AIIMS TEST SERIES

P BLOCK(GRP 15-18), D&F BLOCK, COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

NEET-UG - Chemistry
Time Allowed: 1 hour Maximum Marks: 180

General Instructions:

IJJAT SE PAPER DENA.

1. Xenon difluoride has_ shape. [4]

a) Angular b) Linear

c) Pyramidal d) Trigonal
2. Which of the following allotrope of phosphorus has semiconducting property? [4]

a) Black phosphorus b) White phosphorus

c) Yellow phosphorus d) Red phosphorus

3. Fluorine reacts with conc. NaOH to produce [4]

a) NaF and O2F b) NaF and O3

c) NaF and OF2 d) NaF and O2

4. Pure chlorine is obtained: [4]

a) By heating PtCl4 b) By treating bleaching powder with HCl

c) By heating MnO2 and HCl d) By heating a mixture of NaCl and MnO2

with conc. Sulphuric acid

5. Ammonia act as a Lewis base because nitrogen has [4]

a) Bond pair of electrons b) 3 electrons in the outermost shell

c) It has pyramidal structure d) Lone pair of electrons

6. Most metal oxides are [4]

a) Acidic in nature b) Basic in nature

c) Covalent in nature d) Ionic in nature

7. N2O3 is: [4]

a) A basic oxide and the anhydride of HNO2. b) An acidic oxide and anhydride of HNO2.

c) A neutral oxide and the anhydride of HNO3. d) An acidic oxide and the anhydride of
H2N2O2.

8. N2O3 is [4]

a) A basic oxide and the anhydride of HNO2 b) An acidic oxide and an anhydride of HNO2

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 c) A neutral oxide and the anhydride of HNO3 d) An acidic oxide and the anhydride of
H2N2O2

9. Which among the following does not exhibit positive oxidation state? [4]

a) Chlorine b) Nitrogen

c) Oxygen d) Fluorine
10. Which of the following hydrogen halides is most volatile? [4]

a) H-I b) H-Br

c) H-F d) H-Cl
11. Which of the following name of compounds are matched correctly against their molecular formula? [4]

a) CaS2O3-Calcium thiosulphate b) Na2P2O5-Sodium pyrophosphate

c) K2S2O7-Potassium thionate d) NaN3-Sodium nitride

12. Which of the following exists as covalent crystal in the solid state? [4]

a) Sulphur b) Iodine

c) Phosphorus d) Silicon
13. The incorrect statement among the following is [4]

a) C60 is an allotropic form of carbon b) S8 is only allotropic form of sulphur

c) O3 is an allotropic form of oxygen d) Red phosphorus is more stable in air than

white phosphorus
14. When chlorine is passed over dry slaked lime at room temperature, the main reaction product is: [4]

a) CaOCl2 b) Ca(OCl)2

c) CaCl2 d) Ca(ClO2)2

15. Which of the following compounds is an example of Freon? [4]

a) C2H2F2 b) C2HF3

c) C2F4 d) C2Cl2F2

[4]
16. Assertion (A): The electronic structure of O3 is

Reason (R): Structure is not allowed because octet around O cannot be expanded.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

17. Assertion (A): Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur exist as S8 but oxygen exists as O2. [4]
Reason (R): Oxygen forms pπ − pπ multiple bond due to small size and small bond length but pπ − pπ
bonding is not possible in sulphur.

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 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion : SO3 acts as a Lewis base. [4]

Reason : S atom in SO3 contains no lone pair of electrons.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

19. In which of the following does the central atom exhibit an oxidation state of +3? [4]

a) K4[Fe(CN)6] b) [Cu(NH3)4]2+

c) [Fe(C2O4)3]3- d) K2[Ni(CN)4]

20. The ions of metals of Group 12 (Zn, Cd and Hg) have completely filled d orbitals and so they: [4]

a) are very high melting solids b) behave like superconductors

c) do not behave like transition metals d) behave like semiconductors

21. The most stable ion is [4]

a) Fe2+ b) Mn2+

c) Cr2+ d) All are equally stable

22. Silver ornaments turn black by the presence of which gas in the atmosphere? [4]

a) H2S b) O2

c) Cl2 d) N2

23. Lanthanoid contraction is: [4]

a) decrease in stability of higher oxidation b) the filling of 4f before 5d orbital resulting in

states of lanthanides. a regular decrease in atomic radii.

c) ions of the same charge in a given series d) the decrease in the ionic character of
showing a progressive decrease in radius lanthanides with an increase in the oxidation
with increasing atomic number. state.
24. Which one of the following first row transition elements is expected to have the highest third ionization [4]
enthalpy?

a) Iron (Z = 26) b) Vanadium (Z = 23)

c) Manganese (Z = 25) d) Chromium (Z = 24)

25. Which of the following is called chromic acid? [4]

a) CrO b) H2CrO4

c) Cr3O4 d) Cr2O3

26. Interstitial compounds are formed when small atoms are trapped inside the crystal lattice of metals. Which of the [4]
following is not the characteristic property of interstitial compounds?

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 a) They retain metallic conductivity. b) They have high melting points in
comparison to pure metals.

c) They are chemically very reactive. d) They are very hard.

27. Which set of ions exhibit specific colours? (Atomic number of Sc = 21, Ti = 22, V = 23, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = [4]
28, Cu = 29 and Zn = 30)

a) Sc3+, Zn2+, Ni2+ b) Ti3+, Ti4+, Ni2+

c) Sc3+, Ti4+, Mn3+ d) V3+, V2+, Fe3+

28. The percentage of nickel in the alloy steel that is used for making pendulum is: [4]

a) 19% b) 36%

c) 0% d) 10%

29. Which of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar] 3d6? [4]

(At. no’s. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)

a) Fe3+ b) Mn3+

c) Co3+ d) Ni3+

30. In which of the following five 3d -orbitals are degenerated? [4]

a) [Co(NH ) ]3- b) Co
3+

63 (g)

c) [Co(NH ) ]3+ d) Co
3+

36 (Aq)

31. Assertion (A): Cu cannot liberate hydrogen from acids. [4]

Reason (R): Because it has positive electrode potential.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

32. The compounds [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O exhibits: [4]

a) Ligand isomerism b) Coordination isomerism

c) Linkage isomerism d) Hydrate isomerism

33. Which type of ligands can exhibit linkage isomerism? [4]

a) NO- b) SCN-
2

c) All of these d) CN-

34. Which complex gives three chloride ions per formula unit? [4]

a) CrCl3 . 5H2O b) CrCl3 . 6H2O

c) All of these d) CrCl3 . 4H2O

35. Due to the presence of ambidentate ligands coordination compounds show isomerism. Palladium complains of [4]
the type [Pd (C6H5)2(SCN)2] and [Pd(C6H5)2 (NCS)2] are:

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 a) Ionisation isomers b) Coordination isomers

c) Geometrical isomers d) Linkage isomers

36. Which of the following is the most stable complex ? [4]

a) [Fe(CO)5] b) [Fe(H O) ]3+

2 6

c) [Fe(C2O4)3]3- d) [Fe(CN)6]3-

37. The oxidation state of Fe in [Fe(CO)5] is [4]

a) +2 b) +3

c) 0 d) +5
38. Which of the following ligands form a chelate complex with metal ion? [4]

a) CN- b) C2O 2−
4

c) H2O d) Cl-

39. Which of the following ligands is an ambidentate ligand? [4]

a) NO2 b) NH3

c) CO d) H2O

40. Which type of isomerism is shown by the complexes [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br? [4]

a) Solvate b) Linkage

c) Optical d) Ionisation
41. In the complex PtCl4.3NH3, the number of ionisable chlorines is [4]

a) 3 b) 1

c) 0 d) 2
42. The equation which is balanced and represents the correct product(s) is [4]
Excess NaOH
a) [Mg(H O) ]2 + + (EDTA)4 - −−−−−−−→
b) CuSO
2+ + 4KCN ⟶ K2[Cu(CN)4] +
[Mg(EDTA)] +4 6H2 O
2 6
K2SO4

c) [CoCl(NH ) ]+ + 5H+ ⟶ Co2+ + d) Li2O + 2KCl ⟶ 2LiCl + K2O

35

5N H
+

4
+ Cl-
43. Which of the following compound is not coloured? [4]

a) Na2[CuCl4] b) Na2[CdCl4]

c) K3[Fe(CN)6] d) K4[Fe(CN)6]

44. Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)6]3-. [4]

a) It is sp3d2 hybridized and octahedral. b) It is d2sp3 hybridized and octahedral.

c) It is sp3d2 hybridized and tetrahedral. d) It is dsp2 hybridized and square planar.

45. Assertion (A): [Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic and tetrahedral in shape. [4]

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Reason (R): [Ni(CO)4] contains no unpaired electron and involves dsp2 hybridisation.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

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