PHYSICS

“Aaj Padhle
Kal Exam Me
Yhi Ayega”
 Electric Charges and Fields
Q1.In air, the electrostatic force on a small 0.4 μC charged sphere
due to another small –0.8 μC charged sphere is 0.2 N. What is the
distance between the two spheres?

Solution

The given electrostatic force on the first sphere is F = 0.2 N.

The charge on the first and second sphere are
-6
q1 = 0.4 μC = 0.4 × 10 C and
-6
q2 = – 0.8 μC = – 0.8 × 10 C respectively.

Electrostatic force between the spheres

Q2. Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are connected

to each other by a wire. Find the ratio of the electric fields at their
surfaces.

Solution
Q3. An electric dipole of dipole moment (p) is kept in a uniform
electric field E . Show graphically the variation of torque acting
on the dipole (t) with its orientation (q) in the field. Find the
orientation in which torque is (i) zero and (ii) maximum. .
Solution
Graphical variation of torque (τ) with the orientation of electric
dipole (q) in the electric field:

(i) At q = 0°, torque is zero.

(ii) At q = 90°, torque is maximum.

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Q4. Derive the expression for the torque acting on an electric
dipole, when it is held in a uniform electric field. Identify the
orientation of the dipole in the electric field, in which it attains
a stable equilibrium..

Solution

An electric dipole AB consisting of charge +q and – q and of

length 2a is placed in uniform electric field E making an angle q
with the direction of electric field.

Force acting on – q is –qE.

Force acting on + q is qE.
These two forces are equal and opposite to each other. Hence, a
torque on the dipole is developed.
Torque = Force × perpendicular distance between the forces

Or, τ = qE × 2asinθ
Or, τ = (q × 2a)E sinθ
∴ τ = pE sinθ (where p is dipole moment)
The dipole will attain stable equilibrium when it will be oriented
along the direction of the electric field.

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Q5. (a) Use Gauss' theorem to find the electric field due to a
uniformly charged infinitely large plane thin sheet with surface
charge density σ.
(b) An infinitely large thin plane sheet has a uniform surface
charge density +σ. Obtain the expression for the amount of work
done in bringing a point charge q from infinity to a point, distant r,
in front of the charged plane sheet.

Solution

(a)

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 (b)

∧
Q6. Given the electric field in the region E = 2x i , find the net electric
flux through the cube and the charge enclosed by it. .

Solution

From the given diagram, Only the face

perpendicular to the direction of x-axis,
contribute to the electric flux. The
remaining faces of the cube gives zero
contribution.

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 ∧ ∧
Q7. Find the flux of a uniform electric field E = 5 × 10³ i N/C held
through a square of 10 cm on a side with a plane parallel to the YZ
- plane. What would be the flux across the same square if the
plane intersected the X-axis at a 30° angle?

Solution
The given value of electric field intensity is
|E| = 5 × 10³ N/C.
The length of one side of the square is 10 cm or 0.1 m. So, the
area of the square will be 0.01 m².
The square's plane is parallel to the YZ-plane. So, there is no
angle between the unit vector normal to the plane and the
electric field, θ = 0°.

Substitute |E| = 5 × 10³, A = 0.01, and θ = 0° into the flux through

the plane φ = |E| A cos θ,
φ = 5 x 10³ (0.01) cos 0°
= 5 x 10³ (0.01)
= 50 Nm²/C
Therefore, the flux when the square's plane is parallel to the YZ-
plane is 50 N-m² /C.
When the plane makes a 30° angle with the x axis then, q = 60°.
Substitute |E| = 5 × 10³, A = 0.01 and q = 60° into the flux through
the plane φ = |E| A cos θ,

φ = 5 x 10³ (0.01) cos 60°

= 5 x 10³ (0.01)(0.5)
= 25 Nm²/C
Therefore, the flux when the square's plane is intersected the X-
axis at a 30° angle is 25 Nm2 /C.

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 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND
CAPACITANCE
Q8. Deduce an expression for the potential energy of a system
∧ ∧
of two points charges q1 and q2 located at positions r₁₂ and r₁₂
respectively in an external field E

Solution

V₁ = Electric potential at the point having position vector r₁

V₂ = Electric potential at the point having position vector r₂
q₁V₁ = Work done in bringing q₁ from infinity to r₁ against the
external field
q₂V₂ = Work done in bringing q₁ from infinity to r₁ against the
external field

1/4πε x q₁q₂/r₁₂ = Work done on q₂ against the force exerted by q₁.

(r₁₂ is the distance between q₁ and q₂.)
So, the total potential energy of the system
= q₁V₁ + q₂V₂ + 1/4πε x q₁q₂/r₁₂

Q9. Three points charges Q, q and – q are kept a the vertices of

an equilateral triangle of side L as shown in figure. What is
(i) The electrostatic potential energy of the arrangement? and
(ii) The potential at point D?

Solution

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Q10. (a) Derive an expression for potential energy of two charge
system placed in Z-Y plane
(b) If an external electric field (E) is applied on the system, write the
expression for total energy of this system.

Solution

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Q11. (i) If two similar large plates, each of area A having surface
charge densities +a and -a are separated by a distance d in air,
find the expressions for
(a) field at points between the two plates and on outer side of the
plates. Specify the direction of the field in each case.
(b) the potential difference between the plates.
(c) the capacitance of the capacitor so formed.

(ii) Two metallic spheres of radii R and 2R are charged so that

both of these have same surface charge density a. If they are
connected to each other with a conducting wire, in which
direction will the charge flow and why?
Solution

Q12. A conducting wire connects two charged conducting spheres

such that they attain equilibrium with respect to each other. The
distance of separation between the two spheres is very large as
compared to either of their radii.

Find the ratio of the magnitudes of the electric fields at the

surfaces of the two spheres.

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Solution

When a conducting wire connects two charged conducting

spheres, the charges redistribute themselves to reach
electrostatic equilibrium. In this scenario, the charges on the
spheres will arrange themselves in such a way that the
potential throughout the wire is the same.

Let's calculate the electric fields at the surfaces of the two

spheres:

The potential difference (ΔV) between the two spheres is the

same because they are connected by a conducting wire and
are in electrostatic equilibrium:

ΔV = V1 – V2 = 0

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Q13. Given are two charges, q1, a negative source charge, and q2,
a test charge. The test charge q2 is initially positive and then
changed into a negative charge of the same magnitude.
(a) Will the potential at the position of charge q2 due to the
source charge q1 (i) remain the same, (ii) increase, or (iii)
decrease?
(b) Will the potential energy of the q1 & q2 charge system (i)
remain the same, (ii) increase or (iii) decrease?
Give an explanation in each case.

Solution

(a) Potential at the Position of Charge q2:

Initially, when q2 is positive:
The potential at the position of q2 due to q1 is negative because
opposite charges attract.
The electric potential energy is lower when q2 is positive.
After q2 changes to a negative charge of the same magnitude:
The potential at the position of q2 due to q1 will remain the same.

(b) Potential Energy of the q1 & q2 Charge System:

Initially, when q2 is positive:
The potential energy of the system is negative because opposite
charges attract.
As q2 moves closer to q1, the potential energy decreases.
After q2 changes to a negative charge of the same magnitude:
The potential energy of the system will increase.

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Q14.(i) Consider two identical point charges located at points (0,
0) and (a, 0).
(1) Is there a point on the line joining them at which the electric
field is zero?
(2) Is there a point on the line joining them at which the electric
potential is zero?
Justify your answers for each case.
(ii) State the significance of negative value of electrostatic
potential energy of a system of charges. Three charges are
placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of side 2.0 m
as shown in figure. Calculate the electric potential energy of the
system of three charges.

Solution

Ans. (i) (1) Yes, Electric field will be zero at, (a /2) point.
At this point the magnitudes of both the electric fields are
same in magnitude and are oppositely directed.

(2) Electric potential will not be zero at any point since at

every point the potential will be the summation of both the
potentials and both charges are of similar nature.

(ii) Significance of negative electrostatic potential energy:

Negative electrostatic potential
-12
energy of a system of charges
means work-3is to be done against the field to move the
charges apart. Potential energy due to charges at A and B
U₁ = kq₁q₂/r
U₁ = 9 x 10⁹ x (-4) x (4) x 10 /2
U₁ = -72 x 10 J

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Potential energy due to charges at A and C
U₂ = kq₁q₃/r
-12
U₂ = 9 x 10⁹ x (4) x (2) x 10 /2
-3
U₂ = 36 x 10 J
Potential energy due to charges at B and C
U₃ = kq₂q₃/r
-12
U₃ = 9 x 10⁹ x (-4) x (2) x 10 /2
-3
U₃ = 36 x 10 J

Net potential energy of the system of three charges. O

r, U = U₁ + U₂ + U₃
-3 -3 -3
∴ U = – 72 × 10 J – 36 × 10 J + 36 × 10 J
-3
U = – 72 × 10 J

CURRENT ELECTRICITY
Q15. Two copper wires, P and Q of the same area of crosssection
are joined in parallel. The combination of wires is connected
across a battery of potential difference V. If the length of the
wires, P and Q are in the ratio 1: 2, find the ratio of drift velocities
of electrons in wires P and Q.

Solution

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Q16. A wire of length L₀ has a resistance R₀. It is gradually
stretched till its length becomes 2 L₀.
(a) Plot a graph showing variation of its resistance R with its
length L during stretching.
(b) What will be its resistance when its length becomes 2 L₀?

Solution

Q17. Two cells of emfs E1 and E2 and internal resistances r1 and r2

respectively are connected in parallel as shown in the figure.
Deduce the expression for the
(i) equivalent emf of the combination
(ii) equivalent internal resistance of the combination
(iii) potential difference between the points A and B.

Solution

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Q18. Explain the term drift velocity of electrons in a conductor.
Hence obtain the expression for the current through a conductor
in terms of drift velocity.

Solution
(a) Drift velocity: It is the average velocity acquired by the free
electrons superimposed over the random motion in the direction
opposite to electric field and along the length of the metallic
conductor.
Let’s say potential V is set across a conductor of length L.
Electric field = V/L
Force on each electron due to the electric field = –eE
Acceleration = a = -eE/m
(m = mass of electron, e = charge of electron)
Electron achieves a velocity in the opposite direction of the
electric field.
v = - eE/m τ (τ = relaxation time)
If electron density = n
Total number of electrons in the conductor = nLA
(where A = Area of cross section of the conductor)
Total charge = Q = – enLA

Time taken to cover length L is t = L/v

Current = I = Q/t

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Q19.Use Kirchhoff’s rules to obtain conditions for the balance
condition in a Wheatstone bridge.

Solution
Applying Kirchhoff’s loop rule to closed loop ADBA,
–I₁R₁ + I R + I₂R₂ = 0 (I = 0) ...(i)

Q20. Using Kirchhoff's rules, calculate the potential difference

between B and D in the circuit diagram as shown in the figure.

Solution

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 Q21. The voltmeter and the ammeter connected in the given
circuit are ideal. What will be their readings in this circuit?
Solution
From the given question, ideal voltmeter has
infinite resistance and the ideal ammeter has
zero resistance.

MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM

Q22. Two charges A and B, each having a velocity of v, traverse
circular paths in a uniform magnetic field as shown below.
(a) Compare the charge-to-mass ratio of the two particles A and
B. Show the necessary mathematical calculations.
(b) Which of the two particles is likely to be a proton if the other is
an alpha particle? Give reason.
Solution

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Q23. Use Biot-Savart law to derive the expression for the
magnetic field on the axis of a current carrying circular loop of
radius R.
Solution

Let us consider a circular loop of radius a with centre C. Let the

plane of the coil be perpendicular to the plane of the paper and
current I be flowing in the direction shown. Suppose P is any
point on the axis at a distance r from the centre.

Solution

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Q24. The given figure shows a long straight wire of a circular
cross-section (radius a) carrying steady current I. The current I
is uniformly distributed acroos this cross-section. Calculate the
magnetic field in the region r < a and r > a.

Solution

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Q25. Two long straight parallel conductors carrying currents I₁
and I₂ are separated by a distance d. If the currents are flowing in
the same direction, show how the magnetic field produced by
one exerts an attractive force on the other. Obtain the expression
for this force and hence define 1 ampere.

Solution

Force between two long straight parallel conductors carrying current

in the same direction:

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 Q26. Briefly explain why and how a galvanometer is converted
into an ammeter.

Solution

Conversion of galvanometer into ammeter: Ammeter is connected

in series in a circuit. So, its resistance should be such that it does
not increase the equivalent resistance value of the circuit
appreciably. So, to convert a galvanometer into an ammeter a
very low resistance value shunt is to be connected in parallel with
the galvanometer.

Q27. 1. (a) Briefly describe how the current sensitivity of a moving

coil galvanometer can be increased.
(b) A galvanometer shows full scale deflection for current I . A
resistance R₁ is required to convert it into a voltmeter of range (0
– V) and a resistance R₂ to convert it into a voltmeter of range (0
– 2V). Find the resistance of the galvanometer.

Solution

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Q28. Derive the expression for the torque acting on a current
carrying loop placed in a magnetic field.

Solution

Consider the simple case when a rectangular loop is placed in

a uniform magnetic field B that is in the plane of the loop.

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 MAGNETISM AND MATTER
Q29. Write the four important properties of the magnetic field
lines due to a bar magnet.

Solution

Four properties of magnetic field lines:

(i) Magnetic field lines always form continuous closed loops.

(ii) The tangent to the magnetic field line at a given point
represents the direction of the net magnetic field at that point.
(iii) The larger the number of field lines crossing per unit area, the
stronger is the magnitude of the magnetic field.
(iv) Magnetic field lines do not intersect.

Q30. Earth’s magnetic field is assumed to be due to a small

magnetic dipole located at its core. Considering the distance of
either of the poles from the centre of the Earth to be about 6400
km and the measure of the Earth’s magnetic field at the poles as
0.6 × 10 T, what is the magnetic dipole moment of the assumed
magnetic dipole located at the centre?

Solution

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Q31. A bar magnet of dipole moment 3 Am² rests with its centre
on a frictionless pivot. A force F is applied at right angles to the
axis of the magnet, 10 cm from the pivot. It is observed that an
external magnetic field of 0.25 T is required to hold the magnet in
equilibrium at an angle of 30° with the field. Calculate the value
of F.

Solution

Dipole moment of the magnet = M = 3 Am²

F = force applied at a distance 10 cm from the centre
It is now in equilibrium at an angle = θ = 30˚
External magnetic field strength = B = 0.25 T
The magnet will be at rest when the total torque acting on it
is 0.
It means that the torque due to applied force F is equal to the
torque due to magnetic force.
Torque due to applied force = F × 10
Torque due to magnetic force = MB sin θ = 3 × 0.25 × sin 30˚

Since, torque due to applied force F = Torque due to

magnetic force, so
F × 10 = 3 × 0.25 × sin 30˚
F = 1/10 x 3 x 0.25 x sin 30˚
= 1/10 x 3 x 0.25 x 0.5
= 0.0375 N

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Q32. Two identical magnetic dipoles each of magnetic dipole
moment 2 Am² are placed with their axes perpendicular to each
other with a distance of separation being r = 2 m between them.
Find the magnetic field at the point that is midway along the
distance of separation between the two dipoles.

Solution

Q33.Show that a current carrying solenoid behaves like a small

bar magnet. Obtain the expression for the magnetic field at an
external point lying on its axis.

Solution
Let us consider a solenoid, whose
radius = a
length = 2l
Number of turns per unit length = n
Current passing through the solenoid = I.

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Q34.Read this following information

Each of the orbiting electrons in an atom contributes towards

the orbital magnetic moment. In a diamagnetic material, the
resultant magnetic moment of each atom is zero. When exposed
to an external magnetic field, the diamagnetic substance
experiences repulsion..

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1. Why are diamagnetic materials repelled when placed in an external
field? Give an explanation basis the changes that occur to the orbital
magnetic moment of the electrons.
Ans. When an external magnetic field B is applied to a diamagnetic
material, the electrons with an orbital magnetic moment in the direction
same as B, slow down whereas the ones in the direction opposite to B,
speed up.
The diamagnetic material develops a net non-zero magnetic moment in
the direction opposite to the applied B. This results in repulsion.

2. In contrast to a diamagnetic material, how does a material with

each individual atom having a non-zero magnetic dipole moment but
all atoms aligned in random directions, respond to an external
magnetic field? What are such materials known as?
Ans. Each atom with a net non-zero magnetic moment aligns parallel to
the applied magnetic field B. The material will experience attraction.
They are known as paramagnetic materials.

3. In the material identified in (2) what is the effect of fall in

temperature and rise in applied magnetic field intensity?
Ans. With the fall in temperature and rise in the applied magnetic field
intensity B, the magnetization intensity M of paramagnetic material
increases until all dipole moments are perfectly aligned to B. The
material is said to have reached its magnetic saturation.

4. What does the value μ = 0 signify in a magnetic material? Find χ of

such material. What are such materials known as?
Ans. As μ = 1 + χ, if μ = 0, it implies χ = – 1. If such a material is placed in
an external magnetic field, it will repel all the field lines.
The net magnetic field inside the material, that,
B = μ = μ₀ μ H = 0.
Such materials are known as perfectly diamagnetic materials or
superconductors.

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 Electromagnetic Induction
Q35. A square loop of side 10 cm and resistance 0.5 Ω is placed
vertically in the east-west plane. A uniform magnetic field of
0.10 T is set up across the plane in the north-east direction. The
magnetic field is decreased to zero in 0.70 s at a steady rate.
Determine the magnitudes of induced

Solution

The angle θ made by the area vector of the coil with the magnetic
field is 45°. So, the initial magnetic flux is

Final flux, f min = 0 The change in flux is brought about in 0.70s. The
magnitude of the induced emf is given by

And the magnitude of the current is

Note that the earth's magnetic field also produces a flux through
the loop. But it is a steady field (which does not change within the
time span of the experiment) and hence does not induce any
emf.

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Q36. circular coil of radius 10 cm, 500 turns and resistance 2 Ω is
placed with its plane perpendicular to the horizontal
component of the earth's magnetic field. It is rotated about its
vertical diameter through 180° in 0.25s. Estimate the
magnitudes of the emf and current induced in the coil.
Horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field at the place
is 3.0 × 10⁻⁵ T.

Solution

Q37. A wheel with 10 metallic spokes each 0.5 m long is rotated

with a speed of 120 rev/min in a plane normal to the horizontal
component of earth's magnetic field HE at a place. If HE = 0.4 G
at the place, what is the induced emf between the axle and the
rim of the wheel? Note that 1G = 10⁻⁴ T.

Solution

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Q38. Figure below shows planar loops of different shapes
moving out of or into a region of a magnetic field which is
directed normal to the plane of the loop away from the reader.
Determine the direction of induced current in each loop using
Lenz’s law.

Solution
(i) When the rectangular loop abcd moves into the magnetic
field, causing an increase in magnetic flux through the loop, the
induced current is directed along the path bcdab to counteract
the rising flux.

(ii) Upon outward motion, the magnetic flux through the

triangular loop abc decreases. In response, the induced current
flows along bacb to resist the reduction in flux.

(iii) When the irregular-shaped loop abcd exits the magnetic

field, resulting in a decrease in magnetic flux, the induced
current follows the path cdabc to oppose the declining flux. It's
important to note that no induced current is present when the
loops are entirely within or outside the magnetic field region.

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Q39. The magnetic field through a circular loop of wire, 12 cm in
radius and 8.5 Ω resistance, changes with time as shown in the
figure. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the
loop. Calculate the current induced in the loop and plot a graph
showing induced current as a function of time.

Solution

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Q40.Consider the experimental set up shown in the figure. This
jumping ring experiment is an outstanding demonstration of
some simple laws of Physics. A conducting non-magnetic ring
is placed over the vertical core of a solenoid. When current is
passed through the solenoid, the ring is thrown off.

(i) the switch is closed in the circuit.

(ii) What will happen if the terminals of the battery are reversed
and the switch is closed? Explain.
(iii) Explain the two laws that help us understand this
phenomenon.
OR
Briefly explain various ways to increase the strength of
magnetic field produced by a given solenoid.
Solution
(i) When the switch is closed, a current flows through the
solenoid and an emf is induced in the ring. So, an induced
current flows in the ring. Lenz’sLaw states that an induced
current always flows in the opposite direction of that which
produced it. In other words, the emf induced by the solenoid
creates a current in the ring that flows in the opposite direction
of the solenoid’s current. These opposite currents repel one
another, so the ring jumps up being repelled by the solenoid.

(ii) When the battery is reversed, the directions of currents in

both solenoid and ring change and the ultimately same
phenomenon is observed.

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(iii) The laws which explain the phenomenon: l Faraday’s law of
electromagnetic induction: An emf is induced in a conductor
when it is placed in a varying magnetic field. l Lenz’s law:
Induced current flows in a direction such that the current
opposes the change that induced it.

Various ways to increase the magnetic field produced by a

solenoid:
By placing a soft iron core.
By increasing the number of turns per unit length.
By increasing the strength of current.

Alternating Current
Q41. A current of 1A flows through a coil when it is connected
across a DC battery of 100 V. If DC battery is replaced by an AC
source of 100 V and angular frequency 100 rad s⁻¹, the current
reduces to 0.5 A. Find
(i) impedance of the circuit.
(ii) self-inductance of coil.
(iii) phase difference between the voltage and the current.

Solution

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Q42.The current through a resistor is 2 A when connected to a
220 V, 50 Hz line. Find the value of capacitor which is to be
connected to reduce the current to 1A.

Solution

To reduce the current from 2 A to 1A, the impedance is to be

doubled.
When only R is present, then R = V/I = 220/2 = 110 Ω
Now a capacitor C is connected in series and the impedance
becomes 220 Ω.

Q43. An alternating voltage V = 140 sin 314t is connected across

a 50 Ω resistor. Find
(i) The frequency of the source
(ii) The r.m.s. current through the resistor.

Solution

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Q44.A current of 0.22 A flows in the circuit and it lags behind
the applied voltage in phase by p 2 radian. When the same
voltage is applied across another device Y, the current in the
circuit remains the same and it is in phase with the applied
voltage.
(i) Name the devices X and Y and,
(ii) Calculate the current flowing in the circuit when the same
voltage is applied across the series combination of X and Y

Solution

(i) Since, current lags behind the voltage, X is an inductor. Since,

current and voltage remain in phase, Y is a resistor.

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Q45. A capalcitor (C) and resistor (R) are connected in series
with an ac source of voltage of frequency 50 Hz. The potential
difference across C and R are respectively 120 V and 90 V, and
the current in the circuit is 3 A. Calculate
(i) the impedance of the circuit
(ii) the value of the inductance, which when connected in series
with C and R will make the power factor of the circuit unity.

Solution

Q46. Find the percentage increase in the area of a triangle, if its

each side is doubled.
Solution
Given are two ac circuits, each connected to identical power
supplies

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The ac source is of angular frequency ω in both the circuits (i)
and (ii) initially.
If the frequency is changed to w/3, maintaining the same
voltage, the current in the circuit (i) is halved whereas the
current in the circuit (ii) is doubled. Determine the initial ratio of
capacitive reactance in a circuit (i) to the inductive reactance in
the circuit (ii), that is, when the angular frequency in both the
circuits was ω.

Q47. State the basic principle behind the working of an ac

generator. Briefly describe its working and obtain the
expression for the instantaneous value of emf induced.

Solution
Basic principle of working of AC generator. Basic principle of
working of AC generator is electromagnetic induction. A coper
coil known a armature is rotated in a strong magnetic field and
emf is induced in the coil according to the Faraday's laws of
electromagnetic induction and the direction of induced emf is
determined by Fleming's right hand rule. Working of ac
generator:

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Main components of as generator are: (i) Armature (ABCD), (ii)
Field magnet (NS), (iii) slip ring (R1, R2) (iv) Carbon Brush (B1, B2)
A armature (ABCD) is a copper coil wound on a soft iron core.
The armature is rotated by a turbine. The armature is placed in
between poles of a strong permanent magnet (NS) known as
field magnet. Two ends of armature coil are connected to the slip
rings (R1 and R2). Carbon brushes (B1 and B2) kept just in firm
contact with the rings. External circuit is connected with the
brushes. When armature rotates in the magnetic field induced
emf is generated which is supplied to the external circuit through
the brushes.
Expression of instantaneous emf induced: If the armature has N
number of turns, then magnetic flux through the coil is

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 Electromagnetic

Q58. Write the characteristics of electromagnetic waves.

Solution

(i) No medium is required for the electromagnetic wave to

travel through.
(ii) An electromagnetic wave, although it carries no mass,
does carry energy. It also has momentum and can exert
pressure (known as radiation pressure).
(iii) The energy carried by an electromagnetic wave is
proportional to the frequency of the wave.

Q49. The water for a industry is stored in a hemispherical tank

of internal diameter 14 m. The tank contains 40 kilolitres of
water. Water is pumped into the tank to fill it to full capacity.
Calculate the volume of water pumped into the tank.

Solution

(a) Production of infrared waves:

Any object having temperature emits infrared (even ice emits
infrared).
Sun is a source of infrared.
Infrared is produced by Nernst lamp, infrared laser etc.
Infrared waves are heat waves:
It increases the vibration of atoms of the substances on which it
falls and thus increases the internal energy and temperature of
the substance.
Uses of infrared:
It is used for photography at night and through fog.
It is used for relieve of muscular pain

/ padhle.akshay
Q50. How are X-rays produced? Give any two uses of these.

Solution
Production of X-rays:
X-rays are produced when high energy electron beam
bombards metallic target of high melting and point heavy
atomic weight.
X-ray is produced in Coolidge tube.

Uses of X-ray:
It is used to photograph bones for the diagnosis of any
fracture and dislocation.
It is used to radiotherapy to destroy cancerous cells and to
shrink tumors.

Q51. (i) Arrange the following electromagnetic radiation in the

ascending order of their frequencies: X-rays, microwaves,
gamma rays, radio waves
(ii) Write two uses of any two of these radiation.

Solution
(i) Arranging in ascending order of frequency: Radio waves,
Microwaves, X-rays, Gamma ray
(ii) Uses of X-ray:
to view bones and teeth, for diagnosing fractures.
to check for cracks or flaws in industrial materials.
Uses of infra-red:
In heat-sensitive thermal imaging cameras.
In home remote controls.

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Q52. How are electromagnetic waves produced? Write their two
characteristics.

Solution

Accelerated charged particles produce electromagnetic waves.

Characteristics of electromagnetic waves: Electromagnetic
waves are transverse in nature. All electromagnetic waves travel
through vacuum with a speed 3 × 108 m/s. In electromagnetic
waves the oscillations of E and B are perpendicular to each other
and also perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the
wave.

Q53. For a plane electromagnetic wave, propagating along the

z-axis, write the two (possible) pairs of expressions for its
oscillating electric and magnetic fields. How are the peak
values of these (oscillating) fields related to each other?

Solution

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Q54. (a) A radio wave and an infrasonic wave have the same
wavelength when travelling through air. Are their frequencies
the same or different? Give a reason for your answer.
(b) An electromagnetic wave traveling east has a magnetic
field that oscillates vertically and has a frequency of 60 kHz and
an rms strength of 8 × 10⁻⁹ T. Determine the frequency and the
rms strength of the electric field. What is the direction of the
electric field?

Solution
(a) Their frequencies will be different. A radio wave is an EM wave
and an infrasonic wave is a sound wave. Since, they have
different speeds in air, their frequencies are different.

Since they have different speeds in air, they will have different
frequencies.

(b) Frequency of electric field = frequency of magnetic field = 60

kHz

Q55. Electromagnetic waves of wavelengths l1, l2 and l3 are

used in radar system, in water purifiers and in remote switches
of TV, respectively.
(i) Identify the electromagnetic waves, and
(ii) Write one source of each of them.

Solution

/ PadhleAkshay
(i) Wavelength λ1 corresponds to Microwaves. Wavelength λ2
corresponds to Ultraviolet waves. Wavelength λ3 corresponds to
Infrared waves.
(ii) Source of microwaves: Klystron/magnetron valves. Source of
ultraviolet waves: Movement of electrons in atoms from higher
energy level to lower energy level.
Source of infrared waves: Vibration of atoms and molecules.

Ray Optics and Optical

Instruments
Q56. The light beam shown in the figure makes an angle of
20.0° with the normal NN’ in the linseed oil. Determine the
angles q and q’. (The index of refraction of linseed oil is 1.48)
The fefractive index of water is obsent.

Solution

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Q57.For a glass prism (m = √3) the angle of minimum deviation
is equal to the angle of the prism. Find the angle of the prism.
Solution

Q58. Ray of light is incident on a glass prism of refractive index

µ and refracting angle A. If it just suffers total internal reflection
at the other face, obtain a relation between the angle of
incidence, angle of prism and critical angle.
Solution

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Q59. In the given figure the radius of curvature of curved face in
the plano- convex and the planoconcave lens is 15 cm each.
The refractive index of the material of the lenses is 1.5. Find the
final position of the image formed.

Solution

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Q60. A ray of monochromatic light passes through an
equilateral glass prism in such a way that the angle of
incidence is equal to the angle of emergence and each of these
angles is 3/4 times the angle of the prism. Determine the angle
of deviation and the refractive index of the glass prism.

Solution

Here angle of prism A = 60°, angle of incidence i = angle of

emergence e and under this condition angle of deviation is
minimum

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Q61. Write two characteristics of image formed when an object
is placed between the optical centre and focus of a thin convex
lens. Draw the graph showing variation of image distance v
with object distance u in this case.

Solution
Characteristics of the image formed (any two)
(i) Virtual
(ii) Enlarged
(iii) On the same side of the object lens formula:

Q62. (a) Under what conditions is the phenomenon of total

internal reflection of light observed?
(b) Obtain the relation between the critical angle of incidence
and the refractive index of the medium.
(c) Three lenses of focal lengths +10 cm, –10 cm and +30 cm are
arranged coaxially as in the figure given below. Find the
position of the final image formed by the combination.

Solution

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(a) (i) Light travels from denser to rarer medium.
(ii) Angle of incidence is more than the critical angle

Wave Optics
Q63. A plane wave-front propagating in a medium of refractive
index ‘μ1 ’ is incident on a plane surface making an angle of
incidence (i). It enters into a medium of refractive index μ2 (μ2 >
μ1). Use Huygen’s construction of secondary wavelets to trace
the retracted wave-front. Hence, verify Snell’s law of refraction.

Solution

A plane wavefront AC is incident on the plane of separation XY of

two media of refractive indices μ1 and μ2 (μ2 > μ1) making an
angle i. This is known as angle of incidence. When the wavefront
touches the point A, the point becomes a source of secondary
wavelets. Thus, when the whole waveform passes through the XY
plane, each point of AF becomes the source of secondary
wavelets.

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When point C of the wavefront in medium 1 traverses CF distance
by that time (t) the wavelet from point A traverses AD distance. If
V1 and V2 are the speeds of light in medium 1 and 2 respectively,
then AD = V2 t and CF = V1 t. Refracted wavefront

DF which is obtained by drawing a tangent to the arc having

radius V2 t and centre A. The angle made by the tangent with the
plane XY is r. This is known as angle of refraction. The
perpendiculars drawn on wavefront AC are the incident rays. The
perpendiculars drawn on wavefront DF are the refracted rays. AN
and TF are the perpendiculars drawn on XY, the plane of
separation of the two media.

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Q64. Define a wavefront. How is it different from a ray?
(iii) In a double slit experiment using light of wavelength
600nm and the angular width of the fringe formed on a distant
screen is 0.1°. Find the spacing between the two slits.

Solution

(i) A wave front is defined as a surface of constant phase.

Difference between wavefront and ray:
(a) The ray indicates the direction of propagation of wave while
the wave front is the surface of constant phase.
(b) The ray at each point of a wave front is normal to the wave
front at that point

Q65. (a) Write the conditions under which light sources can be
said to be coherent.
(b) Why is it necessary to have coherent sources in order to
produce an interference pattern?

Solution

(a) Coherent sources of light. The sources of light, which emit

continuously light waves of the same wavelength, same
frequency and in same phase are called Coherent sources of
light. Interference pattern is not obtained. This is because phase
difference between the light waves emitted from two different
sodium lamps will change continuously.

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(b) Conditions for interference. The important conditions for
obtaining interference of light are: The two sources of light must
be coherent. i.e., they should exist continuous waves of same
wavelength or frequency. The two sources should be
monochromatic. The phase difference of waves from two sources
should be constant. The amplitude of waves from two sources
should be equal. The coherent sources must be very close to
each other.

Q66. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit, how will the

angular width of central maximum change, if
(i) orange light is used in place of green light,
(ii) the screen is moved closer to the slit,
(iii) the slit width is decreased? Justify your answer in each
case.
Solution

(i) Angular width of central maxima ∝ wavelength of light used.

Orange light has higher wavelength than that of green light. So,
Angular width of central maxima will be more when orange light
is used instead of green light.
(ii) Angular width of central maxima is independent of the
distance between the slit and the screen. So, if the screen is
moved closer to slit there will be no change in angular width of
central maxima.
(iii) Angular width of central maxima ∝ 1/slit width So, if the slit
width is decreased, the angular width of the central maxima will
increase.

Q67. In a Young's double slit experiment using light of

wavelength 600 nm, the slit separation is 0.8 mm and the
screen is kept 1.6 m from the plane of the slits. Calculate
(i) the fringe width
(ii) the distance of (a) third minimum and (b) fifth maximum,
from the central maximum.

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Solution

Q68.(i) State two conditions for two light sources to be

coherent.
(ii) Give two points of difference between an interference
pattern due to a double slit and a diffraction pattern due to a
single slit.

Solution

(i) Condition of two light sources to be coherent:

The two sources of light must be derived from a single source.
The source must be monochromatic in nature.
(ii) Difference between an interference pattern due to a double-
slit and a diffraction pattern due to a single slit:

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Q69.(a) A Young’s double slit setup is illuminated with
monochromatic light. If the intensity of light passing through one
of the slits is reduced, explain the changes that can be seen in the
appearance of the bright and dark fringes?

(b) (i) A single slit diffraction setup is illuminated with green light
of wavelength 500 nm. If the width of the slit is 1 mm and the
screen is 2 m away from the slits, calculate the width of the
central maximum.
(ii) What will happen to the width of the central maximum, if the
green light is replaced with the red light? Give a reason for your
answer.

Solution

(a) The bright fringes will appear less bright because the
intensity of light from one of the slits is reduced. 1 The dark
fringes will appear less dark/brighter because the intensity of
light from the two slits is not the same and the intensities do not
completely cancel each other out.

(b) (i) l = 500 nm = 500 × 10⁻⁹ m; D = 2 m; d = 1 mm = 1 × 10⁻³

(ii) Since, the wavelength of red light is more the green light and
the width of the central maximum is directly proportional to
wavelength, the width of the central maximum will increase when
red light is used.

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Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Q70.Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Solution
(i) From Einstein’s photoelectric equation,
hν = φ0 + KE
KE = eVs, where Vs is the stopping potential. Stopping potential
depends on the frequency of the incident radiation. If the
frequency increases, KE increases (Since, φ0 remains constant).
Hence, the stopping potential increases.

(ii) There is no intensity term in Einstein’s equation. Hence, the

stopping potential is independent of the intensity of incident
radiation.

Q71. Radiation of frequency 1015 Hz is incident on three

photosensitive surfaces A, B and C. Following observations are
recorded:
Surface A: no photoemission occurs
Surface B: photoemission occurs but the photoelectrons have
zero kinetic energy.
Surface C: photo emission occurs and photoelectrons have some
kinetic energy.

Solution
From the observations made on the basis of Einstein’s
photoelectric equation (KE = hV– hV₀), we can draw following
conclusions:
(i) For surface A, V₀ > n. So, KE is –ve. So, there is no
photoelectron emission.
(ii) For surface B V₀ = n. So, KE is 0. So, there is photoelectron
emission with zero KE.
(iii) For surface C, V₀ = n. So, KE is –ve. So, there is photoelectron
emission with certain amount of KE. .

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Q72. An alpha particle is accelerated through a potential
difference of 100 V. Calculate:
(i) The speed acquired by the alpha particle, and
(ii) The de-Broglie wavelength associated with it. (Take mass
of alpha particle = 6.4 × 10⁻²⁷ kg)

Solution

Q73. Obtain the expression for the ratio of the de Broglie

wavelengths associated with the electron orbiting in the
second and third excited states of hydrogen atom.

Solution

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Q74. Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron
orbiting in the n = 2 state of hydrogen atom.

Solution

Q75. The wavelength λ of a photon and the de Broglie

wavelength of an electron of mass m have the same value.
Show that the energy of the photon is 2ℷmc/h times the kinetic
energy of the electron, where c and h have their usual
meanings.

Solution

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Q76. Since, radiation has a dual (wave-particle) nature, then de
Broglie forwarded his hypothesis saying that particles of nature
(the electrons, protons, etc.) should also exhibit wave-like
character. According to him moving particles of matter should
display wave-like properties under suitable conditions. He
reasoned that nature is symmetrical and that the two basic
physical entities – matter and energy, must have symmetrical
character. If radiation shows dual aspects, so should matter. de
Broglie proposed that the wavelength λ associated with a
particle of momentum p is given as λ = h/p = h/mv where m is
the mass of the particle and v its speed. λ is the attribute of a
wave while on the right hand side the momentum p is a typical
attribute of a particle. Planck’s constant h relates the two
attributes. λ is smaller for a heavier particle (large m) or more
energetic particle (large v).

What was the main reason behind the hypothesis of matter

wave of de Broglie?
According to de Broglie hypothesis should a particle in rest
show wave nature?
How does the wavelength of a heavy particle differ from a
light particle?

Solution

1. The main reason behind the hypothesis: Nature is symmetrical

and that the two basic physical entities – matter and energy,
must have symmetrical character. If radiation shows dual
aspects, so should matter.

2. No. According to de Broglie moving particles of matter should

display wave-like properties under suitable conditions.

3. Since, λ = h/mv, so wavelength is smaller for a heavier particle.

/ PadhleAkshay
 Atoms
Q77. What is meant by ionisation energy? Write its value for
hydrogen atom.
Solution
Ionisation energy: Ionisation energy is the minimum amount of
energy which is to be supplied to an atom in its ground state so
that it gets converted into an ion, i.e., the minimum energy
required to shift an electron from
n = 1 to n = ∞. The value of ionization energy for Hydrogen is 13.6
eV.

Q78. State three postulates of Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom.

Solution

Postulates of Bohr’s theory: Postulate 1: In an atom, electrons are

revolving around the nucleus in definite circular orbits. These orbits
are called ‘stationary orbits’ and each orbit or shell possesses fixed
energy. While revolving in these orbits, electrons do not emit any
radiation.
Postulate 2: Electrons can move only in those permissible orbits
where the angular momenta of electrons are integral multiples of h
/2∏, where h is the Planck’s constant.

Postulate 3: Transition of electrons may occur from one stationary

orbit to another. During such transition energy may be emitted or
absorbed following the relation Ei – Ef = hν (where Ei – Ef is the
difference of energies of the two stable orbits).

/ PadhleAkshay
Q79.The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. The
photon emitted during the transition of electron from n = 3 to n =
1 state, is incident on a photosensitive material of unknown work
function. The photoelectrons are emitted from the material with
the maximum kinetic energy of 9 eV. Calculate the threshold
wavelength of the material used.

Solution

Q80. Use Bohr's postulate to prove that the radius of nth orbit in
a hydrogen atom is proportional to n².

Solution

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Q81. The wavelength of the second line of the Balmer series in the
hydrogen spectrum is 4861 Å. Calculate the wavelength of the
first line of the same series.

Solution

Q82. Differentiate between ‘distance of closest approach’ and

‘impact parameter.’

Solution

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Q83. Determine the distance of closest approach when an alpha
particle of kinetic energy 3.95 MeV approaches a nucleus of Z =
79, stops and reverses its directions.
Solution

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 Nuclei
Q84. A heavy nucleus P of mass number 240 and binding energy
7.6 MeV per nucleon splits into two nuclei Q and R of mass
number 110 and 130 and binding energy per nucleon 8.5 MeV and
8.4 MeV respectively. Calculate the energy released in the
fission.

Solution

Q85. Distinguish between nuclear fission and fusion giving an

example of each.

Solution

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Q86. Calculate the binding energy of an alpha particle in MeV.
Given mass of a proton = 1.007825 u mass of a neutron =
1.008665 u mas of He nucleus = 4.002800 u 1u = 931 MeV/c2

Solution

Q87.What is the nuclear radius of ¹²⁵Fe ,if that of ²⁷Al is 3.6 fermi?

Solution

Q88. (i) Distinguish between isotopes and isobars.

(ii) Two nuclei have different mass numbers A1 and A2. Are these
nuclei necessarily the isotopes of the same element? Explain.

Solution

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(ii) No, only when the two nuclei have same atomic number then
they are known as isotopes. Otherwise they may be isobars also.
Isobars have same mass numbers.

Q89. What do you mean by binding energy per nucleon?

Solution

The binding energy per nucleon may be defined as the energy

required to break up a nucleus into its constituent protons and
neutrons and to separate them to such a large distance so that
they may not interact with each other. It may also be defined as
the surplus energy which the nucleons give up by virtue of their
attractions when they become bound together to form a nucleus.
The binding energy of a nucleus is given by

/ PadhleAkshay
 Semiconductor
Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple
Circuits

Q90. Why does the hole concentration reduce when pentavalent

doping is increased?

Solution

When an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with pentavalent

impurities, the number of electrons increases much more than the
thermally produced electrons. This causes the thermally
generated holes to recombine with the electrons generated,
thereby decreasing the number of holes. As the doping
concentration increases, more electrons are produced, causing
more electron hole recombination and hence hole concentration
decreases.

Q91. The figure shows a piece of pure semiconductor S in series

with a variable resistor R and a source of constant voltage V.
Should the value of R be increased or decreased to keep the
reading of the ammeter constant, when semiconductor S is
heated? Justify your answer.
Solution
To keep the reading of ammeter
constant, value of R should be
increased as with the increase in
temperature of a semiconductor,
its resistance decreases and
current tends to increase.

/ PadhleAkshay
Q92. Name the extrinsic semiconductors formed when a pure
Germanium is doped with
(i) a trivalent and
(ii) pentavalent impurity. Draw the energy band diagrams of
extrinsic semiconductors so formed.

Solution

When a pure Germanium is doped with trivalent impurity, p-type

extrinsic semiconductor is formed.

(ii) When a pure Germanium is doped with pentavalent impurity, n-

type extrinsic semiconductor is formed.

Q93. In the case of n-type semiconductor, the donor energy level

is slightly below the bottom of conduction band whereas in p-
type semiconductor, tha acceptor energy level is slightly above
the top of the valance band. Explain what role these energy
levels play in conduction and valence bands?.

Solution

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donor impurity atoms move into conduction band with very small
supply of energy. Hence, the donor energy level is slightly below the
bottom of conduction band. ½ In case of p-type semiconductor, very
small supply of energy cause an electron to jump from its valance
band to the acceptor energy level. Hence, the valance band has
dominant density of holes. For this reason the acceptor energy level is
slightly above the top of the valance band.

Q94. With the help of a circuit diagram, explain briefly how a p-n
junction diode works as a half-wave rectifier.

Solution

Half-Wave rectifier: The rectifier which converts only one half of ac into
dc is called half-wave rectifier.

Working: The ac input signal which is to be rectified is fed to the

primary coil of the transformer. The secondary coil is connected to the
junction diode in series with a load resistance RL. For positive half
cycle of ac, point A of secondary coil is positive and point B is at zero
potential. Since, A is connected to p-region of the junction diode, the
junction diode is forward biased. Thus, the junction diode conducts.
The output voltage which varies in accordance with input half cycle is
obtained across RL. For negative half cycle of ac, point A is negative
and point B is at zero potential. So, the junction diode is reverse
biased. Hence the junction diode does not conduct, and therefore, no
output across load resistance is obtained. The variations of output
and input are shown below:

/ PadhleAkshay
Q95. Differentiate between the threshold voltage and the
breakdown voltage for a diode. Write the property of a junction
diode which makes it suitable for rectification of ac voltages.

Solution

The property of junction diode which makes it suitable for rectification:

It exhibits high resistance when reverse biased and low resistance
when forward biased.

Q96. Explain the formation of potential barrier and depletion

region in a p-n junction diode. What is effect of applying

Solution

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semiconductor, holes are the majority carrier and in the n-type
semiconductor, electrons are the majority carrier. ½ When a p-
n junction is formed, some of the electrons from the n-region
which have reached the conduction band are free to diffuse
across the junction and combine with holes. Recombination
leaves a negative ion in p-side and a positive ion in the n-side.
Thus, free charges get depleted and a depletion region is
formed, which inhibits any further electron transfer.

Applying forward bias, the depletion region reduces and again

electrons can diffuse.

Q97. (a) Identify which of the diodes would be conducting.

(b) Redraw an equivalent circuit diagram to show the flow of
current and voltage drops across each of the circuit elements.
Consider that ideal diodes offer zero resistance when forward-
biased & infinite resistance when reverse-biased.
(c) Determine the output voltage V0 across 1 kW, 2 kW and 3kW
respectively when the input voltage Vi, max = 12 V.

Solution

(a) Only D2 will be conducting.

(b) D1 will offer infinite resistance (open circuit). D2 will offer
zero resistance (forward biased).

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Q98. student wants to use two p-n junction diodes to convert
alternating current into direct current. Draw the labelled circuit
diagram she would use and explain how it works.

Solution

centre-tapped full wave rectifier system requires:

(i) Centre-tapped transformer
(ii) Two diodes
(iii) Resistive load The following is the circuit diagram.

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During the positive half-cycle, the terminal A is at positive
potential, centre-tap is at zero potential and terminal B is at
negative potential. During this cycle, the diode D1 is forward
biased and causes current to flow through it. During this time,
diode D2 is in reverse bias and does not conduct. During the
negative half-cycle of the input AC

voltage, terminal B is at positive potential, centretap is at zero

potential and terminal A is at negative potential. During this cycle,
diode D2 is forward biased and causes current to flow through it.
During this time, diode D1 is in reverse bias and does not conduct.
As a result, the current flow through the load resistance is
unidirectional for the complete cycle. Hence, the output is a DC
voltage. The output waveforms are as follows:

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Q99. With the help of a circuit diagram, explain how a full wave
rectifier gives output rectified voltage corresponding to both
halves of the input ac voltage.

Solution

D1 and D2 are used to design a full wave rectifier. The centre-tap

transformer has 3 output terminals. Centre tap is C and is always
at 0V. During positive half cycle of AC, A is +ve and B is –ve. During
negative half cycle, B is +ve and A is – ve. So, when positive half
cycle appears, A is +ve, B is –ve and C is at 0V. So, diode D1 is
forward biased and diode is reverse biased. When negative half
cycle appears, A is –ve, B is +ve and C is at 0V. So, diode D2 is
forward biased and diode D1 is reverse biased. So, for each half
cycle one diode conducts current through RL flows
unidirectionally. Hence the voltage developed across RL is a DC.

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