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 Content
Sr. No. Topic Name Page No.
1 Error and Measurement 03 – 08
2 Unit's and Dimensions 09 – 15
3 Kinematic 16 – 26
4 NLM and Friction 27 – 35
5 Work Power and Energy 36 – 42
6. Circular Motion 43 – 49
7. Center of Mass 50 – 53
8. Rotational Motion 54 – 68
9. Gravitation 69 – 76
10. Simple Harmonic Motion 77 – 84
11. Wave on String 85 – 89
Sound wave 90 – 94
12. Fluid Mechanics 95 – 96
13. Surface Tension, Elasticity and viscosity 97 – 98
14. Calorimetry, Heat and Thermal Expansion 99 – 108
15. KTG and Thermodynamics 109 – 121
16. Electrostatics 122 – 134
17. Current Electricity 135 – 145
18. Capacitor 146 – 156
19. Magnetic Effects of Current 157 – 169
20. Electromagnetic Induction 170 – 177
21. Alternating Current 178 – 181
22. Modern physics 182 – 194
23. Nuclear physics 195 – 198
24. Geometrical optics 199 – 212
25. Wave Optics 213 – 220
26. EM waves 221 – 223
27. Semiconductors 224 – 237

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 Error and Measurement
1. The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003
and 2.1 × 10–3 are
(A) 5, 1, 2 (B) 5, 1, 5 (C) 5, 5, 2 (D) 4, 4, 2
For Solution – Click Here

2. A student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50 cm. Which
instrument did he use to measure it?
(A) A meter scale.
(B) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in vernier scale matches with 9
division in main scale and main scale has 10 divisions in 1 cm.
(C) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as 1 mm.
(D) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as 1 mm.
For Solution – Click Here

3. A student measures the time period of 100 oscillations of a simple pendulum

four times. That data set is 90 s, 91 s, 95 s and 92 s. If the minimum division
in the measuring clock is 1 s, then the reported mean time should be
(A) 92 ± 5.0 s (B) 92 ± 1.8 s (C) 92 ± 3 s (D) 92 ± 2 s
For Solution – Click Here

4. The relative errors in the determination of the surface area of a sphere is α. Then
the relative error in the determination of its volume is
(A) 3/2 a (B) a (C) 5/2 a (D) 2/3 a
For Solution – Click Here

5. The percentage errors in quantities P, Q, R and S are 0.5%, 1%, 3% and 1.5%
P 3 Q2
respectively in the measurement of a physical quantity A = . The maximum
√RS
percentage error in the value of A will be
(A) 6.5% (B) 8.5% (C) 6.0% (D) 7.5%
For Solution – Click Here

6. In the density measurement of a cube, the mass and edge length are measured
as (10.00 ± 0.10) kg and (0.10 ± 0.01) m, respectively. The error in the
measurement of density is:
(A) 0.31 (B) 0.07 (C) 0.01 (D) 0.10
For Solution – Click Here

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7. The diameter and height of a cylinder are measured by a meter scale to be 12.6
± 0.1 cm and 34.2 ± 0.1 cm, respectively. What will be the value of its volume in
appropriate significant figures?
(A) 4260 ± 80 cm3 (B) 4300 ± 80 cm3
(C) 4264.4 ± 81.0 cm3 (D) 4264 ± 81 cm3
For Solution – Click Here

8. The pitch and the number of divisions, on the circular scale, for a given screw
gauge are 0.5 mm and 100 respectively. When the screw gauge is fully tightened
without any object, the zero of its circular scale lies 3 divisions below the mean
line. The readings of the main scale and the circular scale, for a thin sheet, are
5.5 mm and 48 respectively, the thickness of this sheet is:
(A) 5.755 m (B) 5.725 mm (C) 5.740 m (D) 5.950 mm
For Solution – Click Here

9. If the screw on a screw–gauge is given six rotations, it moves by 3mm on the

main scale. If there are 50 divisions on the circular scale the least count of the
screw gauge is :
(A) 0.01 cm (B) 0.02 mm (C) 0.001 mm (D) 0.001 cm
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10. A simple pendulum is being used to determine the value of gravitational

acceleration g at a certain place. The length of the pendulum is 25.0 cm and a
stop watch with 1s resolution measures the time taken for 40 oscillations to be
50 s. The accuracy in g is:
(A) 4.40 % (B) 3.40% (C) 2.40% (D) 5.40%
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11. In a Vernier Calipers. 10 divisions of Vernier scale is equal to the 9 divisions of

main scale. When both jaws of Vernier calipers touch each other, the zero of the
Vernier scale is shifted to the left of zero of the main scale and 4th Vernier scale
division exactly coincides with the main scale reading. One main scale division
is equal to 1 mm. While measuring diameter of a spherical body, the body is
held between two jaws. It is now observed that zero of the Vernier scale lies
between 30 and 31 divisions of main scale reading and 6th Vernier scale division
exactly. coincides with the main scale reading. The diameter of the spherical
body will be :
(A) 3.02 cm (B) 3.06 cm (C) 3.10 cm (D) 3.20 cm
For Solution – Click Here

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12. The one division of main scale of vernier callipers reads 1 mm and 10 divisions
of Vernier scale is equal to the 9 divisions on main scale. When the two jaws of
the instrument touch each other the zero of the Vernier lies to the right of zero
of the main scale and its fourth division coincides with a main scale division.
When a spherical bob is tightly placed between the two jaws, the zero of the
Vernier scale lies in between 4.1 cm and 4.2 cm and 6th Vernier division
coincides with a main scale division. The diameter of the bob will be 10 −2 cm
For Solution – Click Here

13. The vernier constant of Vernier callipers is 0.1 mm and it has zero error of
(−0.05)cm. While measuring diameter of a sphere, the main scale reading is 1.7
cm and coinciding vernier division is 5. The corrected diameter will be _____ ×
10−2 cm.
For Solution – Click Here

14. In a vernier callipers, each cm on the main scale is divided into 20 equal parts.
If tenth vernier scale division coincides with nineth main scale division. Then
the value of vernier constant will be _____ × 10−2 mm.
For Solution – Click Here

15. A screw gauge of pitch 0.5 mm is used to measure the diameter of uniform wire
of length 6.8 cm, the main scale reading is 1.5 mm and circular scale reading is
7. The calculated curved surface area of wire to appropriate significant figures
is : [Screw gauge has 50 divisions on the circular scale]
(A) 6.8 cm2 (B) 3.4 cm2 (C) 3.9 cm2 (D) 2.4 cm2
For Solution – Click Here

16. A student in the laboratory measures thickness of a wire using screw gauge.
The readings are 1.22 mm,1.23 mm,1.19 mm and 1.20 mm. The percentage
error is x/121 % . The value of x is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

17. In an experiment to find out the diameter of wire using screw gauge, the
following observation were noted:

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 (a) Screw moves 0.5 mm on main scale in one complete rotation
(b) Total divisions on circular scale = 50
(c) Main scale reading is 2.5 mm
(d) 45th division of circular scale is in the pitch line
(e) Instrument has 0.03 mm negative error Then the diameter of wire is :
(A) 2.92 mm (B) 2.54 mm (C) 2.98 mm (D) 3.45 mm
For Solution – Click Here

18. The maximum error in the measurement of resistance, current and time for
which current flows in an electrical circuit are 1%, 2% and 3% respectively. The
maximum percentage error in the detection of the dissipated heat will be:
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
For Solution – Click Here

19. In an experiment of determine the Young's modulus of wire of a length exactly

1 m, the extension in the length of the wire is measured as 0.4 mm with an
uncertainty of ±0.02 mm when a load of 1 kg is applied. The diameter of the wire
is measured as 0.4 mm with an uncertainty of ±0.01 mm The error in the
measurement of Young's modulus (ΔY) is found to be x × 10 10 Nm−2. The value
of x is _____ [Take g = 10 m/s2]
For Solution – Click Here

20. A torque meter is calibrated to reference standards of mass, length and time
each with 5% accuracy. After calibration, the measured torque with this torque
meter will have net accuracy of:
(A) 15% (B) 25% (C) 75% (D) 5%
For Solution – Click Here

21. In an experiment to find acceleration due to gravity (g) using simple pendulum,
time period of 0.5 s is measured from time of 100 oscillation with a watch of 1s
resolution. If measured value of length is 10 cm known to 1 mm accuracy. The
accuracy in the determination of g is found to be x%. The value of x is
For Solution – Click Here

22. A sliver wire has mass (0.6±0.006)g, radius (0.5±0.005)mm and length
(4±0.04)cm. The maximum percentage error in the measurement of its density
will be :
(A) 4% (B) 3% (C) 6% (D) 7%
For Solution – Click Here

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23. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In Vernier calliper if positive zero error exists, then while taking
measurements, the reading taken will be more than the actual reading.
Reason (R): The zero error in Vernier Calliper might have happened due to
manufacturing defect or due to rough handling.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
For Solution – Click Here

24. If 50 Vernier divisions are equal to 49 main scale divisions of a traveling

microscope and one smallest reading of main scale is 0.5 mm, the Vernier
constant of traveling microscope is
(A) 0.01 cm (B) 0.1 cm (C) 0.1 mm (D) 0.01 mm
For Solution – Click Here
List- I List-II
25. Match List - I with List - II.
(Number) (Significant figure)
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below : A 1001 I 3
(A) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
B 010.1 II 4
(B) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(C) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) C 100.100 III 5
(D) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
D 0.0010010 IV 6
For Solution – Click Here

26. If the percentage errors in measuring the length and the diameter of a wire are
0.1% each. The percentage error in measuring its resistance will be:
(A) 0.144% (B) 0.3% (C) 0.2% (D) 0.1%
For Solution – Click Here

27. The measured value of the length of a simple pendulum is 20 cm with 2 mm

accuracy. The time for 50 oscillations was measured to be 40 seconds with 1
second resolution. From these measurements, the accuracy in the measurement
of acceleration due to gravity is N%. The value of N is:
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 5
For Solution – Click Here

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 V
28. The resistance R = where V = (200 ± 5)V and I = (20 ± 0.2)A , the percentage
I
error in the measurement of R is :
(A) 5.5% (B) 7% (C) 3% (D) 3.5%
For Solution – Click Here

29. A physical quantity Q is found to depend on quantities a, b, c by the relation Q =

a4 b3
c2
. The percentage error in a, b and c are 3%, 4% and 5% respectively. Then, the
percentage error in Q is :
(A) 66% (B) 14% (C) 34% (D) 43%
For Solution – Click Here

30. The radius (r), length (l) and resistance (R) of a metal wire was measured in the
laboratory as r = (0.35 ± 0.05)cmR = (100 ± 10) ohm l = (15 ± 0.2)cm
The percentage error in resistivity of the material of the wire is :
(A) 25.6% (B) 39.9% (C) 35.6% (D) 37.3%
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques Ans Ques Ans Ques Ans Ques Ans Ques Ans Ques Ans Ques Ans
1 A 2 B 3 D 4 A 5 A 6 A 7 A
8 B 9 D 10 A 11 C 12 412 13 180 14 5
15 B 16 150 17 C 18 D 19 2 20 B 21 5
22 A 23 D 24 D 25 D 26 B 27 A 28 D
29 C 30 B

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 Unit and Dimension
1. If momentum [P], area [A] and time [T] are taken as fundamental quantities, then the dimensional
formula for coefficient of viscosity is :
(A) [PA−1 T 0 ] (B) [PAT −1 ] (C) [PA−1 T] (D) [PA−1 T −1 ]
For Solution – Click Here

α αx
2. An expression of energy density is given by u = sin⁡ ( ) , where α, β are constants, x is
β kt

displacement, k is Boltzmann constant and t is the temperature. The dimensions of β will be

(A) [ML2 T −2 θ−1 ] (B) [M0 L2 T −2 ] (C) [M0 L0 T 0 ] (D) [M0 L2 T 0 ]
For Solution – Click Here

αβ βx
3. Consider the efficiency of Carnot's engine is given by η = log c ⁡ , where α and β are
sin⁡ θ kT
constants. If T is temperature, k is Boltzman constant, θ is angular displacement and x has the
dimensions of length. Then, choose the incorrect option.
(A) Dimensions of β is same as that of force
(B) Dimensions of α−1 x is same as that of energy
(C) Dimensions of η−1 sin⁡ θ is same as that of αβ
(D) Dimensions of α is same as that of β
For Solution – Click Here

4. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : Time period of oscillation of a liquid drop depends on surface tension (S), if
density of the liquid is p and radius of the drop is r, then T = k√pr 3 /s3/2 is dimensionally
correct, where K is dimensionless.
Reason (R) : Using dimensional analysis we get R.H.S. having different dimension than that of
time period.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
For Solution – Click Here

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5. Match List I with List II. List-I List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) Torque (I) Nms–1
(A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (B) Stress (II) Jkg–1
(C) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (C) Latent Heat (III) Nm
For Solution – Click Here (D) Power (IV) Nm–2

6. If ρ is the density and η is coefficient of viscosity of fluid which flows with a speed v in the pipe
of diameter d, the correct formula for Reynolds number R e is:
ηd ρv ρvd η
(A) R e = (B) R e = (C) R e = (D) R e =
ρv ηd η ρvd
For Solution – Click Here

α kt
7. An expression for a dimensionless quantity P is given by P = log e ⁡ ( ); where α and β are
β βx
constants, x is distance; k is Boltzmann constant and t is the temperature. Then the dimensions of
α will be
(A) [M0 L−1 T 0 ] (B) [ML0 T −2 ] (C) [MLT −2 ] (D) [ML2 T −2 ]
For Solution – Click Here

8. Identify the pair of physical quantities which have different dimensions.

(A) Wave number and Rydberg's constant
(B) Stress and Coefficient of elasticity
(C) Coercivity and Magnetization
(D) Specific heat capacity and Latent heat
For Solution – Click Here

9. The distance of the Sun from earth is 1.5 × 1011 m and its angular diameter is (2000) s when
observed from the earth. The diameter of the Sun will be :
(A) 2.45 × 1010 m (B) 1.45 × 1010 m (C) 1.45 × 109 m (D) 0.14 × 109 m
For Solution – Click Here

10. Match List I with List II

List-I List-II
(A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(A) Planck's constant (h) M1 L2 T−2
(B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(B) Stopping potential (Vs) M1 L1 T−1
(C) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(C) Work function (Ø) M1 L2 T−1
(D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (D) Momentum (p) M1 L2 T−3 A−1
For Solution – Click Here

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11. The frequency (v) of an oscillating liquid drop may depend upon radius (r) of the drop, density
(ρ) of liquid and the surface tension (s) of the liquid as: v = r a ρb sc . The values of a, b and c
respectively are
3 1 1 3 1 1 3 1 1 3 1 1
(A) (− , − , ) (B) ( , − , ) (C) ( , , − ) (D) (− , , )
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
For Solution – Click Here

12. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the
List-I List-II
options given below :
(A) Surface tension (I) Kgm−1 s−1
(A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(B) Pressure (II) Kgms−1
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(C) Viscosity (III) Kgm−1 s−2
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(D) Impulse (IV) Kgs−2
(D) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
For Solution – Click Here

13. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I List-I List-II
(B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (A) Young's Modulus (Y) [ML−1 T−1]
(C) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (B) Co-efficient of Viscosity (h) [ML2 T−1]
(D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (C) Planck's Constant (h) [ML−1 T−2]
For Solution – Click Here (D) Work Function (f) [ML2 T−2]

14. Match List I with List II :

Choose the correct answer from the List-I List-II
options given below: (Physical Quantity) (Dimensional Formula)
(A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (A) Pressure gradient (I) [M0 L2 T–2]
(B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (B) Energy density (II) [M1 L–1 T–2]
(C) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (C) Electric Field (III) [M1 L–2 T–2]
(D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (D) Latent heat (IV) [M1 L1 T–3 A–1]
For Solution – Click Here

15. The equation of a circle is given by x 2 + y 2 = a2 , where a is the radius. If the equation is
modified to change the origin other than (0, 0), then find out the correct dimensions of A and B
t 2
in a new equation: (x − At)2 + (y − ) = a2 . The dimensions of t is given as[T −1 ].
B
(A) A = [L−1 T], B = [LT −1 ] (B) A = (LT], B = [L−1 T −1 ]
(C) A = [L−1 T −1 ], B = [LT −1 ] (D) A = [L−1 T −1 ], B = [LT]
For Solution – Click Here

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 A B
16. Electric field in a certain region is given by ⃗E = ( 2 ı̂ + ĵ). The SI unit of A and B are :
x y3
(A) Nm3 C−1 ; Nm2 C−1 (B) Nm C ; Nm3 C−1
2 −1

(C) Nm3 C; Nm2 C (D) Nm2 C; Nm3 C

For Solution – Click Here

17. Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given List-I List-II
below : (A) Torque (I) kgm−1 s−2
(A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (B) Energy density (II) kgms−1
(B) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (C) Pressure gradient (III) kgm−2 s−2
(C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (D) Impulse (IV) kgm2 s−2
(D) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
For Solution – Click Here

18. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II List-I List-II
(B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (A) Angular momentum (I) [ML2 T−2]
(C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (B) Torque (II) [ML−2 T−2]
(D) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (C) Stress (III) [ML2 T−1]
For Solution – Click Here (D) Pressure gradient (IV) [ML−1 T−2]
a
19. (P + ) (V − b) = RT represents the equation of state of some gases. Where P is the pressure,
V2
V is the volume, T is the temperature and a, b, R are the constants. The physical quantity, which
b2
has dimensional formula as that of , will be :
a
(A) Bulk modulus (B) Modulus of rigidity
(C) Compressibility (D) Energy density
For Solution – Click Here

20. If the velocity of light c, universal gravitational constant G and planck's constant h are chosen as
fundamental quantities. The dimensions of mass in the new system is:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) [h2 c −2 G1 ] (B) [h1 c1 G−1 ] (C) [h−2 c 2 G 2 ] (D) [h2 c 2 G −2 ]
For Solution – Click Here

1
21. Dimension of should be equal to
μ0 ϵ0
(A) T 2 /L2 (B) L/T (C) L2 /T 2 (D) T/L
For Solution – Click Here

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22. Given below are two statements :
Statements I : Astronomical unit (Au). Parsec (Pc) and Light year (ly) are units for measuring
astronomical distances.
Statements II : Au < Parsec (Pc) < ly
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(A) Both Statements I and Statements II are correct.
(C) Statements I is correct but Statements II is incorrect.
(C) Both Statements I and Statements II are incorrect.
(D) Statements I is incorrect but statements II is correct.
For Solution – Click Here

23. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are considered as fundamental physical quantity, then
dimensional formula of density will be:
(A) FV−2 T2 (B) FV−4 T2 (C) FV4 T−6 (D) F2V−2T6
For Solution – Click Here

24. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III List-I List-II
(B) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (A) Spring constant (I) (T−1)
(C) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (B) Angular speed (II) (MT−2)
(D) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (C) Angular momentum (III) (ML2)
For Solution – Click Here (D) Moment of Inertia (IV) (ML2 T−1)

25. The speed of a wave produced in water is given by v = λa g b ρc . Where λ, g and ρ are wavelength
of wave, acceleration due to gravity and density of water respectively. The values of a, b and c
respectively, are :
1 1 1 1
(A) , , 0 (B) 1,1,0 (C) 1,-1,0 (D) , 0,
2 2 2 2
For Solution – Click Here

a
26. In the equation [X + ] [Y − b] = RT, X is pressure, Y is volume, R is universal gas constant and
Y2
a
T is temperature. The physical quantity equivalent to the ratio is:
b
(A) Energy (B) Impulse
(C) Pressure gradient (D) Coefficient of viscosity
For Solution – Click Here

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27. Match List-I with List-II. List-I List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options (A) Coefficient of (I) [ML2T−2]
given below : viscosity
(A) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (B) Surface tension (II) [ML2T−1]
(B) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (C) Angular momentum (III) [ML−1T−1]
(C) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (D) Rotational kinetic (IV) [ML0T−2]
(D) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) energy
For Solution – Click Here

1
28. A force is represented by F = ax 2 + bt 2 where x = distance and t = time. The dimensions of
b2 /a are:
(A) [ML−1 T −1 ] (B) [ML2 T −3 ] (C) [ML3 T −3 ] (D) [MLT −2 ]
For Solution – Click Here

29. If mass is written as m = kc P G −1/2 h1/2 then the value of P will be:
(Constants have their usual meaning with ka dimensionless constant)
(A) 1/3 (B) −1/3 (C) 2 (D) 1/2
For Solution – Click Here

a
30. The equation of state of a real gas is given by (P + ) (V − b) = RT, where P, V and T are
V2
pressure, volume and temperature respectively and R is the universal gas constant. The
a
dimensions of 2 is similar to that of:
b
(A) P (B) R (C) PV (D) RT
For Solution – Click Here

31. If B is magnetic field and μ0 ⁡is⁡permeability⁡of⁡free⁡space, then⁡the⁡dimensions⁡of⁡(B/μ0 ) is

(A) MT −2 A−1 (B)⁡L−1 A (C)⁡LT −2 A−1 (D)⁡ML2 T −2 A−1
For Solution – Click Here

32. Which one of the following is the correct dimensional formula for the capacitance in F ? M ,
L, T and C stand for unit of mass, length, time and charge,
(A) [F] = [C2 M −2 L2 T 2 ] (B)[F] = [CM−2 L−2 T −2 ]
(C) [F] = [CM−1 L−2 T 2 ] (D)⁡[F] = [C2 M−1 L−2 T 2 ]
For Solution – Click Here

33. The position of a particle moving on x-axis is given by

x(t) = Asin⁡ t + Bcos2 ⁡ t + Ct 2 + D, where⁡t is time.
ABC
The dimension of is-
D
(A) L (B) L3 T −2 (C)⁡L2 T −2 (D)⁡L2
For Solution – Click Here
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34. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(A) Permeability of free space (I) [ML2 T −2 ]
(B) agnetic field (II) [MT −2 A−1 ]
(C) Magnetic moment (III) [MLT −2 A−2 ]
(D) Torsional constant (IV) [L2 A]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (B) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(C) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (D) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
For Solution – Click Here

35. The energy E and momentum p of a moving body of mass m are related by some equation.
Given that c represents the speed of light, identify the correct equation.
(A) E2 = pc 2 + m2 c 4 (B) E2 = pc 2 + m2 c 2
(C) E2 = p2 c 2 + m2 c 2 (D) E2 = p2 c 2 + m2 c 4
For Solution – Click Here

36. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(A) Angular Impulse (I) [M0 L2 T −2 ]
(B) Latent Heat (II) [ML2 T −3 A−1 ]
(C) Electrical resistivity (III) [ML2 T −1 ]
(D) Electromotive force (IV) [ML3 T −3 A−2 ]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (B) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(C) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (D) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 A 2 D 3 D 4 D 5 B 6 C 7 C
8 D 9 C 10 B 11 A 12 B 13 B 14 C
15 B 16 B 17 D 18 B 19 C 20 D 21 C
22 B 23 B 24 A 25 A 26 A 27 A 28 C
29 D 30 A 31 B 32 D 33 C 34 D 35 D
36 A

15 | P a g e
 Kinematics
1. A person travels x distance with velocity v1 and then x distance with velocity v2 in the same
direction. The average velocity of the person is v, then the relation between v, v1 and v2 will be:
v +v 2 1 1 1 1 1
(A) v = v1 + v2 (B) v = 1 2 (C) = + (D) = +
2 v v1 v2 V V1 V2
For Solution – Click Here

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Area under velocity- time graph gives the distance travelled by the body in a given
time.
Statement II: Area under acceleration- time graph is equal to the change in velocity- in the given
time.
In the light of given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
For Solution – Click Here

3. A small toy starts moving from the position of rest under a constant acceleration. If it travels a
distance of 15 m in t sec,. the distance travelled by the toy in the 2t sec will be:
(A) 20 m (B) 30 m (C) 45 m (D) 60 m
For Solution – Click Here

4. An object of mass 5 kg is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. The air resistance
produces a constant retarding force of 25 N throughout the motion. The ratio of time of ascent
to the time of descent will be equal to
[Use g = 10 ms −2 ].
(A) 1: 1 (B) √2: √3 (C) √1: √3 (D) 2: 3
For Solution – Click Here

5. Two balls A and B are placed at the top of 250 m tall tower. Ball A is released from the top at
t = 0 s. Ball B is thrown vertically down with an initial velocity 'u' at t = 2s. After a certain
time, both balls meet 70 m above the ground. Find the value of 'u' in ms −1 . [use g = 10 ms −2 ]:
(A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 25 (D) 30
For Solution – Click Here

6. A person moved from A to B on a circular path as shown in figure. If the distance

travelled by him is 60 m, then the magnitude of displacement would be:
(Given cos135∘ = −0.7)
(A) 42 m (B) 47 m (C) 19 m (D) 40 m
For Solution – Click Here
16 | P a g e
7. Two buses P and Q start from a point at the same time and move in a straight line and their
positions are represented by X P (t) = αt + βt 2 and X Q (t) = ft − t 2 . At what time, both the buses
have same velocity?
α−f α+f α+f f−α
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1+β 2(β−1) 2(1+β) 2(1+β)
For Solution – Click Here

8. A NCC parade is going at a uniform speed of 9 km/h under a mango tree on which a monkey
is sitting at a height of 19.6 m. At any particular instant, the monkey drops a mango. A cadet
will receive the mango whose distance from the tree at time of drop is: (Given g = 9.8 m/s2 )
(A) 5 m (B) 10 m (C) 19.8 m (D) 24.5 m
For Solution – Click Here

9. A ball is thrown up vertically with a certain velocity so that, it reaches a maximum height h.
Find the ratio of the times in which it is at height h/3 while going up and coming down
respectively.
√2−1 √3−√2 √3−1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
√2+1 √3+√2 √3+1 3
For Solution – Click Here

10. A ball is released from a height h. If t1 and t 2 be the time required to complete first half and
second half of the distance respectively. Then, choose the correct relation between t1 and t 2 .
(A) t1 = (√2)t 2 (B) t1 = (√2 − 1)t 2
(C) t 2 = (√2 + 1)t1 (D) t 2 = (√2 − 1)t1
For Solution – Click Here

11. A car travels a distance of 'x' with speed V1 and then same distance 'x' with speed V2 in the same
direction. The average speed of the car is:
v1 v2 v1 +v2 2x 2v1 v2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2(v1 +v2 ) 2 v1 +v2 v1 +v2
For Solution – Click Here

12. Match Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-I
(x-t graphs) (v-t graphs)
(A) (I)

17 | P a g e
 (B) (II)

(C) (III)

(D) (IV)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A-II B-IV, C-III, D-I (B) A-I. B-II, C-III, D-IV
(C) A-II B-III, C-IV, D-I (D) A-I, B-III. C-IV, D-II
For Solution – Click Here

13. A vehicle travels 4 km with speed of 3 km/h and another 4 km with speed of 5 km/h, then its
average speed is :
(A) 4.25 km/h (B) 3.50 km/h (C) 4.00 km/h (D) 3.75 km/h
For Solution – Click Here

14. For a train engine moving with speed of 20 ms −1 . the driver must apply brakes at a distance of
500 m before the station for the train to come to rest at the station. If the brakes were applied at
half of this distance, the train engine would cross the station with speed √xms −1 . The value of
x is ______
(Assuming same retardation is produced by brakes)
For Solution – Click Here

15. A horse rider covers half the distance with 5 m/s speed. The remaining part of the distance was
travelled with speed 10 m/s for half the time and with speed 15 m/s for other half of the time.
The mean speed of the rider averaged over the whole time of motion is x/7 m/s. The value of
x is
For Solution – Click Here

18 | P a g e
16. The maximum vertical height to which a man can throw a ball is 136 m. The maximum
horizontal distance upto which he can throw the same ball is
(A) 192 m (B) 136 m (C) 272 m (D) 68 m
For Solution – Click Here

17. Two objects are projected with same velocity ' u ' however at different angles α and β with the
horizontal. If α + β = 90∘ , the ratio of horizontal range of the first object to the 2nd object will
be :
(A) 4: 1 (B) 2: 1 (C) 1: 2 (D) 1: 1
For Solution – Click Here

18. A child stands on the edge of the cliff 10 m above the ground and throws a stone horizontally
with an initial speed of 5 ms −1 . Neglecting the air resistance, the speed with which the stone
hits the ground will be ______ ms −1
(given, g = 10 ms −2 ).
(A) 20 (B) 15 (C) 30 (D) 25
For Solution – Click Here

19. Two bodies are projected from ground with same speeds 40 ms −1 at two different angles with
respect to horizontal. The bodies were found to have same range. If one of the body was
projected at an angle of 60∘ , with horizontal then sum of the maximum heights, attained by the
two projectiles, is _____ m.
(Given g = 10 ms −2 )
For Solution – Click Here

20. The speed of a swimmer is 4 km h−1 in still water. If the swimmer makes his strokes normal to
the flow of river of width 1 km, he reaches a point 750 m down the stream on the opposite bank.
The speed of the river water is _____ kmh−1 .
For Solution – Click Here

21. As shown in the figure, a particle is moving with constant speed πm/s. Considering its motion
from A to B, the magnitude of the average velocity is:
(A) 𝜋m/s (B) √3 m/s
(C) 2√3 m/s (D) 1.5√3 m/s
For Solution – Click Here

19 | P a g e
22. An object moves with speed v1 , v2 , and v3 along a line segment AB, BC and CD respectively as
shown in figure. Where AB = BC and AD = 3AB, then average speed of the object will be :
(v1 +v2 +v3 ) v1 v2 v3
(A) (B)
3 3(v1 v2 +v2 v3 +v3 v1 )
3v1 v2 v3 (v1 +v2 +v3 )
(C) (D)
v1 v2 +v2 v3 +v3 v1 3v1 v2 v3
For Solution – Click Here

23. The velocity time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in figure. The ratio of
displacement to distance travelled by the body in time 0 to 10 s is
(A) 1: 1
(B) 1: 4
(C) 1: 2
(D) 1: 3
For Solution – Click Here

24. A particle is moving with constant speed in a circular path. When the particle turns by an angle
90∘ , the ratio of instantaneous velocity to its average velocity is π: x√2. The value of x will be
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 1 (D) 7
For Solution – Click Here

25. A particle starts with an initial velocity of 10.0 ms −1 along x -direction and accelerates
uniformly at the rate of 2.0 ms −2 . The time taken by the particle to reach the velocity of
60.0 ms −1 is _____ .
(A) 6 s (B) 3 s (C) 30 s (D) 25 s
For Solution – Click Here

26. Two trains 'A' and 'B' of length 'l' and '4l' are travelling into a tunnel of length 'L' in parallel
tracks from opposite directions with velocities 108 km/h and 72 km/h, respectively. If train
'A' takes 35 s less time than train 'B' to cross the tunnel then, length 'L' of tunnel is : (Given L =
60l )
(A) 1200 m (B) 2700 m (C) 1800 m (D) 900 m
For Solution – Click Here

27. A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 150 m/s. The ratio of velocity after
x+1
3 s and 5 s is . The value of x is ____ . Take (g = 10 m/s2 ).
x
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) -5 (D) 10
For Solution – Click Here
20 | P a g e
28. A body of mass 500 g moves along x-axis such that it's velocity varies with displacement 𝑥
according to the relation v = 10√xm/s the force acting on the body is:-
(A) 166 N (B) 25 N (C) 125 N (D) 5 N
For Solution – Click Here

29. A body starts moving from rest with constant acceleration covers displacement S1 in first (p −
1) seconds and S2 in first p seconds. The displacement S1 + S2 will be made in time:
(A) (2p + 1)s (B) (2p2 − 2p + 1)s
(C) √(2p2 − 2p + 1)s (D) (2p − 1)s
For Solution – Click Here

30. A particle is moving in a straight line. The variation of position 'x' as a function of time 't' is
given as x = (t 3 − 6t 2 + 20t + 15)m. The velocity of the body when its acceleration becomes
zero is :
(A) 6 m/s (B) 8 m/s (C) 4 m/s (D) 10 m/s
For Solution – Click Here

31. The relation between time 't' and distance 'x' is t = αx 2 + βx, where α and β are constants. The
relation between acceleration (a) and velocity (v) is :
(A) a = −3αv 2 (B) a = −2αv 3 (C) a = −5αv 5 (D) a = −4αv 4
For Solution – Click Here

32. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R. Assertion A : When a body is projected at an angle 45∘ , it's range is maximum.
Reason R : For maximum range, the value of sin⁡ 2θ should be equal to one.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct R is the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
For Solution – Click Here

33. Two projectiles A and B are thrown with initial velocities of 40 m/s and 60 m/s at angles 30∘
and 60∘ with the horizontal respectively. The ratio of their ranges respectively is (g = 10 m/s2 )
(A) √3: 2 (B) 2: √3 (C) 1: 1 (D) 4: 9
For Solution – Click Here

21 | P a g e
 x2
34. The trajectory of projectile, projected from the ground is given by y = x − . Where x and y
20
are measured in meter. The maximum height attained by the projectile will be.
(A) 5 m (B) 10√2 m (C) 200 m (D) 10 m
For Solution – Click Here

35. The range of the projectile projected at an angle of 15∘ with horizontal is 50 m. If the projectile
is projected with same velocity at an angle of 45∘ with horizontal, then its range will be :
(A) 50 m (B) 50√2 m (C) 100 m (D) 100√2 m
For Solution – Click Here

36. Two projectiles are projected at 30∘ and 60∘ with the horizontal with the same speed. The ratio
of the maximum height attained by the two projectiles respectively is:
(A) 2: √3 (B) √3: 1 (C) 1: 3 (D) 1: √3
For Solution – Click Here

37. A projectile is projected at 30∘ from horizontal with initial velocity 40 ms −1 . The velocity of
the projectile at t = 2 s from the start will be:
(Given g = 10 m/s2 )
(A) 20√3 ms −1 (B) 40√3 ms −1 (C) 20 ms −1 (D) Zero
For Solution – Click Here

38. Two projectile thrown at 30∘ and 45∘ with the horizontal respectively, reach the maximum
height in same time. The ratio of their initial velocities is
(A) 1: √2 (B) 2: 1 (C) √2: 1 (D) 1: 2
For Solution – Click Here

39. A ball is projected from the ground with a speed 15 ms −1 at an angle θ with horizontal so that
its range and maximum height are equal, then 'tan θ′ will be equal to
(A) ¼ (B) ½ (C) 2 (D) 4
For Solution – Click Here

40. A projectile is projected with velocity of 25 m/s at an angle θ with the horizontal. After t
seconds its inclination with horizontal becomes zero. If R represents horizontal range of the
projectile, the value of θ will be use [g = 10 m/s2 ]
1 5t2 1 4R 4t2 R
(A) sin−1 ⁡ [ ] (B) sin−1 ⁡ [ 2
] (C) tan−1 ⁡ [ ] (D) cot −1 ⁡ [ ]
2 4R 2 5t 5R 20t2
For Solution – Click Here

22 | P a g e
41. A girl standing on road holds her umbrella at 53∘ with the vertical to keep the rain away. If she
starts running without umbrella with a speed of 20kmh−1 , the rain drops hit her head vertically.
The speed of rain drops with respect to the moving girl is:
25 30
(A) 30kmh−1 (B) kmh−1 (C) kmh−1 (D) 25kmh−1
√2 √2
For Solution – Click Here

42. The position-time graphs for two students A and B returning from the school to their homes are
shown in figure :
(A) A lives closer to the school
(B) B lives closer to the school
(C) A takes lesser time to reach home
(D) A travels faster than 𝐵
(E) B travels faster than A
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) (A) and (E) only (B) (B) and (E) only
(C) (A), (C) and (E) only (D) (A), (C) and (D) only
For Solution – Click Here

43. A passenger sitting in a train A moving at 90 km/h observes another train B moving in the
opposite direction for 8 s. If the velocity of the train B is 54 km/h, then length of train B is :
(A) 80 m (B) 200 m (C) 120 m (D) 320 m
For Solution – Click Here

44. Train A is moving along two parallel rail tracks towards north with speed 72 km/h and train B
is moving towards south with speed 108 km/h. Velocity of train B with respect to A and
velocity of ground with respect to B are (in ms −1 ):
(A) 50 and -30 (B) -50 and -30 (C) -50 and 30 (D) -30 and 50
For Solution – Click Here

45. A particle is moving in one dimension (along x axis) under the action of a variable force. It's
initial position was 16 m right of origin. The variation of its position (x) with time (t) is given
as x = −3t 3 + 18t 2 + 16t, where x is in m and t is in s. The velocity of the particle when its
acceleration becomes zero is _____ m/s.
For Solution – Click Here

46. A particle initially at rest starts moving from reference point x = 0 along x-axis, with velocity
v that varies as v= 4√x m/s.
The acceleration of the particle is ______ ms −2 .
For Solution – Click Here

23 | P a g e
47. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with a velocity 5î m/s and moves in x − y plane under
action of a force which produces a constant acceleration of (3î + 2ĵ)m/s2 . If the x-coordinate
of the particle at that instant is 84 m, then the speed of the particle at this time is √αm/s. The
value of α is ________.
For Solution – Click Here

48. A ball rolls off the top of a stairway with horizontal velocity u. The steps are 0.1 m high and
0.1 m wide. The minimum velocity u with which that ball just hits the step 5 of the stairway
will be √xms −1 where x = _______
[use g = 10 m/s2 ].
For Solution – Click Here

49. The displacement and the increase in the velocity of a moving particle in the time interval of t
to (t + 1)s are 125 m and 50 m/s, respectively. The distance travelled by the particle in (t +
2)th s is ______ m.
For Solution – Click Here

50. A particle is moving in a straight line such that its velocity is increasing at 5 ms −1 per meter.
The acceleration of the particle is _____ ms −2 at a point where its velocity is 20 ms −1 .
For Solution – Click Here

51. If the initial velocity in horizontal direction of a projectile is unit vector î and the equation of
trajectory is y = 5x(1 − x). The y component vector of the initial velocity is _____ ĵ (Take g =
10 m/s2 )
For Solution – Click Here

52. A ball of mass m is thrown vertically upward. Another ball of mass 2 m is thrown an angle with
the vertical. Both the balls stay in air for the same period of time. The ratio of the heights attained
by the two balls respectively is 1/x. The value of x is _____
For Solution – Click Here

53. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 19.6 ms −1 from the top of a tower. The
ball strikes the ground after 6 s. The height from the ground up to which the ball can rise will
be (k/5)m. The value of k is _____
(use g = 9.8 m/s2 )
For Solution – Click Here

24 | P a g e
54. From the top of a tower, a ball is thrown vertically upward which reaches the ground in 6s. A
second ball thrown vertically downward from the same position with the same speed reaches
the ground in 1.5 s. A third ball released, from the rest from the same location, will reach the
ground in S.
For Solution – Click Here

55. A car covers AB distance with first one-third at velocity v1 ms −1 , second one-third at v2 ms −1
and last one-third at v3 ms −1 . If v3 = 3v1 , v2 = 2v1 and v1 = 11 ms −1 then the average
velocity of the car is _____ ms −1

For Solution – Click Here

56. A car is moving with speed of 150 km/h and after applying the brake it will move 27 m before
it stops. If the same car is moving with a speed of one third the reported speed then it will stop
after travelling _____ m distance.
For Solution – Click Here

57. A body is projected from the ground at an angle of 37∘ with the horizontal. Its velocity after 3 s
is 40 ms −1 . The maximum height reached by the body during its motion is _____ m. (use g =
10 ms −2 )
For Solution – Click Here

58. An object is projected in the air with initial velocity u at an angle θ. The projectile motion is
such that the horizontal range R, is maximum. Another object is projected in the air with a
horizontal range half of the range of first object. The initial velocity remains same in both the
case. The value of the angle of projection, at which the second object is projected, will be _____
degree.
For Solution – Click Here

59. A projectile fired at 30∘ to the ground is observed to be at same height at time 3 s and 5 s after
projection, during its flight. The speed of projection of the projectile is ____ ms −1
(Given g = 10 m s−2 )
For Solution – Click Here

60. A fighter jet is flying horizontally at a certain altitude with a speed of 300 ms −1 . When it passes
directly overhead an antiaircraft gun, a bullet is fired from the gun, at an angle θ with the
horizontal, to hit the jet. If the bullet speed is 500 m/s, the value of θ will be _____
For Solution – Click Here

25 | P a g e
 ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 C 2 C 3 D 4 C 5 C 6 B 7 D
8 A 9 B 10 D 11 D 12 A 13 D 14 200
15 50 16 C 17 D 18 B 19 80 20 3 21 D
22 C 23 D 24 A 25 D 26 C 27 B 28 B
29 C 30 B 31 B 32 B 33 D 34 A 35 C
36 C 37 A 38 C 39 D 40 D 41 D 42 A
43 D 44 C 45 52 46 8 47 673 48 2 49 175
50 100 51 5 52 1 53 392 54 3 55 18 56 3
57 45 58 15 59 80 60 53

26 | P a g e
 NLM and Friction
1. For a free body diagram shown in the figure, the four forces are applied in the 'x' and 'y' directions.
What additional force must be applied and at what angle with positive x-axis so that the net
acceleration of body is zero?
2
(A) √2 N, 45∘ (B) √2 N, 135∘ (C) N, 30∘ (D) 2 N, 45∘
√3
For Solution – Click Here

2. Three masses M = 100 kg, m1 = 10 kg and m2 = 20 kg are arranged in a system as shown in

figure. All the surfaces are frictionless and strings are inextensible and weightless. The pulleys
are also weightless and frictionless. A force F is applied on the
system so that the mass m2 moves upward with an acceleration
of 2 ms −2 . The value of F is : (Take g = 10 ms −2 )
(A) 3360 N (B) 3380 N
(C) 3120 N (D) 3240 N
For Solution – Click Here

3. A block of mass M placed inside a box descends vertically with acceleration 'a'. The block exerts
a force equal to one-fourth of its weight on the floor of the box. The value of 'a' will be:
(A) g/4 (B) g/2 (C) 3 g/4 (D) g
For Solution – Click Here

4. A monkey of mass 50 kg climbs on a rope which can withstand the tension (T) of 350 N. If
monkey initially climbs down with an acceleration of 4 m/s2 and then climbs up with an
acceleration of 5 m/s2 . Choose the correct option(g = 10 m/s2 )
(A) T = 700 N while climbing upward
(B) T = 350 N while going downward
(C) Rope will break while climbing upward
(D) Rope will break while going downward
For Solution – Click Here

5. Two masses M1 and ⋅ M2 are tied together at the two ends of a light inextensible string that passes
over a frictionless pulley. When the mass M2 is twice that of M1 . the
acceleration of the system is a1 . When the mass M2 is thrice that of M1 . The
acceleration of The system is a2 . The ratio a1 /a2 will be:
3 1
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/3 (C) (D)
2 2
For Solution – Click Here

27 | P a g e
6. A uniform metal chain of mass m and length 'L' passes over a massless and frictionless pulley. It
is released from rest with a part of its length 'l' is hanging on one side and rest of its length 'L − l'
is hanging on the other side of the pulley. At a certain point of time, when l = L/x, the acceleration
of the chain is g/2. The value of x is ______ .
(A) 6 (B) 2
(C) 1.5 (D) 4
For Solution – Click Here

7. A person is standing in an elevator. In which situation, he experiences weight loss?

(A) When the elevator moves upward with constant acceleration
(B) When the elevator moves downward with constant acceleration
(C) When the elevator moves upward with uniform velocity
(D) When the elevator moves downward with uniform velocity
For Solution – Click Here

8. A wire of length L is hanging from a fixed support. The length changes to L1 and L2 when
masses 1 kg and 2 kg are suspended respectively from its free end. Then the value of L is equal
to:
L1 +L2
(A) √L1 L2 (B) (C) 2 L1 − L2 (D) 3 L1 − 2 L2
2
For Solution – Click Here

9. In the arrangement shown in figure a1 , a2 , a3 and a4 are the accelerations of masses m1 , m2 , m3

and m4 respectively. Which of the following relation is true for this arrangement?
(A) 4a1 + 2a2 + a3 + a4 = 0
(B) a1 + 4a2 + 3a3 + a4 = 0
(C) a1 + 4a2 + 3a3 + 2a4 = 0
(D) 2a1 + 2a2 + 3a3 + a4 = 0
For Solution – Click Here

10. A Two bodies of masses m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 3 kg are connected by a light string going over a
smooth light pulley on a smooth inclined plane as shown in the figure. The system is at rest. The
force exerted by the inclined plane on the body of mass m1 will be : [Take g = 10 ms −2 ]
(A) 30 N
(B) 40 N
(C) 50 N
(D) 60 N
For Solution – Click Here

28 | P a g e
11. Three blocks A, B and C are pulled on a horizontal smooth surface by a force of 80 N as shown in
figure The tensions T1 and T2 in the string are respectively:

(A) 60 N, 80 N (B) 88 N, 96 N (C) 80 N, 100 N (D) 40 N, 64 N

For Solution – Click Here

12. A light string passing over a smooth light fixed pulley connects two blocks of masses m1 and m2 .
If the acceleration of the system is g/8, then the ratio of masses is:
8 4
(A) (B)
1 3
5 9
(C) (D)
3 7
For Solution – Click Here

⃗ 1 = 5î + 8ĵ + 7k̂ and F

13. A body of mass 4 kg experiences two forces F ⃗ 2 = 3î − 4ĵ − 3k̂. The
acceleration acting on the body is :
(A) 2î + 3ĵ + 3k̂ (B) 2î + ĵ + k̂ (C) −2î − ĵ − k̂ (D) 4î + 2ĵ + 2k̂
For Solution – Click Here

14. A cricket player catches a ball of mass 120 g moving with 25 m/s speed. If the catching process
is completed in 0.1 s then the magnitude of force exerted by the ball on the hand of player will be
(in SI unit) :
(A) 30 (B) 25 (C) 24 (D) 12
For Solution – Click Here

15. Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : An elevator can go up or down with uniform speed when its weight is balanced
with the tension of its cable.
Statement-II : Force exerted by the floor of an elevator on the foot of a person standing on it is
more than his/her weight when the elevator goes down with increasing speed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) Both statement I and statement II are false
(B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
For Solution – Click Here

29 | P a g e
16. As per given figure, a weightless pulley P is attached on a double inclined frictionless surface.
The tension in the string (massless) will be (if g = 10 m/s2)
(A) (4√3 + 1)N (B) 4(√3 + 1)N
(C) 4(√3 − 1)N (D) (4√3 − 1)N
For Solution – Click Here

17. All surfaces shown in figure are assumed to be frictionless and the pulleys and the string are light.
The acceleration of the block of mass 2 kg is :
g
(A) g (B)
3
g g
(C) (D)
2 4
For Solution – Click Here

18. Force acts for 20 s on a body of mass 20 kg, starting from rest, after which the force ceases and
then body describes 50 m in the next 10 s. The value of force will be :
(A) 40 N (B) 5 N (C) 20 N (D) 10 N
For Solution – Click Here

19. A hanging mass M is connected to a four times bigger mass by using a string-pulley arrangement.
as shown in the figure. The bigger mass is placed on a horizontal ice-slab and being pulled by
2Mg force. In this situation. tension in the string is x/5Mg for x =_____. Neglect mass of the
string and friction of the block (bigger mass) with ice slab. (Given g = acceleration due to gravity)

For Solution – Click Here

20. A system to 10 balls each of mass 2 kg are connected via massless and unstretchable string. The
system is allowed to slip over the edge of a smooth table as shown in figure. Tension on the string
between the 7th and 8th ball is _____ N when 6th ball just leaves the table

For Solution – Click Here

30 | P a g e
21. The figure represents the momentum time (p − t) curve for a particle moving along an axis under
the influence of the force. Identify the regions on the graph where the magnitude of the force is
maximum and minimum respectively? If (t 3 − t 2 ) < t1 .
(A) c and a
(B) b and c
(C) c and b
(D) a and b
For Solution – Click Here

22. A block of √3 kg is attached to a string whose other end is attached to the wall. An unknown
force F is applied so that the string makes an angle of 30∘ with the wall. The tension T is : (Given
g = 10 ms −2 )
(A) 20 N
(B) 25 N
(C) 10 N
(D) 15 N
For Solution – Click Here

23. 100 balls each of mass m moving with speed v simultaneously strike a wall normally and reflected
back with same speed, in time ts. The total force exerted by the balls on the wall is
100mv 200mv mv
(A) (B) (C) 200mvt (D)
t t 100t
For Solution – Click Here

24. Consider a block kept on an inclined plane (inclined at 45∘ ) as shown in the figure. If the force
required to just push it up the incline is 2 times the force required to just prevent it from sliding
down, the coefficient of friction between the block and inclined plane (μ) is equal to :
(A) 0.33
(B) 0.60
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.50
For Solution – Click Here

25. Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): The limiting force of static friction depends on the area of contact and independent
of materials.
Statement (II): The limiting force of kinetic friction is independent of the area of contact and
depends on materials.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

31 | P a g e
 (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
For Solution – Click Here

g
26. A block of mass 𝑚 slides down the plane inclined at angle 30∘ with an acceleration . The value
4
of coefficient of kinetic friction will be :
2√3+1 1 √3 2√3−1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2√3 2 2
For Solution – Click Here

27. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough inclined surface as shown in the figure. If ⃗⃗⃗⃗F1 is the
⃗⃗⃗⃗2 is the force required to just
force required to just move the block up the inclined plane and F
10 m
⃗⃗⃗⃗1 | − |F
prevent the block from sliding down, then the value of |F ⃗⃗⃗⃗2 | is: [Useg = ]
s2
(A) 10 N
5√3
(B) N
2

(C) 25√3N
(D) 5√3N
For Solution – Click Here

28. Consider a block and trolley system as shown in figure. If the coefficient of kinetic friction
between the trolley and the surface is 0.04, the acceleration of the system in ms −2 is : (Consider
that the string is massless and unstretchable and the pulley is also massless and frictionless) :
(A) 1.2
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 4
For Solution – Click Here

29. A block of mass m is placed on a surface having vertical cross - section given by y = x 2 /4. If
coefficient of friction is 0.5 , the maximum height above the ground at which block can be placed
without slipping is:
(A) 1/4 m (B) 1/3m (C) 1/6m (D) 1/2m
For Solution – Click Here
32 | P a g e
30. A tennis ball is dropped on to the floor from a height of 9.8 m. It rebounds to a height 5.0 m. Ball
comes in contact with the floor for 0.2 s. The average acceleration during contact is _____ ms −2 .
[Given g = 10 ms −2 ]
For Solution – Click Here

g
31. A block of mass m slides down the plane inclined at angle 30∘ with an acceleration . The value
4
of coefficient of kinetic friction will be :
2√3+1 1 √3 2√3−1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2√3 2 2
For Solution – Click Here

32. The time taken by an object to slide down 45∘ rough inclined plane is n times as it takes to slide
down a perfectly smooth 45∘ incline plane. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object
and the incline plane is
1 1 1 1
(A) √ (B) √1 − (C) 1 + (D) 1 −
1−n2 n2 n2 n2

For Solution – Click Here

33. Consider a block kept on an inclined plane (inclined at 45∘ ) as shown in the figure. If the force
required to just push it up the incline is 2 times the force required to just prevent it from sliding
down, the coefficient of friction between the block and inclined plane (μ) is equal to :
(A) 0.33
(B) 0.60
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.50
For Solution – Click Here

34. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with an initial speed of 20 m/s. The body stops after 5 s due to
friction between body and the floor. The value of the coefficient of friction is: (Take acceleration
due to gravity g = 10 ms −2 )
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.4
For Solution – Click Here

35. A block of mass 5 kg is placed at rest on a table of rough surface. Now, if a force of 30 N is
applied in the direction parallel to surface of the table, the block slides through a distance of 50 m
in an interval of time 10 s. Coefficient of kinetic friction is (given, g = 10 ms −2 ):
(A) 0.60 (B) 0.75 (C) 0.50 (D) 0.25
For Solution – Click Here

33 | P a g e
36. As shown in the figure a block of mass 10 kg lying on a horizontal surface is pulled by a force F
acting at an angle 30∘ , with horizontal. For μs = 0.25, the block will just start to move for the
value of F : [Given g = 10 ms −2 ]
(A) 33.3 N
(B) 25.2 N
(C) 20 N
(D) 35.7 N
For Solution – Click Here

37. In the given arrangement of a doubly inclined plane two blocks of masses M and m are placed.
The blocks are connected by a light string passing over an ideal pulley as shown. The coefficient
of friction between the surface of the plane and the blocks is 0.25. The value of m, for which M =
10 kg will move down with an acceleration of 2 m/s2 , is: (take g = 10 m/s2 and tan 37∘ =
3/4)
(A) 2.25 kg
(B) 6.5 kg
(C) 3.9 kg
(D) 4.5 kg
For Solution – Click Here

38. A body of mass 2kg slides down with an acceleration of 3 m/s2 on a rough inclined plane having
a slope of 30°. The external force required to take the same body up the plane with the same
acceleration will be (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 6 N (B) 14 N (C) 4 N (D) 20 N
For Solution – Click Here

39. Two blocks A and B of masses mA = 1 kg and mB = 3 kg are kept on the table as shown in figure.
The coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.2 and between B and the surface of the table is
also 0.2. The maximum force F that can be applied on B horizontally, so that the block A does
not slide over the block B is: [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(A) 16 N
(B) 8 N
(C) 12 N
(D) 40 N
For Solution – Click Here

40. A block of mass 5 kg is (i) pushed in case (A) and (ii) pulled in case (B), by a force F = 20 N,
making an angle of 30º with the horizontal, as shown in the figures. The coefficient of friction
between the block and floor is μ = 0.2. The difference between the accelerations of the block, in
case (B) and case (A) will be:
34 | P a g e
 (g = 10 ms⁻²)
(A) 3.2 ms–2
(B) 0.8 ms–2
(C) 0 ms–2
(D) 0.4 ms–2y
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 A 2 A 3 C 4 C 5 B 6 D 7 B
8 C 9 A 10 B 11 D 12 D 13 B 14 A
15 B 16 B 17 B 18 B 19 6 20 36 21 C
22 A 23 B 24 A 25 D 26 B 27 D 28 C
29 A 30 120 31 B 32 D 33 A 34 D 35 C
36 B 37 D 38 D 39 A 40 B

35 | P a g e
 Work Power of Energy
1. A small particle moves to position 5î − 2ĵ + k̂ from its initial position 2î + 3ĵ − 4k̂ under the
action of force 5î + 2ĵ + 7k̂ N. The value of work done will be _____ J.
For Solution – Click Here

2. A force F = (5 + 3y 2 ) acts on a particle in the y direction, where F is newton and y is in meter.

The work done by the force during a displacement from y = 2 m to y = 5 m is _____ j.
For Solution – Click Here

3. A body of mass 0.5 kg travels on straight line path with velocity v = (3x 2 + 4)m/s. The net
work done by the force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2m is:
(A) 64 J (B) 60 J (C) 120 J (D) 128 J
For Solution – Click Here

4. A bullet of mass 200 g having initial kinetic energy 90 J is shot inside a long swimming pool as
shown in the figure. If it's kinetic energy reduces to 40 J within 1 s, the minimum length of the
pool, the bullet has a to travel so that it completely comes to rest is
(A) 45 m (B) 90 m
(C) 125 m (D) 25 m
For Solution – Click Here

5. A particle of mass 500gm is moving in a straight line with velocity v = b 5/2 . The work done by
the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 4 m is: (Take b = 0.25 m−3/2 s −1 ).
(A) 2 J (B) 4 J (C) 8 J (D) 16 J
For Solution – Click Here

6. A block of mass 2 kg moving on a horizontal surface with speed of 4 ms −1 enters a rough surface
ranging from 𝑥 = 0.5 m to x = 1.5 m. The retarding force in this range of rough surface is related
to distance by F = −kx where k = 12Nm−1 . The speed of the block as it just crosses the rough
surface will be:
(A) Zero (B) 1.5 ms −1 (C) 2.0 ms −1 (D) 2.5 ms −1
For Solution – Click Here

A B
7. Potential energy as a function of r is given by U = − 5 , where r is the interatomic distance, A
r10 r
and B are positive constants. The equilibrium distance between the two atoms will be:
1 1 1 1
A 5 B 5 2A 5 B 5
(A) ( ) (B) ( ) (C) ( ) (D) ( )
B A B 2A
For Solution – Click Here
36 | P a g e
8. ⃗ = (4xî + 3y 2 ĵ) in a horizontal x − y plane. Assume
A particle experiences a variable force F
distance in meters and force is Newton. If the particle moves from point (1,2) to point (2,3) in
the x − y plane; then Kinetic Energy changes by
(A) 50.0 J (B) 12.5 J (C) 25.0 J (D) 0 J
For Solution – Click Here

9. In the given figure, the block of mass m is dropped from the point 'A'. The expression for kinetic
energy of block when it reaches point ' B ' is:
1
(A) mgy02
2
1
(B) mgy 2
2
(C) mg(y − y0 )
(D) mgy0
For Solution – Click Here

10. A ball is projected with kinetic energy E, at an angle of 60∘ to the horizontal. The kinetic energy
of this ball at the highest point of its flight will become :
E E
(A) Zero (B) (C) (D) E
2 4
For Solution – Click Here

11. A particle which is experiencing a force, given by F ⃗ = 3i − 12j, undergoes a displacement of

⃗ = 4i. If the particle had a kinetic energy of 3 J at the beginning of the displacement, what is
d
its kinetic energy at the end of the displacement?
(A) 15 J (B) 10 J (C) 12 J (D) 9 J
For Solution – Click Here

12. A particle moves in one dimension from rest under the influence of a force that varies with the
distance travelled by the particle as shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of the particle after it
has travelled 3 m is:
(A) 5 J
(B) 6.5 J
(C) 4 J
(D) 2.5 J
For Solution – Click Here

13. A uniform cable of mass 'M' and length 'L' is placed on a horizontal surface such that its (1/n) th
part is hanging below the edge of the surface. To lift the hanging part of the cable upto the surface,
the work done should be:
MgL MgL 2MgL
(A) (B) nMgL (C) (D)
n2 2n2 n2
For Solution – Click Here
37 | P a g e
14. A 60 HP electric motor lifts an elevator having a maximum total load capacity of 2000 kg. If the
frictional force on the elevator is 4000 N, the speed of the elevator at full load is close to: (
1HP = 746W, g = 10ms −2 )
(A) 1.5ms −1 (B) 1.9ms −1 (C) 2.0ms −1 (D) 1.7ms −1
For Solution – Click Here

15. A particle (m = 1 kg) slides down a frictionless track (AOC) starting from rest at a point A (height
2m). After reaching C, the particle continues to move freely in air as a projectile. When it reaching
its highest point P (height 1m), the kinetic energy of the particle (in J) is: (Figure drawn is
schematic and not to scale; take g = 10 ms–2) ……

For Solution – Click Here

16. An elevator in a building can carry a maximum of 10 persons, with the average mass of each
person being 68 kg. The mass of the elevator itself is 920 kg and it moves with a constant speed
of 3 m/s. The frictional force opposing the motion is 6000 N. If the elevator is moving up with its
full capacity, the power delivered by the motor to the elevator (g = 10 m/s2) must be at least :
(A) 62360 W (B) 56300 W (C) 48000 W (D) 66000 W
For Solution – Click Here

17. Identify the correct statements from the following:

(A) Work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket is
negative.
(B) Work done by gravitational force in lifting a bucket out of a well by a rope tied to the bucket
is negative.
(C) Work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane is positive.
(D) Work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform
velocity in zero.
(E) Work done by the air resistance on an oscillating pendulum in negative.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) B and E only (B) A and C only
(C) B, D and E only (D) B and D only
For Solution – Click Here

38 | P a g e
18. An object of mass ' m ' initially at rest on a smooth horizontal plane starts moving under the action
of force F = 2 N. In the process of its linear motion, the angle θ
(as shown in figure) between the direction of force and horizontal
varies as θ = kx , where k is a constant and x is the distance
covered by the object from its initial position. The expression of
n
kinetic energy of the object will be E = sinθ.
k
The value of n is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

19. A stone is projected at angle 30∘ to the horizontal. The ratio of kinetic energy of the stone at point
of projection to its kinetic energy at the highest point of flight will be :
(A) 1: 2 (B) 1: 4 (C) 4: 1 (D) 4: 3
For Solution – Click Here

20. Water fall from a 40 m high dam at the rate of 9 × 104 kg per hour. Fifty percentage of
gravitational potential energy can be converted into electrical energy. Using this hydroelectric
energy number of 100 W lamps, that can be lit, is: (Take g = 10 ms −2 )
(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 18
For Solution – Click Here

21. A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5 m/s. the work done by the
force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is
(A) – 0.5 J (B) –1.25 J (C) +1.25 J (D) 0.5 J
For Solution – Click Here

22. A ball of mass 0.2 kg is thrown vertically upwards by applying a force by hand. If the hand moves
0.2 m while applying the force and the ball goes upto 2 m height further, find the magnitude of
the force. Consider g = 10 m/s2
(A) 22 N (B) 4 N (C) 16 N (D) 20 N
For Solution – Click Here

23. An athlete in the Olympic games covers a distance of 100 m in 10s. His kinetic energy can be
estimated to be in the range
(A) 2 × 105 J – 3 × 105 J (B) 20,000 J – 50,000 J
(C) 2,000 J – 5,000 J (D) 200 J – 500 J
For Solution – Click Here

39 | P a g e
24. At time t = Os a particle starts moving along the x -axis. If its kinetic energy increases
uniformly with time 't', the net force acting on it must be proportional to :
1
(A) constant (B) t (C) (D) √t
√t
For Solution – Click Here

25. When a rubber-band is stretched by a distance x, it exerts a restoring force of magnitude F =

ax + bx 2 where a and b are constants. The work done in stretching the unstretched rubber-band
by L is :
1 aL2 bL3 1 aL2 bL3
(A) aL2 + bL3 (B) (aL2 + bL3 ) (C) + (D) ( + )
2 2 3 2 2 3
For Solution – Click Here

26. A point particle of mass m, moves along the uniformly rough track PQR as shown in the figure.
The coefficient of friction, between the particle and the rough track equals μ. The particle is
released, from rest, from the point P and it comes to rest at a point R. The energies, lost by the
ball, over the parts, PQ and QR of the track, are equal to each other, and no energy is lost when
particle changes direction from PQ to QR. The values of the coefficient of friction μ and the
distance x(= QR), are, respectively close to:
(A) 0.2 and 3.5 m
(B) 0.29 and 3.5 m
(C) 0.29 and 6.5 m
(D) 0.2 and 6.5 m
For Solution – Click Here

27. A person trying to lose weight by burning fat lifts a mass of 10 kg upto a height of 1 m 1000
times. Assume that the potential energy lost each time he lowers the mass is dissipated. How
much fat will he use up considering the work done only when the weight is lifted up ? Fat supplies
3.8 × 107 J of energy per kg which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency rate.
Take g = 9.8 ms–2
(A) 6.45 × 10–3 kg (B) 9.89 × 10–3 kg
(C) 12.89 × 10–3 kg (D) 2.45 × 10–3 kg
For Solution – Click Here

28. A body of mass m = 10−2 kg is moving in a medium and experiences a frictional force F =
1
−kv 2 . It initial speed is v0 = 10ms −1 . If after 10 s , its energy is mv02 , the value of k will be
8
(A) 10−3 kgm−1 (B) 10−3 kgs −1 (C) 10−4 kgm−1 (D) 10−1 kgm−1 s −1
For Solution – Click Here

40 | P a g e
29. A force acts on a 2 kg object so that its position is given as a function of time as x = 3t2 + 5. What
is the work done by this force in first 5 seconds ?
(A) 850 J (B) 900 J (C) 950 J (D) 875 J
For Solution – Click Here

30. A block of mass m is kept on a platform which starts from rest with constant acceleration g/2
upward, as shown in fig. Work done by normal reaction on block in time t is:
3mg2 t2
(A) 0 (B)
8
mg2 t2 mg2 t2
(C) − (D)
8 8
For Solution – Click Here

31. A block of mass 100 kg slides over a distance of 10 m on a horizontal surface. If the co-efficient
of friction between the surfaces is 0.4, then the work done against friction (in J) is :
(A) 4200 (B) 4000 (C) 4500 (D) 3900
For Solution – Click Here

32. A block of mass 1 kg is pushed up a surface inclined to horizontal at an angle of 60∘ by a force
of 10 N parallel to the inclined surface as shown in figure. When the block is pushed up by 10 m
along inclined surface, the work done against frictional force is : [g = 10 m/s2 ]
(A) 5J (B) 5 × 103 J (C) 5√3J (D) 10J
For Solution – Click Here

33. The potential energy function (in J) of a particle in a region of space is given as
U = (2x 2 + 3y 3 + 2z). Here x, y and z are in meter. The magnitude of x-component of force (in
N) acting on the particle at point P(1, 2, 3)m is:
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 2
For Solution – Click Here

34. The bob of a pendulum was released from a horizontal position. The length of the pendulum is
10 m. If it dissipates 10% of its initial energy against air resistance, the speed with which the bob
arrives at the lowest point is:
[Use, g: 10 ms −2 ]
(A) 6√5 ms −1 (B) 5√5 ms −1 (C) 5√6 ms −1 (D) 2√5 ms −1
For Solution – Click Here

35. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F ⃗ =
2
(2tî + 3t ĵ)N. where î and ĵ are the unit vectors along x and y axis. The power developed by
above force, at the time t = 2s. will be
For Solution – Click Here

41 | P a g e
36. A 0.4 kg mass takes 8 s to reach ground when dropped from a certain height 'P' above surface of
10 m
earth. The loss of potential energy in the last second of fall is _____ .J. [Take g = ]
s2
For Solution – Click Here

37. A body of mass 2 kg is initially at rest. It starts moving unidirectionally under the influence of a
1
source of constant power P. Its displacement in 4s is α2 √Pm. The value of α will be _____ .
3
For Solution – Click Here

38. A block is fastened to a horizontal spring. The block is pulled to a distance x = 10 cm from its
equilibrium position (at x = 0) on a frictionless surface from rest. The energy of the block at x =
5 cm is 0.25 J. The spring constant of the spring is ______ Nm−1
For Solution – Click Here

39. A 0.5 kg block moving at a speed of 12 ms −1 compresses a spring through a distance 30 cm

when its speed is halved. The spring constant of the spring will be _____ Nm−1 .
For Solution – Click Here

40. A ball of mass 100 g is dropped from a height h = 10 cm on a platform fixed at the top of a
vertical spring (as shown in figure). The ball stays on the platform and the platform is depressed
by a distance h/2. The spring constant is _____ Nm−1 . (Use g = 10 ms −2 )

For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 40 2 132 3 B 4 A 5 D 6 C 7 C
8 C 9 D 10 C 11 A 12 B 13 C 14 B
15 10 16 D 17 A 18 2 19 4 20 B 21 B
22 A 23 C 24 C 25 C 26 B 27 C 28 C
29 B 30 B 31 B 32 A 33 B 34 A 35 100
36 300 37 4 38 50 39 600 40 120

42 | P a g e
 Circular Motion
1. A point P moves in counter-clockwise direction on a circular path as
shown in the figure. The movement of ‘P’ is such that it sweeps out
a length s = t3 + 5, where s is in metres and t is in seconds. The radius
of the path is 20 m. The acceleration of ‘P’ when t = 2 s is nearly.
(A) 13 m/s2 (B) 12 m/s2
(C) 7.2 m/s2 (D) 14 m/s2
For Solution – Click Here

2. For a particle in uniform circular motion, the acceleration a⃗ at a point P(R, θ) on the circle of
radius R is (Here is measured from the x-axis)
v2 v2 v2 v2
(A) − cos⁡ θî + sin⁡ θĵ (B) − sin⁡ θî + cos⁡ θĵ
R R R R
v2 v2 v2 v2
(C) − cos⁡ θî − sin⁡ θĵ (D) − î + ĵ
R R R R
For Solution – Click Here

3. Two cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2 , respectively. Their
speeds are such that they make complete circles in the same time t. The ratio of their centripetal
acceleration is:
(A) m1 r1 : m2 r2 (B) m1 : m2 (C) r1 : r2 (D) 1: 1
For Solution – Click Here

4. A conical pendulum of length 1 m makes an angle θ = 45° w.r.t. Z-axis and

moves in a circle in the XY plane. The radius of the circle is 0.4 m and its
center is vertically below O. The speed of the pendulum, in its circular path,
will be : (Take g = 10 ms−2)
(A) 0.4 m/s (B) 4 m/s
(C) 0.2 m/s (D) 2 m/s
For Solution – Click Here

5. A particle is moving along a circular path with a constant speed of 10 ms–1. What is the
magnitude of the change in velocity of the particle, when it moves through an angle of 60°d
around the centre of the circle?
(A) 10 Ö3m / s (B) 0 (C) 10 Ö2 m/ s (D) 10 m/s
For Solution – Click Here

43 | P a g e
6. Two particles A, B are moving on two concentric circles of radii R1 and
R2 with equal angular speed w. At t = 0, their positions and direction of
motion are shown in the figure.
The relative velocity ̅̅̅ ̅̅̅
VA − V B at t = π/2ω is given by
(A) ω(R1 + R 2 )I (B) −ω(R1 + R 2 )I
(C) ω(R 2 − R1 )I (D) ω(R1 − R 2 )I
For Solution – Click Here

7. A uniform rod of length l is being rotated in a horizontal plane with a constant angular speed
about an axis passing through one of its ends. If the tension generated in the rod due to rotation
is T(x) at a distance x from the axis, then which of the following graphs depicts it most closely?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

8. A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of light spring having force constant k and unstretched
length λ. The other end is fixed. The system is given an angular speed ω about the fixed end of
the spring such that it rotates in a circle in gravity free space. Then the stretch in the spring is:
mℓω2 mℓω2 mℓω2 mℓω2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
k−mω2 k−ωm k+mω2 k+mω
For Solution – Click Here

9. A particle moves such that its position vector r(t) = cos⁡ ωtî + sin⁡ ωtĵ where ω is a constant
and t is time. Then which of the following statements is true for the velocity v ⃗ (t) and
acceleration a⃗(t) of the particle:
(A) v
⃗ and a⃗ both are perpendicular to r
(B) v
⃗ and a⃗ both are parallel to r
(C) v
⃗ is perpendicular to r and a⃗ is directed away from the origin
(D) v
⃗ is perpendicular to r and a⃗ is directed towards the origin
For Solution – Click Here

10. A car is moving with a constant speed of 20 m/s in a circular horizontal track of radius 40 m.
A bob is suspended from the roof of the car by a massless string. The angle made by the string
with the vertical will be :
(Take g = 10 m/s2 )
π π π π
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 2 4 3
For Solution – Click Here

44 | P a g e
11. A body of mass 200g is tied to a spring of sprin constant 12.5 N/m, while the other end of spring
is fixed at point O. If the body moves about O in a circular path on a smooth horizontal surface
with constant angular speed 5rad/s, then the ratio of extension in the spring to its natural length
will be:
(A) 1: 2 (B) 1: 1 (C) 2: 3 (D) 2: 5
For Solution – Click Here

12. A car is moving on a horizontal curved road with radius 50 m. The approximate maximum
speed of car will be, if friction between tyres and road is 0.34.
[Take g = 10 ms −2 ]
(A) 3.4 ms −1 (B) 22.4 ms −1 (C) 13 ms −1 (D) 17 ms −1
For Solution – Click Here

13. A coin is placed on a disc. The coefficient of friction between the coin and the disc is μ. If the
distance of the coin from the center of the disc is r, the maximum angular velocity which can
be given to the disc, so that the coin does not slip away, is :
μg μg r μ
(A) (B) √ (C) √ (D)
r r μg √rg

For Solution – Click Here

14. An object moves at a constant speed along a circular path in a horizontal plane with centre at
the origin. When the object is at x = +2 m, its velocity is −4ĵm/s. The object's velocity (v)
and acceleration (a) at x = −2 m will be
(A) v = 4îm/s, a = 8ĵm/s2 (B) v = 4ĵm/s, a = 8îm/s2
(C) v = −4ĵm/s, a = 8îm/s2 (D) v = −4îm/s, a = −8ĵm/s2
For Solution – Click Here

15. A car is moving on a circular path of radius 600 m such that the magnitudes of the tangential
acceleration and centripetal acceleration are equal. The time taken by the car to complete first
quarter of revolution, if it is moving with an initial speed of 54 km/hr is t(1 − e−π/2 )s. The
value of t is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

16. A stone tied to 180 cm long string at its end is making 28 revolutions in horizontal circle in
1936
every minute. The magnitude of acceleration of stone is ms −2 . The value of x _____ .
x
22
(Take π = )
7
For Solution – Click Here

45 | P a g e
17. A body is moving with constant speed, in a circle of radius 10 m. The body completes one
revolution in 4 s. At the end of 3rd second, the displacement of body (in m ) from its starting
point is:
(A) 30 (B) 15π (C) 5π (D) 10√2
For Solution – Click Here

18. A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to end of a massless string of length 1 m. If the breaking tension
of the string is 400 N, then maximum linear velocity, the stone can have without breaking the
string, while rotating in horizontal plane, is:
(A) 20 ms −1 (B) 40 ms −1 (C) 400 ms −1 (D) 10 ms −1
For Solution – Click Here

19. A smooth circular groove has a smooth vertical wall as shown in figure. A block of mass m
moves against the wall with a speed v. Which of the following curve represents the correct
relation between the normal reaction on the block by the wall (N) and speed of the block (v)?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

20. A ball is spun with angular acceleration α = 6t 2 − 2t where t is in second and is in rads −2 . At
t = 0, the ball has angular velocity of 10 rads −1 and angular position of 4rad. The most
appropriate expression for the angular position of the ball is:
3 t4 t3 2t4 t3 t3
(A) t 4 − t 2 + 10t (B) − + 10t + 4(C) − + 10t + 12 (D) 2t 4 − + 5t + 4
2 2 3 3 6 2
For Solution – Click Here

21. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its centripetal
acceleration (a) is varying with time t as a = k 2 rt 2 . where k is a constant. The power delivered
to the particle by the force acting on it is given as
(A) Zero (B) mk 2 r 2 t 2 (C) mk 2 r 2 (D) mk 2 rt
For Solution – Click Here

46 | P a g e
22. A stone tide to a string of length L is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the string
at the centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest position and has a speed u.
The magnitude of change in its velocity, as it reaches a position where the string is horizontal,
is √x(u2 − gL). The value of x is
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 5
For Solution – Click Here

23. One end of a massless spring of spring constant k and natural length l0 is fixed while the other
end is connected to a small object of mass m lying on a frictionless table. The spring remains
horizontal on the table. If the object is made to rotate at an angular velocity ω about an axis
passing through fixed end, then the elongation of the spring will be:
k−mω2 l0 mω2 l0 mω2 l0 k+mω2 l0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
mω2 k+mω2 k−mω2 mω2
For Solution – Click Here

24. A ball is released from rest from point P of a smooth semi-spherical vessel as shown in figure.
The ratio of the centripetal force and normal reaction on the ball at point Q is A while angular
position of point Q is α with respect to point P. Which of the following graphs represent the
correct relation between A and α when ball goes from Q to R ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

25. For a particle in a uniform circular motion, the acceleration a⃗ at any point P(R, θ) on the
circular path of radius R is (when θ is measured from the positive x-axis and v is uniform
speed)
v2 v2 v2 v2
(A) − sin⁡ θî + cos⁡ θĵ (B) − cos⁡ θî + sin⁡ θĵ
R R R R
v2 v2 v2 v2
(C) − cos⁡ θî − sin⁡ θĵ (D) − î + ĵ
R R R R
For Solution – Click Here

47 | P a g e
26. A disc with a flat small bottom beaker placed on it at a distance R from its center is revolving
about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to its plane with an angular velocity
ω. The coefficient of static friction between the bottom of the beaker and the surface of the disc
is μ. The beaker will revolve with the disc if:
μg μg μg μg
(A) R ≤ 2 (B) R ≤ 2 (C) R ≥ 2 (D) R ≥ 2
2ω ω 2ω ω
For Solution – Click Here

27. A stone of mass m tied to a string is being whirled in a vertical circle with a uniform speed.
The tension in the string is
(A) the same throughout the motion.
(B) minimum at the highest position of the circular path.
(C) minimum at the lowest position of the circular path.
(D) minimum when the rope is in the horizontal position.
For Solution – Click Here

28. A boy ties a stone of mass 100 g to the end of a 2 m long string and whirls it around in a
horizontal plane. The string can withstand the maximum tension of 80 N. If the maximum speed
with which the stone can revolve is K/πrev. / min. The value of K is (Assume the string is
massless and unstretchable)
(A) 400 (B) 300 (C) 600 (D) 800
For Solution – Click Here

29. A pendulum is suspended by a string of length 250 cm. The mass of the bob of the pendulum
is 200 g. The bob is pulled aside until the string is at 60∘ with vertical as shown in the figure.
After releasing the bob. the maximum velocity attained by the bob will be _____ ms −1 . (if g =
10 m/s2 )
For Solution – Click Here

30. A curved in a level road has a radius 75 m. The maximum speed of a car turning this curved
road can be 30 m/s without skidding. If radius of curved road is changed to 48 m and the
coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road remains same, then maximum allowed
speed would be _____ m/s.
For Solution – Click Here

48 | P a g e
 ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 D 2 C 3 C 4 D 5 D 6 C 7 A
8 A 9 D 10 C 11 C 12 C 13 B 14 B
15 40 16 125 17 D 18 A 19 A 20 B 21 C
22 B 23 C 24 C 25 C 26 B 27 B 28 C
29 5 30 24

49 | P a g e
 Center of Mass
1. A circular disc of radius R is removed from a bigger circular disc of radius 2R such that the
circumferences of the discs coincide. The centre of mass of the new disc is αR distance from the
centre of the bigger disc. The value of α is:
(A) 1/3 (B) 1/2 (C) 1/6 (D) ¼
For Solution – Click Here

2. A thin rod of length 'L' is lying along the x -axis with its ends at x = 0 and x = L. Its linear density
x n
(mass/length) varies with x as k ( ) , where n can be zero or any positive number. If the position
L
xCM of the centre of mass of the rod is plotted against 'n', which of the following graphs best
approximates the dependence of xCM on n ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

3. Distance of the centre of mass of a solid uniform cone from its vertex is z0 . If the radius of its
base is R and its height is h then z0 is equal to
h2 3h 5h 3h2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4R 4 8 8R
For Solution – Click Here

4. Three point particles of masses 1.0 kg, 1.5 kg and 2.5 kg are placed at three corners of a right
angle triangle of sides 4.0 cm, 3.0 cm and 5.0 cm as shown in the figure. The center of mass of
the system is at a point :
(A) 0.6 cm right and 2.0 cm above 1kg mass
(B) 2.0 cm right and 0.9 cm above 1 kg mass
(C) 0.9 cm right and 2.0 cm above 1kg mass
(D) 1.5 cm right and 1.2 cm above 1kg mass
For Solution – Click Here

5. The coordinates of centre of mass of a uniform flag shaped lamina (thin flat plate) of mass 4 kg.
(The coordinates of the same are shown in figure) are:
(A) (1.25 m, 1.50 m)
(B) (0.75 m, 0.75 m)
(C) (0.75 m, 1.75 m)
(D) (1 m, 1.75 m)
For Solution – Click Here

50 | P a g e
6. As shown in figure. When a spherical cavity (centred at O) of radius 1 is cut out of a uniform
sphere of radius R (centred at C), the centre of mass of remaining (shaded) part of sphere is at G,
i.e on the surface of the cavity. R can be determined by the equation:
(A) (R2 – R + 1) (2 – R) = 1
(B) (R2 + R+ 1) (2–R) = 1
(C) (R2 – R – 1) (2 – R) = 1
(D) (R2 + R – 1) (2 – R) = 1
For Solution – Click Here

X 2
7. A rod of length L has non-uniform linear mass density given by ρ(x) = a + b ( ) , where a and
L
b are constants and 0 ≤ x ≤ L. The value of x for the centre of mass of the rod is at:
4 a+b 3 2a+b 3 2a+b 3 a+b
(A) ( )L (B) ( )L (C) ( )L (D) ( )L
3 2a+3b 4 3a+b 2 3a+b 2 2a+b
For Solution – Click Here

8. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 30 kg are placed on the same straight line with coordinates
(0,0)cm and (x, 0)cm respectively. The block of 10 kg is moved on the same line through a
distance of 6 cm towards the other block. The distance through which the block of 30 kg must be
moved to keep the position of centre of mass of the system unchanged is :
(A) 4 cm towards the 10 kg block (B) 2 cm away from the 10 kg block
(C) 2 cm towards the 10 kg block (D) 4 cm away from the 10 kg block
For Solution – Click Here

9. A body of mass M at rest explodes into three pieces, in the ratio of masses 1: 1: 2. Two smaller
pieces fly off perpendicular to each other with velocities of 30 ms −1 and 40 ms −1 respectively.
The velocity of the third piece will be :
(A) 15 ms −1 (B) 25 ms −1 (C) 35 ms −1 (D) 50 ms −1
For Solution – Click Here

10. The identical spheres each of mass 2M are placed at the corners of a right angled triangle with
mutually perpendicular sides equal to 4 m each. Taking point of intersection of these two sides as
4√2
origin, the magnitude of position vector of the centre of mass of the system is , where the value
x
of x is _____.
For Solution – Click Here

11. What percentage of kinetic energy of a moving particle is transferred to a stationary particle when
it strikes the stationary particle of 5 times its mass? (Assume the collision to be head-on elastic
collision)
(A) 50.0% (B) 66.6% (C) 55.5% (D) 33.3%
For Solution – Click Here

51 | P a g e
12. As per the given figure, a small ball P slides down the quadrant of a circle and hits the other ball
Q of equal mass which is initially at rest. Neglecting the effect of friction and assume the collision
to be elastic, the velocity of ball Q after collision will be : (g = 10 m/s2 )
0.25 m
(A) 0 (B)
s
(C) 2 m/s (D) 4 m/s
For Solution – Click Here

13. A ball of mass 200 g rests on a vertical post of height 20 m. A bullet of mass 10 g, travelling in
horizontal direction, hits the centre of the ball. After collision both travels independently. The ball
hits the ground at a distance 30 m and the bullet at a distance of 120 m from the foot of the post.
The value of initial velocity of the bullet will be (if g = 10 m/s2 ) :
(A) 120 m/s (B) 60 m/s (C) 400 m/s (D) 360 m/s
For Solution – Click Here

14. A machine gun of mass 10 kg fires 20 g bullets at the rate of 180 bullets per minute with a speed
of 100 m s −1 each. The recoil velocity of the gun is :
(A) 0.02 m/s (B) 2.5 m/s (C) 1.5 m/s (D) 0.6 m/s
For Solution – Click Here

15. Figures (a),(b),(c) and (d) show variation of force with time.

The impulse is highest in figure.

(A) Fig (c) (B) Fig (b) (C) Fig (a) (D) Fig (d)
For Solution – Click Here

16. A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m. If the coefficient of restitution for the collision between
ball and floor is 0.5, after hitting the floor, the ball rebounds to a height of ______ m.
For Solution – Click Here

17. A man of 60 kg is running on the road and suddenly jumps into a stationary trolley car of mass
120 kg. Then. the trolley car starts moving with velocity 2 ms −1 . The velocity of the running man
was _____ ms −1 . when he jumps into the car.
For Solution – Click Here

52 | P a g e
18. A pendulum of length 2 m consists of a wooden bob of mass 50 g. A bullet of mass 75 g is fired
towards the stationary bob with a speed v. The bullet emerges out of the bob with a speed v/3
and the bob just completes the vertical circle. The value of v is _____ ms −1 (if g = 10 m/s2 )
For Solution – Click Here

19. A body of mass 1 kg collides head on elastically with a stationary body of mass 3 kg. After
collision, the smaller body reverses its direction of motion and moves with a speed of 2 m/s. The
initial speed of the smaller body before collision is _____ ms −1 .
For Solution – Click Here

20. A body starts falling freely from height H hits an inclined plane in its path at height h. As a result
of this perfectly elastic impact, the direction of the velocity of the body becomes horizontal. The
H
value of for which the body will take the maximum time to reach the ground is ______.
h
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 A 2 D 3 B 4 C 5 C 6 B 7 B
8 C 9 B 10 3 11 C 12 C 13 D 14 D
15 B 16 5 17 6 18 10 19 4 20 2

53 | P a g e
 Rotational Motion
1. Two identical spherical balls of mass M and radius R each are stuck on two ends
of a rod of length 2R and mass M (see figure). The moment of inertia of the
system about the axis passing perpendicularly through the centre of the rod is:
(A) 152/15 MR2 (B) 17/15 MR2
(C) 137/15 MR2 (D) 209/15 MR2
For Solution – Click Here

2. The equilateral triangle ABC is cut from a thin solid sheet of wood. (See figure)
D, E and F are the mid points of its sides as shown and G is the centre of the
triangle. The moment of inertia of the triangle about an axis passing through G
and perpendicular to the plane of the triangle is I0. If the smaller triangle DEF
is removed from ABC, the moment of inertia of the remaining figure about the
same axis is I. Then:
15 3
(A) I = I0 (B) I = I0
16 4
9 I0
(C) I = I (D) I =
16 0 4
For Solution – Click Here

3. A circular disc D1 of mass M and radius R has two identical discs D2 and D3 of
the same mass M and radius R attached rigidly as its opposite ends (see figure).
The moment of inertia of the system about the axis OO’, passing through the
centre of D1 as shown in the figure, will:
(A) MR2
(B) 3MR2
(C) 4/5 MR2
(D) 2/3 MR2
For Solution – Click Here

4. A thin circular plate of mass M and radius R has its density varying as r(r) = r 0r
with r0 as constant and r is the distance from its center. The moment of Inertia
of the circular plate about an axis perpendicular to the plate and passing
through its edge is I = aMR2. The value of the coefficient a is:
(A) 3/2 (B) 3/5 (C) 8/5 (D) ½
For Solution – Click Here

54 | P a g e
5. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere, about an axis parallel to its diameter
and at a distance of x from it, is ‘I(x)’. Which one of the graphs represents the
variation of I(x) with x correctly?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

6. A thin disc of mass M and radius R has mass per unit area s (r) = kr2 where r is
the distance from its center. Its moment of inertia about an axis going through
its centre of mass and perpendicular to its plane is:
(A) MR2/3 (B) 2MR2/3 (C) MR2/2 (D) MR2/6
For Solution – Click Here

7. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R is divided into two unequal parts. The
first part has a mass of 7M/8 and is converted into a uniform disc of radius 2R.
The second part is converted into a uniform solid sphere. Let I 1 be the moment
of inertia of the disc about its axis and I2 be the moment of inertia of the new
sphere about its axis. The ratio I1/I2 is given by:
(A) 185 (B) 65 (C) 285 (D) 140
For Solution – Click Here

8. A circular disc of radius b has a hole of radius a at its centre (see figure). If the
mass per unit area of the disc varies as (s0/r) then the radius of gyration of the
disc about its axis passing through the centre is.
a+b a2 +b2 +ab
(A) (B) √
3 2

a+b a2 +b2 +ab

(C) (D) √
2 3
For Solution – Click Here

9. Mass per unit area of a circular disc of radius a depends on the distance r from
its centre as σ® = A + Br. The moment of inertia of the disc about the axis,
perpendicular to the plane and passing through its centre is :
aA B A aB
(A) 2πa4 ( + ) (B) 2πa4 ( + )
4 5 4 5
A aB A B
(C) па 4
( + ) (D) 2πa4 ( + )
4 5 4 5
For Solution – Click Here

55 | P a g e
10. Three solid spheres each of mass m and diameter d are stuck together such that
the lines connecting the centres form an equilateral triangle of side of length d.
The ratio I0/IA of moment of inertial I0 of the system about an axis passing the
centroid and about center of any of the spheres I A and perpendicular to the
plane of the triangle is:
23 13 13 15
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13 15 23 13
For Solution – Click Here

11. Two discs of same mass and different radii are made of different materials such
that their thicknesses are 1 cm and 0.5 cm respectively. The densities of
materials are in the ratio 3: 5. The moment of inertia of these discs respectively
x
about their diameters will be in the ratio of . The value of x is _____ .
6
For Solution – Click Here

12. Moment of inertia of a dise of mass M and radius ' R ' about any of its diameter
MR2
is . The moment of inertia of this disc about an axis normal to the disc and
4
x
passing through a point on its edge will be, M2 . The value of x is ______ .
2
For Solution – Click Here

13. A uniform solid cylinder with radius R and length L has moment of inertia I 1,
about the axis of cylinder. A concentric solid cylinder of radius R′ = R/2 and
length L′ = L/2 is caned out of the original cylinder. If I2 is the moment of inertia
of the carved out portion of the cylinder then I1 / I2 = ________
(Both I1 and I2 are about the axis of the cylinder)
For Solution – Click Here

14. Four particles each of mass 1 kg are placed at four corners of a square of side
2 m. Moment of inertia of system about an axis perpendicular to its plane and
passing through one of its vertex is _______ kgm2 .
For Solution – Click Here

15. Two identical spheres each of mass 2 kg and radius 50 cm are fixed at the ends
of a light rod so that the separation between the centers is 150 cm . Then,
moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and
x
passing through its middle point is kg m2 , where the value of x is _______.
20
For Solution – Click Here
56 | P a g e
16. ICM is moment of inertia of a circular disc about an axis (CM) passing through
its center and perpendicular to the plane of disc. IAB is it's moment of inertia
2
about an axis AB perpendicular to plane and parallel to axis CM at a distance R
3
from center. Where R is the radius of the disc.
The ratio of IAB and ICM is x: 9. The value of x is _____ .

For Solution – Click Here

17. If a solid sphere of mass 5 kg and a disc of mass 4 kg have the same radius.
Then the ratio of moment of inertia of the disc about a tangent in its plane to
x
the moment of inertia of the sphere about its tangent will be . The value of x is
7
____ .
For Solution – Click Here

18. Four identical discs each of mass ' M ' and diameter ' a ' are arranged in a small
plane as shown in figure. If the moment of inertia of the system about is OO′ is
x
Ma2 . Then, the value of x will be _____ .
4

For Solution – Click Here

19. The moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod about a perpendicular axis passing
through one end is I1 . The same rod is bent into a ring and its moment of inertia
about a diameter is I2 .
I1 xπ2
If is , then the value of x will be _____ .
I2 3
For Solution – Click Here

57 | P a g e
20. Solid sphere A is rotating about an axis PQ. If the radius of the sphere is 5 cm
then its radius of gyration about PQ will be √x cm. The value of x is

For Solution – Click Here

21. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the
options given below
List-I List-II

(A) Moment of inertia of solid sphere of (I) 5

MR2
radius R about any tangent 3
(B) Moment of inertia of hollow sphere of (II) 7
MR2
radius (R) about any tangent 5
(C) Moment of inertia of circular ring of (III) 1
MR2
radius (R) about its diameter. 4
(D) Moment of inertia of circular disc of (IV) 1
MR2
radius (R) about any diameter. 2

(A) A-II, B-II, C-IV, D-III (B) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
For Solution – Click Here

22. The torque of a force 5î + 3ĵ − 7k̂ about the origin is τ. If the force acts on a
particle whose position vector is 2î + 2ĵ + k̂, then the value of τ will be:
(A) 11î + 19ĵ − 4k̂ (B) −11î + 9ĵ − 16k̂
(C) −17î + 19ĵ − 4k̂ (D) 17î + 9ĵ + 16k̂
For Solution – Click Here

23. If force ⃗F = 3î + 4ĵ − 2k̂ acts on a particle having position vector 2î + ĵ + 2k̂ then,
the torque about the origin will be
(A) 3î + 4ĵ − 2k̂ (B) −10î + 10ĵ + 5k̂ (C) 10î + 5ĵ − 10k̂ (D) 10î + ĵ − 5k̂
For Solution – Click Here

58 | P a g e
24. A fly wheel is accelerated uniformly from rest and rotates through 5rad in the
first second. The angle rotated by the fly wheel in the next second, will be:
(A) 7.5rad (B) 15rad (C) 20rad (D) 30rad
For Solution – Click Here

25. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating with a constant angular
velocity 2rads −1 in a horizontal plane about an axis vertical to its plane and
passing through the center of the ring. If two objects each of mass m be attached
gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of ring, the ring will then rotate with
an angular velocity (in rad s −1 ).
M (M+2m) 2M 2(M+2m)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(M+m) 2M (M+2m) M
For Solution – Click Here

26. A spherical shell of 1 kg mass and radius R is rolling with angular speed ω on
horizontal plane (as shown in figure). The magnitude of angular momentum of
a
the shell about the origin O is R2 ω. The value of a will be :
3
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 4
For Solution – Click Here

27. A solid spherical ball is rolling on a frictionless horizontal plane surface about
its axis of symmetry. The ratio of rotational kinetic energy of the ball to its total
kinetic energy is -
(A) 2/5 (B) 2/7 (C) 1/5 (D) 7/10
For Solution – Click Here

28. A √34 m long ladder weighing 10 kg leans on a frictionless wall. Its feet rest on
the floor 3 m away from the wall as shown in the figure. If Ff and Fw are the
reaction forces of the floor and the wall, then ratio of Fw /Ff will be:
(Use g = 10 m/s2 )
6
(A)
√110
3
(B)
√113
3
(C)
√109
2
(D)
√109
For Solution – Click Here
59 | P a g e
29. A pulley of radius 1.5 m is rotated about its axis by a force F = (12t − 3t 2 )N
applied tangentially (while t is measured in seconds). If moment of inertia of the
pulley about its axis of rotation is 4.5 kg m2 , the number of rotations made by
the pulley before its direction of motion is reversed, will be K/π. The value of K
is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

30. The position vector of 1 kg object is r = (3î − ĵ)m and its velocity v
⃗ = (3ĵ + k)ms −1 .
The magnitude of its angular momentum is √xNm where x is
For Solution – Click Here

31. An object of mass 8 kg is hanging from one end of a uniform rod CD of mass 2 kg
and length 1 m pivoted at its end C on a vertical wall as shown in figure. It is
supported by a cable AB such that the system is in equilibrium. The tension in
the cable is : (Take g = 10 m/s2 )
(A) 240 N
(B) 90 N
(C) 300 N
(D) 30 N
For Solution – Click Here

32. A solid cylinder and a solid sphere, having same mass 𝑀 and radius R, roll down
the same inclined plane from top without slipping. They start from rest. The
ratio of velocity of the solid cylinder to that of the solid sphere, with which they
reach the ground, will be :
5 4 3 14
(A) √ (B) √ (C) √ (D) √
3 5 5 15

For Solution – Click Here

33. A metre scale is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of
mass 10 g are put one on the top of the other at the 10.0 cm mark the scale is
found to be balanced at 40.0 cm mark. The mass of the metre scale is found to
be x × 10−2 kg. The value of x is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

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34. A body of mass 'm' is projected with a speed 'u' making an angle of 45∘ with the
ground. The angular momentum of the body about the point of projection, at
√2mr3
the highest point is expressed as . The value of 'X' is ________.
Xg
For Solution – Click Here

35. A solid cylinder length is suspended symmetrically through two massless

strings, as shown in the figure. The distance from the initial rest position, the
cylinder should by unbinding the strings to achieve a speed of 4 ms −1 , is _____
cm. (take g = 10 ms −2 )

For Solution – Click Here

36. A disc of mass 1 kg and radius R is free of rotate about a horizontal axis passing
through its centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc. A body of same mass
as that of disc is fixed at the highest point of the disc. Now the system is
released, when the body comes to the lowest position, its angular speed will be
x
4√ rad s−1 where x =______ (g = 10 ms −2 )
3R

For Solution – Click Here

37. A body of mass 5 kg moving with a uniform speed 3√2 ms −1 in X − Y plane along
the line y = x + 4. The angular momentum of the particle about the origin will be
_________ kgm2 s−1 .
For Solution – Click Here

38. Consider a Disc of mass 5 kg, radius 2 m, rotating with angular velocity of
10rad/s about an axis perpendicular to the plane of rotation. An identical disc is
kept gently over the rotating disc along the same axis. The energy dissipated so
that both the discs continue to rotate together without slipping is ______ J.

For Solution – Click Here

61 | P a g e
39. Two discs of moment of inertia I1 = 4 kg m2 and I2 = 2 kg m2 , about their central
axes & normal to their planes, rotating with angular speeds 10rad/s & 4rad/s
respectively are brought into contact face to face with their axes of rotation
coincident. The loss in kinetic energy of the system in the process is ________ J.
For Solution – Click Here

40. Moment of Inertia (M.I.) of four bodies having same mass 'M' and radius '2R' are
as follows :
I1 = M.I. of solid sphere about its diameter
I2 = M.I. of solid cylinder about its axis
I3 = M.I. of solid circular disc about its diameter.
I4 = M.I. of thin circular ring about its diameter
If 2(I2 + I3 ) + I4 = x ⋅ I1 then the value of x will be _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

41. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity 'u' making an angle of 30∘ with
the horizontal, The magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile about the
point of projection when the particle is at its maximum height h is :
mu3 √3 mu3 √3 mu2
(A) (B) (C) zero (D)
√2 g 16 g 2 g
For Solution – Click Here

42. As shown in figure, a 70 kg garden roller is pushed with a force of ⃗F = 200 N at

an angle of 30∘ with horizontal. The normal reaction on the roller is
(Given g = 10 m s −2 )
(A) 800√2 N (B) 600 N
(C) 800 N (D) 200√3 N
For Solution – Click Here

43. A spherical shell of 1 kg mass and radius R is rolling with angular speed ω on
horizontal plane (as shown in figure). The magnitude of angular momentum of
a
the shell about the origin O is R2 ω. The value of a will be :
3
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 4
For Solution – Click Here

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44. A disc of radius R and mass M is rolling horizontally without slipping with speed
v . It then moves up an inclined smooth surface as shown in figure. The
maximum height that the disc can go up the incline is :
2 v2 v2
(A) (B)
3 g g
3 v2 1 v2
(C) (D)
4 g 2 g
For Solution – Click Here

45. A cylinder is rolling down on an inclined plane of inclination 60∘ . It's acceleration
x
during rolling down will be m/s2 , where x = _______ .(use g = 10 m/s2 ).
√3
For Solution – Click Here

46. A particle of mass 100 g is projected at time t = 0 with a speed 20 ms −1 at an

angle 45∘ to the horizontal as given in the figure. The magnitude of the angular
momentum of the particle about the starting point at time t = 2 s is found to be
√K kgm2 /s. The value of K is _____ . (Take g = 10 ms −2 )

For Solution – Click Here

47. A thin uniform rod of length 2 m. cross sectional area ' A ' and density ' d ' is
rotated about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to its length
with angular velocity ω. If value of ω in terms of its rotational kinetic energy E
αE
is √ then the value of α is _____ .
Ad

For Solution – Click Here

48. A uniform disc of mass 0.5 kg and radius r is projected with velocity 18 m/s at
t = 0 s on a rough horizontal surface. It starts off with a purely sliding motion at
t = 0 s. After 2 s it acquires a purely rolling motion (see figure). The total kinetic
energy of the disc after 2 s will be ______ J .
(given, coefficient of friction is 0.3 and g = 10 m/s2 )

For Solution – Click Here

63 | P a g e
49. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg is making pure rolling on a horizontal surface with
kinetic energy 2240 J. The velocity of centre of mass of the sphere will be _____
ms −1 .
For Solution – Click Here

50. A solid cylinder is released from rest from the top of an inclined plane of
inclination 30∘ and length 60 cm. If the cylinder rolls without slipping, its speed
upon reaching the bottom of the inclined plane is _____ ms −1 .
(Given g = 10 ms −2 )

For Solution – Click Here

51. A rod of length 50cm is pivoted at one end. It is raised such that if makes an
angle of 30° from the horizontal as shown and released from rest. Its angular
speed when it passes through the horizontal (in rad s–1) will be (g = 10ms–2)
30
(A) √30 (B) √
2
√30 √20
(C) (D)
2 3
For Solution – Click Here

52. To mop-clean a floor, a cleaning machine presses a circular mop of radius R

vertically down with a total force F and rotates it with a constant angular speed
about its axis. If the force F is distributed uniformly over the mop and if
coefficient of friction between the mop and the floor is μ, the torque, applied by
the machine on the mop is :
(A) 2/3 μFR (B) μFR/3 (C) μFR/2 (D) μFR/6
For Solution – Click Here

53. A rigid massless rod of length 3l has two masses attached at each end as shown
in the figure. The rod is pivoted at point P on the horizontal axis (see figure).
When released from initial horizontal position, its instantaneous angular
acceleration will be:
g 7g
(A) (B)
2l 3l
g g
(C) (D)
13l 3l
For Solution – Click Here
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54. The magnitude of torque on a particle of mass 1kg is 2.5 Nm about the origin.
If the force acting on it is 1N, and the distance of the particle from the origin is
5m, the angle between the force and the position vector is (in radians):
(A) p / 6 (B) p / 3 (C) p / 8 (D) p / 4
For Solution – Click Here

55. A string is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 5 kg and radius 0.5m. If the
string is now pulled with a horizontal force of 40 N, and the cylinder is rolling
without slipping on a horizontal surface (see figure), then the angular
acceleration of the cylinder will be (Neglect the mass and thickness of the string)
(A) 20 rad/s2 (B) 16 rad/s2
(C) 12 rad/s2 (D) 10 rad/s2
For Solution – Click Here

56. A thin smooth rod of length L and mass M is rotating freely with angular speed
w0 about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through its centre. Two
beads of mass m and negligible size are at the centre of the rod initially. The
beads are free to slide along the rod. The angular
Mω0 Mω0 Mω0 Mω0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
M+2m M+m M+3m M+6m
For Solution – Click Here

57. A particle of mass m is moving along a trajectory given by

x = x0 + a cos w1 t, y = y0 + b sin w2 t.
The torque, acting on the particle about the origin, at t = 0 is:
(A) +my0aw12k (B) m(–x0b + y0a) w12k
(C) –m (x0bw22 – y0 aw12) (D) zero
For Solution – Click Here

58. A thin disc of mass M and radius R has mass per unit area s (r) = kr 2 where r is
the distance from its center. Its moment of inertia about an axis going through
its centre of mass and perpendicular to its plane is:
(A) MR2/3 (B) 2MR2/3 (C) MR2/2 (D) MR2/6
For Solution – Click Here

59. As shown in the figure, a bob a mass m is tied by a massless string whose other
end portion is wound on a fly wheel (disc) of radius r and mass m. When released
from rest the bob starts falling vertically. When it has covered a distance of h,
the angular speed of the wheel will be:

65 | P a g e
 3 1 2gh
(A) r√ (B) √
4gh r 3

3 1 4gh
(C) r√ (D) √
2gh r 3

For Solution – Click Here

60. A uniformly thick wheel with moment of inertial I and radius R is free to rotate
about its centre of mass (see figure). A massless string is wrapped over its rim
and two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are attached to the ends of the
string. The system is released from rest. The angular speed of the wheel when
m1 descents by a distance h is:
1 1
m1 +m2 2 2(m −m )gh 2
(A) [(m 2
] gh (B) [(m 1 )R2 2 ]
1 +m2 )R +1 1 +m2 +1
1 1
2(m +m )gh 2 (m1 +m2 ) 2
(C) [(m 1 )R2 2 ] (D) [(m 2
] gh
1 +m2 +1 1 +m2 )R +1

For Solution – Click Here

61. A uniform circular disc of radius ‘R’ and mass ‘M’ is rotating about an axis
perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre. A small circular part
of radius R/2 is removed from the original disc as shown in the figure. Find the
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the original disc about the axis as
given above.

7 9 17 13
(A) MR2 (B) MR2 (C) MR2 (D) MR2
32 32 32 32
For Solution – Click Here

62. The position vectors of two 1 kg particles, (A) and (B), are given by
rA = (α1 t 2 î + α2 t̂ + α3 tk̂)mand rB = (β1 tî + β2 t 2 ĵ + β3 tk̂)m, respectively;
(α1 = 1m/s2 , α2 = 3nm/s, α3 = 2m/s, β1 = 2m/s, β2 = −1m/s2 , β3 = 4pm/s ),
where t is time, n and p are constants, At t = 1s, |V ⃗ A | = |V
⃗ B | and velocities ⃗VA and
⃗VB of the particles are orthogonal to each other. At t = 1s, the magnitude of
angular momentum of particle (A) with respect to the position of particle (B) is
√Lkgm2 s −1 . The value of L is ______.
For Solution – Click Here

66 | P a g e
63. The torque due to the force (2î + ĵ + 2k̂) about the origin, acting on a particle
whose position vector is (î + ĵ + k̂), would be
(1) î − ĵ + k̂ (2) î + k̂ (3) î − k̂ (4) ĵ − k̂
For Solution – Click Here

64. A solid sphere of mass 'm′ and radius ′r′ is allowed to roll without slipping from
the highest point of an inclined plane of length ′L′ and makes an angle 30∘ with
the horizontal. The speed of the particle at the bottom of the plane is v1 . If the
angle of inclination is increased to 45∘ while keeping L constant. Then the new
speed of the sphere at the bottom of the plane is v2 . The ratio of v1 2 : v2 2 is
(1) 1: √2 (2) 1: 3 (3) 1: 2 (4) 1: √3
For Solution – Click Here

65. A circular disk of radius R meter and mass M kg is rotating around the axis
perpendicular to the disk. An external torque is applied to the disk such that
θ(t) = 5t 2 − 8t, where θ(t) is the angular position of the rotating disc as a function
of time t.
How much power is delivered by the applied torque, when t = 2s ?
(A) 60MR2 (B) 72MR2 (C) 108MR2 (D) 8MR2
For Solution – Click Here

66. An object of mass 'm' is projected from origin in a vertical xy plane at an angle
45° with the x-axis with an initial velocity v0. The magnitude and direction of
the angular momentum of the object with respect to origin, when it reaches at
the maximum height, will be [g is acceleration due to gravity]
mv30 mv30
(1) along negative z-axis (2) along positive z-axis
2√2g 2√2g
mv30 mv30
(3) along positive z-axis (4) along negative z-axis
4√2g 4√2g
For Solution – Click Here

67. A uniform solid cylinder of mass ' m ' and radius ' r ' rolls along an inclined
rough plane of inclination 45∘ . If it starts to roll from rest from the top of the
plane then the linear acceleration of the cylinder axis will be :-
1 1 √2g
(1) g (2) g (3) (4) √2g
√2 3√2 3
For Solution – Click Here

67 | P a g e
68. A solid sphere is rolling without slipping on a horizontal plane. The ratio of the
linear kinetic energy of the centre of mass of the sphere and rotational kinetic
energy is :
2 5 3 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 2 4 3
For Solution – Click Here

69. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same mass and of same radius are
rolled on an inclined plane. Let the time taken to reach the bottom by the solid
sphere and the hollow sphere be t1 and t 2 , respectively, then
(1) t1 < t 2 (2) t1 = t 2 (3) t1 = 2t 2 (4) t1 > t 2
For Solution – Click Here

70. The moment of inertia of a solid disc rotating along its diameter is 2.5 times
higher than the moment of inertia of a ring rotating in similar way. The moment
of inertia of a solid sphere which has same radius as the disc and rotating in
similar way, is n times higher than the moment of inertia of the given ring. Here,
n =_______.
Consider all the bodies have equal masses.
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 C 2 A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6 B 7 D
8 D 9 B 10 C 11 5 12 3 13 32 14 16
15 53 16 17 17 5 18 3 19 8 20 110 21 A
22 C 23 B 24 B 25 C 26 C 27 B 28 C
29 18 30 91 31 C 32 D 33 6 34 8 35 120
36 5 37 60 38 250 39 24 40 5 41 B 42 C
43 C 44 D 45 10 46 800 47 3 48 54 49 40
50 2 51 A 52 A 53 C 54 A 55 B 56 D
57 A 58 B 59 D 60 B 61 D 62 90 63 B
64 A 65 A 66 D 67 C 68 B 69 A 70 4

68 | P a g e
 Gravitation
1. A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times more massive than the earth and its radius is 10 times
smaller. Given that the escape velocity from the earth is 11 kms −1 , the velocityfrom the surface
of the planet would be
(A) 11 kms−1 (B) 110 kms −1 (C) 0.11 kms−1 (D) 1.1 kms−1
For Solution – Click Here

g
2. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes (where g = the acceleration due to
9
gravity on the surface of the earth) in terms of R, the radius of the earth, is-
R
(A) (B) R/2 (C) √2R (D) 2 R
√2
For Solution – Click Here

3. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a distance r. The gravitational potential at a point
on the line joining them where the gravitational field is zero is
4Gm 6Gm 9Gm
(A) zero (B) − (C) − (D) −
r r r
For Solution – Click Here

4. What is the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet
of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R ?
2GmM GmM GmM 5GmM
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3R 2R 3R 6R
For Solution – Click Here

5. Four particles, each of mass M and equidistant from each other, move along a circle of radius R
under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is
GM GM 1 GM GM
(A) √2√2 (B) √ (1 + 2√2) (C) √ (1 + 2√2)(D) √
R R 2 R R

For Solution – Click Here

R
6. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R, a spherical portion of radius is removed, as shown
2
in the figure. Taking gravitational potential V = 0 at r = ∞, the potential at the centre of the
cavity thus formed is: (G = gravitational constant)
−2GM −2GM GM −GM
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3R R 2R R
For Solution – Click Here

69 | P a g e
7. A satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a height 'h' from the earth's surface (radius of earth
R ; h ≪ R ). The minimum increase in its orbital velocity required, so that the satellite could
escape from the earth's gravitational field, is close to: (Neglect the effect of atmosphere.)
(A) √gR(√2 − 1) (B) √2gR (C) √gR (D) √gR/2
For Solution – Click Here

8. The variation of acceleration due to gravity g with distance d from centre of the Earth is best
represented by (R = Earth’s radius)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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9. If the Earth has no rotation motion, the weight of a person on the equator is W. Determine the
speed with which the earth would have to rotate about its axis so that the person at the equator
3
will weigh W. Radius of the Earth is 6400 km and g = 10m/s2 .
4
(A) 0.63 × 10−3 rad/s (B) 0.83 × 10−3 rad/s
(C) 0.28 × 10−3 rad/s (D) 1.1 × 10−3 rad/s
For Solution – Click Here

k
10. The mass density of spherical body is given by ρ(r) = ≤ R and ρ(r) = 0 for r > R, where is r
r
is the distance from the centre. The correct graph that describes qualitatively the acceleration, a
of a test particle as a function of r is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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11. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius a under the action of an attractive potential U =
k
. It total energy is
2r2
k k 3 k
(A) − (B) (C) Zero (D) −
4a2 2a2 2 a2
For Solution – Click Here
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12. A particle is moving with a uniform speed in a circular orbit of radius R in a central force inversely
proportional to the nth power of R. If the period of rotation of the particle is T, then
n
(A) T ∝ R3/20 for any n (B) T ∝ R2+1
(C) T ∝ R(n+1)/2 (D) T ∝ Rn/2
For Solution – Click Here

13. A body of mass m is moving in a circular orbit of radius R about a planet of mass M. At some
R
instant, it splits into two equal masses. The first mass moves in a circular orbit of radius , and
2
3R
the other mass, in a circular orbit of radius . The difference between the final initial total
2
energies is:
GMm GMm GMm GMm
(A) − (B) + (C) (D) −
2R 6R 2R 6R
For Solution – Click Here

14. Take the mean distance of the moon and the sun from the earth to be 0.4 × 106 km and
150 × 106 km respectively. Their masses are 8 × 1022 kg and 2 × 1030 kg respectively. The
radius of the earth is 6400 km. Let ΔF1 be the difference in the forces exerted by the moon at the
nearest and farthest points on the earth and ΔF2 be the difference in the force exerted by the sun
ΔF
at the nearest and farthest points on the earth. Then the number closest to 1 is:
ΔF2
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 10−2 (D) 0.6
For Solution – Click Here

15. Suppose that the angular velocity of rotation of earth is increased. Then, as a consequence
(A) there will be no change in weight anywhere on the earth
(B) weight of the object, everywhere on the earth, will increase
(C) except at poles, weight of the object on the earth will decrease
(D) weight of the object, everywhere on the earth, will decrease.
For Solution – Click Here

16. Two particles of the same mass m are moving in circular orbits because of force, given by F(r) =
−16
− r 3 . The first particle is at a distance r = 1, and the second at r = 4. The best estimate for
r
the ratio of kinetic energies of the first and the second particle is closest to
(A) 6 × 10−2 (B) 10−1 (C) 3 × 10−3 (D) 6 × 102
For Solution – Click Here

17. The energy required to take a satellite to a height 'h' above Earth surface (radius of Earth =
6.4 × 103 km) is E1 and kinetic energy required for the satellite to be in a circular orbit at this
height is E2 . The value of h for which E1 and E2 are equal, is:
(A) 1.28 × 104 km (B) 6.4 × 103 km (C) 3.2 × 103 km (D) 1.6 × 103 km
For Solution – Click Here

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18. A satellite is moving with a constant speed v in circular orbit around the earth. An object of mass
'm' is ejected from the satellite such that it just escapes from the gravitational pull of the earth. At
the time of ejection, the kinetic energy of the object is :
3 1
(A) (B) mv 2 (C) 2mv 2 (D)
2mv2 2mv2
For Solution – Click Here

19. Two stars of masses 3 × 1031 kg each, and at distance 2 × 1011 m rotate in a plane about their
common centre of mass O. A meteorite passes through O moving perpendicular to the star's
rotation plane. In order to escape from the gravitational field of this double star, the minimum
speed that meteorite should have at O is :
(Take Gravitational constant G = 6.67 × 10−11 Nm2 kg −2 )
(A) 1.4 × 105 m/s (B) 24 × 104 m/s (C) 3.8 × 104 m/s (D) 2.8 ×105 m/s
For Solution – Click Here

20. A satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a height h from the earth surface, such that h << R
where R is the radius of the earth. Assuming that the effect of earth's atmosphere can be neglected
the minimum increase in the speed required so that the satellite could escape from the gravitational
field of earth is:
gR
(A) √2gR (B) √gR (C) √ (D) √gR(√2 − 1)
2

For Solution – Click Here

21. A straight rod of length L extends from x = a to x = L + a. The gravitational force it exerts on a
point mass 'm' at x = 0, if the mass per unit length of the rod is A + Bx 2 , is given by:
1 1 1 1
(A) Gm⁡ [A ( − ) − BL] (B) Gm⁡ [A ( − ) − BL]
a+L a a a−L
1 1 1 1
(D) Gm⁡ [A ( − ) + BL] (C) Gm⁡ [A ( − ) + BL]
a a+L a+L a
For Solution – Click Here

22. A satellite of mass M is in a circular orbit of radius R about the centre of the earth. A meteorite
of the same mass, falling towards the earth collides with the satellite completely inelastically. The
speeds of the satellite and the meteorite are the same, just before the collision. The subsequent
motion of the combined body will be:
(A) such that it escapes to infinity (B) in an elliptical orbit
(C) in the same circular orbit of radius R (D) in a circular orbit of a different radius
For Solution – Click Here
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23. Four identical particles of mass M are located at the corners of a square of side 'a'. What should
be their speed if each of them revolves under the influence of others' gravitational field in a
circular orbit circumscribing the square?
GM GM
(A) 1.21√ (B) 1.41√
a a

GM GM
(D) 1.16√ (D) 1.35√
a a
For Solution – Click Here

24. A rocket has to be launched from earth in such a way that it never returns. If E is the minimum
energy delivered by the rocket launcher, what should be the minimum energy that the launcher
should have if the same rocket is to be launched from the surface of the moon? Assume that the
density of the earth and the moon are equal and that the earth's volume is 64 times the volume of
the moon.
(A) E/16 (B) E/32 (C) E/64 (D) E/4
For Solution – Click Here

25. A solid sphere of mass 'M' and radius 'a' is surrounded by a uniform concentric spherical shell of
thickness 2a and mass 2M. The gravitational field at distance '3a' from the centre will be:
(A) 2GM/3a2 (B) GM/9a2 (C) 2GM/9a2 (D) GM/3a2
For Solution – Click Here

26. A test particle is moving in a circular orbit in the gravitational field produced by a mass density
K
ρ(r) = 2, Identify the correct relation between the radius R of the particle's orbit and its period
r
T:
(A) TR is a constant (B) T/R is constant
(C) T/R2 is a constant (D) T 2 /R3 is a constant
For Solution – Click Here

27. The value of acceleration due to gravity at Earth's surface is 9.8ms −2 . The altitude above its
surface at which the acceleration due to gravity decreases to 4.9ms −2 , is close to (Radius of earth
= 6.4 × 106 m)
(A) 6.4 × 106 m (B) 1.6 × 106 m (C) 2.6 × 106 m (D) 9.0 × 106 m
For Solution – Click Here

28. A spaceship orbits around a planet at a height of 20 km from its surface. Assuming that only
gravitational field of the planet acts on the spaceship, what will be the number of complete
revolutions made by the spaceship in 24 hours around the planet?
{Given = Mass of planet = 8 × 1022 kg, radius of planet = 2 × 106 m,

73 | P a g e
 Gravitational constant G = 6.67 × 10−11 Nm2 /kg 2 }
(A) 13 (B) 17 (C) 11 (D) 9
For Solution – Click Here

29. A satellite of mass m is launched vertically upwards with an initial speed u from the surface of
m
the earth. After it reaches height R(R = radius of the earth), it ejects a rocket of mass so that
10
subsequently the satellite moves in a circular orbit. The kinetic energy of the rocket is (G is the
gravitational constant; M is the mass of the earth) :
m 113 GM 119 GM
(A) (u2 + ) (B) 5m (u2 − )
20 200 R 200 R
2 2
3m 5GM m 2GM
(C) (u + √ ) (D) (u − √ )
8 6R 20 3R

For Solution – Click Here

30. A simple pendulum is being used to determine the value of gravitational acceleration g at a certain
place. The length of the pendulum is 25.0 cm and a stop watch with 1s resolution measures the
time taken for 40 oscillations to be 50s. The accuracy in g is :
(A) 4.40 % (B) 3.40% (C) 2.40% (D) 5.40%
For Solution – Click Here

31. The weight of a body at the surface of earth is 18 N. The weight of the body at an altitude of 3200
km above the earth's surface is (given, radius of earth Re = 6400 km)
(A) 9.8 N (B) 4.9 N (C) 19.6 N (D) 8 N
For Solution – Click Here

32. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Acceleration due to earth's gravity decreases as you go 'up' or 'down' from earth's
surface.
Statement II: Acceleration due to earth's gravity is same at a height 'h' and depth 'd' from earth's
surface, if h = d.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer form the options given
below
(A) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(D) Both Statement I and II are correct
For Solution – Click Here

74 | P a g e
33. Every planet revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit :
A. The force acting on a planet is inversely proportional to square of distance from sun.
B. Force acting on planet is inversely proportional to product of the masses of the planet and the
sun
C. The centripetal force acting on the planet is directed away from the sun.
D. The square of time period of revolution of planet around sun is directly proportional to cube
of semi-major axis of elliptical orbit.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Options :
(A) A and D only (B) C and D only (C) B and C only (D) A and C only
For Solution – Click Here

34. Two particles of equal mass 'm' move in a circle of radius 'r' under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle will be :
GM 4GM GM GM
(A) √ (B) √ (C) √ (D) √
2r r r 4r
For Solution – Click Here

35. The time period of a satellite of earth is 24 hours. If the separation between the earth and the
satellite is decreased to one fourth of the previous value, then its new time period will become.
(A) 4 hours (B) 6 hours (C) 12 hours (D) 3 hours
For Solution – Click Here

K
36. If the gravitational field in the space is given as (− 2 ). Taking the reference point to be at r =
r
2 cm with gravitational potential V = 10 J/kg. Find the gravitational potential at r = 3 cm in SI
unit (Given, that K = 6 J cm/kg )
(A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 10
For Solution – Click Here

37. An object is allowed to fall from a height R above the earth, where R is the radius of earth. Its
velocity when it strikes the earth's surface, ignoring air resistance, will be :
gR
(A) 2√gR (B) √gR (C) √ (D) √2gR
2
For Solution – Click Here

38. At a certain depth "d" below surface of earth. value of acceleration due to gravity becomes four
times that of its value at a height 3R above earth surface. Where R is Radius of earth (Take R =
6400 km). The depth d is equal to
(A) 5260 km (B) 640 km (C) 2560 km (D) 4800 km
For Solution – Click Here
75 | P a g e
39. A body weight W, is projected vertically upwards from earth's surface to reach a height above the
earth which is equal to nine times the radius of earth. The weight of the body at that height will
be:
W W W W
(A) (B) (C) (D)
91 100 9 3
For Solution – Click Here

ve
40. If earth has a mass nine times and radius twice to the of a planet P. Then
3
√x ms −1 will be the
minimum velocity required by a rocket to pull out of gravitational force of P, where ve is escape
velocity on earth. The value of x is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 18 (D) 1
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 B 2 D 3 D 4 D 5 C 6 D 7 A
8 D 9 A 10 A 11 C 12 C 13 D 14 A
15 C 16 A 17 C 18 B 19 D 20 D 21 D
22 B 23 C 24 A 25 D 26 B 27 C 28 C
29 B 30 A 31 D 32 C 33 A 34 D 35 D
36 B 37 B 31 D 39 B 40 A

76 | P a g e
 SHM
1. A particle undergoing simple harmonic motion has time dependent displacement given by x(t) =
Asin⁡ πt/90. The ratio of kinetic to potential energy o the particle at t = 210 s will be
1 1
(A) (B) 1 (C) (D) 3
9 3
For Solution – Click Here

2. A particle performs simple harmonic motion with amplitude A. Its speed is trebled at the instant
2A
that it is at a distance from equilibrium position. The new amplitude of the motion is:
3
7A A
(A) (B) √41 (C) 3 A (D) A√3
3 3
For Solution – Click Here

3. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform which undergoes vertical simple harmonic motion of
angular frequency ω. The amplitude of oscillation is gradually increased. The coin will leave
contact with the platform for the first time-
g2
(A) for an amplitude of (B) at the highest position of the platform
ω2
g
(C) at the mean position of the platform (D) for an amplitude of
ω2
For Solution – Click Here

4. A rod of mass 'M' and length '2L' is suspended at its middle by a wire. It exhibits torsional
oscillations; If two masses each of 'm' are attached at distance 'L/2' from its centre on both sides,
it reduces the oscillation frequency by 20%. The value of ratio m/M is close to:
(A) 0.17 (B) 0.37 (C) 0.57 (D) 0.77
For Solution – Click Here

5. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in a straight line. In first τs, after starting from
rest it travels a distance a, and in next τs it travels 2a , in same direction, then
(A) time period of oscillations is 8τ (B) amplitude of motion is 4 a
(C) time period of oscillations is 6τ (D) amplitude of motion is 3a
For Solution – Click Here

6. Two particles are executing simple harmonic motion of the same amplitude A and frequency ω
along the x-axis. Their mean position is separated by distance X 0 (X 0 > A) . If the maximum
separation between then is (X 0 + A), the phase difference between their motion is:
π π π π
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 4 6
For Solution – Click Here

77 | P a g e
7. A particle of mass m executes simple harmonic motion with amplitude 'a' and frequency 'v'. The
average kinetic energy during its motion from the position of equilibrium to the end is
1
(A) π2 ma2 v 2 (B) ma2 v 2 (C) 4π2 ma2 v 2 (D) 4π2 ma2 v 2
1
For Solution – Click Here

8. A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring, executes S.H.M. with amplitude A1 . When the mass M
passes through its mean position then a smaller mass m is placed over it and both of them move
A
together with amplitude A2 . The ratio of ( 1 ) is
A2

M M+m M 1/2 M+m 1/2

(A) (B) (C) ( ) (D) ( )
M+m M M+m M
For Solution – Click Here

9. A simple pendulum, made of a string of length I and a bob of mass m, is released from a small
angle θ0 . It strikes a block of mass M, kept on a horizontal surface at its lowest point of
oscillations, elastically. It bounces back and goes up to an angle θ1 . Then M is given by:
m θ0 +θ1 θ0 −θ1 θ0 +θ1 m θ0 −θ1
(A) ( ) (B) m ( ) (C) m ( ) (D) ( )
2 θ0 −θ1 θ0 +θ1 θ0 −θ1 2 θ0 +θ1

For Solution – Click Here

10. A simple pendulum oscillating in air has period T. The bob of the pendulum is completely
immersed in a non-viscous liquid. The density of the liquid is 1/16 th of the material of the bob.
If the bob is inside liquid all the time, its period of oscillation in this liquid is:
1 1 1 1
(A) 2 T√ (B) 2 T√ (C) 4 T√ (D) 4 T√
10 14 14 15

For Solution – Click Here

11. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 5 cm. When the particle is at 4
cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity in SI units is equal to that of its
acceleration. Then, its periodic time in seconds is:
(A) 7/3π (B) 3/8π (C) 4π/3 (D) 8π/3
For Solution – Click Here

12. The displacement of an object attached to a spring and executing simple harmonic motion is given
by x = 2 × 10−2 cos⁡ πt meters. The time at which the maximum speed first occurs is-
(A) 0.5 s (B) 0.75 s (C) 0.125 s (D) 0.25 s
For Solution – Click Here
78 | P a g e
13. A ring of diameter 2m oscillates as a compound pendulum about a horizontal axis passing
through a point at its rim. It oscillates such that its centre move in a plane which is perpendicular
to the plane of the ring. The equivalent length of the simple pendulum is
(A) 2m (B) 4m (C) 1.5 m (D) 3m
For Solution – Click Here

14. In a simple pendulum experiment for determination of acceleration due to gravity (g), time taken
for 20 oscillation is measured by using a watch of 1 second least count. The mean value of time
taken comes out to be 30s. The length of pendulum is measured by using a meter scale of least
count 1 mm and the value obtained is 55.0 cm. The percentage error in the determination of g is
close to:
(A) 6.8 % (B) 0.2 % (C) 3.5 % (D) 0.7 %
For Solution – Click Here

15. The mass and the diameter of a planet are three times the respective values for the Earth. The
period of oscillation of a simple pendulum on the Earth is 2s. The period of oscillation of the same
pendulum on the planet would be:
(A) √3/2s (B) 2/√3 s (C) 3/2 s (D) 2√3 s
For Solution – Click Here

16. A simple harmonic motion is represented by: y = 5(sin⁡ 3πt + √3cos⁡ 3πt)cm, The amplitude
and time period of the motion are:
(A) 10 cm, 2/3 s (B) 10 cm, 3/2 s (C) 5 cm, 3/2 s (D) 5 cm, 2/3 s
For Solution – Click Here

17. Two light identical springs of spring constant k are attached horizontally
at the two ends of a uniform horizontal rod AB of length 1 and mass m .
the rod is pivoted at its centre 'O' and can rotate freely in horizontal plane.
The other ends of the two springs are fixed to rigid supports as shown in
figure. The rod is gently pushed through a small angle and released. The
frequency of resulting oscillation is:
1 3k 1 2k 1 6k 1 k
(A) √ (B) √ (C) √ (D) √
2π m 2π m 2π m 2π m
For Solution – Click Here

18. Two springs, of force constant k1 and k 2 , are connected to a mass

m as shown. The frequency of oscillation of the mass if f. If both
k1 and k 2 are made four times their original values, the frequency
of oscillation becomes
f f
(A) (B) (C) 4 f (D) 2 f
2 4
For Solution – Click Here
79 | P a g e
19. A damped harmonic oscillator has a frequency of 5 oscillations per second. The amplitude drops
to half its value for every 10 oscillations. The time it will take to drop to 1/1000 of the original
amplitude is close to:
(A) 50 s (B) 100 s (C) 20 s (D) 10 s
For Solution – Click Here

20. A person of mass M is, sitting on a swing of length L and swinging with an angular amplitude
θ0 . If the person stands up when the swing passes through its lowest point, the work done by
him, assuming that his centre of mass moves by a distance l(l < L), is close to.
θ20
(A) Mgl (B) Mgl (1 + ) (C) Mgl(1 + θ0 2 ) (D) Mgl(1 − θ0 2 )
2
For Solution – Click Here

21. The time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of length L suspended from the roof of a
vehicle, which moves without friction down an inclined plane of inclination α, is given by :
L L L L
(A) 2π√ (B) 2π√ (C) 2π√ (D) 2π√
(gcos⁡ α) (gsin⁡ α) g (gtan⁡ α)

For Solution – Click Here

22. When a particle executes simple Harmonic motion, the nature of graph of velocity as function of
displacement will be :
(A) Circular (B) Elliptical (C) Sinusoidal (D) Straight line
For Solution – Click Here

23. A particle executes simple harmonic motion between x = −A and x = +A. If time taken by
A A
particle to go from x = 0 to is 2 s; then time taken by particle in going from x = to A is :
2 2
(A) 3 s (B) 2 s (C) 1.5 s (D) 4 s
For Solution – Click Here

24. Choose the correct length (L) versus square of time period (T 2 ) graph for a simple pendulum
executing simple harmonic motion.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

80 | P a g e
25. In figure (A), mass '2 m' is fixed on mass 'm' which is attached to two springs of spring constant
k. In figure (B), mass 'm' is attached to two spring of spring constant 'k' and '2k'. If mass 'm' in
(A) and (B) are displaced by distance 'x' horizontally and then released, then time period T1 and
T2 corresponding to (A) and (B) respectively follow the relation.
T1 3 T1 3
(A) = (B) =√
T2 √2 T2 2

T1 2 T1 √2
(C) =√ (D) =
T2 3 T2 3
For Solution – Click Here

26. The maximum potential energy of a block executing simple harmonic motion is 25 J. A is
amplitude of oscillation. At A/2, the kinetic energy of the block is
(A) 37.5 J (B) 9.75 J (C) 18.75 J (D) 12.5 J
For Solution – Click Here

27. Two massless springs with spring constant 2k and 9k, carry 50 g and 100 g masses at their free
ends. These two masses oscillate vertically such that their maximum velocities are equal. Then,
the ratio of their respective amplitude will be
(A) 1: 2 (B) 3: 2 (C) 3: 1 (D) 2: 3
For Solution – Click Here

28. Time period of a simple pendulum in a stationary lift is 'T'. If the lift accelerates with g/6
vertically upwards then the time period will be (Where g = acceleration due to gravity)
6 5 6 7
(A) √ T (B) √ T (C) √ T (D) √ T
5 6 7 6
For Solution – Click Here

29. The displacement of simple harmonic oscillator after 3 seconds starting from its mean position is
equal to half of its amplitude. The time period of harmonic motion is:
(A) 6 s (B) 8 s (C) 12 s (D) 36 s
For Solution – Click Here

30. The equation of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by

1
x = sin⁡ π (t + ) m. At t = 1 s, the speed of particle will be (Given : π = 3.14 )
3
−1
(A) 0 cm s (B) 157 cm s−1 (C) 272 cm s −1 (D) 314 cm s−1
For Solution – Click Here

31. Motion of a particle in x − y plane is described by a set of following equations

π
x = 4sin ( − ωt) m and y = 4sin(ωt)m. The path of particle will be
2
(A) Circular (B) helical (C) Parabolic (D) elliptical
For Solution – Click Here
81 | P a g e
32. The motion of a simple pendulum executing S.H.M. is represented by following equation. Y =
Asin⁡(πt + ϕ), where time is measured in second. The length of pendulum is :
(A) 97.23 cm (B) 25.3 cm (C) 99.4 cm (D) 406.1 cm
For Solution – Click Here

33. A particle is executing Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM). The ratio of potential energy and kinetic
energy of the particle when its displacement is half of its amplitude will be:
(A) 1: 1 (B) 2: 1 (C) 1: 4 (D) 1: 3
For Solution – Click Here

34. A particle executes SHM of amplitude A. The distance from the mean position when its's kinetic
energy becomes equal to its potential energy is :
1 1
(A) √2 A (B) 2 A (C) A (D) A
√2 2
For Solution – Click Here

35. In a linear simple harmonic motion (SHM)

(A) Restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement.
(B) The acceleration and displacement are opposite in direction.
(C) The velocity is maximum at mean position.
(D) The acceleration is minimum at extreme points.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) (A), (B) and (C) only (B) (C) and (D) only
(C) (A), (B) and (D) only (D) (A), (C) and (D) only
For Solution – Click Here

36. The variation of kinetic energy (KE) of a particle executing simple harmonic motion with the
displacement (x) starting from mean position to extreme position (A) is given by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

37. A simple pendulum with length 100 cm and bob of mass 250 g is executing S.H.M. of amplitude
x
10 cm. The maximum tension in the string is found to be N. The value of x is _____ .
40
For Solution – Click Here

82 | P a g e
38. A rectangular block of mass 5 kg attached to a horizontal spiral spring executes simple harmonic
motion of amplitude 1 m and time period 3.14 s. The maximum force exerted by spring on block
is _____ N.
For Solution – Click Here

39. At a given point of time the value of displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is given as y =
Acos⁡(30∘ ). If amplitude is 40 cm and kinetic energy at that time is 200 J, the value of force
constant is 1.0 × 10x Nm−1 . The value of x is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

40. The general displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is x = Asin ωt. Let T be its time period.
T
The slope of its potential energy (U) - time (t) curve will be maximum when t = . The value of
β
β is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

41. A particle of mass 250 g executes a simple harmonic motion under a periodic force F = (−25 x)
N. The particle attains a maximum speed of 4 m/s during its oscillation. The amplitude of the
motion is _____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

42. A mass m attached to free end of a spring executes SHM with a period of 1 s. If the mass is
increased by 3 kg the period of oscillation increases by one second, the value of mass m is kg.
For Solution – Click Here

43. The velocity of a particle executing SHM varies with displacement (x) as 4v 2 = 50 − x 2 . The
x 22
time period of oscillations is s. The value of x is _____ (Take π = )
7 7
For Solution – Click Here

44. In the figure given below. a block of mass M = 490 g placed on a

frictionless table is connected with two springs having same spring
constant (K = 2 N m−1 ). If the block is horizontally displaced through
'X’ m then the number of complete oscillations it will make in 14π
seconds will be _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

45. As per given figures, two springs of spring constants K and

2 K are connected to mass m. If the period of oscillation in
figure (a) is 3 s, then the period of oscillation in figure (b) will
be √x s. The value of x is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

83 | P a g e
46. A mass 0.9 kg, attached to a horizontal spring, executes SHM with an amplitude A1 . When this
mass passes through its mean position, then a smaller mass of 124 g is placed over it and both
A1 α
masses move together with amplitude A2 . If the ratio is , then the value of will be _____ .
A2 α−1
For Solution – Click Here

47. The potential energy of a particle of mass 4 kg in motion along the x-axis is given by U = 4(1 −
cos⁡ 4x)J. The time period of the particle for small oscillation (sin θ = θ) is (π/K) s. The value
of K is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

48. In an experiment to find acceleration due to gravity ( g ) using simple pendulum, time period of
0.5 s is measured from time of 100 oscillation with a watch of 1 s resolution. If measured value
of length is 10 cm known to 1 mm accuracy. The accuracy in the determination of g is found to
be x%. The value of x is .
For Solution – Click Here

49. A body is performing simple harmonic with an amplitude of 10 cm. The velocity of the body was
tripled by air Jet when it is at 5 cm from its mean position. The new amplitude of vibration is
√xcm. The value of x is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

50. The metallic bob of simple pendulum has the relative density 5. The time period of this pendulum
is 10 s. If the metallic bob is immersed in water, then the new time period becomes 5√xs. The
value of x will be _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 C 2 A 3 D 4 B 5 C 6 B 7 A
8 D 9 C 10 D 11 D 12 A 13 C 14 A
15 D 16 A 17 C 18 D 19 C 20 C 21 A
22 B 23 D 24 C 25 A 26 C 27 B 28 C
29 D 30 B 31 A 32 C 33 D 34 C 35 A
36 D 37 99 38 20 39 4 40 8 41 40 42 1
43 88 44 20 45 2 46 16 47 2 48 5 49 700
50 5

84 | P a g e
 Wave on String
1. A string is stretched between fixed points separated by 75 cm. It is observed to have resonant
frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no other resonant frequencies between these two.
Then, the lowest resonant frequency for this string is
(A) 10.5 Hz (B) 105 Hz (C) 1.05 Hz (D) 1050 Hz
For Solution – Click Here

2. A wave travelling along the x-axis is described by the equation y(x, t) = 0.005cos⁡(αx − βt). If
the wavelength and the time period of the wave are 0.08 m and 2.0 s, respectively, then a and β
in appropriate units are
0.08 2.0 0.04 1.0
(A) α = ,β = (B) α = ,β =
π π π π
π
(C) α = 12.50π, β = (D) α = 25.00π, β = π
2.0
For Solution – Click Here

3. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density 0.04kgm−1 is given by

t x
y = 0.02(m)sin⁡ [2π ( − )]. The tension in the string is:
0.04(s) 0.50(m)
(A) 4.0 N (B) 12.5 N (C) 0.5 N (D) 6.25 N
For Solution – Click Here

2 +bt2 +2√abxt)
4. The transverse displacement y(x, t) = e−(ax . This represents a:
a
(A) wave moving in +x-direction with speed √
b

b
(B) wave moving in −x-direction with speed √
a

(C) standing wave of frequency √b

1
(D) standing wave of frequency
√b
For Solution – Click Here

5. A travelling wave represented by y = Asin⁡(ωt − kx) is superimposed on another wave

represented by y = Asin⁡(ωt + kx). The resultant is :
(A) A wave travelling along + x direction
(B) A wave travelling along −x direction
nλ
(C) A standing wave having nodes at x = , n = 0,1,2 ….
2
1 λ
(D) A standing wave having nodes at x = (n + ) ; n = 0,1,2 …
2 2
For Solution – Click Here

85 | P a g e
6. A sonometer wire of length 1.5 m is made of steel. The tension in it produces an elastic strain of
1% . What is the fundamental frequency of steel if density and elasticity of steel are
7.7 × 103 kg/m3 and 2.2 × 1011 N/m2 respectively ?
(A) 188.5 Hz (B) 178.2 Hz (C) 200.5 Hz (D) 770 Hz
For Solution – Click Here

7. A uniform string of length 20 m is suspended from a rigid support. A short wave pulse is
introduced at its lowest end. It starts moving up the string. The time taken to reach the support is
: (Take g = 10ms −2 )
(A) 2 s (B) 2√2s (C) √2s (D) 2π√2s
For Solution – Click Here

8. A string of length 1 m and mass 5 g is fixed at both ends. The tension in the string is 8.0 N. The
string is set into vibration using an external vibrator of frequency 100 Hz. The separation between
successive nodes on the string is close to:
(A) 16.6 cm (B) 20.0 cm (C) 10.0 cm (D) 33.3 cm
For Solution – Click Here

9. Equation of travelling wave on a stretched string of linear density 5g/m is y = 0.03sin⁡(450t −

9x) where distance and time are measured in SI united. The tension in the string is:
(A) 10 N (B) 7.5 N (C) 12.5 N (D) 5
For Solution – Click Here

10. A travelling harmonic wave is represented by the equation

y(x, t) = 10–3 sin(50t + 2x),
where x and y are in meter and t is in seconds. Which of the following is a correct statement about
the wave?
(A) The wave is propagating along the negative x-axis with speed 25 ms–1.
(B) The wave is propagating along the positive x-axis with speed 100ms–1.
(C) The wave is propagating along the positive x-axis with speed 25 ms–1.
(D) The wave is propagating along the negative x-axis with speed 100ms–1.
For Solution – Click Here

11. A wire of length 2L, is made by joining two wires A and B of same length but different radii r
and 2r and made of the same material. It is vibrating at a frequency such that the joint of the two
wires forms a node. If the number of antinodes in wire A is p and that in B is q then the ratio p :
q is:
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 3: 5 (C) 1: 4 (D) 4 : 9
For Solution – Click Here

86 | P a g e
12. A string is clamped at both the ends and it is vibrating in its 4th harmonic. The equation of the
stationary wave is Y = 0.3sin 0.157 cos (200pt). The length of the string is: (All quantities are in
SI units.)
(A) 40 m (B) 20 m (C) 80 m (D) 60 m
For Solution – Click Here

13. A string 2.0 m long and fixed at its ends is driven by a 240 Hz vibrator. The string vibrates in its
third harmonic mode. The speed of the wave and its fundamental frequency is :
(A) 320 m/s, 80 Hz (B) 180 m/s, 120 Hz
(C) 320 m/s, 120 Hz (D) 180 m/s, 80 Hz
For Solution – Click Here

14. A progressive wave travelling along the positive x–direction is represented by y(x, t) = A sin (kx
– wt + f) . Its snapshot at t = 0 is given in the figure.
For this wave, the phase f is
(A) p (B) p/2
(C) – p/2 (d) 0
For Solution – Click Here

15. Speed of a transverse wave on a straight wire (mass 6.0 g, length 60 cm and area of cross-section
1.0 mm2) is 90 ms–1. If the Young's modules of wire is 16 × 1011 Nm–2, the extension of wire
over its natural length is :
(A) 0.02 mm (B) 0.01 mm (C) 0.03 mm (D) 0.04 mm
For Solution – Click Here

16. A transverse wave travels on a taut steel wire with a velocity of v when tension in it is 2.06 ×
104N. When the tension is changed to T, the velocity changed to v/2. The value of T is close to:
(A) 5.15 × 103 N (B) 10.2 × 102 N (C) 2.50 × 104 N (D) 30.5 × 104 Ns
For Solution – Click Here

17. A wire of length L and mass per unit length 6.0 × 10–3 kgm–1 is put under tension of 540 N. Two
consecutive frequencies that it resonates at are 420 Hz and 490 Hz. Then L in meters is:
(A) 8.1 m (B) 2.1 m (C) 1.1 m (D) 5.1 m
For Solution – Click Here

18. A steel wire with mass per unit length 7.0 × 10−3 kg m−1 is under tension of 70 N. The speed of
transverse waves in the wire will be:
(A) 200𝜋m/s (B) 100 m/s (C) 10 m/s (D) 50 m/s
For Solution – Click Here

87 | P a g e
19. A travelling wave is described by the equation y(x, t) = [0.05 sin(8x − 4t]m. The velocity of the
wave is: [all the quantities are in SI unit]
(A) 4 ms−1 (B) 2 ms−1 (C) 0.5 ms−1 (D) 8 ms−1
For Solution – Click Here

20. A transverse wave is represented by y = 2 sin(ωt − kx)cm. The value of wavelength (in cm) for
which the wave velocity becomes equal to the maximum particle velocity, will be;
(A) 4π (B) 2π (C) p (D) 2
For Solution – Click Here

2π
21. In the wave equation y = 0.5 sin (400t − x)m the velocity of the wave will be:
λ
(A) 200 m/s (B) 200√2 m/s (C) 400 m/s (D) 400√2 m/s
For Solution – Click Here

22. The equations of two waves are given by :

y1 = 5 sin⁡ 2π(x − vt)cm, y2 = 3 sin⁡ 2π(x − vt + 1.5)cm
These waves are simultaneously passing through a string.
The amplitude of the resulting wave is:
(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 5.8 cm (D) 8 cm
For Solution – Click Here

23. A transverse harmonic wave on a string is given by

y(x, t) = 5 sin⁡(6t + 0.003x)
where x and y are in cm and t in sec. The wave velocity is _____ ms −1 .
For Solution – Click Here

π
24. The equation of wave is given by Y = 10−2 sin⁡ 2π (160t − 0.5x + ).
4
Where x and Y are in m and t in s. The speed of the wave is ____ kmh−1
For Solution – Click Here

25. The speed of a transverse wave passing through a string of length 50 cm and mass 10 g is
60 ms −1 . The area of cross-section of the wire is 2.0 mm2 and its Young's modulus is
1.2 × 1011 Nm−2 . The extension of the wire over its natural length due to its tension will be
x × 10−5 m. The value of x is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

26. A transverse harmonic wave on a string is given by y(x, t) = 5 sin⁡(6t + 0.003x)

where x and y are in cm and t in sec. The wave velocity is _____ ms −1 .
For Solution – Click Here
88 | P a g e
27. Two travelling waves of equal amplitudes and equal frequencies move in opposite directions
along a string. They interfere to produce a stationary wave whose equation is given by y =
2πt
(10 cos πx sin⁡ ) cm. The amplitude of the particle at x = 4/3 cm will be cm.
T
For Solution – Click Here

28. Two simple harmonic waves having equal amplitudes of 8 cm and equal frequency of 10 Hz are
moving along the same direction. The resultant amplitude is also 8 cm. The phase difference
between the individual waves is _____ degree.
For Solution – Click Here

29. The displacement equations of two interfering waves are given by

π
y1 = 10 sin (ωt + ) cm, y2 = 5[sin(ωt) + √3 cosωt]cm respectively.
3
The amplitude of the resultant wave is _____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

30. Two waves executing simple harmonic motion travelling in the same direction with same
amplitude and frequency are superimposed. The resultant amplitude is equal to the √3 times of
amplitude of individual motions. The phase difference between the two motions is _____ (degree)
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 B 2 D 3 D 4 B 5 D 6 B 7 B
8 B 9 C 10 A 11 A 12 C 13 A 14 A
15 C 16 A 17 B 18 B 19 C 20 A 21 C
22 A 23 20 24 1152 25 15 26 20 27 5 28 120
29 20 30 60

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 Sound Wave
1. A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20 dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of :
(A) 1000 (B) 10000 (C) 10 (D) 100
For Solution – Click Here

2. The speed of sound in oxygen (O2) at a certain temperature is 460 ms–1. The speed of sound in
helium (He) at the same temperature will be (assume both gases to be ideal) :
(A) 500 ms–1 (B) 650 ms–1 (C) 1420 ms–1 (D) 460 ms–1
For Solution – Click Here

3. While measuring the speed of sound by performing a resonance column experiment, a student
gets the first resonance condition at a column length of 18 cm during winter. Repeating the same
experiment during summer, she measures the column length to be x cm for the second resonance.
Then
(A) x > 54 (B) 54 > x > 36 (C) 36 > x > 18 (D) 18 > x
For Solution – Click Here

4. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find the number of possible natural oscillations
of air column in the pipe whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz. The velocity of sound in air is
340 m/s.
(A) 12 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 4
For Solution – Click Here

5. A pipe open at both ends has fundamental frequency f in air. The pipe is dipped vertically in water
so that half of it is in water. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now:
(A) 3f/4 (B) 2f (C) f (D) f/2
For Solution – Click Here

6. A tuning fork vibrates with frequency 256 Hz and gives one beat per second with the third normal
mode of vibration of an open pipe. What is the length of the pipe ? (Speed of sound in air is 340
m s–1)
(A) 190 cm (B) 180 cm (C) 200 cm (D) 220 cm
For Solution – Click Here

7. 5 beats/second are heard when a tuning fork is sounded with a sonometer wire under tension,
when the length of the sonometer wire is either 0.95 m or 1 m. The frequency of the fork will be
(A) 251 Hz (B) 300 Hz (C) 195 Hz (D) 150 Hz
For Solution – Click Here

90 | P a g e
8. A granite rod of 60 cm length is clamped at its middle point and is set into longitudinal vibrations.
The density of granite is 2.7 × 103 kg/m3 and its Young's modulus is 9.27 × 1010 Pa. What will be
the fundamental frequency of the longitudinal vibrations ?
(A) 5 kHz (B) 2.5 kHz (C) 10 kHz (D) 7.5 kHz
For Solution – Click Here

9. A musician using an open flute of length 50 cm produces second harmonic sound waves. A person
runs towards the musician from another end of a hall at a speed of 10 km/h. If the wave speed is
330 m/s, the frequency heard by the running person shall be close to:
(A) 753 Hz (B) 500 Hz (C) 333 Hz (D) 666 Hz
For Solution – Click Here

10. A closed organ pipe has a fundamental frequency of 1.5 kHz. The number of overtones that can
be distinctly heard by a person with this organ pipe will be: (Assume that the highest frequency a
person can hear is 20,000Hz)
(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 4
For Solution – Click Here

11. A person standing on an open ground hears the sound of a jet aeroplane, coming from north at an
angle 60° with ground level. But he finds the aeroplane right vertically above his position. If u is
the speed of sound, speed of the plane is:
(A) Ö3/2 u (B) 2u/Ö3 (C) u (D) u/2
For Solution – Click Here

12. A resonance tube is old and has jagged end. It is still used in the laboratory to determine velocity
of sound in air. A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz produces first resonance when the tube is filled
with water to a mark 11 cm below a reference mark, near the open end of the tube. The experiment
is repeated with another fork of frequency 256 Hz which produces first resonance when water
reaches a mark 27 cm below the reference mark. The velocity of sound in air, obtained in the
experiment, is close to:
(A) 322 ms–1 (B) 341 ms–1 (C) 335 ms–1 (D) 328 ms–1
For Solution – Click Here

13. The pressure wave, P = 0.01sin [1000t – 3x] Nm–2, corresponds to the sound produced by a
vibrating blade on a day when atmospheric temperature is 0ºC. On some other day when
temperature is T, the speed of sound produced by the same blade and at the same frequency is
found to be 336ms–1. Approximate value of T is:
(A) 12ºC (B) 11ºC (C) 15ºC (D) 4ºC
For Solution – Click Here

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14. The correct figure that shows, schematically, the wave pattern produced by superposition of two
waves of frequencies 9 Hz and 11Hz is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

π
15. Three harmonic waves having equal frequency v and same intensity I0 , have phase angles 0,
4
π
and − respectively. When they are superimposed the intensity of the resultant wave is close to:
4
(A) 5.8I0 (B) 3I0 (C) I0 (D) 0.2I0
For Solution – Click Here

16. The ratio of speed of sound in hydrogen gas to the speed of sound in oxygen gas at the same
temperature is:
(A) 4: 1 (B) 1: 2 (C) 1: 4 (D) 1: 1
For Solution – Click Here

17. The velocity of sound in a gas. in which two wavelengths 4.08 m and 4.16 m produce 40 beats
in 12 s, will be :
(A) 282.8 ms −1 (B) 175.5 ms −1 (C) 353.6 ms −1 (D) 707.2 ms −1
For Solution – Click Here

x
18. A longitudinal wave is represented by x = 10sin⁡ 2π (nt − ) cm . The maximum particle
λ
velocity will be four times the wave velocity if the determined value of wavelength is equal to
5π
(A) 2π (B) 5π (C) π (D)
2
For Solution – Click Here

19. Sound travels in a mixture of two moles of helium and n moles of hydrogen. If rms speed of gas
molecules in the mixture is √2 times the speed of sound, then the value of n will be
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
For Solution – Click Here
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20. A person observes two moving trains, 'A' reaching the station and 'B' leaving the station with
equal speed of 30 m/s. If both trains emit sounds with frequency 300 Hz, (Speed of sound :
330 m/s ) approximate difference of frequencies heard by the person will be :
(A) 33 Hz (B) 55 Hz (C) 80 Hz (D) 10 Hz
For Solution – Click Here

21. For a solid rod, the Young's modulus of elasticity is 3.2 × 1011 Nm−2 and density is
8 × 103 kg m−3 . The velocity of longitudinal wave in the rod will be.
(A) 145.75 × 103 ms −1 (B) 3.65 × 103 ms −1
(C) 18.96 × 103 ms −1 (D) 6.32 × 103 ms −1
For Solution – Click Here

22. The first overtone frequency of an open organ pipe is equal to the fundamental frequency of a
closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm. The length of the open organ
pipe is _____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

23. A set of 20 tuning forks is arranged in a series of increasing frequencies. If each fork gives 4 beats
with respect to the preceding fork and the frequency of the last fork is twice the frequency of the
first, then the frequency of last fork is _____ Hz.
For Solution – Click Here

24. A tuning fork of frequency 340 Hz resonates in the fundamental mode with an air column of
length 125 cm in a cylindrical tube closed at one end. When water is slowly poured in it, the
minimum height of water required for observing resonance once again is _____ cm.(Velocity of
sound in air is 340 ms −1 )
For Solution – Click Here

25. In an experiment to determine the velocity of sound in air at room temperature using a resonance
is observed when the air column has a length of 20.0 cm for a tuning fork of frequency 400 Hz
is used. The velocity of the sound at room temperature is 336 ms −1 . The third resonance is
observed when the air column has a length of _____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

26. For a certain organ pipe, the first three resonance frequencies are in the ratio of 1:3:5 respectively.
If the frequency of fifth harmonic is 405 Hz and the speed of sound in air is 324 ms −1 the length
of the organ pipe is _____ m.
For Solution – Click Here

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27. An organ pipe 40 cm long is open at both ends. The speed of sound in air is 360 ms −1 . The
frequency of the second harmonic is _____ Hz.
For Solution – Click Here

28. A person driving car at a constant speed of 15 m/s is approaching a vertical wall. The person
notices a change of 40 Hz in the frequency of his car's horn upon reflection from the wall. The
frequency of horn is _____ Hz.
(Given : Speed of sound : 330 m/s )
For Solution – Click Here

29. A car 𝑃 travelling at 20 ms −1 sounds its horn at a frequency of 400 Hz. Another car Q is
travelling behind the first car in the same direction with a velocity 40 ms −1 . The frequency heard
by the passenger of the car Q is approximately
[Take, velocity of sound = 360 ms −1 ]
(A) 514 Hz (B) 421 Hz (C) 485 Hz (D) 471 Hz
For Solution – Click Here

30. An observer is riding on a bicycle and moving towards a hill at 18kmh−1 . He hears a sound from
a source at some distance behind him directly as well as after its reflection from the hill. If the
original frequency of the sound as emitted by source is 640 Hz and velocity of the sound in air is
320 m/s, the beat frequency between the two sounds heard by observer will be _____ Hz.
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 D 2 C 3 A 4 C 5 C 6 C 7 C
8 A 9 D 10 C 11 D 12 D 13 D 14 B
15 A 16 A 17 D 18 B 19 B 20 B 21 D
22 80 23 152 24 50 25 140 26 1 27 900 28 420
29 B 30 20

94 | P a g e
 Fluid Mechanics
1. There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two liquids which do not mix and of densities d1 and
d2 are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends 90∘ angle at centre. Radius joining their interface
d1
makes an angle a with vertical. Ratio is:
d2
1+sin⁡ α 1+cos⁡ α
(A) (B)
1−sin⁡ α 1−cos⁡ α
1+tan⁡ α 1+sin⁡ α
(C) (D)
1−tan⁡ α 1−cos⁡ α
For Solution – Click Here

2. A long cylindrical vessel is half filled with a liquid. When the vessel is rotated about its own
vertical axis, the liquid rises up near the wall. If the radius of vessel is 5 cm and its rotational
speed is 2 rotations per second, then the difference in the heights between the centre and the sides,
in cm , will be:
(A) 2.0 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.4 (D) 1.2
For Solution – Click Here

3. A wooden block floating in a bucket of water has 4/5 of its volume submerged. When certain
amount of an oil is poured into the bucket, it is found that the block is just under the oil surface
with half of its volume under water and half in oil. The density of oil relative to that of water is:
(A) 0.6 (B) 0.7 (C) 0.8 (D) 0.5
For Solution – Click Here

r2
4. Consider a solid sphere of radius R and mass density ρ(r) = ρ0 (1 − ) 0 < r ≤ R. The
R2
minimum density of a liquid in which it will float is:
ρ 2ρ ρ 2ρ0
(A) 0 (B) 0 (C) 0 (D)
3 3 5 5
For Solution – Click Here

5. A wooden cube (density of wood ' d ') of side l floats in a liquid of density ' ρ ' with its upper
and lower surfaces horizontal. If the cube is pushed slightly down and released, it performs simple
harmonic motion of period ' T '. Then, ' T ' is equal to:
ℓd ℓρ ℓd ℓρ
(A) 2π√ (B) 2π√ (C) 2π√ (D) 2π√
ρg dg (ρ−d)g (ρ−d)g

For Solution – Click Here

6. A uniform cylinder of length L and mass M having cross-sectional area A is suspended, with its
length vertical, from a fixed point by a massless spring such that it is half submerged in a liquid
of density σ at equilibrium position. The extension x0 of the spring when it is in equilibrium is:
Mg Mg LAσ Mg LAσ Mg LAσ
(A) (B) (1 − ) (C) (1 − ) (D) (1 + )
k k M k 2M k M
For Solution – Click Here
95 | P a g e
7. Water flows into a large tank with flat bottom at the rate of 10−4 m3 s−1 . Water is also leaking
out of a hole of area 1 cm2 at its bottom. If the height of the water in the tank remains steady, then
this height is:
(A) 4 cm (B) 2.9 cm (C) 1.7 cm (D) 5.1 cm
For Solution – Click Here

8. Water is flowing continuously from a tap having an internal diameter 8 × 10−3 m. The water
velocity as it leaves the tap is 0.4 ms −1 . The diameter of the water stream at a distance
2 × 10−1 m below the tap is close to:
(A) 5.0 × 10−3 m (B) 7.5 × 10−3 m (C) 9.6 × 10−3 m (D) 3.6 × 10−3 m
For Solution – Click Here

9. Two tubes of radii r1 and r2 , and lengths l1 and l2 , respectively, are connected in series and a
liquid flows through each of them in stream line conditions. P1 and P2 are pressure differences
across the two tubes. If P2 is 4P1 and l2 is l1 /4, then the radius r2 will be equal to :
(A) 2r1 (B) r1 /2 (C) 4r1 (D) r1
For Solution – Click Here

10. Water flows in a horizontal tube (see figure). The pressure of water changes by 700Nm−2
between A and B where the area of cross section is 40 cm2 and 20 cm2 , respectively. Find the
rate of flow of water through the tube.
(density of water = 1000kgm−3 )
(A) 2720 cm3 /s (B) 2420 cm3 /s
(C) 3020 cm3 /s (D) 1810 cm3 /s
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 C 2 A 3 A 4 D 5 A 6 C 7 D
8 D 9 B 10 A

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 Surface Tension, Elasticity and viscosity
1. Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble from a radius of 3 cm to 5 cm is nearly. (Surface
tension of soap solution = 0.03Nm−1 )
(A) 4π mJ (B) 0.2π mJ (C) 2π mJ (D) 0.4π mJ
For Solution – Click Here

2. Two mercury drops (each of radius ' r ') merge to from bigger drop. The surface energy of the
bigger drop, if T is the surface tension, is :
(A) 4πr 2 T (B) 2πr 2 T (C) 28/3 πr 2 T (D) 25/3 πr 2 T
For Solution – Click Here

3. Assume that a drop of liquid evaporates by decrease in its surface energy, so that its temperature
remains unchanged. What should be the minimum radius of the drop for this to be possible ? The
surface tension is T, density of liquid is ρ and L is its latent heat of vaporization.
(A) ρL/T (B) √T/ρL (C) T/ρL (D) 2 T/ρL
For Solution – Click Here

4. On heating water, bubbles beings formed at the bottom of the vessel detatch and rise. Take the
bubbles to be spheres of radius R and making a circular contact of radius r with the bottom of the
vessel. If r ≪ R, and the surface tension of water is T, value of r just before bubbles detatch is :
(density of water is ρw )
ρw g ρw g
(A) R2 √ (B) R2 √
3T 6T

2ρw g 3ρw g
(C) R2 √ (D) R2 √
3T T

For Solution – Click Here

5. A small spherical droplet of density d is floating exactly half immerse ion a liquid of density ρ
and surface tension T. The radius of the droplet is (take note that the surface tension applies an
upward force on the droplet):
T 3T T 2T
(A) r = √ (B) r = √ (C) r = √ (D) r = √
(d+ρ)g (2d−ρ)g (d−ρ)g 3(d+ρ)g

For Solution – Click Here

6. A wire elongates by l mm when a load W is hanged from it. If the wire goes over a pulley and
two weights W each are hung at the two ends, the elongation of the wire will be (in mm)
(A) 𝐿 (B) 2l (C) zero (D) l/2
For Solution – Click Here

97 | P a g e
7. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a material of density ρ1 . It is falling through a
liquid of density ρ2 (ρ2 < ρ1 ). Assume that the liquid applies a viscous force on the ball that is
proportional to the square of its speed v, i.e.,
Fviscous = −kv 2 (k > 0). The terminal speed of the ball is
Vgρ1 Vgρ1 Vg(ρ1 −ρ2 ) Vg⁡(ρ1 −ρ2 )
(A) (B) √ (C) (D) √
k k k k
For Solution – Click Here

8. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. However wire 1 has cross-
sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1 increases by Δx on
applying force F, how much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount?
(A) 4 F (B) 6 F (C) 9 F (D) F
For Solution – Click Here

9. Young's moduli of two wires A and B are in the ratio 7: 4. Wire A is 2 m long and has radius R .
Wire B is 1.5 m long and has radius 2 mm. If the two wires stretch by the same length for a given
load, then the value of R is close to:
(A) 1.7 mm (B) 1.3 mm (C) 1.5 mm (D) 1.9 mm
For Solution – Click Here

10. In an experiment, brass and steal wires of length 1 m each with areas of cross section 1 mm2 are
used. The wires are connected in series and one end of the combined wire is connected to a rigid
support and other end is subjected to elongation. The stress required to produce a net elongation
of 0.2 mm is: (Given the young's Modulus for steel and brass are, respectively 120 × 109 N/m2
and 60 × 109 N/m2 )
(A) 1.2 × 106 N/m2 (B) 0.2 × 106 N/m2 (C) 1.8 × 106 N/m2 (D) 4.0 × 106 N/m2
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 D 2 C 3 D 4 C 5 B 6 A 7 D
8 C 9 A 10 D

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 Calorimetry, Heat and Thermal Expansion
1. An unknown metal of mass 192 g heated to a temperature of 100ºC was immersed into a brass
calorimeter of mass 128 g containing 240 g of water a temperature of 8.4ºC Calculate the specific
heat of the unknown metal if water temperature stabilizes at 21.5ºC
(Specific heat of brass is 394 J kg–1 K–1)
(A) 1232 J kg–1 K–1 (B) 458 J kg–1 K–1 (C) 654 J kg–1 K–1 (D) 916 J kg–1K–1
For Solution – Click Here

2. Ice at –20°C is added to 50 g of water at 40°C. When the temperature of the mixture reaches 0°C,
it is found that 20 g of ice is still unmelted. The amount of ice added to the water was close to
(Specific heat of water = 4.2 J/g/°C) Heat of fusion of water at 0°C = 334 J/g)
(A) 50 g (B) 100 g (C) 60 g (D) 40 g
For Solution – Click Here

3. A metal ball of mass 0.1 kg is heated upto 500°C and dropped into a vessel of heat capacity 800
JK–1 and containing 0.5 kg water. The initial temperature of water and vessel is 30oC. What is the
approximate percentage increment in the temperature of the water? [Specific heat Capacities of
water and metal are, respectively 4200 Jkg–1 K–1 and 400 jkg–1 K–1
(A) 15% (B) 30% (C) 25% (D) 20%
For Solution – Click Here

4. A thermally insulated vessel contains 150 g of water at 0°C. Then the air from the vessel is
pumped out adiabatically. A fraction the rest evaporates at 0°C itself. The mass of evaporated
water will be closest to: (Latent heat of vaporization of water = 2.10 x 106J kg–1 and Latent heat
of Fusion of water = 3.36 × 105J kg–1)
(A) 35g (B) 20g (C) 130g (D) 150g
For Solution – Click Here

5. A massless spring (k = 800N/m), attached with a mass (500g) is completely immersed in 1 kg

of water. The spring is stretched by 2 cm and released so that it starts vibrating. What would be
the order of magnitude of the change in the temperature of water when the vibrations stop
completely? (Assume that the water container and spring receive negligible heat and specific heat
of mass = 400J/kgK, specific heat of water = 4148J/kgK )
(A) 10−2 K (B) 10−3 K (C) 10−4 K (D) 10−5 K
For Solution – Click Here

99 | P a g e
6. Three containers C1 , C2 and C3 have water at different temperatures. The table below shows the
final temperature T when different amounts of water (given in liters) are taken from each container
and mixed (assume no loss of heat during the process).The value of θ (in ∘ C to the nearest integer)
is _______

For Solution – Click Here

7. The temperature of equal masses of three different liquid x, y and z are10°C, 20°C and 30°C
respectively. The temperature of mixture when x is mixed with y is 16°C and that when y is mixed
with z is 26°C. The temperature of mixture when x and z are mixed will be
(A) 25.62°C (B) 20.28°C (C) 28.32°C (D) 23.84°C
For Solution – Click Here

8. The height of Victoria falls is 63 m. What is the difference in temperature of water at the top and
at the bottom of fall ? [Given 1 cal = 4.2 J and specific heat of water = 1 cal g–1°C–1]
(A) 14.76°C (B) 1.476°C (C) 0.147°C (D) 0.014°C
For Solution – Click Here

9. Two different metal bodies A and B of equal mass are heated at a

uniform rate under similar conditions. The variation of
temperature of the bodies is graphically represented as shown in
the figure. The ratio of specific heat capacities is
(A) 3/4 (B) 8/3 (C) 3/8 (D) 4/3
For Solution – Click Here

10. At what temperature a gold ring of diameter 6.230 cm be heated so that it can be fitted on a
wooden bangle of diameter 6.241 cm ? Both the diameters have been measured at room
temperature (27∘ C) . (Given: coefficient of linear thermal expansion of Gold αL = 1.4 ×
10−5 K −1 )
(A) 125.7∘ C (B) 91.7∘ C (C) 425.7∘ C (D) 152.7∘ C
For Solution – Click Here

11. A 100 g of iron nail is hit by a 1.5 kg hammer striking at a velocity of 60 ms −1 . What will be the
rise in the temperature of the nail if one fourth of energy of the hammer goes into heating the nail?
[Specific heat capacity of iron = 0.42Jg −1 ∘ C−1 ]
(A) 675∘ C (B) 1600∘ C (C) 16.07∘ C (D) 6.75∘ C
For Solution – Click Here
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12. A copper block of mass 5.0 kg is heated to a temperature of 500∘ C and is placed on a large ice
block. What is the maximum amount of ice that can melt?
[Specific heat of copper: 0.39 J g −1 ∘ C−1 and latent heat of fusion of water: 335 J g −1 ]
(A) 1.5 kg (B) 5.8 kg (C) 2.9 kg (D) 3.8 kg
For Solution – Click Here

13. A geyser heats water flowing at a rate of 2.0 kg per minute from 30∘ C to 70∘ C. If geyser operates
on a gas burner, the rate of combustion of fuel will be ______ gmin−1 [Heat of combustion =
8 × 103 Jg −1 , Specific heat of water = 4.2Jg −1 ∘ C−1 ]
For Solution – Click Here

14. A lead bullet penetrates into a solid object and melts. Assuming that 40% of its kinetic energy is
used to heat it, the initial speed of bullet is:
(Given, initial temperature of the bullet = 127∘ C, Melting point of the bullet = 327∘ C, Latent
heat of fusion of lead = 2.5 × 104 JKg −1 , Specific heat capacity of lead = 125 J/kgK )
(A) 125 ms −1 (B) 500 ms −1 (C) 250 ms −1 (D) 600 ms −1
For Solution – Click Here

15. A steam engine intakes 50 g of steam at 100∘ C per minute and cools it down to 20∘ C. If latent
heat of vaporization of steam is 540calg −1 , then the heat rejected by the steam engine per minute
is _____ × 103 cal. (Given : specific heat capacity of water : 1calg −1 ∘ C −1 )
For Solution – Click Here

16. Heat energy of 184 kJ is given to ice of mass 600 g at −12∘ C , Specific heat of ice is
∘
2222.3 J kg −1 C−1 and latent heat of ice in 336 kJ/kg −1
(A) Final temperature of system will be 0∘ C.
(B) Final temperature of the system will be greater than 0∘ C.
(C) The final system will have a mixture of ice and water in the ratio of 5: 1.
(D) The final system will have a mixture of ice and water in the ratio of 1: 5.
(E) The final system will have water only.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A and D only (B) B and D only (C) A and E only (D) A and C only
For Solution – Click Here

17. A water heater of power 2000 W is used to heat water. The specific heat capacity of water is
4200 J kg −1 K −1 . The efficiency of heater is 70%. Time required to heat 2 kg of water from 10∘ C
to 60∘ C is _____ s.
(Assume that the specific heat capacity of water remains constant over the temperature range of
the water).
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101 | P a g e
18. A block of ice at −10∘ C is slowly heated and converted to steam at 100∘ C. Which of the following
curves represent the phenomenon qualitatively:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

19. A copper ball of mass 100 g is at a temperature T. It is dropped in a copper calorimeter of mass
100 g, filled with 170 g of water at room temperature. Subsequently, the temperature of the system
is found to ne 75°C. T is given by (Given: room temperature = 30°C, specific heat of copper =
0.1 cal g–1°C–1)
(A) 800°C (B) 885°C (C) 1250°C (D) 825°C
For Solution – Click Here

20. Heat is being supplied at a constant rate to a sphere of ice which is melting at the rate of 0.1
gm/sec. It melts completely in 100 sec. The rate of rise of temperature thereafter will be (Assume
no loss of heat.)
(A) 0.8 °C/sec (B) 5.4 °C/sec
(C) 3.6 °C/sec (D) will change with time
For Solution – Click Here

21. A thermometer graduated according to a linear scale reads a value x0 when in contact with boiling
water, and x0/3 when in contact with ice. What is the temperature of an object in 0C, if this
thermometer in the contact with the object reads x0/2?
(A) 25 (B) 60 (C) 40 (D) 45
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22. A bimetallic strip consists of metals A and B. It is mounted rigidly as shown.

The metal A has higher B has higher coefficient of expansion compared to that
of metal B. When the bimetallic strip is placed in a cold bath, it will
(A) Neither bend nor shrink (B) Bend towards the right
(C) Not bend but shrink (D) Bend towards the left
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102 | P a g e
23. Each side of a box made of metal sheet in cubic shape is 'a' at room temperature 'T', the coefficient
of linear expansion of the metal sheet is 'α'. The metal sheet is heated uniformly, by a small
temperature ΔT, so that its new temperature is T + ΔT. Calculate the increase in the volume of
the metal box.
4
(A) 3a3 α. ΔT (B) 4a3 αΔT (C) 4πа3 αΔT (D) πa3 αΔT
3
For Solution – Click Here

24. Given below are two statement: one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): When a rod lying freely is heated, no thermal stress is developed in it.
Reason (R): On heating the length of the rod increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(B) A is false but R is true
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
For Solution – Click Here

25. A steel rod of length 1 m and cross sectional area 10−4 m2 is heated from 0∘ C to 200∘ C without
being allowed to extend or bend. The compressive tension produced in the rod is _____ × 104 N
(Given Young's modulus of steel = 2 × 1011 Nm−2 , coefficient of linear expansion = 10−5 K −1 .
For Solution – Click Here

26. On a temperature scale 'X'. The boiling point of water is 65∘ X and the freezing point is −15∘ X.
Assume that the X scale is linear. The equivalent temperature corresponding to −95∘ X on the
Farenheit scale would be:
(A) −63∘ F (B) −112∘ F (C) −48∘ F (D) −148∘ F
For Solution – Click Here

27. A solid metallic cube having total surface area 24 m2 is uniformly heated. If its temperature is
increased by 10∘ C, calculate the increase in volume of the cube.
(Given α = 5.0 × 10−4 ∘ C−1 ).
(A) 2.4 × 106 cm3 (B) 1.2 × 105 cm3 (C) 6.0 × 104 cm3 (D) 4.8 × 105 cm3
For Solution – Click Here

28. A hole is drilled in a metal sheet at27∘C, the diameter of hole is 5 cm. When the sheet is heated
to 177∘C, the change in the diameter of hole is d × 10−3 cm. The value of d will be if coefficient
of linear expansion of the metal is 1.6 × 10−5/ ∘C.
For Solution – Click Here

103 | P a g e
29. The graph between two temperature scales P and Q is shown in the
figure. Between upper fixed point and lower fixed point there are
150 equal divisions of scale P and 100 divisions on scale Q. The
relationship for conversion between the two scales is given by :
tQ tp −180 tQ tp −30
(A) = (B) =
150 100 100 150
tP tQ −40 tP tQ −180
(C) = (D) =
180 100 100 150
For Solution – Click Here

30. A faulty thermometer reads 5∘ C in melting ice and 95∘ C in steam. The correct temperature on
absolute scale will be ______ K when the faulty thermometer reads 41∘ C.
For Solution – Click Here

31. A pendulum clock loses 12 s a day if the temperature is 40∘ C and gains 4 s a day if the temperature
is 20∘ C. The temperature at which the clock will show correct time, and the co-efficient of linear
expansion (α) of the metal of the pendulum shaft are respectively:
(A) 55∘ C; α = 1.85 × 10−2 / ∘ C (B) 25∘ C; α = 1.85 × 10−5 / ∘ C
(C) 60∘ C; α = 1.85 × 10−4 / ∘ C (D) 30∘ C; α = 1.85 × 10−3 / ∘ C
For Solution – Click Here

32. At 40°C, a brass wire of 1 mm radius is hung from the ceiling. A small mass, M is hung from the
free end of the wire. When the wire is cooled down from 40° C to 20°C it regains its original
length of 0.2 m. The value of M is close to. (Coefficient of linear expansion and Young’s modulus
of brass are 10–5/°C and 1011 N/m2 respectively ; g = 10 ms-2)
(A) 9 kg (B) 0.9 kg (C) 0.5 kg (D) 1.5 kg
For Solution – Click Here

33. An external pressure P is applied on a cube at 0∘ C so that it is equally compressed from all sides.
K is the bulk modulus of the material of the cube and α is its coefficient of linear expansion.
Suppose we want to bring the cube to its original size by heating. The temperature should be
raised by
P P α
(A) (B) (C) (D) 3 PK α
3αK αK PK
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34. A compressive force, F is applied at the two ends of a long thin steel rod. It is heated,
simultaneously, such that its temperature increases by ΔT. The net change its length is zero. Let l
be the length of the rod, A its area of cross-section, Y its young's modulus, and α its coefficient
of linear expansion. Then F is equal to
AY
(A) l2 YαΔT (B) (C) AYαΔT (D) lAYαΔT
αΔT
For Solution – Click Here
104 | P a g e
35. A steel rail of length 5 m and area of cross section 40cm2 is prevented from expanding along its
length while the temperature rises by 10∘ C . If coefficient of linear expansion and Young's
modulus of steel are 1.0 × 10−5 K −1 and 2 × 1011 Nm−2 respectively, the forced developed in the
rail is approximately
(A) 2 × 109 N (B) 3 × 10−5 N (C) 2 × 107 N (D) 1 × 105 N
For Solution – Click Here

36. A heat source at T = 103 K is connected to another heat reservoir at T = 102 K by a copper slab
which is 1m thick. Given that the thermal conductivity of copper is 0.1 WK–1 m–1, the energy flux
through it in the steady state is :
(A) 90 Wm–2 (B) 200 Wm–2 (C) 65 Wm–2 (D) 120 Wm–2
For Solution – Click Here

37. Two identical beakers A and B contain equal volumes of two different liquids at 60°C each and
left to cool down. Liquid in A has density of 8 x 102 specific heat of 2000J kg–1 K–1 while liquid
in B has density of 103 kg m-3 and specific heat of 4000J kg–1 K–1. Which of the following best
describes their temperature versus time graph schematically?
(Assume the emissivity of both the beakers to be the same)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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38. As per the given figure, two plates A and B of thermal conductivity K and 2 K are joined together
to form a compound plate. The thickness of plates are 4.0 cm and 2.5 cm respectively and the
area of cross-section is 120 cm2 for each plate. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the
5
compound plate is (1 + ) K, then the value of 𝛼 will be _____ .
𝛼

For Solution – Click Here

39. In an experiment to verify Newton's law of cooling, a graph is plotted between, the temperature
difference (ΔT) of the water and surroundings and time as shown in figure. The initial
temperature of water is taken as 80∘ C. The value of t 2 as mentioned in the graph will be _____ .

For Solution – Click Here

105 | P a g e
40. A body cools from 60∘ C to 40∘ C in 6 minutes. If, temperature of surroundings is 10∘ C. Then, after
the next 6 minutes, its temperature will be _____ ∘ C.
For Solution – Click Here

41. If a piece of metal is heated to temperature q and then allowed to cool in a room which is at
temperature q0, the graph between the temperature T of the metal and time t will be closest to

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

42. An unknown metal of mass 192 g heated to a temperature of 100∘ C was immersed into a brass
calorimeter of mass 128 g containing 240 g of water a temperature of 8.4∘ C Calculate the specific
heat of the unknown metal if water temperature stabilizes at 21.5∘ C (Specific heat of brass is
394Jkg −1 K −1 )
(A) 1232Jkg −1 K −1 (B) 458Jkg −1 K −1 (C) 654Jkg −1 K −1 (D) 916Jkg −1 K −1
For Solution – Click Here

43. A cylinder of radius R is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 2R.
The thermal conductivity of the material of the inner cylinder is K1 and that of the outer cylinder
is K 2 . Assuming no loss of heat, the effective thermal conductivity of the system for heat flowing
along the length of the cylinder is:
K1 +K2 2K1 +3K2 K1 +3K2
(A) (B) K1 + K 2 (C) (D)
2 5 4
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44. A massless spring (k = 800N/m), attached with a mass (500g) is completely immersed in 1 kg
of water. The spring is stretched by 2 cm and released so that it starts vibrating. What would be
the order of magnitude of the change in the temperature of water when the vibrations stop
completely? (Assume that the water container and spring receive negligible heat and specific heat
of mass = 400J/kgK, specific heat of water = 4148J/kgK )
(A) 10−2 K (B) 10−3 K (C) 10−4 K (D) 10−5 K
For Solution – Click Here

106 | P a g e
45. Two materials having coefficients of thermal conductivity '3K' and 'K' and thickness 'd' and '3d',
respectively, are joined to form a slab as shown in the figure. The temperatures of the outer
surfaces are 'θ2 ' and 'θ1 ' respectively, (θ2 > θ1 ). The temperature at the interface is:
θ1 5θ2 θ2 +θ1
(A) + (B)
6 6 2
θ1 9θ2 θ1 2θ2
(C) + (D) +
10 10 3 3
For Solution – Click Here

46. Assuming the Sun to be a spherical body of radius R at a temperature of TK, evaluate the total
radiant power, incident on Earth, at a distance r from the Sun-
(A) R 0 2 R2 σT 4 /4πr 2 (B) R2 σT 4 /r 2 (C) 4πr02 R2 σT 4 /r 2 (D) πr02 R2 σT 4 /r 2
For Solution – Click Here

47. One end of a thermally insulated rod is kept at a temperature T1 and the other at T2. The rod is
composed of two sections of length l1 and l2 and thermal conductivities k1 and k2 respectively.
The temperature at the interface of the two sections is
(A) (k 2 l2 T1 + k1 l1 T2 )/(k1 l1 + k 2 l2 )
(B) (k 2 l1 T1 + k1 l2 T2 )/(k 2 l1 + k1 l2 )
(C) (k1 l2 T1 + k 2 l1 T2 )/(k1 l2 + k 2 l2 )
(D) (k1 l1 T1 + k 2 l2 T2 )/(k1 l1 + k 2 l2 )
For Solution – Click Here

48. A long metallic bar is carrying heat from one of its ends of the other end under steady-state. The
variation of temperature q along the length x of the bar from its hot end is best described by which
of the following figures?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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49. A body cools in 7 minutes from 60∘ C to 40∘ C. The temperature of the surrounding is 10∘ C. The
temperature of the body after the next 7 minutes will be:
(A) 32∘ C (B) 30∘ C (C) 28∘ C (D) 34∘ C
For Solution – Click Here

107 | P a g e
 ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 D 2 D 3 D 4 B 5 D 6 50 7 D
8 C 9 C 10 D 11 C 12 C 13 42 14 B
15 31 16 A 17 300 18 D 19 B 20 A 21
22 23 24 25 4 26 D 27 B 28 12
29 B 30 313 31 B 32 A 33 A 34 C 35 D
36 A 37 A 38 21 39 16 40 28 41 D 42 2W
43 C 44 B 45 C 46 D 47 C 48 B 49 C

108 | P a g e
 KTG and Thermodynamics
1. Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are placed on a table. Box A contains one mole
of nitrogen at temperature T0 , while box B contains one mole of helium at temperature (7/3)T0 .
The boxes are then put into thermal contact with each other, and heat flows between them until
the gases reach a common final temperature (Ignore the heat capacity of boxes). Then, the final
temperature of the gases, Tf , in terms of T0 is:
3 7 3 5
(A) Tf = T0 (B) Tf = T0 (C) Tf = T0 (D) Tf = T0
7 3 2 2
For Solution – Click Here

2. An insulated container of gas has two chambers separated by an insulating partition. One of the
chambers has volume V1 and contains ideal gas at pressure P1 and temperature T1 . The other
chamber has volume V2 and contains ideal gas at pressure P2 and temperature T2 . If the partition
is removed without doing any work on the gas, the final equilibrium temperature of the gas in
the container will be
T1 T2 (P1 V1 +P2 V2 ) P1 V2 +P2 V2 T2 P1 V1 T2 +P2 V2 T1 T1 T2 (P1 V1 +P2 V2 )
(A) (B) (C) (D)
P1 V1 T2 +P2 V2 T1 P1 V1 +P2 V2 P1 V1 +P2 V2 P1 V1 T1 +P2 V2 T2
For Solution – Click Here

3. Three ideal monoatomic gases at absolute temperatures T1 , T2 and T3 are mixed. The masses of
molecules are m1 , m2 and m3 and the number of molecules are n1 , n2 and n3 respectively.
Assuming no loss of energy, the final temperature of the mixture is
(T1 +T2 +T3 ) n1 T1 +n2 T2 +n3 T3
(A) (B)
3 n1 +n2 +n3
n1 T21 +n2 T22 +n3 T23 n21 T21 +n22 T22 +n23 T23
(C) (D)
n1 T1 +n2 T2 +n3 T3 n1 T1 +n2 T2 +n3 T3
For Solution – Click Here

4. The thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal gas of molecular mass M and ratio of specific
heat γ. It is moving with speed v and is suddenly brought to rest. Assuming no heat is lost to the
surroundings, its temperature increases by:
(γ−1) (γ−1) γMv2 (γ−1)
(A) Mv 2 K (B) M2 v2 K (C) K (D) Mv 2 K
2(γ+1)R 2γR 2R 2R
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5. The temperature of an open room of volume 30 m3 increases from 17∘ C to 27∘ C due to the
sunshine. The atmosphere pressure in the room remains 1 × 105 Pa. If Ni and Nf are the number
of molecules in the room before and after heating, then Nf − Ni will be
(A) −1.61 × 1023 (B) 1.38 × 1023 (C) 2.5 × 1025 (D) −2.5 × 1025
For Solution – Click Here

109 | P a g e
6. N moles of a diatomic gas in a cylinder are at a temperature T . Heat is supplied to the cylinder
such that the temperature remains constant n moles of the diatomic gas get converted into
monoatomic gas. What is the change in the total kinetic energy of the gas?
5 1 3
(A) 0 (B) nRT (C) nRT (D) Nrt
2 2 2
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7. An ideal gas is enclosed in a cylinder at pressure of 2 atm and temperature, 300 K. The mean
time between two successive collisions is 6 × 10−8 s. If the pressure is doubled and temperature
is increased to 500 K , the mean time between two successive collisions will be close to :
(A) 2 × 10−7 s (B) 4 × 10−8 s (C) 0.5 × 10−8 s (D) 3 × 10−6 s
For Solution – Click Here

8. A vertical closed cylinder is separated into two parts by a frictionless piston of mass m and of
negligible thickness. The piston is free to move along the length of the cylinder .The length of the
cylinder above the piston is l1 , and that below the piston is l2 , such that l1 > l2 . Each part of the
cylinder contains n moles of an ideal gas at equal temperature T. If the piston is stationary, its
mass, m, will be given by: ( R is universal gas constant and g is the acceleration due to gravity)
RT l1 −3l2 RT 2l1 +l2 nRT 1 1 nRT l1 −l2
(A) [ ] (B) [ ] (C) [ + ] (D) [ ]
ng l1 l2 g l1 l2 ng l2 l1 g l1 l2
For Solution – Click Here

9. For a given gas at 1 atm pressure, rms speed of the molecules is 200 m/s at 127∘ C. At 2 atm
pressure and at 227∘ C, the rms speed of the molecules will be:
(A) 100 m/s (B) 80 m/s (C) 80√5 m/s (D) 100√5 m/s
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10. One mole of an ideal gas passes through a process where pressure and volume obey the relation
1 v 2
p = P0 [1 − ( 0 ) ] Here P0 and V0 are constants, calculate the change in the temperature of the
2 v
gas if its volume changes from V0 to 2 V0 .
1 P 0 V0 5 P 0 V0 1 P 0 V0 3 P 0 V0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 R 4 R 2 R 4 R
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11. The work of 146 kJ is performed in order to compress one kilo mole of a gas adiabatically and in
this process the temperature of the gas increased by 7∘ C. The gas is: (R = 8.3 J mol−1 k −1 )
(A) Diatomic
(B) Triatomic
(C) A mixture of monoatomic and diatomic
(D) Monoatomic
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110 | P a g e
12. If Cp and Cv denote the specific heats of nitrogen per unit mass at constant pressure and constant
volume respectively, then:-
(A) Cp − Cv = R/28 (B) Cp − Cv = R/4 (C) Cp − Cv = R (D) Cp − Cv = 28R
For Solution – Click Here

13. A container with insulating walls is divided into two equal parts by a partition fitted with a valve.
One part is filled with an ideal gas at a pressure p and temperature T , whereas the other part is
completely evacuated. If the valve is suddenly opened, the pressure and temperature of the gas
will be
P P T T
(A) , T (B) , (C) p, T (D) p,
2 2 2 2
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14. Helium gas goes through a cycle ABCDA (consisting of two isochoric
and two isobaric lines) as shown in figure. Efficiency of this cycle is
nearly: (Assume the gas to be close to ideal gas)
(A) 10.5% (B) 12.5% (C) 15.4% (D) 9.1%
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15. The above p-v diagram represents the thermodynamic cycle of an engine, operating with an ideal
monoatomic gas. The amount of heat, extracted from the source in a single cycle, is
13
(A) ( ) p0 v0
2
11
(B) ( ) p0 v0
2
(C) 4p0 v0
(D) p0 v0
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16. One mole of diatomic ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process 𝐴𝐵𝐶 as shown in figure. The process
BC is adiabatic. The temperature at A, B and C are 400 K, 800 K and 600 K respectively. Choose
the correct statement:
(A) The change in internal energy in the process CA is 700 R
(B) The change in internal energy in the process AB is -350 R
(C) The change in internal energy in the process BC is -500 R
(D) The change in internal energy in whole cyclic process is 250 R
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111 | P a g e
17. In a process, temperature and volume of one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas are varied
according to the relation VT = K, where I is a constant. In this process the temperature of the gas
is increased by ΔT. The amount of heat absorbed by gas is (R is gas constant)
(A) 1/2RΔT (B) 1/2KRΔT (C) 3/2RΔT (D) 2K/3ΔT
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18. Consider a spherical shell of radius R at temperature T. The black body radiation inside it can be
U
considered as an ideal gas of photons with internal energy per unit volume u = ∝ T 4 and
V
1 U
pressure P = ( ). If the shell now undergoes an adiabatic expansion the relation between T and
3 V
R is:
1 1
(A) T ∝ (B) T ∝ (C) T ∝ e−R (D) T ∝ e−3R
R R3

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19. Consider an ideal gas confined in an isolated chamber. As the gas undergoes an adiabatic
expansion, the average time of collision between molecules increases as V q , where V is the
Cp
volume of the gas. The value of q is: (λ = )
Cv
γ+1 γ−1 3γ+1 3γ−1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 6 6
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20. The specific heat capacity of a metal at low temperature (T) is given as CP(kJK −1 kg −1 ) =
T 3
32 ( ) . A 100 g vessel of this metal is to be cooled from 20 K to 4 K by a special refrigerator
400
operating at room temperature (27∘ C). The amount of work required to cool the vessel is
(A) equation to 0.002 kJ (B) greater than 0.148
(C) between 0.148 kJ and 0.028 kJ (D) less than 0.028 kJ
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21. 'n' moles of an ideal gas undergoes a process A → B as shown in the figure. The maximum
temperature of the gas during the process will be:
9P0 P0 9P0 P0
(A) (B)
nR 4nR
3P0 P0 9P0 P0
(C) (D)
2nR 2nR
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112 | P a g e
22. An ideal gas undergoes a quasi static, reversible process in which its molar heat capacity C
remains constant. If during this process the relation of pressure P and volume V is given by PV n =
constant, then n is given by (Here Cp and Cv are molar specific heat at constant pressure and
constant volume, respectively):
C−Cv Cp C−Cp Cp −C
(A) n = (B) n = (C) n = (D) n =
C−Cp Cv C−Cv C−Cv
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23. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is compressed isothermally in a rigid vessel to double its
pressure at room temperature, 27∘ C. The work done on the gas will be
(A) 300 R (B) 300Rln2 (C) 300Rln6 (D) 300Rln7
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24. Half mole of an ideal mono atomic gas is heated at constant pressure of 1atm from 20∘ C to 90∘ C.
Work done by gas is close to: (Gas constant R = 8.31 J/mol. K)
(A) 73 J (B) 291 J (C) 581 J (D) 146 J
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25. n moles of an ideal gas with constant volume heat capacity Cv undergo an isobraric expansion by
certain volume. The ratio of the work done in the process, to the heat supplied is:
4nR nR nR nR
(A) (B) c (C) (D)
Cv +nR Cv +nR Cv −nR Cv −nR
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26. When heat Q is supplied to a diatomic gas of rigid molecules, at constant volume its temperature
increases by ΔT. The heat required to produce the same change in temperature, at a constant
pressure is:
(A) 3/2Q (B) 7/5Q (C) 5/3Q (D) 2/3Q
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27. A sample of an ideal gas is taken through the cyclic process abca as shown in the figure. The
change in the internal energy of the gas along the path ca is -180 J . The gas absorbs 250 J of heat
along the path ab and 60 J along the path bc . The work done by the gas along the path abc is.
(A) 120 J
(B) 140 J
(C) 100 J
(D) 130 J
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113 | P a g e
 CP 5 CP 4
28. Two moles of an ideal gas with = are mixed with 3 moles of another ideal gas with = .
CV 3 CV 3
CP
The value of for the mixture is
CV
(A) 1.42 (B) 1.47 (C) 1.50 (D) 1.45
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29. Under an adiabatic process, the volume of an ideal gas gets doubled. Consequently the mean
CP
collision time between the gas molecules changes from τ1 to τ2 . If = γ for this gas then a good
CV
τ2
estimate for is given by:
τ1
γ+1
1 γ 1 1 2
(A) ( ) (B) 2 (C) (D) ( )
2 2 2
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30. A thermodynamic cycle xyzx is shown on a V-T diagram. The P-V diagram that best describes
this cycle is: (Diagrams are schematic and not to scale)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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31. Two vessels A and B are of the same size and are at same temperature. A contains 1 g of hydrogen
and B contains 1 g of oxygen. PA and PB are the pressures of the gases in A and B respectively,
PA
then is :
PB
(A) 32 (B) 16 (C) 4 (D) 8
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32. A gas mixture consists of 8 moles of argon and 6 moles of oxygen at temperature T. Neglecting
all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is:
(A) 21 RT (B) 29 RT (C) 20 RT (D) 27 RT
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33. The average kinetic energy of a monoatomic molecule is 0.414eV at temperature:

(Use K B = 1.38 × 10−23 J/mol − K)
(A) 3000 K (B) 1600 K (C) 1500 K (D) 3200 K
For Solution – Click Here
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34. The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen at 27∘ C is :
[Use universal gas constant (R) = 8.31 J/ mole K]
(A) 6845.5 J (B) 6232.5 J (C) 5670.5 J (D) 5942.0 J
For Solution – Click Here

35. N moles of a polyatomic gas (f = 6) must be mixed with two moles of a monoatomic gas so that
the mixture behaves as a diatomic gas. The value of N is :
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 4
For Solution – Click Here

36. At which temperature the r.m.s. velocity of a hydrogen molecule equal to that of an oxygen
molecule at 47∘ C ?
(A) 4 K (B) 20 K (C) −73 K (D) 80 K
For Solution – Click Here

37. Two moles a monoatomic gas is mixed with six moles of a diatomic gas. The molar specific heat
of the mixture at constant volume is :
5 7 9 3
(A) R (B) R (C) R (D) R
2 4 4 2
For Solution – Click Here

38. If the root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecule at a given temperature and pressure is
2 km/s, the root mean square velocity of oxygen at the same condition in km/s is :
(A) 1.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 2.0
For Solution – Click Here

39. The number of air molecules per cm3 increased from 3 × 1019 to 12 × 1019 . The ratio of
collision frequency of air molecules before and after the increase in number respectively is
(A) 1.25 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.75 (D) 0.50
For Solution – Click Here

40. Match List I with List II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
List-I List-II
(A) 3 translational degrees of freedom (I) Monoatomic gases
(B) 3 Translational, 2 rotational degrees of (II) Polyayomic gases
freedoms
(C) 3 Translational, 2 rotational and 1 (III) Rigid diatomic gases
vibrational degrees of freedom
(D) 3 Translational, 3 rotational and more (IV) Nonrigid diatomic
than one vibrational degrees freedom gases

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 (A) ( A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(B) (A) − (IV), (B) − (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(C) (A) − (I), (B) − (III), (C) − (IV), (D) - (II)
(D) (A) − (I), (B) − (IV), (C) − (III), (D) − (II)
For Solution – Click Here

41. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of neon at temperature T. Neglecting
all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system will be :
(A) 8 RT (B) 16RT (C) 4RT (D) 11RT
For Solution – Click Here

42. Three vessels of equal volume contain gases at the same temperature and pressure. The first vessel
contains neon (monoatomic), the second contains chlorine (diatomic) and third contains uranium
hexafloride (polyatomic). Arrange these on the basis of their root mean square speed (vrms ) and
choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) vrms ( mono ) = vrms ( dia ) = vrms ( poly )
(B) vrms ( mono ) > vrms ( dia ) > vmms ( poly )
(C) vrms ( dia ) < vrms ( poly ) < vrms ( mono)
(D) vrms ( mono ) < vrms ( dia ) < vrms ( poly )
For Solution – Click Here

43. The root mean square speed of molecules of nitrogen gas at 27∘ C is approximately:
(Given mass of a nitrogen molecule = 4.6 × 10−26 kg and take Boltzmann constant k B =
1.4 × 10−23 JK −1 )
523 m 1260 m
(A) (B) (C) 91 m/s (D) 27.4 m/s
s s
For Solution – Click Here

44. If the r.m.s. speed of chlorine molecule is 490 m/s at 27∘ C, the r.m.s. speed of argon molecules
at the same temperature will be (Atomic mass of argon = 39.9u, molecular mass of chlorine =
70.9u )
(A) 751.7 m/s (B) 451.7 m/s (C) 651.7 m/s (D) 551.7 m/s
For Solution – Click Here

1
5 2
45. The rms speed of oxygen molecule in a vessel at particular temperature is (1 + ) v, where v is
x
22
the average speed of the molecule. The value of x will be: (Take π = )
7
(A) 28 (B) 27 (C) 8 (D) 4
For Solution – Click Here

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46. The mean free path of molecules of a certain gas at STP is 1500 d, where d is the diameter of the
gas molecules. While maintaining the standard pressure, the mean free path of the molecules at
373 K is approximately :
(A) 1098 d (B) 2049 d (C) 750 d (D) 1500 d
For Solution – Click Here

47. (A flask contains Hydrogen and Argon in the ratio 2: 1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture
is 30∘ C. The ratio of average kinetic energy per molecule of the two gases ( K argon/K hydrogen)
is: (Given: Atomic Weight of Ar = 39.9 )
39.9
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) (D) 39.9
2
For Solution – Click Here

48. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 200 K to 800 K. If r.m.s. speed of gas at 200 K
is v0 . Then, r.m.s. speed of the gas at 800 K will be:
v
(A) v0 (B) 4v0 (C) 0 (D) 2v0
4
For Solution – Click Here

49. 0.08 kg air is heated at constant volume through 5∘ C. The specific heat of air at constant volume
is 0.17kcal/kg ∘ C and J = 4.18 joule/cal. The change in its internal energy is approximately.
(A) 284 J (B) 142 J (C) 298 J (D) 318 J
For Solution – Click Here

5 7
50. If three moles of monoatomic gas (γ = ) is mixed with two moles of a diatomic gas (γ = ),
3 5
the value of adiabatic exponent γ for the mixture is
(A) 1.52 (B) 1.35 (C) 1.75 (D) 1.40
For Solution – Click Here

51. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its
Cp
absolute temperature. The ratio of for the gas is:
Cv
3 9 5 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 7 3 5
For Solution – Click Here

52. Choose the correct statement for processes A&B shown in figure.
(A) PV = k for process B and A.
(B) PV ′ = k for process B and PV = k for process A.
Tγ
(C) = k for process A and PV = k for process B.
Pγ−1
Pγ−1
(D) = k for process B and T = k for process A.
Tγ
For Solution – Click Here
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53. The given figure represents two isobaric processes for the same mass of an ideal gas, then
(A) P1 = P2
(B) P1 > P2
(C) P2 > P1
(D) P2 ≥ P1
For Solution – Click Here

3
54. The pressure and volume of an ideal gas are related as PV 2 = K (Constant). The work done when
the gas is taken from state A(P1 , V1 , T1 ) to state B(P2 , V2 , T2 ) is :
(A) (P2 √V2 − P1 √V1 ) (B) 2(√P1 V1 − √P2 V2 )
(C) 2(P2 V2 − P1 V1 ) (D) 2(P1 V1 − P2 V2 )
For Solution – Click Here

55. A diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) does 200 J of work when it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to
the gas in the process is:
(A) 600 J (B) 800 J (C) 700 J (D) 850 J
For Solution – Click Here

56. 1 kg of water at 100∘ C is converted into steam at 100∘ C by boiling at atmospheric pressure. The
volume of water changes from 1.00 × 10−3 m3 as a liquid to 1.671 m3 as steam. The change in
internal energy of the system during the process will be (Given latent heat of vaporisaiton =
2257 kJ/kg. Atmospheric pressure = 1 × 105 Pa)
(𝐴) + 2090 kJ (B) −2090 kJ (C) −2426 kJ (D) +2476 kJ
For Solution – Click Here

57. Under isothermal condition, the pressure of a gas is given by P = aV −3 , where a is a constant and
V is the volume of the gas. The bulk modulus at constant temperature is equal to
P
(A) (B) 3P (C) 2P (D) P
2
For Solution – Click Here

58. The initial pressure and volume of an ideal gas are P0 and V0 . The final pressure of the gas when
V0
the gas is suddenly compressed to volume will be :
4
(Given 𝛾 = ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume)
1
(A) P0 (4)𝛾 (B) P0 (4)𝛾 (C) P0 (D) 4P0
For Solution – Click Here
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59. A thermodynamic system is taken through cyclic process. The total work done in the process is :

(A) 100 J (B) 300 J (C) Zero (D) 200 J

For Solution – Click Here

60. An air bubble of volume 1 cm3 rises from the bottom of a lake 40 m deep to the surface at a
temperature of 12∘ C . The atmospheric pressure is 1 × 105 Pa , the density of water is
1000 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2 . There is no difference of the temperature of water at the depth of
40 m and on the surface. The volume of air bubble when it reaches the surface will be
(A) 5 cm3 (B) 2 cm3 (C) 4 cm3 (D) 3 cm3
For Solution – Click Here

Cp Cp
61. For a diatomic gas, if γ1 = ( ) for rigid molecules and γ2 = ( ) for another diatomic
Cv Cv
molecules, but also having vibrational modes. Then, which one of the following options is
correct? (Cp and Cv are specific heats of the gas at constant pressure and volume)
(1) γ2 > γ1 (2) γ2 = γ1 (3) 2γ2 = γ1 (4) γ2 < γ1
For Solution – Click Here

62. Given are statements for certain thermodynamic variables,

(A) Internal energy, volume (V) and mass (M) are extensive variables.
(B) Pressure (P), temperature (T) and density (r) are intensive variables.
(C) Volume (V), temperature (T) and density (r) are intensive variables.
(D) Mass (M), temperature (T) and internal energy are extensive variables.
Choose the correct answer from the points given below :
(1) (C) and (D) only (2) (D) and (A) only (3) (A) and (B) only (4) (B) and (C) only
For Solution – Click Here

63. Match the List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(A) Pressure varies inversely with volume of an ideal gas. (I) Adiabatic
Process
(B) Heat absorbed goes partly to increase internal energy and (II) Isochoric
partly to do work. Process

119 | P a g e
 (C) Heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system (III) Isothermal
Process
(D) No work is done on or by a gas (IV) Isobaric Process
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III (2) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
(3) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV (4) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
For Solution – Click Here

64. An ideal gas initially at 0ºC temperature, is compressed suddenly to one fourth of its volume. If
the ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to that at constant volume is 3/2, the change in
temperature due to the thermodynamics process is____K.
For Solution – Click Here

65. Using the given P-V diagram, the work done by an ideal gas along the path ABCD is-

(A) 4P0 V0 (B) 3P0 V0 (C) −4P0 V0 (D) −3P0 V0

For Solution – Click Here

66. Water of mass m gram is slowly heated to increase the temperature from T1 to T2 . The change in
entropy of the water, given specific heat of water is 1Jkg −1 K −1 , is :
T T
(A) zero (B) m(T2 − T1 ) (C) mln ( 1) (D ∗) mln ( 2)
T2 T1
For Solution – Click Here

67. An ideal gas goes from an initial state to final state. During the process, the pressure of gas
increases linearly with temperature.
A. The work done by gas during the process is zero.
B. The heat added to gas is different from change in its internal energy.
C. The volume of the gas is increased.
D. The internal energy of the gas is increased.
E. The process is isochoric (constant volume process)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) A, B, C, D Only (2) A, D, E Only (3) E Only (4) A, C Only
For Solution – Click Here

68. The temperature of 1 mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is increased by 50∘ C at constant
E
pressure. The total heat added and change in internal energy are E1 and E2 , respectively. If 1 =
E2
x
then the value of x is _______
9
For Solution – Click Here

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69. given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R).
Assertion (A) : In an insulated container, a gas is adiabatically shrunk to half of its initial
volume. The temperature of the gas decreases.
Reason (R) : Free expansion of an ideal gas is an irreversible and an adiabatic process.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A
For Solution – Click Here

70. The magnitude of heat exchanged by a system for the given cyclic process ABCA (as shown in
figure) is (in SI unit)

(1) 10p (2) 5p (3) Zero (4) 40p

For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 C 2 A 3 B 4 D 5 D 6 C 7 B
8 D 9 D 10 B 11 A 12 A 13 A 14 C
15 A 16 C 17 A 18 A 19 A 20 B 21 B
22 C 23 B 24 B 25 B 26 B 27 D 28 A
29 D 30 D 31 B 32 D 33 D 34 B 35 D
36 B 37 C 38 B 39 B 40 C 41 D 42 B
43 A 44 C 45 A 46 B 47 A 48 D 49 A
50 A 51 A 52 B 53 B 54 B 55 C 56 A
57 B 58 B 59 B 60 A 61 D 62 C 63 D
64 273 65 66 D 67 B 68 15 69 C 70 B

121 | P a g e
 Electrostatics
1. A vertical electric field of magnitude 4.9 × 105 N/C just prevents a water droplet of a mass 0.1 g
from falling. The value charge on the droplet will be
(Given g = 9.8 m/s2 )
(A) 1.6 × 10−9 C (B) 2.0 × 10−9 C (C) 3.2 × 10−9 C (D) 0.5 × 10−9 C
For Solution – Click Here

2. Two uniformly charged spherical conductors A and B of radii 5 mm and 10 mm are separated by
a distance of 2 cm. If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire, then in equilibrium
condition, the ratio of the magnitudes of the electric fields at the surface of the sphere A and B
will be :
(A) 1: 2 (B) 2: 1 (C) 1: 1 (D) 1: 4
For Solution – Click Here

3. Three point charges of magnitude 5μC, 0.16μC and 0.3μC are located at the vertices A, B, C of a
right angled triangle whose sides are AB = 3 cm, BC = 3√2 cm and CA = 3 cm and point A is
the right angle corner. Charge at point A experiences _____ N of electrostatic force due to the
other two charges.
(A) 10 (B) 17 (C) 25 (D) 29
For Solution – Click Here

4. Two identical positive charges Q each are fixed at a distance of ' 2a ' apart from each other.
Another point charge q0 with mass ' m ' is placed at midpoint between two fixed charges. For a
small displacement along the line joining the fixed charges, the charge q0 executes SHM. The
time period of oscillation of charge q0 will be :
4π3 ε0 ma3 q0 Q 2π2 ε0 ma3 8π3 ε0 ma3
(A) √ (B) √ (C) √ (D) √
q0 Q 4π3 ε0 ma3 q0 Q q0 Q

For Solution – Click Here

5. A long cylindrical volume contains a uniformly distributed charge of density ρCm−3 . The electric
field inside the cylindrical volume at a distance x = 2ε0 /ρm from its axis is _____ Vm−1
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 1
(D) 7
For Solution – Click Here
122 | P a g e
6. A charge of 4μC is to be divided into two. The distance between the two divided charges is
constant. The magnitude of the divided charges so that the force between them is maximum, will
be:
(A) 1μC and 3μC (B) 2μC and 2μC (C) 0 and 4μC (D) 1.5μC and 2.5μC
For Solution – Click Here

7. An 𝛼 particle and a proton are accelerated from rest through the same potential difference. The
ratio of linear momenta acquired by above two particles will be :
(A) √2: 1 (B) 2√2: 1 (C) 4√2: 1 (D) 8: 1
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8. Two identical metallic spheres A and B when placed at certain distance in air repel each other
with a force of F. Another identical uncharged sphere C is first placed in contact with A and then
in contact with B and finally placed at midpoint between spheres A and B. The force experienced
by sphere C will be:
(A) 3 F/2 (B) 3 F/4 (C) F (D) 2 F
For Solution – Click Here

9. The volume charge density of a sphere of radius 6 m is 2μC cm−3 . The number of lines of force
per unit surface area coming out from the surface of the sphere is ______ =× 1010 NC−1 .
[Given : Permittivity of vacuum ϵ0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2 N −1 − m−2 ]
(A) 35 (B) 45 (C) 25 (D) 90
For Solution – Click Here

10. A spherically symmetric charge distribution is considered with charge density varying as
3 r
ρ(r) = { 0 4 − R) for r ≤ R
ρ (
Zero for r > R
Where, r(r < R) is the distance from the centre O (as shown in figure). The electric field at point
P will be :
ρ0 r 3 r ρ0 r 3 r
(A) ( − ) (B) ( − )
4ε0 4 R 3ε0 4 R
ρ0 r r ρ0 r r
(C) (1 − ) (D) (1 − )
4ε0 R 5ε0 R
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11. Two identical charged particles each having a mass 10 g and charge 2.0 × 10−7 C are placed on a
horizontal table with a separation of L between them such that they stay in limited equilibrium. If
the coefficient of friction between each particle and the table is 0.25, find the value of L. [Use
g = 10 ms −2 ]
(A) 12 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 8 cm (D) 5 cm
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123 | P a g e
12. A long cylindrical volume contains a uniformly distributed charge of density ρ. The radius of
cylindrical volume is R. A charge particle (q) revolves around the cylinder in a circular path. The
kinetic energy of the particle is:
ρqR2 ρqR2 qρ 4ε0 R2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4ε0 2ε0 4ε0 R2 qρ
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13. Sixty four conducting drops each of radius 0.02 m and each carrying a charge of 5𝜇C are
combined to form a bigger drop. The ratio of surface density of bigger drop to the smaller drop
will be:
(A) 1: 4 (B) 4: 1 (C) 1: 8 (D) 8: 1
For Solution – Click Here

14. Three identical charged balls each of charge 2C are suspended from
a common point 𝑃 by silk threads of 2 m each (as shown in figure).
They form an equilateral triangle of side 1 m. The ratio of net force
on a charged ball to the force between any two charged balls will be:
(A) 1: 1 (B) 1: 4
(C) √3: 2 (D) √3: 1
For Solution – Click Here

15. Two point charges A and B of magnitude +8 × 10−6 C and −8 × 10−6 C respectively are placed
at a distance d apart. The electric field at the middle point O between the charges is
6.4 × 104 NC−1 . The distance ' d ' between the point charges A and B is:
(A) 2.0 m (B) 3.0 m (C) 1.0 m (D) 4.0 m
For Solution – Click Here

16. A positive charge particle of 100mg is thrown in opposite direction to a uniform electric field of
strength 1 × 105 NC−1 . If the charge on the particle is 40μC and the initial velocity is 200 ms −1 ,
how much distance it will travel before coming to the rest momentarily :
(A) 1 m (B) 5 m (C) 10 m (D) 0.5 m
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17. Two point charges Q each are placed at a distance d apart. A third point charge q is placed at a
distance x from mid-point on the perpendicular bisector. The value of x at which charge q will
experience the maximum Coulomb's force is:
d d d
(A) x = d (B) x = (C) x = (D) x =
2 √2 2√2
For Solution – Click Here

124 | P a g e
18. If the electric potential at any point (x, y, z)m in space is given by V = 3x 2 volt. The electric field
at the point (1,0,3)m will be:
(A) 3Vm−1 , directed along positive x-axis.
(B) 3Vm−1 , directed along negative x-axis.
(C) 6Vm−1 , directed along positive x-axis.
(D) 6Vm−1 , directed along negative x-axis.
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19. A particle of charge '−q' and mass 'm' moves in a circle of radius 'r' around an infinitely long line
charge of linear charge density '+λ'. Then time period will be given as : (Consider k as Coulomb's
constant)
1 2kλq 4π2 m 3 m 1 m
(A) T = √ (B) T 2 = r (C) T = 2πr√ (D) T = √2kλq
2π m 2kλq 2kλq 2πr

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20. Force between two point charges q1 and q2 placed in vacuum at 'r' cm apart is F. Force between
them when placed in a medium having dielectric constant K = 5 at 'r/5' cm apart will be:
(A) F/25 (B) 25F (C) 5 F (D) F/5
For Solution – Click Here

21. C1 and C2 are two hollow concentric cubes enclosing charges 2Q and 3Q respectively as shown
in figure. The ratio of electric flux passing through C1 and C2 is :
(A) 2: 5 (B) 3: 2
(C) 2: 3 (D) 5: 2
For Solution – Click Here

22. Two charges q and 3q are separated by a distance 'r' in air. At a distance x from charge q, the
resultant electric field is zero. The value of x is :
(1+√3) r r
(A) r(1 + √3) (B) (C) (D)
r (1+√3) 3(1+√3)
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23. Two charges of 5Q and −2Q are situated at the points (3a, 0) and (−5a, 0) respectively. The
electric flux through a sphere of radius ' 4a′ ' having center at origin is:
2Q 7Q 5Q 3Q
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ε0 ε0 ε0 ε0
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24. An electric field is given by (6î + 5ĵ + 3k̂)N/C. The electric flux through a surface area 30î m2
lying in YZ-plane (in SI unit) is :
(A) 180 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 150
For Solution – Click Here

125 | P a g e
25. An electric charge 10−6 μC is placed at origin (0, 0)m of X − Y co-ordinate system. Two points
P and Q are situated at (√3, √3)m and (√6, 0)m respectively. The potential difference between
the points P and Q will be:
(A) 0 V (B) √3 V (C) √6 V (D) 3 V
For Solution – Click Here

26. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R. Assertion A : If an electric dipole of dipole moment 30 × 10−5 Cm is enclosed by a closed
surface, the net flux coming out of the surface will be zero.
Reason R : Electric dipole consists of two equal and opposite charges.
In the light of above, statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) A is true but R is false
(C) Both A and R true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(D) A is false but R is true
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27. Two charges each of magnitude 0.01C and separated by a distance of 0.4 mm constitute an
electric dipole. If the dipole is placed in an uniform electric field ' ⃗E ' of 10 dyne/C making 30∘
angle with ⃗E, the magnitude of torque acting on dipole is :
(A) 4.0 × 10−10 Nm (B) 2.0 × 10−10 Nm (C) 1.0 × 10−8 Nm (D) 1.5 × 10−9 Nm
For Solution – Click Here

28. A 10μC charge is divided into two parts and placed at 1 cm distance so that the repulsive force
between them is maximum. The charges of the two parts are :
(A) 9μC, 1μC (B) 5μC, 5μC (C) 7μC, 3μC (D) 8μC, 2μC
For Solution – Click Here

29. If two charges q1 and q2 are separated with distance 'd' and placed in a medium of dielectric
constant K. What will be the equivalent distance between charges in air for the same electrostatic
force?
(A) d√k (B) k√a (C) 1.5d√k (D) 2d√k
For Solution – Click Here

30. The electric potential at the centre of two concentric half rings of radii R1 and R2, having same
linear charge density λ is
2λ λ
(A) (B)
e0 2eo
λ λ
(C) (D)
4e0 e0
For Solution – Click Here
126 | P a g e
31. For a charged spherical ball, electrostatic potential inside the ball varies with r as V=2ar2+b. Here,
a and b are constant and r is the distance from the center. The volume charge density inside the
ball is −𝜆𝑎𝜀𝜀. The value of 𝜆 is ______ . 𝜀= permittivity of medium.
For Solution – Click Here

32. A thin metallic wire having cross sectional area of 10−4 m2 is used to make a ring of radius
30 cm. A positive charge of 2πC is uniformly distributed over the ring, while another positive
charge of 30pC is kept at the centre of the ring. The tension in the ring is ________ N; provided
that the ring does not get deformed
1
(neglect the influence of gravity). (given, = 9 × 109 SI units)
4πϵ0
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33. Two charges of −4μC and +4μC are placed at the points A(1,0,4)m and B(2, −1,5)m located in
an electric field ⃗E = 0.20î V/cm . The magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole is
8√α × 10−5 Nm, where α = ______.
For Solution – Click Here

34. Two identical charged spheres are suspended by string of equal lengths. The string make an angle
of 37∘ with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.7 g/cm3 , the angle remains same.
If density of material of the sphere is 1.4 g/cm3 , the dielectric constant of the liquid is____
3
(tan⁡ 37∘ = )
4
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35. Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings make an
angle θ with each other. When suspended in water the angle remains the same. If density of the
material of the sphere is 1.5 g/cc, the dielectric constant of water will be _____ (Take density of
water = 1 g/cc)
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36. Suppose a uniformly charged wall provides a uniform electric field of 2 × 104 N/C normally. A
charged particle of mass 2 g being suspended through a silk thread of length 20 cm and remain
1
stayed at a distance of 10 cm from the wall. Then the charge on the particle will be μC where
√x
x = ______. [use g = 10 m/s2 ]
For Solution – Click Here

37. An electron is moving under the influence of the electric field of a uniformly charged infinite
plane sheet S having surface charge density +σ. The electron at t = 0 is at a distance of 1 m from
S and has a speed of 1 m/s. The maximum value of σ if the electron strikes S at t = 1 s is
mϵ0 C
α[ ] , the value of α is _______.
e m2
For Solution – Click Here
127 | P a g e
38. The distance between charges +q and −q is 2l and between +2q and −2q is 4l. The electrostatic
ql
potential at point P at a distance r from center O is −α [ 2 ] × 109 V, where the value of α is
r
________.
1
(Use = 109 Nm2 C−2 9 ×)
4πε0
For Solution – Click Here

39. Three concentric spherical metallic shells X, Y and Z of radius a, b and c respectively [a < b <
c] have surface charge densities σ, −σ and σ , respectively. The shells X and Z are at same
potential. If the radii of X&Y are 2 cm and 3 cm, respectively. The radius of shell Z is _____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

40. As shown in the figure. a configuration of two equal point charges (q0 = +2μC) is placed on an
inclined plane. Mass of each point charge is 20 g. Assume that there is no friction between charge
and plane. For the system of two point charges to be in equilibrium (at rest) the height h =
1
x × 10−3 m The value of x is _____ . (Take = 9 × 109 Nm2 C−2 , g = 10 ms −1 )
4πε0

For Solution – Click Here

41. Charge is distributed within a sphere of radius R with a volume charge density
A
ρ(R) = e−2x/a , where A and a are constants. If Q is the total charge of this charge distribution,
r2
the radius R is :
a Q Q 1 a 1
(A) log⁡ (1 − ) (B) alog⁡ (1 − ) (C) a log⁡ ( Q ) (D) log⁡ ( Q )
2 2πaA 2πaA 1− 2 1−
2πa 2πaA
For Solution – Click Here

42. Two point charges q1 (√10μC) and q2 (−25μC) are placed on the x -axis at x = 1m and x = 4m
1
respectively. The electric field (in V/m ) at a point y = 3m on y -axis is, [Take =
4πε0

9 × 109 Nm2 C−2 ]

(A) (−63î + 27ĵ) × 102 (B) (81î − 81ĵ) × 102
(C) (63î − 27ĵ) × 102 (D) (−81î + 81ĵ) × 102
For Solution – Click Here

128 | P a g e
43. A charge Q is distributed over three concentric spherical shells of radii a, b, c (a < b < c) such
that their surface charge densities are equal to one another. The total potential at a point at distance
r from their common centre, where r < a, would be :
Q Q ab+bc+ca Q(a+b+c) Q (a2 +b2 +c2 )
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4πε0 (a+b+c) 12πε0 abc 4πε0 (a2 +b2 +c2 ) 4πε0 (a3 +b3 +c3 )
For Solution – Click Here

44. Two electric dipoles, A, B with respective dipole moments d ⃗ A = −4qaî and d
⃗ B = −2qaî placed
on the x − axis with a separation R, as shown in the figure. The distance from A at which both of
them produce the same potential is:
√2R √2R
(A) (B)
√2+1 √2−1
R R
(C) (D)
√2+1 √2−1
For Solution – Click Here

45. Charges −q and +q located at A and B, respectively, constitute an

electric dipole. Distance AB = 2a, O is the mid-point of the dipole
and OP is perpendicular to AB. A charge Q is placed at P where OP =
y and y ≫ 2a. The charge Q experiences and electrostatic force F. If
Q is now moved along the equatorial line to P′ such that OP′ =
(y/3), the force on Q will be close to: (y/3 ≫ 2a)
(A) F/3 (B) 3 F (C) 9 F (D) 27 F
For Solution – Click Here

46. Four equal point charges Q each are placed in the xy plane at (0,2), (4,2), (4, −2) and (0, −2).
The work required to put a fifth charge Q at the origin of the coordinate system will be :
Q2 Q2 1 Q2 1 Q2
(A) (B) (1 + ) (C) (1 + ) (D)
2√2πε0 4πε0 √5 4πε0 √3 4πε0
For Solution – Click Here

47. Three charges Q, +q and + q are placed at the vertices of a right - angle isosceles triangle as shown
below. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero, if the value of Q is:
−√2q −q
(A) +q (B) (C) (D) -2 q
√2+1 1+√2
For Solution – Click Here

48. Determine the electric dipole moment of the system of three charges, placed on
the vertices of an equilateral triangle, as shown in the figure:
ĵ−î î+ĵ
(A) √3qℓ (B) (qℓ) (C) 2qĵ (D) −√3q/ĵ
√2 √2
For Solution – Click Here

129 | P a g e
49. A solid conducting sphere, having a charge Q, is surrounded by an uncharged conducting hollow
spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the solid sphere and that of the
outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a charge of –4Q, the new potential
difference between the same two surfaces is :
(A) 4V (B) –2v (C) 2v (D) V
For Solution – Click Here

50. The bob of a simple pendulum has mass 2 g and a charge of 5.0mC. It is at rest in a uniform
horizontal electric field of intensity 2000 V/m. At equilibrium, the angle that the pendulum makes
with the vertical is (take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) tan–1 (2.0) (B) tan–1(0.5) (C) tan–1 (0.2) (D) tan–1 (5.0)
For Solution – Click Here

⃗ = (Ax + B)î where E is in NC−1 and x is in metres.

51. The electric field in a region is given by E
The values of constants are A = 20 SI unit and B = 10 SI unit. If the potential at x = 1 is V1 and
that at x = −5 is V2 , then V1 − V2 is:
(A) 320 V (B) -520 V (C) 180 V (D) -48 V
For Solution – Click Here

52. An electric dipole is formed by two equal and opposite charges q with separation d. The charges
have same mass m . It is kept in a uniform electric field E. If it is slightly rotated from its
equilibrium orientation, then its angular frequency ω is:
2qE qE qE qE
(A) √ (B) 2√ (C) √ (D) √
md md md 2md
For Solution – Click Here

53. A uniformly charged ring of radius 3a and total charge q is placed in xy-plane centered at origin.
A point charge q is moving towards the ring along the z-axis and has speed vat z = 4 a The
minimum value of v such that it crosses the origin is:
1/2 1/2 1/2 1/2
2 2 q2 2 1 q2 2 1 q2 2 4 q2
(A)√ ( ) (B) √ ( ) (C) √ ( ) (D) √ ( )
m 15 4πε0 a m 15 4πε0 a m 5 4πε0 a m 15 4πε0 a
For Solution – Click Here

54. Shown in the figure is a shell made of a conductor. It has inner radius a and outer radius b, and
carries charge Q. At its centre is a dipole pas shown. In this case:
(A) Surface charge density on the inner surface is uniform and equal to (Q/2)/4pa2
(B) Electric field outside the shell is the same as that of a point charge at the centre
of the shell
(C) Surface charge density on the inner surface of the shell is zero every where
(D) Surface charge density on the outer surface depends on |P|
For Solution – Click Here
130 | P a g e
55. Three charged particles A, B and C with charges –4q, 2q and –2q are present on the circumference
of a circle of radius d. The charged particles A, C and centre O of the circle formed an equilateral
triangle as shown in figure. Electric field at O along x-direction is:
√3q √3q
(A) (B)
πε0 d2 4πε0 d2
3√3q 2√3q
(C) (D)
4πε0 d2 πε0 d2
For Solution – Click Here

56. A particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in a uniform electric field. If there is no
other force on the particle, the dependence of its speed v on the distance x travelled by it is
correctly given by (graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

57. Consider two charged metallic spheres S1 and S2 of radii R1 and R 2 , respectively. The electric
fields E1 (on S1 ) and E2 (on S2 ) on their surfaces are such that E1 /E2 = R1 /R 2 . Then the ratio
V1 (on S1 )/V2 (onS2 ) of the electrostatic potentials on each sphere is
R 3 R1 R R 2
(A) ( 1) (B) (C) ( 2) (D) ( 1)
R2 R2 R1 R2
For Solution – Click Here

58. Consider a sphere of radius R which carries a uniform charge density ρ. If a

R ⃗
E
sphere of radius is carved out of its, as shown, the ratio |⃗ A | of magnitude of
2 EB
⃗ A and E
electric field E ⃗ B , respectively, at points A and B due to the remaining
portion is :
18 21 17 18
(A) (B) (C) (D)
34 34 54 54
For Solution – Click Here

59. A thin infinite sheet charge and an infinite line charge of respective charge densities +σ and +λ
3 4
are placed parallel at 5 m distance from each other. Points ' P ' and ' Q ' are at m and m
π π
perpendicular distance from line charge towards sheet charge, respectively. 'EP ' and 'EQ ' are the
magnitudes of resultant electric field intensities at point 'P' and 'Q', respectively.
EP 4
If = for 2|σ| = |λ|. Then the value of a is
EQ a
For Solution – Click Here

131 | P a g e
 3
60. Three point charges q, −2q and 2q are placed on x-axis at a distance x = 0, x = R and x = R
4
−6
respectively from origin as shown. If q = 2 × 10 C and R = 2 cm, the magnitude of net force
experienced by the charge −2q is ____ N.

For Solution – Click Here

a'
61. A line charge of length ⁡is kept at the center of an edge BC of a cube ABCDEFGH having edge
2
length ' a ' as shown in the figure. If the density of line is λC per unit length, then the total
electric flux through all the faces of the cube will be ________ (Take, ϵ0 as the free space
permittivity)
λa λa
(A) (B)
8ε0 16ε0
λa λa
(C) (D)
2ε0 4ε0
For Solution – Click Here

62. An electron is made to enters symmetrically between two parallel and equally but oppositely
charged metal plates, each of 10 cm length. The electron emerges out of the field region with a
horizontal component of velocity 106 m/s. If the magnitude of the electric between the plates is
9.1 V/cm, then the vertical component of velocity of electron is
(mass of electron = 9.1 × 10−31 kg and charge of electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C)
(A) 1 × 106 m/s (B) 0 (C) 16 × 106 m/s (D) 16 × 104 m/s
For Solution – Click Here

63. For a short dipole placed at origin O, the dipole moment P is along x-axis, as shown in the
figure. If the electric potential and electric field at A are V0 and E0, respectively, then the correct
combination of the electric potential and electric field, respectively, at point B on the y-axis is
given by

V0 E0 E0 E0 E0
(1) and (2) zero and (3) zero and (4) V0 and
2 16 8 16 4
For Solution – Click Here
132 | P a g e
64. The electric flux is ϕ = ασ + βλwhere λ⁡and⁡σ⁡are linear and surface charge density,
α
respectively,⁡( ) represents
β
(1) charge (2) electric field (3) displacement (4) area
For Solution – Click Here

65. A point particle of charge Q is located at P along the axis of an electric dipole 1 at a distance r
as shown in the figure. The point P is also on the equatorial plane of a second electric dipole 2 at
a distance r. The dipoles are made of opposite charge q separated by a distance 2a. For the
charge particle at P not to experience any net force, which of the following correctly describes
the situation?

a a a a
(1) − 20 (2) ∼ 10 (3) ∼ 0.5 (4) ∼ 3
r r r r
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66. A positive ion A⁡and a negative ion B has charges⁡6.67 × 10−19 C⁡and⁡9.6 × 10−10 C,⁡and
masses⁡19.2 × 10−27 kg⁡and⁡9 × 10−27 kg⁡respectively. At an instant, the ions are separated by a
certain distance r. At that instant⁡the ratio of the magnitudes of electrostatic force to
gravitational force is P × 10−13 , where the value of P is _______
1
(Take = 9 × 109 Nm2 C−1 and universal gravitational constant as 6.67 × 10−11 Nm2 kg −2 )
4πε0
For Solution – Click Here

67. Two point charges – 4 mc and 4 mc, constituting an electric dipole, are placed at (– 9, 0, 0) cm
and (9, 0, 0) cm in a uniform electric field of strength 104 NC–1. The work done on the dipole in
rotating it from the equilibrium through 180° is :
(A) 14.4 mJ (B) 18.4 Mj (C) 12.4 mJ (D) 16.4 mJ
For Solution – Click Here

68. Two charges 7μc⁡and⁡ − 4μc⁡are placed at⁡(−7cm, 0,0⁡)⁡and⁡(⁡7cm, 0,0⁡)⁡respectively. Given,
ϵ0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2 N −1 m−2 , the electrostatic potential energy of the charge configuration is :
(A) -1.5 J (B) -2.0 J (𝐶) − 1.2J (D) -1.8 J
For Solution – Click Here

133 | P a g e
69. A square loop of sides a = 1m⁡is held normally in front of a point charge⁡q = 1C.⁡The flux of
5 1 Nm2
the electric field through the shaded region is⁡ × , where the value of p is ________
p ε0 C
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70. A small uncharged conducting sphere is placed in contact with an identical sphere but having
4 × 10−8 ⁡C⁡charge and then removed to a distance such that the force of repulsion between
1
them⁡is⁡9 × 10−3 N. The⁡distance⁡between⁡them⁡is⁡(Take⁡ ⁡as⁡9 × 109 in SI units)
4πε0
(1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 4 cm (4) 1 cm
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 B 2 B 3 B 4 A 5 C 6 B 7 B
8 B 9 B 10 C 11 A 12 A 13 B 14 D
15 B 16 D 17 D 18 D 19 C 20 C 21 A
22 C 23 C 24 A 25 A 26 A 27 B 28 B
29 A 30 B 31 12 32 3 33 2 34 2 35 3
36 3 37 8 38 27 39 5 40 300 41 D 42 C
43 C 44 B 45 D 46 B 47 B 48 D 49 D
50 B 51 C 52 A 53 A 54 B 55 A 56 B
57 D 58 A 59 6 60 5440 61 A 62 C 63 C
64 C 65 D 66 BONUS 67 A 68 D 69 48 70 A

134 | P a g e
 Current Electricity
1. Two batteries with e.m.f 12V and 13V are connected in parallel across a load resistor of 10Ω. The
internal resistances of the two batteries are 1Ω and 2Ω respectively. The voltage across the load
lies between
(A) 11.6V and 11.7V (B) 11.5V and 11.6V
(C) 11.4V and 11.5V (D) 11.7V and 11.8V
For Solution – Click Here

2. On interchanging the resistances, the balance point of a meter bridge shifts to the let by 10 cm.
the resistance of their series combination is 1 kΩ. How much was the resistance on the let slot
before the interchange ?
(A) 990Ω (B) 505Ω (C) 550Ω (D) 910Ω
For Solution – Click Here

3. In the given circuit all resistance are of value R ohm each.

The equivalent resistance between A and B is
5R 5R
(A) 2R (B) (C) 3R (D)
2 3
For Solution – Click Here

4. A constant voltage is applied between two ends of a metallic wire. If the length is halved and the
radius of the wire is doubled, the rate of heat developed in the wire will be
(A) Increased 8 times (B) Unchanged (C) Doubled (D) Halved
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5. A copper rod of cross-sectional area A carries a uniform current I through. At temperature T, if

the volume charge density of the rod is ρ, how long will the charge take to travel a distance d ?
ρdA ρdA 2ρdA 2ρdA
(A) (B) (C) (D)
I IT I IT
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6. A heating has a resistance of 100Ω at room temperature. When it is connected to a supply of

220V, a steady current of 2A passes in it and temperature is 500∘ C more than room temperature.
What is the temperature coefficient of resistance of the heating element?
(A) 1 × 10−4 ∘ C−1 (B) 2 × 10−4 ∘ C−1 (C) 0.5 × 10−40 C−1 (D) 5 × 10−4 ∘ C−1
For Solution – Click Here

7. A carbon resistance has a following colour code. What is the value of the resistance?
(A) 1.64MΩ ± 5% (B) 530kΩ ± 5%
(C) 64kΩ ± 10% (D) 5.3MΩ ± 5%
For Solution – Click Here
135 | P a g e
8. In the given circuit the internal resistance of the 18V cell is negligible. If
R1 = 400Ω, R 3 = 100Ω and R 4 = 500Ω and the reading of an ideal
voltmeter across R 4 is 5V, then the value R 2 will be:
(A) 300Ω (B) 230Ω (C) 450Ω (D) 550Ω
For Solution – Click Here

9. A uniform metallic wire has a resistance of 18Ω and is bent into an equilateral triangle. Then, the
resistance between any two vertices of the triangle is:
(A) 8Ω (B) 12Ω (C) 4Ω (D) 2Ω
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10. A 2W carbon resistor is color coded with green, black, red and brown respectively. The maximum
current which can be passed through this resistor is :
(A) 63 mA (B) 0.4 mA (C) 100 mA (D) 20 mA
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11. A potentiometer wire AB having length L and resistance 12r is joined to a

cell D of emf ε and internal resistance r. A cell C having emf ε/2 and
internal resistance 3r is connected. The length AJ at which the
galvanometer as shown in fig. shows no deflection is :
(A) 5/12L (B) 11/24L (C) 11/12L (D) 13/
24L
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12. In the given circuit the cells have zero internal resistance. The currents (in
Amperes) passing through resistance R1 , and R 2 respectively, are:
(A) 2, 2 (B) 0,1 (C) 1, 2 (D) 0.5, 0
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13. The actual value of resistance R, shown in the figure is 30Ω. This is measured in an experiment
V
as shown using the standard formula R = , where V and I are the readings of the voltmeter and
I
ammeter, respectively. If the measured value of R is 5% less, then the internal resistance of the
voltmeter is :
(A) 350Ω (B) 570Ω (C) 35Ω (D) 600Ω
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14. A current of 2 mA was passed through an unknown resistor which dissipated a power of 4.4 W.
Dissipated power when an ideal power supply of 11V is connected across it is:
(A) 11 × 10−5 W (B) 11 × 10−4 W (C) 11 × 105 W (D) 11 × 10−3 W
For Solution – Click Here

136 | P a g e
15. The Wheatstone bridge shown in Fig. here gets balanced when the carbon resistor
used as R1 has the colour code (Orange, Red, Brown). The resistors R 2 and R 4
are 80Ω and 40Ω respectively. Assuming that the colour code for the carbon
resistors gives their accurate values, the colour code for the carbon resistor, used
as R 3 , would be :
(A) Red, Green, Brown (B) Brown, Blue, Brown
(C) Grey, Black, Brown (D) Brown, Blue, Black
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16. Two equal resistances when connected in series to a battery, consume electric power of 60 W. If
these resistances are now connected in parallel combination to the same battery, the electric power
consumed will be.
(A) 60 W (B) 240 W (C) 120 W (D) 30 W
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17. In a Wheatstone bridge (see figure) Resistance P and Q are approximately equal.
When R = 400Ω, the bridge is balanced. On interchanging P and Q, the value of
R, for balance is 405Ω. The value of X is close to:
(A) 401.5 ohm (B) 404.5 ohm (C) 403.5 ohm (D) 402.5 ohm
For Solution – Click Here

18. A galvanometer having a resistance of 20Ω and 30 divisions on both sides has figure of merit
0.005 ampere/division. The resistance that should be connected in series such that it can be used
as a voltmeter upto 15 volt is:
(A) 100Ω (B) 120Ω (C) 80Ω (D) 125Ω
For Solution – Click Here

19. In the experimental setup of metre bridge shown in the figure, the null
point is obtained at a distance of 40 cm from A. If a 10Ω resistor is
connected in series with R1 , the null point shifts by 10 cm. The
resistance that should be connected in parallel with (R1 + 10)Ω such
that the null point shifts back to its initial position is:
(A) 20Ω (B) 40Ω (C) 60Ω (D) 30Ω
For Solution – Click Here

20. In the circuit shown, the potential difference between A and B is:
(A) 1 V (B) 2V
(C) 3V (D 6 V
For Solution – Click Here

137 | P a g e
21. In a meter bridge, the wire of length 1m has a non-uniform cross-section
dR 1
such that, the variation dR/dl of its resistance R with length ℓ is ∝ .
dℓ √ℓ
Two equal resistances are connected as shown in the figure. The
galvanometer has zero deflection when the jockey is at point P. What is the
length AP?
(A) 0.2 m (B) 0.3 m (C) 0.25 m (D) 0.35 m
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22. Two electric bulbs, rated at (25W, 220V) and (100W, 220V), are connected in series across a
220V voltage source. If the 25W and 100W bulbs draw powers P1 and P2 respectively, then:
(A) P1 = 16W, P2 = 4W (B) P1 = 16W, P2 = 9W
(C) P1 = 9W, P2 = 16W (D) P1 = 4W, P2 = 16W
For Solution – Click Here

23. The galvanometer deflection, when key K1 is closed but K 2 is open, equals
θ0 (see figure). On closing K 2 also and adjusting R 2 to 5Ω, the deflection
in galvanometer becomes θ0 /5. The resistance of the galvanometer is,
then, given by [Neglect the internal resistance of battery]:
(A) 5Ω (B) 22Ω (C) 25Ω (D) 12Ω
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24. A galvanometer, whose resistance is 50 ohm, has 25 divisions in it. When a current of 4 × 10−4 .
A passes through it, its needle (pointer) deflects by one division. To use this galvanometer as a
voltmeter of range 2.5 V, it should be connected to a resistance of :
(A) 250 ohm (B) 200 ohm (C) 6200 ohm (D) 6250 ohm
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25. For the circuit shown, with R1 = 1.0Ω, R 2 = 2.0Ω, E1 = 2V and E2 = E3 = 4V, the potential
difference between the points 'a' and 'b' is approximately (in V):
(A) 3.3 (B) 2.7
(C) 3.7
(D) 2.3
For Solution – Click Here

26. A 200Ω resistor has a certain color code. If one replaces the red color by green in the code, the
new resistance will be:
(A) 300Ω (B) 100Ω (C) 400Ω (D) 500Ω
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138 | P a g e
27. A cell of internal resistance r drives current through an external resistance R. The power delivered
by the cell to the external resistance will be maximum when:
(A) R = 1000r (B) R = r (C) R = 2r (D) R = 0.001r
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28. In the circuit shown, a four-wire potentiometer is made of a 400 cm long

wire, which extends between A and B. The resistance per unit length of
the potentiometer wire is r = 0.01Ω/cm If an ideal voltmeter is
connected as shown with jockey J at 50 cm from end A, the expected
reading of the voltmeter will be:
(A) 0.50 V (B) 0.75 V (C) 0.20 V (D) 0.25 V
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29. In the figure shown, what is the current (in Ampere) drawn from the
battery? You are given:
R1 = 15Ω, R 2 = 10Ω, R 3 = 20Ω, R 4 = 5Ω, R 5 = 25Ω, R 6 =
30Ω, E = 15V
(A) 7/18 (B) 20/3
(C) 9/32 (D) 13/24
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30. A moving coil galvanometer has resistance 50Ω and it indicates full deflection at 4mA current. A
voltmeter is made using this galvanometer and a 5kΩ resistance. The maximum voltage, that can
be measured using this voltmeter, will be close to:
(A) 10 V (B) 15 V (C) 40 V (D) 20V
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31. A galvanometer has a resistance of 50Ω and it allows maximum current of 5 mA. It can be
converted into voltmeter to measure upto 100 V by connecting in series a resistor of resistance :
(A) 5975Ω (B) 20050Ω (C) 19950Ω (D) 19500Ω
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32. A current of 200μA deflects the coil of a moving coil galvanometer through 60∘ . The current to
π
cause deflection through radian is:
10
(A) 30μA (B) 120μA (C) 180μA (D) 60μA
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33. The deflection in moving coil galvanometer falls from 25 divisions to 5 division when a shunt of
24Ω is applied. The resistance of galvanometer coil will be:
(A) 96Ω (B) 12Ω (C) 100Ω (D) 48Ω
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139 | P a g e
34. A galvanometer having coil resistance 10Ω shows a full scale deflection for a current of 3 mA.
For it to measure a current of 8 A, the value of the shunt should be:
(A) 4.85 × 10−3 Ω (B) 3.75 × 10−3 Ω (C) 2.75 × 10−3 Ω (D) 3 × 10−3 Ω
For Solution – Click Here

35. The resistance per centimetre of a meter bridge wire is r, with XΩ resistance in left gap. Balancing
length from left end is at 40 cm with 25Ω resistance in right gap. Now the wire is replaced by
another wire of 2r resistance per centimetre. The new balancing length for same settings will be
at
(A) 20 cm (B) 80 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 40 cm
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36. In a metre-bridge when a resistance in the left gap is 2Ω and unknown resistance in the right gap,
the balance length is found to be 40 cm. On shunting the unknown resistance with 2Ω, the balance
length changes by :
(A) 62.5 cm (B) 22.5 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 65 cm
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37. To measure the temperature coefficient of resistivity α of a

semiconductor, an electrical arrangement shown in the figure is prepared.
The arm BC is made up of the semiconductor. The experiment is being
conducted at 25∘ C and resistance of the semiconductor arm is 3 mΩ. Arm
BC is cooled at a constant rate of 2∘ C/s. If the galvanometer G shows no
deflection after 10 s, then α is :
(A) −1.5 × 10−2 ∘ C−1 (B) −1 × 10−2 ∘ C−1
(C) −2 × 10−2 ∘ C−1 (D) −2.5 × 10−2 ∘ C−1
For Solution – Click Here

38. A wire of length 10 cm and radius √7 × 10−4 m is connected across the right gap of a meter
bridge. When a resistance of 4.5Ω is connected on the left gap by using a resistance box, the
balance length is found to be at 60 cm from the left end. If the resistivity of the wire is R × 10−7
Ωm, then value of R is:
(A) 70 (B) 63 (C) 35 (D) 66
For Solution – Click Here

39. A moving coil galvanometer has 100 turns and each turn has an area of 2.0 cm2 . The magnetic
field produced by the magnet is 0.01 T and the deflection in the coil is 0.05 radian when a current
of 10 mA is passed through it. The torsional constant of the suspension wire is x × 10−5 N −
m/rad. The value of x is ______.
For Solution – Click Here
140 | P a g e
40. Two resistance of 100Ω and 200Ω are connected in series with a battery of 4 V and negligible
internal resistance. A voltmeter is used to measure voltage across 100Ω resistance, which gives
reading as 1 V. The resistance of voltmeter must be ______Ω.
For Solution – Click Here

41. The electric current through a wire varies with time as I = I0 + βt, where I0 = 20 A and β =
3 A/s. The amount of electric charge crossed through a section of the wire in 20 s is :
(A) 1000C (B) 800C (C) 80C (D) 1600C
For Solution – Click Here

42. An electric toaster has resistance of 60Ω at room temperature (27∘ C). The toaster is connected to
a 220 V supply. If the current flowing through it reaches 2.75 A, the temperature attained by
toaster is around :
(if α = 2 × 10−4 / ∘ C)
(A) 1694 ∘ C (B) 1667∘ C (C) 694 ∘ C (D) 1235∘ C
For Solution – Click Here

43. Two conductors have the same resistances at 0∘ C but their temperature coefficients of resistance
are α1 and α2 . The respective temperature coefficients for their series and parallel combinations
are :
α1 +α2 α1 +α2
(A) , α1 + α2 (B) α1 + α2 ,
2 2
α1 +α2 α1 +α2 α1 α2
(C) , (D) α1 + α2 ,
2 2 α1 +α2
For Solution – Click Here

44. When a potential difference V is applied across a wire of resistance R, it dissipates energy at a
rate W. If the wire is cut into two halves and these halves are connected mutually parallel across
the same supply, the energy dissipation rate will become:
(A) 2 W (B) ½ W (C) 1/4W (D) 4W
For Solution – Click Here

45. A wire of resistance R and length L is cut into 5 equal parts. If these parts are joined parallelly,
then resultant resistance will be:
1 1
(A) 25R (B) 5R (C) R (D) R
25 5
For Solution – Click Here

141 | P a g e
46. In the given circuit, the current flowing through the resistance 20Ω is 0.3 A,
while the ammeter reads 0.9 A. The value of R1 is _________ Ω
For Solution – Click Here

47. Two cells are connected in opposition as shown. Cell E1 is of 8 Vemf and 2Ω internal resistance;
the cell E2 is of 2 V emf and 4Ω internal resistance. The terminal potential difference of cell E2 is
______ V

For Solution – Click Here

48. Equivalent resistance of the following network is ______ Ω.

For Solution – Click Here

2
49. In the following circuit, the battery has an emf of 2 V and an internal resistance of Ω. The power
3
consumption in the entire circuit is ________ W

For Solution – Click Here

50. The reading in the ideal voltmeter (V) shown in the given circuit diagram is :
(A) 5 V
(B) 10 V
(C) 3 V
(D) 0 V
For Solution – Click Here

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51. A battery of 6 V is connected to the circuit as shown below. The current I
drawn from the battery is:
(A) 1 A (B) 2 A
6 4
(C) A (D) A
11 3
For Solution – Click Here

52. Two sources of equal emfs are connected in series. This combination is connected to an external
resistance R. The internal resistances of the two sources are r1 and r2 (r1 > r2 ). If the potential
difference across the source of internal resistance r1 is zero then the value of R will be
r1 r2 r1 +r2
(A) r1 − r2 (B) (C) (D) r2 − r1
r1 +r2 2
For Solution – Click Here

53. A wire of resistance R1 is drawn out so that its length is increased by twice of its original length.
The ratio of new resistance to original resistance is:
(A) 9: 1 (B) 1: 9 (C) 4: 1 (D) 3: 1
For Solution – Click Here

54. A current of 15 mA flows in the circuit as shown in figure. The value of

potential difference between the points A and B will be
(A) 50 V (B) 75 V
(C) 150 V (D) 275 V
For Solution – Click Here

55. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : A uniform wire of resistance 80Ω is cut into four equal parts. These parts are now
connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the combination will be 5Ω.
Statement II : Two resistance 2R and 3R are connected in parallel in a electric circuit. The value
of thermal energy developed in 3R and 2R will be in the ratio 3: 2.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below
(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
For Solution – Click Here

143 | P a g e
56. A. The drift velocity of electrons decreases with the increase in the temperature of conductor.
B. The drift velocity is inversely proportional to the area of cross-section of given conductor.
C. The drift velocity does not depend on the applied potential difference to the conductor.
D. The drift velocity of electron is inversely proportional to the length of the conductor.
E. The drift velocity increases with the increase in the temperature of conductor.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A and B only (B) A and D only (C) B and E only (D) B and C only
For Solution – Click Here

57. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Alloys such as constantan and manganin are used in making standard resistance coils.
Reason R: Constantan and manganin have very small value of temperature coefficient of
resistance.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
For Solution – Click Here

58. An electrical bulb rated 220 V, 100 W , is connected in series with another bulb rated
220 V, 60 W. If the voltage across combination is 220 V, the power consumed by the 100 W bulb
will be about _____ W.
For Solution – Click Here

59. Resistance are connected in a meter bridge circuit as shown in the

figure. The balancing length l1 is 40 cm. Now an unknown resistance
x is connected in series with P and new balancing length is found to
be 80 cm measured from the same end. Then the value of x will be
_____ Ω.
For Solution – Click Here

60. A 1 m long copper wire carries a current of 1 A. If the cross section of the wire is 2.0 mm2 and
the resistivity of copper is 1.7 × 10−8 Ωm. the force experienced by moving electron in the wire
is _____ × 10−23 N. (charge on electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C)
For Solution – Click Here

144 | P a g e
 ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans.
1 B 2 C 3 A 4 A 5 A 6 B 7 B
8 A 9 C 10 D 11 D 12 D 13 B 14 A
15 B 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 C 20 B 21 C
22 A 23 B 24 B 25 A 26 D 27 B 28
29 C 30 D 31 C 32 D 33 A 34 D 35 D
36 B 37 B 38 D 39 4 40 200 41 A 42 A
43 C 44 D 45 C 46 30 47 6 48 1 49 3
50 D 51 A 52 A 53 A 54 D 55 C 56 B
57 A 58 14 59 20 60 136

145 | P a g e
 Capacitor
1. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 90 pF is connected to a battery of emf
5
20 V. If a dielectric material of dielectric constant K = is inserted between the
3
plates, the magnitude of the induced charge will be :
(A) 0.3 n C (B) 0.9 n C (C) 1.2 n C (D) 2.4 n C
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2018]

2. The equivalent capacitance between A and B in the circuit given below, is

(A) 5.4 μF
(B) 4.9 μF
(C) 3.6 μF
(D) 2.4 μF
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main Online 2018]

3. A parallel palate capacitor with area 200 cm2 and separation between the plates
1.5 cm, is connected across a battery of emf V. If the force of attraction between
C2
the plates is 25 × 10−6 N, the value of V is approximately (ε0 = 8.85 × 10−12 )
Nm2
(A) 150 V (B) 100 V (C) 250 V (D) 300 V
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main Online 2018]

4. A capacitor C1 = 1.0 μF is charged up to a voltage V = 60 V by connecting it to

battery B through switch (1). Now C1 is disconnected it to battery B through
switch connected to a circuit consisting of two uncharged capacitors C2 = 3.0 μF
and C3 = 6.0 μF through switch (2), as shown in the figure. The sum of final
charges on C2 and C3 is
(A) 20 μC
(B) 40 μC
(C) 36 μC
(D) 54 μC
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main Online 2018]

5. A parallel plate capacitor with square plates is filled with four dielectrics of
dielectric constants K1 , K 2 , K 3 , K 4 arranged as shown in the figure. The effective
dielectric constant K will be:
(K1 + K2 )(K3 + K4 )
(A) K =
2( K1 + K2 + K3 + K4 )
(K1 + K2 )(K3 + K4 )
(B) K = (K
1 + K2 + K3 + K4 )
(K1 + K4 )(K2 + K3 )
(C) K =
2( K1 + K2 + K3 + K4 )
(D) None of these
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2019]
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6. A parallel plate capacitor having capacitance 12 pF is charged by a battery to a
potential difference of 10 V between its plates. The charging battery is now
disconnected and a porcelain slab of dielectric constant 6.5 is slipped between
the plates the work done by the capacitor on the slab is :
(A) 692 pJ (B) 60 pJ (C) 508 pJ (D) 560 pJ
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2019]

7. In the figure shown below, the charge on the left plate of the μF capacitor is
−30μC. The charge on the right place of the 6μF capacitor is:
(A) −12 μC (B) +12 μC
(C) −18 μC (D) +18 μC
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2019]

8. Seven capacitors, each of the capacitance 2μF , are to be connected in a

6
configuration to obtain an effective capacitance of ( ) μF . Which of the
13
combinations, shown in figures below, will achieve the desired value?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2019]

9. In the figure shown, after the switch 'S' is turned from position 'A' to position
'B', the energy dissipated in the circuit in terms of capacitance 'C' and total
charge 'Q' is:
1 Q2 3 Q2
(A) (B)
8 C 8 C
5 Q2 3 Q2
(C) (D)
8 C 4 C
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2019]

10. In the circuit shown, find C if the effective capacitance of the whole circuit is to
be 0.5 μF. All values in the circuit are in μF.
7 6
(A) μF (B) μF
11 5
7
(C) 4μF (D) μF
10
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2019]

147 | P a g e
11. Voltage rating of a parallel plate capacitor is 500 V. Its dielectric can withstand
a maximum electric field of 106 V/m. The plate area is 10−4 m2 . What is the
dielectric constant if the capacitance is 15 pF (given ϵ0 = 8.86 × 10−12 C2 /Nm2 )
(A) 6.2 (B) 4.5 (C) 3.8 (D) 8.5
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2019]

12. A parallel plate capacitor has 1μF capacitance. One of its two plates is given
+2μC charge and the other plate, + 4μC. The potential difference developed
across the capacitor is:
(A) 1V (B) 5V (C) 3V (D) 2V
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2019]

13. A capacitor with capacitance 5μF is charged to 5μF. If the plates are pulled apart
to reduce the capacitance to 2μF, how much work is done?
(A) 3.75 × 10−6 J (B) 2.55 × 10−6 J (C) 6.25 × 10−6 J (D) 3.16 × 10−6 J
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2019]

14. Determine the charge on the capacitor in the following circuit

(A) 10 μC
(B) 200 μC
(C) 60 μC
(D) 2 μC
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2019]

15. The parallel combination of two air filled parallel plate capacitors of capacitance
C and nC is connected to a battery of voltage, V. When the capacitors are fully
charged, the battery is removed and after that a dielectric material of dielectric
constant K is placed between the two plates of the first capacitor. The new
potential difference of the combined system is:

V (n + 1)V nV
(A) (B) (C) V (D)
K+n (K + n) K+n
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2019]

16. Figure shows charge (q) versus voltage (v) graph for series and parallel
combination of two given capacitors. The capacitances are :
(A) 50μF and 30μF (B) 60μF and 40μF
(C) 40μF and 10μF (D) 20μF and 30μF
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2019]

148 | P a g e
17. A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area A separated by distance 'd' between
them. It is filled with a dielectric which has a dielectric constant that varies as
k(x) = K(1 + αx) where 'x' is the distance measured from one of the plates. If
(αd) << 1, the total capacitance of the system is best given by the expression:
A∈0 K α2 d2
(A) (1 + )
d 2
AK∈0 αd
(B) (1 + )
d 2
A∈∈0 K αd 2
(C) (1 + ( ) )
d 2
AK∈0
(D) (1 + αd)
d
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2020]

18. A 60 pF capacitor is fully charged by a 20V supply. It is then disconnected from

the supply and is connected to another uncharged 60 pF capacitor in parallel.
The electrostatic energy that is lost in this process by the time the charge is
redistributed between them is
(in nJ)_______. [JEE Main 2020]
For Solution – Click Here

19. Effective capacitance of parallel combination of two capacitors C1 and C2 is 10μF.

When these capacitors are individually connected to a voltage source of 1V, the
energy stored in the capacitor C2 is 4 times that of C1 . If these capacitors are
connected in series, their effective capacitance will be:
(A) 4.2μF (B) 8.4μF (C) 3.2μF (D) 1.6μF
For Solution – Click Here [JEE Main 2020]

20. A capacitor is made of two square plates each of side 'a' making a very small
angle a between them, as shown in figure. The capacitance will be close to:
[JEE Main 2020]
ε0 a2 αa
(A) (1 − )
d 2d
ε0 a2 αa
(B) (1 + )
d 2d
ε0 a2 αa
(C) (1 − )
d 4d
ε0 a2 3αa
(D) (1 − )
d 2d
For Solution – Click Here
149 | P a g e
21. A galvanometer (G) of 2Ω resistance is connected in the given circuit. The ratio
of charge stored in C1 and C2 is :
3
(A)
2
2
(B)
3
1
(C)
2
(D) 1
For Solution – Click Here

22. Two identical capacitors have same capacitance C. One of them is charged to
the potential V and other to the potential 2 V. The negative ends of both are
connected together. When the positive ends are also joined together, the
decrease in energy of the combined system is :
1 3 1
(A) CV 2 (B) CV 2 (C) 2CV 2 (D) CV 2
2 4 4
For Solution – Click Here

23. A condenser of 2μF capacitance is charged steadily from 0 to 5C. Which of the
following graph represents correctly the variation of potential difference (V)
across it's plates with respect to the charge (Q) on the condenser ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

24. A Capacitance of an isolated conducting sphere of radius R1 becomes n times

when it is enclosed by a concentric conducting sphere of radius R 2 connected to
earth. The ratio of their radii (R 2 /R1 ) is:
n 2n n+1 2n+1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
n−1 2n+1 n n
For Solution – Click Here

25. The total charge on the system of capacitance and C1 = 1μF, C2 = 2μF, C3 = 4μF
and C4 = 3μF connected in parallel is (Assume a battery of 20 V is connected to
the combination)
(A) 200μC (B) 200C (C) 10μC (D) 10C
For Solution – Click Here
150 | P a g e
26. A source of potential difference V is connected to the combination of two
identical capacitors as shown in the figure. When key ' K ' is closed, the total
energy stored across the combination is 𝐸1 . Now key ' K ' is opened and dielectric
of dielectric constant 5 is introduced between the plates of the capacitors. The
total energy stored across the combination is now E2 . The ratio E1 /E2 will be :
1
(A)
10
2
(B)
5
5
(C)
13
5
(D)
26
For Solution – Click Here

27. Two capacitors, each having capacitance 40μF are connected in series. The
space between one of the capacitors is filled with dielectric material of dielectric
constant K such that the equivalence capacitance of the system became 24μF.
The value of K will be:
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.2 (D) 3
For Solution – Click Here

28. A slab of dielectric constant K has the same cross-sectional area as the plates
of a parallel plate capacitor and thickness 3 d/4, where 𝑑 is the separation of
the plates. The capacitance of the capacitor when the slab is inserted between
the plates will be :
(Given C0 = capacitance of capacitor with air as medium between plates.)
4KC0 3KC0 3+K K
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3+K 3+K 4KC0 4+K
For Solution – Click Here

29. Two metallic plates form a parallel plate capacitor. The distance between the
plates is ' d '. A metal sheet of thickness d/2 and of area equal to area of each
plate is introduced between the plates. What will be the ratio of the new
capacitance to the original capacitance of the capacitor?
(A) 2: 1 (B) 1: 2 (C) 1: 4 (D) 4: 1
For Solution – Click Here

30. Two capacitors having capacitance C1 and C2 respectively are connected as

shown in figure. Initially, capacitor C1 is charged to a potential difference V volt
by a battery. The battery is then removed and the charged capacitor C1 is now
connected to uncharged capacitor C2 by closing the switch S. The amount of
charge on the capacitor C2 , after equilibrium, is

151 | P a g e
 C1 C2
(A) (C1 +C2 )
V
(C1 +C2 )
(B) V
C1 C2
(C) (C1 + C2 )V
(D) (C1 − C2 )V
For Solution – Click Here

31. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and plate separation d = 2 m has a
capacitance of 4μF. The new capacitance of the system if half of the space
between them is filled with a dielectric material of dielectric constant K = 3 (as
shown in figure) will be:
(A) 2μF
(B) 32μF
(C) 6μF
(D) 8μF
For Solution – Click Here

32. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacity C and 3C are connected in parallel
combination and charged to a potential difference 18 V. The battery is then
disconnected and the space between the plates of the capacitor of capacity C is
completely filled with a material of dielectric constant 9. The final potential
difference across the combination of capacitors will be _____ V.
For Solution – Click Here

33. A composite parallel plate capacitor is made up of two different dielectric

materials with different thickness (t1 and t 2 ) as shown in figure. The two
different dielectric material are separated by a conducting foil F. The voltage of
the conducting foil is _____ V.

For Solution – Click Here

34. A parallel plate capacitor with width 4 cm, length 8 cm and separation between
the plates of 4 mm is connected to a battery of 20 V. A dielectric slab of dielectric
constant 5 having length 1 cm , width 4 cm and thickness 4 mm is inserted
between the plates of parallel plate capacitor. The electrostatic energy of this
system will be _____ ϵ0 J. (Where ϵ0 is the permittivity of free space)
For Solution – Click Here

152 | P a g e
35. In an electrical circuit drawn below the amount of charge stored in the capacitor
is ______ μC

For Solution – Click Here

36. The charge accumulated on the capacitor connected in the following circuit is
________ μC. (Given C = 150μF)

For Solution – Click Here

37. A parallel plate capacitor with plate separation 5 mm is charged up by a battery.

It is found that on introducing a dielectric sheet of thickness 2 mm , while
keeping the battery connections intact, the capacitor draws 25% more charge
from the battery than before. The dielectric constant of the sheet is ______.
For Solution – Click Here

38. A capacitor of capacitance C and potential V has energy E. It is connected to

another capacitor of capacitance 2C and potential 2 V. Then the loss of energy is
x
E, where x is ______.
3
For Solution – Click Here

39. A 16Ω wire is bend to form a square loop. A 9V battery with internal resistance
1Ω is connected across one of its sides. If a 4μF capacitor is connected across
x
one of its diagonals, the energy stored by the capacitor will be μJ, where x =
2
_______.
For Solution – Click Here

153 | P a g e
40. In the given figure, the charge stored in 6μF capacitor, when points A and B are
joined by a connecting wire is ______ μC

For Solution – Click Here

41. A parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance 40mF is connected to a 100V power supply. Now the
intermediate space between the plates is filled with a dielectric material of dielectric constant K
= 2. Due to the introduction of dielectric material, the extra charge and the change in the
electrostatic energy in the capacitor, respectively, are -
(A) 2 mC and 0.2 J (B) 8 mC and 2.0 J (C) 4 mC and 0.2 J (D) 2 mC and 0.4 J
For Solution – Click Here

42. The net current flowing in the given circuit is _______ A.

For Solution – Click Here

43. Identify the valid statements relevant to the given circuit

at the instant when the key is closed.
A. There will be no current through resistor R.
B. There will be maximum current in the connecting wires.
C. Potential difference between the capacitor plates A and B is minimum.
D. Charge on the capacitor plates is minimum.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) C, D only (2) B, C, D only (3) A, C only (4) A, B, D only

For Solution – Click Here

154 | P a g e
44. At steady state the charge on the capacitor, as shown in the circuit below, is ______ mC.

For Solution – Click Here

45. A parallel plate capacitor was made with two rectangular plates, each with a length of l =3cm
and breath of b = 1cm. The distance between the plates is 3μm. Out of the following, which are
the ways to increase the capacitance by a factor of 10 ?
A. l = 30cm, b = 1cm, d = 1μmB. l = 3cm, b = 1cm, d = 30μm
C. l = 6cm, b = 5cm, d = 3μmD. l = 1cm, b = 1cm, d = 10μm
E. l = 5cm, b = 2cm, d = 1μm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) C and E only (2) B and D only (3) A only (4) C only
For Solution – Click Here

46. Consider a parallel plate capacitor of area A (of each plate) and separation 'd' between the
plates. If E is the electric field and ε0 is the permittivity of free space between the plates, then
potential energy stored in the capacitor is :-
1 3 1
(1) ε0 E2 Ad (2) ε0 E2 Ad (3) ε0 E2 Ad (4) ε0 E2 Ad
2 4 4
For Solution – Click Here

47. Two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in parallel to a battery. Charge−time graph is shown
below for the two capacitors. The energy stored with them are U1 and U2 , respectively. Which
of the given statements is true?
(1) C1 > C2 , U1 > U2 (2) C2 > C1 , U2 < U1
(3) C1 > C2 , U1 < U2 (4) C2 > C1 , U2 > U1
For Solution – Click Here

48. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 1μF is charged to a potential difference of 20 V . The
distance between plates is 1μm. The energy density between plates of capacitor is :
(1) 1.8 × 103 J/m3 (2) 2 × 10−4 J/m3 (3) 2 × 102 J/m3 (4) 1.8 × 105 J/m3
For Solution – Click Here

155 | P a g e
49. In the experiment for measurement of viscosity ‘h’ of given liquid with a ball having radius R,
consider following statements.
A. Graph between terminal velocity V and R will be a parabola
B. The terminal velocities of different diameter balls are constant for a given liquid.
C. Measurement of terminal velocity is dependent on the temperature.
D. This experiment can be utilized to assess the density of a given liquid.
E. If balls are dropped with some initial speed, the value of h will change.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, D and E only (2) A, C and D only (3) C, D and E only (4) A, B and E only
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 C 2 D 3 C 4 B 5 D 6 C 7 D
8 B 9 B 10 A 11 D 12 A 13 A 14 B
15 B 16 C 17 B 18 6 19 D 20 A 21 C
22 D 23 A 24 A 25 A 26 C 27 A 28 A
29 A 30 A 31 C 32 6 33 60 34 240 35 60
36 400 37 2 38 2 39 81 40 36 41 C 42 1
43 B 44 16 45 A 46 A 47 D 48 A 49 B

156 | P a g e
 Magnetic Effects of Current
1. An electron, a proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular
orbits of radii re , rp , rα respectively in a uniform magnetic field B. The relation between re , rp , rα
is
(A) re > rp = rα (B) re < rp = rα (C) re < rp < rα (D) re < rα < rp
For Solution – Click Here

2. The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a current I, is m and the magnetic field at the centre
of the loop is B1 . When the dipole moment is doubled by keeping the current constant, the
B1
magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B2 . The ratio is
B2
1
(A) 2 (B) √3 (C) √2 (D)
√2
For Solution – Click Here

3. A current 1 A flowing on the sides of an equilateral triangle of side 4.5 × 10−2 m. The magnetic
field at the centre of the triangle will be
(A)4 × 10−5 Wb/m2 (B) 8 × 10−5 Wb/m2
(C) 2 × 10−5 Wb/m2 (D) Zero
For Solution – Click Here

4. A Helmholtz coil has a pair of loops, each with N turns and radius
R. They are placed coaxially at distance R and the same current I
flows through the loops in the same direction. The magnitude of
magnetic field at P, midway between the centres A and C, is given
by [Refer to given figure]
4Nμ0 I 4N0 I 8Nμ0 I 8Nμ0 I
(A) (B) (C) (D)
51/2 R 53/2 R 53/2 R 51/2 R
For Solution – Click Here

5. One of the two identical conducting wires of length L is bent in the form of a circular loop and
the other one into a circular coil of N identical turns. If the same current is passed in both, the
ratio of the magnetic field at the central of the loop (BL ) to that at the centre of the coil (BC ), i.e.
RBL /BC will be:
(A) 1/N (B) N 2 (C) 1/N 2 (D) N
For Solution – Click Here

6. A particle having the same charge as of electron moves in a circular path of radius 0.5 cm under
the influence of a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If an electric field of 100V/m makes it to move in a
straight path, then the mass of the particle is (Given charge of electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C )
(A) 2.0 × 10−24 kg (B) 1.6 × 10−19 kg (C) 1.6 × 10−27 kg (D) 9.1 × 10−31 kg
For Solution – Click Here
157 | P a g e
7. A magnet of total magnetic moment 10−2 îAm2 is placed in a time varying magnetic field, Bî
(cost⁡ ωt) where B = 1 Tesla and ω = 0.125rad/s. The work done for reversing the direction of
the magnetic moment at t = 1 second, is :
(A) 0.007 J (B) 0.02 J (C) 0.01 J (D) 0.028 J
For Solution – Click Here

8. An insulating thin rod of length l has a x linear charge density (x) = p0 x/l on it. The rod is rotated
about an axis passing through the origin (x = 0) and perpendicular to the rod. If the rod makes n
rotations per second, then the time averaged magnetic moment of the rod is:
π π
(A) nρℓ3 (B) nρl3 (C) πnρℓ3 (D) nρℓ3
4 3
For Solution – Click Here

9. At some location on earth the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is 18 × 10−6 T. At
this location, magnetic needle of length 0.12m and pole strength 1.8Am is suspended from its
midpoint using a thread, it makes 45∘ angles with horizontal in equilibrium. To keep this needle
horizontal, the vertical force that should be applied at one of its ends is :
(A) 3.6 × 10−5 N (B) 6.5 × 10−5 N (C) 1.3 × 10−5 N (D) 1.8 × 10−5 N
For Solution – Click Here

10. A hoop and a solid cylinder of same mass and radius are made of a permanent magnetic material
with their magnetic moment parallel to their respective axes. But the magnetic moment of hoop
is twice of solid cylinder. They are placed in a uniform magnetic field in such a manner that their
magnetic moments make a small angle with the field. If the oscillation periods of hoop and
cylinder are Th and Tc respectively, then:
(A) Th = 0.5Tc (B) Th = 2Tc (C) Th = 1.5Tc (D) Th = Tc
For Solution – Click Here

11. In an experiment, electrons are accelerated, from rest, by applying; a voltage of 500 V. Calculate
the radius of the path if a magnetic field 100 mT is then applied.[Charge of the electron =
1.6 × 10−19 C Mass of the electron = 9.1 × 10−31 kg ]
(A) 7.5 × 10−3 m (B) 7.5 × 10−2 m (C) 7.5 m (D) 7.5 × 10−4 m
For Solution – Click Here

12. A paramagnetic substance in the form of a cube with sides 11 cm has a magnetic dipole moment
of 20 × 10−6 J/T when a magnetic intensity of 60 × 103 A/m is applied. Its magnetic
susceptibility is:
(A) 3.3 × 10−2 (B) 40.3 × 10−2 (C) 2.3 × 10−2 (D) 3.3 × 10−4
For Solution – Click Here

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13. The region between y = 0 and y = d contains a magnetic field B ⃗ = Bẑ. A particle of mass m and
charge q enters the region with a velocity v ⃗ = vî If d = mv/2qb, the acceleration of the charged
particle at the point of its emergence at the other side is:
qvB 1 √3 qvB √3 1 qvB −ĵ+î qvB ĵ+î
(A) ( î − ĵ) (B) (− î + ĵ)(C) ( ) (D) ( )
m 2 2 m 2 2 m √2 m √2
For Solution – Click Here

14. A proton and an α-particle (with their masses in the ratio of 1 : 4 and charges in the ratio of 1 : 2
are accelerated from rest through a potential difference V. If a uniform magnetic field (B) is set
up perpendicular to their velocities, the ratio of the radii rp : rα of the circular paths described by
them will be:
(A) 1 : √2 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : √3
For Solution – Click Here

15. A 10m long horizontal wire extends from North East to South West. It is falling with a speed of
5.0 ms −1 , at right angles to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field, of 0.3 × 10−4
Wb/m2 . The value of the induced emf in wire is:
(A) 1.5 × 10−3 V (B) 1.1 × 10−3 V (C) 2.5 × 10−3 V (D) 0.3 × 10−3 V
For Solution – Click Here

16. A paramagnetic material has 1028 atoms /m3 . Its magnetic susceptibility at temperature 350 K is
2.8 × 10−4 . Its susceptibility at 300 K is:
(A) 3.267 × 10−4 (B) 3.672 × 10−4 (C) 3.726 × 10−4 (B) 2.672 × 10−4
For Solution – Click Here

17. A circular coil having N turns and radius r carries a current I. It is held in the XZ plane in a
magnetic field Bi. The torque on the coil due to the magnetic field is:
Brr2 I Br2 I
(A) (B) (C) zero (D) Brrr 2 IN
N πN
For Solution – Click Here

18. Two magnetic dipoles X and Y are placed at a separation d, with their
axes perpendicular to each other. The dipole moment of Y is twice
that of X. A particle of charge q is passing through their mid-point P,
at angle θ = 45∘ with the horizontal line, as shown in figure. What
would be the magnitude of force on the particle at that instant ?
(d is much larger than the dimensions of the dipole)
μ 2M μ 2M μ M
(A) 0 (B) ( 0 ) d 3
× qv (C) √2 ( 0 ) d 3
× qv (D) ( 0 ) 3 × qu
4π ( ) 4π ( ) 4π (d)
2 2 2
For Solution – Click Here

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19. Two very long, straight, and insulated wires are kept at 90∘ angle from
each other in xy-plane as shown in the figure.
These wires carry currents of equal magnitude I, whose directions are
shown in the figure. The net magnetic field at point P will be:
μ0 I
(A) (x̂ + ŷ) (B) zero
2πd
μ0 I +μ0 I
(C) − (x̂ + ŷ) (D) (ẑ)
2πd πd
For Solution – Click Here

20. A rectangular coil (Dimension 5cm × 2.5cm) with 100 turns, carrying a current of 3A in the
clock-wise direction, is kept centered at the origin and in the X-Z plane. A magnetic field of 1T
is applied along X-axis. If the coil is tilted through 45∘ about Z-axis, then the torque on the coil
is
(A) 0.38 Nm (B) 0.42 Nm (C) 0.55 Nm (D) 0.27 Nm
For Solution – Click Here

21. Two charged particles, having same kinetic energy, are allowed to pass through a uniform
magnetic field perpendicular to the direction of motion. If the ratio of radii of their circular paths
is 6: 5 and their respective masses ratio is 9: 4. Then, the ratio of their charges will be
(A) 8: 5 (B) 5: 4 (C) 5: 3 (D) 8: 7
For Solution – Click Here

22. The magnetic moment of an electron (e) revolving in an orbit around nucleus with an orbital
angular momentum is given by :
⃗
eL ⃗
eL ⃗
eL ⃗
2eL
(A) u
⃗L= (B) u
⃗L=− (C) u
⃗L=− (D) u
⃗L=
2m 2m m m
For Solution – Click Here

23. The electric current in a circular coil of 2 turns produces a magnetic induction B1 at its centre.
The coil is unwound and is rewound into a circular coil of 5 turns and the same current produces
a magnetic induction B2 at its centre. The ratio of B2 /B1 is :
(A) 5/2 (B) 25/4 (C) 5/4 (D) 25/2
For Solution – Click Here

24. An electron with energy 0.1keV moves at right angle to the earth's magnetic field of
1 × 10−4 Wbm−2 . The frequency of revolution of the electron will be (Take mass of electron =
9.0 × 10−31 kg )
(A) 1.6 × 105 Hz (B) 5.6 × 105 Hz (C) 2.8 × 106 Hz (D) 1.8 × 106 Hz
For Solution – Click Here
160 | P a g e
25. A charge particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field (2î + 3ĵ)T. If it has an acceleration of
(αî − 4ĵ)m/s2 , then the value of α will be
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 2
For Solution – Click Here

26. BX and BY are the magnetic field at the centre of two coils of two coils X and Y respectively, each
carrying equal current. If coil X has 200 turns and 20 cm radius and coil Y has 400 turns and 20
cm radius, the ratio of BX and BY is
(A) 1: 1 (B) 1: 2 (C) 2: 1 (D) 4: 1
For Solution – Click Here

27. Two concentric circular loops of radii r1 = 30 cm and r2 = 50 cm are placed in X − Y plane as
shown in the figure. A current I = 7 A is flowing through them in the direction as shown in figure.
The net magnetic moment of this system of two circular loops is approximately :
7 7 ˆ 2
(A) k̂Am2 (B) − k̂Am2 (C) 7kAm (D) −7k̂Am2
2 2
For Solution – Click Here

⃗ = Ek̂ and magnetic field B

28. A velocity selector consists of electric field E ⃗ = Bĵ with B = 12mT.
The value E required for an electron of energy 728eV moving along the positive x-axis to pass
undeflected is:
(Given, mass of electron = 9.1 × 10−31 kg )
(A) 192kVm−1 (B) 192 mVm−1 (C) 9600kVm−1 (D) 16kVm−1
For Solution – Click Here

29. Two bar magnets oscillate in a horizontal plane in earth's magnetic field with time periods of 3 s
and 4 s respectively. If their moments of inertia are in the ratio of 3: 2 then the ratio of their
magnetic moments will be:
(A) 2: 1 (B) 8: 3 (C) 1: 3 (D) 27: 16
For Solution – Click Here

30. A magnet hung at 45∘ with magnetic meridian makes an angle of 60∘ with the horizontal. The
actual value of the angle of dip is
3 2 1
(A) tan−1 (√ ) (B) tan−1 (√6) (C) tan−1 (√ ) (D) tan−1 (√ )
2 3 2

For Solution – Click Here

31. A compass needle of oscillation magnetometer oscillates 20 times per minute at a place P of
dip30∘ . The number of oscillations per minute become 10 at another place Q of 60∘ dip. The ratio
of the total magnetic field at the two places (BQ : BP ) is:
(A) √3: 4 (B) 4: √3 (C) √3: 2 (D) 2: √3
For Solution – Click Here

161 | P a g e
32. The magnetic field at the center of current carrying circular loop is B1 . The magnetic field at a
distance of √3 times radius of the given circular loop from the center on its axis is B2 . The value
of B1 /B2 will be
(A) 9: 4 (B) 12: √5 (C) 8: 1 (D) 5: √3
For Solution – Click Here

33. A triangular shaped wire carrying 10 A current is placed

in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T, as shown in figure.
The magnetic force on segment CD is (Given BC =
CD = BD = 5 cm ).
(A) 0.126 N (B) 0.312 N (C) 0.216 N (D) 0.245 N
For Solution – Click Here

34. A cyclotron is used to accelerate protons. If the operating magnetic field is 1.0 T and the radius
of the cyclotron 'dees' is 60 cm, the kinetic energy of the accelerated protons in MeV will be: [use
mp = 1.6 × 10−27 kg, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C ]
(A) 12 (B) 18 (C) 16 (D) 32
For Solution – Click Here

35. As shown in the figure, a metallic rod of linear density 0.45 kg m−1 is
lying horizontally on a smooth incline plane which makes an angle of
45∘ with the horizontal. The minimum current flowing in the rod
required to keep it stationary, when 0.15 T magnetic field is acting on it
in the vertical upward direction, will be : {Use g = 10 m/s2 }
(A) 30 A (B) 15 A (C) 10 A (D) 3 A
For Solution – Click Here

36. The vertical component of the earth's magnetic field is 6 × 10−5 T at any place where the angle
of dip is 37∘ . The earth's resultant magnetic field at that place will be (Given tan37∘ = 3/4 )
(A) 8 × 10−5 T (B) 6 × 10−5 T (C) 5 × 10−4 T (D) 1 × 10−4 T
For Solution – Click Here

37. A wire X of length 50 cm carrying a current of 2 A is placed parallel to a

long wire Y of length 5 m. The wire Y carries a current of 3 A. The distance
between two wires is 5 cm and currents flow in the same direction. The
force acting on the wire Y is :
(A) 1.2 × 10−5 N directed towards wire X.
(B) 1.2 × 10−4 N directed away from wire X.
(C) 1.2 × 10−4 N directed towards wire X.
(D) 2.4 × 10−5 N directed towards wire X.
For Solution – Click Here
162 | P a g e
38. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r, due to current I flowing through it,
is B. The magnetic field at a point along the axis at a distance r/2 from the centre is:
B 2 3 2 3
(A) (B) B (C) ( ) B (D) ( ) B
2 √5 √3
For Solution – Click Here

39. The soft-iron is a suitable material for making an electromagnet. This is because soft-iron has
(A) Low coercivity and high retentivity (B) Low coercivity and low permeability
(C) High permeability and low retentivity (D) High permeability and high retentivity
For Solution – Click Here

40. A proton, a deuteron and an 𝛼-particle with same kinetic energy enter into a uniform magnetic
field at right angle to magnetic field. The ratio of the radii of their respective circular paths is:
(A) 1: √2: √2 (B) 1: 1: √2 (C) √2: 1: 1 (D) 1: √2: 1
For Solution – Click Here

41. A long straight wire with a circular cross-section having radius R, is carrying a steady current I.
The current I is uniformly distributed across this cross-section. Then the variation of magnetic
field due to current I with distance r(r < R) from its centre will be
1 1
(A) B ∝ r 2 (B) B ∝ r (C) B ∝ (D) B ∝
r2 r
For Solution – Click Here

42. Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Susceptibilities of paramagnetic and ferromagnetic substances increase with
decrease in temperature.
Statement-II : Diamagnetism is a result of orbital motions of electrons developing magnetic
moments opposite to the applied magnetic field.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-
(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(C) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(D) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
For Solution – Click Here

43. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is
doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of magnetic field will be equal
to
(A) B (B) 2 B (C) 4 B (D) B/2
For Solution – Click Here

163 | P a g e
44. Given below two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Non-polar materials do not have any permanent dipole moment.
Reason (R): When a non-polar material is placed in an electric field, the centre of the positive
charge distribution of it's individual atom or molecule coincides with the centre of the negative
charge distribution.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
For Solution – Click Here

45. A proton and an alpha particle of the same velocity enter in a uniform magnetic field which is
acting perpendicular to their direction of motion. The ratio of the radii of the circular paths
described by the alpha particle and proton is :
(A) 1: 4 (B) 4: 1 (C) 2: 1 (D) 1: 2
For Solution – Click Here

46. A bar magnetic having a magnetic moment of 2.0 × 105 JT −1 , is placed along the direction of
uniform magnetic field of magnitude B = 14 × 10−5 T. The work done in rotating the magnet
slowly through 60∘ from the direction of field is:
(A) 14 J (B) 8.4 J (C) 4 J (D) 1.4 J
For Solution – Click Here

47. The susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is 99 . The permeability of the material in Wb/A-m
is: [Permeability of free space μ0 = 4π × 10−7 Wb/A − m ]
(A) 4π × 10−7 (B) 4π × 10−4 (C) 4π × 10−5 (D) 4π × 10−6
For Solution – Click Here

48. A Two long parallel conductors S1 and S2 are separated by a distance

10 cm and carrying currents of 4 A and 2 A respectively. The
conductors are placed along X-axis in X − Y plane. There is a point P
located between the conductors (as shown in figure).
A charge particle of 3π coulomb is passing through the point P with
velocity v
⃗ = (2î + 3ĵ)m/s; where î&ĵ represents unit vectors along

164 | P a g e
 x&y respectively. The force acting on the charge particle is 4π × 10−5 (−xî + 2ĵ)N. The value of
x is:
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) −3
For Solution – Click Here

49. An infinitely long hollow conducting cylinder with radius Rcarries a uniform current along its
surface.
Choose the correct representation of magnetic field (B) as a function of radial distance r from the
axis of cylinder.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

50. The space inside a straight current carrying solenoid is filled with a magnetic material having
magnetic susceptibility equal to 1.2 × 10−5 . What is fractional increase in the magnetic field
inside solenoid with respect to air as medium inside the solenoid?
(A) 1.2 × 10−5 (B) 1.2 × 10−3 (C) 1.8 × 10−3 (D) 2.4 × 10−5
For Solution – Click Here

51. Two parallel, long wires are kept 0.20 m apart in vacuum, each carrying current of x A in the
same direction. If the force of attraction per meter of each wire is 2 × 10−6 N, then the value of x
is approximately:
(A) 1 (B) 2.4 (C) 1.4 (D) 2
For Solution – Click Here

52. A charged particle moves along circular path in a uniform magnetic field in a cyclotron. The
kinetic energy of the charged particle increases to 4 times its initial value. What will be the ratio
of new radius to the original radius of circular path of the charged particle:
(A) 1: 1 (B) 1: 2 (C) 2: 1 (D) 1: 4
For Solution – Click Here

53. Two long current carrying conductors are placed parallel to each other at a distance of 8 cm
between them. The magnitude of magnetic field produced at mid-point between the two
conductors due to current flowing in them is 300μT. The equal current flowing in the two
conductors is:
(A) 30 A in the same direction. (B) 30 A in the opposite direction.
(C) 60 A in the opposite direction. (D) 300 A in the opposite direction
For Solution – Click Here

165 | P a g e
54. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The electric force changes the speed of the charged particle and hence changes its
kinetic energy: whereas the magnetic force does not change the kinetic energy of the charged
particle.
Statement II: The electric force accelerates the positively charged particle perpendicular to the
direction of electric field. The magnetic force accelerates the moving charged particle along the
direction of magnetic field.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
For Solution – Click Here

55. Two circular coils P and Q of 100 turns each have same radius of πcm. The currents in P and R
are 1A and 2A respectively. P and Q are placed with their planes mutually perpendicular with
their centers coincide. The resultant magnetic field induction at the center of the coils is √xmT,
where x = ________. [Use μ0 = 4π × 10−7 Tm−1 ]
For Solution – Click Here

56. A deuteron and a proton moving with equal kinetic energy enter into to a uniform magnetic field
at right angle to the field. If rd and rp are the radii of their circular paths respectively, then the
ratio rd /rp will be √x: 1 where x is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

57. A sing1y ionized magnesium atom (A24) ion is accelerated to kinetic energy 5keV and is
projected perpendicularly into a magnetic field B of the magnitude 0.5 T. The radius of path
formed will be _____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

58. A wire of length 314 cm carrying current of 14 A is bent to form a circle. The magnetic moment
of the coil is _____ A-m 2 . [Given π = 3.14 ]
For Solution – Click Here

59. A closely wounded circular coil of radius 5 cm produces a magnetic field of 37.68 × 10−4 T at
its center. The current through the coil is ______ A.
[Given, number of turns in the coil is 100 and π = 3.14 ]
For Solution – Click Here

166 | P a g e
60. A solenoid of 1200 turns is wound uniformly in a single layer on a glass tube 2 m long and 0.2 m
in diameter. The magnetic intensity at the center of the solenoid when a current of 2 A flows
through it is:
(A) 2.4 × 103 Am−1 (B) 1.2 × 103 Am−1 (C) 1Am−1 (D) 2.4 × 10−3 Am−1
For Solution – Click Here

61. Two long parallel wires X and Y , separated by a distance of 6 cm , carry currents of 5 A and 4
A, respectively, in opposite directions as shown in the figure. Magnitude of the resultant
magnetic field at point P at a distance of 4 cm from wire Y is x × 10−5 T. The⁡value⁡of⁡x is
_______.
Take permeability of free space as μ0 = 4π × 10−7 SI units.

For Solution – Click Here

62. A proton is moving undeflected in a region of crossed electric and magnetic fields at a constant
speed of 2 × 105 ms −1 .⁡When the electric field is switched off, the proton moves along a
circular path of radius⁡2⁡cm.⁡The magnitude of electric field is⁡x × 104 N/C. the value of x is
________.
Take the mass of the proton = 1.6 × 10−27 kg.
For Solution – Click Here

1
63. A current of 5 A exists in a square loop of side m.⁡Then the magnitude of the magnetic field
√2
−6
B at the centre of the square loop will be⁡p × 10 T. where, value⁡of⁡p is ________.
[Take μ0 = 4π × 10−7 TmA−1 ].
For Solution – Click Here

64. A long straight wire of a circular cross-section with radius 'a' carries a steady current I. The
current I is a uniformly distributed across this cross-section. The plot of magnitude of magnetic
field B with distance r from the centre of the wire is given by

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

167 | P a g e
65. N equally spaced charges each of value q, are placed on a circle of radius
R. The circle rotates⁡about its axis with an angular velocity ω as shown in
the figure. A bigger Amperian loop B encloses the whole circle where as a
smaller Amperian loop A encloses a small segment. The
difference⁡between⁡enclosed⁡currents, IA − IB , for the given Amperian
loops is
N2 2π N N
(1) qω (2)⁡ qω (3)⁡ qω (4)⁡ qω
2π N 2π π
For Solution – Click Here

66. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R).
Assertion (A) : A electron in a certain region of uniform magnetic field is moving with constant
velocity in a straight line path.
Reason (A) : The magnetic field in that region is along the direction of velocity of the electron.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
For Solution – Click Here

67. Consider a long thin conducting wire carrying a uniform current I. A particle having mass "M"
and charge "q"⁡is released at a distance⁡"a"⁡from the wire with a speed⁡vo ⁡along the direction of
current in the wire. The particle gets attracted to the wire due to⁡magnetic force. The particle
turns round when it is at distance x from the wire. The value⁡of⁡x⁡is⁡[⁡μ0 is vacuum permeability]
−4πmv0
mvo a mvo
(1) a [1 − ] (2) (3) a [1 − ] (4) ae qμo I
2qμo I 2 qμ0 I
For Solution – Click Here

68. A bar magnet has total length 2l = 20 units and the field point P is at a distance d = 10 units
from the centre of the magnet. If the relative uncertainty of length measurement is 1%, then
uncertainty of the magnetic field at point P is :

(1) 10% (2) 4% (3) 3% (4) 5%

For Solution – Click Here

168 | P a g e
69. An infinite wire has a circular bend of radius a, and carrying a current I as shown in figure. The
magnitude of magnetic field at the origin O of the arc is given by :

μ0 I π μ0 I 3π μ0 I π μ0 I 3π
(1) [ + 1] (2)⁡ [ + 1] (3)⁡ [ + 2] (4)⁡ [ + 2]
4π a 2 4π a 2 2π a 2 4π a 2
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques Ans Ques Ans Ques Ans Ques Ans Ques Ans Ques Ans Ques Ans
1 B 2 C 3 A 4 C 5 C 6 A 7 B
8 A 9 B 10 D 11 D 12 D 13 B 14 A
15 B 16 A 17 D 18 A 19 B 20 D 21 B
22 B 23 B 24 C 25 B 26 B 27 B 28 A
29 B 30 A 31 A 32 C 33 C 34 B 35 A
36 D 37 A 38 C 39 C 40 D 41 B 42 A
43 A 44 C 45 C 46 A 47 C 48 C 49 D
50 A 51 C 52 C 53 B 54 C 55 20 56 2
57 10 58 11 59 3 60 B 61 1 62 2 63 8
64 A 65 C 66 B 67 D 68 B 69 B

169 | P a g e
 Electromagnetic Induction
1. In a coil of resistance 100Ω, a current is induced by changing the magnetic flux through it as
shown in the figure. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil is
(A) 200 Wb
(B) 225 Wb
(C) 250 Wb
(D) 275 Wb
For Solution – Click Here

2. A small circular loop of wire of radius a is located at the centre of a much larger circular wire
loop of radius b. The two loops are in the same plane. The outer loop of radius b carries an
alternating current I = Iocos(ωt). The emf induced in the smaller inner loop is nearly
πμ0 I0 a2 πμ0 I0 b2
(A) ⋅ ωcos(ωt) (B) ωcos(ωt)
2 b a
πμ0 I0 a2 a2
(C) ⋅ ωsin(ωt) (D) πμ0 I0 ⋅ ωsin(ωt)
2 b b
For Solution – Click Here

3. At the centre of a fixed large circular coil of radius R, a much smaller circular coil of radius r is
placed. The two coils are concentric and are in the same plane. The larger coil carries a current I.
The smaller coil is set to rotate with a constant angular velocity ω about an axis along their
common diameter. Calculate the emf induced in the smaller coil after a time t of its start of
rotation.
μ0 I μ0 I μ0 I μ0 I
(A) ωLr 2 sinωt (B) ω2 sinωt (C) ωr 2 sinωt (D) ωr 2 sinωt
4R 4R 2R 2R
For Solution – Click Here

4. A copper rod of mass m slides under gravity on two smooth parallel rails, with separation l and
set at an angle of θ with the horizontal. At the bottom, rails are joined by a resistance R. There is
a uniform magnetic field B normal to the plane of the rails, as shown in the figure. The terminal
speed of the copper rod is:
mgRsinθ
(A)
B2 l2
mgRcotθ
(B)
B2 l2
mgRtanθ
(C)
B2 l2
mgRcosθ
(D)
B2 l2
For Solution – Click Here

5. A coil of cross-sectional area A having n turns is placed in a uniform magnetic filed B. When it
is rotated with an angular velocity ω, the maximum e.m.f induced in the coil will be
3 1
(A) nBAω (B) nBA (C) 3nBAw (D) nBAω
2 2
For Solution – Click Here
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6. The self-induced emf of a coil is 25 volts. When the current in it is changed at uniform rate from
10 A to 25 A in 1s, the change in the energy of the inductance is :
(A) 437.5 J (B) 637.5 J (C) 740 J (D) 540 J
For Solution – Click Here

7. There are two long co-axial solenoids of same length I. The inner and outer coils have radii r1
and r2 and number of turns per unit length n1 and n2 respectively. The ratio of mutual inductance
to the self - inductance of the inner-coil is:
n1 n2 r1 n2 r22 n2
(A) (B) ⋅ (C) ⋅ (D)
n2 n1 r2 n1 r21 n1

For Solution – Click Here

8. In the circuit shown, the switch S1 is close at time t = 0 and the switch S2 is kept open. At some
later time (t 0 ), the switch S1 is opened and S2 is closed. The behavior of the current I as a function
of time 't' is given by:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

9. In the figure shown, a circuit contains two identical resistors with resistance R = 5Ω and an
inductance with L = 2mH. An ideal battery of 15 V is connected in the circuit. What will be the
current through the battery long after the switch is closed?
(A) 5.5 A
(B) 7.5 A
(C) 3 A
(D) 6 A
For Solution – Click Here

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10. A 20 Henry inductor coil is connected to a 10 ohm resistance in series as shown in figure. The
time at which rate of dissipation of energy (Joule's heat) across resistance is equal to the rate at
which magnetic energy is stored in the inductor, is:
(A) 2/ln2
(B) 1/2ln2
(C) 2ln2
(D) ln2
For Solution – Click Here

11. The total number of turns and cross-section area in a solenoid is fixed. However, its length L is
varied by adjusting the separation between windings. The inductance of solenoid will be
proportional to:
(A) 1/L2 (B) L (C) L2 (D) 1/L
For Solution – Click Here

12. Two coils 'P' and 'Q' are separated by some distance. When a current of 3A flows through coil 'P',
a magnetic flux of 10−3 Wb passes through 'Q'? No current is passed through 'Q'. When no current
is passes through 'P' and a current of 2A passes through 'Q', the flux through 'P' is:
(A) 6.67 × 10−4 Wb (B) 3.67 × 10−4 Wb
(C) 6.67 × 10−3 Wb (D) 3.67 × 10−3 Wb
For Solution – Click Here

13. A coil of self inductance 10 mH and resistance 0.1Ω is connected through a switch to a battery of
internal resistance 0.9Ω.After the switch is closed, the time taken for the current to attain 80% of
the saturation value is:
[Take ln5 = 1.6]
(A) 0.324 s (B) 0.016 s (C) 0.002 s (D) 0.103 s
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14. A very long solenoid of radius R is carrying current I(t) = kte−at (k > 0), as a function of time
(t ≥ 0). Counter clockwise current is taken to be positive. A circular conducting coil of radius 2R
is placed in the equatorial plane of the solenoid and concentric with the solenoid. The current
induced in the outer coil is correctly depicted, as a function of time, by:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

172 | P a g e
15. Consider a circular coil of wire carrying constant current I, forming a magnetic dipole. The
magnetic flux through an infinite plane that contains the circular coil and excluding the circular
coil area is given by ϕi . The magnetic flux through the area of the circular coil area is given by
ϕ. Which of the following option is correct?
(A) ϕi > ϕ0 (B) ϕi < ϕ0 (C) ϕi = −ϕ0 (D) ϕi = ϕ0
For Solution – Click Here

16. A planar loop of wire rotates in a uniform magnetic field. Initially at t = 0, the plane of the loop
is perpendicular to the magnetic field. If it rotates with a period of 10 s about an axis in its plane
then the magnitude of induced emf will be maximum and minimum, respectively at:
(A) 5.0 s and 7.5 s (B) 5.0 s and 10.0 s
(C) 2.5 s and 7.5 s (D) 2.5 s and 5.0 s
For Solution – Click Here

17. At time t = 0 magnetic field of 1000 Gauss is passing perpendicularly through the area defined
by the closed loop shown in the figure. If the magnetic field reduces linearly to 500 Gauss, in the
next 5s, then induced EMF in the loop is:
(A) 28μV
(B) 36μV
(C) 48μV
(D) 56μV
For Solution – Click Here

18. Given: As shown in the figure, a battery of emf ε is connected to an inductor L and resistance R
in series. The switch is closed at t = 0. The total charge that flows from the battery, between t =
0 and t = t c ( t c is the time constant of the circuit) is :
εL 1 εR
(A) (1 − ) (B)
R2 e eL2
εL εL
(C) (D)
R2 eR2
For Solution – Click Here

19. An electron gun is placed inside a long solenoid of radius R on its axis. The solenoid has n
turns/length and carries a current I. The electron gun shoots an electron along the radius of the
solenoid with speed v . If the electron does not hit the surface of the solenoid, maximum possible
value of v is (all symbols have their standard meaning)
eμ0 nIR eμ0 nIR
(A) (B)
2m m
2eμ0 nIR eμ0 nIR
(C) (D)
m 4m
For Solution – Click Here

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20. Two coils of self inductance L1 and L2 are connected in series combination having mutual
inductance of the coils as M. The equivalent self inductance of the combination will be:
(A) 1/L1 + 1/L2 + 1/M (B) L1 + L2 + M
(C) L1 + L2 + 2M (D) L1 + L2 − 2M
For Solution – Click Here

21. A rectangular loop of length 2.5 m and width 2 m is placed at 60∘ to a magnetic field of 4 T. The
loop is removed from the field in 10 s. The average emf induced in the loop during this time is:
(A) +1 V (B) −2 V (C) +2 V (D) −1 V
For Solution – Click Here

22. A small square loop of wire of side l is placed inside a large square loop of wire L (L >> l). Both
loops are coplanar and their centres coincide at point O as shown in figure. The mutual inductance
of the system is:
2√2μ0 L2 μ0 l2
(A) (B)
πl 2√2πL
2√2μ0 l2 μ0 L 2
(C) (D)
πL 2√2πl
For Solution – Click Here

23. A coil of inductance 1H and resistance 100Ω is connected to a battery of 6 V . Determine

approximately :
(a) The time elapsed before the current acquires half of its steady - state value
(b) The energy stored in the magnetic field associated with the coil at an instant 15 ms after the
circuit is switched on. (Given In2 = 0.693, e−3/2 = 0.25)
(A) t = 10 ms; U = 2 mJ (B) t = 10 ms; U = 1 mJ
(C) t = 7 ms; U = 1 mJ (D) t = 7 ms; U = 2 mJ
For Solution – Click Here

24. A transformer operating at primary voltage 8kV and secondary voltage 160 V serves a load of
80 kW. Assuming the transformer to be ideal with purely resistive load and working on unity
power factor, the loads in the primary and secondary circuit would be
(A) 800Ω and 1.06Ω (B) 10Ω and 500Ω
(C) 800Ω and 0.32Ω (D) 1.06Ω and 500Ω
For Solution – Click Here

25. The magnetic flux through a coil perpendicular to its plane is varying according to the relation
ϕ = (5t 3 + 4t 2 + 2t − 5) Weber. If the resistance of the coil is 5ohm, then the induced current
through the coil at t = 2 s will be,
(A) 15.6 A (B) 16.6 A (C) 17.6 A (D) 18.6 A
For Solution – Click Here
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26. Two coils of self inductance L1 and L2 are connected in series combination having mutual
inductance of the coils as M. The equivalent self inductance of the combination will be:
1 1 1
(A) + + (B) L1 + L2 + M
L1 L2 M
(C) L1 + L2 + 2M (D) L1 + L2 − 2M
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27. A metallic conductor of length 1 m rotates in a vertical plane parallel to east-west direction about
one of its end with angular velocity 5rads−1 . If the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field
is 0.2 × 10−4 T, then emf induced between the two ends of the conductor is:
(A) 5μV (B) 50μV (C) 5mV (D) 50mV
For Solution – Click Here

28. A coil is placed in a time varying magnetic field. If the number of turns in the coil were to be
halved and the radius of wire doubled, the electrical power dissipated due to the current induced
in the coil would be:
(Assume the coil to be short circuited.)
(A) Halved (B) Quadrupled (C) The same (D) Doubled
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29. A transformer has an efficiency of 80% and works at 10 V and 4 kW. If the secondary voltage is
240 V, then the current in the secondary coil is:
(A) 13.33 A (B) 1.59 A (C) 1.33 A (D) 15.1 A
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30. Primary side of a transformer is connected to 230 V, 50 Hz supply. Turns ratio of primary to
secondary winding is 10: 1. Load resistance connected to secondary side is 46Ω. The power
consumed in it is :
(A) 12.5 W (B) 10.0 W (C) 12.0 W (D) 11.5 W
For Solution – Click Here

31. Two coils have mutual inductance 0.002H. The current changes in the first coil according to the
relation i = i0 sin ωt, where i0 = 5 A and ω = 50 π rad/s. The maximum value of emf in the
π
second coil is V. The value of α is _______ .
α
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32. A small square loop of wire of side l is placed inside a large square loop of wire of side L(L = l2 ).
The loops are coplanar and their centers coincide. The value of the mutual inductance of the
system is √x × 10−7 H, where x = ______.
For Solution – Click Here

175 | P a g e
33. A circular coil of 1000 turns each with area 1 m2 is rotated about its vertical diameter at the rate
of one revolution per second in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 0.07 T. The maximum
voltage generation will be _____ V.
For Solution – Click Here

34. The current in a coil of self inductance 2.0H is increasing according to I = 2sin(t 2 ) A. The
amount of energy spent during the period when current changes from 0 to 2 A is _____ J.
For Solution – Click Here

35. A 10Ω, 20mH coil carrying constant current is connected to a battery of 20 V through a switch.
Now after switch is opened current becomes zero in 100𝜇s. The average e.m.f. induced in the
coil is _____ V.
For Solution – Click Here

36. Magnetic flux (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance 20Ω varies with time t(s) as ϕ = 8t 2 −
9t + 5. The magnitude of the induced current at t = 0.25 s will be _____ mA
For Solution – Click Here

37. In a coil of resistance 8Ω, the magnetic flux due to an external magnetic field varies with time as
2
𝜙 = (9 − t 2 ). The value of total heat produced in the coil, till the flux becomes zero, will be
3
_____ J.
For Solution – Click Here

38. A conducting circular loop is placed in X − Y plane in presence of magnetic field ⃗B =

(3t 3 ĵ + 3t 2 k̂) in SI unit. If the radius of the loop is 1 m, the induced emf in the loop, at time, t =
2 s is nπV. The value of n is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

39. A square loop of side 10 cm and resistance 0.7Ω is placed vertically in east-west plane. A
uniform magnetic field of 0.20 T is set up across the plane in north east direction. The magnetic
field is decreased to zero in 1 s at a steady rate. Then, magnitude of induced emf is √x × 10−3 V.
The value of x is _______.
For Solution – Click Here

40. For the given circuit the current through battery of 6 V just after closing the switch 'S' will be
_____ A.
For Solution – Click Here

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 ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 C 2 C 3 D 4 A 5 B 6 A 7 D
8 D 9 D 10 C 11 D 12 A 13 B 14 C
15 C 16 D 17 D 18 D 19 A 20 D 21 A
22 C 23 C 24 C 25 A 26 D 27 B 28 D
29 A 30 D 31 2 32 128 33 440 34 4 35 400
36 250 37 2 38 12 39 2 40 1

177 | P a g e
 Alternating Current
1. A circuit has a resistance of 12 ohm and an impedance of 15 ohm. The power factor of the circuit
will be :
(A) 0.8 (B) 0.4 (C) 1.25 (D) 0.125
For Solution – Click Here

2. In a series LCR circuit R = 200Ω and the voltage and the frequency of the main supply is 220 V
and 50 Hz respectively. On taking out the capacitance from the circuit the current lags behind the
voltage by 30∘ . On taking out the inductor from the circuit the current leads the voltage by 30∘ .
The power dissipated in the LCR circuit is
(A) 305 W (B) 210 W (C) 220 W (D) 242 W
For Solution – Click Here

3. An arc lamp requires a direct current of 10 A at 80 V to function. if it is connected to a

220 V(rms),50 Hz AC supply, the series inductor needed for it to work is close to :
(A) 0.08 H (B) 0.044 H (C) 0.065 H (D) 80 H
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4. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and angular frequency 320/s is applied to a series
LCR circuit. Given that R = 5Ω, L = 25mH and C = 1000 𝜇F. The total impedance, and phase
difference between the voltage across the source and the current will respectively be:
5 8
(A) 10Ω and tan−1 ⁡ ( ) (B) 10Ω and tan−1 ⁡ ( )
3 3
5
(C) 7Ω and tan−1 ⁡ ( ) (D) 7Ω and 45∘
2
For Solution – Click Here

5. In an a.c circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f and current are given by e = 100 sin 30t ; i =
π
20sin⁡ (30t − ) In one cycle of a.c. the average power consumed by the circuit and the wattles
4
current are, respectively
100 50
(A) 50,10 (B) , 10 (C) ,0 (D) 50,0
√2 √2
For Solution – Click Here

1
6. For an RLC circuit driven with voltage of amplitude vm and frequency ω0 = the current
√LC
exhibits resonance. The quality factor Q, is given by
ω0 L ω0 R R CR
(A) (B) (C) (ω (D)
R L 0 C) ω0
For Solution – Click Here
178 | P a g e
7. A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a step down transformer with its primary
windings having 4000 turns. The output power is delivered at 230 V by the transformer. If the
current in the primary of the transformer is 5 A and its efficiency is 90%, the output current would
be :
(A) 25 A (B) 50 A (C) 35 A (D) 45 A
For Solution – Click Here

8. In the following circuit, C = √3/2μ F, R = 20Ω, L = √3/10H and

R1 = 10Ω. Current in L. R1 path is I1 and C − R 2 path I2 . The voltage
of AC source is given by, V = 200√2sin⁡(100t) volts. The phase
difference between I1 and I2 is:
(A) 60∘ (B) 30∘ (C) 90∘ (D) 0∘
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9. An alternating voltage v(t) = 220sin⁡ 100πt volt is applied to a purely resistive load of 50Ω. The
time taken for the current to rise from half of the peak value to the peak value is:
(A) 7.2 ms (B) 5 ms (C) 2.2 ms (D) 3.3 ms
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10. A circuit connected to an ac source of emf 𝑒 = 𝑒0 sin⁡(100𝑡) with 𝑡 in seconds, gives a phase
difference of 𝜋/4 between the emf e and current i. Which of the following circuits will exhibit
this?
(A) RC circuit with R = 1kΩ and C = 10𝜇F
(B) RL circuit with R = 1kΩ and L = 10Mh
(C) RC circuit with R = 1kΩ and C = 1𝜇 F
(D) 𝑅 L circuit with R = 1kΩ and L = 1mH
For Solution – Click Here

11. The rms value of conduction current in a parallel plate capacitor is 6.9μA. The capacity of this
capacitor, if it is connected to 230 V ac supply with an angular frequency of 600rad/s, will be:
(A) 5pF (B) 50pF (C) 100pF (D) 200pF
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12. In a series LR circuit X L = R and power factor of the circuit is P1 . When capacitor with
capacitance C such that X L = X C is put in series, the power factor becomes P2 . The ratio P1 /P2 is
1 1 √3
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2: 1
2 √2 √2
For Solution – Click Here

179 | P a g e
13. A direct current of 4 A and an alternating current of peak value 4 A flow through resistance of 3Ω
and 2Ω respectively. The ratio of heat produced in the two resistances in same interval of time
will be:
(A) 3: 2 (B) 3: 1 (C) 3: 4 (D) 4: 3
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14. A series LCR circuit has L = 0.01H, R = 10Ω and C = 1𝜇F and it is connected to ac voltage of
amplitude (Vm )50 V. At frequency 60% lower than resonant frequency, the amplitude of
current will be approximately :
(A) 466 mA (B) 312 mA (C) 238 mA (D) 196 mA
For Solution – Click Here

15. The equation of current in a purely inductive circuit is 5sin(49πt − 30∘ ). If the inductance is
30mH then the equation for the voltage across the inductor, will be : {Let π = 22/7}
(A) 1.47sin(49πt − 30∘ ) (B) 1.47sin(49πt + 60∘ )
(C) 23.1sin(49πt − 30∘ ) (D) 23.1sin(49πt + 60∘ )
For Solution – Click Here

16. A circuit element 𝑋 when connected to an a.c. supply of peak voltage 100 V gives a peak
current of 5 A which is in phase with the voltage. A second element Y when connected to the
same a.c. supply also gives the same value of peak current which lags behind the voltage by
𝜋/2. If 𝑋 and 𝑌 are connected in series to the same supply, what will be the rms value of the
current in ampere?
10 5 5
(A) (B) (C) 5√2 (D)
√2 √2 2
For Solution – Click Here

17. If wattless current flows in the AC circuit, then the circuit is :

(A) Purely Resistive circuit (B) Purely Inductive circuit
(C) LCR series circuit (D) RC series circuit only
For Solution – Click Here

18. A sinusoidal voltage V(t) = 210sin⁡ 3000t volt is applied to a series LCR circuit in which L =
10mH, C = 25μF and R = 100 Ω. The phase difference (Φ) between the applied voltage and
resultant current will be:
(A) tan−1 ⁡(0.17) (B) tan−1 ⁡(9.46) (C) tan−1 ⁡(0.30) (D) tan−1 ⁡(13.33)
For Solution – Click Here

180 | P a g e
19. For a series LCR circuit, I vs ω curve is shown :
(a) To the left of ωr , the circuit is mainly capacitive.
(b) To the left of ωr , the circuit is mainly inductive.
(c) At ωr , impedance of the circuit is equal to the resistance of the
circuit.
(d) At ωr , impedance of the circuit is 0.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) (a) and (d) only (B) (b) and (d) only (C) (a) and (c) only (D) (b) and (c) only
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20. In a series LCR circuit, the inductance, capacitance and resistance are L = 100mH, C = 100μF
and R = 10Ω respectively. They are connected to an AC source of voltage 220 V and frequency
of 50 Hz. The approximate value of current in the circuit will be _____ A.

For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY

Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 A 2 D 3 C 4 D 5 B 6 A 7 D
8 C 9 D 10 A 11 B 12 B 13 B 14 C
15 D 16 D 17 B 18 A 19 C 20 22

181 | P a g e
 Modern physics
1. An electron (mass m ) with an initial velocity v⃗ = v0 î(v0 > 0) is moving in an electric field ⃗E =
−E0 î(E0 > 0) where E0 is constant. If at t = 0 de Broglie wavelength is λ0 = h/mv0 , then its de
Broglie wavelength after time t is given by
eE0 t λ0
(A) λ0 (B) λ0 (1 + ) (C) λ0 t (D) eE0 t
mv0 (1+ )
mv0

For Solution – Click Here

2. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 900 nm and intensity 100Wm−2 is incident on a surface
perpendicular to the beam. Tire number of photons crossing 1 cm2 area perpendicular to the beam
in one second is :
(A) 3 × 1016 (B) 4.5 × 1016 (C) 4.5 × 1017 (D) 4.5 × 1020
For Solution – Click Here

3. The ratio of wavelengths of proton and deuteron accelerated by potential Vp and Vd is 1: √2.
Then, the ratio of Vp to Vd will be
(A) 1: 1 (B) √2: 1 (C) 2: 1 (D) 4: 1
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4. The equation λ = 1.227/xnm can be used to find the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron. In
this equation x stands for:
Where, m = mass of electron
P = momentum of electron
K = Kinetic energy of electron
V = Accelerating potential in volts for electron
(A) √mK (B) √P (C) √K (D) √V
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5. Sun light falls normally on a surface of area 36 cm2 and exerts an average force of 7.2 × 10−9 N
within a time period of 20 minutes. Considering a case of complete absorption, the energy flux of
incident light is
(A) 25.92 × 102 W/cm2 (B) 8.64 × 10−6 W/cm2
(C) 6.0 W/cm2 (D) 0.06 W/cm2
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6. A metal exposed to light of wavelength 800 nm and emits photoelectrons with a certain kinetic
energy. The maximum kinetic energy of photo-electron doubles when light of wavelength
500 nm is used. The work function of the metal is (Take hc = 1230eV − nm) .
(A) 1.537eV (B) 2.46eV (C) 0.615eV (D) 1.23eV
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182 | P a g e
7. The momentum of an electron revolving in nth orbit is given by :
(Symbols have their usual meanings)
nh nh nh 2πr
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2πr 2r 2π nh
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8. Hydrogen atom from excited state comes to the ground by emitting a photon of wavelength λ.
The value of principal quantum number ' n ' of the excited state will be: (R: Rydberg constant)
λR λR λ λR2
(A) √ (B) √ (C) √ (D) √
λ−1 λR−1 λR−1 λR−1
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9. The kinetic energy of emitted electron is E when the light incident on the metal has wavelength
𝜆. To double the kinetic energy, the incident light must have wavelength:
hc hc𝜆 ℎ𝜆 hc𝜆
(A) (B) (C) (D)
E𝜆−hc E𝜆+hc E𝜆+hc E𝜆−hc
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10. Find the ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an election of hydrogen atom
from its(i) second permitted energy level to the first level, and (ii) the highest permitted energy
level to the first permitted level.
(A) 3: 4 (B) 4: 3 (C) 1: 4 (D) 4: 1
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11. Two streams of photons, possessing energies to five and ten times the work function of metal are
incident on the metal surface successively. The ratio of the maximum velocities of the
photoelectron emitted, in the two cases respectively, will be
(A) 1: 2 (B) 1: 3 (C) 2: 3 (D) 3: 2
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12. An electron with speed v and a photon with speed c have the same de-Broglie wavelength. If the
kinetic energy and momentum of electron are Ee and pe and that of photon are Eph and pph
respectively. Which of the following is correct?
Ee 2c Ee v pe 2c pe v
(A) = (B) = (C) = (D) =
Eph v Eph 2c pph v pph 2c
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13. A proton, a neutron, an electron and an α-particle have same energy. If λp , λn , λe and λα are the
de Broglie's wavelengths of proton, neutron, electron and α particle respectively, then choose
the correct relation from the following:
(A) λp = λn > λe > λα (B) λα < λn < λp < λe
(C) λe < λp = λn > λα (D) λe = λp = λn = λα
For Solution – Click Here
183 | P a g e
14. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Davisson-Germer experiment establishes the wave nature of electrons.
Statement II: If electrons have wave nature, they can interfere and show diffraction.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the option given below :
(A) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(B) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
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15. A metal surface is illuminated by a radiation of wavelength 4500 Å. The rejected photo-electron
enters a constant magnetic field of 2mT making an angle of 90∘ with the magnetic field. If it
starts revolving in a circular path of radius 2 mm, the work function of the metal is
approximately:
(A) 1.36eV (B) 1.69eV (C) 2.78eV (D) 2.23eV
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16. The light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 3.8eV and 1.4eV
respectively, illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.6eV successively. The ratio
of maximum speeds of emitted electrons for the two frequencies respectively will be
(A) 1: 1 (B) 2: 1 (C) 4: 1 (D) 1: 4
For Solution – Click Here

17. In Bohr's atomic model of hydrogen, let K, P and E are the kinetic energy, potential energy and
total energy of the electron respectively. Choose the correct option when the electron undergoes
transitions to a higher level:
(A) All K, P and E increase (B) K decreases, P and E increase
(C) P decreases, K and E increase (D) K increases, P and E decrease
For Solution – Click Here

18. The ratio for the speed of the electron in the 3rd orbit of He+ to the speed of the electron in the
3rd orbit of hydrogen atom will be:
(A) 1: 1 (B) 1: 2 (C) 4: 1 (D) 2: 1
For Solution – Click Here

19. Choose the correct option from the following options given below :
(A) In the ground state of Rutherford's model electrons are in stable equilibrium. While in
Thomson's model electrons always experience a net-force
(B) An atom has a nearly continuous mass distribution in a Rutherford's model but has a highly
non-uniform mass distribution in Thomson's model
(C) A classical atom based on Rutherford's model is doomed to collapse.
(D) The positively charged part of the atom possesses most of the mass in Rutherford's model but
not in Thomson's model.
For Solution – Click Here
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20. An α particle and carbon 12 atom has same kinetic energy K. The ratio of their de-Broglie
wavelength (λα : λC12 ) is :
(A) 1: √3 (B) √3: 1 (C) 3: 1 (D) 2: √3
For Solution – Click Here

21. A hydrogen atom in is ground state absorbs 10.2eV of energy. The angular momentum of electron
of the hydrogen atom will increase by the value of :
(Given, Plank's constant = 6.6 × 10−34 Js )
(A) 2.10 × 10−34 Js (B) 1.05 × 10−34 Js (C) 3.15 × 10−34 Js (D) 4.2 × 10−34 Js
For Solution – Click Here

22. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In hydrogen atom, the frequency of radiation emitted when an electron jumps from
lower energy orbit (E1 ) to higher energy orbit (E2 ), is given as hf = E1 − E2 .
Statement-II: The jumping of electron from higher energy orbit (E2 ) to lower energy orbit (E1 )
is associated with frequency of radiation given as f = (E2 − E1 )/h
This condition is Bohr's frequency condition.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(B) Both statement I and statement II are false
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true.
For Solution – Click Here

23. The de Broglie wavelengths for an electron and a photon are λe and λp respectively. For the same
kinetic energy of electron and photon. which of the following presents the correct relation between
the de Brogue wavelengths of two ?
1
(A) λp ∝ λ2e (B) λp ∝ λe (C) λp ∝ √λe (D) λp ∝ √
λe

For Solution – Click Here

24. Let K1 and K 2 be the maximum kinetic energies of photoelectrons emitted when two
monochromatic beams of wavelength λ1 and λ2 , respectively are incident on a metallic surface.
If λ1 = 3λ2 , then:
K2 K2 K2 K1
(A) K1 > (B) K1 < (C) K1 = (D) K 2 =
3 3 3 3
For Solution – Click Here

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25. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : The photoelectric effect does not take place, if the energy of the incident radiation
is less than the work function of a metal.
Reason R : Kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is zero, if the energy of the incident radiation is
equal to the work function of a metal.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is correct but R is not correct
(D) A is not correct but R is correct
For Solution – Click Here

26. The electric field at the point associated with a light wave is given by
E = 200[sin(6 × 1015 )t + sin(9 × 1015 )t]Vm−1
Given: h = 4.14 × 10−15 eVs
If this light falls on a metal surface having a work function of 2.50eV, the maximum kinetic
energy of the photoelectrons will be :
(A) 1.90eV (B) 3.27eV (C) 3.60eV (D) 3.42eV
For Solution – Click Here

27. The radius of third stationary orbit of electron for Bohr's atom is R.
The radius of fourth stationary orbit will be:
4 9 16 3
(A) R (B) R (C) R (D) R
3 16 9 4
For Solution – Click Here

28. An object is placed in a medium of refractive index 3 . An electromagnetic wave of intensity

6 × 108 W/m2 falls normally on the object and it is absorbed completely. The radiation pressure
on the object would be
(speed of light in free space = 3 × 108 m/s ):
(A) 18Nm−2 (B) 36Nm−2 (C) 2Nm−2 (D) 6Nm−2
For Solution – Click Here

29. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is the same as that of a photon. If velocity of electron
is 25% of the velocity of light, then the ratio of K.E. of electron and K.E. of photon will be:
1 1 8 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 1 1 4
For Solution – Click Here

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30. Two sources of light emit with a power of 200 W. The ratio of number of photons of visible light
emitted by each source having wavelengths 300 nm and 500 nm respectively, will be:
(A) 1:5 (B) 5: 3 (C) 1: 3 (D) 3: 5
For Solution – Click Here

31. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Most of the mass of the atom and all its positive charge are
concentrated in a tiny nucleus and the electrons revolve around it, is Rutherford's model.
Statement II : An atom is a spherical cloud of positive charges with electrons embedded in it, is a
special case of Rutherford's model.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below
(A) Both statement I and statement II are false
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
For Solution – Click Here

32. The work function of a substance is 3.0eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause the
emission of photoelectrons from this substance is approximately;
(A) 200 nm (B) 414 nm (C) 400 nm (D) 215 nm
For Solution – Click Here

33. If the total energy transferred to a surface in time t is 6.48 × 105 J, then the magnitude of the total
momentum delivered to this surface for complete absorption will be:
10−3 kg m 10−3 kg m
(A) 2.16 × (B) 2.46 ×
s s
−3 −3
(C) 1.58 × 10 kg m/s (D) 4.32 × 10 kg m/s
For Solution – Click Here

34. For the photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic energy (Ek ) of the photoelectrons is plotted
against the frequency (v) of the incident photons as shown in figure. The slope of the graph
gives
(A) Charge of electron
(B) Planck's constant
(C) Ratio of Planck's constant to electric charge
(D) Work function of the metal
For Solution – Click Here

187 | P a g e
35. When a metal surface is illuminated by light of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is 8 V. When
the same surface is illuminated by light of wavelength 3λ, stopping potential is 2 V. The threshold
wavelength for this surface is:
(A) 5λ (B) 3λ (C) 4.5λ (D) 9λ
For Solution – Click Here

36. If the wavelength of the first member of Lyman series of hydrogen is λ. The wavelength of the
second member will be
27 27 5 32
(A) λ (B) λ (C) λ (D) λ
5 32 27 27
For Solution – Click Here

37. In a photoelectric effect experiment a light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is
made to fall on the surface of photosensitive material. Now if the frequency is halved and
intensity is doubled, the number of photo electrons emitted will be:
(A) quadrupled(B) halved (C) Zero (D) doubled
For Solution – Click Here

38. The minimum energy required by a hydrogen atom in ground state to emit radiation in Balmer
series is nearly:
(A) 1.9eV (B) 12.1eV (C) 13.6eV (D) 1.5eV
For Solution – Click Here

39. The de Broglie wavelengths of a proton and an α particle are λ and 2λ respectively. The ratio of
the velocities of proton and α particle will be:
(A) 4: 1 (B) 1: 8 (C) 1: 2 (D) 8: 1
For Solution – Click Here

40. In photo electric effect

A. The photocurrent is proportional to the intensity of the incident radiation.
B. Maximum Kinetic energy with which photoelectrons are emitted depends on the intensity of
incident light.
C. Max. K.E with which photoelectrons are emitted depends on the frequency of incident light.
D. The emission of photoelectrons require a minimum threshold intensity of incident radiation.
E. Max. K.E of the photoelectrons is independent of the frequency of the incident light.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A and C only (B) A and E only (C) B and C only (D) A and B only
For Solution – Click Here

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41. A metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V0 . If
the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential becomes
Vo
. The threshold wavelength for this metallic surface will be –
4
λ 3
(A) (B) 4λ (C) λ (D) 3λ
4 2
For Solution – Click Here

42. The angular momentum for the electron in Bohr's orbit is L. If the electron is assumed to revolve
in second orbit of hydrogen atom, then the change in angular momentum will be :
L
(A) (B) zero (C) L (D) 2 L
2
For Solution – Click Here

43. The kinetic energy of an electron, α-particle and a proton are given as 4 K, 2 K and K respectively.
The de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron follows :
(A) λα = λp < λe (B) λα > λp > λe (C) λα < λp < λe (D) λα = λp > λe
For Solution – Click Here

44. The radius of fifth orbit of the Li++ is _____× 10−12 m. Take : radius of hydrogen atom = 0.51Å
For Solution – Click Here

45. An electron in a hydrogen atom revolves around its nucleus with a speed of 6.76 × 106 ms −1 in
an orbit of radius 0.52 A∘ . The magnetic field produced at the nucleus of the hydrogen atom is
_____ T.
For Solution – Click Here

46. As per given figure A, B and C are the first, second and third excited energy
level of hydrogen atom respectively. If the ratio of the two wavelengths (i.e.
𝜆1 7
) is , then the value of n will be _____ .
𝜆2 4n
For Solution – Click Here

47. An atom absorbs a photon of wavelength 500 nm and emits another photon of wavelength
600 nm. The net energy absorbed by the atom in this process is n × 10−4 eV. The value of n is
_____ .
[Assume the atom to be stationary during the absorption and emission process]
(Take h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js and c = 3 × 108 m/s)
For Solution – Click Here

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48. A monochromatic light is incident on a hydrogen sample in ground state. Hydrogen atoms
absorb a fraction of light and subsequently emit radiation of six different wavelengths. The
frequency of incident light is x × 1015 Hz. The value of x is ____ . (Given h =
4.25 × 10−15 eVs )
For Solution – Click Here

49. Monochromatic light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is
2 × 10−3 W. How many photons per second on an average, are emitted by the source? (Given
h = 6.63 × 10−34 Js)
(A) 5 × 1015 (B) 9 × 1018 (C) 6 × 1015 (D) 7 × 1016
For Solution – Click Here

50. A particular hydrogen-like ion emits the radiation of frequency 3 × 1015 Hz when it makes
transition from n = 2 to n = 1. The frequency of radiation emitted in transition from n = 3 to
x
n = 1 is × 1015 Hz, when x = ________.
9
For Solution – Click Here

51. A electron of hydrogen atom on an excited state is having energy En = −0.85eV. The
maximum number of allowed transitions to lower energy level is ______.
For Solution – Click Here

52. Hydrogen atom is bombarded with electrons accelerated through a potential difference of V,
which causes excitation of hydrogen atoms. If the experiment is being performed at T = 0 K, the
minimum potential difference needed to observe any Balmer series lines in the emission spectra
α
will be V, where α = ________.
10
For Solution – Click Here

x
53. When a hydrogen atom going from n = 2 to n = 1 emits a photon, its recoil speed is m/s.
5
Where x = ________. (Use, mass of hydrogen atom = 1.6 × 10−27 kg)
For Solution – Click Here

α
54. If Rydberg's constant is R, the longest wavelength of radiation in Paschen series will be ,
7R
where α = ______.
For Solution – Click Here

55. √d1 and √d2 are the impact parameters corresponding to scattering angles 60∘ and 90∘
respectively, when an α particle is approaching a gold nucleus. For d1 = xd2 , the value of x will
be _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

190 | P a g e
56. A beam of monochromatic light is used to excite the electron in Li++ from the first orbit to the
third orbit. The wavelength of monochromatic light is found to be x × 10−10 m. The value of x
is _____ . [Given hc = 1242eVnm]
For Solution – Click Here

57. The stopping potential for photoelectrons emitted from a surface illuminated by light of
wavelength 6630Å is 0.42 V. If the threshold frequency is x × 1013 /s, where x is _____ .
(nearest integer).
(Given, speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s, Planck's constant = 6.63 × 10−34 Js)
For Solution – Click Here

58. When light of frequency twice the threshold frequency is incident on the metal plate, the
maximum velocity of emitted electron is v1 . When the frequency of incident radiation is
increased to five times the threshold value, the maximum velocity of emitted electron becomes
v2 . If v2 = xv1 , the value of x will be _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

x
59. is the ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an electron of hydrogen atom
x+4
from its
(i) third permitted energy level to the second level and
(ii) the highest permitted energy level to the second permitted level.
The value of x will be
For Solution – Click Here

60. In a hydrogen spectrum,𝜆 be the wavelength of first transition line of Lyman series. The
wavelength difference will be "a 𝜆 " between the wavelength of 3rd transition line of Paschen
series and that of 2nd transition line of Balmer Series where a = _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

61. An electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom has the orbital radius of 5.3 ×
10−11 m while that for the electron in third excited state is 8.48 × 10−10 m. The ratio of the
de Broglie wavelengths of electron in the ground state to that in excited state is
(A) 4 (B) 9 (C) 3 (D) 16
For Solution – Click Here

62. The work functions of cesium (Cs) and lithium (Li) metals are 1.9 eV and 2.5 eV, respectively.
If we incident a light of wavelength 550 nm on these two metal surface, then photo-electric
effect is possible for the case of
(A) Li only (B) Cs only (C) Neither Cs nor Li (D) Both Cs and Li
For Solution – Click Here

191 | P a g e
63. An electron projected perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B moves in a circle. If Bohr's
quantization is applicable, then the radius of the electronic orbit in the first excited state is :
2h 4h h h
(1) √ (2) √ (3) √ (4) √
πeB πeB 2πeB πeB
For Solution – Click Here

64. A light source of wavelength λ illuminates a metal surface and electrons are ejected with
maximum kinetic energy of 2 eV. If the same surface is illuminated by a light source of
λ
wavelength , then the maximum kinetic energy of ejected electrons will be (The work function
2
of metal is 1eV)
(1) 2 eV (2) 6 eV (3) 5 eV (4) 3 eV
For Solution – Click Here

65. A sub-atomic particle of mass 10−30 kg is moving with a velocity 2.21 × 106 m/s. Under the
matter wave consideration, the particle will behave closely like __________. (h =
6.63 × 10−34 J. s)
(1) Infra-red radiation (2) X-rays
(3) Gamma rays (4) Visible radiation
For Solution – Click Here

66. In photoelectric effect an em-wave is incident on a metal surface and electrons are ejected from
the surface. If the work function of the metal is 2.14 eV and stopping potential is 2V, what is the
wavelength of the em-wave?
(Given hc = 1242 eVnm where h is the Planck’s constant and c is the speed of light in vaccum.)
(A) 400 nm (B) 600 nm (C) 200 nm (D) 300 nm
For Solution – Click Here

67. During the transition of electron from state A to state C of a Bohr atom, the wavelength of
emitted radiation is 2000 Å and it becomes 6000 Å when the electron jumps from state B to
state C. Then the wavelength of the radiation emitted during the transition of electrons from
state A to state B is :-
(1) 3000 Å (2) 6000 Å (3) 4000 Å (4) 2000 Å
For Solution – Click Here

⃗ =
⃗ = v0 î(v0 > 0) enters an electric field E
68. An electron of mass ' m ' with an initial velocity v
−E0 k̂. If the initial de Broglie wavelength is λ0 , the value after time t would be :-
λ0 λ0 e2 E20 t2
(1) (2) (3) λ0 (4) λ0 √1 +
e2 E2 2 e2 E2 2 m2 v20
√1+ 0t √1− 0t
2
m v0 2 2
m v0 2

For Solution – Click Here

192 | P a g e
69. In photoelectric effect, the stopping potential (V0 ) v/s frequency (v) curve is plotted.
(h is the Planck's constant and ϕ0 is work function of metal)
(A) V0 v/sv is linear
V0 v ϕ0
(B) The slope of curve =
sv h
(C) h constant is related to the slope of V0 v/sv line
(D) The value of electric charge of electron is not required to determine h using the V0 v/sv
curve.
(E) The work function can be estimated without knowing the value of h.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A),(B) and (C) only (2) (C) and (D) only
(3) (A),(C) and (E) only (4) (D) and (E) only
For Solution – Click Here

70. The ratio of the power of a light source S1 to that the light source S2 is 2 . S1 is emitting 2 ×
1015 photons per second at 600 nm . If the wavelength of the source S2 is 300 nm , then the
number of photons per second emitted by S2 is ____ × 1014 .
For Solution – Click Here

71. A proton of mass ' mp ′ has same energy as that of a photon of wavelength ′ λ '. If the proton
is moving at non-relativistic speed, then ratio of its de Broglie wavelength to the wavelength of
photon is.
1 2E 1 E 1 E 1 E
(1) √ (2) √ (3) √ (4) √
c m p c m p c 2m p 2c m p

For Solution – Click Here

72. The frequency of revolution of the electron in Bohr's orbit varies with n, the principal quantum
number as
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
n n3 n4 n2
For Solution – Click Here

193 | P a g e
 ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 D 2 B 3 D 4 D 5 D 6 C 7 A
8 B 9 B 10 A 11 C 12 B 13 B 14 A
15 A 16 B 17 B 18 D 19 C 20 B 21 B
22 D 23 B 24 B 25 B 26 D 27 C 28 D
29 A 30 D 31 C 32 B 33 A 34 B 35 D
36 B 37 C 38 B 39 D 40 A 41 D 42 C
43 C 44 425 45 40 46 5 47 4125 48 3 49 A
50 32 51 6 52 121 53 17 54 144 55 3 56 114
57 35 58 2 59 5 60 5 61 A 62 B 63 D
64 C 65 B 66 D 67 A 68 A 69 C 70 5
71 C 72 B

194 | P a g e
 Nuclear Physics
1. At a given instant, say t = 0, two radioactive substances A and B have equal activities. The ratio
RB / RA of their activities after time t itself decays with time t as e–3t. [If the half-life of A is m2,
the half-life of B is:
(A) ln2/2 (B) 2ln2 (C) ln2/4 (D) 4ln2
For Solution – Click Here

2. Consider the nuclear fission Ne20 → 2He4 + C12

Given that the binding energy/nucleon of Ne20, He4 and C12 are, respectively, 8.03 MeV, 7.07
MeV and 7.86 MeV, identify the correct statement:
(A) 8.3 MeV energy will be released (B) energy of 12.4 MeV will be supplied
(C) energy of 11.9 MeV has to be supplied (D) energy of 3.6 MeV will be released
For Solution – Click Here

3. An alpha-particle of mass m suffers 1-deminsional elastic collision with a nucleus at rest of

unknown mass. It is scattered directly backwards losing, 64% of its initial kinetic energy. The
mass of the nucleus is:
(A) 2 m (B) 3.5 m (C) 1.5 m (D) 4 m
For Solution – Click Here

4. In a radioactive decay chain, the initial nucleus is 23290Th. At the end there are 6a-particles and
4b-particles with are emitted. If the end nucleus is AZX, A and Z are given by:
(A) A = 208; Z = 80 (B) A = 202; Z = 80
(C) A = 208; Z = 82 (D) A = 200; Z = 81
For Solution – Click Here

5. The ratio of mass densities of nuclei of 40Ca and 16O is close to:
(A) 0.1 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 5
For Solution – Click Here

6. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Most of the mass of the atom and all its positive charge are
concentrated in a tiny nucleus and the electrons revolve around it, is Rutherford's model.
Statement II : An atom is a spherical cloud of positive charges with electrons embedded in it, is a
special case of Rutherford's model.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below
(A) Both statement I and statement II are false
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
For Solution – Click Here
195 | P a g e
7. Read the following statements:
(A) Volume of the nucleus is directly proportional to the mass number.
(B) Volume of the nucleus is independent of mass number.
(C) Density of the nucleus is directly proportional to the mass number.
(D) Density of the nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of the mass number.
(E) Density of the nucleus is independent of the mass number.
Choose the correct option from the following options.
(A) (A) and (D) only. (B) (A) and (E) only.
(C) (B) and (E) only. (D) (A) and (C) only
For Solution – Click Here

8. Which of the following figure represents the variation of ln(𝑅/R 0 ) with lnA (if R = radius of a
nucleus and A = its mass number)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

M′ 2M′
9. A nucleus of mass M at rest splits into two parts having masses a and (M′ < M). The ratio
3 3
of de Broglie wavelength of two parts will be:
(A) 1: 2 (B) 2: 1 (C) 1: 1 (D) 2: 3
For Solution – Click Here

10. How many alpha and beta particles are emitted when Uranium 92 U238 decays to lead 82 Pb206 ?
(A) 3 alpha particles and 5 beta particles (B) 6 alpha particles and 4 beta particles
(C) 4 alpha particles and 5 beta particles (D) 8 alpha particles and 6 beta particles
For Solution – Click Here

11. The mass number of nucleus having radius equal to half of the radius of nucleus with mass number
192 is:
(A) 32 (B) 40 (C) 24 (D) 20
For Solution – Click Here

α β− α γ
12. In the following nuclear reaction, D ⟶ D1 ⟶ D2 ⟶ D3 ⟶ D4 . Mass number of D is 182 and
atomic number is 74. Mass number and atomic number of D4 respectively will be
(A) 174 and 71 (B) 174 and 69 (C) 172 and 69 (D) 172 and 71
For Solution – Click Here

196 | P a g e
13. Nucleus A is having mass number 220 and its binding energy per nucleon is 5.6MeV. It splits in
two fragments 'B' and 'C' of mass numbers 105 and 115. The binding energy of nucleons in 'B'
and 'C' is 6.4MeV per nucleon. The energy Q released per fission will be:
(A) 0.8MeV (B) 275MeV (C) 220MeV (D) 176MeV
For Solution – Click Here

14. Two lighter nuclei combine to form a comparatively heavier nucleus by the relation given below:
2 2 4
1 X + 1 X = 2Y
The binding energies per nucleon 12 X and 42 Y are 1.1MeV and 7.6 MeV respectively. The energy
released in this process is _____ MeV.
For Solution – Click Here

15. The atomic mass of 6 C12 is 12.000000u and that of 6 C13 is 13.003354u. The required energy to
remove a neutron from 6 C13 , if mass of neutron is 1.008665u, will be:
(A) 6.25MeV (B) 4.95MeV (C) 62.5MeV (D) 49.5MeV
For Solution – Click Here

16. The explosive in a Hydrogen bomb is a mixture of 1 H2 , 1 H3 and 3 Li6 in some condensed form.
The chain reaction is given by
6 1 4 3 2 3 4 1
3 Li + 0 n → 2 He + 1 H 1 H + 1 H → 2 He + 0 n
During the explosion the energy released is approximately
[Given; M(Li) = 6.01690amu, M( 1 H2 ) = 2.01471amu, M( 2 He4 ) = 4.00388 amu,
and 1amu = 931.5MeV ]
(A) 28.12MeV (B) 22.22MeV (C) 12.64MeV (D) 16.48MeV
For Solution – Click Here

17. In a nuclear fission reaction of an isotope of mass M, three similar daughter nuclei of same mass
are formed. The speed of a daughter nuclei in terms of mass defect ΔM will be :
2cΔM 3ΔM 2ΔM ΔMc2
(A) √ (B) c√ (C) c√ (D)
M M M 3
For Solution – Click Here

18. The mass defect in a particular reaction is 0.4 g. The amount of energy liberated is
n × 107 kWh, where n = ______. (speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s )
For Solution – Click Here

19. A nucleus has mass number A1 and volume V1 . Another nucleus has mass number A2 and Volume
V2
V2 . If relation between mass number is A2 = 4A1 , then = ________.
V1
For Solution – Click Here

197 | P a g e
20. The radius of a nucleus of mass number 64 is 4.8 fermi. Then the mass number of another
1000
nucleus having radius of 4 fermi is , where x is _____.
x
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 C 2 C 3 D 4 C 5 B 6 C 7 B
8 B 9 C 10 D 11 C 12 A 13 D 14 26
15 B 16 B 17 C 18 1 19 4 20 27

198 | P a g e
 Geometrical optics
1. A light wave travelling linearly in a medium of dielectric constant 4 , incidents on the horizontal
interface separating medium with air. The angle of incidence for which the total intensity of
incident wave will be reflected back into the same medium will be:
(Given: relative permeability of medium μr = 1 )
(A) 10∘ (B) 20∘ (C) 30∘ (D) 60∘
For Solution – Click Here

2. The difference of speed of light in the two media A and B(vA − vB ) is 2.6 × 107 m/s. If the
refractive index of medium B is 1.47, then the ratio of refractive index of medium B to medium
A is: (Given: speed of light in vacuum C = 3 × 108 ms −1 )
(A) 1.303 (B) 1.318 (C) 1.13 (D) 0.12
For Solution – Click Here

3. Consider a light ray travelling in air is incident into a medium of refractive index √2n. The
incident angle is twice that of refracting angle. Then, the angle of incidence will be : 2n
n n
(A) sin−1 (√n) (B) cos −1 (√ ) (C) sin−1 (√2n) (D) 2cos −1 (√ )
2 2

For Solution – Click Here

4. A convex lens has power P. It is cut into two halves along its principal axis.
Further one piece (out of the two halves) is cut into two halves
perpendicular to the principal axis (as shown in figure). Choose the
incorrect option for the reported pieces.
(A) Power of L1 = P/2 (B) Power of L2 = P/2
P
(C) Power of L3 = (D) Power of L1 = P
2
For Solution – Click Here

5. The refracting angle of a prism is A and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot(A/2).
Then the angle of minimum deviation will be –
(A) 180 − 2A (B) 90 − A (C) 180 + 2A (D) 180 − 3A
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6. The speed of light in media 'A' and 'B' are 2.0 × 1010 cm/s and 1.5 × 1010 chm/s respectively.
A ray of light enters from the medium B to A at an incident angle 'θ'. If the ray suffers total
internal reflection, then
3 2 3 3
(A) θ = sin−1 ( ) (B) θ > sin−1 ( ) (C) θ < sin−1 ( ) (D) θ > sin−1 ( )
4 3 4 4
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7. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) In primary rainbow, observer sees red colour on the top and violet on the bottom
(B) In primary rainbow, observer sees violet colour on the top and red on the bottom
(C) In primary rainbow, light wave suffers total internal reflection twice before coming out of
water drops
(D) Primary rainbow is less bright than secondary rainbow
For Solution – Click Here

8. Time taken by light to travel in two different materials A and B of refractive indices μA and μB of
same thickness is t1 and t 2 respectively. If t 2 − t1 = 5 × 10−10 s and the ratio of μA to μB is
1: 2. Then the thickness of material, in meter is:
(Given vA and vB are velocities of light in A and B materials respectively).
(A) 5 × 10−10 va m (B) 5 × 10−10 m (C) 1.5 × 10−10 m (D) 5 × 10−10 vB m
For Solution – Click Here

9. For an object placed at a distance 2.4 m from a lens, a sharp focused image is observed on a screen
placed at a distance 12 cm from the lens. A glass plate of refractive index 1.5 and thickness 1 cm
is introduced between lens and screen such that the glass plate plane faces parallel to the screen.
By what distance should the object be shifted so that a sharp focused image is observed again on
the screen?
(A) 0.8 m (B) 3.2 m (C) 1.2 m (D) 5.6 m
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10. Light travels in two media M1 and M2 with speeds 1.5 × 108 ms−1 and 2.0 × 108 ms −1
respectively. The critical angle between them is:
3 2 3 2
(A) tan−1 ( ) (B) tan−1 ( ) (C) cos −1 ( )(D) sin−1 ( )
√7 3 4 3
For Solution – Click Here

11. As shown in the figure, after passing through the medium 1 . The
speed of light v2 in medium 2 will be :
(Given c = 3 × 108 ms −1 )
(A) 1.0 × 108 ms −1 (B) 0.5 × 108 ms −1
(C) 1.5 × 108 ms −1 (D) 3.0 × 108 ms −1
For Solution – Click Here

12. In normal adjustment, for a refracting telescope, the distance between objective and eye piece is
30 cm. The focal length of the objective, when the angular magnification of the telescope is 2,
will be:
(A) 20 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 15 cm
For Solution – Click Here

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13. Light enters from air into a given medium at an angle of 45∘ with interface of the air-medium
surface. After refraction, the light ray is deviated through an angle of 15∘ from its original
direction. The refractive index of the medium is :
(A) 1.732 (B) 1.333 (C) 1.414 (D) 2.732
For Solution – Click Here

14. The power of a lens (biconvex) is 1.25 m−1 in particular medium. Refractive index of the lens is
1.5 and radii of curvature are 20 cm and 40 cm respectively. The refractive index of surrounding
medium:
(A) 1.0 (B) 9/7 (C) 3/2 (D) 4/3
For Solution – Click Here

15. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm forms an image of an extended source of light on a
photoelectric cell. A current I is produced. The lens is replaced by another convex lens having the
same diameter but focal length 20 cm. The photoelectric current now is:
I
(A) I (B) 2I (C) 4I (D)
2
For Solution – Click Here

A
16. If the refractive index of the material of a prism is cot⁡ ( ), where A is the angle of prism then the
2
angle of minimum deviation will be:
π π
(A) − 2 A (B) π − 2 A (C) − A (D) π − A
2 2
For Solution – Click Here

17. A convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm forms an image that is half the size of the object.
The object distance is :
(A) 45 cm (B) −15 cm (C) −45 cm (D) 15 cm
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18. A biconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 20 cm in air. Its focal length when
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6 will be:
(A) +16 cm (B) −160 cm (C) +160 cm (D) −16 cm
For Solution – Click Here

19. If the distance between object and its two times magnified virtual image produced by a curved
mirror is 15 cm, the focal length of the mirror must be:
(A) −10 cm (B) 10/3 cm (C) 15 cm (D) −12 cm
For Solution – Click Here

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20. The refractive index of a prism with apex angle A is cot⁡ A/2. The angle of minimum deviation
is :
(A) δm = 180∘ − 2A (B) δm = 180∘ − 3A
(C) δm = 180∘ − A (D) δm = 180∘ − 4A
For Solution – Click Here

21. A 2 meter long scale with least count of 0.2 cm is used to measure the locations of objects on an
optical bench. While measuring the focal length of a convex lens, the object pin and the convex
lens are placed at 80 cm mark and 1 m mark, respectively. The image of the object pin on the
other side of lens coincides with image pin that is kept at 180 cm mark. The % error in the
estimation of focal length is:
(1) 1.02 (2) 0.85 (3) 1.70 (4) 0.51
For Solution – Click Here

22. When one light ray is reflected from a plane mirror with 30∘ angle of reflection, the angle of
deviation of the ray after reflection is:
(1) 140∘ (2) 120∘ (3) 110∘ (4) 130∘
For Solution – Click Here

23. An ice cube has a bubble inside. When viewed from one side the apparent distance of the bubble
is 12 cm. when viewed from the opposite side, the apparent distance of the bubble is observed as
4 cm. If the side of the ice cube is 24 cm, the refractive index of the ice cube is
4 3 2 6
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 3 5
For Solution – Click Here

24. A vessel of depth ' d ' is half filled with oil of refractive index n1 and the other half is filled with
water of refractive index n2 . The apparent depth of this vessel when viewed from above will be-
dn1 n2 d(n1 +n2 ) dn1 n2 2 d(n1 +n2 )
(1) (n (2) (3) (4)
1 +n2 ) 2n1 n2 2(n1 +n2 ) n1 n2
For Solution – Click Here

25. A monochromatic light wave with wavelength λ1 and frequency v1 in air enters another medium.
If the angle of incidence and angle of refraction at the interface are 45∘ and 30∘ respectively, then
the wavelength λ2 and frequency v2 of the refracted wave are :
1
(1) λ2 = λ1 , v2 = √2v1 (2) λ2 = λ1 , v2 = v1
√2
1
(3) λ2 = √2λ1 , v2 = v1 (4) λ2 = λ1 , v2 = v1
√2
For Solution – Click Here

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26. A thin prism P1 with an angle 6∘ and made of glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with
another prism P2 made from glass of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without average
deviation. The angle of prism P2 is :
(1) 6∘ (2) 1.3∘ (3) 7.8∘ (4) 4.5∘
For Solution – Click Here

27. As shown in the figure, a combination of a thin plano concave lens and a
thin plano convex lens is used to image an object placed at infinity. The
radius of curvature of both the lenses is 30 cm and refraction index of the
material for both the lenses is 1.75. Both the lenses are placed at distance
of 40 cm from each other.
Due to the combination, the image of the object is formed at distance x = cm, from concave
lens.
For Solution – Click Here

28. When a beam of white light is allowed to pass through convex lens parallel to principal axis, the
different colours of light converge at different point on the principle axis after refraction. This is
called :
(1) Scattering (2) Chromatic aberration
(3) Spherical aberration (4) Polarisation
For Solution – Click Here

29. A scientist is observing a bacteria through a compound microscope. For better analysis and to
improve its resolving power he should. (Select the best option)
(1) Increase the wave length of the light
(2) Increase the refractive index of the medium between the object and objective lens
(3) Decrease the focal length of the eye piece
(4) Decrease the diameter of the objective lens
For Solution – Click Here

30. A thin cylindrical rod of length 10 cm is placed horizontally on the principle axis of a concave
mirror of focal length 20 cm. The rod is placed in a such a way that mid point of the rod is at
x
40 cm from the pole of mirror. The length of the image formed by the mirror will be cm. The
3
value of x is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

31. Two objects A and B are placed at 15 cm and 25 cm from the pole in front of a
concave mirror having radius of curvature 40 cm. The distance between images
formed by the mirror is:
(1) 40 cm (2) 60 cm (3) 160 cm (4) 100 cm
For Solution – Click Here
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32. In an experiment of measuring the refractive index of a glass slab using
travelling microscope in physics lab, a student measures real thickness of the
glass slab as 5.25 mm and apparent thickness of the glass slab at 5.00 mm.
Travelling microscope has 20 divisions in one cm on main scale and 50 divisions
on Vernier scale is equal to 49 divisions on main scale. The estimated
x
uncertainty in the measurement of refractive index of the slab is × 10−3 , where
10
x is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

33. In a medium the speed of light wave decreases to 0.2 times to its speed in free
space The ratio of relative permittivity to the refractive index of the medium is
x: 1. The value of x is _____ .
(Given speed of light in free space = 3 × 108 m s−1 and for the given medium
μr = 1)
For Solution – Click Here

34. A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and focal length 18 cm in air is immersed
in water. The change in focal length of the lens will be cm.
(Given refractive index of water = 4/3)
For Solution – Click Here

35. Two transparent media having refractive indices 1.0 and 1.5 are separated by a
spherical refracting surface of radius of curvature 30 cm. The centre of curvature
of surface is towards denser medium and a point object is placed on the
principle axis in rarer medium at a distance of 15 cm from the pole of the
surface. The distance of image from the pole of the surface is _____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

36. A fish rising vertically upward with a uniform velocity of 8 ms −1 , observes that a
bird is diving vertically downward towards the fish with the velocity of 12 ms −1 .
4
If the refractive index of water is , then the actual velocity of the diving bird to
3
pick the fish, will be _____ ms .
−1

For Solution – Click Here

37. The refractive index of a transparent liquid filled in an equilateral hollow prism
is √2. The angle of minimum deviation for the liquid will be _____ °.
For Solution – Click Here

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38. As shown in the figure, a plane mirror is fixed at a
height of 50 cm from the bottom of tank containing
4
water (μ = ). The height of water in the tank is 8
3
cm. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of the water
tank. The distance of image of the bulb formed by
mirror from
the bottom of the tank is _____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

39. In a reflecting telescope, a secondary mirror is used to:

(1) reduce the problem of mechanical support
(2) remove spherical aberration
(3) make chromatic aberration zero
(4) move the eyepiece outside the telescopic tube
For Solution – Click Here

40. Two vertical parallel mirrors A and B are separated by 10 cm. A point object O is
placed at a distance of 2 cm from mirror A. The distance of the second nearest
image behind mirror A from the mirror A is _____ cm
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41. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a plane mirror. The virtual

and erect image is formed by the mirror. Now the mirror is moved by 4 cm
towards the stationary object. The distance by which the position of image would
be shifted, will be:
(1) 4 cm towards mirror (2) 8 cm towards mirror
(3) 8 cm away from mirror (4) 2 cm towards mirror
For Solution – Click Here

42. A point object, ' O ' is placed in front of two thin symmetrical coaxial convex
lenses L1 and L2 with focal length 24 cm and 9 cm
respectively. The distance between two lenses is
10 cm and the object is placed 6 cm away from lens L1
as shown in the figure. The distance between the
object and the image formed by the system of two lenses is cm.
For Solution – Click Here

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43. The radius of curvature of each surface of a convex lens having refractive index
1.8 is 20 cm. The lens is now immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.5. The
ratio of power of lens in air to its power in the liquid will be x: 1. The value of x
is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

8 3
44. Two immiscible liquids of refractive indices and
5 2
respectively are put in a beaker as shown in the figure. The
height of each column is 6 cm. A coin is placed at the bottom
of the beaker. For near normal vision, the apparent depth
α
of the coin is cm. The value of α is
4
For Solution – Click Here

45. The distance between object and its two times magnified real image as produced
by a convex lens is 45 cm. The focal length of the lens used is ______ cm
For Solution – Click Here

46. In an experiment to measure the focal length (f) of a

convex lens, the magnitude of object distance (x) and the
image distance (y) are measured with reference to the
focal point of the lens. The 𝑦 − 𝑥 plot is shown in figure.
The focal length of the lens is____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

47. Light from a point source in air falls on a convex curved surface of radius 20 cm
and refractive index 1.5. If the source is located at 100 cm from the convex
surface, the image will be formed at ________ cm from the object
For Solution – Click Here

48. The distance between object and its 3 times magnified virtual image as produced
by a convex lens is 20 cm. The focal length of the lens used is _____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

49. The graph between 1/u and 1/v for a thin convex lens in
order to determine its focal length is plotted as shown in
the figure. The refractive index of length is 1.5 and its
both the surfaces have same radius of curvatures R. The
value of R will be _____ cm.
(Where u = object distance, v = image distance)
For Solution – Click Here
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50. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is placed in front of convex mirror with
principal axis coinciding each other. The distance between the lens and mirror
is 10 cm. A point object is placed on principal axis at a distance of 60 cm from
the convex lens. The image formed by combination coincides the object itself.
The focal length of the convex mirror is _____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

51. In the given figure, the face AC of the equilateral prism

is immersed in a liquid of refractive index ' n '. For
incident angle 60∘ at the side AC, the refracted light
beam just grazes along face AC. The refractive index of
√x
the liquid n = . The value of x is _____ .
4
(Given refractive index of glass = 1.5)
For Solution – Click Here

52. A parallel beam of light is allowed to fall on a transparent spherical globe of

diameter 30 cm and refractive index 1.5. The distance from the centre of the
globe at which the beam of light can converge is _____ mm.
For Solution – Click Here

53. Two identical thin biconvex lenses of focal length 15 cm and refractive index 1.5
are in contact with each other. The space between the lenses is filled with a
liquid of refractive index 1.25. The focal length of the combination is _____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

54. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence 60∘ on the glass slab of
refractive index √3. After refraction, the light ray emerges out from other parallel
faces and lateral shift between incident ray and emergent ray is 4√3 cm. The
thickness of the glass slab is _____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

55. A light ray is incident, at an incident angle θ1 , on the

system of two plane mirrors M1 and M2 having an
inclination angle 75∘ between them (as shown in figure).
After reflecting from mirror M1 it gets reflected back by
the mirror M2 with an angle of reflection 30∘ . The total
deviation of the ray will be _____ degree.
For Solution – Click Here

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56. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of
√7 m. The refractive index of water is 4/3. The area of the surface of water
through which light from the bulb can emerge out is xπm2 . The value of x is _____
For Solution – Click Here

57. A thin prism of angle 6∘ and refractive index for yellow

light (nY )1.5 is combined with another prism of angle 5∘
and nY = 1.55. The combination produces no dispersion.
The net average deviation (δ) produced by the
combination is (1/x)∘ . The value of x is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

58. The X − Y plane be taken as the boundary between two transparent media M1
and M2 . M1 in Z ≥ 0 has a refractive index of √2 and M2 with Z < 0 has a
refractive index of √3. A ray of light travelling in M1 along the direction given by
the vector ⃗A = 4√3î − 3√3ĵ − 5k̂, is incident on the plane of separation. The value
of difference between the angle of incident in M1 and the angle of refraction in
M2 will be _____ degree.
For Solution – Click Here

59. In an experiment with a convex lens. The plot of the image distance (v') against
the object distance ( μ ') measured from the focus gives a curve v ′ μ′ = 225. If all
the distances are measured in cm. The magnitude of the focal length of the lens
is _____ cm.
For Solution – Click Here

60. An object 'o' is placed at a distance of 100 cm in front of a

concave mirror of radius of curvature 200 cm as shown in the
figure. The object starts moving towards the mirror at a speed
2 cm/s. The position of the image from the mirror after 10 s will be at _____ cm.

For Solution – Click Here

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61. In the diagram given below, there are three lenses formed. Considering
negligible thickness of each of them as compared to [R1] and [R2], i.e., the radii
of curvature for upper and lower surfaces of the glass lens, the power of the
combination is

1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) − (|R | + |R |) (B) − (|R | − |R |)
6 1 2 6 1 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
(C) (|R | + |R |) (D) (|R | − |R |)
6 1 2 6 1 2
For Solution – Click Here

62. Given is a thin convex lens of glass (refractive index m) and each side having
radius of curvature R. One side is polished for complete reflection. At what
distance from the lens, an object be placed on the optic axis so that the image
gets formed on the object itself.
(A) R/m (B) R/(2m–3) (C) mR (D) R/(2m–1)
For Solution – Click Here

63. The driver sitting inside a parked car is watching vehicles approaching from
behind with the help of his side view mirror, which is a convex mirror with
radius of curvature R = 2 m. Another car approaches him from behind with a
uniform speed of 90 km/hr. When the car is at a distance of 24 m from him,
the magnitude of the acceleration of the image of the side view mirror is ‘a’.
The value of 100a is ______ m/s2.
Ans. 8
For Solution – Click Here

64. A symmetric thin biconvex lens is cut into four equal parts by two planes AB
and CD as shown in figure. If the power of original lens is 4D then the power
of a part of the divided lens is

(1) 8D (2) 4D (3) D (4) 2D

For Solution – Click Here

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65. Given a thin convex lens (refractive index
μ2 ), kept⁡in⁡a⁡liquid⁡(refractive⁡index⁡μ1 , μ1 < μ2 )⁡having⁡radii⁡of⁡curvature⁡|R1 |⁡and⁡|R 2 |.
Its second surface is silver polished. Where should an object be placed on the
optic axis so that a real and inverted image is formed at the same place?
μ1 |R1 |⋅|R2 | μ1 |R1 |⋅|R2 |
(1) (2)
μ2 (|R1 |+|R2 |)−μ1 |R1 | μ2 (|R1 |+|R2 |)−μ1 |R2 |
μ1 |R1 |⋅|R2 | (μ2 +μ1 )|R1 |
(3) (4)
μ2 (2|R1 |+|R2 |)−μ1 √|R1 |⋅|R2 | (μ2 −μ1 )
For Solution – Click Here

66. A spherical surface of radius of curvature R, separates air from glass

(refractive index = 1.5). The centre of curvature is in the glass medium. A point
object ‘O’ placed in air on the optic axis of the surface, so that its real image is
formed at ‘I’ inside glass. The line OI intersects the spherical surface at P and
PO = PI. The distance PO equals to-
(1) 5R (2) 3R (3) 2R (4) 1.5R
For Solution – Click Here

67. What is the lateral shift of a ray refracted through a parallel-sided glass slab of
thickness 'h′⁡in⁡terms⁡of⁡the⁡angle⁡of⁡incidence⁡′i′⁡and⁡angle⁡of⁡refraction⁡′r', if the glass
slab is placed in air medium ?
htan⁡(i−r) hcos⁡(i−r) hsin⁡(i−r)
(1) (2) (3) h (4)
tan⁡ r sin⁡ r cos⁡ r
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68. A concave mirror of focal length f⁡in⁡air⁡is⁡dipped⁡in⁡a⁡liquid⁡of⁡refractive⁡index⁡μ. Its

focal length in the liquid will be :
f f
(A) (B)⁡(μ−1) (C)⁡μf (D)⁡f
μ
For Solution – Click Here

69. The refractive index of the material of a glass prism is √3. The angle of
minimum deviation is equal to the angle of the prism. What is the angle of the
prism?
(A) 50∘ (B) 60∘ (C)⁡58∘ (D)⁡48∘
For Solution – Click Here

70. A thin plano convex lens made of glass of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a
liquid of refractive index 1.2. When the plane side of the lens is silver coated
for complete reflection, the lens immersed in the liquid behaves like a concave
mirror of focal length 0.2 m. The radius of curvature of the curved surface of
the lens is :-
(1) 0.15 m (2) 0.10 m (3) 0.20 m (4) 0.25 m
For Solution – Click Here

210 | P a g e
71. A plano-convex lens having radius of curvature of first surface 2 cm exhibits
focal length of f1 ⁡in air. Another plano-convex lens with first surface radius of
curvature 3 cm has focal length of⁡f2 ⁡when it is immersed in a liquid of
refractive index 1.2. If both the lenses are made of same⁡glass of refractive
index 1.5 , the ratio of⁡f1 ⁡and⁡f2 will be :-
(1) 3: 5 (2) 1: 3 (3) 1: 2 (4) 2: 3
For Solution – Click Here

72. What is the relative decrease in focal length of a lens for an increase in optical
power by 0.1 D from 2.5 D ? ['D' stands for dioptre]
(1) 0.04 (2) 0.40 (3) 0.1 (4) 0.01
For Solution – Click Here

73. A photograph of a landscape is captured by a drone camera at a height of 18

km. The size of the camera film is 2 cm × 2 cm and the area of the landscape
photographed is 400 km2. The focal length of the lens in the drone camera is :
(1) 1.8 cm (2) 2.8 cm (3) 2.5 cm (4) 0.9 cm
For Solution – Click Here

74. A hemispherical vessel is completely filled with a liquid of refractive index m. A

small coin is kept at the lowest point (O) of the vessel as shown in figure. The
minimum value of the refractive index of the liquid so that a person can see
the coin from point E (at the level of the vessel) is______.

3 √3
(1) √3 (2) (3) √2 (4)
2 2
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75. A thin prism P1 ⁡with angle⁡4∘ ⁡made of glass having refractive index⁡1.54⁡,⁡is
combined with another thin prism⁡P2 ⁡made of glass having refractive
index⁡1.72⁡to get dispersion without deviation. The angle of the prism⁡P2 in
degrees is
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 16/3 (4) 1.5
For Solution – Click Here

76. In a long glass tube, mixture of two liquids A and B with refractive indices 1.3
and 1.4 respectively, forms a convex refractive meniscus towards A . If an
object placed at 13 cm from the vertex of the meniscus in A forms an image
with a magnification of ‘–2’ then the radius of curvature of meniscus is :
1 2 4
(1) 1 cm (2) cm (3) cm (4) cm
3 3 3
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211 | P a g e
77. A concave mirror produces an image of an object such that the distance
between the object and image is 20 cm. If the magnification of the image is '–
3', then the magnitude of the radius of curvature of the mirror is :
(1) 3.75 cm (2) 30 cm (3) 7.5 cm (4) 15 cm
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 D 2 C 3 C 4 A 5 A 6 D 7 A
8 A 9 B 10 A 11 A 12 A 13 C 14 B
15 A 16 B 17 B 18 B 19 A 20 A 21 C
22 B 23 B 24 B 25 B 26 D 27 120 28 B
29 B 30 32 31 C 32 41 33 5 34 54 35 30
36 3 37 30 38 98 39 D 40 18 41 B 42 34
43 4 44 31 45 10 46 20 47 200 48 15 49 10
50 10 51 27 52 225 53 10 54 12 55 210 56 9
57 4 58 15 59 15 60 400 61 B 62 D 63 8
64 D 65 B 66 A 67 D 68 D 69 B 70 B
71 B 72 A 73 A 74 C 75 B 76 C 77 D

212 | P a g e
 Wave Optics
1. In young's double slit experiment, the fringe width is 12 mm. If the entire arrangement is placed
in water of refractive index 4/3, then the fringe width becomes (in mm)
(A) 16 (B) 9 (C) 48 (D) 12
For Solution – Click Here

2. Two coherent sources of light interfere. The intensity ratio of two sources is 1: 4. For this
𝐼max +𝐼min 2𝛼+1 𝛼
interference pattern if the value of is equal to , then will be:
𝐼max −𝐼min 𝛽+3 𝛽
(A) 1.5 (B) 2 (C) 0.5 (D) 1
For Solution – Click Here

3. An unpolarised light beam of intensity 2I0 is passed through a polaroid P and then through
another polaroid Q which is oriented in such a way that its passing axis makes an angle of 30∘
relative to that of P. The intensity of the emergent light is
I0 I0 3I0 3I0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 2 4 2
For Solution – Click Here

4. The two light beams having intensities I and 9I interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen.
The phase difference between the beams is π/2 at point P and π at point Q. Then the difference
between the resultant intensities at P and Q will be:
(A) 2I (B) 6I (C) 5I (D) 7I
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5. Two light beams of intensities in the ratio of 9: 4 are allowed to interfere. The ratio of the
intensity of maxima and minima will be:
(A) 2: 3 (B) 16: 81 (C) 25: 169 (D) 25 : 1
For Solution – Click Here

6. The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio 4: 1. And
Imax +Imin 5
the ratio is is . Then, the value of x will be equal to:
Imax −Imin x
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1
For Solution – Click Here

7. In free space, an electromagnetic wave of 3GHz frequency strikes over the edge of an object of
size 𝜆/100, where 𝜆 is the wavelength of the wave in free space. The phenomenon, which
happens there will be:
(A) Reflection (B) Refraction
(C) Diffraction (D) Scattering
For Solution – Click Here
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8. In young's double slit experiment performed using a monochromatic light of wavelength λ,
when a glass plate (μ = 1.5) of thickness xλ is introduced in the path of the one of the
interfering beams, the intensity at the position where the central maximum occurred previously
remains unchanged. The value of x will be:
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1.5 (D) 0.5
For Solution – Click Here

9. Using Young's double slit experiment, a monochromatic light of wavelength 5000Å produces
fringes of fringe width 0.5 mm. If another monochromatic light of wavelength 6000Å is used
and the separation between the slits is doubled, then the new fringe width will be :
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 1.0 mm (C) 0.6 mm (D) 0.3 mm
For Solution – Click Here

10. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on the screen in a Young's double slit experiment
where phase difference between two wave of same amplitude are 𝜋/3 and 𝜋/2, respectively are
(A) 1: 3 (B) 3: 1 (C) 3: 2 (D) 2: 3
For Solution – Click Here

11. In a Young's double slits experiment, the ratio of amplitude of light coming from slits is 2: 1. The
ratio of the maximum to minimum intensity in the interference pattern is :
(A) 9: 4 (B) 9: 1 (C) 2: 1 (D) 25: 9
For Solution – Click Here

12. In Young's double slit experiment, light from two identical sources are superimposing on a screen.
The path difference between the two lights reaching at a point on the screen is 7λ/4. The ratio of
intensity of fringe at this point with respect to the maximum intensity of the fringe is:
3 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 3 2
For Solution – Click Here

13. The diffraction pattern of a light of wavelength 400 nm diffracting from a slit of width 0.2 mm
is focused on the focal plane of a convex lens of focal length 100 cm. The width of the 1st
secondary maxima will be :
(A) 2 mm (B) 2 cm (C) 0.02 mm (D) 0.2 mm
For Solution – Click Here

14. A monochromatic light of wavelength 6000Å is incident on the single slit of width 0.01 mm. If
the diffraction pattern is formed at the focus of the convex lens of focal length 20 cm, the linear
width of the central maximum is :
(A) 12 mm (B) 60 mm (C) 120 mm (D) 24 mm
For Solution – Click Here

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15. A microwave of wavelength 2.0 cm falls normally on a slit of width 4.0 cm. The angular spread
of the central maxima of the diffraction pattern obtained on a screen 1.5 m away from the slit,
will be:
(A) 45∘ (B) 30∘ (C) 15∘ (D) 60∘
For Solution – Click Here

16. A single slit of width a is illuminated by a monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm. The value
of ' a ' for which first minimum appears at θ = 30∘ on the screen will be :
(A) 0.6μm (B) 1.2μm (C) 1.8μm (D) 3μm
For Solution – Click Here

17. In Young's double slits experiment, the position of 5th bright fringe from the central maximum is
5 cm. The distance between slits and screen is 1 m and wavelength of used monochromatic light
is 600 nm. The separation between the slits is:
(A) 60μm (B) 48μm (C) 12μm (D) 36μm
For Solution – Click Here

18. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : If the Brewster's angle for the light propagating from air to glass is θB , then
π
Brewster's angle for the light propagating from glass to air is − θB . Statement II : The
2
Brewster's angle for the light propagating from glass to air is tan−1 ⁡(μg ) where μg is the
refractive index of glass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) Both Statements I and Statement II are true.
(B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
For Solution – Click Here

19. In a Young's double slit experiment, two slits are illuminated with a light of wavelength
800 nm. The line joining A1 P is perpendicular to A1 A2 as shown in the figure. If the first
minimum is detected at 𝑃, the value of slits separation ' 𝑎 ' will be :
The distance of screen from slits D = 5 cm
(A) 0.4 mm
(B) 0.5 mm
(C) 0.2 mm
(D) 0.1 mm
For Solution – Click Here

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20. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: The beam of electrons shows wave nature and exhibit interference and diffraction.
Reason R : Davisson Germer Experimentally verified the wave nature of electrons.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(A) A is correct but R is not correct
(B) A is not correct but R is correct
(C) Both A and R are correct but R is Not the correct explanation of A
(D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
For Solution – Click Here

21. In Young's double slit experiment, two slits S1 and S2 are ' d ' distance apart and the separation
from slits to screen is D (as shown in figure). Now if two transparent slabs of equal thickness
0.1 mm but refractive index 1.51 and 1.55 are introduced in the path of beam (λ = 4000Å)
from S1 and S2 respectively. The central bright fringe spot will shift by _____ number of
fringes.

For Solution – Click Here

22. As shown in the figure, in Young's double slit experiment, a thin plate of thickness t = 10μm and
refractive index μ = 1.2 is inserted infront of slit S1 . The experiment is conducted in air (μ = 1)
and uses a monochromatic light of wavelength λ = 500 nm. Due to the insertion of the plate,
central maxima is shifted by a distance of xβ0 . β0 is the fringe-width before the insertion of the
plate. The value of the x is _____ .

For Solution – Click Here

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 λ λ
23. In a Young's double slit experiment, the intensities at two points, for the path difference and
4 3
( λ being the wavelength of light used) are I1 and I2 respectively. If I0 denotes the intensity
I1 +I2
produced by each one of the individual slits, then = ______ .
I0

For Solution – Click Here

24. Unpolarised light of intensity 32Wm−2 passes through the combination of three polaroids such
that the pass axis of the last polaroid is perpendicular to that of the pass axis of first polaroid. If
intensity of emerging light is 3Wm−2 , then the angle between pass axis of first two polaroids is
_____ ∘ .
For Solution – Click Here

25. In a single slit diffraction pattern, a light of wavelength 6000Å is used. The distance between the
first and third minima in the diffraction pattern is found to be 3 mm when the screen in placed
50 cm away from slits. The width of the slit is ______ × 10−4 m.
For Solution – Click Here

26. Two waves of intensity ratio 1:9 cross each other at a point. The resultant intensities at that
point, when (a) Waves are incoherent is I1 (b) Waves are coherent is I2 and differ in phase by
I1 10
60∘ . If = then x = ______.
I2 x

For Solution – Click Here

27. In Young's double slit experiment, monochromatic light of wavelength 5000Å is used. The slits
are 1.0 mm apart and screen is placed at 1.0 m away from slits. The distance from the centre of
the screen where intensity becomes half of the maximum intensity for the first time is _______
× 10−6 m.
For Solution – Click Here

28. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000Å is incident normally on a single
narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focused by convex lens on screen, placed on its focal
plane. The first minima will be formed for the angle of diffraction of ______ (degree).
For Solution – Click Here

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29. In a double slit experiment shown in figure, when light of wavelength 400 nm is used, dark fringe
is observed at P. If D = 0.2 m, the minimum distance between the slits S1 and S2 is _______ mm

For Solution – Click Here

30. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 7000Å and 5500Å is used to obtain interference
pattern in Young's double slit experiment. The distance between the slits is 2.5 mm and the
distance between the plane of slits and the screen is 150 cm. The least distance from the central
fringe, where the bright fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide, is n × 10−5 m. The value
of n is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

31. Sodium light of wavelengths 650 nm and 655 nm is used to study diffraction at a single slit of
aperture 0.5 mm. The distance between the slit and the screen is 2.0 m. The separation between
the positions of the first maxima of diffraction pattern obtained in the two cases is _____
× 10−5 m.
For Solution – Click Here

32. In Young's double slit experiment the two slits are 0.6 mm distance apart. Interference pattern is
observed on a screen at a distance 80 cm from the slits. The first dark fringe is observed on the
screen directly opposite to one of the slits. The wavelength of light will be _____ nm.
For Solution – Click Here

33. In a Young's double slit experiment, an angular width of the fringe is 0.35∘ on a screen placed at
2 m away for particular wavelength of 450 nm. The angular width of the fringe, when whole
system is immersed in a medium of refractive index 7/5, is 1/α. The value of α is _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

34. In a double slit experiment with monochromatic light, fringes are obtained on a screen placed at
some distance from the plane of slits. If the screen is moved by 5 × 10−2 m towards the slits,
the change in fringe width is 3 × 10−3 cm. If the distance between the slits is 1 mm, then the
wavelength of the light will be _____ nm.
For Solution – Click Here

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35. Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen.
The phase difference between the two beams are π/2 and π/3 at points A and B respectively. The
difference between the resultant intensities at the two points is xI. The value of x will be _____ .
For Solution – Click Here

36. In a Young's double slit experiment, a laser light of 560 nm produces an interference pattern with
consecutive bright fringes' separation of 7.2 mm . Now another light is used to produce an
interference pattern with consecutive bright fringes' separation of 8.1 mm. The wavelength of
second light is _____ nm.
For Solution – Click Here

37. Two light beams of intensities 4I and 9I interfere on a screen. The phase difference between these
beams on the screen at point A is zero and at point B is π. The difference of resultant intensities,
at the point A and B, will be _____ I.
For Solution – Click Here

38. A microscope was initially placed in air (refractive index 1). It is then immersed in oil (refractive
index 2). For a light whose wavelength in air is 𝜆, calculate the change of microscope's resolving
power due to oil and choose the correct option
(A) Resolving power will be 1/4 in the oil than it was in the air
(B) Resolving power will be twice in the oil than it was in the air.
(C) Resolving power will be four times in the oil than it was in the air.
(D) Resolving power will be 1/2 in the oil than it was in the air.
For Solution – Click Here

39. A scientist is observing a bacteria through a compound microscope. For better analysis and to
improve its resolving power he should. (Select the best option)
(A) Increase the wave length of the light
(B) Increase the refractive index of the medium between the object and objective lens
(C) Decrease the focal length of the eye piece
(D) Decrease the diameter of the objective lens
For Solution – Click Here

40. The aperture of the objective is 24.4 cm. The resolving power of this telescope. If a light of
wavelength 2440Å is used to see the object will be
(A) 8.1 × 106 (B) 10.0 × 107 (C) 8.2 × 105 (D) 1.0 × 10−8
For Solution – Click Here

219 | P a g e
 ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 B 2 B 3 C 4 B 5 D 6 B 7 D
8 B 9 D 10 C 11 2 12 D 13 A 14 D
15 D 16 B 17 A 18 B 19 C 20 D 21 10
22 D 23 C 24 30 25 2 26 13 27 125 28 30
29 0.20 30 462 31 3 32 450 33 4 34 600 35 2
36 630 37 24 38 C 39 B 40 C

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 EM waves
1. A plane electromagnetic waves travels in a medium of relative permeability 1.61 and relative
permittivity 6.44. If magnitude of magnetic intensity is 4.5 × 10−2 Am−1 at a point, what will be
the approximate magnitude of electric field intensity at that point?
(Given: Permeability of free space μ0 = 4π × 10−7 NA−2 , speed of light in vacuum c =
3 × 108 ms −1 )
(A) 16.96Vm−1 (B) 2.25 × 10−2 Vm−1 (C) 8.48Vm−1 (D) 6.75 × 106 Vm−1
For Solution – Click Here

2. An electric bulb is rated as 200 W. What will be the peak magnetic field at 4 m distance produced
by the radiations coming from this bulb? Consider this bulb as a point source with 3.5%
efficiency.
(A) 1.19 × 10−8 T (B) 1.71 × 10−8 T (C) 0.84 × 10−8 T (D) 3.36 × 10−8 T
For Solution – Click Here

3. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by

E = 56.5sin⁡ ω(t − x/c)NC−1 .
Find the intensity of the wave if it is propagating along x-axis in the free space.
(Given ϵ0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2 N −1 m−2 )
(A) 5.65Wm−2 (B) 4.24Wm−2 (C) 1.9 × 10−7 Wm−2 (D) 56.5Wm−2
For Solution – Click Here

4. The electromagnetic waves travel in a medium at a speed of 2.0 × 108 m/s . The relative
permeability of the medium is 1.0. The relative permittivity of the medium will be:
(A) 2.25 (B) 4.25 (C) 6.25 (D) 8.25
For Solution – Click Here

5. If electric field intensity of a uniform plane electromagnetic wave is given as

V
E = −301.6sin⁡(kz − ωt)âx + 452.4sin⁡(kz − ωt)ây .
m
−1
Then, magnetic intensity ' H ' of this wave in Am will be:
[Given: Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms −1 ,
Permeability of vacuum μ0 = 4π × 10−7 NA−2 ]
(A) +0.8 sin(kz − ωt) ây + 0.8 sin(kz − ωt) âx
(B) +1.0 × 10−6 sin⁡(kz − ωt)ây + 1.5 × 10−6 sin⁡(kz − ωt)âx
(C) −0.8sin⁡(kz − ωt)ây − 1.2sin⁡(kz − ωt)âx
(D) −1.0 × 10−6 sin⁡(kz − ωt)ây − 1.5 × 10−6 sin⁡(kz − ωt)âx
For Solution – Click Here

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6. A metallic conductor of length 1 m rotates in a vertical plane parallel to east-west direction about
one of its end with angular velocity 5 rads −1 . If the horizontal component of earth's magnetic
field is 0.2 × 10−4 T, then emf induced between the two ends of the conductor is:
(A) 5μV (B) 50μV (C) 5mV (D) 50mV
For Solution – Click Here

7. For a specific wavelength 670 nm of light from a galaxy moving with velocity v, the observed
wavelength is 670.7 nm. The value of v is:
(A) 3 × 108 ms −1 (B) 3 × 1010 ms −1
(C) 3.13 × 105 ms −1 (D) 4.48 × 105 ms −1
For Solution – Click Here

8. Match List-I with List - II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
List - I List - II
(A) Ultraviolet rays (i) Study crystal
structure
(B) Microwaves (ii) Greenhouse effect
(C) Infrared waves (iii) Sterilizing surgical
instrument
(D) X-rays (iv) Radar system
(A) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) (B) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(C) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) (D) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
For Solution – Click Here

9. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : A time varying electric field is a source of changing magnetic field and vice-versa.
Thus a disturbance in electric or magnetic field creates EM waves.
1
Statement II : In a material medium. The EM wave travels with speed v = .
√𝜇0 𝜀0

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(B) Both statement I and statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true.
For Solution – Click Here

222 | P a g e
10. A radar sends an electromagnetic signal of electric field (E0 ) = 2.25 V/m and magnetic field
(B0 ) = 1.5 × 10−8 T which strikes a target on line of sight at a distance of 3 km in a medium.
After that, a pail of signal (echo) reflects back towards the radar vitli same velocity and by same
path. If the signal was transmitted at time t 0 from radar. then after how much time echo will reach
to the radar?
(A) 2.0 × 10−5 s (B) 4.0 × 10−5 s (C) 1.0 × 10−5 s (D) 8.0 × 10−5 s
For Solution – Click Here

ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 C 2 B 3 B 4 A 5 C 6 B 7 C
8 A 9 C 10 B

223 | P a g e
 Semiconductors
1. In the figure, potential difference between A and B is :
(A) 15 V (B) zero
(C) 10V (D) 5V
For Solution – Click Here

2. Both the diodes used in the circuit shown are assumed to be ideal and have
negligible resistance when these are forward
biased. Built in potential in each diode is 0.7
V. For the input voltages shown in the figure,
the voltage (in volts) at point A is ……… .
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 14
For Solution – Click Here

3. The current i in the network is :

(A) 0.2A (B) 0.3A
(C) 0A (D) 0.6A
For Solution – Click Here

4. The circuit shown below is working as a 8V dc regulated

voltage source. When 12V is used as input, the power
dissipated (in mW) in each diode is; (considering both
zener diodes are identical) __________.
(A) 20 (B) 30
(C) 40 (D) 50
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5. Ge and Si diodes start conducting at 0.3 V and 0.7 V

respectively. In the following figure if Ge diode
connection are reversed, the value of V0 changes by :
(assume that the Ge diode has large breakdown
voltage)
(A) 0.6 V (B) 0.8 V (C) 0.4 V
(D) 0.2 V
For Solution – Click Here

6. For the circuit shown below, the current through the Zener diode is:
(A) 5 mA
(B) Zero
(C) 14 mA
(D) 9 MA
For Solution – Click Here
224 | P a g e
7. In the given circuit the current through Zener
Diode is close to:
(A) 0.0 mA (B) 6.7 mA
(C) 4.0 mA (D) 6.0 Ma
For Solution – Click Here

8. The circuit shown below contains two ideal diodes, each with
a forward resistance of 50 W. If the battery voltage is 6V, the
current through the 100W resistance (in Amperes) is:
(A) 0.036 (B) 0.020 (C) 0.027 (D) 0.030
For Solution – Click Here

9. The reverse breakdown voltage of a Zener diode is 5.6 V in

the given circuit. The current Iz through the Zener is:
(A) 7mA (B) 15mA (C) 10mA (D) 17mA
For Solution – Click Here

10. The figure represents a voltage regulator circuit using a

Zener diode. The breakdown voltage of the zener diode is
6V and the load resistance is RL = 4kW. The series
resistance of the circuit is Ri = 1kW. If the battery voltage
VB varies from 8V to 16V.what are the minimum and
maximum values of the current through zener diode?
(A) 0.5mA; 8.5mA (B) 1.5m A; 8.5mA
(C) 0.5mA; 6mA (D) 1mA; 8.5MA
For Solution – Click Here

11. The reading of the ammeter for a silicon diode in the given
circuit is
(A) 0 (B) 15 mA
(C) 11.5 mA (D) 13.5 mA
For Solution – Click Here

12. In the given circuit, the current through zener diode is

(A) 6.7 mA
(B) 3.3 mA
(C) 2.5 mA
(D) 5.5 mA
For Solution – Click Here

225 | P a g e
13. What is the conductivity of semiconductor sample having electron concentration
of 5 × 1018 m–3, hole concentration of 5 × 1019 m–3, electron mobility of 2.0 m2V–
1s–1 and hole mobility of 0.01 m2 V–1 s–1?
(Take charge of electron as 1.6 × 10–19 C)
(A) 1.83 (Ω-m)–1 (B) 1.68 (Ω-m)–1 (C) 1.20 (Ω-m)–1 (D) 0.59 (Ω-m)–1
For Solution – Click Here

14. Identify the semiconductor devices whose characteristics are given below, in the
order (i), (ii), (iii), (iv):

(A) Simple diode, Zener diode, Solar cell, Light dependent resistance
(B) Zener diode, Simple diode, Light dependent resistance, Solar cell
(C) Solar cell, Light dependent resistance, Zener diode, Simple diode
(D) Zener diode, Solar cell, Simple diode, Light dependent resistance
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15. A 2 V battery is connected across AB as shown in the figure.

The value of the current supplied by the battery when in one
case battery’s positive terminal is connected to A and in
other case when positive terminal of battery is connected to
B will respectively be
(A) 0.2 A and 0.1 A (B) 0.4 A and 0.2 A
(C) 0.1 A and 0.2 A (D) 0.2 A and 0.4 A
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16. The I-V Characteristic of an LED is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

226 | P a g e
17. The circuit has two oppositely connect ideal diodes in parallel. What is the
current flowing in the circuit ?
(A) 1.33 A
(B) 1.71 A
(C) 2.00 A
(D) 2.31 A
For Solution – Click Here

18. The resistivity (𝜌) of semiconductor varies with temperature. Which of the
following curve represents the correct behaviour

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

19. The effect of increase in temperature on the number of electrons in conduction

band (ne ) and resistance of a semiconductor will be as:
(A) Both ne and resistance decrease
(B) Both ne and resistance increase
(C) ne increases, resistance decreases
(D) ne decreases, resistance increases
For Solution – Click Here

20. Match the List I with List II

List I List II

A. Intrinsic Semiconductor I. Fermi-level nearconduction band

B. n-type semiconductor II. Fermi-level atmiddle

C. p-type semiconductor III. Fermi-level near valence band

D. Metals IV. Fermi-level insideconduction band

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (A)→I, (B)→II, (C)→III, (D)→IV (B) (A)→II, (B)→I, (C)→III, (D)→IV
(C) (A)→II, (B)→III, (C)→I, (D)→IV (D) (A)→III, (B)→I, (C)→II, (D)→IV
For Solution – Click Here
227 | P a g e
21. Which of the following circuits is reverse - biased?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

For Solution – Click Here

22. Choose the correct statement about Zener diode:

(A) It works as a voltage regulator in reverse bias and behaves like simple pn
junction diode in forward bias.
(B) It works as a voltage regulator in both forward and reverse bias.
(C) It works a voltage regulator only in forward bias.
(D) It works as a voltage regulator in forward bias and behaves like simple pn
junction diode in reverse bias.
For Solution – Click Here

23. In the given circuit, the breakdown voltage of the Zener

diode is 3.0 V. What is the value of Iz ?
(A) 10 mA (B) 7 mA
(C) 5.5 mA (D) 3.3 mA
For Solution – Click Here

24. A Zener diode of breakdown voltage 10 V is used as a

voltage regulator as shown in the figure. The current
through the Zener diode is :
(A) 50 mA (B) 20 mA
(C) 0 (D) 30 mA
For Solution – Click Here

25. A zener diode of power rating 1.6 W is to be used as voltage regulator. If the zener
diode has a breakdown of 8 V and it has to regulate voltage fluctuating between
3 V and 10 V. The value of resistance R S for safe operation of diode will be :
(A) 13.3Ω
(B) 12Ω
(C) 10Ω
(D) 13Ω
For Solution – Click Here

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26. If each diode has a forward bias resistance of 25Ω in
the below circuit, Which of the following options is
correct:
I3 I2
(A) =1 (B) =1
I4 I3
I1 I1
(C) =1 (D) =2
I2 I2
For Solution – Click Here

27. Conductivity of a photodiode starts changing only if the wavelength of incident

X
light is less than 660 nm. The band gap of photodiode is found to be ( ) eV. The
8
value of X is : (Given, h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C)
(A) 21 (B) 11 (C) 13 (D) 15
For Solution – Click Here

28. Which of the following statement is not correct in the case of light emitting
diodes?
A. It is a heavily doped p-n junction.
B. It emits light only when it is forward biased.
C. It emits light only when it is reverse biased.
D. The energy of the light emitted is equal to or slightly less than the energy gap
of the semiconductor used.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) C and D (B) A (C) C (D) B
For Solution – Click Here

29. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R Assertion A : Photodiodes are preferably operated in
reverse bias condition for light intensity measurement.
Reason R : The current in the forward bias is more than the current in the
reverse bias for a p − n junction diode.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(A) A is false but R is true
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
For Solution – Click Here

229 | P a g e
30. Given below are two statements : one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is
labeled as Reason R
Assertion A: Photodiodes are used in forward bias usually for measuring the
light intensity.
Reason R: For a p-n junction diode, at applied voltage V the current in the
forward bias is more than the current in the reverse bias for |Vz | > ±V ≥ |V0 |
where Vo is the threshold voltage and Vz is the breakdown voltage.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below
(A) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation A
(C) A is false but R is true
(D) A is true but R is false
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31. In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C represents the output.
The circuit represents
(A) OR gate
(B) NOT gate
(C) AND gate
(D) NAND gate
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32. The logic circuit shown below has the input waveforms ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown.
Pick out the correct output waveform. Output is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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33. The combination of gates shown below yields

(A) NAND gate (B) OR gate
(C) NOT gate (D) XOR
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34. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in figure is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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35. To get an output of 1 from the circuit shown in figure the input must be
(A) a = 0, b = 0, c = 1
(B) a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
(C) a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
(D) a = 0, b = 1, c = 0
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36. The truth table given in figure represents

(A) OR-Gate (B) NAND - Gate
(C) AND - Gate (D) NOR- Gate
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37. If a, b, c, d are inputs to a gate and x is its output then, as

per the following time graph, the gate is
(A) NOT (B) AND
(C) OR (D) NAND
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38. Truth table for the following digital circuit will be

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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39. The truth table for the circuit given in the figure is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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40. The output of the given logic circuit is:

̅+A
(A) AB ̅B
(B) AB + ̅̅̅̅
AB
̅
(C) AB
̅B
(D) A
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41. Which of the following gives a reversible operation ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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42. Boolean relation at the output stage-Y for the following circuit is:

̅+B
(A) A ̅ ̅. B
(B) A ̅ (C) A.B (D) A + B
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43. In the given circuit, value of Y is :

(A) toggles between 0 and 1
(B) 0
(C) will not execute
(D) 1
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44. The truth table for this given circuit is :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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45. The output of the given circuit diagram is-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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46. The truth table of the given circuit diagram is:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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47. The logic gate equivalent to the given circuit diagram is :

(A) OR (B) NAND
(C) NOR (D) AND
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48. Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram attached
(A) OR
(B) NOR
(C) NAND
(D) AND
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49. For the logic circuit shown, the output waveform at Y is:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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50. For the given logic gates combination, the correct truth table will be

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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51. Which of the following circuits represents a forward biased diode ?

(A) (B) (C)

(D) (E)
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 Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) (B), (D) and (E) only (B) (A) and (D) only
(C) (B), (C) and (E) only (D) (C) and (E) only
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52. To obtain the given truth table, following logic gate should be placed at G :

(1) NOR Gate (2) AND Gate (3) NAND Gate (4) OR Gate
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53. Refer to the circuit diagram given in the figure, which of the following observation are correct?
A. Total resistance of circuit is 6 W.
B. Current in Ammeter is 1A
C. Potential across AB is 4 Volts.
D. Potential across CD is 4 Volts.
E. Total resistance of the circuit is 8W.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B and D only (2) A, C and D only (3) B, C and E only (4) A, B and C only
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54. What is the current through the battery in the circuit shown below?

(A) 1.0 A (B) 1.5 A (C) 0.5 A (D) 0.25 A

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55. Consider the following statements :
A. The junction area of solar cell is made very narrow compared to a photo diode.
B. Solar cells are not connected with any external bias.
C. LED is made of lightly doped p-n junction. D. Increase of forward current results in
continuous increase of LED light intensity.
E. LEDs have to be connected in forward bias for emission of light.
(1) B, D, E Only (2) A, C Only (3) A, C, E Only (4) B, E Only
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56. The output of the circuit is low (zero) for :

(A) X = 0, Y= 0 (B) X = 0, Y= 1 (C) X = 1, Y= 0 (D) X = 1, Y= 1
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (C) and (D) only (2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (A), (B) and (D) only
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57. Which of the following circuits has the same output as that of the given circuit?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
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58. In the circuit shown here, assuming threshold voltage of diode is negligibly small, then voltage
VAB is correctly represented by :

(1) VAB would be zero at all times (B)

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 (C) (D)
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ANSWER KEY
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
1 C 2 B 3 B 4 C 5 D 6 D 7 A
8 B 9 C 10 A 11 C 12 B 13 B 14 A
15 B 16 B 17 C 18 B 19 C 20 C 21 C
22 A 23 C 24 D 25 C 26 D 27 D 28 C
29 B 30 C 31 A 32 A 33 B 34 D 35 C
36 A 37 C 38 A 39 B 40 C 41 D 42 B
43 B 44 B 45 C 46 C 47 B 48 B 49 D
50 B 51 C 52 A 53 A 54 C 55 D 56 C
57 A 58 D

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