SECTION-I

(Question Nos. 1-50)

GENERAL ENGLISH
(Question Nos. 1-30)

Directions (Questions 1-5): Read the following passage careful(v and answer the following
questions.
All historians are interpreters of text if they be private letters, government records or parish birth-lists
or whatever. For most kinds of historians, these are only the necessary means to understanding
something other than the texts themselves, such as a political action or a historical trend, whereas for
the intellectual historian, a full understanding of his chosen texts is itself the aim of his enquiries. Of
course, the intellectual history is particularly prone to draw on the focus of other disciplines that are
habitually interpreting texts for purposes of their own, probing the reasoning that ostensibly connects
premises and conclusions. Furthermore, the boundaries with adjacent subdisciplines are shifting and
indistinct: the history of art and the history of science both claim a certain autonomy, partly just
because they require specialised technical skills, but both can also be seen as part of a wider
intellectual history, as is evident when qne considers, for example, the common stock of knowledge
about cosmological beliefs or moral ideals of a period.
Like all historians, the intellectual historian is a consumer rather than a producer of 'methods'. His
distinctiveness lies in which aspect of the past he is trying to illuminate, not in having exclusive
possession of either a corpus of evidence or a body of techniques. That being said, it does seem that
the label 'intellectual history' attracts a disproportionate share of misunderstanding.
It is alleged that intellectual history is the history of something that never really mattered. The long
dominance of the historical profession by political historians bred a kind of philistinism, an unspoken
belief that power and its exercise was 'what mattered'. The prejudice was reinforced by the assertion
that political action was never really the outcome of principles or ideas that were 'more flapdoodle'.
The legacy of this precept is still discernible in the tendency to require ideas to have 'licensed' the
political class before they can be deemed worthy of intellectual attention, as if there were some
reasons why the history of art or science, of philosophy or literature, were somehow of interest and
significance than the history of Parties or Parliaments. Perhaps in recent years the mirror-image of
this philistinism has been more common in the claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression
or sophistication do not matter, as if they were only held by a minority.
1. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand
(1) the chosen texts of his own. (2) political actions.
(3) historical trends. (4) his enquiries.

2. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of

(1) conclusions. (2) any corpus of evidence.
(3) distinctiveness. (4) habitual interpretation.

XX-XXI / A 3
 3. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as part of
(1) literary criticism. (2) history of science.
(3) history of philosophy. (4) intellectual history.

4. What is philistinism?
( 1) Reinforcement of prejudice (2) Fabrication ofreasons
(3) The hold of land-owning classes (4) Belief that power and its exercise matter

5. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as if they were held
by a minority, is:
(1) To have a licensed political class. {2) A political action.
(3) The mirror image of philistinism. (4) A philosophy ofliterature.

Directions (Questions 6-10): Which of these words is closest in meaning to the word provided?
6. Saccharine
(1) Leave (2) Swyet (3) Arid (4) Quit

,
,t 7. Temerity
( 1) Audacity (2) Fearfulness (3) Shyness (4) Stupidity

8. Placid
(1) Calm (2) Lazy (3) Solemn (4) Devious

9. Diffident
(1) Apathetic (2) Shy (3) Arrogant (4) Quarrelsome

10. Impugn
(1) Imply (2) Fret (3) Assail (4) Recalcitrant

Directions (Questions 11-15): Which of these words is most nearly the opposite of the word
provided?
11. Impecunious
(1) Wealthy (2) Cautious {3) Hungry (4) Tardy

12. Malodorous
(1) Acrid (2) Pungent (3) Fragrant (4) Delicious

XX-XXI / A 4
13. Detain
(1) Release (2) Silence (3) Forget (4) Prosper

14. Adroit
(1) Clumsy (2) Left (3) Diplomatic (4) Unpersuasive

15. Parsimony
( 1) Generosity (2) Sinfulness (3) Verbosity (4) Tenderness

Directions (Questions 16-20) : Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
16. I have never come any one as rude as him.
(1) across (2) to (3) around (4) at

17. A fire broke in the neighbourhood.

(1) off (2) out (3) away (4) from

18. He confided me.

(1) about (2) m (3) on (4) of

19. Can I come and sit you?

(1) around (2) next (3) beside (4) along

20. I am good tennis.

(1) about (2) in (3) at (4) of

Directions (Questions 21-24): Choose the sentence which is incorrect grammatically.

21. (1) Olivia took her older sister out for lunch.
(2) Nicholas is learning to speak German.
(3) Franklin drunk three bottles of water after the game.
(4) She showed us five different shades of blue paint.

22. (1) When I go the museum, I wore comfortable shoes.

(2) She was approached, but she declined the offer.
(3) There are seven floors in this building.
(4) Josh remained conscious throughout the operation.

XX-XXI / A 5
 23. (1) The dog's barking woke us.
(2) Ursula has broke one of your plates.
(3) The sun rose from behind the mountain.
(4) The children's books are over there.

24. (1) The winners were announced yesterday.

(2) Liam is the only one of the boys who were chosen.
(3) Although Nick was not selected, he was happy for the others.
(4) We will strive to do our best.

Directions (Questions 25-28): Choose the correct spelling in questions given below.

25. (1) Sacrilegous (2) Saereligious (3) Sacrilegious (4) Sacrilegiuos

,t 26. (1) Deceive (2) Deceeve (3) Diecieve (4) Decieve

I

27. (1) Procede (2) Proceed (3) Proceede (4) Proceid

28. (1) Possessive (2) Posessive (3) Possesive (4) Posesive

Directions (Questions 29-30): Choose the explanation that best reflects the meaning of the
idiom/phrase given in each question.

29. He burnt his fingers by interfering in his neighbour's affair.

( 1) Got himself into trouble (2) Burnt himself
(3) Got himself insulted (4) Got rebuked

30. His friends failed to see why he should ride the high horse just because he had won an election.
( l ) Become abnormal (2) Appear arrogant
(3) Indulge in dreams (4) Hate others

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 GENERAL APTITUDE/ AWARENESS
(Question Nos. 31-50)

31. Who was the first Attorney General for India?

(1 ) Nani A. Palkhiwala (2) Niren Dey
(3) C. R. Daphtary (4) M. C. Setalvad

32. The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 is contended to provide differential treatment to illegal
migrants on which of the following basis?
I. Country of Origin
II. Religion
III. Date of entry into India
IV. Gender
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(1 ) II only (2) I and II only (3) I, II and III ( 4) I, II, III and IV

'
33. The committee that was set up to examine the working of the Community Development
Programme in 1957 and which made the recommendation for the democratic decentralisation
model, was headed by
( 1) Balwant Rai Mehta. (2) Jivraj Mehta.
(3) Keshav Mehta. (4) None of these

34. The maxim Salus populi suprema lex means-

(1) no man is above the law.
(2) the welfare of the people is the supreme law.
(3) every man is innocent unless proved guilty.
(4) judicial decisions must be accepted as correct and supreme.

35. The territorial waters of India extend up to

( 1) 24 nautical miles. (2) 12 nautical miles.
(3) 18 nautical miles. (4) None of these

36. Name the globally acclaimed Indian classical vocalist, recipient of Padma Shree and Padma
Vibhushan who passed away in 2020 having suffered a cardiac arrest.
(I ) Pandit Jasraj (2) Pandit Yashraj
(3) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi (4) Pandit Vishwa Mohan Bhatt

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37. On 22 April, 2020, a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court struck down a notification of the
Andhra Pradesh Governor providing 100% reservation in Scheduled Areas to teachers
belonging to Scheduled Tribes through which judgment?
(1) Chebrolu Leela Prasad Rao and Ors. v. State of AP and Ors
(2) Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v. Union of India
(3) Prathvi Raj Chauhan v. Union of India
(4) Prithvi Raj Chauhan v. State of AP. and Ors.

38. In which of the following judgments delivered in May, 2020, a review committee comprising
three members was constituted by the Supreme Court to look into the pleas seeking restoration
of 4G internet services in Jammu and Kashmir?
(1) Anuradha Bhasin v. Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir
(2) Foundations for Media Professionals v. Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir
(3) Foundations for Media Professionals v. Union of India
(4) Anuradha Bhati v. Union oflndia

'
39. has made history as the first African American woman elected to be the
- - - - - Vice President of the United States of America.
(1) Kamala Pandit, 46th
(2) Kamala Devi Harris, 49th
(3) Kamala Harris, 46th
(4) Kamala Shankar, 49th

40. Which of the following is a recent ordinance promulgated by the Uttar Pradesh State
government in order to regulate and prohibit certain types of religious conversions?
(1) UP Dharma Swatantra Adhyadesh, 2020
(2) Uttar Pradesh (UP) Prohibition of Conversion Ordinance, 2020
(3) Uttar Pradesh (UP) Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Ordinance, 2020
(4) Uttar Pradesh Freedom of Religion Ordinance, 2020

Directions (Questions 41-42): Given below are a few foreign language phrases that are commonly
used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases.
41. Ab initio
( 1) From the very beginning (2) High initiative
(3) Things done later (4) Without initiative

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42. Sine die
( 1) Without setting a fixed day
(2) By voice vote
(3) Applying mathematical concepts to solve a difficult problem
( 4) Signing legal documents before death

Directions (Questions 43-45): In the following questions, two statements are given, followed by two
conclusions, I and II. Consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Decide in each case, which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the
given statements

43. Statements:
1. Some dogs are bats.
2. Some bats are cats.
Conclusions:
I. Some dogs are cats.
II. Some cats are dogs.
(1) Only conclusion (I) follows
(2) Only conclusion (II) follows
(3) Both conclusions follow
(4) Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows

44. Statements:
1. All stars are planets.
2. All planets are galaxies.
Conclusions:
I. All galaxies are planets.
II. All stars are galaxies.
(1) Only conclusion (I) follows
(2) Only conclusion (11) follows
(3) Both conclusions follow
(4) Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows

XX-XXI / A 9
45. Statements:
1. All the windows are doors.
2. No door is a wall.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are walls.
II. No wall is a door.
(1) Only conclusion (I) follows
(2) Only conclusion (II) follows
(3) Both conclusions follow
(4) Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows

46. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

(1) MICR- Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(2) URL - Universal Resource Locator
(3) Modem - Modulator Demodulator
(4) HTML - Hyper Text Mak~g Language

47. Raminder walked 7 km towards the south and then took a right turn. After covering 3 km she
again took a right tum and walked for 4 km. Then she took a left turn and covered 2 km. Again,
she took a left tum and covered 9 km. How far is she now from the starting point?
(1) IO km (2) 13 km (3) 15 km (4) 17 km

48. Spot the pattern and complete the series.

15,23,35,51, _
(1) 71 (2) 61 (3) 65 (4) 75

Directions (Questions 49-50): In the following questions, there is a certain relationship between the
two given words on one side. One single word is given on other side. Find another word from the
given alternatives having same relation with this single given word.

49. Calendar: Dates:: Dictionary: _ _

(1) Vocabulary (2) Book (3) Language (4) Words

50. Paw: Cat : : Hoof:

(1) Rat (2) Rabbit (3) Lion (4) Horse

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 SECTION-II
(Question Nos. 51-150)

CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
(Question Nos. 51-70)

51. The prohibition of traffic in human beings and 'begar' comes under
(1) Article 22.
(2) Article 23.
(3) Article 24.
(4) Article 25.

52. The 73rd amendment to the Indian Constitution pertains to which of the following?
(1) Statehood of Delhi.
(2) Panchayati Raj.
(3) Land Refonns Law.
(4) Inclusion of Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in the Eighth Schedule.

53. By which amendment act did the Parliament lower the voting age from 21 to 18 years?
(1) 42nd
(2) 44th
(3) 61 st
(4) 73rd

54. Which one of the following statements about a money bill is not correct?
(1) A money bill can be tabled in either houses of the Parliament.
(2) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a bill is a money bill or
not.
(3) The Rajya Sabha must return a money bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for
consideration within 14 days.
(4) The President may either give or withhold assent to a money bill.

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55. Match Schedule I and Schedule II and choose the appropriate answer:

Schedule I Schedule II
A. Concurrent list I. Constitution of Japan
B. Rule of Law II. Constitution of Ireland
C. Directive Principles of State Policy III. British Constitution
D. Procedure established by law IV. Constitution of Australia

A B c D
(1) I II III IV
(2) II IV III I
(3) I III IV II
(4) IV III II ,I

56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Listi List II
A. Habeas Corpus I. High.er court seeking record from inferior court
B. Mandamus II. Unlawful arrest and detention
C. Quo Warranto III. By what authority?
D. Certiorari IV. Non-performance of public duty

( 1) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I (2) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II

(3) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I (4) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

57. In which part of the Constitution, the right to property as Article 300A is now found?
(1) Part IVA. (2) Part XII. (3) Part III. (4) Part V.

58. How many members in the Rajya Sabha are nominated?

(1) 12 members. (2) 10 members.
(3) 2 members. (4) No member is nominated.

59. Which of the following directive principles is based on Gandhian ideology?

(1) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
(2) Uniform civil code for all citizens.
(3) Separation of judiciary from executive.
(4) Promotion of cottage industries.

XX-XXI / A 12
60. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed
(1) to find a solution to the Punjab crisis.
(2) to examine Centre-State relations.
(3) to resolve dispute over sharing of Cauvery waters.
(4) to examine the working of the public sector undertakings.

61. Which one of the following schedules has the three lists - Union List, State List and Concurrent
List?
(1) 10th Schedule (2) 12th Schedule
(3) 6th Schedule (4) None of these

62. By its judgment delivered on 9th March, 2018, the Supreme Court of India in the case of
_ _ __ has upheld the legality of euthanasia and has also laid down an elaborate
procedure with respect to living wills.
(1) Common Cause (A regd. Society) v. Union oflndia, passive
(2) Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union oflndia, passive
(3) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab, passive
(4) Common Cause (A regd. Society) v. Union oflndia, active

63. Out of the following, in which of the recent j udgments of the Supreme Court pertaining to the
suspension of internet services in Jammu and Kashmir, has the observation been made that "the
freedom of speech and expression and the freedom to practice any profession or carry on any
trade, business or occupation over the medium of internet enjoys constitutional protection under
Article 19(l)(a) and Article 19(1)(g)."
(1) Anuradha Bhati v. Union oflndia
(2) Anuradha Bhasin v. Union oflndia
(3) Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
(4) Shyam Narayan Chowksey v. Union oflndia

64. The expressions 'Secular' and 'Socialist' were inserted m the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution by
(1) Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978.
(2) Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985.
(3) Constitution (38th Amendment) Act,1975.
(4) Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976.

XX-XXI / A 13
65. The privy purse was abolished by
(1) 1st Amendment. (2) 26th Amendment.
(3) 42nd Amendment. (4) 44th Amendment.

66. The Constitutional authority vested with the power of declaring castes or tribes as Scheduled
Castes or Scheduled Tribes is the
( 1) The President of India.
(2) Parliament.
(3) Prime Minister.
(4) Chairman of the National Commission for SC, ST.

67. According to Art 300 A of the Constitution oflndia- No _ _ _ _ __ shall be deprived of his
property save by authority of law.
(1) Citizen (2) Person
(3) Individual (4) Indian

68. The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution, _ _ of its members retire every year.
(I) one-third, second (2) two-third, third
(3) one-third, third (4) two-third, second

69. Contempt of Court is listed as a reasonable restriction on which fundamental right?

(1) Right to freedom.
(2) Right against exploitation.
(3) Right to equality.
(4) Right to constitutional remedies.

70. Which article of the Constitution gets automatically suspended on proclamation of emergency
under Art 352?
(1) Article 19
(2) Article 14 and Article 19
(3) Article 19 and Article 32
(4) Article 19 and Article 20

XX-XXI / A 14
 INDIAN PENAL CODE
(Question Nos. 71~90)

71. Section 82 ofIPC provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:
( 1) six years of age. (2) seven years of age.
(3) nine years of age. (4) ten years of age.

72. Intoxication as defence is contained in:

(1) section 85 of IPC. (2) section 86 ofIPC.
(3) section 87 of IPC. (4) Both (1) & (2)

73. Which of the following sections have been inserted/amended in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by
the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, namely:
(1) Section 376A. (2) Section 376B.
(3) Sections 166A, 166B, 354C. (4) All these

74. Culpable homicide is not murder if it is committed under:

(1) Grave and sudden provocation. (2) self-intoxication.
(3) resistible impulse. (4) All these

75. Section 34 ofIPC:

(1) creates a substantive offence. (2) is a rule of evidence.
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)

76. The doctrine of 'transfer of malice' is contained in ofl.P.C.

(1) Section 34 (2) Section 144
(3) Section 301 (4) Section 420

77. The right of 'private defence' is

(1) a punitive right. (2) a protective right.
(3) an obligation towards the state. (4) None of these

78. Which section of the Indian Penal Code codifies in the field of criminal law, the maxim: 'de
minimis non curat lex'?
(1) Section 85, IPC (2) Section 88, IPC
(3) Section 95, IPC (4) Section 96, IPC

XX-XXI / A 15
 79. The Section ofIPC dealing with 'dowry death' is
(1) Section 304A. (2) Section 3048.
(3) Section 498A. (4) Section 4988.

80. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes:

( 1) life of a human being. (2) life of an animal.
(3) life of human being and of an animal both. (4) life of either human being or animal.

81. A, for the purpose of inducing B to desist from a civil suit threatens to burn B's house. A is
guilty of which one of the following?
( 1) Mischief (2) Criminal Intimidation
(3) Cheating (4) Extortion

82. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes below:
Offence Section
A. Stalking . I. Section 376E
B. Voyeurism II. Section 354 D
C. Gang Rape III. Section 370
D. Trafficking of person IV. Section 354C
V. Section 376 D

A B c D
(1) I IV v III
(2) II IV v III
(3) IV II I III
(4) II IV I III

83. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be
(1) one year. (2) two years.
(3) three months. (4) six months.

84. is doing anything with the intention to cause wrongful gain to one person or
wrongful loss to another and is defined in Section of IPC.
(1) Fraudulently, Section 25, IPC (2) Dishonestly, Section 25, IPC
(3) Dishonestly, Section 24, IPC ( 4) Fraudulently, Section 24, IPC

XX-XXI / A 16
 85. Of the two statements mentioned below, which are true?
I. R. v. Mcnaughten is the case related with insanity as a defence.
II. R. v. Govinda is the case related with common intention.
(1) I is true but II is false. (2) I is false but II is true.
(3) Both I and II are true. (4) Both I and II are false.

86. How many kinds of hurts are grievous hurt under Section 320 ofIPC?
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9

87. Necessity knows no law. Thus, the person who feels himself in eminent danger may use his
right to private defence. However, under any case, the right to private defence can't be used
under IPC
(1) If it is against the person who is under intoxication.
(2) If it is against the child below the age of 7 years.
(3) If there is a time to have recourse to the public authority.
(4) If it is against the insane person.

88. Match List 1 and List 2 and select the correct answer using codes given below:
List 1 (Topic) List 2 (Decided Cases)
A. Insanity as a defence I. Emperor v. Birendra Kumar Ghosh
B. Common Intention II. R. v. Mc Naughten
C. Necessity III. State v. K.M. Nanavati
D. Murder on Sudden and Grave Provocation IV. R. Dudley and Stephens
V. R. Govinda

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-1, C-IV, D-111
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-V (4) A-III, B-11, C-IV, D-I

89. Abetment under section 107 ofIPC can be constituted by

(1) instigation. (2) conspiracy.
(3) intentional aid. (4) All these

'
I

90. X and Y agree to commit theft in Z's house but no theft is actually committed. They are guilty
of-
(1) No offence.
(3) Criminal Conspiracy.
(2) Abetment by conspiracy.
(4) Abetment by instigation.

XX-XXI / A 17
 CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE
(Question Nos. 91-110)

91. In a cognizable case under IPC, the police has the

(1) authority to arrest a person without warrant.
(2) authority to investigate the offence without permission of the magistrate.
(3) Both (1) and (2).
( 4) Either (1) or (2).

92. A search warrant can be issued in respect of a place

( 1) used for deposit and sale of stolen property.
(2) used for deposit, sale and production of counterfeit coin, currency notes and stamps.
(3) used for deposit, sale and production of forged documents and false seals.
(4) All these '

93. Section 438 of the Cr.P.C. can be invoked

(1) in cases of non-bailable offences. (2) in cases of bailable offences.
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)

94. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of right

( 1) by the police officer. (2) by the court.
(3) both by the police officer and the court. (4) Either (1) or (2)

95. Under Section 468 ofCrPC the period oflimitation for an offence punishable with fine only is
(1) Three months. (2) One year. (3) Three years. (4) Six months.

96. Where the investigation relates to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or
imprisonment not less than ten years, the Magistrate may authorise the detention of the accused,
otherwise than in the custody of police, beyond the period of fifteen days for a maximum period
of
(1) 90 days. (2) 60 days. (3) 120 days. (4) 180 days.

97. Where a case relates to two or more offences of which at least one is cognizable and the other
non-cognizable
( l) the case shall be deemed to be a non-cognizable case.
(2) the case shall be deemed to be a cognizable case.
(3) the case shall be deemed to be a cognizable case only if the offence is punishable with
imprisonment for seven years or more.
(4) None of these

XX-XX!/ A 18
 98. The non-compliance with the provisions of Section 164 of CrPC
(1) reduces the statement recorded by the magistrate to a nullity.
(2) is an irregularity curable under section 463 of CrPC if the Court is satisfied that such non-
compliance has not injured the accused in his defence on merits.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

99. An Executive Magistrate is empowered to grant remand under Section 167 CrPC, 1973 for a
maximum period of
(1) 15 days. (2) 7 days. (3) 20 days. (4) 10 days.

100. Who can withdraw a case from prosecution under Section 321 of the CrPC?
(1) State Government.
(2) The Public Prosecutor in-charge of a case with the permission of the Court.
(3) The Public Prosecutor in-charge of a case with the permission of the State Government.
(4) None of these

101. The judgment delivered by a Court in cases of plea bargaining is

(1) Final.
(2) Appealable and appeal lies to the High Court.
(3) Final and no appeal except Special Leave Petition under Art 136 and writ petition under
articles 226 and 227.
(4) Appeal lies directly to the Supreme Court.

102. Classification of offences given in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is under
(1) Section312. (2) !Schedule. (3) IISchedule. (4) Both(2)and(3)

103. Which of the following statements is/are true?

'"' ( 1) Inquiry means every inquiry including a trial conducted under the Code of Criminal
Procedure by a Magistrate or Court.
(2) Inquiry means every inquiry other than a trial conducted W1der the Code of Criminal
Procedure by a Magistrate or Court.
(3) Investigation includes all proceedings under the Code of Criminal Procedure for the
collection of evidence conducted by a Magistrate.
(4) All these are true

XX-XXI / A 19
 104. Under Sec 154(3) of CrPC, 1973 if the officer-in-charge of a police station refuses to record the
first information, the aggrieved person may send, in writing and by post, the substance of such
information to the
( 1) Sessions Judge. (2) Judicial Magistrate.
(3) Superintendent of Police. (4) Commissioner of Police.

105. Compounding of offence is defined under which section of CrPC?

(1) Section 315 (2) Section 320 (3) Section 321 (4) Section 306

106. As per the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2008, w.e.f. 31-12-2009 which
inserted clause (wa) in section 2 in CrPC defining victim as a person who has suffered any loss
or injury caused by reason of the act or omission for which the accused person has been charged
includes:
(1) victim's guardian only. (2) victim's guardian and legal heir.
(3) victim's neighbour. (4) victim's close friend.

107. 'Charge' is defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure under

(1) Section 2(b). (2) Section 2(d). (3) Section 2(c). (4) Section 2(a).
,.1

'
108. Joinder of charges is permissible under
(1) Section 219 of CrPC. (2) Section 220 of CrPC.
(3) Section 221 of CrPC. (4) All these

109. Match List l and List 2 and select the correct answer using codes given below:
List 1 (Topic) List 2 (Decided Cases)
A. Bail I. Lalita Kumari v. Govt. ofUttar Pradesh
B. Mandatory Registration of FIR IL Arnesh Kumar v. State ofBihar
C. Rights of an arrested person III. Shri Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab
----l
D. Witness Protection IV. Mrs. Neelam Katara v. Union of India

(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) A-I, 8-IV, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, 8-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-I, 8-II, C-III, D-IV

110. Cognizable and Non-Cognizable offence has been defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973 under
(1) Section 2(a) and Section 2(1). (2) Section 2(c) and Section 2(d).
(3) Section 2(d) and Section 2 (h). (4) Section 2(c) and Section 2(1).

XX-XXI / A 20
 INDIAN EVIDENCE ACT
(Question Nos. 111-130)

111. According to the provisions contained in Indian Evidence Act 1872, it can be said that
relevancy and admissibility are
(1) synonymous.
(2) co-extensive.
(3) neither synonymous nor co-extensive.
(4) synonymous and co-extensive both.

112. Presumptions under the law of evidence are

(1) presumption of facts.
(2) presumptions oflaw.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Only (2) and not (1)

113. For conduct to be relevant under section 8 of Evidence Act, it

( 1) must be previous.
(2) must be subsequent.
(3) may be either previous or subsequent.
(4) only subsequent and not previous.

114. Things said or done by a conspirator in reference to the common design is relevant
( 1) under section 10 of Evidence Act.
(2) under section 6 of Evidence Act.
(3) under section 12 of Evidence Act.
(4) under section 8 of Evidence Act.

115. A confession made to a police officer is inadmissible under

( 1) section 24 of Evidence Act.
(2) section 25 of Evidence Act.
(3) section 26 of Evidence Act.
(4) section 27 of Evidence Act.

XX-XXI / A 21
 116. Oral evidence under section 60 of Evidence Act may be
(1 ) direct only. (2) hearsay.
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Either (1) or (2)

117. Secondary evidence of a document means

( 1) copies of that document.
(2) oral account of the contents of the documents given by some person who has himself seen
it.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Only (1) and not (2)

118. A document required by law,to be attested can be proved under section 68 of Evidence Act only
(1) by calling both the attesting witnesses.
(2) by calling at least one of the attesting witnesses.
(3) by calling none of the attesting witnesses but by calling some other person who has the
knowledge of the contents;.

,
,.1
(4) All these are correct

119. In the following illustration, decide on whom does the burden of proof lie, according to Section
102 of the Indian Evidence Act?
A sues B for land of which B is in possession, and which, as A asserts, was left to A by the will
of C, B's father. If no evidence were given on either side, B would be entitled to retain his
possession.

(1) The burden of proof lies on A since the evidentiary burden lies on that person who would
fail if no evidence at all were given on either side.
(2) The burden of proof lies on B since he is the defendant in the case.
(3) The burden of proof may lie either on A or on B depending upon the particular facts of the
case.
(4) None of these

120. Under section 108 of Evidence Act, when the question is whether a man is alive or dead, and it
is proved that he has not been heard of for years by those who would naturally have
heard of him if he had been alive, the burden of proving that he is alive is shifted to the person
who affirms it.
(1) 7 years (2) 12 years (3) 3 years (4) 30 years

XX-XXJ / A 22
 121. Presumption under section 112 of Evidence Act is raised
(1) when a child is born during the continuance of valid marriage.
(2) when a child is born within 280 days of dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining
unmarried.
(3) In both (1) and (2)
(4) In only (1) not (2)

122. Public documents are mentioned in:

(1) Section 74 of Evidence Act. (2) Section 75 of Evidence Act.
(3) Section 76 of Evidence Act. (4) Section 77 of Evidence Act.

123. The principle on which a dying declaration is admitted in evidence is indicated in legal maxim
(1) Nemo moriturus praesumitur mentire. (2) Lex fori.
(3) Res judicata. (4) None of these

124. Under section 27 of Evidence Act

( 1) the whole statement is admissible.
(2) only that portion which distinctly relates to the discovery is admissible.
(3) both are admissible depending on the facts & circumstances of the case.
(4) Only (1) and not (2)

125. The provisions of Section 126 of the Evidence Act dealing with confidentiality of professional
communication shall apply to
(1) clerks ofbarristers. (2) servants of pleaders.
(3) interpreters of barristers. (4) All these

126. Which of the following statements about admissions is correct as per the provisions contained in
the Indian Evidence Act?
(1) Admissions must be in writing
(2) Admissions must be oral
(3) Admissions may be either oral or in writing
(4) None of these

XX-XXI / A 23
 127. According to Section 56 of the Indian Evidence Act, "No fact of which the Court will take
judicial notice need be proved." Out of the following, which is/are the facts of which the Court
must take judicial notice?
(1) All laws in force in the territory oflndia
(2) The territories under the dominion of the Government of India
(3) The names of the members and officers of the Court and of their deputies and subordinate
officers and assistants
(4) All these

128. 'A' intentionally and falsely leads 'B' to believe that certain land belongs to 'A', and thereby
induces 'B' to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of 'A', and 'A'
seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that, at the time the sale, he had no title to the land.
According to the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, can 'A' be allowed to prove his want to
title at this stage?
(1) Yes, according to the principle of estoppel.
(2) No, the principle of estoppel bars A from proving such a fact.
(3) Yes, since the burden of proof lies on A.
(4) No, according to the princjple of res judicata.

,i 129. Match List 1 and List 2 and select the correct answer using codes given below:

' List 1
A. Section 17
B. Section 113A
C. Section 113B
List 2
I. Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman
II. Presumption as to dowry death
III. Accomplice
D. Section 133 IV. Admission

(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (2) A-IV, B-1, C-II, D-111
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-1, D-III (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

130. Under the provisions of Indian Evidence Act, out of the following categories, who shall not be
competent to testify?
(1 ) A lunatic when it is shown that he is prevented by his lunacy from understanding the
questions put to him and giving rational answers to them.
(2) A boy aged 15 years, who is able to understand the question put to him, and can give
rational answers to those questions.
(3) A lunatic when it is shown that he is not prevented by his lunacy from understanding the
questions put to him and giving rational answers to them.
(4) Both (2) and (3)

XX-XXI / A 24
 r:

CODE OF CIVIL PROCEDURE

(Question Nos. 131-150)

131. According to section 27 of CPC summons to the defendant to be served on such date not
beyond
( 1) 30 days from the date of institution of suits.
(2) 60 days from the date of institution of suits.
(3) 45 days from the date of institution of suits.
( 4) 90 days from the date of institution of suits.

132. Place of suing in respect of suits for compensation for wrongs to persons or moveable property
has been dealt with
( 1) under section 18 of CPC. (2) under section 19 of CPC.
(3) under section 20 of CPC. (4) under section 21 of CPC.

133. A is a tradesman in Calcutta, B carries on business in Delhi. B, by his agent in Calcutta, buys
goods of A and requests A to deliver them to the East Indian Railway Company. A delivers the
goods accordingly in Calcutta. A may sue B for the price of the goods at
( 1) Delhi. (2) Calcutta.
(3) anywhere in India. (4) either in Delhi or in Calcutta.

134. Constructive res-judicata is contained in:

(1) Explanation III to section 11. (2) Explanation IV to section 11.
(3) Explanation VI to section 11. (4) Explanation VII to section 11.

135. The provisions containing injunctions are contained in Order _ __ _ of the Code of Civil
Procedure.
( 1) Order XX.XVII (2) OrderVI (3) Order VII (4) Order XX.XIX

136. Under section 15 of CPC, every suit shall be instituted in

(1) the district court.
(2) the court of the lowest grade competent to try it.
(3) the court of highest grade competent to try it.
(4) All these

137. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

(1) Summary Suit- Order XXXVII (2) Pleadings-Order VI
(3) Review - Section 113 (4) None of these

XX-XXI / A 25
 138. According to the definition clause as contained in Code of Civil Procedure, a means any
person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order capable of execution has been
made.
(1) judgement debtor (2) decree holder (3) interpleader (4) judgment holder

139. Under which of the following cases, is a review maintainable?

( 1) when an appeal is provided, but no appeal preferred.
(2) when no appeal is provided.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)
0

140. A plaint may be rejected on which of the following grounds?

( 1) Where it does not disclose a cause of action.
(2) Where the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law.
(3) Where the relief claimed is undervalued, and the plaintiff, on being required by the Court to
correct the valuation within a time to be fixed by the Court, fails to do so.
(4) All these

,
,.,I 141. A defendant under Order V, Rule 1(1) of C.P.C. is required to appear, answer the claim and to
file the written statement
( 1) within 50 days from the date of service of summons.
(2) within 45 days from the date of service of summons.
(3) within 30 days from the date of service of summons.
(4) within 15 days from the date of service of summons.

142. An ex parte degree can be set aside on the ground of

( 1) defendant being prevented by any sufficient cause from appearance.
(2) irregularity in the service of summons, even if the defendant had notice of the date of
hearing and had sufficient time to appear and answer the plaintiff's claim.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

143. Under which Section of the Civil Procedure Court, a second appeal can be filed?
(1) Section 99. (2) Section 99A. (3) Section 100. (4) Section IOOA.

144. In a summary suit, once the summons along with the copy of the plaint have been served upon
the defendant by the plaintiff, what is the maximum time that has been allowed to the defendant
to enter an appearance either in person or by pleader to apply for grant of leave to defend?
(1) Ten days (2) Fifteen days (3) Twenty days (4) Seven days

XX-XXI / A 26
 145. In which of the following cases temporary injunction may be granted by the Court?
( 1) If property in dispute in a suit is in danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated by any
party to the suit.
(2) If property in dispute in a suit is in danger of being wrongfully sold in execution of a
decree.
(3) If the defendant threatens to dispossess, the plaintiff or otherwise cause injury to the
plaintiff in relation to any property in dispute in the suit.
(4) All these

146. 'Any relief claimed in the plaint, which is not expressly granted by the decree, shall, for the
purposes of this section, be deemed to have been refused.' This provision is incorporated in
{l) Section 11, Explanation II. (2) Section 11, Explanation III.
(3) Section 11, Explanation IV. (4) Section 11, Explanation V.

147. Notice under Section 80 of the C.P.C. has to be served on

(1) the Secretary to the Government. (2) the Deputy Commissioner.
(3) the President of India. (4) All these

148. On abatement of suit, under Order 22, Rule 9 of the C.P.C.

(1) a fresh suit on the same cause of action can be brought as a matter of right.
(2) a fresh suit on the same cause of action can be brought only with the permission of the
court.
(3) a fresh suit on the same cause of action is barred.
(4) None of these

149. In cases where there is more than one defendant, a suit can be instituted in a court within whose
local jurisdiction
(1) each of the defendant at the time of commencement of the suit, actually & voluntarily
resides or carries on business or personally works for gain.
(2) any of the defendant, at the time of the commencement of the suit, actually & voluntarily
resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain and the defendant(s) not so
residing etc. acquiesce.
(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct

r (4) Only (1) and not (2) is correct

150. Pecuniary jurisdiction of the court has been dealt with in

(1) section 3 of CPC. (2) section 4 of CPC.
(3) section 5 of CPC. (4) section 6 of CPC.

XX-XXI / A 27