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GS-RRB-NTPC Mock-02

The document contains a series of mock exam questions and answers covering various topics including Indian governance, environmental science, and biology. Key highlights include the appointment of Gyanesh Kumar as the Chief Election Commissioner, Brazil hosting the BRICS summit in 2025, and Maharashtra forming a task force for an AI policy. Additionally, it discusses the SVAMITVA Scheme for property rights in rural areas and the projected economic growth rate of India at 6.7% for 2025-2027.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
13 views10 pages

GS-RRB-NTPC Mock-02

The document contains a series of mock exam questions and answers covering various topics including Indian governance, environmental science, and biology. Key highlights include the appointment of Gyanesh Kumar as the Chief Election Commissioner, Brazil hosting the BRICS summit in 2025, and Maharashtra forming a task force for an AI policy. Additionally, it discusses the SVAMITVA Scheme for property rights in rural areas and the projected economic growth rate of India at 6.7% for 2025-2027.

Uploaded by

dev namu
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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GS-RRB-NTPC Mock-02

01: Who was appointed as India's new Chief Election Commissioner?


(a) Rajiv Kumar (b) Gyanesh Kumar
(c) Arun Kumar (d) Ravi Sharma
Ans: (b)
Sol: Gyanesh Kumar was appointed as the new Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India
on February 17, 2025, following his tenure as the Election Commissioner. This significant
appointment marks him as the first CEC selected under the new law governing the Election
Commission's appointments. His tenure is expected to last until January 26, 2029. Before
becoming CEC, he was the senior-most Election Commissioner, with a solid background in
administration and governance, which positioned him as a suitable candidate for leading the
Election Commission during crucial electoral events.
02: In which country is the headquarters of the International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
located?
(a) United States (b) United Kingdom
(c) Japan (d) Switzerland
Ans: (d)
Sol: The International Telecommunication Union (ITU), which is collaborating with India’s
Department of Technology (DoT) on AI-driven digital twin technologies, has its headquarters
located in Geneva, Switzerland. This partnership focuses on innovation and sustainable
development through global frameworks and standards. Additionally, India has proposed to
host the ITU-Plenipotentiary Conference in 2030, showcasing its growing role in global
technological collaborations.
03: Which country is the host of BRICS summit 2025?
(a) Russia (b) Brazil
(c) China (d) India
Ans: (b)
Sol: Brazil will host the BRICS summit in Rio de Janeiro on July 6-7, 2025. As the 2025
chair, Brazil aims to focus on global governance reform and stronger cooperation among
Global South nations. BRICS was founded in 2009 by Brazil, Russia, India, and China, with
South Africa joining in 2010. The bloc now has 11 full members: Brazil, Russia, India,
China, South Africa, Saudi Arabia, Egypt, UAE, Ethiopia, Iran, and Indonesia.
04: Which of the following statements about Exercise Komodo is not correct ?
(a) It is a Multilateral naval exercise conducted by India.
(b) It enhances regional security cooperation in the Indo-Pacific.
(c) The Indian Navy has participated in this exercise.
(d) It supports India's SAGAR initiative.
Ans: (a)
Sol: Exercise Komodo is a multilateral naval exercise conducted by Indonesia. It focuses on
maritime interoperability, disaster relief, humanitarian assistance and regional security
cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region. From India, INS Mumbai & the P8I aircraft of Indian
Navy had participated in the Exercise. This Exercise reaffirmed India's commitment to
engage with the regional Navies to maintain Security and Growth for All in the Region
(SAGAR).
05: Consider the following pairs:
Species IUCN Conservation Status
Gharial : Endangered
Bengal Florican : Critically Endangered
Swamp Deer : Vulnerable
Gangetic Dolphin : Endangered
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
Ans: (c)
06: Which of the following statements is not correct about President’s Rule under Article
356?
(a) The Governor administers the state on behalf of the President.
(b) The President's rule does not directly affect the fundamental rights of citizens.
(c) The Parliament assumes legislative authority over the state during President’s Rule.
(d) Parliament’s approval is mandatory regarding the withdrawal of the President rule.
Ans: (d)
Sol: In India, the President's Rule (Article 356) is imposed when the President is satisfied that
a state government cannot function according to constitutional provisions. Under The
President’s rule, the Governor will administer the state on behalf of the President. Every
proclamation issued by the President must be approved by Parliament within two months of
its issuance. The President's rule can be terminated at any time by the President without
needing Parliament's approval. This provision allows for the revocation of President's rule
when deemed necessary by the President.
07: The phenomena of light responsible for the working of the human eye is
(a) Reflection (b) Refraction
(c) Power of accommodation (d) Persistence of vision
Ans: (b)
08: What is true about sound from among the following?
(a) Sound cannot travel through gases
(b) Sound cannot travel through liquids
(c) Sound cannot travel through a vacuum
(d) Sound cannot travel through solids
Ans: (c)
09: Which one of the following devices is used for storing the electrical charges in our TV
set, radio set and computer?
(a) Electrical conductor (b) Electrical capacitor
(c) Electrical resistor (d) Electrical inductor
Ans: (b)
10: Rainbow is formed due to which of the following one?
(a) Refraction, reflection and dispersion of light through a water droplet
(b) Reflection and dispersion of light through a water droplet
(c) Refraction, reflection and scattering of light through a water droplet
(d) Refraction and dispersion of light through a water droplet
Ans: (a)
11: Rain drops acquire spherical shape due to which of the following one?
(a) viscosity (b) surface tension
(c) friction (d) elasticity
Ans: (b)
Sol: The Surface tension pulls the surface of the drop equally at all points thus produces the
spherical shape having the minimum surface area.
12: NITI Aayog was established in which of the following year?
(a) 1st January 2015 (b) 25 January 2016
(c) 14 May 2014 (d) 1st July 2015
Ans: (a)
Sol: The NITI Aayog was formed on January 1, 2015. In Sanskrit, the word “NITI” means
morality, behaviour, guidance, etc. But, in the present context, it means policy and the NITI
stands for “National Institution for Transforming India”. It is the country’s premier policy-
making institution that is expected to bolster the economic growth of the country.
13: Which of the following Five Year Plans witnessed the highest growth rate in India?
(a) Eighth Plan (b) Ninth Plan
(c) Tenth Plan (d) Eleventh Plan
Ans: (d)
14: In Indian Parliament, Economic Survey is published by____________?
(a) Ministry of finance (b) Planning commission
(c) Govt. of India (d) Indian statistical institute
Ans: (a)
Sol: Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by the Ministry of Finance,
Government of India. The Economic Survey is presented in both the houses of Parliament, a
day before the announcement of the Union Budget. The Economic Survey is prepared under
the guidance of the Chief Economic Advisor.
15: Unemployment which occurs when workers move from one job to another job is known
as __________?
(a) Seasonal unemployment (b) frictional unemployment
(c) Cyclical unemployment (d) technological unemployment
Ans: (b)
Sol: Frictional unemployment is a type of unemployment that arises when workers are
searching for new jobs or are transitioning from one job to another. It is part of natural
unemployment and hence is present even when the economy is considered at full
employment.
16: Which of the following is the cause of inflation?
(a) Increase in money supply
(b) Fall in production
(c) Increase in money supply and fall in production
(d) Decrease in money supply and fall in production
Ans: (c)
17: Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees 'Equality Before the
Law and Equal Protection of Law within the Territory of India'?
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 15
(c) Article 17 (d) Article 18
Ans: (a)
Sol: The Right to Equality is one of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of
India. Article 14 of Indian Constitution treats all people the same in the eyes of the law.
Article 14 is described in two parts – which states and commands the State not to deny to any
person ‘equality before the law’. Another part of it also commands the State not to deny the
‘equal protection of the laws’.
18: Which of the following is correct with respect to “Right Against Exploitation”?
(a) Equality before the law
(b) Freedom as to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion
(c) Protection of interests of minorities
(d) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
Ans: (d)
Sol: Articles 23-24 of the Indian Constitution contains the Right Against Exploitation.
Article 23: (1) Traffic in human beings and the beggar and other similar forms of forced
labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable
in accordance with the law. (2) Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing
compulsory service for public purposes, and in imposing such service the State shall not
make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them.
Article 24: No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory
or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.
19: The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in___________?
(a) Part-IV A (b) Part-IV
(c) Part-III (d) In schedule IV-A
Ans: (a)
20: Which article states about Uniform Civil Code throughout the country?
(a) Article 48 (b) Article 44
(c) Article 42 (d) Article 49
Ans. (b)
Sol: This Uniform Civil Code (UCC) comes under Article 44 of the Indian constitution which
refers to directive principles of state policy. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
states that the state shall undertake to offer a unified set of laws to its citizens within the
Indian boundaries.
21: The Gravehawk hybrid surface-to-air missile system, recently acquired by Ukraine, was
developed by which country?
(a) Russia (b) United States
(c) Brazil (d) United Kingdom
Ans: (d)
Sol: Ukraine has acquired the Gravehawk hybrid surface-to-air missile system to counter
Russia’s missile attacks. It is developed by the United Kingdom. It targets short-range threats,
especially fast-moving airborne objects. Missiles can reach Mach 2.5 and engage targets up
to 12 miles away. It is effective against drones, cruise missiles, and low-flying aircraft.
22: Who is the author of the book “Parliament: Powers, Functions & Privileges; A
Comparative Constitutional Perspective”?
(a) Dr. K.S. Chauhan (b) VP Dhankhar
(c) P.C. Mody (d) Rajiv Kumar
Ans: (a)
Sol: Dr. K.S. Chauhan is the author of the book "Parliament: Powers, Functions & Privileges;
A Comparative Constitutional Perspective." The book was launched by Vice President
Jagdeep Dhankhar, who praised Dr. Chauhan’s dedication to exploring the crucial role of
Parliament in a democracy. The book offers insights into Parliament's functions, privileges,
and its essential role in maintaining government accountability. It also highlights the
significance of parliamentary privileges and the need for responsible use by Members of
Parliament (MPs), making it a valuable resource for policymakers, law students, and
parliamentarians.
23: In which state is the Gaan-Ngai festival, celebrated by the Zeliangrong community, held?
(a) Nagaland (b) Assam
(c) Manipur (d) Meghalaya
Ans: (c)
Sol: The Gaan-Ngai festival, the largest post-harvest celebration of the Zeliangrong
community, takes place in Manipur. Beginning on January 12, 2025, the festival lasts five
days and is marked by vibrant cultural performances and traditional rituals. It celebrates the
transition from the old year to the new and emphasizes peace, prosperity, and community
healing. The Zeliangrong people, consisting of various tribes, observe this festival with a
deep connection to their agricultural heritage and seasonal changes, fostering unity and
cultural pride in the region.
24: Which country, along with India, declared 2026 as a ‘dual year’ to celebrate cultural,
tourism, and AI collaborations?
(a) Italy (b) Spain
(c) France (d) Germany
Ans: (b)
Sol: India and Spain have jointly declared 2026 as a 'dual year' to focus on cultural
exchanges, tourism promotion, and advancements in artificial intelligence (AI). This
initiative aims to enhance bilateral ties between the two countries, featuring cultural events,
tourism fairs, and AI research collaborations. The year will also see increased efforts to
promote tourism and bilateral trade, further strengthening the relationship between India and
Spain. The Indian diaspora in Spain plays an important role in fostering closer ties,
contributing to both economies and promoting mutual understanding.
25: Which state has formed a 16-member task force to develop an Artificial Intelligence
Policy 2025?
(a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat
Ans: (c)
Sol: Maharashtra has taken a pioneering step by establishing a 16-member AI Policy
Taskforce to draft its Artificial Intelligence Policy 2025. This initiative positions Maharashtra
as the first state in India to focus exclusively on a dedicated AI policy, aiming to leverage the
rapid growth of AI-based industries and set a benchmark for technological advancements in
governance and industry.
26: What is the projected growth rate of India’s economy for the next two fiscal years (2025–
2027) as per the World Bank?
(a) 6.5% (b) 5.8%
(c) 7.2% (d) 6.7%
Ans: (d)
Sol: The World Bank projects India's economic growth rate at 6.7% for the next two fiscal
years (2025–2027), reflecting an increase from the current fiscal year’s growth rate of 6.5%.
This solidifies India’s position as the fastest-growing major economy, especially in contrast
to a global GDP growth rate of 2.7%. While China’s growth is expected to slow to 4% next
year, India's robust performance highlights its resilience and potential in the global economic
landscape.
27: Under which scheme did PM Modi distribute 65 lakh property cards to rural residents?
(a) PM-KISAN Scheme
(b) Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme
(c) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
(d) SVAMITVA Scheme
Ans: (d)
Sol: The SVAMITVA Scheme, launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, aims to establish
clear ownership rights in rural areas by mapping land parcels using advanced drone
technology. Recently, PM Modi distributed 65 lakh property cards under this scheme across
50,000 villages in 10 states and 2 Union Territories. The initiative particularly focuses on
unsurveyed villages, empowering residents with formal land rights and promoting socio-
economic development in rural regions.
28: With reference to Biology, the Abbreviation of "DNA" is__________?
(a) Dynamic Nucleic Acid (b) Deoxyribonucleic Acid
(c) Dual Nucleotide Arrangement (d) Dispersed Nucleic Acid
Ans: (b)
29: Cystitis is the infection of which of the following?
(a) Liver (b) Urinary bladder
(c) Pancreas (d) Lung
Ans: (b)
30: Viticulture is related to___________?
(a) Grape vines (b) Honey making
(c) Rubber making (d) Sugarcane pulp
Ans: (a)
31: Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) is caused by which of the following one?
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Micoplasma (d) Fungi
Ans: (b)
32: Which of the following is a plant hormone ?
(a) Insulin (b) Thyroxin
(c) Oestrogen (d) Cytokinin
Ans: (d)
33. The gap between two neurons is called a_______ ?
(a) Dendrite (b) Synapse
(c) Axon (d) Impulse
Ans: (b)
34: Glass is mainly composed of which of the following one?
(a) Sodium silicate (b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Calcium hydroxide (d) Sodium bicarbonate
Answer - (a)
Explanation: Glass is made from silica (SiO₂) and soda lime, which react to form sodium
silicate.
35: What is the main constituent of biogas?
(a) oxygen (b) methane
(c) acetic acid (d) methyl alcohol
Answer – (b)
Explanation: Biogas typically refers to a gas produced by breakdown of organic matter in the
absence of oxygen. Organic waste such as dead plant and animal material, animal feces, and
kitchen waste can be converted into a gaseous fuel called biogas. Biogas originates from
biogenic material and is a type of bio fuel. Biogas is produced by the anaerobic digestion or
fermentation of biodegradable materials such as biomass, manure, sewage, municipal waste,
green waste, plant material, and crops.
36: Which of the following is an example of CISC architecture?
(a) ARM (b) Intel x86
(c) RISC-V (d) MIPS
Ans: (b)
Sol: CISC stands for ‘Complex Instruction Set Computer.’ This architecture was introduced
in the 1970s by Intel Corporation when the earliest computers focused on enhancing CPU
speed by minimizing the number of instructions per program (as per equation 1). This
objective was achieved by combining multiple simple commands into one complex
instruction.
Some examples of CISC processors include Intel x86 CPUs, System/360, VAX, PDP-11,
Motorola 68000 family, and AMD.
37: Which of the following is not considered as a peripheral device?
(a) CPU (b) Keyboard
(c) Monitor (d) Mouse
Ans: (a)
Sol: The CPU is not considered as a peripheral device as it is the primary component of the
computer, and a computer system cannot work without a CPU. Peripheral devices are not the
essential parts of the computer and can be defined as an auxiliary device that connects to and
works with the computer such as a mouse, keyboard, etc.
38: Which of the following circuit is used to store one bit of data?
(a) Encoder (b) Decoder
(c) Flip Flop (d) Register
Ans: (c)
Sol: Flip-flop is a digital memory circuit, and with the help of the flip-flop, we can store one
bit of information. The fundamental blocks of various sequential circuits are flip-flops. Flip-
flop is also called a bistable multivibrator or one-bit or binary.
39: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 was enacted in response to which disaster?
(a) Bhopal Gas Tragedy (b) Chernobyl Disaster
(c) Minamata Disease (d) Kyoto Protocol
Ans: (a)
Sol: Environment Protection Act, 1986 is an Act of the Parliament of India. It was enacted in
May 1986 and came into force on 19 November 1986. It has 26 sections and 4 chapters. The
Act is widely considered to have been a response to the Bhopal gas leak.
40: The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 provides protection to which of the following?
(a) Forests
(b) Air and Water
(c) Endangered animals and plants
(d) Only National Parks
Ans: (c)
Sol: The Indian Parliament enacted the Wildlife (Protection) Act in 1972, which provides for
the safeguarding and protection of the wildlife (flora and fauna) in the country. This Act
provides for the protection of the country’s wild animals, birds, and plant species, in order to
ensure environmental and ecological security.

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