2014 (4)
2014 (4)
1. Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word underlined in the
sentence
below? In a democracy, everybody has the freedom to disagree with the government.
(A) Dissent (B) Descent (C) Decent (D) Decadent
Answer: A
Exp: Dissent is to disagree
2. After the discussion, Tom said to me, 'Please revert!’ He expects me to _________.
(A) Retract (B) Get back to him
(C) Move in reverse (D) Retreat
Answer: B
Exp: Revert means set back
3. While receiving the award, the scientist said, "I feel vindicated". Which of the following is
closest in meaning to the word ‘vindicated’?
(A) Punished (B) Substantiated (C) Appreciated (D) Chastened
Answer: B
Exp: Vindicate has 2 meanings
1. Clear of blain
2. Substantiate, justify
( A) 2n−m P ( B) 2 m− n P ( C) 2 ( n − m) P ( D) 2 ( m − n ) P
Answer: A
m
y
Exp: (2x) × = 2n − m × x n y m
n
2
5. In a sequence of 12 consecutive odd numbers, the sum of the first 5 numbers is 425. What is
the sum of the last 5 numbers in the sequence?
Answer: 495
Exp: Let consecutive odd numbers be a-10, a-8, a-6, a-4, a-2, a, ……a+12
Sum of 1st 5 number = 5a-30=425 ⇒ a=91
Last 5 numbers=(a+4)+(a+6)+…….+(a+12)
=(95+97+99+101+103)= 495
Q. No. 6 – 10 Carry Two Marks Each
6. Find the next term in the sequence: 13M, 17Q, 19S, ___
(A) 21W (B) 21V (C) 23W (D) 23V
Answer: C
Exp:
13 M
17(13 + 4) Q(M + 4)
19(17 + 2) S(Q + 2)
23(19 + 4) W = (s+ 4)
⇒ 23W
7. If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of
the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
(A) MCHTX (B) MXHTC (C) XMHCT (D) XMHTC
Answer: B
Exp: KCLFTSB SHSWDG
Reverse order: Reverse order:
BCS TOF LUCK GO OD W I S HES
Ace the exam
Reverse order should be
MAXE EHT ECA
Looking at the options we have M X H T C
8. Industrial consumption of power doubled from 2000-2001 to 2010-2011. Find the annual rate
of increase in percent assuming it to be uniform over the years.
(A) 5.6 (B) 7.2 (C) 10.0 (D) 12.2
Answer: B
Exp:
n
r
A = P 1 +
100
A = 2P
10
r
2 = 1+
100
∴ r = 7.2
9. A firm producing air purifiers sold 200 units in 2012. The following pie chart presents the
share of raw material, labour, energy, plant & machinery, and transportation costs in the total
manufacturing cost of the firm in 2012. The expenditure on labour in 2012 is Rs. 4,50,000. In
2013, the raw material expenses increased by 30% and all other expenses increased by 20%.
What is the percentage increase in total cost for the company in 2013?
Transpor Labour
− tation
30% 15%
Answer: 22%
Exp: Let total cost in 2012 is 100
Raw material increases in 2013 to 1.3 x 20=26
Other Expenses increased in 2013 to 1.2 x 80=96
Total Cost in 2013 =96+26=122
Total Cost increased by 22%
Hint:Labour cost (i.e, 4,50,000) in 2012 is redundant data.
10. A five digit number is formed using the digits 1,3,5,7 and 9 without repeating any of them.
What is the sum of all such possible five digit numbers?
(A) 6666660 (B) 6666600 (C) 6666666 (D) 6666606
Answer: B
Exp: 1 appears in units place in 4! Ways
Similarly all other positions in 4! Ways
Same for other digits.
Sum of all the numbers = (11111) X 4! (1+3+5+7+9) = 6666600
Q.No. 1 – 25 Carry One Mark Each
∞
1
1. The series ∑ n! converges to
n =0
x x2
= e as e x = 1 + + + ......., ∀ x in R
1! 2!
2. The magnitude of the gradient for the function f ( x, y, z ) = x 2 + 3y 2 + z 3 at the point (1,1,1) is
_________.
Answer: 7
( )(
Exp: ( ∇f )P(1,1,1) = i ( 2x ) + j ( 6y ) + k ( 3z 2 )
P 1,1,1)
= 2i + 6 j + 3k
( ∇f ) P = 4 + 36 + 9 = 7
3. Let X be a zero mean unit variance Gaussian random variable. E X is equal to _____
Answer: 0.8
1 − x2 2
Exp: X ~ N ( 0,1) ⇒ f ( x ) = e , −∞ < x < ∞
2π
∴ E{ x } = ∫
∞
x .f ( x ) dx
−∞
1 ∞ −x2
= x2 ∫ x e 2
dx
2π 0
2 ∞ 2
= ∫ e− u du = = 0.797 0.8
2π 0 π
4. If a and b are constants, the most general solution of the differential equation
d2x dx
2
+ 2 + x = 0 is
dt dt
( A ) ae − t ( B) ae− t + bte − t ( C) ae t + bte − t ( D ) ae −2t
Answer: B
A.E : − m 2 + 2m + 1 = 0 ⇒ m = −1, −1
Exp:
∴ general solution is x = ( a + bt ) e − t
xy
5. The directional derivative of f ( x, y ) = ( x + y ) at (1,1) in the direction of the unit vector at
2
π
an angle of with y-axis, is given by _____ .
4
Answer: 3
2xy + y 2 x 2 + 2xy
Exp: f =
1
( x 2 y + xy 2 ) ⇒ ∇f = i + j
2 2 2
3 3
at (1,1) , ∇f = i+ j
2 2
π
ê = unit vector in the direction i.e., making an angle of with y-axis
4
π π
= sin i + cos j
4 4
3 1
∴ directional derivative = e.
ˆ ∇f = 2 =3
2 2
Ii A l Ii R
(A) Voltage controlled voltage source (B) Voltage controlled current source
(C) Current controlled current source (D) Current controlled voltage source
Answer: C
Exp:
A1I1
7. The magnitude of current (in mA) through the resistor R2 in the figure shown is_______.
R2
1kΩ
R1 R3
10 mA 4 kΩ 2 mA
2 kΩ
R 4 3kΩ
Answer: 2.8
Exp: By source transformation
R 2 = 1kΩ 4 kΩ
I
2 kΩ
+ −
20V − + 8V
3kΩ
By KVL,
20 − 10k.I + 8 = 0
28
⇒I=
10 k
⇒ I = 2.8mA
8. At T = 300 K, the band gap and the intrinsic carrier concentration of GaAs are 1.42 eV and
106 cm-3, respectively. In order to generate electron hole pairs in GaAs, which one of the
wavelength ( λ C ) ranges of incident radiation, is most suitable? (Given that: Plank’s constant
is 6.62 × 10-34 J-s, velocity of light is 3 × 1010 cm/s and charge of electron is 1.6 × 10-19 C)
(A) 0.42 µm < λ C < 0.87 µm (B) 0.87 µm < λ C < 1.42 µm
(C) 1.42 µm < λ C < 1.62 µm (D) 1.62 µm < λ C < 6.62 µm
Answer: A
hC 6.62 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
Exp: E = ⇒λ= = 0.87 µm
λ 1.42 × 1.6 × 10−19
9. In the figure ln ( ρi ) is plotted as a function of 1/T, where ρi the intrinsic resistivity of silicon,
T is is the temperature, and the plot is almost linear.
ln ( ρi )
1/ T
The slope of the line can be used to estimate
(A) Band gap energy of silicon (Eg)
(B) Sum of electron and hole mobility in silicon µ n + µ p ( )
( )
−1
(C) Reciprocal of the sum of electron and hole mobility in silicon µ n + µ p
10. The cut-off wavelength (in µm) of light that can be used for intrinsic excitation of a
semiconductor material of bandgap Eg= 1.1 eV is ________
Answer: 1.125
hC
Exp: E=
λ
6.6 × 10−34 × 3 × 108
⇒λ= = 1.125 µm
1.1 × 1.6 × 10−19
11. If the emitter resistance in a common-emitter voltage amplifier is not bypassed, it will
(A) Reduce both the voltage gain and the input impedance
(B) Reduce the voltage gain and increase the input impedance
(C) Increase the voltage gain and reduce the input impedance
(D) Increase both the voltage gain and the input impedance
Answer: B
Exp: When a CE amplifier’s emitter resistance is not by passed, due to the negative feedback the
voltage gain decreases and input impedance increases
12. Two silicon diodes, with a forward voltage drop of 0.7 V, are used in the circuit shown in the
figure. The range of input voltage Vi for which the output voltage V0 = Vi , is
R
+ +
D1 D2
Vi VO
−1V ± ± 2V
− −
C2 + 12 V
vi −
v0
R2 + − 12 V
R1
−2 V C1
14. For a given sample-and-hold circuit, if the value of the hold capacitor is increased, then
(A) Droop rate decreases and acquisition time decreases
(B) Droop rate decreases and acquisition time increases
(C) Droop rate increases and acquisition time decreases
(D) Droop rate increases and acquisition time increases
Answer: B
dv
Exp: Capacitor drop rate =
dt
dv 1
For a capacitor, ∝
dt c
∴ Drop rate decreases as capacitor value is increased
For a capacitor, Q = cv = i × t ⇒ t ∝ c
∴ Acquisition time increases as capacitor value increased
15. In the circuit shown in the figure, if C=0, the expression for Y is
C
A
B
Y
A
B
(A) Y = A B + A B ( B) Y = A + B
( C) Y = A + B ( D) Y = A B
Answer: A
Exp: C=0 1
A A⋅B
B
A⋅B Y
A ⋅ B + A ⋅ B = AB
A
B A⋅B
Y = 1.A B
=A B
= A ⊕ B = A B + AB + AB
VD0
( A) A+ B+C
A B C
( B) A + B . C + A .C
A Output ( Y )
B
( C) A+ B+ C
( D) A.B .C
Answer: A
Exp: VDD
A B C
output ( Y )
A
C
This circuit is CMOS implementation
If the NMOS is connected in series, then the output expression is product of each input with
complement to the final product.
So, Y = A.B .C
= A + B +C
w
18. A real-valued signal x(t) limited to the frequency band f ≤ is passed through a linear time
2
invariant system whose frequency response is
− j4 πf w
e , f ≤
H (f ) =
2
0, f > w
2
The output of the system is
( A ) x ( t + 4) ( B) x ( t − 4 ) ( C) x ( t + 2) ( D) x ( t − 2)
Answer: D
Exp: Let x ( t ) Fourier transform be x ( t )
x (t )
h (t ) y (t )
y ( t ) = x ( t ) * h ( t ) [ convolution ]
⇒ Y ( f ) = X ( f ) .H ( f )
⇒ Y ( f ) = e − j4 πf .X ( f )
⇒ y ( t ) = x ( t − 2)
19. The sequence x[n] = 0.5n u[n], where u[n] is the unit step sequence, is convolved with itself to
∞
obtain y[n]. Then ∑ y ( n ) _________________.
n =−∞
Answer: 4
Exp: y [n ] = x [n ] * x [n ]
Y ( e jΩ ) =
1 1
− jΩ
.
1 − 0.5e 1 − 0.5e − jΩ
∞
also Y ( e jΩ ) = ∑ y [ n ].e − j Ωn
h =−∞
∞
∑ y [ n ] = Y ( e ) = 0.5 . 0.5 = 4
1 1
⇒ j0
n =−∞
20. In a Bode magnitude plot, which one of the following slopes would be exhibited at high
frequencies by a 4th order all-pole system?
(A) – 80 dB/decade (B) – 40 dB/decade
(C) +40 dB/decade (D) +80 dB/decade
Answer: A
Exp: → In a BODE diagram, in plotting the magnitude with respect to frequency, a pole introduce a
line 4 slope −20dB / dc
→ If 4th order all-pole system means gives a slope of ( −20 ) * 4 dB / dec i.e. − 80dB / dec
21. For the second order closed-loop system shown in the figure, the natural frequency (in rad/s)
is
U (s) + 4 Y (s)
S (S + 4 )
−
23. In a double side-band (DSB) full carrier AM transmission system, if the modulation index is
doubled, then the ratio of total sideband power to the carrier power increases by a factor of
_________________.
Answer: 4
Ratio of total side band power
Exp: α µ2
Carrier power
If it in doubled, this ratio will be come 4 times
24. For an antenna radiating in free space, the electric field at a distance of 1 km is found to be 12
mV/m. Given that intrinsic impedance of the free space is 120 π Ω, the magnitude of average
power density due to this antenna at a distance of 2 km from the antenna (in nW/m2 )
is________________.
Answer: 47.7
Exp: Electric field of an antenna is
ηI0 dl Jβ 1 J
Eθ = sin θ + 2 −
4π r r βr 3
↓ ↓ ↓
field
Radiation inductive Electrostatic
field field
1
∴E α
r
E1 r2
= ⇒ E 2 = 6 mv / m
E 2 r1
1 E 2 1 36 × 10−8
P= = = 47.7 nw / m 2
2 η 2 120π
R F
26. With initial values y(0) = y’(0)=1 the solution of the differential equation
d2y dy
2
+ 4 + 4y = 0
dx dx
at x = 1 is ________
Answer: 0.54
Exp: A.E : m 2 + 4m + 4 = 0 ⇒ m = −2, −2
∴ solutions is y = ( a + bx ) e −2x .......(1)
y ' = ( a + bx ) ( −2e −2 x ) + e −2 x ( b ) ........ ( 2 )
u sin g y ( 0 ) = 1; y ( 0 ) = 1, (1) and ( 2 ) gives
'
a = 1 and b = 3
∴ y = (1 + 3x ) e−2x
at x = 1, y = 4e −2 = 0.541 0.54
27. Parcels from sender S to receiver R pass sequentially through two post-offices. Each post-
1
office has a probability of losing an incoming parcel, independently of all other parcels.
5
Given that a parcel is lost, the probability that it was lost by the second post-office
is_________.
Answer: 0.44
Exp: Parcel will be lost if
a. it is lost by the first post office
b. it is passed by first post office but lost by the second post office
1 4 1 9
Prob(parcel is lost) = + x =
5 5 5 25
P (Parcel lost by second post if it passes first post office)= P (Parcel passed by first post
office) x P(Parcel lost by second post office)
4 1 4
= × =
5 5 25
4 / 25 4
Prob(parcel lost by 2nd post office | parcel lost)= = = 0.44
9 / 25 9
1
28. The unilateral Laplace transform of f ( t ) is . Which one of the following is the
s + s +1
2
Exp: (2)
1
F (s) =
s + s +12
d
L g ( t ) = t.f ( t ) = − F ( s ) ( u sin g multiplication by t )
ds
2s + 1
=
(s + s + 1)
2 2
29. For a right angled triangle, if the sum of the lengths of the hypotenuse and a side is kept
constant, in order to have maximum area of the triangle, the angle between the hypotenuse
and the side is
(A) 12O (B) 36O (C) 60O (D) 45O
Answer: (C) ( As per IIT Website)
Exp: Let x (opposite side), y (adjacent side) and z (hypotenuse) of a right angled triangle.
Given Z + y = K ( cons tan t ) ......(1) and angle between them say ' θ ' then Area,
1 1 z2
A= xy = ( z sin θ )( z cos θ ) = sin 2θ
2 2 4
k
Now (1) ⇒ z + z sin θ = k ⇒ z =
1 + sin θ
k2 sin 2θ
∴A =
(1 + sin θ )
2
4
dA
In order to have max imum area, =0
dθ
k 2 (1 + sin θ ) ( 2cos 2θ ) − sin 2θ ( cos θ ) .2 (1 + sin θ )
2
⇒ =0
(1 + sin θ )
4
4
π
⇒θ= = 30o , Answer obtained is different than official key
6
30. The steady state output of the circuit shown in the figure is given by
y ( t ) = A ( ω) sin ( ωt + φ ( ω) ) . If the amplitude A ( ω ) = 0.25, then the frequency ω is
R C y (t)
± sin ( ωt ) C
C
1 2 1 2
( A) ( B) ( C) ( D)
3RC 3RC RC RC
Answer: B
Exp: V
y (t )
R C
+
− sin ωt C
C
V − 1 0o V V
+ + =0
( ) ( )
By nodal method,
R 1 2
j ωc j ωc
1 j ωc 1 0 o
V + j ωc + =
R 2 R
2
V=
2 + 3jωRC
V 1
Y= ⇒
2 2 + jω3RC
1 1
given A ( ω) = ⇒
4 4 + 9R 2 c2 .ω2
2
⇒ ω=
3 RC
31. In the circuit shown in the figure, the value of V0(t) (in Volts) for t → ∞ is ______.
ix
2H
+ 2i +
10 u ( t ) A − x 5Ω Vo ( t )
−
5Ω
Answer: 31.25
Exp: B ix
2H
+ +
− 2ix
10x ( t ) 5Ω V0 ( t )
A 5Ω −
For t → ∞ , i.e., at steady state, inductor will behave as a shot circuit and hence VB = 5.i X
50
By KCL at node B, − 10 + VB − 2i x + i x = 0 ⇒ i x =
8
250
V0 ( t ) = 5i x ( t ) ⇒ V0 ( t ) = = 31.25 volts
8
32. The equivalent resistance in the infinite ladder network shown in the figure is Re.
2R R R R
Re R R R R
R R R R
R e qu
→ For an infinite ladder network, if all resistance are having same value of R
1+ 5
Then equivalent resistance is .R
2
→ For the given network, we can split in to R is in series with Requivalent
R
Re q =
(1 + 5 ) R
2
R e qu
R equ
⇒ R equ = R + 1.618R ⇒ = 2.618
R
33. For the two-port network shown in the figure, the impedance (Z) matrix (in Ω ) is
30 Ω
1 2
+ +
10 Ω 60 Ω
− −
1' 2'
6 24 9 8 9 6 42 6
( A) 42 9 ( B) 8 24 ( C) 6 24 ( D) 6 60
Answer: C
Exp: For the two-part network
1 1 1
30 + 10 −
30
Y matrix =
−1 1
+
1
30 60 30
Zmatrix = [ Y ]
−1
−1
0.1333 − 0.0333
Z=
−0.0333 0.05
9 6
Z=
6 24
34. Consider a silicon sample doped with ND = 1×1015/cm3 donor atoms. Assume that the
intrinsic carrier concentration ni = 1.5×1010/cm3. If the sample is additionally doped with NA
= 1×1018/cm3 acceptor atoms, the approximate number of electrons/cm3 in the sample, at
T=300 K, will be _________________.
Answer: 225.2
Exp: P = N A − N D = 1 × 1018 − 1 × 1015 = 9.99 × 1017
η 2 (1.5 × 10 )
10 2
η= i = = 225.2 / cm3
P 9.99 × 1017
35. Consider two BJTs biased at the same collector current with area A1 = 0.2µm × 0.2 µm and
A 2 = 300 µm × 300 µm . Assuming that all other device parameters are identical, kT/q = 26
mV, the intrinsic carrier concentration is 1 × 1010 cm-3, and q = 1.6 × 10-19 C, the difference
between the base-emitter voltages (in mV) of the two BJTs (i.e., VBE1 – VBE2) is
_________________.
Answer: 381
Exp: IC1 = IC2 ( Given )
VBE1
( VBE1 − VBE2 ) IS
e VT
= 2
IS1
IS2 300 × 300
VBE1 − VBE 2 = VT ln = 26 × 10−3 ln ∵ I S αA
IS1 0.2 × 0.2
(V BE1 )
− VBE2 = 381mV
36. An N-type semiconductor having uniform doping is biased as shown in the figure.
V
N − type semiconductor
If EC is the lowest energy level of the conduction band, EV is the highest energy level of the
valance band and EF is the Fermi level, which one of the following represents the energy
band diagram for the biased N-type semiconductor?
EC EC
EF
( A) ( B) EF
EV EV
EC
EF
( D)
( C)
EV EC
EF
EV
Answer: D
37. Consider the common-collector amplifier in the figure (bias circuitry ensures that the
transistor operates in forward active region, but has been omitted for simplicity). Let IC be the
collector current, VBE be the base-emitter voltage and VT be the thermal voltage. Also, g m
and r0 are the small-signal transconductance and output resistance of the transistor,
respectively. Which one of the following conditions ensures a nearly constant small signal
voltage gain for a wide range of values of RE?
VCC
Vin Vout
RE
39 . For the common collector amplifier shown in the figure, the BJT has high β , negligible
VCE(sat), and VBE = 0.7 V. The maximum undistorted peak-to-peak output voltage vo (in Volts)
is______.
VCC = +12V
R1
5kΩ
1 µF
vi
1 µF
R2 vo
10 kΩ RE
1kΩ
Answer: 9.4
Exp: ∵ β = high, I B is neglected
10 k
∴ VB = 12 × = 8V
10 k + 5k
VE = VB − 0.7 = 7.3V
∴ VCE = 12 − 7.3 = 4.7V
∴ Maximum undistorted V0 ( p − p ) = 2 × 4.7V = 9.4V
40. An 8-to-1 multiplexer is used to implement a logical function Y as shown in the figure. The
output Y is given by
0 I0
D I1
0 I2
D I3
0 I4 Y
0 I5
1 I6
0 I7 S2 S1 S0
A B C
( A) Y= A BC + ACD ( B) Y= A BC + A BD
( C) Y= A BC + ACD ( D) Y= A BD + A BC
Answer: C
Exp: Y = ABCD + ABCD + ABC 0 Io
D I1
I2
Remaining combinations of the select 0
D I3 8 :1 Y
lines will produce output 0. 0 I4
MUX
I5
So, Y = ACD ( B + B ) + ABC
0
1 I6
0 I7
S 2 S1 S0
= ACD + ABC
= ABC + ACD B C
A
41. A 16-bit ripple carry adder is realized using 16 identical full adders (FA) as shown in the
figure. The carry-propagation delay of each FA is 12 ns and the sum-propagation delay of
each FA is 15 ns. The worst case delay (in ns) of this 16-bit adder will be __________.
A0 B0 A1 B1 A14 B14 A15 B15
C0 C1 C14 C15
FA 0 FA1 FA14 FA15
S0 S1 S14 S15
Answer: 195
Exp: A1 A14 A15
A0 B0 B1 B14 B15
C1 C14 C15
FA 0
C0
FA1 ........ . FA14 FA15
S0 S1 S14 S15
This is 16-bit ripple carry adder circuit, in their operation carry signal is propagating from 1st
stage FA0 to last state FA15, so their propagation delay is added together but sum result is
not propagating. We can say that next stage sum result depends upon previous carry.
So, last stage carry (C15) will be produced after 16 ×12 ns = 192 ns
Second last stage carry (C14) will be produced after 180 ns.
For last stage sum result (S15) total delay = 180ns + 15ns = 195ns
So, worst case delay = 195 ns
42. An 8085 microprocessor executes “STA 1234H” with starting address location 1FFEH (STA
copies the contents of the Accumulator to the 16-bit address location). While the instruction
is fetched and executed, the sequence of values written at the address pins A15-A8 is
(A) 1FH, 1FH, 20H, 12H (B) 1FH, FEH, 1FH, FFH, 12H
(C) 1FH, 1FH, 12H, 12H (D) 1FH, 1FH, 12H, 20H, 12H
Answer: A
Exp: Let the opcode of STA is XXH and content of accumulator is YYH.
Instruction: STA 1234 H
Starting address given = 1FFEH
So, the sequence of data and addresses is given below:
1F FE H → XXH
1F FF H → 34H
20 00 H → 12 H
12 34 H → YYH
1
43. A stable linear time invariant (LTI) system has a transfer function H ( s) = . To make
s2 + s − 6
this system causal it needs to be cascaded with another LTI system having a transfer function
H1(s). A correct choice for H1(s) among the following options is
(A) s + 3 (B) s - 2 (C) s - 6 (D) s + 1
Answer: B
1 1
Exp: Given, H ( s ) = =
s + s − 6 ( s + 3)( s − 2 )
2
It is given that system is stable thus its ROC includes jω axis . This implies it cannot be
causal, because for causal system ROC is right side of the rightmost pole.
⇒ Poles at s = 2 must be removes so that it can be become causal and stable
simultaneously.
1 1
⇒ ( s − 2) =
( s + 3)( s − 2) s+3
Thus H1 ( s ) = s − 2
44. A causal LTI system has zero initial conditions and impulses response h(t). Its input x(t) and
output y(t) are related through the linear constant-coefficient differential equation
d2 y ( t ) dy ( t )
2
+a + a2y ( t) = x ( t)
dt dt
Let another signal g(t) be defined as
dh ( t )
g ( t ) = a 2 ∫ h ( τ ) dτ + + ah ( t )
t
0 dt
If G(s) is the Laplace transform of g(t), then the number of poles of G(s) is _______.
Answer: 1
Exp: Given differential equation
s 2 y ( s ) + α sy ( s ) + α 2 y ( s ) = x ( s )
y (s ) 1
⇒ = = H (s )
x (s ) s + αs + α 2
2
t
d
g ( t ) = α 2 ∫ h ( z ) dz + h ( t ) + αh ( t )
0 dt
H (s )
= α2 + SH ( s ) + α H ( s )
s
1 1 α
= α2 +s 2 + 2
s ( s + αs + α )
22
( s + 2s + α )
2
s + α s + α2
α 2 + αs + s 2 1
= =
s ( s + αs + α ) s
2 2
No. of poles = 1
45. The N-point DFT X of a sequence x [ n ] ,0 ≤ n ≤ N − 1 is given by
N −1 2π
1 −j
X[k] = ∑ x [ n]e
nk,
N
0 ≤ k ≤N − L
N n=0
Denote this relation as X = DFT(x). For N = 4, which one of the following sequences
satisfies DFT(DFT (x))=x ?
( A) x = [1 2 3 4 ] ( B) x = [1 2 3 2 ]
( C) x = [1 3 2 2 ] ( D) x = [1 2 2 3]
Answer: B
Exp: This can be solve by directly using option and satisfying the condition given in question
X = DFT ( x )
N −1 2π
D FT ( D FT ( x ) ) = DFT ( X ) =
1 −j
∑ X [n ] e
nk
N
N n =0
DFT y [1 2 3 4]
1 1 1 1 1 10
1 − j − 1 j 2
X=
1 = 1 2 + 2 j
4 1 − 1 1 − 1 3 4 2
1 + j − 1 − j 4 −2 − j2
DFT of ( x ) will not result in [1 2 3 4]
1 1 1 1 1 8 4
1 − j − 1 j 2
X=
1 = 1 −2 = −1
4 1 − 1 1 − 1 3 4 0 0
1 + j − 1 − j 2 −2 −1
4 1 1 1 4
1 2 1
− − j − 1 j −1 1 4 2
1 1
DFT of = = =
0 4 1 − 1 1 − 1 0 2 6 3
−1 1 + j − 1 − j −1 4 2
Same as x
Then ‘B’ is right option
.
x1 0 1 x1
46. The state transition matrix φ ( t ) of a system . =
0 0 x 2
x 2
t 1 1 0 0 1 1 t
( A) ( B) ( C) ( D)
1 0 t 1 1 t 0 1
Answer: D
Exp: Given state model,
x 1 ( t ) 0 1 x1 ( t )
=
x 2 ( t ) 0 0 x 2 ( t )
0 1
A=
0 0
φ ( t ) ⇒ state transistion matrix
φ ( t ) = L−1 ( SI − A )
−1
−1
s − 1 1 s 1
[SI − A ] =
−1
⇒ 2 0
0 s s s
1 1 2
s
φ ( t ) = L−1 s
0 1
s
1 t
φ( t ) =
0 1
ps2 + 3ps − 2
47. Consider a transfer function G p ( s ) = with p a positive real parameter.
s2 + ( 3 + p ) s + ( 2 − p )
The maximum value of p until which GP remains stable is ________.
Answer: 2
ps 2 + 3ps − 2
Exp: Given G p ( s ) =
s2 + ( 3 + p ) s + ( 2 − p )
By R − H criteria
The characteristic equation is s 2 + ( 3 + p ) s + ( 2 − p ) = 0
i.e. s 2 + ( 3 + p ) s + ( 2 − p ) = 0
By forming R-H array,
s2 1 (2 − p)
s1 ( 3 + φ ) 0
s0 ( 2 − p )
jω
ζ = 0.5
A
x x
( 0,0) σ
−1 1
O
−
3
The constant damping ratio line, for ζ = 0.5 , intersects the root locus at point A. The distance
from the origin to point A is given as 0.5. The value of K at point A is ________ .
Answer: 0.375
Exp: We know that the co-ordinate of point A of the given root locus i.e., magnitude condition
G (s) H (s) = 1
Here, the damping factor ξ = 0.5 and the length of 0A = 5
ξ = 0.5
A
Then in the right angle triangle *
OX OX 1
cos θ = ⇒ cos 60 = ⇒ OX = θ
OA 0.5 4 * * *O
−1 −2 −1
X
3 3
AX AX 3
⇒ sin θ = ⇒ sin 60 = ⇒ AX =
OA 0.5 4
k
=1
s ( s + 1)
2
s = −1 + j 3
4 4
2
1 3 9 3
k= + . +
16 16 16 16
k = 0.375
49. Consider a communication scheme where the binary valued signal X satisfies P{X = +
1}=0.75 and P{X = -1}= 0.25. The received signal Y = X + Z, where Z is a Gaussian random
variable with zero mean and variance σ 2 . The received signal Y is fed to the threshold
detector. The output of the threshold detector X̂ is:
X̂ = { +−1.1. Y>τ
Y ≤ τ.
H1 : x = +1; H 0 : x = −1
P ( H1 ) = 0.75; P ( H 0 ) = 0.25
Received signal γ =X+Z
1
Where Z ∼ N ( 0, −2 ) ; f Z ( z ) = e− Z 2 σ2
2
σ 2π
1+ Z if X = 1
Received signal γ =
−1 + Z if X = −1
1
1 − ( γ−1)2
f γ ( y H1 ) = e 2 σ2
σ 2π
1
1 − ( γ+1)2
f γ ( y H0 ) = e 2 σ2
σ 2π
f γ ( y H1 ) P ( H0 )
=
f γ ( y H0 ) P ( H1 )
y = yopt
−
1
2 σ 2
( γ−1)2 − ( γ+1)2 P ( H0 )
e =
yopt
P ( H1 )
+ 2 yopt σ2 P ( H0 )
e =
P ( H1 )
σ 2 P ( H 0 ) −1.1σ2
y opt = ln = = −0.55σ 2
2 P ( H1 ) 2
y opt = Optimum threshold
y opt < 0 ∴ Threshold is negative.
50. Consider the Z-channel given in the figure. The input is 0 or 1 with equal probability.
1.0
0 0
1 1
0.75
If the output is 0, the probability that the input is also 0 equals ______________
Answer: 0.8
Exp: Given channel
1.0
X=0 Y =0
input output
0.25
X =1 Y =1
0.75
P {y = 0 / x = 0} P {x = 0} 1. 1 4
P {x = 0 / y = 0} = = 2 = = 0.8
P {y = 0} 1. 1 + 0.25 ×
1 5
2 2
51. An M-level PSK modulation scheme is used to transmit independent binary digits over a
band-pass channel with bandwidth 100 kHz. The bit rate is 200 kbps and the system
characteristic is a raised-cosine spectrum with 100% excess bandwidth. The minimum value
of M is ________.
Answer: 16
1
Exp: Bandwidth requirement for m-level PSK = (1 + α )
T
[Where T is symbol duration. α is roll of factor]
1
⇒ (1 + α ) = 100 × 103
T
α = 1 [100% excess bandwidth ]
1
⇒ ( 2 ) = 100 × 103
T
Bit duration
2
⇒T= 1
100 × 103 = = 0.5 × 10−5 = 5 × 10−6 sec
= 20 µ sec 200 × 10 3
Z ∼ N ( βX,1)
Q ( a ) = 1 × 10−8
1
− ( Z −βX )
2
1
fZ ( z ) = Q ( a ) ≈ e−ϑ
2
2 2
e
2π
−a + z if x = −a
γ=
a + z if x = + a
H1 : x = + a
H 0 : x = −a
and Threshold = 0
1 −
1
( y − a (1+β ) )2
f γ ( y H1 ) = e 2
2π
1 −
1
( y + a (1+β ) )2
fγ ( y H0 ) = e 2
2π
BER :
Pe = P ( H1 ) P ( e H1 ) + P ( H 0 ) P ( e H 0 )
∞
1 − 12 ( y − a (1+β) )2 1 − 12 ( y + a (1+β ))2
0
dy = Q ( a (1 + β ) )
1 1
= ∫ 2π
2 −∞
e dy +
2 −∫0 2π
e
β=0
Pe = Q ( a ) = 1 × 10−8 = e− a ⇒ a = 6.07
2
2
β = −0.3
Pe = Q ( 6.07 (1 − 0.3) ) = Q ( 4.249 )
− ( 4.249 ) 2
2
Pe = e = 1.2 × 10−4
Pe 10−4.
53. The electric field (assumed to be one-dimensional) between two points A and B is shown. Let
ψ A and ψ B be the electrostatic potentials at A and B, respectively. The value of ψ B − ψ A in
Volts is ________.
40 kV / cm
20 kV / cm
0 kV / cm
A B
5µ m
Answer: -15
Exp: A B
( 0 kV / cm, 20kV / cm ) (5 × 10 −4
kV / cm, 40 kV / cm )
40 − 20
−4 (
E − 20 = x − 0 ) ⇒ E = 4 × 104 x + 20
5 × 10
( 4 × 10 x + 20 ) dx
B 5×10−4 / cm
VAB = − ∫ E.dl = − ∫ 4
A 0
5×10−4
= − ( 2 × 104 × 25 × 10−8 + 20 × 5 × 10−4 )
x2
= − 4 × 104 + 20x
2 0
= − ( 50 × 10−4 + 100 × 10−4 ) = −150 × 10−4 kV
⇒ VAB = −15V
54. Given F = zaˆ x + xaˆ y + yaˆ z . If S represents the portion of the sphere x 2 + y 2 + z 2 = 1 for
z ≥ 0 , then ∫ ∇ × F . ds is ___________.
S
Answer: 3.14
Exp: ∫ ∇ × F.ds = ∫
S C
F.dr(u sin g stoke 's theorem and C is closed curve i.e.,
x 2 + y 2 = 1, z = 0
⇒ x = cos θ, y = sin θ and θ : 0 to 2π
2π
= ∫ xdy = ∫ cos θ ( cos θ dθ )
C 0
2π
1 sin 2θ
= θ + = π 3.14
2 2 0
55. If E = − ( 2y3 − 3yz 2 ) xˆ − ( 6xy 2 − 3xz 2 ) yˆ + ( 6xyz ) zˆ is the electric field in a source free
region, a valid expression for the electrostatic potential is
( A) xy 3 − yz 2 ( B) 2xy 3 − xyz 2 (C) y3 + xyz 2 ( D) 2xy 3 − 3xyz 2
Answer: D
Exp: Given E = − ( 2y3 − 3yz 2 ) a x − ( 6xy 2 − 3xz 2 ) a y + 6xyz.a z
By verification option (D) satisfy
E = −∇V