RPP 2501

Rigorous Prelims Practice 2024

RPP 2501: Indian Polity
Answer
1. (b) 16. (b)
2. (c) 17. (a)
3. (a) 18. (c)
4. (a) 19. (d)
5. (d) 20. (a)
6. (a) 21. (c)
7. (c) 22. (c)
8. (a) 23. (c)
9. (b) 24. (b)
10. (c) 25. (c)
11. (b) 26. (c)
12. (b) 27. (b)
13. (b) 28. (b)
14. (d) 29. (a)
15. (c) 30. (b)

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Hints and Solutions

1. Ans: (b) • The members of the Drafting Committee
Exp: were:
• Pair 1 is incorrect: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar o Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (Chairman)
was the Chairman of the Drafting (Option 1 is correct)
Committee, not the Constitutional Advisor. o K. M. Munshi (Option 2 is correct)
He is known as the “Father of the Indian o Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer (Option 3
Constitution” for his role in finalizing the is correct)
Constitution. o N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar (Option
• Pair 2 is correct: B. N. Rau was appointed 4 is correct)
as the Constitutional Advisor to the o B. L. Mitter (later replaced by Madhav
Constituent Assembly in 1946. He Rao)
prepared the initial draft of the o D. P. Khaitan (later replaced by T. T.
Constitution, incorporating ideas from Krishnamachari)
global constitutions and reports of o N. Madhava Rau (a key secretary and
Assembly committees. His draft formed not a formal member).
the foundation for the final document. • Sachidanand Sinha was not a member of
• Pair 3 is correct: K. M. Munshi was an the Drafting Committee. He served as the
influential member of the Constituent temporary President of the Constituent
Assembly, particularly in the drafting of Assembly during its first meeting in
the Directive Principles of State Policy and December 1946 before Dr. Rajendra
in advocating for cultural and linguistic Prasad was elected as the permanent
rights. President.
• Pair 4 is incorrect: Jawaharlal Nehru, • Therefore, the correct answer is only 4
while an important figure and leader of the (Dr. B. R. Ambedkar,K. M. Munshi,
Constituent Assembly, did not serve as the Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, and
Chairman of the Drafting Committee. Gopalaswami Ayyangar)
Instead, Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the
Chairman of the Drafting Committee. The 3. Ans: (a)
Union Powers Committee was chaired by Exp:
Jawaharlal Nehru The Constitution of India, adopted on
Thus, two pairs are correctly matched. November 26, 1949, is the supreme law of the
land, establishing the framework for
governance and the rights of citizens.
2. Ans: (c)
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution, as
Exp:
adopted on November 26, 1949, included:
The Drafting Committee of the Indian
Constitution was formed on 29th August 1947 • Preamble: Outlining the guiding principles
by the Constituent Assembly. It was tasked and philosophy of the Constitution.
with drafting the text of the Constitution based • 395 Articles: Detailing the structure, powers,
on the reports submitted by various and functions of various government entities
committees. and the rights of citizens.

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• 8 Schedules: Providing additional details 5. Ans: (d)

and lists related to various aspects of Exp:
governance.
Option (a) is incorrect: The Regulating Act
Statement 2 is correct: Certain provisions of
of 1773 was the first British parliamentary
the Constitution came into effect on November
intervention to regulate the East India
26, 1949, including:
Company.
• Articles 5 to 9: Pertaining to citizenship.
• It established the office of the Governor-
• Article 324: Relating to the establishment
General of Bengal (Lord Warren Hastings
of the Election Commission.
being the first).
• Provisions concerning the provisional
parliament and temporary and transitional • Introduced a centralized administrative
arrangements. system.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of • Created the Supreme Court at Calcutta to
India is neither printed nor typed. It is oversee judicial affairs.
handwritten and calligraphed in both Hindi
Option (b) is incorrect: Pitt's India Act of
and English and not Urdu.
1784 introduced a dual system of governance,
• It was handwritten by Sh. Prem Behari
separating political and commercial
Narain Raizada and was published in
responsibilities.
Dehradun.
• Every page was decorated by Shantiniketan • It established the Board of Control in
artists including Beohar Rammanohar Britain to oversee political affairs in India.
Sinha and Nandalal Bose. • It strengthened British Crown control over
the company’s governance.
4. Ans: (a) Option (c) is incorrect: The Charter Act of
Exp: 1813 renewed the East India Company’s
• Pair 1 is incorrect: The Union Powers charter but ended its trade monopoly, except
Committee was chaired by Jawaharlal for tea and trade with China.
Nehru, not Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. This
committee was responsible for determining • It introduced provisions for the promotion
the distribution of powers between the of education in India.
central and state governments. • Allowed Christian missionaries to
• Pair 2 is correct: The Drafting propagate their religion.
Committee was chaired by Dr. B. R. Option (d) is correct: The Charter Act of
Ambedkar. Its primary function was to 1833 was a landmark legislation that
draft the text of the Constitution based on
centralized British governance in India.
the discussions and inputs from the
Constituent Assembly. • It ended the East India Company’s
• Pair 3 is incorrect: The Provincial commercial operations, making it solely
Constitution Committee was chaired by an administrative body.
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, not Jawaharlal • The Governor-General of Bengal was re-
Nehru. This committee was tasked with designated as the Governor-General of
formulating the governance structure for India (Lord William Bentinck was the
provinces.
first).

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• It granted exclusive legislative powers to • Cabinet Mission Plan (1946): The

the Governor-General over all British- Cabinet Mission arrived in India in
controlled territories in India and deprived March 1946 to discuss the transfer of
the Governor of Bombay and Madras of power and resolve the political deadlock
their legislative powers. between the Congress and the Muslim
• The act aimed to provide equality in League.
public employment, prohibiting Thus, the correct sequence is 2, 1, 3, 4, 5.
discrimination based on religion, race, or
caste, although this was not effectively 7. Ans: (c)
implemented.
Exp:
It initiated the codification of Indian laws,
leading to the formation of the Indian Law The Constituent Assembly of India, responsible
Commission under Lord Macaulay. for drafting the nation's Constitution, included
15 distinguished women who made
6. Ans: (a) significant contributions.
Exp: • Their participation was pivotal in ensuring
The evolution of the Constituent Assembly of that the Constitution reflected a commitment
India was a result of prolonged demands, to gender equality and social justice. They
debates, and negotiations between Indian were Ammu Swaminathan, Annie
leaders and the British government. Mascarene, Begum Aizaz Rasul,
• 1934: M.N. Roy, a pioneer of the Dakshayani Velayudhan, Durgabai
communist movement in India, first Deshmukh, G. Durgabai, Kamla
proposed the idea of a Constituent Chaudhary, Leela Roy, Malati
Assembly. Choudhury, Purnima Banerjee and others
• 1935: The INC officially demanded the mentioned below.
creation of a Constituent Assembly for
India to frame the Constitution.
• Hansa Jivraj Mehta (Option 3 is correct)

• August Offer (1940): The August Offer • Rajkumari Amrit Kaur (Option 2 is
marked a significant shift in British policy correct)
by acknowledging for the first time the idea • Renuka Ray
of granting India the right to frame its
• Sarojini Naidu (Option 1 is correct)
own constitution. Announced by Viceroy
Lord Linlithgow on August 8, 1940, the • Sucheta Kriplani (Option 4 is correct)
offer was made during World War II to Annie Besant was a prominent leader in
secure Indian cooperation in the war effort. India’s freedom struggle and is remembered for
• Cripps Mission (1942): The Cripps her pivotal role in the Home Rule Movement
Mission was sent to India in March 1942, and her tenure as the first woman president of
led by Sir Stafford Cripps, a senior the Indian National Congress (1917).
member of the British War Cabinet. The
However, she was not a member of the
mission aimed to secure Indian support for
Constituent Assembly of India. Therefore,
the British war effort during World War II
by offering a framework for post-war self- Option 5 is incorrect.
governance.

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8. Ans: (a) Option (a) is incorrect: While having a

Exp: written Constitution is an important aspect of
The Constitution of a country serves as its governance, it does not fully capture the
fundamental law, outlining the framework of essence of constitutionalism.
governance, the rights of citizens, and the limits Option (b) is correct: Constitutionalism
of government powers. Constitutions can ensures the limitation of government powers
broadly be categorized into written and through a framework of laws and principles.
unwritten, based on their codification and Key features include:
sources. • Separation of powers among the
Statement 1 is correct: A written executive, legislature, and judiciary.
constitution is a single formal document that • Protection of fundamental rights and
codifies the fundamental laws, principles, and accountablet government.
framework of governance for a country.
• Rule of law and judicial review to prevent
• Key Features: arbitrary actions.
o Consciously drafted, typically by a • Constitutionalism guarantees that no
constituent assembly or constitutional authority can act beyond the limits
convention. defined by the Constitution.
o Provides clarity, certainty, and Option (c) is incorrect: A system where the
consistency in governance. government operates without any legal or
• Examples: India, USA, Canada, France, constitutional limitations is the opposite of
and Japan. constitutionalism.
Statement 2 is correct: An unwritten Option (d) is incorrect: A framework that
constitution is not a single formal document but mandates strict adherence to executive
rather a collection of Conventions, statutes, decisions and eliminates judicial review
judicial decisions, charters, and principles. undermines constitutionalism.
• It evolves over time as a product of
historical development rather than 10. Ans: (c)
deliberate drafting. Exp:
• Examples: United Kingdom and New The Indian Constitution exhibits a blend of
Zealand, where the constitution is based federal and unitary features, allowing it to
on conventions, legal statutes, and judicial function as a unique quasi-federal system.
interpretations. Federal features emphasize the division of
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The United powers and representation of states, while unitary
Kingdom and New Zealand do not have elements highlight centralized authority.
written constitutions. Statement 1 is correct: The division of
powers between the Union and States is a
9. Ans: (b) fundamental aspect of federalism. The Seventh
Exp: Schedule of the Constitution divides subjects
Constitutionalism is a political doctrine that into:
ensures the powers of the government are • Union List: Subjects like defense and
limited and regulated by a framework of laws, foreign affairs are under the Union's
principles, and practices. exclusive control.

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• State List: Subjects like police and public

health are under the States' jurisdiction. • The President and the Governor of the
• Concurrent List: Subjects like education States.
and criminal law can be legislated upon by • Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the
both the Union and States. House of People.
This division ensures a federal structure by
• Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the
delineating responsibilities and reducing
Council of States.
overlaps.
• Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the
Statement 2 is incorrect: India operates under
Legislative assembly of States.
a single Constitution for both the Union and
States, unlike purely federal systems (e.g., the • Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the
USA), where each state has its own Legislative Council of a State.
constitution. A single Constitution reflects a • Judges of the Supreme Court and of the
unitary feature of the Indian system, as it High Courts.
establishes a unified legal framework • CAG.
applicable to both the Union and States.
It is to be noted that UPSC and State Public
Statement 3 is correct: The bicameral Service Commissions are not included in the
legislature, particularly the Rajya Sabha, second schedule.
represents the federal feature of the Indian
Statement 2 is correct: The Sixth Schedule
Constitution. The Rajya Sabha ensures that
pertains to the administration and governance
states have a voice in legislative matters,
of tribal areas in the states of:
safeguarding their interests in the Union
Parliament. • Assam
Statement 4 is incorrect: The separation of • Meghalaya
powers between the legislature, executive, and • Tripura
judiciary in India is not watertight as Executive • Mizoram
is derived from Legislature.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Eighth
Statement 5 is correct: Independent Judiciary Schedule lists the recognised languages of
is cornerstone of the federal nature of Indian India, which currently total 22 languages.
Constitution as it protects the Units of However, English is not included in this
Federation from the tyranny of the Centre and Schedule.
thus stabilises the federal nature.
• Recognised languages include Assamese,
Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada,
11. Ans: (b) Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia,
Exp: Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu,
The Schedules of the Indian Constitution o Sindhi (added by the 21st Amendment
provide detailed provisions related to various Act, 1967)
aspects of governance, administration, and
o Konkani, Manipuri & Nepali (added by
rights.
the 71st Amendment Act, 1992)
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Second
o Bodo, Dogri, Maithili & Santhali
Schedule deals with the salaries, allowances,
(added by the 92nd Amendment Act,
and privileges of key constitutional
2003)
officeholders, including:

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Statement 4 is incorrect: The Twelfth 13. Ans: (a)

Schedule specifies the functional areas of Exp:
Municipalities, such as Urban planning, Water The Constitution of India provides for a
supply, Public health, etc. It was introduced by dynamic mechanism to amend itself under
the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368. Amendments are categorised
1992, not the 73rd Amendment, which pertains based on their impact on federal and
to Panchayati Raj institutions. constitutional arrangements. The three types of
amendments are:
12. Ans: (b) • Simple Majority Amendments: Can be
Exp: passed by a simple majority in Parliament
The Indian Constitution borrows features from and are not considered part of Article 368.
various global constitutions to suit the o Admission or establishment of new
country’s diverse needs and challenges. These states (Article 2).
borrowed features reflect best practices in
o Formation or alteration of state
governance and ensure a balanced framework
boundaries or names (Article 3).
of democracy, federalism, and the rule of law.
o Abolition or creation of legislative
• Pair A is correctly matched: The Indian
councils in states (Article 169).
Constitution borrowed several features
from the British system, including the o Use of official language in Parliament.
parliamentary government, Rule of (Option 6 is incorrect)
Law, legislative procedure, and single • Special Majority Amendments: Require
citizenship. These features form the a two-thirds majority of members
backbone of India's political and present and voting in both Houses of
administrative systems, ensuring Parliament.
continuity in governance.
o Amendments related to Fundamental
• Pair B is incorrectly matched: The Rights.
features listed federation with a strong o Amendments related to the Directive
Centre, residuary powers, and advisory
Principles of State Policy (Option 1
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court were
is incorrect)
borrowed from the Canadian Constitution,
not the Australian Constitution. o Any provision that does not fall under
simple majority or state ratification
• Pair C is incorrectly matched: The
requirements.
Australian model contributed features like
the Concurrent List, freedom of trade • Special Majority + Ratification by Half
and commerce, and the joint sitting of of the States: Necessary for amendments
two Houses of Parliament. affecting federal structure such as
• Pair D is correctly matched: The Indian distribution of powers.
Constitution adopted several key elements o Election of the President and its
from the US Constitution, including manner (Articles 54 and 55). (Option
fundamental rights, judicial review, 4 is correct)
independence of the judiciary, and the o Distribution of legislative powers
procedure for impeachment of the between the Union and states (Article
President. 246, Seventh Schedule).

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o Representation of states in Parliament. Option (b) is incorrect: Golaknath vs. State

(Option 5 is correct) of Punjab (1967)
o Procedure for amending the Constitution • This judgment imposed significant
(Article 368) (Option 2 is correct) restrictions on Parliament’s amending power.
o Seventh Schedule (Union, State, and • In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that
Concurrent Lists). (Option 3 is correct) Parliament cannot amend Fundamental
Rights, stating that such an amendment
14. Ans: (d) would violate the provisions of Article 13.
Exp: Thus amendments made under Article 368
Statement 1 is incorrect: Only Parliament are subject to limitations made by Article 13.
has the power to amend the Constitution • It overturned the earlier stance in Shankari
under Article 368 through the exercise of its Prasad and limited Parliament’s authority
constituent power. State Legislatures do not under Article 368.
have the authority to independently amend • The Parliament inserted Article 13(4) by
the Constitution. However, for certain the 24th amendment, 1971 after this
amendments affecting the federal structure judgement which explicitly mentioned that
(e.g., distribution of powers, representation of nothing in Article 13 shall pertain to
states in Parliament), ratification by at least half amendments made under Article 368.
of the State Legislatures is required after Option (c) is correct: Maneka Gandhi vs.
Parliament passes the Bill. Union of India (1978)
Statement 2 is incorrect: The President must • This case did not deal with the amending
give assent to a Constitutional Amendment power of Parliament.
Bill once it is passed by the required majority
in both Houses of Parliament. The President
• It expanded the interpretation of Article 21
(Right to Life and Personal Liberty) by
cannot withhold or return the Bill for
introducing the principle that any law
reconsideration, as is the case with ordinary
affecting life and liberty must be just, fair,
legislation. (inserted by 24th Amendment
and reasonable.
Act, 1971)
• It is a landmark judgment in personal
liberty and due process but has no
15. Ans: (c)
relevance to the constitutional amending
Exp: powers of Parliament.
Option (a) is incorrect: Shankari Prasad vs. Option (d) is incorrect: Minerva Mills vs.
Union of India (1951) Union of India (1980)
• This was the first case to address • This judgment reinforced the Basic
Parliament's power to amend the Structure Doctrine, introduced in the
Constitution. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
• The Supreme Court held that the term The Supreme Court struck down portions of the
"law" under Article 13 does not include 42nd Amendment that gave Parliament
constitutional amendments, thereby unlimited amending power by adding a clause in
enabling Parliament to amend any part of Article 368 mentioning any amendment made
the Constitution, including Fundamental under Article 368 would not be called in question
Rights. in any Court on any ground. The Court held
• It upheld the validity of the First limited power of Parliament to amend the
Constitutional Amendment. constitution as part of the Basic structure.

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16. Ans: (b) 17. Ans: (a)

Exp: Exp:
The Constitution of India organizes its Countries differ in their constitutional
provisions into Parts, each addressing specific frameworks based on their historical evolution
areas of governance, rights, and responsibilities. and governance needs. Constitutions may be
Pair 1 is incorrect: Part IV of the Constitution classified as written or unwritten, and
pertains to the Directive Principles of State governments may adopt systems like
Policy (DPSPs), which serve as guidelines for parliamentary, presidential, or semi-
the State to achieve social and economic presidential forms.
justice. Fundamental Duties, however, are India : (A - 1)
listed under Part IVA, which was introduced • India has a written Constitution, the
by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, longest in the world.
1976.
• It establishes a parliamentary form of
Pair 2 is correct: Part VI of the Constitution government, where the executive is
deals with the State Governments, outlining accountable to the legislature.
provisions for:
• The legislature is bicameral, with the Lok
• The Governor, who acts as the executive Sabha (House of the People) and Rajya
head of the State.
Sabha (Council of States).
• The State Legislature, comprising either a
• It follows a federal form of government,
unicameral or bicameral structure.
with powers divided between the Union
• The State Executive, including the Chief and States, though it leans towards
Minister and the Council of Ministers. centralization during emergencies.
Pair 3 is incorrect: Part VIII, not Part VII, United Kingdom : (B - 4)
pertains to the Union Territories and their
• The UK operates under an unwritten
administration. Part VII, which initially dealt
Constitution, based on conventions,
with states like Hyderabad, Jammu and
statutes, and judicial decisions.
Kashmir, Madhya Bharat, Mysore, Patiala
and East Punjab States Union (PEPSU) in • It follows a parliamentary system of
the Part B of the First Schedule, was repealed government, where the Prime Minister
by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, leads the executive and is accountable to
1956, following the reorganization of states. Parliament.
Pair 4 is correct: Part XV of the Constitution • The legislature is bicameral, comprising
relates to Elections, covering: the House of Commons and the House of
• The Election Commission of India, which Lords.
oversees the conduct of free and fair • The UK is a unitary state, with power
elections. concentrated at the central level, though
• Provisions for electoral processes, devolved administrations in Scotland,
including the delimitation of constituencies, Wales, and Northern Ireland exercise
preparation of electoral rolls, and limited autonomy.
qualifications of voters. United States : (C - 3)
• Mechanisms to ensure a democratic • The USA has a written Constitution, one
electoral system.
of the oldest still in use.

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• It follows a presidential system, Statement 3 is correct: The Basic Structure

characterized by a clear separation of Doctrine, established in the landmark
powers between the executive, legislature, judgment of Kesavananda Bharati vs. State
and judiciary. of Kerala (1973), serves as a substantive
limitation on Parliament’s amending power.It
• The legislature is bicameral, consisting of
ensures that the basic structure of the
the House of Representatives and the Constitution, such as democracy, federalism, or
Senate. judicial independence, cannot be altered or
• The USA is a federal state, with powers destroyed.
divided between the federal government
and the states. 19. Ans: (d)
France : (D - 2) Exp:
• France has a written Constitution, which Statement 1 is correct: The First Amendment
establishes a semi-presidential system. introduced the 9th Schedule to protect certain
This system combines features of laws, particularly related to land reforms,
parliamentary and presidential governance. from judicial review under Articles 13 and 32.

• It has a unicameral legislature, the • This aimed to prevent the judiciary from
National Assembly. invalidating laws that sought to redistribute
land, reduce inequalities, and abolish the
France follows a unitary system, with
zamindari system.
centralized power, though administrative
decentralization is practiced for efficient • Laws placed under this schedule are
immune to judicial scrutiny, though this
governance.
was later limited by the I.R. Coelho vs.
State of Tamil Nadu (2007) judgment,
18. Ans: (c) which allowed judicial review if such laws
Exp: violated the basic structure doctrine.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 13(2) Statement 2 is correct: The 42nd
prohibits the State from making laws that Amendment, often called the "Mini-
abridge or take away Fundamental Rights. Constitution," was enacted during the
However, Article 13(4) explicitly states that Emergency period.
Article 13 does not apply to constitutional • It added the words "Socialist" and
amendments made under Article 368. In the "Secular" to the Preamble to reflect the
Kesavananda Bharati case, Supreme Court objectives of a welfare state and the secular
changed it’s stance made in the Golaknath character of the Indian Republic.
Case(1967) which held Constututional • The term "Secular" emphasizes that the
amendments using Article 368 to be under the state treats all religions equally and does
ambit of Article 13. not endorse or favor any religion.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 32 Statement 3 is correct: The 86th Amendment
guarantees the right to constitutional Act introduced Article 21A, which made the
remedies and provides for the enforcement of Right to Education a Fundamental Right for
Fundamental Rights. However, it does not children aged 6 to 14 years.
impose any limitation on Parliament's • It mandated free and compulsory education
amending power under Article 368. for all children within this age group.

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• Additionally, this amendment added • Parliamentary System

Article 51A(k), making it a fundamental Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975)-
duty of parents or guardians to provide (A-4): This case dealt with the validity of the
opportunities for education to their 39th Constitutional Amendment, which
children. sought to exclude disputes regarding the
Statement 4 is correct: The 61st Amendment election of the Prime Minister from judicial
amended Article 326, reducing the voting age review.
from 21 to 18 years for both Lok Sabha and • The Supreme Court struck down the
State Assembly elections. amendment, emphasizing that India as a
• This was aimed at increasing youth sovereign democratic republic , Rule of
participation in the democratic process and Law and Free and Fair Elections are
empowering younger citizens to contribute essential to democracy and form part of
to decision-making. the Basic Structure Doctrine.

• This amendment significantly expanded • The judgment also reinforced the principle
the electoral base, making Indian of Separation of Powers, ensuring that no
democracy more inclusive. branch of government oversteps its
constitutional limits.
S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)-(B-2):
20. Ans: (a)
This case examined the scope of the
Exp: President's power to dismiss state
The Basic Structure Doctrine, established in governments under Article 356 (President’s
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Rule).
(1973), ensures that Parliament cannot alter or • The Supreme Court held that Secularism is
destroy fundamental features of the a fundamental feature of the Constitution,
Constitution. Over time, various judgments meaning that state policies must not favor
have further elaborated and identified any religion.
components of the Basic Structure through
• It also upheld Federalism as a key
specific cases.
component, ensuring a fair balance of
Features declared as part of Basic Structure power between the Union and states, with
in the Kesavananda Bharati case: misuse of Article 356 being subject to
1. Supremacy of the Constitution. judicial review.
2. Separation of powers between the • This case also upheld Social Justice,
legislature, the executive and the judiciary. Democracy, Unity and Integrity of
• Republic and Democratic form of Nation and Judicial review as part of
government. basic structure.
1. Secular character of the constitution. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India (1980)-
(C-3): This case challenged the validity of
2. Federal character of the constitution.
Sections 4 and 55 of the 42nd Amendment,
3. Sovereignty and Unity of India.
which sought to give primacy to Directive
4. Freedom and dignity of the individual. Principles of State Policy over Fundamental
5. Mandate to build a welfare state. Rights.

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• The Supreme Court struck down the 22. Ans: (c)

provisions, emphasizing that the harmony Exp:
between Fundamental Rights and Statement 1 is correct: The Charter Act of
Directive Principles is a part of the Basic 1833 is considered a landmark legislation in
Structure Doctrine. the history of British India as it centralized
• The judgment reinforced that both British administrative control in India and
Fundamental Rights and Directive marked the formal beginning of British
Principles are equally important and colonial governance. It made the Governor-
neither can undermine the other. General of Bengal the Governor-General of
India and gave the British East India Company
I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007)-
a purely administrative role, effectively
(D-1): This case revisited the scope of the
legalizing British colonial rule.
Ninth Schedule, which protects certain laws
Statement 2 is correct: The Charter Act of
from judicial review.
1813 explicitly earmarked ₹1 lakh for the
• The issue was whether laws placed in the promotion of education in India, including
Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973 the revival of literature and the advancement of
(Kesavananda Bharati judgment) are scientific knowledge. This marked the
immune from judicial review. beginning of state intervention in Indian
• This case upheld the Principle of education.
Equality, Principle(essence) underlying Statement 3 is correct: The establishment of a
Fundamental Rights, Separation of legislative wing within the Governor-
Powers and Rule of Law as part of Basic General’s Council occurred under the
Structure. Charter Act of 1853. It introduced a
Hence, Option (a) is the correct answer. legislative framework whereby the Governor-
General and his council could make laws for
the entire British territory in India.
21. Ans: (c)
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Charter Act of
Exp:
1813 did not permit Indians to participate in
Statement I is correct: The Pitt's India Act of administration. This provision was introduced
1784 introduced a distinction between the much later, specifically under the Charter Act
commercial and political functions of the East of 1833.
India Company. This was a significant Statement 5 is correct: The Charter Act of
development in British governance of India. 1833 provided for the addition of a fourth
Statement II is incorrect: The Act allowed the ordinary member to the Governor-General’s
Court of Directors to manage commercial Council for legislative purposes. Lord
affairs, while a new body called the Board of Macaulay was appointed to this position as
Control was created to manage political Law member and played a significant role in
affairs. Thus, the roles mentioned in Statement drafting the Indian Penal Code.
II are reversed. Statement 6 is correct: The Charter Act of
The Pitt's India Act established a "double 1793 extended the East India Company's
government" system by dividing monopoly for 20 years and gave the Governor-
responsibilities between the Court of Directors General greater authority over Bombay and
and the Board of Control. Madras Presidencies.

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23. Ans: (c) Statement 3 is incorrect: While in the UK,

Exp: parliamentary sovereignty prevails, meaning
Statement 1 is correct: The Government of the judiciary cannot override parliamentary
India Act, 1919 introduced bicameralism (two laws, in India, the judiciary has the power of
houses at the central legislature) and direct judicial review. The Indian judiciary can strike
elections for the first time in India. down laws that violate the Constitution, as seen
Statement 2 is incorrect: The provision for in cases like Kesavananda Bharati v. State of
establishing Federal, Provincial, and Joint Kerala, 1973. This shows the significant
Public Service Commissions was part of the difference between the two systems regarding
Government of India Act, 1935, not the 1919 the Rule of Law.
Act.
Statement 3 is correct: The Government of
25. Ans: (c)
India Act, 1919 introduced the concept of
Exp:
dyarchy in the provinces, dividing subjects into
Statement 1 is correct: The Nehru Report
"reserved" (handled by the Governor and
executive council) and "transferred" proposed dominion status for India, similar to
(administered by ministers responsible to the self-governing dominions like Canada and
legislature). Australia. This was a step toward self-
Statement 4 is correct: The Government of governance within the British Empire, but it
India Act, 1919 extended communal was not fully supported by the more radical
representation by introducing separate sections of the INC.
electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Nehru Report
Indians, and Europeans. rejected separate electorates and instead
Statement 5 is incorrect: The creation of an proposed joint electorates with reservations
All-India Federation was proposed under the for Muslims only in the provinces where they
Government of India Act, 1935, but it did not were in the minority. The report emphasized
materialize due to the non-participation of unity between Hindus and Muslims, hence the
princely states. rejection of separate electorates for the
Muslim community in majority provinces like
24. Ans: (b) Punjab and Bengal.
Exp: Statement 3 is correct: The Nehru Report
Statement 1 is correct: In the UK, recommended linguistic provinces to
parliamentary sovereignty is a key feature of accommodate the diversity of India's languages
the Rule of Law. Parliament is the supreme and ensure better representation at the
legislative body, and its laws cannot be provincial level. This was seen as a progressive
overridden by any other institution, including step to address India's cultural diversity.
the judiciary. Statement 4 is correct: The Nehru Report
Statement 2 is correct: In India, the included nineteen fundamental rights, which
Constitution is the supreme legal authority. included equal rights for women, the right to
All laws, including those passed by Parliament, form unions, and universal adult suffrage.
must comply with the Constitution. This is an These provisions highlighted the INC's
example of constitutional sovereignty, where progressive approach to securing individual
sovereignty is not vested in the legislature but rights and promoting social justice.
in the Constitution.

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 RPP 2501

Statement 5 is correct: The Nehru Report 27. Ans: (B)

called for a responsible government at both Exp:
the Centre and the provinces, with a 500- The Objectives Resolution 1946 was introduced
member House of Representatives elected by by Jawaharlal Nehru in the very first session of
the Constitution Assembly. The Indian Preamble
universal adult suffrage with 5 year tenure
is based upon these resolutions.
and a 200-member Senate with 7 year tenure Statement 1 is correct: Territories forming
elected by provincial councils. This structure the Union shall be autonomous units and
aimed at creating a more inclusive and exercise all powers and functions of the
democratic system of governance. Government except those assigned to or
vested in the Union. The states thus derive
power directly from the constitution.
26. Ans: (C) Statement 2 is incorrect: All powers and
Exp: authority of sovereign and independent
Saint Helena Act is another name for the India shall flow from its people based on the
Charter Act of 1833. doctrine of popular sovereignty.
Statement 1 is correct: As per the Charter Act Statement 3 is correct: As per the resolution,
of 1813 company’s monopoly over trade in All the People of India shall be guaranteed
India was already ended. But the company and secured Social, Economic and Political
justice; equality of status and opportunities
retained trade with China & trade in tea,
and equality before law; and fundamental
which was also ended via Charter Act of
freedoms - of speech, expression, belief, faith,
1833 or Helena Act. worship, vocation, association and action -
Statement 2 is correct: This Act deprived the subject to law and public morality.
Governor of Bombay and Madras of their
legislative powers and the Governor-General
of Bengal became the Governor-General of
India with exclusive legislative powers of
entire British India.
Statement 3 is correct: It attempted to
introduce the system of open competition for
selection of Civil Servants and stated that
the Indians should not be debarred from
holding any office and employment under
the Company whereas, Charter Act of 1853
introduced an Open competition system for
28. Ans: (B)
selection & recruitment of civil servants.
Exp:
On February 20, 1947, British Prime Minister
Clement Atlee declared that the British rule in
India would end by June 30, 1948; after which
the power would be transferred to the
responsible Indian hands. For this, an act was
enacted by the British Parliament on July 5,
1947, which received royal assent on July 18,
1947. It is based on the Mountbatten Plan. The
Act entered into effect on August 15, 1947.
Some features of the act are:

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 RPP 2501

• It ended British rule in India and declared 29. Ans: (a)

India as an independent and sovereign state Exp:
on August 15, 1947. It provided for the Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Related to
partition of India and the creation of two
Ordinance making power, the 38th
independent dominions of India and
Constitutional The Amendment Act of 1975
Pakistan with the right to secede from the
made the President’s satisfaction final and
British Commonwealth.
conclusive and beyond judicial review. But,
• It abolished the office of the Viceroy and
this provision was deleted by the 44th
provided, for each dominion, a governor
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978. Thus,
general, who was to be appointed by the
British King on the advice of the dominion the President’s satisfaction is justiciable on the
cabinet. ground of malafide.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: 39th
• It abolished the office of the Secretary of
State for India and transferred his functions Amendment of the Constitution of India,
to the Secretary of State for Commonwealth placed the election of the President, the Vice
Affairs. President, the Prime Minister and the Speaker
• It granted freedom to the Indian of the Lok Sabha beyond the scrutiny of the
princely states either to join the Indian courts.
Dominion of India or the Dominion of Pair 3 is correctly matched: The 42nd
Pakistan or to remain independent. Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, made
Hence, Option A is correct. the President bound by the advice of the
• It provided for the governance of each of Council of Ministers headed by the Prime
the dominions and the provinces by the Minister. The 44th Constitutional Amendment
Government of India Act of 1935, till the Act of 1978, authorized the President to require
new Constitutions were framed. the Council of Ministers to reconsider such
• It deprived the British Monarch of his advice.
right to veto bills or ask for reservation
of certain bills for his approval. But, this
right was reserved for the Governor 30. Ans: (B)
General. The Governor General would Exp:
have full power to assent to any bill in the Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to
name of His Majesty. examine the constitutionality of legislative
• It designated the Governor-General of enactments and executive orders of both the
India and the provincial governors as Central and State governments.
constitutional (nominal) heads of the
states. They were made to act on the advice
• The doctrine of judicial review
of the respective council of ministers in all originated and developed in the USA. It
matters. Hence, Option B is incorrect. was propounded for the first time in the
famous case of Marbury versus Madison
• It discontinued the appointment to civil
services and reservation of posts by the (1803) by John Marshall, the then chief
secretary of state for India. Hence, justice of the American Supreme Court.
Option C is correct. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

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 RPP 2501

• In India, on the other hand, the Constitution • Some provisions in the constitution
itself confers the power of judicial review supporting the process Article 13 declares
on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as that any law which contravenes any of the
well as High Courts). Further, the provisions of the part of Fundamental
Supreme Court has declared the power Rights shall be void.
of judicial review as a basic feature of the • Articles 32 and 226 entrusts the roles of the
Constitution or an element of the basic protector and guarantor of fundamental
structure of the Constitution. Hence, the rights
power of judicial review cannot be
Article 372 (1) establishes the judicial review
curtailed or excluded even by a
of the pre-constitution legislation.
constitutional amendment. Hence
statement 3 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The phrase
'Judicial Review' has nowhere been used in
the Constitution, the provisions of several
Articles explicitly confer the power of
judicial review on the Supreme Court and
the High Courts.


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