The SAT

Practice
Test 7
#
ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

These answer explanations are for students taking the

digital SAT in nondigital format.

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 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

Reading and Writing

Module 1
(33 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of a prediction about a kilonova. In this context, a “theory” is an
explanation that is considered scientifically acceptable. The text states that
astronomers predicted in the 1990s that a collision between a black hole and a
neutron star or between two neutron stars could release a massive gamma ray
burst called a kilonova, explaining that they determined this possibility based on
their extensive work with existing data and simulations (“calculations and
models”). In other words, the prediction was a theory—a well-supported
explanation—that, as the text indicates, was later confirmed with observations in
2017.

Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that it is the prediction made by
astronomers in the 1990s that was confirmed in 2017, and a prediction of an
event isn’t “evidence,” or proof, of that event’s existence, even when the
prediction is based on extensive study. Further, there would be no need for later
confirmation of something that was already recognized as evidence. Choice C is
incorrect because in this context, a “constant” is a situation or factor that doesn’t
change. The text indicates that it is the prediction made by astronomers in the
1990s that was confirmed in 2017, and there is no reason to describe the
prediction as a constant because the text doesn’t suggest that the prediction was
completely unchanged over time—it addresses only the making of the prediction
and its later confirmation. Choice D is incorrect because the text indicates that it
is the prediction made by astronomers in the 1990s that was confirmed in 2017;
although a prediction might be informed by an “experiment,” or a controlled test, a
prediction is an idea rather than a test.

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QUESTION 2
Choice D is the best answer because as used in the text, “clear” most nearly
means transparent, or see-through. Muir states that the water beneath the boat
“was so clear that it was almost invisible,” suggesting that those on the boat were
able to see through the water and easily observe plants and fish below the
surface.

Choice A is incorrect. In some contexts “clear” can mean “simple,” or

uncomplicated, but Muir is describing the water, and water isn’t typically
described as either simple or complicated. Muir emphasizes the water’s
transparency, not its simplicity. Choice B is incorrect. In some contexts “clear” can
mean “understandable,” or reasonable or easily comprehended, but Muir is
describing the water, and it doesn’t make much sense to describe water as
understandable. Muir emphasizes the water’s transparency, not how easily the
water can be understood. Choice C is incorrect. Although “clear” can mean
“obvious,” or easily seen or understood, in some contexts, Muir’s description
emphasizes that the water “was almost invisible” and that the boat seemed to be
“sustained in the air,” suggesting that the water was almost impossible to see, not
that it was obvious.

QUESTION 3
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of how Maggie Lena Walker addressed the lack of financial services
available to Black residents in Richmond, Virginia, at the turn of the twentieth
century. In this context, “rectify” means to correct or remedy something
undesirable. The text indicates that by chartering the St. Luke Penny Savings Bank
in 1903, Walker took action to provide local Black residents with greater access to
financial services like home loans and savings opportunities. This context
supports the idea that she aimed to rectify the undesirable situation affecting
these residents.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, “prolong” would mean to lengthen

something in time. The text indicates that at the turn of the twentieth century,
Black residents in Richmond, Virginia, were faced with a lack of formal banking
options. The text then states that Walker founded a new bank that provided these
residents with financial services. Therefore, instead of prolonging the situation,
she took steps to rectify, or correct, it. Choice C is incorrect because in this
context, “retain” would mean to continue to have or to keep something. According
to the text, at the turn of the twentieth century, Black residents in Richmond,
Virginia, had few formal banking options, and Walker chartered a new institution to
provide these residents with expanded financial services; therefore, she took
steps to rectify, not retain, the situation. Choice D is incorrect because in this
context, “highlight” would mean to emphasize or call attention to something, but
the text indicates that Walker took concrete steps beyond merely drawing
attention to the situation Black residents were facing in Richmond, Virginia, at the
turn of the twentieth century. According to the text, Walker worked to rectify, or
correct, the lack of formal banking options that were available to these residents
by establishing a bank that provided them with home loans and savings
opportunities.

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QUESTION 4
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of a relationship between the results of randomized clinical tests of
how effective common medical interventions are and the conclusions
practitioners reach about such interventions in real-world settings. In this context,
“corroborate” means confirm or support with evidence. The text indicates that
one possible explanation for the relationship being discussed is that practitioners
may overlook confounding variables—that is, additional factors other than the
medical interventions being investigated that affect the observed outcomes. This
means that practitioners may assume that an outcome is the direct result of a
medical intervention when it is actually the result of a combination of factors.
Clinical trials take steps to rule out factors other than the one being studied, so if
those extra factors are actually having an effect on real-world outcomes, the trials
are likely to produce conclusions different from those practitioners reach in their
real-world observations. In other words, clinical trials may fail to corroborate
practitioners’ conclusions.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the results of
clinical trials could “circumvent,” or find a way around or bypass, conclusions
practitioners reach in real-world scenarios with patients; it’s possible that
researchers conducting the trials might avoid engaging with practitioners’
conclusions, but findings from a study can’t choose to get around something.
Choice C is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to say that the results of
clinical trials could “disseminate,” or spread widely, conclusions practitioners
reach in real-world scenarios with patients; the researchers conducting the trials
might choose to draw attention to practitioners’ conclusions, but findings from a
study can’t spread anything. Choice D is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense
to say that the results of clinical trials could “implement,” or put into effect,
conclusions practitioners reach in real-world scenarios with patients; the
researchers conducting the trials might consider practitioners’ conclusions, but
findings from a study can’t put anything into effect.

QUESTION 5
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of diadromous fish. In this context, “demarcated from” means separate
or set apart from. The text indicates that diadromous fish differ from euryhaline
fish in that diadromous fish “migrate between freshwater and marine biomes
during their life,” whereas euryhaline fish do not relocate to a different biome
because they can tolerate higher salinity environments. Therefore, this context
suggests that because of differences between their migration patterns,
diadromous fish are distinct and can be demarcated from euryhaline fish.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the text states that diadromous fish migrate and
relocate, the text does not suggest that diadromous fish would be “reconstituted
as,” or formed again as, anything new. Only their environments change and not
the fish themselves. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not suggest that
diadromous fish can be “conflated with,” or combined with, euryhaline fish.
Instead, the text distinguishes the two types of fish by pointing out their

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differences with regard to migration and tolerance for salinity. Choice D is

incorrect because the text indicates that based on migration habits and tolerance
for salinity, diadromous fish are different from euryhaline fish; so it would not
make logical sense to say that diadromous fish would be “derived from,” or be an
extension of or result from, euryhaline fish.

QUESTION 6
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the
underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The first two sentences of the
text establish that in California, houses were heated by building fires year-round.
The underlined portion then indicates that the fires didn’t merely provide physical
warmth: they also represented being “home” and feeling protected. The
underlined portion thus illustrates that a fire provides comfort beyond physical
warmth.

Choice B is incorrect because the underlined portion doesn’t summarize

information that came before it. Whereas the previous two sentences describe
fires’ ability to provide physical warmth to homes, the underlined portion focuses
on the psychological comfort the fires offered. Choice C is incorrect. Although the
text’s second sentence mentions that fires were built in the summer because fog
came in, which may have cooled the house, this detail isn’t the focus of the
underlined portion. Instead, the underlined portion indicates that fires were built
for reasons beyond physical warmth: to create a sense of being home and safe.
Choice D is incorrect because the underlined portion focuses on the emotional
significance the author places on having a fire going inside the home. There is no
indication that the author feels equally comfortable without a fire present.

QUESTION 7
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the
underlined phrase functions in the text as a whole. The text states that the wax
produced by Liu and colleagues’ reactor can be turned into a surfactant. The
underlined phrase, which is set off with parentheses, then provides a definition for
the term “surfactant,” explaining that it’s a chemical compound that can be used
as a detergent. Thus, the underlined portion of the text functions to clarify the
meaning of a scientific term.

Choice B is incorrect. Though the text as a whole focuses broadly on an

environmental concern, the underlined phrase does not; it simply indicates what a
surfactant is. Choice C is incorrect. Though the text as a whole focuses on a
scientific discovery (Liu and colleagues’ solution to the problem of plastic
recycling), the underlined phrase does not explain its significance; it simply
defines a scientific term used in the discussion. Choice D is incorrect. Though the
text as a whole includes discussion of the result found by Liu and colleagues, the
underlined phrase does not discuss it; it simply defines a scientific term used in
the discussion. Additionally, at no point in the text is it mentioned that the team
was confused.

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QUESTION 8
Choice C is the best answer because it best describes the function of the
underlined portion in the text as a whole. In the text, the speaker mentions the
occurrence in nature of seedpods being shaken by a slight wind. The speaker
then goes on to compare the black seeds to thoughts, using language that
indicates that the speaker’s state of mind is unsettled (e.g., “my thoughts are
spent”; “My thoughts tear me, I dread their fever”). The text concludes with a
comparison between the speaker’s “scattered” state of mind and the “hot
shrivelled seeds.” Thus, the underlined portion of the text presents an
observation of an occurrence in the natural world that the speaker then expands
on to convey a sense of a turbulent interior state.

Choice A is incorrect because the text does not indicate that the seedpods are
the cause of the speaker’s state of mind; thus, they could not be responsible for
any misgivings the speaker has. Choice B is incorrect because the text does not
contrast the natural landscape with the speaker’s state of mind or describe the
wind shaking the seedpods as consistent; rather, the text suggests that the state
of the natural world and the speaker’s state of mind are similar in that both are
unsettled. Choice D is incorrect because there is no indication in the text that the
speaker regularly engages in critical self-evaluation, only that in this particular
instance the speaker’s state of mind is turbulent.

QUESTION 9
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the
underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence of the text
introduces literary scholar Jeremy Douglass’s warning to technology investors
and enthusiasts against predicting the displacement of conventional books by
newer media forms. The next sentence, which is underlined in part, presents
Douglass’s observation that interactive texts are hardly new; they have been
available for longer than technologists assume, beginning with the first time
readers wrote notes in texts’ margins. Thus, the function of the underlined portion
is to challenge the stance of the technology investors and enthusiasts mentioned
earlier in the text. As the remainder of the text points out, newer media doesn’t
necessarily replace older media, but rather, as Douglass believes, leads to new
forms of expression.

Choice B is incorrect because the underlined portion challenges the position

taken by investors and enthusiasts; it doesn’t provide context for their claims.
Choice C is incorrect because the underlined portion doesn’t mention academics
or compare them to investors regarding their ability to see potential in using
contemporary interactive texts; instead, the underlined portion challenges the
position of investors and enthusiasts who predict that conventional books will be
replaced by newer forms of media. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined
portion doesn’t address technological challenges; instead, it disputes the stance
taken by investors and enthusiasts, suggesting that conventional books haven’t
been displaced by traditional interactions with texts, such as writing in the
margins, and won’t be supplanted by newer forms of media either.

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QUESTION 10
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the M. robustus population at the Octopus Garden. The text states
that the scientists concluded that the site is likely used only for reproduction
because over three years they saw many adults, freshly hatched octopuses, and
eggs but didn’t see any juveniles. This suggests that the M. robustus octopuses
that hatch at the Octopus Garden leave the site when they reach an intermediary
state of development, returning only as adults for reproductive purposes.

Choice B is incorrect because the text never discusses the stability of the
M. robustus population at the site, only that the scientists observed 6,000 adults,
hatchlings, and eggs there. Further, the text presents the site’s temperatures as
likely beneficial. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t provide any details
about the eggs at the site and makes no mention of nests; it indicates only that
eggs are present along with hatchlings and adults. Choice D is incorrect because
the text makes no mention of the hatchlings feeding at the Octopus Garden,
indicating only that the temperatures at the site are probably beneficial and that
the site is likely used for reproduction.

QUESTION 11
Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about Hans
Castorp’s story that is suggested by the text. The narrator of the text indicates
that the story about Hans Castorp will be told not because there is something
particularly notable about him, since he is pleasant but “perfectly ordinary,” but
because the story itself is remarkable (“very much worth telling”). The narrator
then notes that there is a benefit in being at the heart of the story—that it is “in
Hans Castorp’s favor” that the story is his, and maybe uniquely so (“not every
story happens to everybody”). Thus, the text suggests both that the story that will
be told is a remarkable one that happened to an unremarkable person and that it
is reasonable to argue that the person at the center of a valuable story takes on
some of the story’s value.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the narrator of the text makes the point that “not
every story happens to everybody,” the narrator doesn’t state that stories are
interesting simply because the people they are about are unique. Rather, the
narrator suggests that one particular story is “very much worth telling” on its own
and that Hans Castorp benefits from the fact that the story is remarkable and may
be unique to him. Further, the narrator never suggests that the story will be hard
to understand even though it is old. Choice B is incorrect. Although the narrator of
the text suggests that Hans Castorp is of no particular importance, since he is a
“perfectly ordinary” person, the narrator never reveals what makes the story of
Castorp important, just that “the story itself” is “very much worth telling.” The
narrator states that the story “took place long ago,” is “covered with the patina of
history,” and can be told only “with verbs whose tense is that of the deepest past,”
but the story’s age and the way it must be told aren’t presented as reasons the
story is important; the narrator is simply providing details about how the story will
be told. Choice C is incorrect because the narrator of the text doesn’t suggest
that all stories about people who are “perfectly ordinary” (like Hans Castorp) must

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be told in particular ways to make it clear why those stories are consequential.
Further, the narrator suggests that Hans Castorp’s story must be told “with verbs
whose tense is that of the deepest past” because it took place so long ago, not
because telling it that way will convey the story’s importance.

QUESTION 12
Choice D is the best answer because it states the percentage of participants who
mentioned costs in the interviews conducted by Judith Hilton and her team. The
text states that Hilton and her team interviewed participants about factors that
would encourage them to switch from single-use plastic containers to reusable
containers. The graph presents three factors mentioned in the interviews
(convenience, costs, and established behaviors) and the percentage of
participants who mentioned each one. The graph shows that about 50% of
participants mentioned costs as a factor.

Choice A is incorrect because the graph shows that about 50% of participants,
not 10%, mentioned costs as a factor. Choice B is incorrect because the graph
shows that about 50% of participants, not 95%, mentioned costs as a factor.
Choice C is incorrect because the graph shows that about 50% of participants,
not 25%, mentioned costs as a factor.

QUESTION 13
Choice A is the best answer because it presents the quotation that best supports
the student’s claim that in The Politics, Aristotle gives advice on preserving
constitutions—preventing governments from falling and maintaining order—and
specifically asserts that in a healthy state, laws must be followed as strictly as
possible and infractions should not be overlooked even if they are minor. The
philosopher states that when Aristotle builds his argument about the
characteristics of a well-functioning government, Aristotle asserts that
transgression, or violation of law, will ruin the state if it “creeps in unperceived,” or
goes unnoticed. The philosopher then adds that Aristotle illustrates this point by
comparing the situation to one in which small but frequent expenses diminish a
fortune almost unnoticeably until, eventually, the fortune is entirely gone. In other
words, the philosopher indicates that Aristotle makes the point that total
obedience to law preserves a healthy state while even small violations, if ignored,
will undermine the health of the state.

Choice B is incorrect because the philosopher addresses Aristotle’s observation

about corruption within the government (in particular, preventing the possibility
that members of the government can take bribes), and although corruption can
involve infractions, the observation is about a subset of people within the state
and isn’t directly connected to the importance of upholding total obedience to the
law throughout the state. Choice C is incorrect because the philosopher
discusses Aristotle’s point about those who would intentionally destroy a
constitution altogether and the need for rulers to remind the populace that it
would be dangerous for a constitution to collapse, but neither idea is directly
connected to the importance of upholding total obedience to the law. Choice D is
incorrect because the philosopher explains that Aristotle makes the point that

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oligarchic leaders may retain power by having members of disenfranchised

classes participate in government alongside governing classes, and this point
doesn’t address the importance of ensuring obedience to the law and addressing
even minor violations.

QUESTION 14
Choice B is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most
directly support the researchers’ conclusion that an observable pattern in time
references in novels reflects a shift in human behavior prompted by the spread of
electric lighting in the late nineteenth century. If novels published after 1880
contain significantly more references to activities occurring after 10 p.m. than
novels from earlier periods do, this would suggest a change in human behavior
and daily routines enabled by the availability of electric lighting. Before electric
lighting—which provided illumination more easily than other available forms of
light—many activities ceased after nightfall, so references to late-night activities
would be less common in earlier novels. An increase in such references after
1880 would align with the researchers’ conclusion, reflecting an increase in
late-night activities made possible by electric lighting.

Choice A is incorrect because a decrease in references to 10 a.m. after the year

1800 would not support the researchers’ conclusion involving a shift in human
behavior prompted by the spread of electric lighting toward the end of the 1800s.
The time of 10 a.m. is in the morning and, in most places, characterized by
daylight, so a change in references to that time would not be clearly linked to the
impact of electric lighting. Choice C is incorrect because while an increase in
implied time references relative to clock phrases in nineteenth-century novels
could suggest a change in writing style or conventions, it does not directly
support the conclusion involving a shift in human behavior prompted by the
spread of electric lighting. The text indicates that the researchers’ conclusion is
based on the content of the time references themselves, not the phrasing used.
Choice D is incorrect. If references to noon and midnight are used with roughly
the same frequency in all the novels analyzed by the researchers, this would
reflect a lack of change in human behavior with regard to time and therefore
would not support the researchers’ conclusion involving a shift in human behavior
that occurred in response to the spread of electric lighting.

QUESTION 15
Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph
to complete the statement about Mahtta et al.’s proposal regarding factors that
affect urban land expansion (ULE). According to the text, ULE is influenced by
urban population growth and by gross domestic product (GDP) growth per capita.
Reasoning that efficient national governments provide urban services and
infrastructure needed to attract economic investment, Mahtta et al. suggest that,
as governments become more efficient at providing urban services and
infrastructure, GDP growth per capita will account for more ULE and urban
population growth will account for less. But according to the graph, Region 1 saw
an increase in the percentage attributed to urban population growth from 1970–
2000 (between 60 and 65%) to 2000–2014 (between 70 and 75%) and a decrease

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in the percentage attributed to GDP growth per capita from 1970–2000 (between
35 and 40%) to 2000–2014 (about 25%). Because the percentage attributed to
GDP growth per capita decreased (the opposite of what Mahtta et al. claimed
would happen if the governments had become more efficient), the data suggest
that the governments of Region 1 became less efficient at providing urban
services and infrastructure over that period.

Choice B is incorrect. Neither the graph nor the text gives the regions’ relative
levels of economic growth or what effect Mahtta et al. would expect such growth
to have. Furthermore, Mahtta et al.’s proposal suggests that Region 1’s decline in
the percentage of ULE attributed to GDP growth per capita from 1970–2000
(between 35 and 40%) to 2000–2014 (about 25%) would suggest decreasing, not
increasing, government efficiency over this time. Choice C is incorrect. Neither
the text nor the graph provides information about the relative efficiencies of
different governments in Region 2. Choice D is incorrect. Mahtta et al.’s proposal
suggests that more efficient governments will have a higher percentage of their
ULE driven by GDP growth per capita and a lower percentage driven by urban
population growth. For Region 2, the percentage of ULE attributed to GDP growth
per capita increased from 1970–2000 (between 10 and 15%) to 2000–2014
(between 45 and 50%), but the opposite is true for Region 1, which saw the
percentage of ULE attributed to GDP growth per capita decline over the same
period. Thus, whereas the data suggest governments in Region 2 became more
efficient, the data for Region 1 suggest that those governments became less
efficient, not more.

QUESTION 16
Choice B is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that best
support the student’s assertion that initial efforts at trade liberalization in China
were shaped by firms having limited capital (assets available for use) and that this
situation resolved during the 2000s. The text explains that an approach to trade
liberalization involves engaging in processing imports, one type of which doesn’t
require payment to a trade partner (processing with assembly) and one type of
which requires upfront payment to a trade partner for raw materials (processing
with inputs). The graph, which presents China’s imports for ordinary imports and
both types of processing imports in the years 2000, 2003, and 2006, shows that
while processing imports with assembly rose from about 250 hundred million
dollars in 2000 to about 750 hundred million dollars in 2006, processing imports
with inputs rose much more sharply, increasing from approximately 650 hundred
million dollars in 2000 to about 2,300 hundred million dollars in 2006. Because
processing with inputs requires firms to pay for materials (expending capital) and
processing with assembly doesn’t, the sharper rise in processing imports with
inputs suggests that Chinese firms’ assets—and thus their ability to engage in
that type of processing imports—were relatively limited in (and before) 2000 and
then substantially increased from 2000 to 2006. In other words, the data suggest
that the situation of having limited capital resolved during the 2000s.

Choice A is incorrect because the graph indicates that ordinary imports were
greater than both types of processing imports in 2006, not that processing
imports with inputs were greater than ordinary imports and processing imports

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with assembly that year. Choice C is incorrect because the observation that
ordinary imports were greater than both types of processing imports in 2000,
2003, and 2006 doesn’t address a change within any type of imports from 2000
to 2006, and an indication of a change in that period that might be related to the
availability of assets is needed to support the assertion that the situation of
having limited capital resolved during the 2000s. Choice D is incorrect because
the fact that processing imports with assembly were greater at the end of the
period from 2000 to 2006 than processing imports with inputs were at the start of
the same period doesn’t address a change within either type of imports during
the period, and an indication of such a change that might be related to the
availability of assets is needed to support the assertion that the situation of
having limited capital resolved during the 2000s.

QUESTION 17
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of Kristin Laidre’s reasoning about the purpose of the tusk that many,
but not all, narwhals have. The text explains that one group of scientists thinks the
tusk may help narwhals detect the threat of freezing water and that Laidre
disagrees with that idea, given the importance of avoiding a dangerous situation.
It’s logical to suggest that if the tusk serves such an important purpose for
narwhals, the trait would be more common among them—specifically, that more
narwhals would have a tusk.

Choice A is incorrect because there’s no reason to think Laidre would say that if
the tusk has the important function of helping narwhals detect when the water
around them is about to freeze (meaning that it isn’t always freezing), some
narwhals would choose a different habitat altogether. Indeed, if it’s true that the
tusk helps narwhals avoid areas with dangerous conditions when they occur in
their Arctic Ocean habitat, the tusk would likely enable the narwhals to continue
living in that habitat rather than drive them elsewhere entirely. Choice B is
incorrect because the text focuses only on narwhals and makes no mention of
other marine animals or how having a tusk might affect them. And if anything, it
would be more logical to expect a very important trait to be more widespread, not
less common, among other similar types of animals. Choice D is incorrect.
Although the text describes narwhals as shy, it doesn’t indicate that the scientists’
conclusion has anything to do with shyness. And because shyness and detection
of the threat of freezing water aren’t logically connected, there’s no reason to
think that Laidre would expect narwhals to become less shy over time if the tusk
serves that important purpose.

QUESTION 18
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of silicon carbide (SiC) fibers and creep, or deformation related to
ongoing mechanical stress and elevated temperatures. The text states that Bhatt
et al. found that a nitrogen-treated SiC fiber had a lower minimum creep rate than
two polymer-derived SiC fibers did. Because having a lower creep rate means that
the material is slower to deform with exposure to stress, as the text explains, this
finding suggests that aerospace composites made with the nitrogen-treated SiC

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fiber may be able to withstand mechanical stress for a longer period than those
made with the other two polymer-derived SiC fibers can.

Choice A is incorrect because it overstates the implications of the study’s

findings, which have to do with the rate of a material’s deformation under stress,
not the absolute degree of deformation. The text states that Bhatt et al. observed
that a nitrogen-treated SiC fiber had a lower minimum creep rate than two
polymer-derived SiC fibers did, meaning only that it deformed more slowly over
time under constant stress, not that it underwent less deformation overall.
Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t establish any similarity between
the two polymer-derived SiC fibers other than that both had a higher creep rate
than the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber did in Bhatt et al.’s study. Moreover, reducing a
material’s resistance to creep would mean that the material becomes more
susceptible to deformation with exposure to stress and elevated temperatures,
which would be expected to shorten rather than prolong the lifespan of machinery
made with that material. Choice C is incorrect because the text suggests that the
stability of aerospace equipment may be better improved by composites
containing nitrogen-treated SiC fiber than by composites containing the two
polymer-derived SiC fibers, not the other way around. The text indicates that
Bhatt et al. observed that the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber had a lower minimum
creep rate than the other two fibers did, meaning that it was slower to degrade
under exposure to mechanical stress and elevated temperatures—suggesting
that it may remain stable for longer periods.

QUESTION 19
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms
within a sentence. The singular verb “describes” agrees in number with the
singular subject “map.”

Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “describe” doesn’t agree in number
with the singular subject “map.” Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb
“have described” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “map.”
Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “are describing” doesn’t agree in
number with the singular subject “map.”

QUESTION 20
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of
determiners in a sentence. The plural determiner “these” agrees in number with
the plural noun “letters” that it modifies. This choice clearly indicates that the
letters demonstrate Alcott’s business sense.

Choice A is incorrect because the singular determiner “one” doesn’t agree in

number with the plural noun “letters.” Choice B is incorrect because the singular
determiner “that” doesn’t agree in number with the plural noun “letters.” Choice C
is incorrect because the singular determiner “this” doesn’t agree in number with
the plural noun “letters.”

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QUESTION 21
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to
express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the past tense verb “affected,” used in
conjunction with the phrase “during this time,” correctly indicates that the dust
storms occurred in the 1930s.

Choice A is incorrect because the present progressive tense verb “are affecting”
doesn’t indicate that the dust storms occurred in the 1930s. Choice B is incorrect
because the future perfect tense verb “will have affected” doesn’t indicate that
the dust storms occurred in the 1930s. Choice C is incorrect because the future
tense verb “will affect” doesn’t indicate that the dust storms occurred in the
1930s.

QUESTION 22
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of
main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and a
coordinating conjunction (“but”) to join the first main clause (“Leibniz...century”)
and the second main clause (“these ingenious...calculators”).

Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main

clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B is incorrect
because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma
can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice D is incorrect because
joining the two main clauses in this way with the subordinating conjunction “that”
results in an ungrammatical and illogical sentence.

QUESTION 23
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms
within a sentence. The nonfinite past participle “characterized” is correctly used
within a supplementary element that modifies the main clause “Zhang...shanshui,”
defining qinglü shanshui and explaining some of its identifying traits.

Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Using the finite present
perfect tense verb “has been characterized” creates a second main clause in the
sentence, and the two main clauses can’t be joined in this way by only the comma
before “a type.” Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Using
the finite future tense verb “will be characterized” creates a second main clause in
the sentence, and the two main clauses can’t be joined in this way by only the
comma before “a type.” Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma
splice. Using the finite present tense verb “is characterized” creates a second
main clause in the sentence, and the two main clauses can’t be joined in this way
by only the comma before “a type.”

QUESTION 24
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use
between sentences. In this choice, the period is used correctly to mark the
boundary between one sentence (“What…vapor”) and another (“With…point”).

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Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The sentences

(“What…vapor” and “with…point”) are fused without punctuation and/or a
conjunction. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma
can’t be used in this way to mark the boundary between sentences. Choice D is
incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in
this way to join sentences.

QUESTION 25
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-modifier
placement. This choice makes the noun phrase “the Alaska Centennial
Commission” the subject of the sentence and places it immediately after the
modifying phrase “wanting…Purchase.” In doing so, this choice clearly establishes
that the Alaska Centennial Commission—and not another noun in the sentence—
wanted to celebrate the 100th anniversary of the Alaska Purchase.

Choice A is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier. The placement of

the noun phrase “a contest” immediately after the modifying phrase illogically
suggests that the contest wanted to celebrate the 100th anniversary of the
Alaska Purchase. Choice B is incorrect because it results in a dangling modifier.
The placement of the noun phrase “an award of $300” immediately after the
modifying phrase illogically suggests that the award of $300 wanted to celebrate
the 100th anniversary of the Alaska Purchase. Choice C is incorrect because it
results in a dangling modifier. The placement of the noun phrase “$300”
immediately after the modifying phrase illogically suggests that the $300 wanted
to celebrate the 100th anniversary of the Alaska Purchase.

QUESTION 26
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of
punctuation within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma to mark the
boundary between the main clause (“Recently...supposed”) and the
supplementary element (“a finding...Paleolithic”) that provides additional
information about the implications of the Neronian tool discovery.

Choice A is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this way to join the
main clause (“Recently...supposed”) and the supplementary element (“a finding...
Paleolithic”). Choice B is incorrect because it results in a rhetorically unacceptable
sentence fragment beginning with “a finding.” Choice C is incorrect because it
results in a run-on sentence. The main clause (“Recently...supposed”) and the
supplementary element (“a finding...Paleolithic”) are fused without punctuation
and/or a conjunction.

QUESTION 27
Choice A is the best answer. “Additionally” logically signals that guard cells’ role in
regulating water loss is an additional function of these specialized plant cells that
is separate from the function of regulating carbon dioxide intake.

Choice B is incorrect because “previously” illogically signals that the activity

described in this sentence occurs earlier in a chronological sequence of events

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than the regulation of carbon dioxide intake described in the previous sentence.
Instead, regulating water loss is an additional function of guard cells that is
separate from the function of regulating carbon dioxide intake. Choice C is
incorrect because “in conclusion” illogically signals that the description of guard
cells’ role in regulating water loss concludes or summarizes the information about
guard cells provided in the previous sentences. Instead, regulating water loss is
one of the two distinct functions of guard cells described in the text. Choice D is
incorrect because “instead” illogically signals that the activity described in this
sentence happens in place of the activity of regulating carbon dioxide intake
described in the previous sentence. Rather, regulating water loss is an additional
function of guard cells.

QUESTION 28
Choice D is the best answer. The sentence identifies the type of scientist
Chaudhuri is, noting that she is a sedimentologist.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence provides an example of a type of sedimentary

rock; it doesn’t identify what type of scientist Chaudhuri is. Choice B is incorrect.
The sentence indicates types of rock that some scientists study; it doesn’t
identify what type of scientist Chaudhuri is. Choice C is incorrect. While the
sentence states that some scientists study sedimentary rocks, it doesn’t identify
Chaudhuri as this type of scientist.

QUESTION 29
Choice A is the best answer. The sentence indicates where “Raymond’s Run”
takes place, stating that it takes place in Harlem.

Choice B is incorrect. The sentence identifies the book in which the story
“Raymond’s Run” was published; it doesn’t indicate where the story takes place.
Choice C is incorrect. The sentence indicates the point of view used in
“Raymond’s Run”; it doesn’t indicate where the story takes place. Choice D is
incorrect. The sentence identifies the author of “Raymond’s Run”; it doesn’t
indicate where the story takes place.

QUESTION 30
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence contrasts the two styles of tiles,
noting that tiles in the arista style have designs stamped into them, whereas tiles
in the majolica style have designs painted directly on them.

Choice A is incorrect because the sentence indicates that the two styles of tile
can be found in the same location; it doesn’t contrast the two styles of tile.
Choice B is incorrect because the sentence indicates that the Royal Alcázar of
Seville features tiles in both the majolica and arista styles; it doesn’t contrast the
two styles of tile. Choice D is incorrect because the sentence indicates that the
tilework of the Royal Alcázar of Seville includes tiles in the majolica style; it doesn’t
contrast tiles in the majolica style with tiles in the arista style.

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QUESTION 31
Choice B is the best answer. The sentence contrasts the two songs, noting that
“Poor Miner’s Farewell” is about coal miners in Kentucky, whereas “Bring Him Back
Home” is about Nelson Mandela.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between “Poor

Miner’s Farewell” and “Bring Him Back Home”; it doesn’t contrast the two songs.
Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence provides a description of the song
“Bring Him Back Home,” it doesn’t mention “Poor Miner’s Farewell” or contrast the
two songs. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence provides a description of the
song “Poor Miner’s Farewell,” it doesn’t mention “Bring Him Back Home” or
contrast the two songs.

QUESTION 32
Choice C is the best answer. Using a quotation from Stewart, the sentence
challenges Thucydides’s explanation that the rise of Athens caused the conflict,
suggesting that it was instead caused by a “clash of cultures.”

Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence uses a quotation, the quotation doesn’t
challenge Thucydides’s explanation of the conflict. Choice B is incorrect. While
the sentence mentions that Stewart challenged Thucydides’s explanation of the
conflict, it doesn’t use a quotation to challenge Thucydides’s explanation: the
quoted word “inevitable” is from Thucydides. Choice D is incorrect. While the
sentence appears to refute Thucydides’s explanation, it does so in a way that
misrepresents the information in the notes; Allison’s Thucydides trap theory is
based on Thucydides’s explanation of the conflict. Thus, Allison’s theory affirms,
rather than challenges, Thucydides’s explanation.

QUESTION 33
Choice D is the best answer. The sentence presents an overview of the study’s
findings, noting that, for some of the languages (the examples of Spanish and
Vietnamese are given in the notes), the number of syllables spoken per second
varied, while the amount of information conveyed per second remained roughly
constant across all 17 languages.

Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence describes one of the metrics the study
assessed, it doesn’t present any of the study’s findings. Choice B is incorrect.
While the sentence compares specific findings about two of the languages
studied, it doesn’t provide an overview of the study’s findings across all
17 languages. Choice C is incorrect. The sentence compares specific findings
about two of the languages studied; it doesn’t provide an overview of the study’s
findings across all 17 languages. It also misrepresents the information from the
notes about Spanish’s information rate.

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Reading and Writing

Module 2
(33 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of carte de visite photos. To “popularize” a technology is to allow it to
be used and appreciated widely. The text explains that unlike the photos produced
by earlier forms of photographic technology, carte de visite photos were
inexpensive and could easily be obtained by “everyday people,” who enjoyed
exchanging the images. Therefore, carte de visite photos helped popularize
photography.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that instead of weakening the
emerging technology of photography, carte de visite photos allowed it to be more
widely accessed and enjoyed by people. Choice B is incorrect. The text
establishes that large numbers of people enjoyed using carte de visite photos, so
it can be inferred that these photos caused photography to be praised, or
celebrated. However, it wouldn’t make sense to say that inanimate objects—in this
case, photos—had praised photography; instead, carte de visite consumers
themselves would have praised it. Choice D is incorrect because the text explains
that rather than isolating photography, or limiting its availability, carte de visite
technology made photography more widely accessible to people.

QUESTION 2
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of painter Alma W. Thomas’s work. In this context, “influenced” means
to have had an effect on something’s development. The text indicates that there
is a connection between Thomas’s work and the flowers and trees in her home’s
garden, giving the example of Thomas’s brushstrokes being inspired by light
shining through the leaves of a tree in front of her house. This context conveys
that Thomas’s work was influenced by the flowers and trees in the garden.

Choice A is incorrect because the text conveys that Thomas drew inspiration for
her work from the plants in her garden, which suggests that the flowers and trees
contributed positively to her work, not that they “restricted,” or limited, her work.

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Choice B is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense to suggest that flowers and
trees in a garden could have “announced,” or made known, a painter’s work.
Choice C is incorrect because the text conveys that Thomas drew inspiration for
her work from the plants in her garden, which suggests that the flowers and trees
contributed positively to her work, not that they were a distraction. Further, it’s not
clear how an artist’s work could itself be “distracted.”

QUESTION 3
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the conservationists’ efforts to increase Azores bullfinch’s numbers.
In this context, “successful” means accomplishing a goal or purpose. According
to the text, conservationists planted more than 500,000 native trees in an Azores
bullfinch habitat in order to boost the bird’s population size. The text then
indicates that the population size did indeed grow as a result of the planted trees.
Thus, in this context, the conservationists’ approach of planting native trees was
successful because it achieved the goal of increasing the bird’s population size.

Choice A is incorrect because the text gives no indication that the

conservationists’ approach of planting native trees to increase Azores bullfinch’s
numbers was “amusing,” or comical or entertaining. Instead, the approach was
seriously undertaken and ultimately accomplished. Choice B is incorrect because
the text doesn’t address how much it cost to achieve the goal of planting native
trees to increase Azores bullfinch’s numbers. The text indicates that the approach
was beneficial and successful rather than “costly,” or expensive or harmful.
Choice D is incorrect. According to the text, the conservationists’ approach of
planting native trees to increase Azores bullfinch’s numbers was beneficial and
successful rather than “disastrous,” or damaging or unsuccessful.

QUESTION 4
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the duration of gamma ray burst GRB 230307A. In this context, “an
oddity” is something that is odd or unusual. The text explains that the burst lasted
for 200 seconds and that other bursts generated by neutron mergers have usually
lasted fewer than 2 seconds. In other words, the duration of gamma ray burst
GRB 230307A was unusual.

Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses on a difference between the

duration of gamma ray burst GRB 230307A and the typical duration of bursts
caused by neutron mergers, not “a coincidence,” or a point of correspondence,
between them; the text indicates that GRB 230307A lasted much longer than
what is typical of other bursts. Choice B is incorrect. In this context, “a reprieve”
would be either a temporary relief from something or a delay of a punishment,
neither of which would make sense as something that the duration of a gamma
ray burst could provide to the burst itself. Choice C is incorrect. Although it would
make sense to refer to gamma ray burst GRB 230307A itself as “an incident,” or a
thing that occurred, the missing word describes the duration of the burst, and it
doesn’t make much sense to describe a length of time as an incident. Further, the
sentence emphasizes that the burst’s duration was very unusual, not simply that
the burst occurred.

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QUESTION 5
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of Benjamin Franklin’s popularity in France. In this context, “esteem”
means high regard. The text indicates that Franklin was very popular, or highly
regarded, in France, where he sought the country’s support for the United States
in its fight for independence, and indicates that his status helped him achieve his
goal. The context therefore suggests that being held in high regard by the people
likely helped Franklin convince France to help the United States.

Choice A is incorrect because the text directly indicates that it was Franklin’s
popularity that likely helped him convince France to help the United States, not his
“thoughtfulness” (which in this context would mean either his careful reasoning
and attention or his kind consideration of others’ needs). Choice C is incorrect
because the text doesn’t suggest that there was any “controversy,” or dispute,
about Franklin’s presence in France; instead, the text states that Franklin was very
popular in France and directly indicates that this status likely helped him convince
France to help the United States. Choice D is incorrect because the text directly
indicates that it was Franklin’s popularity that likely helped him convince France to
help the United States, not his “sincerity,” or his honesty.

QUESTION 6
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the
underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence of the text
establishes that scientists didn’t know much about the ocean floor in the 1950s.
The second sentence, which is underlined, describes what many scientists
thought at the time—that the ocean floor was mostly flat. The remainder of the
text establishes that the ocean floor is far from flat, citing research conducted by
Marie Tharp and Bruce Heezen. Thus, the purpose of the underlined sentence is
to identify a scientific belief that Tharp and Heezen showed to be wrong.

Choice B is incorrect. Although Tharp and Heezen’s work with sonar data in the
Atlantic Ocean is mentioned later in the text, the underlined sentence doesn’t
describe the design of their experiment. Instead, it identifies a belief held by
scientists that Tharp and Heezen demonstrated to be wrong. Choice C is
incorrect because the underlined sentence presents a belief held by many
scientists in the 1950s; nowhere does the text mention a disagreement between
Tharp and Heezen, whom the text describes as research partners working
together to map the ocean floor. Choice D is incorrect because the underlined
sentence doesn’t present data in support of a claim; instead, it presents a
scientific belief that Tharp and Heezen’s work showed to be wrong.

QUESTION 7
Choice B is the best answer because it accurately describes the function of the
underlined phrase in the text as a whole. According to the text, advertisers were
reluctant to support television in its early days. The underlined phrase then
indicates that this reluctance was partly due to the US’s involvement in World
War II, which hindered television production. Thus, the underlined phrase
identifies a specific reason behind some advertisers’ hesitance to support
television.

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Choice A is incorrect. The text merely mentions that television was expected to
be financed through advertising, as radio was at the time. Nothing in the text
compares the origins of radio and television. Choice C is incorrect. The underlined
phrase focuses on a reason advertisers were reluctant to support television, not
measures taken to convince advertisers to support television. Choice D is
incorrect. The underlined phrase focuses on a reason advertisers were reluctant
to support television, not what types of television programming were popular.

QUESTION 8
Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of
the underlined sentence in the text as a whole. The text discusses the Bayeux
Tapestry, making the point that the workers who produced the huge tapestry in
the eleventh century might not have ever produced a tapestry so large before.
The text goes on to suggest that because of this lack of previous experience, the
workers developed and refined the process of joining the tapestry’s panels over
time as they worked. The last sentence of the text then provides an example of an
observation that suggests the workers’ process changed: clear misalignment of
the borders of the two panels the workers joined first and virtually invisible joins
completed later. Thus, the underlined sentence serves to support an argument
about the workers who produced the tapestry.

Choice A is incorrect because the example given in the last sentence of the text
has to do with how the panels of the Bayeux Tapestry were joined by the workers,
not with what is depicted in those panels; the text never identifies any people or
places depicted in the tapestry. Choice C is incorrect because the last sentence
compares how early panels in the Bayeux Tapestry were joined with how later
panels in the same tapestry were joined; it doesn’t make any comparison between
the Bayeux Tapestry and other tapestries from the same time in France. Choice D
is incorrect because the last sentence doesn’t address the location where the
Bayeux Tapestry was created; the first sentence of the text presents it as a given
that the tapestry was created in France, but nothing in the text indicates how that
origin was determined.

QUESTION 9
Choice D is the best answer because it reflects how the author of Text 2 would
most likely respond to what the researchers mentioned in Text 1 contend. Text 1
discusses the lack of knowledge of how plate tectonics on Earth began. Text 1
also mentions researchers who contend that movements of tectonic plates began
around 3 billion years ago. As support for this assertion, these researchers cite
computer models (which are simulations, not empirical evidence) of the
temperature in Earth’s mantle that show that at that time, the mantle would have
been sufficiently molten for plates to move. However, the author of Text 2 asserts
that empirical evidence from the geological record is necessary to make plausible
claims about when tectonic movement began. Text 2 mentions an analysis
performed by Wriju Chowdhury and his team of the geochemistry of zircon
crystals (which would constitute empirical evidence). Chowdhury and his team
argue, based on this analysis, that tectonic plates may have begun to move as
early as 4.2 billion years ago. Therefore, since the author of Text 2 would consider

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Chowdhury et al.’s empirical evidence to be more conclusive than the computer

models cited in Text 1, the author of Text 2 would most likely assert that a more
definitive form of evidence than the computer models suggests a different
timeline for the onset of plate tectonics on Earth.

Choice A is incorrect because the author of Text 2 makes no claims about the
temperature of Earth’s mantle and therefore wouldn’t argue that the temperature
of Earth’s mantle 3 billion years ago was insufficient to allow tectonic movement.
Choice B is incorrect because the author of Text 2 claims that empirical evidence
is needed to fix the earliest date of tectonic movement. Computer models are
simulations, not empirical evidence, so the author of Text 2 wouldn’t distinguish
between different kinds of computer models but would instead argue that no
computer models can reliably predict the onset of plate tectonics. Choice C is
incorrect because the author of Text 2 wouldn’t consider any computer model to
be able to provide evidence to support a plausible claim about tectonic
movement, no matter how much such models were improved. The author of Text 2
would only accept empirical evidence.

QUESTION 10
Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately states what feature of
Hevea brasiliensis is helpful for the process of making rubber. According to the
text, this tree species produces latex, which is used to make rubber, and its inner
bark contains a “network of tubes” that, when cut, enables the latex to flow out.
The text explicitly states that this feature of Hevea brasiliensis is “helpful for the
process of making rubber.”

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention the quality of the rubber
produced from the latex of Hevea brasiliensis or compare its quality to that of
rubber produced from other sources. Choice C is incorrect because the text
never discusses the climates in which Hevea brasiliensis grows. Moreover, the
text mentions only one region where this tree is found: the Amazon rainforest.
Choice D is incorrect. Because the text states that Hevea brasiliensis is the
world’s “main source of natural rubber,” it can be inferred that there is at least one
other source. However, the text doesn’t specify whether that other source is also
a tree species and, if so, whether that species grows in the Amazon rainforest.

QUESTION 11
Choice B is the best answer because it best states the main idea of the text: that
nature-based approaches can be effective for achieving conservation goals. The
text indicates that in many cases where conservationists are trying to protect
ecosystems, their methods depend on natural processes or features. The text
then gives an example of this phenomenon, a project with the Quinault Indian
Nation that allowed logjams to form naturally in a river, creating spawning habitats
for blueback salmon.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text does suggest that the partnership with
the Quinault Indian Nation was beneficial, this is not the central aim of the text; the
text primarily argues that nature-based approaches to conservation can be
effective. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text indicates that logjams are

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helpful to blueback salmon, the example of the blueback salmon project is

included to illustrate the larger point made earlier in the text: that nature-based
approaches to conservation are often effective. Choice D is incorrect. There is no
evidence in the text to support a direct comparison of the efficacy of nature-
based conservation approaches to other types of approaches. The text merely
indicates that nature-based approaches can often be effective.

QUESTION 12
Choice D is the best answer because it effectively uses data from the table to
complete the student’s claim about the highest percentage of bus stops with
shaded shelter in the areas represented. The table shows the highest average
surface temperature of five areas and the percentage of bus stops with shaded
shelter in each area, and 29% is the highest percentage listed.

Choice A is incorrect because the list of percentages of bus stops with shaded
shelter does not include 50%; the highest percentage in the table is 29%.
Choice B is incorrect because 15% is the lowest value in the listed percentages of
bus stops with shaded shelter, not the highest value. Choice C is incorrect
because the list of percentages of bus stops with shaded shelter does not include
90%; the highest percentage in the table is 29%.

QUESTION 13
Choice C is the best answer because it states the total area of Bahrain that is
indicated in the table. The table presents the total area (in square miles) and
population for Bahrain, Qatar, and Kuwait, and it indicates that the total area of
Bahrain is 304 square miles.

Choice A is incorrect because the table indicates that 4,268,873 is the population
of Kuwait, not the total area of Bahrain. Choice B is incorrect because the table
indicates that 4,471 square miles is the total area of Qatar, not of Bahrain.
Choice D is incorrect because the table indicates that 6,880 square miles is the
total area of Kuwait, not of Bahrain.

QUESTION 14
Choice C is the best answer because it presents the quotation that most
effectively illustrates the claim that Echelman’s sculptures appear delicate but are
in fact quite durable. The text explains that Echelman’s sculptures include flowing
shapes that mimic the wind. If it is true that the materials she uses are both
flexible and strong, that would help explain why the works are durable even though
they appear delicate.

Choice A is incorrect because the claim in the text is not about how Echelman
models her work before sculpting. Choice B is incorrect because the claim in the
text is not about the planning and design phases of Echelman’s work. Choice D is
incorrect because the claim in the text is not about how the sculptures relate to
their locations.

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QUESTION 15
Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most
directly support the researchers’ conclusion that the transition from a stagnant lid
regime to a tectonic plate regime occurred around 3.2 billion years ago. The text
explains that early in Earth’s history, Earth exhibited a stagnant lid regime in which
there’s no interaction between the lithosphere and the underlying mantle. The text
further explains that, by contrast, once Earth began to exhibit a tectonic plate
regime, its lithospheric and mantle material began to mix. If mantle-derived rocks
younger than 3.2 billion years contain material not found in older mantle-derived
rocks, that material must have originated somewhere other than the mantle. And if
this material is found in both older and contemporaneous lithospheric rocks, that
would imply that the lithosphere was able to mix with mantle material beginning
around 3.2 billion years ago, as the researchers concluded.

Choice A is incorrect. The text gives no basis for comparing the quantities of
lithospheric and mantle-derived rocks. Choice B is incorrect. The text gives no
basis for comparing the material makeup of lithospheric rocks to that of mantle-
derived rocks. Choice C is incorrect. A positive correlation between the age of
lithospheric rocks and these rocks’ chemical similarity to mantle-derived rocks
would mean that the oldest rocks would be the most similar, which contradicts the
text’s claim that lithospheric and mantle-derived rocks were completely separate
until 3.2 billion years ago. If the researchers’ conclusion about the onset of
tectonics on Earth is correct, then younger lithospheric rocks would show greater
chemical similarity to mantle-derived rocks than older lithospheric rocks do.

QUESTION 16
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the discussion
of Uto-Aztecan languages. The text explains that the northern and southern
branches of the Uto-Aztecan language family descended from a single language
(believed to have originated in what is now the US Southwest), resulting in
similarities across the family’s languages; however, the branches don’t have
similar vocabulary for maize, even though maize has been cultivated by all
Uto-Aztecan tribes. The text also indicates that maize originated in Mexico and
spread northward into what is now the US Southwest—the area where the
Uto-Aztecan language family originated. It follows, then, that the language family
had already divided into northern and southern branches before maize reached
that area; if maize had been present before the division occurred, the family’s
origin language would have had terminology for it that likely would have been
reflected in the branches, meaning they would have had similar vocabulary for
maize. If maize arrived after the division occurred, however, the tribes in the two
regions likely would have developed vocabulary pertaining to maize separately, at
the times when they acquired the crop.

Choice A is incorrect because the text focuses on vocabulary pertaining to maize

in the branches of the Uto-Aztecan language family, and referring only to how
some Uto-Aztecan tribes obtained maize wouldn’t directly address the role of
language. Moreover, if northern Uto-Aztecan tribes had acquired maize from a
southern Uto-Aztecan tribe, it’s reasonable to assume that the northern tribes

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might have also picked up southern Uto-Aztecan terminology for maize in that
exchange. Choice B is incorrect because the text discusses the fact that the
northern and southern branches of the Uto-Aztecan language family don’t have
shared vocabulary pertaining to maize, not the idea that there are variations in
such vocabulary within each branch—that is, the text focuses on differences
between the two branches, not on differences between languages within a
branch. Choice C is incorrect because the text focuses on vocabulary pertaining
to maize in the branches of the Uto-Aztecan language family, and referring only to
the timing and source of maize acquisition wouldn’t directly address the role of
language. Furthermore, the text implies that southern Uto-Aztecan tribes probably
acquired maize before the northern tribes did, given the evidence that maize
originated in Mexico—the location of the best-known representative of the
southern branch of the Uto-Aztecan language family—before spreading to the
north.

QUESTION 17
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the sediments found at the Gale Crater’s Murray Formation on Mars.
The text states that data gathered by the Curiosity rover suggest that bodies of
water deposited sediment on Mars’s surface long ago. The text goes on to say
that studying the sediment, Rivera-Hernández et al. found some coarse grains
they believe are sandstone, which tends to be left by flowing water, and many
more fine grains they believe are mudstone, which tends to slowly sink in low-flow
water. The text further indicates that the researchers noted cracks in the fine
grains that suggest there were cycles of desiccation, or drying, at the site. Taken
together, this information suggests that a lake (a body of low-flow water) existed
at the site for a prolonged period but occasionally experienced drying and that
there were periods in which one or more streams (flowing water) were present,
since the extended existence of a lake would account for the abundance of fine
grains, periods of drying would account for the cracks in the fine grains, and
periods with streams would account for the sections of coarse grains.

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that an abundance of fine grains
of sediment was found at the Murray Formation site, which suggests that a
low-flow water source (such as a lake) was present. Further, the text makes no
mention of where the water at the site may have originated from. Choice C is
incorrect because the evidence described in the text doesn’t support the idea
that there were streams at the Murray Formation for an extended period and a
lake for just a short time. The abundance of fine grains suggests that a lake (a
body of low-flow water) was present for an extended time, not just a short time,
and the sections of coarse grains suggest that one or more streams (bodies of
flowing water) were intermittently present while the lake existed, not at a separate
time. Choice D is incorrect. Although the text suggests that both a low-flow body
of water (such as a lake) and flowing water (such as streams) existed at the Murray
Formation site, meaning that there could have been a stream-fed lake, the text
explains that the fine grains that signify the presence of a lake exhibit cracking
that indicates periods of desiccation, or drying, which suggests that a lake was
present but did occasionally dry out.

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QUESTION 18
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of Sidonian coins. As the text explains, researchers determined that
Sidonian coins were made of silver and copper and that from 450 BCE to
367 BCE, the percentage of silver in each coin decreased from 98% to 74.2%
while the percentage of copper increased from 1% to 24.7%. The text indicates
that because the coins containing less than 80% silver weren’t considered
suitable for trade (suggesting that copper was less valuable than silver) and
looked different from coins containing more silver, the researchers suspect there
was a serious loss in confidence in the currency in Sidon in 367 BCE when the
copper content was high. It’s reasonable to assume that it wasn’t possible to
boost confidence simply by devoting a greater amount of valuable silver to the
currency, since Sidon was under significant and ongoing financial pressure;
however, keeping the total amount of silver the same and reducing the amount of
copper in the coins would have resulted in smaller coins with a higher percentage
of silver. Therefore, it makes sense to suggest that Abd’aštart I (the ruler after
367 BCE) likely restored confidence in the currency by deciding to keep the
amount of silver in Sidonian coins consistent with that in coins minted in 367 BCE
but to decrease the coins’ weight.

Choice A is incorrect because the text conveys that a crisis in confidence in the
currency of Sidon likely occurred around 367 BCE because the percentage of
silver in coins had fallen below 80% (presumably because Sidon’s financial
pressures meant that less silver was available for currency), making the coins
unsuitable for trade. Thus, announcing that the threshold for the percentage of
silver in coins would be raised—that is, that coins would need to contain even
more than 80% silver to be suitable for trade—likely would have worsened the
crisis rather than relieved it. Choice C is incorrect because the text strongly
suggests that a crisis in confidence in the currency of Sidon was caused by the
proportion of silver to copper in the coins in 367 BCE, with 74.2% being too little
silver for the coins to be considered suitable for trade; therefore, it’s unlikely that
minting coins with a similar proportion of silver to copper (that is, still around
74.2% silver) would have restored confidence, even if the coins were heavier.
Choice D is incorrect because the text gives no indication that funding the mining
of more copper would have relieved a crisis in confidence in the currency of
Sidon. The text establishes that Sidonian coins that visibly contained copper
weren’t considered suitable for trade, so Abd’aštart I wouldn’t have wanted to add
even more copper to them, and it’s unclear how else copper mining would affect
views of the currency.

QUESTION 19
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms
within a sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive verb “to include” is correctly used to
form a subordinate clause that indicates what the Olympic committee decided (to
include tug-of-war as an Olympic event).

Choice A is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite

verb “included” can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate clause that

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indicates what the Olympic committee decided. Choice B is incorrect because it

results in an ungrammatical sentence. The nonfinite participle “including” can’t be
used in this way to form a subordinate clause that indicates what the Olympic
committee decided. Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical
sentence. The finite verb “include” can’t be used in this way to form a subordinate
clause that indicates what the Olympic committee decided.

QUESTION 20
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to
express tense. In this choice, the past tense verb “malfunctioned” is consistent
with the other past tense verbs (“ignited” and “was”) used to describe the
destruction of the original Globe Theatre.

Choice A is incorrect because the present tense verb “malfunctions” isn’t

consistent with the other past tense verbs used to describe the destruction of the
original Globe Theatre. Choice B is incorrect because the future tense verb “will
malfunction” isn’t consistent with the other past tense verbs used to describe the
destruction of the original Globe Theatre. Choice C is incorrect because the
present perfect tense verb “has malfunctioned” isn’t consistent with the other
past tense verbs used to describe the destruction of the original Globe Theatre.

QUESTION 21
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use
between a subject and a verb. No punctuation is needed when, as in this case, a
subject (“Her portrait of novelist Zadie Smith”) is immediately followed by a main
verb (“is displayed”).

Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and

the verb. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the
subject and the verb. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed
between the subject and the verb.

QUESTION 22
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent
agreement. The singular pronoun “it” agrees in number with the singular
antecedent “industry” and clearly indicates that the industry consists of just one
or two suppliers per municipality.

Choice A is incorrect. The plural pronoun “these” neither agrees in number with
the singular antecedent “industry” nor clearly indicates that the industry—not
another plural noun in the sentence, such as “start-up costs” or “barriers”—
consists of just one or two suppliers per municipality. Choice B is incorrect
because the plural pronoun “they” doesn’t agree in number with the singular
antecedent “industry.” Choice D is incorrect because the singular pronoun “this”
is ambiguous in this context; the resulting sentence leaves unclear what consists
of just one or two suppliers per municipality.

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QUESTION 23
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the punctuation of
elements in a complex series. It’s conventional to use a semicolon to separate
items in a complex series with internal punctuation, and in this choice, the
semicolon after “items” is conventionally used to separate the first item
(“overseeing…items”) and the second item (“managing…law”) in a list of Hayden’s
responsibilities.

Choice A is incorrect because it fails to use appropriate punctuation to separate

the first item and the second item in the complex series. Choice B is incorrect
because a comma after “items” doesn’t match the semicolon used later to
separate the second and third items in the series (“managing…law” and “and
appointing the US poet laureate”). Choice D is incorrect because it results in a
rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “Managing.”

QUESTION 24
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of
punctuation within a sentence. The comma after “work” pairs with the comma
after “though” to separate the supplementary element “though” from the rest of
the sentence. This supplementary element signals that what follows is an
exception to Chen using software tools to create illustrations, and the pair of
commas indicates that this element could be removed without affecting the
grammatical coherence of the sentence.

Choice B is incorrect because the comma after “work” must be paired with a
comma after “though” to separate the supplementary element from the rest of
the sentence. Choice C is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be paired with a
comma in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the
sentence. Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be paired with a
comma in this way to separate the supplementary element from the rest of the
sentence.

QUESTION 25
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of
punctuation within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma to separate
the supplementary adverb “though” from the preceding main clause (“They are
hardly pristine”) and uses a semicolon to join the two main clauses (“They…
though” and “many…objects”). Further, placing the semicolon after “though”
indicates that the information in the preceding main clause (chondrites are far
from pristine) is contrary to what might be assumed from the information in the
previous sentence (chondrites have been generally unaltered by their
environment).

Choice A is incorrect because placing the comma after “pristine” and using
“though” as a subordinating conjunction illogically indicates that the information
in the next main clause (many chondrites have experienced damage) is contrary
to the information in the previous clause (chondrites are far from pristine).
Choice C is incorrect because placing the semicolon after “pristine” illogically

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indicates that the information in the next main clause (many chondrites have
experienced damage) is contrary to the information in the previous clause
(chondrites are far from pristine). Choice D is incorrect because it results in a
comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, the comma after “though” can’t
be used in this way to join two main clauses.

QUESTION 26
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of
punctuation within a sentence. This choice uses a semicolon in a conventional
way to join the first main clause (“That the...involved”) and the second main clause
(“establishing...divisive”). Further, the semicolon is the most appropriate choice
when joining two separate, parallel statements, such as here, where the
information following the semicolon contrasts with the information before.

Choice A is incorrect because placing a colon after “involved” illogically indicates

that the information in the second main clause (the precise location was the
subject of disagreement) explains or amplifies the information in the previous
main clause (the general location was agreed upon by all). Instead, the information
in the second clause contrasts with the previous information. Choice B is
incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it,
a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Choice C is incorrect
because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses are fused without
punctuation and/or a conjunction.

QUESTION 27
Choice B is the best answer. “As a result” logically signals that the action
described in this sentence—closing the area around Garisenda Tower to explore
stabilization solutions—occurred as a consequence or result of measurements
revealing the tower’s concerning rotation.

Choice A is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the action of

closing the tower area is similar to the discovery of concerning rotation described
in the previous sentence. Instead, closing the area around the tower to explore
solutions occurred as a result of the measurements revealing the rotation.
Choice C is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the action of
closing the tower area serves as an example of the tower’s concerning rotation
described in the previous sentence. Instead, closing the area around the tower to
explore solutions occurred as a result of the measurements revealing the rotation.
Choice D is incorrect because “in comparison” illogically signals that the action of
closing the tower area is being compared to the discovery of concerning rotation
described in the previous sentence. Instead, closing the area around the tower to
explore solutions occurred as a result of the measurements revealing the rotation.

QUESTION 28
Choice D is the best answer. “Specifically” logically signals that the information in
this sentence—that the Local Bubble’s expansion trapped clouds of gas and dust
that formed new stars—provides specific, precise details elaborating on the more
general information in the previous sentence about the relationship between the
Local Bubble’s expansion and the formation of new stars.

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Choice A is incorrect because “hence” illogically signals that the information in

this sentence is a result of the information in the previous sentence about the
relationship between the Local Bubble’s expansion and the formation of new
stars. Instead, this sentence provides specific, precise details elaborating on that
information. Choice B is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the
information in this sentence contrasts with the information in the previous
sentence about the relationship between the Local Bubble’s expansion and the
formation of new stars. Instead, this sentence provides specific, precise details
elaborating on that information. Choice C is incorrect because “admittedly”
illogically signals that the information in this sentence provides an exception or
caveat to the previous information about the relationship between the Local
Bubble’s expansion and the formation of new stars. Instead, this sentence
provides specific, precise details elaborating on that information.

QUESTION 29
Choice A is the best answer. “In particular” logically signals that the information in
this sentence—that maize and wheat supply chains transformed North American
foodways into a global food system—provides specific, precise details
elaborating on the more general information in the previous sentence about the
transformation of North American foodways (with maize and wheat the “certain
grains” at the center of it).

Choice B is incorrect because “alternatively” illogically signals that the information

in this sentence is an alternative option to the previous information about the
transformation of North American foodways. Instead, the roles of maize and
wheat in creating a global food system are specific, precise details elaborating on
that information. Choice C is incorrect because “by comparison” illogically signals
that the information in this sentence is being compared to the previous
information about the transformation of North American foodways. Instead, the
roles of maize and wheat in creating a global food system are specific, precise
details elaborating on that information. Choice D is incorrect because “second of
all” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a second, separate
claim from the previous claim that North American foodways were transformed.
Instead, the roles of maize and wheat in creating a global food system are specific,
precise details elaborating on that information, rather than a separate claim.

QUESTION 30
Choice D is the best answer. “To that end” logically signals that the information in
this sentence—the students’ creation of a show with six starring female roles—is
the product of a goal or desire in the previous sentence (the students’ wish to
develop a musical with roles for female actors).

Choice A is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that the
information in this sentence is a paraphrase or restatement of the previous
information about the students’ wish to develop a musical with roles for female
actors. Instead, the students’ show is the product of that desire. Choice B is
incorrect because “in summary” illogically signals that the information in this
sentence summarizes the previous information about the students’ wish to

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develop a musical with roles for female actors. Instead, the students’ show is the
product of that desire. Choice C is incorrect because “for example” illogically
signals that the information in this sentence is merely an example of the previous
information about the students’ wish to develop a musical with roles for female
actors. Instead, the students’ show is the direct product of that desire.

QUESTION 31
Choice C is the best answer. “More often” logically signals that the claim in this
sentence—that new via ferratas favor recreation over utility—explains a
difference between the new “sporting activity” routes and the older “mode of
travel” routes. In so doing, it emphasizes and reinforces the previous claim
(“modern via ferratas are rarely designed to simply reach a summit”).

Choice A is incorrect because “additionally” illogically signals that this sentence’s

claim about new via ferratas adds a new, separate point to the previous claim
(“modern via ferratas are rarely designed to simply reach a summit”). Instead, the
second claim—that new routes favor recreation over utility—emphasizes and
reinforces the previous one. Choice B is incorrect because “on the other hand”
illogically signals that this sentence’s claim about new via ferratas contrasts with
or opposes the previous claim (“modern via ferratas are rarely designed to simply
reach a summit”). Instead, the second claim—that new routes favor recreation
over utility—emphasizes and reinforces the previous one. Choice D is incorrect
because “nonetheless” illogically signals that this sentence’s claim about new via
ferratas is true despite the previous claim (“modern via ferratas are rarely
designed to simply reach a summit”). Instead, the second claim—that new routes
favor recreation over utility—emphasizes and reinforces the previous one.

QUESTION 32
Choice A is the best answer. The sentence indicates the title of a novel that won a
Nebula Award, noting that Babel-17 by Samuel Delany won the award in 1967.

Choice B is incorrect because the sentence identifies the year that Samuel Delany
published a science fiction novel; it doesn’t indicate the novel’s title or that it won
a Nebula Award. Choice C is incorrect because the sentence provides an
introduction of Samuel Delany; it doesn’t indicate the title of a novel that has won
a Nebula Award. Choice D is incorrect because the sentence indicates that one of
Samuel Delany’s novels met the qualification for a Nebula Award; it doesn’t
indicate the novel’s title or that it won an award.

QUESTION 33
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence indicates the year Yosemite Falls was
completed, stating that it was completed in 1930.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence indicates where Obata created black ink
paintings; it doesn’t indicate when the painting was completed. Choice B is
incorrect. While the sentence identifies Obata as an artist who created a notable
painting, it doesn’t indicate when that painting was completed. Choice D is
incorrect. The sentence identifies the method Obata used; it doesn’t indicate
when the painting was completed.

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Math
Module 1
(27 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice B is correct. In the given scatterplot, the x-values represent the distance
above sea level, in feet, and the y-values represent the temperature, in °F. The
point on the line of best fit with an x-value of 4,000 has a corresponding y-value
of 35. Therefore, at a distance of 4,000 feet above sea level, the temperature
predicted by the line of best fit is 35°F.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the temperature, in °F, predicted by the line of best fit
at a distance of 0 feet above sea level. Choice C is incorrect. This is the measured
temperature, in °F, at a distance of 6,000 feet above sea level. Choice D is
incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 2
Choice D is correct. It’s given that rectangle P has an area of 72 square inches. If
a rectangle with an area of 20 square inches is removed from rectangle P, the
area, in square inches, of the resulting figure is 72 - 20, or 52.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 3
Choice B is correct. Subtracting 61 from each side of the given equation yields
p = 4. By the definition of absolute value, if p = 4, then p = 4 or p =-4. Of the
given choices, 4 is a solution to the given equation.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the quotient, not the difference, of 65 and 61.
Choice C is incorrect. This is the sum, not the difference, of 65 and 61. Choice D is
incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

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QUESTION 4
Choice A is correct. It’s given that p represents the number of pounds of
strawberries Lorenzo purchased and Lorenzo paid $1.90 per pound for the
strawberries. It follows that the total amount, in dollars, Lorenzo paid for
strawberries can be represented by 1.90p. It’s given that Lorenzo paid $2 for the
box of cereal. If Lorenzo paid a total of $9.60 for the box of cereal and
strawberries, it follows that the equation 1.90p + 2 = 9.60 can be used to find p.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect
and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from
conceptual errors.

QUESTION 5
Choice D is correct. It’s given that the bar graph summarizes the charge, in
kilowatt-hours ^kWhh, a battery received each day for 15 days. The height of each
bar in the bar graph shown represents the number of days the battery received
the charge, in kWh, specified at the bottom of the bar. The bar for a charge of
0 kWh reaches a height of 6. Therefore, the battery received a charge of 0 kWh
for 6 of these days.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the charge, in kWh, that the battery received, not the
number of days the battery received this charge. Choice B is incorrect. This is the
number of days the battery received a charge of either 8, 16, or 23 kWh. Choice C
is incorrect. This is the number of days the battery received a charge of 11 kWh.

QUESTION 6
The correct answer is 9. It’s given that the equation y = px + r defines the line. In
this equation, p represents the slope of the line and r represents the
y-coordinate of the y-intercept of the line. It’s given that the line has a slope of 9.
Therefore, the value of p is 9.

QUESTION 7
The correct answer is either 14, -5, or -4. The x-intercepts of a graph in the
xy-plane are the points at which the graph intersects the x-axis, or when the
value of y is 0. Substituting 0 for y in the given equation yields
0 = 3 ^x - 14h^x + 5h^x + 4h. Dividing both sides of this equation by 3 yields
0 =^x - 14h^x + 5h^x + 4h. Applying the zero product property to this equation
yields three equations: x - 14 = 0, x + 5 = 0, and x + 4 = 0. Adding 14 to both
sides of the equation x - 14 = 0 yields x = 14, subtracting 5 from both sides of
the equation x + 5 = 0 yields x =-5, and subtracting 4 from both sides of the
equation x + 4 = 0 yields x =-4. Therefore, the x-coordinates of the x-intercepts
of the graph of the given equation are 14, -5, and -4. Note that 14, -5, and -4 are
examples of ways to enter a correct answer.

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QUESTION 8
Choice A is correct. It’s given that the graph shown gives the estimated value y,
in dollars, of a tablet as a function of the number of months since it was
purchased, x. The y-intercept of a graph is the point at which the graph intersects
the y-axis, or when x is 0. The graph shown intersects the y-axis at the point
^0, 225h. It follows that 0 months after the tablet was purchased, or when the
tablet was purchased, the estimated value of the tablet was 225 dollars.
Therefore, the best interpretation of the y-intercept is that the estimated value of
the tablet was $225 when it was purchased.

Choice B is incorrect. The estimated value of the tablet 24 months after it was
purchased was $50, not $225. Choice C is incorrect. The estimated value of the
tablet had decreased by $225 - $50, or $175, not $225, in the 24 months after it
was purchased. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors.

QUESTION 9
Choice B is correct. It’s given that triangles EFG and JKL are congruent such that
angle E corresponds to angle J. Corresponding angles of congruent triangles
are congruent, so angle E and angle J must be congruent. Therefore, if the
measure of angle E is 45°, then the measure of angle J is also 45°.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the measure of angle K , not angle J. Choice C is

incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is
incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 10
Choice D is correct. It’s given that the function f is defined by f ^xh= 12 ^x + 6h.
Substituting 4 for x in the given function yields f ^4h= 12 ^4 + 6h, or f ^4h= 5.
Therefore, the value of f ^4h is 5.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the value of 2 ^4 + 6h, not 12 ^4 + 6h. Choice B is

incorrect. This is the value of 2 + ^4 + 6h, not 12 ^4 + 6h. Choice C is incorrect. This
is the value of 4 + 6, not 12 ^4 + 6h.

QUESTION 11
Choice C is correct. The solution to a system of two equations corresponds to
the point where the graphs of the equations intersect. The graphs of the linear
function and the absolute value function shown intersect at a point with an
x-coordinate between -4 and -3 and a y-coordinate between 4 and 5. Of the
given choices, only b- 72 , 92 l has an x-coordinate between -4 and -3 and a
y-coordinate between 4 and 5.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the y-intercept of the graph of the linear function.
Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect. This is the vertex of the graph of the absolute value
function.

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QUESTION 12
Choice D is correct. It’s given that the system has infinitely many solutions. A
system of two linear equations has infinitely many solutions when the two linear
equations are equivalent. When one equation is a multiple of another equation,
the two equations are equivalent. Multiplying each side of the given equation by 2
yields 2 ^y h= 2 ^6x + 3h. Thus, 2 ^y h= 2 ^6x + 3h is equivalent to the given equation
and could be the second equation in the system.

Choice A is incorrect. The system consisting of this equation and the given
equation has one solution rather than infinitely many solutions. Choice B is
incorrect. The system consisting of this equation and the given equation has one
solution rather than infinitely many solutions. Choice C is incorrect. The system
consisting of this equation and the given equation has no solutions rather than
infinitely many solutions.

QUESTION 13
The correct answer is 294. Subtracting 18 from each side of the given equation
yields 67 p = 36. Multiplying each side of this equation by 7
6
yields p = 42.
Multiplying each side of this equation by 7 yields 7p = 294. Therefore, the value of
7p is 294.

QUESTION 14
The correct answer is 3. It’s given that y = 9x + 12. Substituting 9x + 12 for y in
the second equation in the system, x + 7y = 20, yields x + 7 ^9x + 12h= 20, which
gives x + 63x + 84 = 20, or 64x + 84 = 20. Subtracting 84 from each side of this
equation yields 64x =-64. Dividing each side of this equation by 64 yields
x =-1. Substituting -1 for x in the first equation in the system, y = 9x + 12,
yields y = 9 ^-1h + 12, or y = 3. Therefore, the value of y is 3.

QUESTION 15
Choice A is correct. For a circle in the xy-plane that has the equation
^x - hh2 + ^y - kh2 = r 2 , where h, k, and r are constants, ^h, kh is the center of the
circle and the positive value of r is the radius of the circle. In the given equation,
h = 13 and r 2 = 64. Taking the square root of each side of r 2 = 64 yields r =!8.
Therefore, the center of the circle is at ^13, kh and the radius is 8.

Choice B is incorrect. This gives the center and radius of a circle with equation
^x - kh2 + ^y - 13h2 = 64, not ^x - 13h2 + ^y - kh2 = 64. Choice C is incorrect. This
gives the center and radius of a circle with equation ^x - kh2 + ^y - 13h2 = 4,096,
not ^x - 13h2 + ^y - kh2 = 64. Choice D is incorrect. This gives the center and
radius of a circle with equation ^x - 13h2 + ^y - kh2 = 4,096, not
^x - 13h2 + ^y - kh2 = 64.

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 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

QUESTION 16
Choice C is correct. It’s given that the function f is defined by f ^xh= x - 4x . It’s
also given that f ^5h - f ^ah=-15. Substituting 5 for x in the function
f ^xh= x - 4x yields f ^5h= 5 - 4 ^5h and substituting a for x in the function
f ^xh= x - 4x yields f ^ah= a - 4a . Therefore, f ^5h= 15 and f ^ah= -3a .
Substituting 15 for f ^5h and -3a for f ^ah in the equation f ^5h - f ^ah=-15
yields 15 - -3a =-15. Subtracting 15 from both sides of this equation yields
- -3a =-30. Dividing both sides of this equation by -1 yields -3a = 30. By
the definition of absolute value, if -3a = 30, then -3a = 30 or -3a =-30.
Dividing both sides of each of these equations by -3 yields a =-10 or a = 10,
respectively. Thus, of the given choices, a value of a that satisfies
f ^5h - f ^ah=-15 is 10.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 17
Choice B is correct. Each of the given choices is an equation of the form
f ^xh= a ^bhx - k , where a, b, and k are constants. For an equation of this form, the
coefficient, a, is equal to the value of the function when the exponent is equal to
0, or when x = k . It follows that in the equation f ^xh= 33 ^1.5hx , the coefficient, 33,
is equal to the value of f ^0h. Substituting 0 for x in this equation yields
f ^0h= 33 ^1.5h0 , which is equivalent to f ^0h= 33 ^1h, or f ^0h= 33. Thus, the value of
c is 33 and the equation f ^xh= 33 ^1.5hx shows the value of c as the coefficient.

Choice A is incorrect. This equation shows the value of f ^-1h, not f ^0h, as the
coefficient. Choice C is incorrect. This equation shows the value of f ^1h, not f ^0h,
as the coefficient. Choice D is incorrect. This equation shows the value of f ^2h, not
f ^0h, as the coefficient.

QUESTION 18
Choice B is correct. It’s given that t minutes after an initial observation, the
t
number of bacteria in a population is 40,000 ^2h790 . This expression consists of the
t
initial number of bacteria, 40,000, multiplied by the expression 2 790 . The time, in
minutes, it takes for the number of bacteria to double is the increase in the value
t
of t that causes the expression 2 790 to double. Since the base is 2, the expression
t
2 790 will double when the exponent increases by 1. Since the exponent of this
t
expression is 790 , the exponent will increase by 1 when t increases by 790.
Therefore, the time, in minutes, it takes for the number of bacteria in the
population to double is 790.

Alternate approach: The initial number of bacteria in the population can be found
by substituting 0 for t in the given function. This yields f ^0h= 40,000 ^2h790 , or
0

f ^0h= 40,000. Therefore, the initial number of bacteria present in the population is
40,000, so the bacteria population will have doubled when f ^t h= 80,000.

35 SAT PRACTICE TEST #7 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

t
Substituting 80,000 for f ^t h in the given function yields 80,000 = 40,000 ^2h790 .
t t
Dividing both sides of this equation by 40,000 yields 2 = 2 790 , or 2 = 2 790 . It
1

t
follows that 1 = 790 . Multiplying both sides of this equation by 790 yields 790= t .
Therefore, the time, in minutes, it takes for the number of bacteria in the
population to double is 790.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the base of the exponent, not the time it takes for the
number of bacteria in the population to double. Choice C is incorrect. This is the
number of minutes it takes for the population to double twice. Choice D is
incorrect. This is the number of bacteria that are initially observed, not the time it
takes for the number of bacteria in the population to double.

QUESTION 19
2
Choice D is correct. Adding t
to each side of the given equation yields
12
n
=- w2 + 2t . The fractions on the right side of this equation have a common
denominator of tw; therefore, the equation can be written as 12 n
= 2tww - tw
2t
, or
2w - 2t 2^w - th
12
n
= tw , which is equivalent to n = tw . Dividing each side of this equation
12

by 2 yields 6n = wtw -t
. Since n, t, w, and w - t are all positive quantities, taking the
reciprocal of each side of the equation 6n = wtw -t
yields an equivalent equation:
n
6
tw
= w - t . Multiplying each side of this equation by 6 yields n = w6- tw
t
.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice C is incorrect. This is equivalent to 1n rather than n.

QUESTION 20
The correct answer is 5. For the graph shown, x represents time, in minutes, and
y represents temperature, in degrees Celsius ^°Ch. Therefore, the average rate of
change, in °C per minute, of the recorded temperature of the air in the chamber
between two x-values is the difference in the corresponding y-values divided by
the difference in the x-values. The graph shows that at x = 5, the corresponding
y-value is 14. The graph also shows that at x = 7, the corresponding y-value is 24.
It follows that the average rate of change, in °C per minute, from x = 5 to x = 7 is
24 - 14
7-5
, which is equivalent to 10
2
, or 5.

QUESTION 21
The correct answer is 87. It’s given that in August, the car dealer completed 15
more than 3 times the number of sales the car dealer completed in September.
Let x represent the number of sales the car dealer completed in September. It
follows that 3x + 15 represents the number of sales the car dealer completed in
August. It’s also given that in August and September, the car dealer completed
363 sales. It follows that x + ^3x + 15h= 363, or 4x + 15 = 363. Subtracting 15
from each side of this equation yields 4x = 348. Dividing each side of this
equation by 4 yields x = 87. Therefore, the car dealer completed 87 sales in
September.

36 SAT PRACTICE TEST #7 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

QUESTION 22
Choice B is correct. Since it’s given that P is the center of a circle with a radius of
9 inches, and that points Q and R lie on that circle, it follows that PQ and RP of
triangle PQR each have a length of 9 inches. Let the length of QR be x inches. It
follows that the perimeter of triangle PQR is 9 + 9 + x inches. Since it’s given that
the perimeter of triangle PQR is 31 inches, it follows that 9 + 9 + x = 31, or
18 + x = 31. Subtracting 18 from both sides of this equation gives x = 13.
Therefore, the length, in inches, of QR is 13.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 23
Choice A is correct. It’s given that the four odd integers are consecutive, ordered
from least to greatest, and that the first odd integer is represented by x. It follows
that the second odd integer is represented by x + 2, the third odd integer is
represented by x + 4, and the fourth odd integer is represented by x + 6.
Therefore, the product of 12 and the fourth odd integer is represented by
12 ^x + 6h, and 26 less than the sum of the first and third odd integers is
represented by x + ^x + 4h - 26. Since the product of 12 and the fourth odd
integer is at most 26 less than the sum of the first and third odd integers, it
follows that 12 ^x + 6h# x + ^x + 4h - 26.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 24
Choice B is correct. The linear relationship between x and y can be represented
by an equation of the form y - y1 = m ^x - x1h, where m is the slope of the graph of
the equation in the xy-plane and ^x1, y1h is a point on the graph. The slope of a line
y -y
can be found using two points on the line and the slope formula m = x2 - x1 . Each
2 1
value of x and its corresponding value of y in the table can be represented by a
point ^x, y h. Substituting the points ^-s, 21h and ^s, 15h for ^x1, y1h and ^x2, y2h,
respectively, in the slope formula yields m = s15 - 21
-^-sh
, which gives m = -6
2s
, or
m =- 3s . Substituting - 3s for m and the point ^s, 15h for ^x1, y1h in the equation
y - y1 = m ^x - x1h yields y - 15 =- 3s ^x - sh. Distributing - 3s on the right-hand
side of this equation yields y - 15 =- 3sx + 3. Adding 15 to each side of this
equation yields y =- 3sx + 18. Multiplying each side of this equation by s yields
sy =-3x + 18s. Adding 3x to each side of this equation yields 3x + sy = 18s.
Therefore, the equation 3x + sy = 18s represents this relationship.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

37 SAT PRACTICE TEST #7 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

QUESTION 25
Choice C is correct. The sine of an angle is equal to the cosine of its
complementary angle. Since angles with measures 24° and 66° are
complementary to each other, sin 24° is equal to cos 66° and sin 66° is
equal to cos 24°. Substituting cos 66° for sin 24° and cos 24° for sin 66°
in the given expression yields ^cos 66°h^cos 66°h + ^cos 24°h^cos 24°h, or
^cos 66°h2 + ^cos 24°h2 .

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 26
Choice A is correct. It’s given that the cost of renting a carpet cleaner is $52 for
the first day and $26 for each additional day. Therefore, the cost C ^dh, in dollars,
of renting the carpet cleaner for d days is the sum of the cost for the first day,
$52, and the cost for the additional d - 1 days, $26 ^d - 1h. It follows that
C ^dh= 52 + 26 ^d - 1h, which is equivalent to C ^dh= 52 + 26d - 26, or
C ^dh= 26d + 26.

Choice B is incorrect. This function gives the cost of renting a carpet cleaner for
d days if the cost is $78, not $52, for the first day and $26 for each additional
day. Choice C is incorrect. This function gives the cost of renting a carpet cleaner
for d days if the cost is $26, not $52, for the first day and $52, not $26, for each
additional day. Choice D is incorrect. This function gives the cost of renting a
carpet cleaner for d days if the cost is $130, not $52, for the first day and $52,
not $26, for each additional day.

QUESTION 27
The correct answer is - 13
2
. The value of x for which f ^xh reaches its minimum can
be found by rewriting the given equation in the form f ^xh=^x - hh2 + k , where f ^xh
reaches its minimum, k, when the value of x is h. The given equation,
f ^xh=^x - 2h^x + 15h, can be rewritten as f ^xh= x 2 + 13x - 30. By completing the
square, this equation can be rewritten as f ^xh=a x 2 + 13x + ` 13 j k - 30 - ` 2 j ,
2 13 2
2

which is equivalent to f ^xh=`x + 13 j - 4 , or f ^xh=` x - `- 2 jj - 4 . Therefore,

2892 13 289 2
2
f ^xh reaches its minimum when the value of x is - 13
2
. Note that -13/2 and -6.5 are
examples of ways to enter a correct answer.

Alternate approach: The graph of y = f ^xh in the xy-plane is a parabola. The value
of x for the vertex of a parabola is the x-value of the midpoint between the two
x-intercepts of the parabola. Since it’s given that f ^xh=^x - 2h^x + 15h, it follows
that the two x-intercepts of the graph of y = f ^xh in the xy-plane occur when x = 2
and x =-15, or at the points ^2, 0h and ^-15, 0h. The midpoint between two
points, ^x1, y1h and ^x2, y2h, is c , 2 m. Therefore, the midpoint between
x1 + x2 y1 + y2
2

^2, 0h and ^-15, 0h is b 2 - 15 , 0 + 0 l, or b - 13 , 0 l. It follows that f ^xh reaches its

2 2 2

minimum when the value of x is - 13

2
. Note that -13/2 and -6.5 are examples of
ways to enter a correct answer.

38 SAT PRACTICE TEST #7 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

Math
Module 2
(27 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice A is correct. It’s given that a total of 165 people contributed to a charity
event as either a donor or a volunteer. It’s also given that 130 people contributed
as a donor. It follows that 165 - 130, or 35, people contributed as a volunteer.

Choice B is incorrect. This is the number of people who contributed as a donor,

not a volunteer. Choice C is incorrect. This is the total number of people who
contributed as either a donor or a volunteer, not the number of people who
contributed as a volunteer. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual
or calculation errors.

QUESTION 2
Choice B is correct. It’s given that there are 250 trees in a park and of these trees,
6% are birch trees. The number of birch trees in the park can be calculated by
multiplying the number of trees in the park by 6
100
. Therefore, the number of birch
trees in the park is 250 b 100
6
l, or 15.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the percentage of trees in the park that are birch
trees, not the number of birch trees in the park. Choice C is incorrect. This is 30%,
not 6%, of 250. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or
calculation errors.

QUESTION 3
Choice C is correct. The vertex of the graph of a quadratic function in the
xy-plane is the point at which the graph is either at its minimum or maximum
y-value. In the graph shown, the minimum y-value occurs at the point ^0, 2h.

Choice A is incorrect. The graph shown doesn’t pass through the point ^0, - 2h.
Choice B is incorrect. The graph shown doesn’t pass through the point ^0, - 3h.
Choice D is incorrect. The graph shown doesn’t pass through the point ^0, 3h.

39 SAT PRACTICE TEST #7 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 4
Choice A is correct. It’s given that there are 2,358 raccoons in a 131-square-mile
area. The estimated population density, in raccoons per square mile, is the
estimated number of raccoons divided by the number of square miles. Therefore,
the estimated population density of this area is 131
2,358 raccoons
square miles
, or 18 raccoons per
square mile.

Choice B is incorrect. This is the number of square miles in the area, not the
estimated number of raccoons per square mile in this area. Choice C is incorrect
and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect and
may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 5
Choice B is correct. The probability of selecting a positive number is the number
of positive numbers in the data set divided by the total number of numbers in the
data set. There is 1 positive number in this data set. There are 3 total numbers in
this data set. Thus, if a number from this data set is selected at random, the
probability of selecting a positive number is 13 .

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect. This is the probability of selecting a negative number from
this data set. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation
errors.

QUESTION 6
The correct answer is 2,850. It’s given that the function f ^xh= 45x + 600 gives the
monthly fee, in dollars, a facility charges to keep x crates in storage. Substituting
50 for x in this function yields f ^50h= 45 ^50h + 600, or f ^50h= 2,850. Therefore,
the monthly fee, in dollars, the facility charges to keep 50 crates in storage is
2,850.

QUESTION 7
The correct answer is 11
4
. It’s given that the function f is defined by

f `x j= 5 b 14 - x l
2
+ 4 . Substituting 14 for x in this equation yields
11

f b 14 l= 5 b 14 - 14 l + 11 , which is equivalent f ` 14 j= 5 ^0h2 + 11 , or f b 14 l= 11

2

4 4 4
. Therefore,

the value of f b 14 l is 11
4
. Note that 11/4 or 2.75 are examples of ways to enter a
correct answer.

QUESTION 8
Choice C is correct. It’s given that 8x = 6. Multiplying each side of this equation by
9 yields 72x = 54. Therefore, the value of 72x is 54.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the value of 4x , not 72x . Choice B is incorrect and
may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect and may
result from conceptual or calculation errors.

40 SAT PRACTICE TEST #7 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 9
Choice C is correct. Since x is a common factor of each term in the given
expression, the given expression can be rewritten as x ^23x 2 + 2x + 9h.

Choice A is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to 23x 3 + 46x 2 + 207x .

Choice B is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to 207x 4 + 18x 3 + 9x .
Choice D is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to 34x 3 + 34x 2 + 34x .

QUESTION 10
Choice D is correct. The given expression can be rewritten as
^9x 3 + 6x 3h + 5x 2 + 5x + ^7 - 5h. Combining like terms in this expression yields
15x 3 + 5x 2 + 5x + 2.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 11
Choice D is correct. It’s given that the equation 80S + 90C = 1,120 represents
this situation, where S is the number of square tokens won, C is the number of
circle tokens won, and 1,120 is the total number of points the tokens are worth. It
follows that 80S represents the total number of points the square tokens are
worth. Therefore, each square token is worth 80 points. It also follows that 90C
represents the total number of points the circle tokens are worth. Therefore, each
circle token is worth 90 points. Since a circle token is worth 90 points and a
square token is worth 80 points, then a circle token is worth 90 - 80, or 10, more
points than a square token.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect. This is the number of points a circle token is worth.
Choice C is incorrect. This is the number of points a square token is worth.

QUESTION 12
Choice D is correct. A line in the xy-plane that passes through the points ^x1, y1h
and ^x2, y2h has a slope of
y2 - y1
x2 - x1
. The line of best fit shown passes approximately
through the points ^1, 3.3h and ^7, 14.5h. It follows that the slope of this best fit
line is approximately 14.5 - 3.3
7-1
, which is equivalent to 116.2 , or approximately 1.87.
Therefore, of the given choices, 2 is closest to the slope of the line of best fit
shown.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

41 SAT PRACTICE TEST #7 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 13
The correct answer is 4.41. The area, A, of a circle is given by the formula A = rr 2 ,
where r is the radius of the circle. It’s given that the area of the circle is br square
inches, where b is a constant, and the radius of the circle is 2.1 inches.
Substituting br for A and 2.1 for r in the formula A = rr 2 yields br = r ^2.1 2h.
Dividing both sides of this equation by r yields b = 4.41. Therefore, the value of b
is 4.41.

QUESTION 14
The correct answer is 153. Since it’s given that PQ is parallel to XY and angle Y
is a right angle, angle ZQP is also a right angle. Angle ZPQ is complementary to
angle XZY , which means its measure, in degrees, is 90 - 63, or 27. Since
angle XPQ is supplementary to angle ZPQ, its measure, in degrees, is 180 - 27,
or 153.

QUESTION 15
Choice C is correct. It’s given that t represents the number of years since the
t
account was opened. Therefore, 10 represents the number of 10-year periods
since the account was opened. Since the value of the account doubles during
each of these 10-year periods, the value of the account can be found by
t
t
multiplying the initial value by 10
factors of 2. This is equivalent to 2 10 . It’s given
that the initial value of the account is $890. Therefore, the value of the account
M ^t h, in dollars, t years after the account was opened can be represented by
M ^t h= 890 ^2h10 .
t

Choice A is incorrect. This equation represents the value of an account if the

value of the account halves, not doubles, every 10 years. Choice B is incorrect.
This equation represents the value of an account if the value of the account
decreases by 90%, not doubles, every 2, not 10, years. Choice D is incorrect. This
equation represents the value of an account if the value of the account increases
by a factor of 10, not doubles, every 2, not 10, years.

QUESTION 16
Choice A is correct. The inequality y < x indicates that for any solution to the
given system of inequalities, the value of x must be greater than the
corresponding value of y. The inequality x < 22 indicates that for any solution to
the given system of inequalities, the value of x must be less than 22. Of the given
choices, only choice A contains values of x that are each greater than the
corresponding value of y and less than 22. Therefore, for choice A, all the values
of x and their corresponding values of y are solutions to the given system of
inequalities.

Choice B is incorrect. The values in this table aren’t solutions to the inequality
y < x . Choice C is incorrect. The values in this table aren’t solutions to the
inequality x < 22. Choice D is incorrect. The values in this table aren’t solutions to
the inequality y < x or the inequality x < 22.

42 SAT PRACTICE TEST #7 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 17
am
Choice A is correct. For positive values of a, = a^m - nh, where m and n are
an
integers. Since it’s given that h > 0 and q > 0, this property can be applied to
rewrite the given expression as ^h^15 - 5hh^q^7 - 21hh, which is equivalent to h 10 q -14 . For
positive values of a, a -n = 1n . This property can be applied to rewrite the
a
expression h 10 q -14 as ^h 10hc 1
m, which is equivalent to
h 10
.
q 14 q 14

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 18
Choice D is correct. Adding the second equation to the first equation in the given
system of equations yields 3y - 3y = 4x + 9x + 17 - 23, or 0 = 13x - 6. Adding 6
to each side of this equation yields 6 = 13x . Multiplying each side of this equation
by 3 yields 18 = 39x . Therefore, the value of 39x is 18.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the value of -39x , not 39x . Choice B is incorrect.
This is the value of -13x , not 39x . Choice C is incorrect. This is the value of 13x ,
not 39x .

QUESTION 19
Choice B is correct. It’s given that the function h estimates that the object is
3,364 feet above the ground when it’s dropped at t = 0. Substituting 3,364 for
h ^t h and 0 for t in the function h yields 3,364 =-16 ^0h2 + b, or 3,364= b.
Substituting 3,364 for b in the function h yields h ^t h=-16t 2 + 3,364. When the
object hits the ground, its height will be 0 feet above the ground. Substituting 0
for h ^t h in h ^t h=-16t 2 + 3,364 yields 0 =-16t 2 + 3,364. Adding 16t 2 to each
side of this equation yields 16t 2 = 3,364. Dividing each side of this equation by 16
yields t 2 = 210.25. Since the object will hit the ground at a positive number of
seconds after it’s dropped, the value of t can be found by taking the positive
square root of each side of this equation, which yields t = 14.50. It follows that the
function estimates the object will hit the ground approximately 14.50 seconds
after being dropped.

Choice A is incorrect. The function estimates that 7.25 seconds after being
dropped, the object’s height will be -16 ^7.25h2 + 3,364 feet, or 2,523 feet, above
the ground. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation
errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

43 SAT PRACTICE TEST #7 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 20
The correct answer is 120. The solutions to a quadratic equation of the form
ax 2 + bx + c = 0 can be calculated using the quadratic formula and are given by
x = -b ! b 2 - 4ac
2a
. The given equation is in the form ax 2 + bx + c = 0, where a = 2,
b =-8, and c =-7. It follows that the solutions to the given equation are
8 ! ^-8h - 4^2h^-7h
2
x= 2^2h
, which is equivalent to x = 8! 64 + 56
4
, or x = 8 ! 4120 . It’s
8- k
given that one solution to the equation 2x 2 - 8x - 7 = 0 can be written as 4
.
The solution 8 - 120
4
is in this form. Therefore, the value of k is 120.

QUESTION 21
The correct answer is 1,660. It’s given that a line intersects two parallel lines,
forming four acute angles and four obtuse angles. When two parallel lines are
intersected by a transversal line, the angles formed have the following properties:
two adjacent angles are supplementary, and alternate interior angles are
congruent. Therefore, each of the four acute angles have the same measure, and
each of the four obtuse angles have the same measure. It’s also given that the
measure of one of the acute angles is ^9x - 560h °. If two angles are
supplementary, then the sum of their measures is 180°. Therefore, the measure of
the obtuse angle adjacent to any of the acute angles is ^180 - ^9x - 560hh °, or
^180 - 9x + 560h °, which is equivalent to ^-9x + 740h °. It’s given that the sum of
the measures of one of the acute angles and three of the obtuse angles is
^-18x + w h °. It follows that ^9x - 560h + 3 ^-9x + 740h=^-18x + w h, which is
equivalent to 9x - 560 - 27x + 2,220 =-18x + w , or -18x + 1,660 =-18x + w .
Adding 18x to both sides of this equation yields 1,660= w .

QUESTION 22
Choice B is correct. An equation that defines a linear function f can be written in
the form f ^xh= mx + b, where m and b are constants. It’s given in the table that
when x =-4, f ^xh= 0. Substituting -4 for x and 0 for f ^xh in the equation
f ^xh= mx + b yields 0 = m ^-4h + b, or 0 =-4m + b. Adding 4m to both sides of
this equation yields 4m = b. Substituting 4m for b in the equation f ^xh= mx + b
yields f ^xh= mx + 4m. It’s also given in the table that when x =- 19
5
, f ^xh= 1.
Substituting - 19
5
for x and 1 for f ^xh in the equation f ^xh= mx + 4m yields
1 = m b- 19
5
l + 4m, or 1 = 5 m. Multiplying both sides of this equation by 5 yields
1

m = 5. Substituting 5 for m in the equation f ^xh= mx + 4m yields f ^xh= 5x + 4 ^5h,

or f ^xh= 5x + 20. If h ^xh= f ^xh - 13, substituting 5x + 20 for f ^xh in this equation
yields h ^xh=^5x + 20h - 13, or h ^xh= 5x + 7.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect. This is an equation that defines the linear function f , not h.

44 SAT PRACTICE TEST #7 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 23
Choice C is correct. It’s given that g ^c + 7h= 4c . Therefore, for the given linear
function g, when x = c + 7, g ^xh= 4c . Substituting c + 7 for x and c
4
for g ^xh in
g ^xh= b - 15x yields 4c = b - 15 ^c + 7h. Applying the distributive property to the
right-hand side of this equation yields 4c = b - 15c - 105. Adding 15c to both
sides of this equation yields 4c + 15c = b - 105. Adding 105 to both sides of this
equation yields 4c + 15c + 105 = b, or 614c + 105 = b. Therefore, the expression
that represents the value of b is 614c + 105.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 24
Choice B is correct. It’s given that angle Z in triangle XYZ is a right angle. Thus,
side YZ is the leg opposite angle X and side XZ is the leg adjacent to angle X .
The tangent of an acute angle in a right triangle is the ratio of the length of the leg
opposite the angle to the length of the leg adjacent to the angle. It follows that
YZ
tan X = XZ . It’s given that tan X = 12
35
and the length of side YZ is 24 units.
YZ
Substituting 12
35
for tan X and 24 for YZ in the equation tan X = XZ yields 12
35
24
= XZ .
Multiplying both sides of this equation by 35 ^XZ h yields 12 ^XZ h= 24 ^35h, or
12 ^XZ h= 840. Dividing both sides of this equation by 12 yields XZ = 70. The
length XY can be calculated using the Pythagorean theorem, which states that if
a right triangle has legs with lengths of a and b and a hypotenuse with length c,
then a 2 + b 2 = c 2 . Substituting 70 for a and 24 for b in this equation yields
70 2 + 24 2 = c 2 , or 5,476 = c 2 . Taking the square root of both sides of this equation
yields !74 = c. Since the length of the hypotenuse must be positive, 74= c.
Therefore, the length of XY is 74 units. The perimeter of a triangle is the sum of
the lengths of all sides. Thus, ^74 + 70 + 24h units, or 168 units, is the perimeter
of triangle XYZ .

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect. This would be the perimeter, in units, for a right triangle
where the length of side YZ is 12 units, not 24 units. Choice D is incorrect and
may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 25
Choice C is correct. It’s given that in the xy-plane, the graph of the given
equation is a circle. The equation of a circle in the xy-plane can be written
in the form ^x - hh2 + ^y - kh2 = r 2 , where ^h, kh is the center of the circle
and r is the length of the circle’s radius. Subtracting 6y from both sides
of the equation x 2 + 14x + y 2 = 6y + 109 yields x 2 + 14x + y 2 - 6y = 109.
By completing the square, this equation can be rewritten as
a x + 14x + ` 2 j k + ay - 6y + ` 2 j k= 109 + ` 2 j + ` 2 j . This equation
2 14 2 2 -6 2 14 2 -6 2

45 SAT PRACTICE TEST #7 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

can be rewritten as ^x 2 + 14x + 49h + ^y 2 - 6y + 9h= 109 + 49 + 9, or

^x + 7h2 + ^y - 3h2 = 167. Therefore, r 2 = 167. Taking the square root of both
sides of this equation yields r = 167 and r =- 167 . Since r is the length
of the circle’s radius, r must be positive. Therefore, the length of the circle’s
radius is 167.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 26
Choice B is correct. It’s given that the speed of a vehicle is increasing at a rate of
7.3 meters per second squared. It’s given to use 1 mile = 1,609 meters. There are
60 seconds in 1 minute; therefore, 60 2 or 3,600 seconds squared is equal to
1 minute squared. It follows that the rate of 7.3 meters per second squared is
equivalent to a 1 second ka ka k, or approximately
7.3 meters 1 mile 3,600 seconds squared
squared 1,609 meters 1 minute squared
16.33 miles per minute squared. The rate, in miles per minute squared, rounded
to the nearest tenth is 16.3.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 27
The correct answer is 14. It’s given by the first equation of the system of
equations that y =-2.5. Substituting -2.5 for y in the second given equation,
y = x 2 + 8x + k , yields -2.5 = x 2 + 8x + k . Adding 2.5 to both sides of this
equation yields 0 = x 2 + 8x + k + 2.5. A quadratic equation of the form
0 = ax 2 + bx + c, where a, b, and c are constants, has no real solutions if and only
if its discriminant, b 2 - 4ac, is negative. In the equation 0 = x 2 + 8x + k + 2.5,
where k is a positive integer constant, a = 1, b = 8, and c = k + 2.5. Substituting 1
for a, 8 for b, and k + 2.5 for c in b 2 - 4ac yields 8 2 - 4 ^1h^k + 2.5h, or
64 - 4 ^k + 2.5h. Since this value must be negative, 64 - 4 ^k + 2.5h< 0. Adding
4 ^k + 2.5h to both sides of this inequality yields 64 < 4 ^k + 2.5h. Dividing both
sides of this inequality by 4 yields 16 < k + 2.5. Subtracting 2.5 from both sides of
this inequality yields 13.5< k . Since k is a positive integer constant, the least
possible value of k is 14.

46 SAT PRACTICE TEST #7 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS