of chronic diseases


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0-

a) Tiredness, aches, pains are not often visible b) Stress


-V

c) Anxiety d) None of the above


-1

50. What is pain management?


20

-V

a) Taking pain relieving medicine b) Relaxation


c) Both a and b d) None of the above
C

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C
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C

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