CBSE Class 10 Science Question Paper 2024

Set 1 (31/4/1) Solutions

SECTION A

Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of
the questions no. 1 to 20. There is no negative marking for incorrect response.
20×1=20

1. Zn + 2CH3COOH ⎯⎯
→(CH 3COO)2 Zn + H 2 1

The above reaction is a:

(A) Decomposition reaction

(B) Displacement reaction
(C) Double displacement reaction
(D) Combination reaction

Answer: (B) Displacement reaction

2. An aqueous solution of a salt turns blue litmus to red. The salt could be the one
obtained by the reaction of: 1

(A) HNO3and NaOH

(B) H 2 SO4 and KOH
(C) CH3COOH and NaOH
(D) HCl and NH 4OH

Answer: (D) HCl and NH 4OH

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3. Four solutions, namely glucose, alcohol, hydrochloric acid, and sulphuric acid filled
in four separate beakers are connected one by one in an electric circuit with a bulb. The
solutions in which the bulb will glow when current is passed are: 1

(A) Glucose and alcohol

(B) Alcohol and hydrochloric acid
(C) Glucose and sulphuric acid
(D) Hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid

Answer: (D) Hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid

4. The metals which are found in both free state as well as combined state are: 1

(A) Gold and platinum

(B) Platinum and silver
(C) Copper and silver
(D) Gold and silver

Answer: (A) Gold and platinum

5. The number of single and double bonds present in a molecule of benzene (C6 H 6 )
respectively, are: 1

(A) 6 and 6
(B) 9 and 3
(C) 3 and 9
(D) 3 and 3

Answer: (D) 3 and 3

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6. In human beings, when the process of digestion is completed, the (i) proteins, (ii)
carbohydrates, and (iii) fats are respectively finally converted into: 1

(A) (i) Amino acids, (ii) glucose and (iii) fatty acids
(B) (i) Amino acids, (ii) glucose, (iii) fatty acids and glycerol
(C) (i) Glucose, (ii) fatty acids and glycerol, (iii) amino acids
(D) (i) Sugars, (ii) amino acids, (iii) fatty acids and glycerol

Answer: (A) (i) Amino acids, (ii) glucose and (iii) fatty acids

7. A plant growth inhibitor hormone which causes wilting of leaves is called: 1

(A) Auxin
(B) Cytokinin
(C) Abscisic acid
(D) Gibberellin

Answer: (C) Abscisic acid

8. The plants that can be raised by the method of vegetative propagation are: 1

(A) Sugarcane, roses, grapes

(B) Sugarcane, mustard, potato
(C) Banana, orange, mustard
(D) Papaya, mustard, potato

Answer: (A) Sugarcane, roses, grapes

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9. The part which is used as a source of food during germination of seed is: 1

(A) Plumule
(B) Radicle
(C) Embryo
(D) Cotyledons

Answer: (D) Cotyledons

10. A zygote is formed by the fusion of a male gamete and a female gamete. The number
of chromosomes in the zygote of a human is: 1

(A) 23
(B) 44
(C) 46
(D) 92

Answer: (C) 46

3 4
11. Absolute refractive index of glass and water is and respectively. If the speed of
2 3
light in glass is 108 m/s , the speed of light in water is: 1

9
(A) 108 m/s
4
5
(B) 108 m/s
2
7
(C) 108 m/s
3
16
(D) 108 m/s
9

5
Answer: (B) 108 m/s
2

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12. When a beam of white light passes through a region having very fine dust particles,
the colour of light mainly scattered in that region is: 1

(A) Red
(B) Orange
(C) Blue
(D) Yellow

Answer: (C) Blue

13. Consider the following combinations of resistors: 1

The combinations having equivalent resistance  is/are:

(A) I and IV
(B) Only IV
(C) I and II
(D) I, II and III

Answer: (B) Only IV

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14. An electric iron of resistance 20 Ω draws a current of 5 A. The heat developed in the
iron in 30 seconds is: 1

(A) 3000 J
(B) 6000 J
(C) 1500 J
(D) 7500 J

Answer: (B) 6000 J

15. A rectangular loop ABCD carrying a current I is situated near a straight conductor
XY, such that the conductor is parallel to the side AB of the loop and is in the plane of
the loop. If a steady current I is established in the conductor as shown, the conductor XY
will: 1

(A) remain stationary.

(B) move towards the side AB of the loop.
(C) move away from the side AB of the loop.
(D) rotate about its axis.

Answer: (B) move towards the side AB of the loop.

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16. Some wastes are given below: 1

(i) Garden waste

(ii) Ball point pen refills
(iii) Empty medicine bottles made of glass
(iv) Peels of fruits and vegetables
(v) Old cotton shirt

The non-biodegradable wastes among these are: (A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iv) and (v)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii)

For Questions number 17 to 20, two statements are given — one labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions
from the codes (A), (B), (C), and (D) as given below.

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

17. Assertion (A): The extraction of metals from their sulphide ores cannot take place
without roasting of the ore. 1

Reason (R): Roasting converts sulphide ores directly into metals.

Answer: (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

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18. Assertion (A): In the human heart ventricles have thicker muscular walls than atria.
1

Reason (R): Ventricles have to pump the blood into various organs.

Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).

19. Assertion (A): Magnetic field lines never intersect each other. 1

Reason (R): If they intersect, then at the point of intersection, the compass needle would point
towards two directions, which is not possible.

Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).

20. Assertion (A): Oxygen is essential for all aerobic forms of life. 1

Reason (R): Free oxygen atoms combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone.

Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).

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 Section B

Question no 21 to 26 are very short answer type questions.

21. (a) 1 gram of solid sodium chloride was taken in a clean and dry test tube and
concentrated sulphuric acid was added to it. 2

(i) Name the gas evolved in the reaction. (ii) What will be observed when this gas is tested
with (I) dry, and (II) wet blue litmus paper? Write your conclusion about the nature
(acidic/basic) of this gas.

Answer: (i) The gas evolved is hydrogen chloride (HCl) gas. (ii)

• (I) When tested with dry blue litmus paper, there will be no change.

• (II) When tested with wet blue litmus paper, it will turn red.

• Conclusion: The gas is acidic in nature.

OR

(b) Some metals react with acids to produce salt and hydrogen gas. Illustrate it with an
example. How will you test the presence of this gas? 2

Answer: Example: Reaction of zinc with hydrochloric acid: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

Testing for hydrogen gas:

• Bring a burning matchstick near the mouth of the test tube. If hydrogen gas is present,
it will burn with a 'pop' sound.

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22. Distinguish between a saturated and an unsaturated hydrocarbon by flame test. List
the products of combustion reaction of a saturated hydrocarbon. 2

Answer:

• Saturated hydrocarbon: Burns with a clean, blue flame.

• Unsaturated hydrocarbon: Burns with a yellow, sooty flame.

• Products of combustion of saturated hydrocarbon: Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) and water

( H 2 O) .

23. (a) We need to water the soil in plants on a regular basis. But it ultimately reaches the
leaves of the plant. Explain how this takes place. 2

Answer: Water is absorbed by the roots from the soil. It then travels through the plant's
vascular system (xylem) and reaches the leaves by the process of transpiration pull, capillary
action, and root pressure.

OR

(b) Name the type of nutrition exhibited by Amoeba. Explain how food is taken in and
digested by this organism. 2

Answer:

• Type of nutrition: Holozoic nutrition

• Process: Amoeba engulfs food particles through phagocytosis, forming a food vacuole.
Enzymes are then secreted into the vacuole to digest the food.

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24. The survival of a species is promoted through creation of variations. Illustrate with
an example. 2

Answer: Example: Bacteria can develop resistance to antibiotics through genetic variations.
These variations can help some bacteria survive and reproduce even in the presence of
antibiotics, ensuring the survival of the species.

25. A person suffering from presbyopia needs bifocal lenses. If he needs two lenses of
power – 4.0 dioptre and + 2.0 dioptre, which one of these two lenses is for the correction
of distant vision and what is its focal length? 2

Answer:

• Lens for distant vision correction: – 4.0 dioptre

1
• Focal length calculation: Focal length (f) =
Power (P)

1
f =
−4.0

f = −0.25 meters

26. Two wires A and B of same material, having same lengths and diameters 0.2 mm and
0.3 mm, are connected in series with one by one in a circuit. If the same current flows in
both wires, which will offer more resistance to the flow of current in the circuit? Justify
your answer. 2

Answer:

• Wire A will offer more resistance.

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 • Justification: Resistance (R) is inversely proportional to the square of the diameter (d)
1
of the wire: R 
d2

• Since wire A has a smaller diameter (0.2 mm) compared to wire B (0.3 mm), it will
have higher resistance.

Section C

Questions no 27 to 33 are short answer type questions.

1
27. Write the common name and the chemical name of the compound CaSO4 · H 2O .
2
Write the method of its preparation. Give chemical equation for the reaction, when water
1
reacts with CaSO4 . H 2O . 3
2

Answer:

• Common name: Plaster of Paris

• Chemical name: Calcium sulphate hemihydrate

• Method of preparation: Plaster of Paris is prepared by heating gypsum ( CaSO4 H 2O)

at 373 K.

1 3
• Chemical equation for preparation: CaSO4  2H 2O ⎯⎯⎯
373 K
→ CaSO 4  H 2O + H 2O
2 2

1 3
• Reaction with water: CaSO4  H 2O + H 2O → CaSO 4  2H 2O
2 2

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28. Why is the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid an oxidation reaction? Name the
oxidising agent used in this conversion. Write chemical equation for this oxidation
reaction. How is this reaction different from the reaction in which ethanol burns in the
presence of oxygen? 3

Answer:

• Conversion: The conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid involves the addition of

oxygen atoms, which is characteristic of an oxidation reaction.

• Oxidising agent: Potassium permanganate ( KMnO4 ) or potassium dichromate (

K2Cr2O7 ) in acidic medium.

+
• Chemical equation: CH3CH 2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯
KMnO /H
→ CH3COOH
4

• Difference from combustion: In oxidation, ethanol is converted to ethanoic acid,

whereas in combustion, ethanol burns completely to produce carbon dioxide and water.
C2 H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O

29. (a) Explain with the help of a labelled diagram, the process of reproduction in Hydra
by budding. Name the cells used for reproduction in this process. 3

Answer:

• Diagram:

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 • Explanation: In Hydra, a bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division
at one specific site. These buds develop into tiny individuals and when fully mature,
they detach from the parent body to become new independent individuals.

• Cells used: Somatic cells at the budding site.

OR

(b) List two roles of each of the following in human reproductive system: 3

(i) Seminal vesicles and prostate gland

(ii) Oviduct
(iii) Testis

Answer:

• Seminal vesicles and prostate gland:

1. Produce seminal fluid that nourishes and transports sperm.

2. Secrete fluids that form part of the semen.

• Oviduct:

1. Site of fertilization where the sperm meets the egg.

2. Transports the fertilized egg to the uterus.

• Testis:

1. Produces sperm cells.

2. Secretes testosterone, the male sex hormone.

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30. List two differences between dominant traits and recessive traits. What percentage
of pea plants in the F2 generation were with yellow seeds in Mendel’s cross between pea
plants having yellow (YY) and green coloured (yy) seeds? 3

Answer:

• Differences:

1. Dominant Traits: Expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous conditions.

(e.g., YY or Yy) Recessive Traits: Expressed only in homozygous condition.
(e.g., yy)

2. Dominant Traits: Mask the effect of recessive traits. Recessive Traits: Effects
are masked by dominant traits.

• Percentage of yellow seeds in F2 generation: 75%

31. Define the term power of accommodation of human eye. What happens to the image
distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an object from the eye? Name and
explain the role of the part of human eye responsible for it in this case. 3

Answer:

• Power of accommodation: The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length to focus
on objects at varying distances.

• Image distance: Remains constant as the eye lens adjusts its focal length.

• Part responsible: The ciliary muscles adjust the curvature of the lens to change its
focal length, allowing the eye to focus on objects at different distances.

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32. A student fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing board. He places a bar magnet in
the center of it. He sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet. Then
he taps the drawing board gently and observes that the iron filings arrange themselves
in a particular pattern. 3

(a) Why do the iron filings arrange in a particular pattern?

(b) What does the crowding of iron filings at the ends of the magnet indicate?
(c) Along which direction, will the iron filings align, represent?

Answer: (a) The iron filings arrange in a particular pattern because they align along the
magnetic field lines created by the bar magnet. (b) The crowding of iron filings at the ends of
the magnet indicates the regions of strongest magnetic field (the poles of the magnet). (c) The
iron filings align along the direction of the magnetic field lines, representing the path of
magnetic force from the north pole to the south pole of the magnet.

33. Study the picture given below showing three food chains (a), (b), and (c) and answer
the following questions: 3

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(i) Name the type of ecosystems that exist in food chains (b) and (c).

Answer:

• (b) Desert ecosystem

• (c) Aquatic ecosystem

(ii) The first trophic level in all food chains are producers. Why? What percentage of
solar energy do these producers capture for their use?

Answer:

• Reason: Producers, such as plants and algae, are autotrophic organisms that can
synthesize their own food using sunlight, thereby forming the base of the food chain.

• Percentage of solar energy captured: Producers capture about 1% of the solar energy
that falls on their leaves.

(iii) Why are the arrows shown in the diagram in one direction only and not vice versa?
Justify.

Answer:

• Reason: The arrows in the food chain represent the flow of energy and nutrients from
one trophic level to the next. They point in one direction because energy flows from
producers to consumers, and not the other way around.

• Justification: Energy is transferred when one organism consumes another. This flow
of energy is unidirectional as it moves from lower to higher trophic levels and is
eventually lost as heat. Energy cannot be transferred back from higher to lower trophic
levels.

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 Section D

Questions no 34 to 36 are long answer type questions.

34. (a) What is a chemical reaction? Describe one activity each to show that a chemical
change has occurred in which (i) change of colour, and (ii) change in temperature has
taken place. 5

Answer:

• Chemical reaction: A process in which one or more substances (reactants) are

converted into one or more new substances (products) with different properties.

(i) Change of colour:

• Activity: Adding a few drops of phenolphthalein to a solution of sodium hydroxide

(NaOH) results in a pink colour, indicating a chemical change. Adding hydrochloric
acid (HCl) to this solution will cause the colour to disappear.

• Observation: The pink colour of phenolphthalein in the basic solution disappears when
an acid is added, indicating a chemical reaction.

(ii) Change in temperature:

• Activity: Mixing quicklime (calcium oxide, CaO) with water.

• Observation: When water is added to quicklime, the mixture becomes hot, indicating
an exothermic reaction that releases heat.

OR

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(b) (i) Define a decomposition reaction. How can we say that (I) electrolysis of water, and
(II) blackening of silver bromide when exposed to sunlight, are decomposition reactions?
Mention the type of energy involved in each case. 5

Answer:

• Decomposition reaction: A chemical reaction in which a single compound breaks

down into two or more simpler substances.

(I) Electrolysis of water:

• Reaction: H 2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯
electricity
→ H 2 + O2

• Type of energy involved: Electrical energy.

• Explanation: Water decomposes into hydrogen and oxygen gases when an electric
current is passed through it.

(II) Blackening of silver bromide:

• Reaction: 2 AgBr ⎯⎯⎯

light
→ 2 Ag + Br2

• Type of energy involved: Light energy.

• Explanation: Silver bromide decomposes into silver and bromine when exposed to
sunlight, causing blackening of the compound.

(ii) "The type of reactions in which (I) calcium oxide is formed, and (II) calcium
hydroxide is formed are opposite reactions to each other." Justify this statement with the
help of chemical equations.

Answer:

• Reaction I: Formation of calcium oxide (decomposition reaction).


CaCO3 ⎯⎯
→ CaO + CO2

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 • Reaction II: Formation of calcium hydroxide (combination reaction).
CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2

• Justification: The decomposition of calcium carbonate forms calcium oxide and

carbon dioxide, while calcium oxide combines with water to form calcium hydroxide.
These reactions are opposite to each other as one involves breaking down a compound
and the other involves forming a compound.

35. (a) (i) Define a reflex arc. Why have reflex arcs evolved in animals? Trace the
sequence of events which occur when you suddenly touch a hot object. 5

Answer:

• Reflex arc: The nerve pathway involved in a reflex action.

• Evolutionary advantage: Reflex arcs allow animals to respond quickly to dangerous

stimuli without the delay of routing signals through the brain.

• Sequence of events:

1. Receptor: Sensory receptors in the skin detect the hot object.

2. Sensory neuron: The sensory neuron carries the signal to the spinal cord.

3. Interneuron: The signal is relayed through an interneuron in the spinal cord.

4. Motor neuron: The motor neuron carries the signal to the muscles.

5. Effector: The muscles contract to withdraw the hand from the hot object.

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(ii) Name the part of nervous system which helps in communication between the central
nervous system and other parts of the body. What are the two components of this system?
Answer:

• Part of the nervous system: Peripheral nervous system (PNS).

• Two components:

1. Somatic nervous system: Controls voluntary movements.

2. Autonomic nervous system: Controls involuntary functions.

OR

(b) (i) Leaves of 'chhui-mui' plant begin to fold up and droop in response to a stimulus.
Name the stimulus and write the type of movement. Is there any growth involved in the
movement? 5

Answer:

• Stimulus: Touch.

• Type of movement: Thigmonasty (nastic movement).

• Growth involved: No, the movement is not associated with growth; it is a rapid plant
movement.

(ii) Define geotropism in plants. What is meant by positive and negative geotropism?
Give one example of each type.

Answer:

• Geotropism: The growth movement of a plant in response to gravity.

• Positive geotropism: Growth of plant parts towards gravity.

o Example: Roots growing downward.

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 • Negative geotropism: Growth of plant parts away from gravity.

o Example: Shoots growing upward.

36. (a) A concave mirror produces a real image 1 cm tall of an object 2 mm tall placed 4
cm away from the mirror. Calculate the position of the image. What is the focal length of
the mirror? Draw the corresponding ray diagram. 5

Answer:

• Given:

o Height of object ( ho ) = 2 mm = 0.2 cm

o Height of image ( hi ) = 1 cm

o Object distance (u) = -4 cm

o Image distance (v) = ?

o Focal length (f) = ?

• Magnification formula:

hi v
m= =
ho u

1 v
=
0.2 −4

v = −20 cm

1 1 1
• Mirror formula: = +
f v u

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 1 1 1
= +
f −20 −4

1 1 1
=− −
f 20 4

1 1 5
=− −
f 20 20

1 6
=−
f 20

20
f =− = −3.33 cm
6

• Ray diagram: (Please draw a concave mirror ray diagram showing an object at 4 cm,
the image at 20 cm, and the focal length at 3.33 cm)

OR

(b) A converging lens forms a three times magnified real image of an object placed 20 cm
from the lens. Calculate the position of the image. What is the focal length of the lens?
Draw the corresponding ray diagram.

Answer:

• Given:

o Magnification (m) = 3 (real image, so positive)

o Object distance (u) = -20 cm

o Image distance (v) =?

o Focal length (f) =?

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 v
• Magnification formula: m =
u

v
=
−20

v = −60 cm

• Lens formula:

1 1 1
= −
f v u

1 1 1
=− +
f 60 20

1 1 3
=− +
f 60 60

1 2
f = 260 =
f 60

f= 30 cm

Ray diagram: (Please draw a convex lens ray diagram showing an object at 20 cm, the
image at 60 cm, and the focal length at 30 cm)

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36. (a) The variation of image distance (v) with object distance (u) for a convex lens is
given in the following observation table. Analyse it and answer the questions that follow:
5

S. No. Object distance (u) cm Image distance (v) cm

1 -150 +30

2 -75 +37.5

3 -50 +50

4 -37.5 +75

5 -30 +150

6 -15 +37.5

(i) Without calculation, find the focal length of the convex lens. Justify your answer.

Answer:

• The focal length (f) of the convex lens can be inferred from the table where the object
distance (u) and image distance (v) show a real, inverted, and magnified image. This
typically happens when the object is placed between fff and 2fff.

• From the table, when the object distance is -30 cm, the image distance is +150 cm. This
indicates that the focal length of the lens is approximately 30 cm because placing the
object at twice the focal length (2f) should produce an image at twice the focal length
on the other side.

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(ii) Which observation is not correct? Why? Draw a ray diagram to find the position of
the image formed for this position of the object.

Answer:

• The observation at S. No. 6 is not correct. When the object distance is -15 cm, the image
distance cannot be +37.5 cm because a convex lens should form an image closer to the
focal length on the opposite side, and it should not produce a real, inverted image closer
than the focal length for this object distance.

Ray Diagram:

(iii) Find the approximate value of magnification for u=−30.

Answer:

• Given: u=−30 cm and v=+150 cm

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 v
• Magnification (m) is given by: m =
u

150
m=
−30

m=−5

Approximate value of magnification is -5.

OR

(b) (i) Define principal axis of a lens. Draw a ray diagram to show what happens when a
ray of light parallel to the principal axis of a concave lens passes through it. 5

Answer:

• Principal Axis: The principal axis of a lens is the straight line that passes through the
center of the lens and is perpendicular to its surfaces.

• Ray Diagram:

o Draw a concave lens.

o Draw a parallel ray of light approaching the lens.

o After passing through the lens, the ray diverges outward and appears to originate
from the focal point on the same side of the lens as the incoming ray.

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(ii) The focal length of a concave lens is 20 cm. At what distance from the lens should a 5
cm tall object be placed so that its image is formed at a distance of 15 cm from the lens?
Also calculate the size of the image formed.

Answer:

• Given:

o Focal length (f) = -20 cm

o Image distance (v) = -15 cm (negative for concave lens)

o Object height ( ho ) = 5 cm

• Using the lens formula:

1 1 1
= −
f v u

1 1 1
= −
−20 −15 u

1 1 1
− =− −
20 15 u

1 1 1
= −
u 15 20

1 4−3
=
u 60

1 1
=
u 60

u = 60 cm

• Using magnification to find the image height ( hi ):

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 v hi
m= =
u ho

−15 hi
=
60 5

−15
hi = 5
60

hi = −1.25 cm

Object should be placed 60 cm from the lens, and the size of the image formed is -1.25 cm
(inverted and diminished).

37. Three metal samples of magnesium, aluminium and iron were taken and rubbed with
sand paper. These samples were then put separately in test tubes containing dilute
hydrochloric acid. Thermometers were also suspended in each test tube so that their
bulbs dipped in the acid. The rate of formation of bubbles was observed. The rate of
formation of bubbles as well as the observations were recorded. The above activity was
repeated with dilute nitric acid and the observations were recorded. 4

Answer the following questions:

(a) When activity was done with dilute hydrochloric acid, then in which one of the test
tubes was the rate of formation of bubbles the fastest and the thermometer showed the
highest temperature?
Answer: The rate of formation of bubbles was the fastest, and the thermometer showed the
highest temperature in the test tube containing magnesium.

(b) Which metal did not react with dilute hydrochloric acid? Give reason.
Answer: Aluminium did not react with dilute hydrochloric acid because it forms a protective
layer of aluminium oxide on its surface, which prevents it from reacting with the acid.

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(c) (i) Why is hydrogen gas not evolved when a metal reacts with dilute nitric acid?
Name the ultimate products formed in the reaction.
Answer: Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with dilute nitric acid because
nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent. It oxidises the hydrogen produced to water, and the
metal itself is converted to a nitrate. The ultimate products formed are metal nitrates, water,
and nitrogen oxides (NO, NO2 , etc.).

OR

(c) (ii) Name the type of reaction on the basis of which reactivity of metals is decided. You
have two metals X and Y. How would you know which is more reactive than the other?
Answer: The reactivity of metals is decided based on displacement reactions. To determine
which metal is more reactive, you can place metals X and Y in separate solutions of their
respective salts. The more reactive metal will displace the less reactive metal from its salt
solution. For example, if metal X displaces metal Y from Y's salt solution, then metal X is
more reactive than metal Y

38. Kidneys are vital organs for survival. Several factors like infections, injury or
restricted blood flow to kidneys reduce the activity of kidneys. This leads to accumulation
of poisonous wastes in the body, which can even lead to death. In case of kidney failure,
an artificial kidney can be used. An artificial kidney is a device to remove waste products
from the blood through dialysis. 4

Answer the following questions:

(a) (i) Name the artery that brings oxygenated blood to the kidney.

Answer: Renal artery

(ii) Name the cluster of thin-walled blood capillaries present in the Bowman's capsule.
Answer: Glomerulus

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(b) In human excretory system name the organ which stores urine. Is this organ under
hormonal control or nervous control?

Answer: The organ which stores urine is the urinary bladder. It is under nervous control.

(c) List two major steps involved in the formation of urine and state in brief their
functions.

Answer:

1. Filtration: Blood is filtered in the glomerulus, where waste products and excess
substances are removed from the blood to form filtrate.

2. Reabsorption: Useful substances such as glucose, certain ions, and water are
reabsorbed back into the blood from the filtrate in the renal tubules.

OR

(c) (ii) In which part of the nephron does selective reabsorption take place? List the
factors which the amount of water reabsorbed depends on.

Answer:

• Part of nephron: Selective reabsorption takes place primarily in the proximal

convoluted tubule (PCT).

• Factors affecting water reabsorption:

1. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH): Regulates water reabsorption by making the

walls of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct more permeable to
water.

2. Hydration Levels: The body's state of hydration affects the amount of water
reabsorbed.

3. Osmotic Pressure: The osmotic gradient in the renal medulla affects water
reabsorption.

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 4. Sodium Reabsorption: Active reabsorption of sodium ions creates an osmotic
gradient that drives water reabsorption.

39. Study the following circuit: 4

(a) Find the value of total resistance between points A and B.

Answer:

• The resistances between A and B are 4Ω, 6Ω, and 16Ω in series.

• Total resistance RAB is: RAB = 4 + 6 + 16 = 26

(b) Find the resistance between points B and C.

Answer:

• The resistances between B and C are two 8Ω resistors in parallel.

• The equivalent resistance RBC is:

1 1 1
= +
RBC 8 8

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 1 1
=
RBC 4

RBC = 4

(c) (i) Calculate the current drawn from the battery when the key is closed.

Answer:

• The total resistance in the circuit is the sum of RAB and RBC . Rtotal = RAB + RBC

Rtotal = 26 + 4 = 30

• The voltage of the battery is 6V.

V
• The current III is given by Ohm's Law: I =
R

6V
=
30

I=0.2A

OR

(c) (ii) In the above circuit, the 16Ω resistor or the parallel combination of two resistors
of 8Ω, which one of the two will have more potential difference across its two ends?
Justify your answer.

Answer:

• The potential difference across each resistor can be calculated using Ohm's Law
(V=IR).

• For the 16Ω resistor:

o Current through the resistor I=0.2A.

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 o Potential difference V16 = I 16

V16 = 0.2 A 16

=3.2V

• For the parallel combination of 8Ω resistors:

o The equivalent resistance RBC = 4

o Current through the equivalent resistance I=0.2A.

o Potential difference VBC = I  RBC

VBC = 0.2 A  4 = 0.8V

Justification:

• The 16Ω resistor will have a higher potential

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