BREX PHARMACY REVIEW

EXAMS | MODULE 6

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1 This chemical reaction involves a change in the B
valence number of the reacting substances.
A. Neutralization
B. Oxidation-Reduction
C. Precipitation
D. Complexation
2 The apparatus used to wash down drops of A
standard solution clinging to the tip of the burette
A. Wash bottle
B. Cassia Flask
C. Acetylization flask
D. Babcock bottle
3 Assay of thiamine A
A. Fluorometry
B. Cerimetry
C. Turbidimetry
D. Nephelometry
4 380-780 nm B
A. UV
B. Visible
C. IR
D. X-Ray
5 What is the potency of a 100 mg tablet at the C
expiry date?
A. 80 mg
B. 95 mg
C. 90 mg
D. 105 mg
6 In the microbial assay of antibiotics, the A
microorganism used for Penicillin G is:
A. S. aureus
B. P. aeruginosa
C. E. coli
D. B. subtilis
7 Iodometry is an indirect analysis of: A
A. Oxidizing agents
B. Reducing agents
C. Acids
D. Bases
8 The number of mg of KOH needed to neutralize C
the free acids and saponify the esters in 1g of oil
or fat.
A. Acid value
B. Ester value
C. Saponification value
D. Iodine value
9 A tool for detecting variations in a process C
A. Pie chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Quality control chart
D. T chart
10 LAL is used in the determination of A
A. Pyrogens
B. Chemical impurities
C. Microorganisms
D. Heavy metals
11 Malic acid in cherry juice may be determined by: A
A. Indirect permanganometry
B. Direct permanganometry
C. Alkalimetry
D. Acidimetry
12 A water content determination method that uses C
Xylene tube is:
A. Gravimetric method
B. Karl fischer titration
C. Azeotropic method
D. Dew point method
13 Present in a blank titrimetry, except: A
A. Analyte
B. Indicator
C. Solvent
D. Reagent
14 WA + SB uses which indicator? D
A. Methyl red
B. Methyl orange
C. Bromocresol green
D. Phenolphthalein
15 Expressions of concentration in volumetric B
solutions, except?
A. Normality
B. Titer
C. Molarity
D. Molality
16 Silica from the soil that is left after treatment of A
the ash with diluted HCl is the:
A. Acid-insoluble ash
B. Sulfated ash
C. Residue on ignition
D. Loss on ignition
17 Acetylation method of analysis in volatile oils is A
done to determine:
A. Phenol
B. Aldehyde
C. Ketone
D. Alcohol
18 The temperature for ignition described as dull B
red heat is:
A. 500-1000C
B. 550-700C
C. 500-750C
D. 300-450C
19 Efficiency of HEPA filters is assessed using: A
A. DOP test
B. Water attack test
C. Pyrogen test
D. Bubble point test
20 Acceptable tablet hardness range of B
chewable tablets
A. 4-10 kg
B. 2-3 kg
C. 5-8 kg
D. 208 kg
21 Calculate percentage of Atropine in Belladonna D
powder using 10.7 g sample and adding 20 mL of
0.0225 N H2SO4 and back titrated with 12.5 mL
of 0.0295 N NaOH. Each mL of 0.02 N H2SO4 is
equivalent to 5.788 g of Belladonna alkaloids in
terms of Atropine.
A. 5.60%
B. 0.56%
C. 0.59%
D. 0.22%
22 Assay method for Na hypochlorite B
A. Precipitimetry
B. Iodometry
C. Cerimetry
D. Iodimetry
23 Climactic zone of the Philippines B
A. IVA
B. IVB
C. III
D. II
24 Which of the following is a reducing agent? A
A. Ascorbic acid
B. KMnO4
C. Iodine
D. Hydrochloric acid
25 USP definition of negligible B
A. NMT 0.25 mg
B. NMT 0.50 mg
C. NMT 2.5 mg
D. NMT 5.0 mg
26 A plot of absorbance against concentration of a C
standard drawn in straight line is
A. Charles
B. Lambert
C. Beer
D. Bouguer
27 Action of proving that premises, systems, or B
equipment work correctly and actually lead to
expected results.
A. Validation
B. Quantification
C. Stability testing program
D. Quality control plan
28 The separation of the components of an organic B
dye mixture is accomplished by using:
A. Paper chromatography
B. Thin layer chromatography
C. High performance liquid chromatography
D. Gas chromatography
29 Which of the following are used in gaseous A
sterilization of reusable surgical instruments and
disposable devices?
A. Ethylene oxide, formaldehyde
B. Ethylene oxide, propylene glycol
C. Formaldehyde, propylene glycol
D. Formaldehyde, ethanol
30 It uses FAS as an indicator. C
A. Mohr
B. Fajan
C. Volhard
D. Gay-Lussac
31 What is FAS? A
A. Ferric ammonium sulfate
B. Ferrous ammonium sulfate
C. Ferric ammonium sulfite
D. Ferrous ammonium sulfite
32 Sample size for tablet uniformity determination D
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
33 Specification for typical tablet disintegration. B
A. 10 mins
B. 30 mins
C. 4 hours
D. 3 minutes
34 This refers to the closeness of the experimental C
values.
A. Linearity
B. Accuracy
C. Precision
D. Specificity
35 Which is not an oxidizing agent? A
A. Oxalic acid
B. Iodine
C. Bromine
D. Potassium iodide
36 Water analysis Method II A
A. Azeotropic
B. Gravimetric
C. Titrimetric
D. Dew Point
37 KFR components, except: B
A. Iodine
B. Pyrimidine
C. SO2
D. Methanol
38 The concentration of official diluted alcohol: C
A. 2%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
39 Which of the following requires batch B
certification?
A. Cancer chemotherapeutic agents
B. Antibacterials
C. Anesthetics
D. Radiopharmaceuticals
40 Water attack test is done on: B
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
41 Titrimetric assays for ferrous salts: A
A. Cerimetry
B. Precipitimetry
C. Iodimetry
D. Iodometry
42 Micro-analysis B
A. <1 mg
B. 1 mg - 10 mg
C. 10 mg - 100 mg
D. 100 mg - 1g
43 N solute/kg solution D
A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Normality
D. None of the above
44 The Primary standard for Karl Fisher reagent D
A. Pyridine
B. Sodium sulfate
C. Sodium citrate
D. Sodium tartrate
45 SP A
A. Polar
B. Non-Polar
C. Both
D. None of the above
46 Hexane is the best solvent for extracting: B
A. Resins
B. Fats
C. Carbohydrates
D. Acids
47 Disintegration test is done at C
A. 36.5 - 37.5 C
B. 36 - 37 C
C. 35 - 39 C
D. 37 C
48 In IR Spectrometry, the fingerprint region is: B
A. Near IR
B. Medium IR
C. Far IR
D. Very Far IR
49 Safety or toxicity tests for infusion plastic sets is C
conducted using:
A. Rabbits
B. Dogs
C. White mice
D. Guinea pigs
50 Which of the following are probiotics? D
I. Lactobacillus casei
II. Bifidobacterium bifidum
III. Lactobacillus acidophillus
A. I
B. I, II
C. II, III
D. I, II, III
51 Which of the following blood types is a universal D
blood donor?
A. AB
B. A
C. B
D. O
52 Which of the following is not a fungus? A
A. Paramecium
B. Molds
C. Yeasts
D. Penicilium
53 This is the drastic response undertaken by some B
bacteria in response to an inhospitable
environment.
A. Germination
B. Sporulation
C. Polymorphism
D. Vegetation
54 Bacteria used in the assay of Nystatin A
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Lactobacillus plantarum
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
55 Which of the following is a common contaminant D
of hand cream
A. Coliforms
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Klebsiella pneumonia
56 Opisthotonos, the arching of the body, is caused B
by
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Clostridium perfringens
57 In the laboratory, Neisseria meningitidis may be D
distinguished from Neisseria gonorrhoeae by
A. Its characteristic morphology and gram
stain
B. Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability
to grow in Thayer-Martin medium
C. The presence of pili
D. Its ability to ferment particular
carbohydrate
58 The virus that causes severe acut respiratory A
syndrome.
A. Corona virus
B. Papilloma virus
C. Picorna virus
D. Adeno virus
59 The Department of Health's "four o'clock habit" is C
intended to stop the spread of:
A. Malaria
B. Typhoid fever
C. Dengue fever
D. Tuberculosis
60 What causes dengue? C
A. Aedes aegypti
B. Plasmodium
C. Virus
D. Bacteria
61 The addition of untreated sewage to a freshwater B
lake would cause the biochemical oxygen
demand to _____
A. Can’t tell
B. Increase
C. Decrease
D. Stay the same
62 What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism C
that uses aerobic respiration?
A. It is oxidized in the electron transport chain
B. It is reduced to lactic acid
C. It is oxidized in the Krebs cycle
D. It is reduced in the Krebs cycle
63 Long proteinaceous appendages on plants A
A. Trichomes
B. Pili
C. Flagellum
D. Cilia
64 Which bacteria is not associated with Watery B
diarrhea?
A. EAEC
B. S. dysenteriae
C. V. cholera
D. B. cereus
65 All of the ff. are encapsulated except: C
A. P. aeruginosa
B. S. pneumoniae
C. S. typhi
D. K. pneumonia
66 Which of the following lacks a cell wall? B
A. Clostridium
B. Mycoplasma
C. Mycobacterium
D. Nocardia
67 Which of the following do you expect to be MOST A
resistant to high temperatures?
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Staphylococcus aureus
68 The antimicrobial activity of chlorine is due to B
which of the following?
A. Formation of free oxygen
B. Formation of hypochlorous acid
C. Formation of hydrochloric acid
D. Formation of ozone
69 The pathogen for smallpox C
A. Plasmodium
B. Aedes aegypti
C. Variola
D. Rubella
70 Which of the following are identified worldwide as B
‘ESKAPE’ pathogens?
I. Enterococcus faecalis
II. Actinombacter baumanni
III. Candida albicans
IV. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III
71 Which of the following microbial contaminant D
is found in intravenous fluid?
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Clostridium spp.
D. Enterobacter spp.
72 Which statement best describes what happens C
when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution
containing 5% NaCl?
A. Water will move into the cell
B. The cell will undergo osmotic lysis
C. Water will not move out of the cell
D. Sucrose will move into the cell from a
higher to lower concentration.
73 Which of the following are major contributors of A
healthcare associated infection?
I. Failure of healthcare personnel to follow
handwashing protocol
II. Smoking and alcoholism
III. Increased number of immune-
compromised patients

A. I, III
B. I, II
C. II, III
D. I, II, III
74 In one of the typhoon evacuation centers, an B
outbreak of sepsis suspected to be caused by
Staphylococcus aureus occurred. One of the
pharmacists in the health sector volunteer group
was called upon to assist in the investigation.

Where would be the most likely reservoir of the

organism in the normal flora?
A. Throat
B. Nose
C. Colon
D. Genitalia
75 Tinea cruris C
A. Hand
B. Feet
C. Groin
D. Nails
76 The ability of the microorganism to enter a host, D
grow, reproduce, and spread throughout the body
is known as:
A. Pathogenicity
B. Toxigenicity
C. Invasiveness
D. Virulence
77 Which of the following is not considered urease D
positive?
A. K. pneumoniae
B. H. pylori
C. P. mirabilis
D. C. jejuni
78 Odd one out. C
A. Adenoviridae
B. HPV
C. HSV
D. Polyomaviridae
79 The largest virus B
A. Parvo
B. Pox
C. Rabies
D. Corona
80 Tse-tse fly A
A. African sleeping disease
B. American sleeping disease
C. River blindness
D. Leishmaniasis
81 Metronidazole can be used on the following, C
except?
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Entamoeba coli
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
82 Athlete’s foot B
A. Tinea nigra
B. Tinea pedis
C. Tinea capitis
D. Tinea cruris
83 Causative agent of whooping cough. A
A. Bordatella pertussis
B. Legionella pneumophila
C. Coxiella Burnetti
D. Proteus vulgaris
84 Which of the following causes epidemic typhus? A
A. Rickettsia prowazekii
B. Rickettsia typhi
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
D. Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
85 Breakbone Fever C
A. Giardiasis
B. L. pneumophilia
C. Dengue
D. Moniliasis
86 Bullet-shaped Helical RNA Virus A
A. Rhabdovirus
B. Hepadnavirus
C. Poxvirus
D. Herpes virus
87 The following has a vaccine: A
I. Hepatitis A
II. Hepatitis B
III. Hepatitis C

A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. I, II, III
88 DOC for gonorrhea B
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Erythromycin
D. Doxycycline
89 Comma-shaped A
A. Vibrio
B. Staphylococcus
C. Streptococcus
D. Pseudomonas
90 Man can acquire toxoplasmosis from: B
A. Dog
B. Cat
C. Bird Droppings
D. Sex
91 Which stage of the bacterial growth phase are A
antibiotics effective?
A. Log
B. Lag
C. Stationary
D. Death
92 Positive quellung reaction indicates B
A. Endospore
B. Capsule
C. Cell Wall
D. Endotoxin
93 Fletcher’s media is used for: B
A. Camphylobacter jejuni
B. Leptospira interrogans
C. Salmonella
D. Vibrio
 For nos. 94-95:
A. Blood flukes
B. Giant Liver Fluke
C. Sheep Liver Fluke
D. Giant Intestinal Fluke
E. Oriental Lung Fluke
94 Fasciola hepatica C
95 Fasciola gigantica B
For nos. 96-97:
A. Beef Tapeworm
B. Dog Tapeworm
C. Flea Tapeworm
D. Broad Fish Tapeworm
E. Pork Tapeworm
96 Dipylidium caninum C
97 Taenia solium E
98 Catalase-negative cocci that exhibits partial D
hemolysis and is sensitive to optochin.
A. S. pyogenes
B. S. agalactiaea
C. S. mutans
D. S. pneumoniae
99 He proposed the theory of spontaneous A
generation.
A. John Needham
B. Francesco Redi
C. Robert Hooke
D. Antoine van Leeuwenhoek
100 X-Antigen D
A. Capsule
B. LPS
C. Flagella
D. Fimbriae