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Full Mock Test (Computer Science)

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to computer science, covering topics such as networking, databases, programming languages, operating systems, and multimedia. Each question provides four options for answers, testing knowledge on various technical concepts. The content appears to be designed for a mock test or practice examination for students in the field of computer science.

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Full Mock Test (Computer Science)

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to computer science, covering topics such as networking, databases, programming languages, operating systems, and multimedia. Each question provides four options for answers, testing knowledge on various technical concepts. The content appears to be designed for a mock test or practice examination for students in the field of computer science.

Uploaded by

ramarajfrank
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© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
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STET 2023 (COMPUTER SCIENCE) full Mock Test


1. CRC stands for __________
a) cyclic redundancy check
b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check
d) cyclic repeat check

2. Which of the following is the multiple access protocol for


channel access control?
a) CSMA/CD
b) CSMA/CA
c) Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA
d) HDLC

3. The network layer is concerned with __________ of data.


a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) bytes

4. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?


a) routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) error control

5. A 4 byte IP address consists of __________


a) only network address
b) only host address
c) network address & host address
d) network address & MAC address

6. Which of the following is a security measure to protect against


online fraud in E-Commerce?
a) CAPTCHA
b) Cookie
c) Hashtag
d) Emoji
7. What is the term for the process of analyzing large sets of E-
Commerce data to gain insights and make informed decisions?
a) Data Encryption
b) Data Mining

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c) Data Breach
d) Data Backup
8. Which of the following is an example of a third-party E-
Commerce platform?
a) Amazon
b) eBay
c) Shopify
d) All of the above
9. In a relational database, what is a primary key?
a) A key used for encrypting data
b) A unique identifier for a table's records
c) A key used for foreign key relationships
d) A key used for sorting data

10. Which SQL command is used to retrieve data from a database?


a) INSERT
b) UPDATE
c) SELECT
d) DELETE
11. Which database model represents data as a collection of
objects with attributes and methods?
a) Relational Model
b) Hierarchical Model
c) Object-Oriented Model
d) Network Model
12. Which network topology connects each device to every other
device, forming a fully interconnected network?
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Star
d) Mesh

13. What is the default subnet mask for a Class C IP address?


a) 255.0.0.0
b) 255.255.0.0
c) 255.255.255.0
d) 255.255.255.255
14. Which device is used to connect multiple computers in a LAN
and forward data frames between them?

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a) Router
b) Hub
c) Switch
d) Modem

15. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing and
forwarding data packets between different networks?
a) Physical Layer
b) Data Link Layer
c) Network Layer
d) Transport Layer
16. Which of the following is NOT a primary color in the RGB color
model used in multimedia?

A) Red
B) Green
C) Blue
D) Yellow

17. Which multimedia file format supports both lossless and lossy
compression and is commonly used for images with transparency?

A) JPEG
B) PNG
C) MP4
D) WAV

18. Which multimedia format is designed for vector graphics and is


often used for logos and illustrations?

A) TIFF
B) SVG
C) AVI
D) MOV

19. _______________ is a measure of the degree of


interdependence between modules.
a) Cohesion
b) Coupling
c) None of the mentioned

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d) All of the mentioned

20. What DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle?


a) Transform
b) Data Store
c) Function
d) None of the mentioned

21. A mouse device may be _____________


a) electro-chemical
b) mechanical
c) optical
d) both mechanical and optical

22. Which of the following are examples of software development


tools?
a) debuggers
b) editors
c) assemblers, compilers and interpreters
d) all of the mentioned

23. Which is the first AI programming language?


a) BASIC
b) FORTRAN
c) IPL(Inductive logic programming)
d) LISP

24. Which instruments are used for perceiving and acting upon the
environment?
a) Sensors and Actuators
b) Sensors
c) Perceiver
d) None of the mentioned

25. What is an operating system?


a) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
b) system service provider to the application programs
c) interface between the hardware and application programs
d) all of the mentioned

26. Which one of the following error will be handle by the operating
system?
a) power failure

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b) lack of paper in printer


c) connection failure in the network
d) all of the mentioned

27. What is the main function of the command interpreter?


a) to get and execute the next user-specified command
b) to provide the interface between the API and application program
c) to handle the files in operating system
d) none of the mentioned

28. The systems which allow only one process execution at a time,
are called __________
a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems
c) unitasking systems
d) none of the mentioned

29. In Unix, Which system call creates the new process?


a) fork
b) create
c) new
d) none of the mentioned

30. A source program is usually in _______


a) Assembly language
b) Machine level language
c) High-level language
d) Natural language

31. The small extremely fast, RAM’s are called as _______


a) Cache
b) Heaps
c) Accumulators
d) Stacks

32. The ALU makes use of _______ to store the intermediate


results.
a) Accumulators
b) Registers
c) Heap
d) Stack

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33. The decoded instruction is stored in ______


a) IR
b) PC
c) Registers
d) MDR

34. During the execution of a program which gets initialized first?


a) MDR
b) IR
c) PC
d) MAR

35. Which of the register/s of the processor is/are connected to


Memory Bus?
a) PC
b) MAR
c) IR
d) Both PC and MAR

36. The program is divided into operable parts called as _________


a) Frames
b) Segments
c) Pages
d) Sheets

37. The techniques which move the program blocks to or from the
physical memory is called as ______
a) Paging
b) Virtual memory organisation
c) Overlays
d) Framing

38. ______ translates the logical address into a physical address.


a) MMU
b) Translator
c) Compiler
d) Linker

39. The virtual memory basically stores the next segment of data to
be executed on the _________
a) Secondary storage
b) Disks
c) RAM

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d) ROM

40. One nibble is equivalent to how many bits?


a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 1

41. What does SVGA stand for?


a) Standard Visual Graphics Array
b) Super Visual Graphics Array
c) Standard Video Graphics Array
d) Super Video Graphics Array

42. Line Printers that print one line at a time are _________
a) Laser Printers
b) Inkjet Printers
c) Drum Printers
d) Chain Printers

43. A ___________________ monitor looks like a television and are


normally used with non-portable computer systems.
a) CRT
b) LCD
c) LED
d) Flat Panel Monitors

44. Which of the following is not a function of the Output Unit?


a) It produces results that can be easily understood by the user
b) It accepts the results produced by the computer
c) It supplies the data and instructions to the outside world
d) It supplies the data and instructions to the computer for further
processing

45. Electronic circuits that operate on one or more input signals to


produce standard output _______
a) Series circuits
b) Parallel Circuits
c) Logic Signals
d) Logic Gates

46. The boolean expression of an OR gate is _______


a) A.B

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b) A’B+AB’
c) A+B
d) A’B’

47. The Output is LOW if any one of the inputs is HIGH in case of a
_________ gate.
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) OR
d) AND

48. Which of the following correctly describes the distributive law.


a)( A+B)(C+D)=AB+CD
b) (A+B).C=AC+BC
c) (AB)(A+B)=AB
d) (A.B)C=AC.AB

49. A box that can represent two different conditions.


a) Rectangle
b) Diamond
c) Circle
d) Parallelogram

50. What do you call testing individual components?


a) system testing
b) unit testing
c) validation testing
d) black box testing

51. ______ generation of computer started with using vacuum


tubes as the basic components.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th

52. Batch processing was mainly used in this generation.


a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th

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53. ______computers are lower to mainframe computers in terms of


speed and storage capacity.
a) Mini
b) Super
c) Mainframes
d) Hybrid

54. What will be the output of the following C++ code?


1. #include <iostream>
2. using namespace std;
3. int main()
4. {
5. int a;
6. a = 5 + 3 * 5;
7. cout << a;
8. return 0;
9. }
a) 35
b) 20
c) 25
d) 30

55. What will be the output of the following C++ code?


1. #include <iostream>
2. using namespace std;
3. main()
4. {
5. double a = 21.09399;
6. float b = 10.20;
7. int c ,d;
8. c = (int) a;
9. d = (int) b;
10. cout << c <<' '<< d;
11. return 0;
12. }
a) 20 10
b) 10 21
c) 21 10
d) 10 20

56. The if..else statement can be replaced by which operator?


a) Bitwise operator
b) Conditional operator
c) Multiplicative operator

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d) Addition operator

57. The switch statement is also called as?


a) choosing structure
b) selective structure
c) certain structure
d) bitwise structure

58. The destination statement for the goto label is identified by


what label?
a) $
b) @
c) *
d) :

59. What will be the output of the following C++ code?


1. #include <iostream>
2. using namespace std;
3. int main ()
4. {
5. int n;
6. for (n = 5; n > 0; n--)
7. {
8. cout << n;
9. if (n == 3)
10. break;
11. }
12. return 0;
13. }
a) 543
b) 54
c) 5432
d) 53

60. How many types of comments are there in c++?


a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

61. What is a comment in c++?


a) comments are parts of the source code disregarded by the compiler
b) comments are executed by the compiler to find the meaning of the
comment

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c) comments are executable


d) comments are executed by the compiler

62. Which of the following operator cannot be overloaded?


a) +
b) ?:
c) –
d) %

63. Which of these following members are not accessed by using


direct member access operator?
a) public
b) private
c) protected
d) both private & protected

64. Which is used to do the dereferencing?


a) pointer without asterix
b) value without asterix
c) pointer with asterix
d) value with asterix

65. What will be the output of the following C++ code?


1. #include <iostream>
2. using namespace std;
3. int main()
4. {
5. int x;
6. int *p;
7. x = 5;
8. p = &x;
9. cout << *p;
10. return 0;
11. }
a) 5
b) 10
c) memory address
d) 15

66. What will be the output of the following C++ code?


#include <iostream>
#include <string>
using namespace std;
int main(int argc, char const *argv[])

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{
char str[] = "Hello World";
cout<<str[0];
return 0;
}
a) H
b) e
c) Error
d) o

67. What is the role of a constructor in classes?


a) To modify the data whenever required
b) To destroy an object
c) To initialize the data members of an object when it is created
d) To call private functions from the outer world

68. What is a copy constructor?


a) A constructor that allows a user to move data from one object to
another
b) A constructor to initialize an object with the values of another object
c) A constructor to check the whether to objects are equal or not
d) A constructor to kill other copies of a given object.

69. When destructors are called?


a) When a program ends
b) When a function ends
c) When a delete operator is used
d) All of the mentioned

70. What is the difference between constructors and destructors?


a) They have a different function name
b) Constructors does not have return type whereas destructors do have
c) Constructors allow function parameters whereas destructors do not
d) Constructors does not function parameters

71. How many Destructors are allowed in a Class?


a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) Any number

72. Which of the following can derived class inherit?


a) members

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b) functions
c) both members & functions
d) classes

73. Which is used to create a pure virtual function?


a) $
b) =0
c) &
d) !

74. Classes that contain at least one_______, is also called as


abstract class?
a) virtual function
b) pure virtual function
c) derived class
d) base class

75. The value of radix in binary number system is _____________


a) 2
b) 8
c) 10
d) 1

76. The input hexadecimal representation of 1110 is


_______________
a) 0111
b) E
c) 15
d) 14

77. Which of the following is the correct representation of a binary


number?
a) (124)2
b) 1110
c) (110)2
d) (000)2

78. The hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number


(0010010100)2 is :
a) (094)16
b) (0A4)16
c) 224

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d) 0114

79. *@5Ac# is a type of ________________ data.


a) Symbolic
b) Alphanumeric
c) Alphabetic
d) Numeric

80. The program written by the programmer in high level language


is called _____________
a) Object Program
b) Source Program
c) Assembled Program
d) Compiled Program

81. Minimization of function F(A,B,C) = A*B*(B+C) is _________


a) AC
b) B+C
c) B`
d) AB

82. Which feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis


?
a) Economic feasibility
b) Technical feasibility
c) Legal feasibility
d) All of the mentioned

83. The process of transforming a model into source code is known


as
a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse engineering
c) Re-engineering
d) Reconstructing

84. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever


changing environment, falls under which category of software
maintenance?
a) Corrective
b) Adaptive
c) Perfective
d) Preventive

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85. Alpha testing is done at


a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
c) Developer’s & User’s end
d) None of the mentioned

86. Beta testing is done at


a) User’s end
b) Developer’s end
c) User’s & Developer’s end
d) None of the mentioned

87. What does the Turing machine consist of?


a) Input tape, output tape, and control unit
b) Input tape, output tape, and head
c) Input tape, control unit, and head
d) Input tape, memory tape, and control unit

88. In the context of formal languages, which type of automaton


can recognize context-free languages?
a) Deterministic Finite Automaton (DFA)
b) Non-deterministic Finite Automaton (NFA)
c) Pushdown Automaton (PDA)
d) Turing Machine (TM)

89. Which language class is the most powerful in terms of


generative capability?
a) Regular languages
b) Context-free languages
c) Context-sensitive languages
d) Recursive languages
90. What is the language generated by a regular grammar?
a) Context-free language

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b) Context-sensitive language
c) Regular language
d) Recursive language
91. Which normal form eliminates partial dependencies in a
relational database?
a) First Normal Form (1NF)
b) Second Normal Form (2NF)
c) Third Normal Form (3NF)
d) Fourth Normal Form (4NF)

92. Which SQL command is used to add new rows to a table?


a) INSERT
b) UPDATE
c) DELETE
d) ALTER
93. Which SQL clause is used to filter rows based on a specified
condition?
a) FROM
b) WHERE
c) SELECT
d) JOIN
94. What is the purpose of a view in a database?
a) To store large amounts of data
b) To define the structure of a table
c) To provide a virtual table with a subset of data from one or more
tables
d) To link two tables in a many-to-many relationship
95. Which of the following is an example of a non-relational
database model?
a) MySQL

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b) PostgreSQL
c) MongoDB
d) Oracle
96. What does "Normalization" refer to in the context of database
design?
a) The process of reducing redundancy and improving data integrity
b) The process of encrypting sensitive data
c) The process of creating backup copies of the database
d) The process of converting data into a different format
97. What is the purpose of a database index?
a) To store large binary objects (BLOBs)
b) To enforce referential integrity constraints
c) To improve the speed of data retrieval by providing a faster access
path to data
d) To manage user access permissions
98. What does ACID stand for in the context of database
transactions?
a) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
b) Authentication, Confidentiality, Integrity, Data
c) Association, Concurrency, Identification, Deployment
d) Aggregation, Conformance, Isolation, Deployment
99. In the given query which of the keyword has to be inserted?
INSERT INTO employee _____ (1002,Joey,2000);
a) Table
b) Values
c) Relation
d) Field

100.
SELECT name ____ instructor name, course id
FROM instructor, teaches
WHERE instructor.ID= teaches.ID;

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Which keyword must be used here to rename the field name?


a) From
b) Rename
c) As
d) Join

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