9/27/24, 11:00 AM NITTT Module 8 Question Paper 2023 February

Nerds' Job Portal

NITTT Module 8 Question Paper 2023 February

Module 8 / M8 PYQ

Module 8 Previous Year Questions:

2024 February

2023 February September

2022 July

2021 March October

Q1: All of the following are the objectives of institutional management EXCEPT one, which is that:

A) Achievement of institutional objectives

B) Improvement in planning, organising and implementation of institutional programmes and activities
C) Enhancing productivity of industry
D) Enhance employees’ job satisfaction

Answer Key:
C) Enhancing productivity of industry
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Q2: Institutional Administration is the process of:

A) Utilizing appropriate resources for development of Human qualities

B) Managing activities of educational institutions
C) Planning, organizing, directing and controlling human resources in educational setting
D) None of these

Answer Key:
B) Managing activities of educational institutions

Q3: The three types of plans in an educational institution are:

A) Top, middle and bottom

B) Operational, occupational and strategic
C) Strategic, tactical and operational
D) Corporate, divisional and local

Answer Key:
C) Strategic, tactical and operational

Q4: The curriculum drift means:

A) Identifying obsolete content

B) Identifying missing content in the curriculum
C) Identifying inappropriate content
D) All of these

Answer Key:
D) All of these

Q5: Which of the following represents heart of the institutional management process?

A) Communication
B) Leadership
C) Organisation
D) Control

Answer Key:
A) Communication

Q6: In institutional management, the function of planning is ____?

A) Preparing for future for desired goals

B) Financial planning

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C) To appoint staff
D) None of these

Answer Key:
A) Preparing for future for desired goals

Q7: The level of managers, responsible for establishing a vision for the institution, developing broad plans
and strategies, and directing subordinate staff, is:

A) First level managers

B) Middle managers
C) Top level managers
D) Second level managers

Answer Key:
C) Top level managers

Q8: Regulatory requirements, Economic uncertainty, technological innovations, and new competitors are
examples of what type of factors that affect institutional management?

A) Internal factors
B) Intra-personal factors
C) External factors
D) Inter-personal factors

Answer Key:
C) External factors

Q9: Thinking in term of phases in planning helps to:

A) Reduce the plan to a simple series of actions

B) Keep the planned efforts on schedule
C) Co-ordinate the separate activities within the plan
D) All of these

Answer Key:
D) All of these

Q10: Which of the following skills is equally important at all levels of management?

A) Technical skill
B) Human relation skill
C) Conceptual skill
D) All of these

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Answer Key:
B) Human relation skill

Q11: All are the advantages of institutional planning, except:

A) Helps in channelizing the energies of teachers towards goal achievement

B) Helps in preserving uniqueness of an educational institution
C) Enhances emphasis on the direction of expenditure
D) Provides ample opportunities to individuals to experiment and innovate

Answer Key:
C) Enhances emphasis on the direction of expenditure

Q12: All of the following are true about strategic planning in an institution Except:

A) It is a top down approach of planning

B) Enhances an institution’s capability to proactively anticipate change
C) It realizes more on identifying and resolving issues
D) Emphasizes on assessment of the environment inside and outside the institution

Answer Key:
A) It is a top down approach of planning

Q13: Strategic planning is _______ in nature.

A) Descriptive
B) Theoretical
C) Creative
D) Analytical

Answer Key:
D) Analytical

Q14: The major value creating skills, capabilities and resources that determine an institution’s competitive
weapons are:

A) Strengths
B) Opportunities
C) Core competencies
D) Strategies

Answer Key:
C) Core competencies

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Q15: Which one of the following is not a characteristic of strategic planning that makes it different from
other types of planning?

A) It is inter-disciplinary
B) It concerns the present direction of the institution
C) It has an external focus
D) It has an internal focus

Answer Key:
C) It has an external focus

Q16: Strategic mission

A) Is an internally focused affirmations of an institution’s societal and ethical goals

B) Is developed by an institution before it develops its strategic intent
C) Do not limit the institution in specifying the environment in which it intends to compete
D) Is a statement of institution’s unique purpose and scope of operations

Answer Key:
D) Is a statement of institution’s unique purpose and scope of operations

Q17: The following is/are associated with successful strategies:

A) Creating superior value to customers

B) Exploitation of key success factors
C) Creating and maintaining strategic fit
D) All of these

Answer Key:
D) All of these

Q18: One of the following is not an element of strategic thinking, which is that?

A) Judgement of what strategic changes to make

B) Realisation of what needs to change
C) Understanding of current strategic positions
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies

Answer Key:
D) Management of institutional resources and competencies

Q19: The managerial function of organizing is to:

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A) Review and adjust plan in the light of changing conditions

B) Establish a program for the accomplishment of objectives
C) Create a structure of functions and duties to be performed by a group of people
D) Get things done through and with the help of people

Answer Key:
C) Create a structure of functions and duties to be performed by a group of people

Q20: According to “Scalar Principle of Organization”

A) A manager can directly supervise a limited number of people

B) The line of authority must be clearly defined
C) Exceptionally complex problems are referred to higher levels of management
D) Each subordinate should have one superior

Answer Key:
B) The line of authority must be clearly defined

Q21: ‘No one on the organisation should have more than one boss’ is a statement of principle of:

A) Specialisation
B) Authority
C) Unity of command
D) Span of control

Answer Key:
C) Unity of command

Q22: The descriptive word most clearly associated with the organic approach to structure is :

A) Static
B) Rigid
C) Bureaucratic
D) Dynamic

Answer Key:
D) Dynamic

Q23: With reference to power and authority, we may conclude all but which one of the following:

A) Authority is only one source of influence among many

B) Supervisor should never have to rely on coercive power to obtain results
C) Constant reliance on authority indicates a potential supervisory problem
D) Group acceptance of authority is necessary for it to become useful influence

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Answer Key:
B) Supervisor should never have to rely on coercive power to obtain results

Q24: Matrix organizations are really a combination of the:

A) Product and process bases

B) Process and geographic bases
C) Customer and functional bases
D) Functional and product bases

Answer Key:
D) Functional and product bases

Q25: Line function are concerned with those activities which are connected with the discharge of direct
responsibility for:

A) Accomplishing the subsidiary objectives of the institution

B) Accomplishing the main objectives of the institution
C) Taking and implementing all decisions
D) None of these

Answer Key:
B) Accomplishing the main objectives of the institution

Q26: Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?

A) A belief in shared aims and objectives.

B) The resolution of conflict by members themselves.
C) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives.
D) The open expression of feelings and disagreements.

Answer Key:
C) A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives.

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Q27: In the Tuckman model, groups at the ___________________ stage develop guidelines and standards of
acceptable behaviour.

A) Adjourning
B) Norming
C) Forming
D) Storming

Answer Key:
B) Norming

Q28: A virtual team is a collection of people who are _________________ separated but still __________________
together closely.

A) Temporally, work
B) Geographically, work
C) Geographically, decide
D) Physically, think

Answer Key:
B) Geographically, work

Q29: Which of the following is NOT a roadblock to team progress in an institution?

A) Lack of management support

B) Project objectives are significant
C) No time to do improvement
D) Project scope too large

Answer Key:
B) Project objectives are significant

Q30: Members of a _______team have been cross trained so that each person is able to perform the duties
of all other members.

A) Functional
B) Cross functional
C) Multi-functional
D) Self directed

Answer Key:
C) Multi-functional

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Q31: The team gathers for the monthly progress and problem report about reaching individual and
departmental objectives. Which of the following statements reflect effective team meeting?

A) Only a few team members seem to be concerned about the impact of their presentation; they attempt to
build allies within the team
B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems
C) Some team members seem to be playing the political game, while others do not
D) One clique exists within this team and their presentations sound about the same-politically safe

Answer Key:
B) There is an open and realistic sharing of both progress and problems

Q32: Which of the following is NOT the part of the forming stage of team development in an institution?

A) Team’s purpose
B) Hostilities and personal needs
C) Members roles
D) Acceptance of roles

Answer Key:
B) Hostilities and personal needs

Q33: Identifying the ——— candidates and —- them to apply for the job is called recruitment.

A) Available, insisting
B) Available, making
C) Potential, insisting
D) Potential, attracting

Answer Key:
D) Potential, attracting

Q34: ——– is a selection test, which evaluate the emotional ability which will help to judge an individual’s
working in group

A) Intelligence test
B) Personality test
C) Mental ability test
D) Aptitude test

Answer Key:
B) Personality test

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Q35: A systematic and planned introduction of employees to their jobs, their co-workers and the institution
is called:

A) Job evaluation
B) Investiture orientation
C) Orientation
D) Placement

Answer Key:
C) Orientation

Q36: Process of collecting and analysing information about the duties, responsibilities and conditions of a
specific work assignment is:

A) Job analysis
B) Job evaluation
C) Activity analysis
D) Occupation analysis

Answer Key:
B) Job evaluation

Q37: Training refers to the process of imparting _________ skills

A) General
B) Important
C) Specific
D) Overall

Answer Key:
C) Specific

Q38: Which of the following is an on the job training method?

A) Vestibule training
B) Position rotation or job rotation
C) Conference and seminars
D) Lecture method

Answer Key:
A) Vestibule training

Q39: _____ involves the perceived fairness of pay differentials.

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A) Individual equity
B) External equity
C) Internal equity
D) All of these

Answer Key:
C) Internal equity

Q40: Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions –

I. Fringe Benefits ——- A. Stock option

II. Job Context —— B. Challenging job responsibilities
III. Perquisites ——— C. Group Plans
IV. Incentives ———– D. Medical Care

A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

B) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
C) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
D) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A

Answer Key:
A) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

Q41: Which of these is an internal factor influencing remuneration?

A) Cost of living
B) Legislations
C) Institutional Business strategy
D) Society

Answer Key:
C) Institutional Business strategy

Q42: Assignment of a higher level job to an individual without increase in salary is called:

A) Diagonal promotion
B) Horizontal promotion
C) Vertical Promotion
D) Dry promotion

Answer Key:
D) Dry promotion

Q43: The test of the adequacy of any wage level is in the:

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A) Real wages
B) Time wages
C) Money wages
D) None of these

Answer Key:
A) Real wages

Q44: CCS Conduct Rules came into force on

A) 1956
B) 1964
C) 1966
D) 1971

Answer Key:
B) 1964

Q45: As per CCS conduct rules the following omissions of a Government servant amount to misconduct :-

(i) Wilful insubordination or disobedience, whether alone or in combination with others, to any lawful and
reasonable order of a superior
(ii) Habitual late attendance
(iii) Habitual absence without permission and overstaying leave
(iv) Conviction by a criminal court Codes

A) Only (i), (ii) & (iii)

B) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv)
C) Only (i), (iii) & (iv)
D) All (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

Answer Key:
D) All (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

Q46: Which of the following is INCORRECT?

A) Outstanding expenses -current asset

B) Good will- intangible asset
C) Sundry debtors -current asset
D) Loose tools -tangible fixed asset

Answer Key:
A) Outstanding expenses -current asset

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Q47: A material shall generally be considered surplus if it remains in stock for over______ unless adequate
reasons to treat it otherwise exist.

A) One year
B) Two years
C) Three years
D) Four years

Answer Key:
A) One year

Q48: Fixed assets should be verified at least once in:

A) Six months
B) One year
C) Two years
D) Three years

Answer Key:
B) One year

Q49: Diwali advance given to an employee is:

A) Revenue Expenditure
B) Capital Expenditure
C) Not an Expenditure
D) Deferred Revenue Expenditure

Answer Key:
C) Not an Expenditure

Q50: Pick the incorrect one

A) Sample physical verification at intervals of not more than five years should be done in case of libraries
having more than 50000 volumes. In case such verification reveals unusual or unreasonable shortages,
complete verification shall be done

B) Loss of five volumes per 1000 volumes of books issued/consulted in a year may be taken as reasonable
provided such losses are not attributable to dishonesty or negligence. However, loss of a book of a value
exceeding Rs. 1,000/- (Rupees One thousand only) and rare books irrespective of value shall invariably be
investigated and appropriate action taken.

C) For libraries having more than 20000 volumes and up to 50000 volumes, such verification should be
done at least once in three years.

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D) Complete physical verification of books should be done every year in case of libraries having not more
than 20000 volumes

Answer Key:
A) Sample physical verification at intervals of not more than five years should be done in case of
libraries having more than 50000 volumes. In case such verification reveals unusual or unreasonable
shortages, complete verification shall be done

Q51: A manager who shows consistency between his or her words and actions develops a reputation for:

A) Self-confidence
B) Walking the talk
C) Emotionally intelligent
D) Highly energetic

Answer Key:
B) Walking the talk

Q52: Referent power is based on the subordinate’s perception that the leader has a right to exercise
influence because of the leader’s:

A) Ability to punish or reward

B) Position within an organization
C) Both Ability to punish or reward and Position within an organization
D) Personal charisma

Answer Key:
D) Personal charisma

Q53: The situational theory of leadership emphasis is:

A) Environment
B) Events

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C) Personality traits
D) Political situation

Answer Key:
B) Events

Q54: According to Fiedler’s LPC scale, leaders with a low LPC score will gain satisfaction from:

A) Achieving objectives
B) Developing team relationships
C) Both Achieving objectives and Developing team relationships
D) Neither Achieving objectives and Developing team relationships

Answer Key:
A) Achieving objectives

Q55: Contingency theories of leadership are based on the belief that there is:

A) A single style of leadership appropriate to all managers

B) A single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
C) No single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
D) None of these

Answer Key:
C) No single style of leadership appropriate to all situations

Q56: The style of leadership which represents the extreme of centralised decision making authority:

A) Bureaucratic
B) Authoritarian
C) Laissez faire
D) Democratic

Answer Key:
B) Authoritarian

Q57: Which of the following leader behaviours, feature in Hersey and Blanchard’s (1971) Situational
leadership theory?

A) Delegating and supportive behaviours

B) Directive and consultative behaviours
C) Supportive and directive behaviours
D) Supportive and participative behaviours

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Answer Key:
C) Supportive and directive behaviours

Q58: The proper sequence of elements in the expanded communication model is :

A) Sender-message-transmission-recipient-meaning
B) Message-sender-signal-receiver-decode
C) Sender-transmission-message-decode-meaning
D) Message- transmission- encode-receiver-decode

Answer Key:
A) Sender-message-transmission-recipient-meaning

Q59: Moving your head, face, and eyes away from another person while communicating is often
interpreted as a lack of self-:

A) Respect
B) Esteem
C) Confidence
D) Control

Answer Key:
C) Confidence

Q60: The pattern in which every person has someone ” on each side of him ” with whom he can
communicate is the:

A) Circular pattern
B) Chain pattern
C) Centralised pattern
D) Y pattern

Answer Key:
A) Circular pattern

Q61: The tendency that listeners arrive at judgement before all relevant information has been received is
called:

A) Filtering
B) Premature evaluation
C) Psychological distance
D) Pressure of time

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Answer Key:
B) Premature evaluation

Q62: The synchronous, interactive, real time exchange of message via a mediated source is:

A) Blogs
B) E-mail
C) Online chat
D) Social networking sites

Answer Key:
C) Online chat

Q63: In an organization, the probability of message reception can be enhanced by:

A) Using high decibel audio tools

B) Increasing the information load
C) Exposing the ignorance of co-workers
D) Establishing a view point

Answer Key:
D) Establishing a view point

Q64: The area of behavioral science research that focuses on the personal factors underlying high
productivity, as well as high morale, is the area of employee:

A) Communication
B) Motivation
C) Leadership
D) Economic development

Answer Key:
B) Motivation

Q65: Which of the following is the correct sequence in the process of motivation?

1. Action
2. Need
3. Relief
4. Tension

A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 4, 1, 3

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C) 4, 3, 2, 1
D) 2, 1, 4, 3

Answer Key:
B) 2, 4, 1, 3

Q66: Which of the following theories of motivation deal with the basic components of effort, performance
and outcomes?

A) Expectancy Theory
B) Equity Theory
C) Goal Setting Theory
D) Reinforcement Theory

Answer Key:
A) Expectancy Theory

Q67: Who propounded “Motivation-Maintenance Theory?”

A) A.H. Maslow
B) Douglas Mc Gregor
C) Frederick Herzberg
D) F.W. Taylor

Answer Key:
C) Frederick Herzberg

Q68: One of the following deals with one-to-one collaboration between an external expert and a manager
for developing the leadership skills of the later, which is that:

A) Coaching
B) Mentoring
C) Orientation
D) None of these

Answer Key:
A) Coaching

Q69: Which one of the following is the aim of Counselling?

A) Ensuring that clients are on the correct medication

B) Promoting personal growth and productivity
C) Providing a successful diagnosis in psychopathology
D) Solely addressing the behaviour

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Answer Key:
B) Promoting personal growth and productivity

Q70: One of the following is NOT an appropriate way that manager can employ for increasing the
employee acceptance and commitment to Goals, which is that:

A) Explaining goal relevance to personal needs

B) Convincing employees that goal attainment is within their capabilities
C) Providing managerial support
D) Setting ambiguous standards

Answer Key:
D) Setting ambiguous standards

Q71: For achieving organizational goals effectively, the manager and subordinate should NOT jointly:

A) Identify common goals

B) Indulge in negative criticism of each other
C) Define each individual’s major areas of responsibility
D) Assess the contribution of each of its members

Answer Key:
B) Indulge in negative criticism of each other

Q72: The final activity for time management before moving out of work is:

A) Beware of time wasters

B) Optimize work environment
C) Prioritise all your tasks
D) See what all you set out to accomplish and what all did you finish

Answer Key:
D) See what all you set out to accomplish and what all did you finish

Q73: Which of the following would be considered as using the time management technique of “getting off
a good start”?

A) Tackle easy items first to build momentum

B) Leave after the morning rush is over to avoid traffic jams on the freeway
C) Tackle the tough task first because this is usually your peak energy time
D) Begin the day by talking to co-workers to find out what are the hot agendas items for the day.

Answer Key:
C) Tackle the tough task first because this is usually your peak energy time

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Q74: The statement “I am going to apologise for my mistakes” is an example of ________ component of
attitude

A) Psycho-motor
B) Cognitive
C) Behavioural
D) Affective

Answer Key:
C) Behavioural

Q75: Which of the following is NOT a method used for changing the attitude on an employee?

A) Use of fear
B) Providing new information
C) Giving feedback
D) Performance appraisal

Answer Key:
D) Performance appraisal

Q76: A change agent is the individual who:

A) Supports change
B) Opposes change
C) Initiates change
D) Helps implement change

Answer Key:
D) Helps implement change

Q77: The five stages of the coping cycle are (in order):

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A) Denial, defence, discarding, adaptation, internalization

B) Defence, denial, discarding, adaptation, internalization
C) Denial, resistance, discarding, adaptation, internalization
D) Denial, defence, resistance, adaptation, internalization

Answer Key:
A) Denial, defence, discarding, adaptation, internalization

Q78: Transformational change is often carried out:

A) By middle managers
B) Top down
C) Bottom up
D) After extensive consultation

Answer Key:
B) Top down

Q79: Out of the following identify the reasons “Why individuals might resist organisational change?

1. Lack of interest.
2. Pessimism.
3. Anxiety.
4. Irritation.
5. Opposing strategy proposals.
6. Personal ambitions.

A) All of these
B) 2), 3), 5) and 6)
C) 1), 2), and 4)
D) 2), 4), 5) and 6)

Answer Key:
A) All of these

Q80: Which of the following is NOT a recommended approach to encourage creativity?

A) Tolerating failures
B) Offering recognition for good effort and performance
C) Restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence
D) Encouraging experimentation among employees

Answer Key:
C) Restricting on-the-job interaction in order encourage individual excellence

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Q81: The ideas which interfere with the solution of the problem fade away during ________ of creativity
process.

A) Preparation phase
B) Evaluation phase
C) Idea generation phase
D) Incubation phase

Answer Key:
D) Incubation phase

Q82: For fostering team creativity, which is an appropriate way an institution may use:

A) Establishing a competitive environment to promote creative ideas

B) Establishing challenges for the team
C) Evaluating ideas during the idea generation stage
D) Stressing deadlines to encourage intensity and focus

Answer Key:
B) Establishing challenges for the team

Q83: Control systems typically focus on all but which of the following factors:

A) Quality of the product

B) Resources consumed
C) Employee performance
D) Quality of planning process

Answer Key:
D) Quality of planning process

Q84: For best management, controlling should be

A) Profit-oriented
B) Cost-oriented
C) Objective-oriented
D) Man-oriented.

Answer Key:
C) Objective-oriented

Q85: If controls are to be effective, they must be specially tailored to:

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A) Plans and positions

B) Individual managers and their personalities
C) Needs for efficiency and effectiveness
D) All of these.

Answer Key:
C) Needs for efficiency and effectiveness

Q86: The main characteristics of an effective control system are:

A) Flexibility, measurability, timeliness and objectivity

B) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity
C) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and relevance
D) Flexibility, accuracy, relevance and objectivity

Answer Key:
B) Flexibility, accuracy, timeliness and objectivity

Q87: Effective control depends on:

A) Organisation structure
B) Proper direction
C) Flow of communication
D) All of these

Answer Key:
D) All of these

Q88: All of the following are dangers inherent in over control except:

A) Accenting short run results and ignoring long run outcomes

B) The reduction of personal freedom and independence at work
C) The creation of anxiety and stress among workers
D) A tendency toward increased flexibility

Answer Key:
D) A tendency toward increased flexibility

Q89: The traditional method of appraisal whereby the appraiser lists the employees according to their level
of performance is called the:

A) Ranking method
B) Critical incident method

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C) Graphic scales method

D) Forced distribution method.

Answer Key:
A) Ranking method

Q90: The major weakness of the forced distribution method is:

A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution

B) Work is reliable
C) The error of central tendency
D) None of these

Answer Key:
A) Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal distribution

Q91: “The person who was a good performer in distant past is assured to be okay at present also”. This is
an example of ________________ in performance appraisal

A) Halo effect
B) Central Tendency
C) Spill over effect
D) Horn effect

Answer Key:
C) Spill over effect

Q92: The actual performance of an individual is measured in terms of his________________.

A) Input and output

B) Returns to the organization
C) Business earned by him
D) Efficiency and effectiveness

Answer Key:
D) Efficiency and effectiveness

Q93: Which of the following leave is admissible to an employee under suspension?

A) Study leave
B) Half pay leave
C) Extra ordinary leave
D) None of these

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Answer Key:
C) Extra ordinary leave

Q94: What is the time limit for completing the inquiry and submit report by Inquiring Authority?

A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months

Answer Key:
B) 6 months

Q95: The systematic collection and interpretation of evidence, leading as part of the process, to a
judgement of value with a view to action is called:

A) Feedback
B) Evaluation
C) Corrective action
D) Assessment

Answer Key:
B) Evaluation

Q96: In institutional management, the process of evaluation is:

A) Input directed
B) Process directed
C) Program directed
D) Goal directed

Answer Key:
D) Goal directed

Q97: In institutional evaluation, “Adequacy” means to:

A) Check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not
B) Check whether the institute has attained the expected goals
C) Determine the true effect of an intervention on the indicators of interests
D) Determine the success of programme’s activities and outcomes

Answer Key:
A) Check whether the goals or targets set by an institution were met or not

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Q98: Which of the following is a correct statement with regards to Academic audit:

A) A framework for finding fault with a system or individual faculty and staff
B) An externally directed surprise spot checks
C) An arid collection of awkward questions lacking a philosophy and coherence with the purpose of
institute
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured

Answer Key:
D) A tool whereby adequacy of academic inputs in an educational institution are measured

Q99: One of the following is not the basic principle underlying an academic audit, which is that:

A) Base decisions on evidence

B) Define quality in terms of inputs
C) Learn from best practices
D) Make continuous improvement a priority

Answer Key:
C) Learn from best practices

Q100: The evidence available to auditor is _______ in nature, rather _______ in nature.

A) Conclusive, pervasive
B) Pervasive, conclusive
C) Limited, unlimited
D) None of these

Answer Key:
B) Pervasive, conclusive

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