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SST-6

This document is a sample question paper for CBSE Class 10 Social Science for the academic year 2024-25, consisting of 37 compulsory questions divided into six sections. The sections include multiple-choice questions, short answer questions, long answer questions, case-based questions, and a map-based question. It provides guidelines for answering and specifies the marks allocated to each section.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
9 views

SST-6

This document is a sample question paper for CBSE Class 10 Social Science for the academic year 2024-25, consisting of 37 compulsory questions divided into six sections. The sections include multiple-choice questions, short answer questions, long answer questions, case-based questions, and a map-based question. It provides guidelines for answering and specifies the marks allocated to each section.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 06 Page 1

Sample Paper 06
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Study the following picture and choose the correct option :

(a) Women were neither encouraged nor allowed to join national freedom movement.
(b) For the first time women joined nationalist processions in masses.
(c) Britishers were not very much concerned about such movements.
(d) Women were forced to join the freedom movements.

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2. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence-


1. The great depression on the Indian economy
2. The death of men of working-age in Europe because of the world war
3. The British government’s decision to abolish the corn laws
4. The decision of MNCs to relocate production to Asian countries
Options :
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 1, 1, 3, 4
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. The print revolution played a key role in spreading Reformation ideas in Europe during the 16th
century. How did this happen?
(a) Reformers printed books and pamphlets that reached a large audience, promoting their views.
(b) The Church used printing to suppress Reformation ideas and prevent public discussion.
(c) Reformers discouraged the use of printing, relying solely on oral debates.
(d) Printing limited the spread of Reformation ideas to only a few educated elites.

4. The unification of Germany is considered one of the key events in 19th-century European history.
Which of the following events is associated with the unification of Germany?
1. The leadership of Otto von Bismarck
2. The defeat of Napoleon III
3. The Congress of Vienna
4. The Treaty of Versailles
Options :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

5. Which of the following industries is known as the backbone of industrial development in India?
(a) Information Technology industry, focused on software services.
(b) Iron and steel industry, which provides raw materials for other industries.
(c) Textile industry, which is important but not the backbone.
(d) Cement industry, which is vital but not the backbone of development.

6. The following are characteristics of Kharif crops in India. Identify the correct statements.
1. Kharif crops are sown during the monsoon season.
2. Examples include rice, maize, and cotton.
3. They require minimal rainfall and are drought-resistant.
4. Harvesting typically occurs between March and June.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

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7. Choose the incorrect option from column A and column B.


Column A Column B
(Developmental goals/Aspirations) (Category of Person)
(a) Landless rural labourers More days of work and better wages
(b) Prosperous farmers from Punjab Availability of other sources of irrigation
(c) Farmers who depend only on rain for Assured a higher support prices for their
growing crops crops
(d) A rural woman from a land owning family Regular job and high wages to increase her
income

8. In the context of power sharing, what role does the judiciary play in maintaining the balance of
power in India?
(a) It executes laws and ensures that governmental actions comply with the Constitution.
(b) It creates laws and manages the legislative processes within the government.
(c) It interprets laws and acts as a check on the executive and legislative branches.
(d) It oversees the financial management and economic policies of the government.

9. Federalism promotes decentralization of power. Which of the following statements are features of
federalism in India?
1. There are two levels of government – Union and State.
2. The Constitution divides powers between different levels of government.
3. Only the central government has the authority to make laws.
4. Local governments are the most powerful level of government.
Options :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

10. How does Religious Pluralism contribute to the social fabric of India?
(a) By encouraging the dominance of one religion over others.
(b) By fostering mutual respect and coexistence among diverse religious communities.
(c) By eliminating all religious differences and promoting secularism exclusively.
(d) By segregating different religious groups to prevent conflict.

11. India has both national and regional political parties. Which of the following are examples of
national political parties in India?
1. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
2. Indian National Congress (INC)
3. Shiv Sena
4. Communist Party of India (CPI)
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

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12. Consider the following statements:


Statement I: Regular elections are a feature of a democratic system.
Statement II: Authoritarian regimes also conduct regular free and fair elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. In Sri Lanka, the government adopted a _______ policy, which gave preferential treatment to
the Sinhala-speaking majority, leading to tensions with the Tamil-speaking minority.
(a) Federal (b) Majoritarian
(c) Secular (d) Liberal

14. What is the primary function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in regulating money supply?
(a) To distribute currency notes to commercial banks and the public.
(b) To set interest rates, control inflation, and manage the country’s monetary policy.
(c) To provide loans to individual customers and businesses directly.
(d) To oversee foreign exchange transactions and international trade agreements.

15. Multinational corporations (MNCs) play a significant role in the process of globalization. Which
of the following are characteristics of MNCs?
1. They operate in multiple countries.
2. They produce goods only in their home countries.
3. They invest in foreign economies.
4. They focus on local markets only.
Options :
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

16. Development for some may mean achieving a high income, while for others, it may mean greater
access to _______ facilities such as health and education.
(a) Economic (b) Basic
(c) Employment (d) Agricultural

17. Consider the following statements:


Statement I: The secondary sector deals with the production of services.
Statement II: The secondary sector includes industries like manufacturing and construction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

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18. Match the following items given in column A with those in column B. Choose the correct answer
from the options given below :
Column A Column B
A. Rashsundari Debi 1. Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal
B. Sudarshan Chakra 2. Kesari
C. Kashibaba 3. Amar Jiban
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak 4. Sacchi Kavitayen
Options
(a) A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2 (b) A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3
(c) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4 (d) A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the importance of 45 percent land under reserved forests?


(a) It is used for growing timber for commercial use.
(b) It is primarily reserved for wildlife protection.
(c) It is left unused for future land development.
(d) It is mostly used for urban development.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
Country Per Capita Income (in USD) Life Expectancy (in years)
X 2000 65
Y 15000 78
Why does country Y have a higher life expectancy compared to country X?
(a) It lacks industrial development.
(b) It has low population density.
(c) It has better healthcare facilities.
(d) It has higher birth rates.

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SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Mahatma Gandhi’s principles were essential for India’s independence.” Explain how Gandhi’s
philosophy contributed to India’s freedom movement.
 O
“The Swadeshi movement was a significant phase in Indian nationalism.” Justify this statement
with suitable arguments.

22. “The textile industry is a major sector in India.” Explain its significance.

23. “The concept of cooperative federalism strengthens the unity of India.” Explain why cooperative
federalism is important.

24. “The secondary sector is the backbone of industrialization in India.” Explain why this is true.

SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Between 1980 and 2020, India’s agricultural productivity has increased due to modern farming
techniques. Consequently, agriculture remains a crucial sector in India’s economy. Why does the
agricultural sector continue to play a vital role in India’s economy? Support your answer by giving
any three reasons.

26. “The Columbian Exchange had profound impacts on the global economy and societies.” Explain
the statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Geeta is concerned about water scarcity in her village. She wants to implement measures to
conserve and efficiently use water resources.” Assist her in identifying effective water conservation
and management strategies for her village.
 O
“Ramesh intends to start a fishery business but is unsure about the water quality parameters
essential for successful fish farming.” Help him identify the crucial water quality parameters
necessary for fish farming.

28. “Federalism allows for diversity in governance.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

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29. In recent years, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has implemented various monetary policies to
control inflation and stabilize the economy. Consequently, RBI’s role has become central to India’s
financial stability. Why is the RBI’s role so crucial in India’s economy? Support your answer by
giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. Print media played a significant role in the dissemination of revolutionary ideas.’ Justify the
statement with suitable arguments.
O

‘The spread of education was facilitated by the growth of print culture.’ Substantiate the statement
with key features.

31. ChapRohit’s village faces severe soil erosion due to deforestation. What can be the reasons behind
this issue, and suggest five ways to manage the land resources to prevent further degradation.
 O
Seema observes that different states in India have varied land use patterns. Identify five factors
that influence the land use pattern in a particular region.

32. ‘The Indian Constitution guarantees equal rights for all citizens irrespective of gender, religion, or
caste.’ Explain how the Constitution ensures equality.
 O
‘Caste inequalities have been reduced but not eliminated in India.’ Analyse the current status of
caste-based inequalities in India.

33. Mr. Y is researching the role of multinational companies (MNCs) in India’s economy. How do MNCs
contribute to the globalization process and economic growth by bringing in foreign investment,
technology, and employment opportunities?
 O
A multinational company sets up a manufacturing plant in India, employing local workers. How
does foreign direct investment (FDI) impact local businesses and job creation, and what are the
pros and cons of such investments?

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SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
The Civil Code of 1804 – usually known as the Napoleonic Code – did away with all privileges based
on birth, established equality before the law and secured the right to property. This Code was exported
to the regions under French control. In the Dutch Republic, in Switzerland, in Italy and Germany,
Napoleon simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from
serfdom and manorial dues. In the towns too, guild restrictions were removed. Transport and
communication systems were improved. Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen enjoyed
a new-found freedom.
In Western and parts of Central Europe the growth of industrial production and trade meant the
growth of towns and the emergence of commercial classes whose existence was based on production
for the market. Industrialisation began in England in the second half of the eighteenth century, but
in France and parts of the German states it occurred only during the nineteenth century. In its
wake, new social groups came into being: a working-class population, and middle classes made up
of industrialists, businessmen, professionals.
Following the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were driven by a spirit of
conservatism. Conservatives believed that established, traditional institutions of state and society
– like the monarchy, the Church, social hierarchies, property and the family – should be preserved.
Most conservatives, however, did not propose a return to the society of pre-revolutionary days.
Rather, they realised, from the changes initiated by Napoleon, that modernisation could in fact
strengthen traditional institutions like the monarchy.
Questions :
1. What was the core concept of the Napoleonic Code?
2. Who were the new middle class in Europe?
3. What do you meant by conservatism?

35. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:
Conservation strategies are not new in our country. We often ignore that in India, forests are
also home to some of the traditional communities. In some areas of India, local communities are
struggling to conserve these habitats along with government officials, recognising that only this will
secure their own long-term livelihood. In Sariska Tiger Reserve, Rajasthan, villagers have fought
against mining by citing the Wildlife Protection Act. In many areas, villagers themselves are
protecting habitats and explicitly rejecting government involvement. The inhabitants of five villages
in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared 1,200 hectares of forest as the Bhairodev Dakav
‘ Sonchuri’ , declaring their own set of rules and regulations which do not allow hunting, and are
protecting the wildlife against any outside encroachments.
Questions :
1. How are forests related with Communities?
2. Explain the aim of ‘Wildlife Protection Act.

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3. How are communities working for the conservation of Wildlife ? Explain with example.
“Habitat destruction, hunting, poaching, over-exploitation, environmental pollution, poisoning and
forest fires are factors, which have led to the decline in India’s biodiversity. Other important
causes of environmental destruction are unequal access, inequitable consumption of resources and
differential sharing of responsibility for environmental well-being. Over-population in third world
countries is often cited as the cause of environmental degradation.”
Questions:
1. How has destruction of forests and wildlife affected the indigenous and other forest dependent
communities?
2. Why the conservation of forests and wildlife is valuable for human beings .?

36. Read the passage, observe the image given below and answer the questions that follow.

The cartoon above refers to the problems of running Germany’s grand coalition government that
includes the country’s two major parties, namely the Christian Democratic Union and the Social
Democratic Party. The two parties are rivals to each other. They had to form a coalition government
because neither of them got a clear majority of seats on their own in the 2005 elections. They take
divergent positions on several policy matters but jointly run the government.
Questions :
1. Which disadvantage of coalition governments is the image highlighting?
2. Why did the rival parties choose to make a coalition despite being rivals?
3. How does a democratic system, at times, cause such a challenge?

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SECTION-F
Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on that given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. A place where Civil Disobedience Movement started.
B. A place where Gandhiji went to organise a Satyagraha Movement amongst cotton mill
workers.

(b) On the same map of India, locate and label any three among the following with symbol.
C. Tehri Dam
D. Chennai Software Technology Park
E. Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport
F. Narora Nuclear Power Plant

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