DATE : 13/09/2020 Test Booklet Code

F2
AKANH

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2020
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

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1. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of (a) (b) (c) (d)
DNA helix during transcription.
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) DNA polymerase
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) RNA polymerase
(3) DNA ligase (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) DNA helicase (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer (2) Answer (1)
S o l . RNA polymerase facilitates opening of DNA S o l . (a) Iron – Essential for the
helix during transcription. formation of chlorophyll
2. Which of the following would help in (b) Zinc – Needed for synthesis of
prevention of diuresis? auxin
(1) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
vasoconstriction (c) Boron – Have a role in pollen
grain germination
(2) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
(3) More water reabsorption due to (d) Manganese – Is involved in the splitting
undersecretion of ADH of water to liberate O 2
during photosynthesis
(4) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal
tubules due to aldosterone 5. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular
Answer (4) algae?
Sol. Adrenal cortex secretes mineralocorticoids (1) Anabaena and Volvox
like aldosterone which increase the
reabsorption of Na + and water from renal (2) Chlorella and Spirulina
tubule that prevent diuresis. (3) Laminaria and Sargassum
3. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
completed (4) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(1) After zygote formation Answer (2)
(2) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an S o l . Chlorella and Spirulina are unicellular algae.
ovum
Gelidium, Gracilaria, Laminaria and
(3) Prior to ovulation Sargassum are multicellular. Volvox is
(4) At the time of copulation colonial.
Answer (2) 6. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme
S o l . Meiotic division of secondary oocyte is in photorespiration leads to the formation of
completed after the entry of sperm in (1) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
secondary oocyte which lead to the formation
(2) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and
of a large ovum and a tiny IInd polar body.
1 molecule of 2-C compound
4. Match the following concerning essential
elements and their functions in plants (3) 2 molecules of 3-C compound

(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water (4) 1 molecule of 3-C compound

(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination Answer (4)

(c) Boron (iii) Required for S o l . In photorespiration, O2 binds to RubisCo. As a

result RuBP instead to being converted to
chlorophyll
2 molecules of PGA bind with O2 to form one
biosynthesis molecule each of phosphoglycerate (3 carbon
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis compound) and phosphoglycolate ( 2 carbon
Select the correct option compound).

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7. Match the following columns and select the Answer (2)
correct option. S o l .The correct option is (2) becuase
Column - I Column - II (a) Placenta secretes human chorionic
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response gonadotropin (hCG)
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis (b) Zona pellucida is a primary egg membrane
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release secreted by the secondary oocyte
histaminase, (c) The secretions of bulbourethral glands
destructive help in lubrication of the penis
enzymes (d) Leydig cells synthesise and secrete
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules testicular hormones called androgens

containing 9. The plant parts which consist of two

generations - one within the other
histamine
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (b) Germinated pollen grain with two male
gametes
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (d) Embryo sac inside the ovule

Answer (3) (1) (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (d)
S o l . Option (3) is the correct answer because (3) (a) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
Eosinophils are associated with allergic Answer (2)
reactions and release histaminase,
destructive enzymes, so (a) in column I S o l . The plant parts which consist of two
matches with (iii) in column II. generations one within the other are pollen
grains inside the anther and embryo sac
Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin,
heparin etc. and are involved in inflammatory inside the ovule.
reactions, so (b) matches with (iv). Pollen grain is haploid inside the diploid
Neutrophils are phagocytic cells; so (c) anther.
matches with (ii). Both B and T lymphocytes Embryo sac is haploid inside the diploid ovule.
are responsible for immune responses of the
body, so, (d) in column I matches with (i) in 10. Which of the following statements about
column II. inclusion bodies is incorrect?
8. Match the following columns and select the (1) They lie free in the cytoplasm
correct option. (2) These represent reserve material in
Column-I Column-II cytoplasm
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens (3) They are not bound by any membrane
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic (4) These are involved in ingestion of food
Gonadotropin (hCG) particles
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
Answer (4)
glands
S o l . These are not involved in ingestion of food
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the particles
Penis
11. Strobili or cones are found in
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Marchantia (2) Equisetum
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (3) Salvinia (4) Pteris

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) Answer (2)

(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) S o l . Strobili or cones are found in Equisetum.

3
12. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for S o l . The correct option is (4) because Ori
control of sequence is responsible for controlling the
copy number of the linked DNA in the vector.
(1) Release of Green House gases Ori i.e. origin of replication is responsible for
(2) Disposal of e-wastes initiation of replication.

(3) Transport of Genetically modified 16. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
organisms from one country to another Restriction Enzymes.
(1) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(4) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(2) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
Answer (4)
ligases.
S o l . Montreal protocol – Signed in 16 Sep, 1987 (3) Each restriction enzyme functions by
(Ozone day) inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
Came into force – 1 Jan, 1989. (4) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
It was aimed at stopping the production and sites.
import of ODS and reduce their concentration Answer (2)
in the atmosphere.
S o l . Restriction endonucleases make cuts at
13. Which of the following statements is specific positions within the DNA.
correct?
They function by inspecting the length of a
(1) Adenine pairs with thymine through three DNA sequence.
H-bonds
Restriction endonuclease bind to the DNA and
(2) Adenine does not pair with thymine cut the two strands of double helix at specific
(3) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H- points in their sugar-phosphate backbones.
bonds They are used in genetic engineering to form
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H- recombinant molecules of DNA.
bond DNA ligases join the DNA fragments.
Answer (3) 17. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by
S o l . Adenine pairs with thymine through two nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous
H-bonds i.e., A == T plants is/are

14. The body of the ovule is fused within the (1) Ammonia and oxygen
funicle at (2) Ammonia and hydrogen
(1) Nucellus (3) Ammonia alone
(2) Chalaza (4) Nitrate alone

(3) Hilum Answer (2)


(4) Micropyle Mg
S o l . N2 + 8e– + 8H+ + 16ATP   2NH3 + H2 +
Answer (3) 16ADP + 16Pi
S o l . The attachment point of funicle and body of Ammonia and Hydrogen.
ovule is known as hilum.
18. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the
15. The sequence that controls the copy number transfer of electrons from
of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed
(1) PS-I to NADP+
(1) Palindromic sequence
(2) PS-I to ATP synthase
(2) Recognition site
(3) Selectable marker (3) PS-II to Cytb6f complex

(4) Ori site (4) Cytb6f complex to PS-I

Answer (4) Answer (3)

4
S o l . After excitement, e– is passed from PS-II (P680) 22. Identify the wrong statement with reference
to primary electron acceptor (Pheophytin). to transport of oxygen
From primary e– acceptor, e– is passed to (1) Higher H + conc. in alveoli favours the
plastoquinone. Plastoquinone (PQ) in turn formation of oxyhaemoglobin
transfer its e– to Cyt b6f complex. Therefore
(2) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation
plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of
of oxyhaemoglobin
electrons from PS-II to Cyt b6f complex.
(3) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
19. Which of the following hormone levels will mainly related to partial pressure of O2
cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the
(4) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
graffian follicle?
O2 binding with haemoglobin
(1) Low concentration of LH
Answer (1)
(2) Low concentration of FSH S o l . The correct option is (1) because higher H+
(3) High concentration of Estrogen concentration favours the dissociation of
oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin in tissues.
(4) High concentration of Progesterone
In the alveoli, high pO2, low pCO2, lesser H+
Answer (3) concentration and lower temperature favour
Sol. z High level of estrogen will send positive formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
feedback to anterior pituitary for release 23. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA
of LH. fragments can be visualized with the help of
z FSH, LH and estrogen are at peak level (1) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
during mid of menstrual cycle (28 day (2) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
cycle).
(3) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
z LH surge leads to ovulation. (4) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
20. The first phase of translation is Answer (4)
(1) Aminoacylation of tRNA S o l . The separated DNA fragments can be
visualised only after staining the DNA with
(2) Recognition of an anti-codon
Ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV
(3) Binding of mRNA to ribosome radiation.
(4) Recognition of DNA molecule 24. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion
of
Answer (1)
(1) caseinogen into casein
S o l . The first phase of translation involves
activation of amino acid in the presence of (2) pepsinogen into pepsin
ATP and linked to their cognate tRNA - a (3) protein into polypeptides
process commonly called as charging of (4) trypsinogen into trypsin
tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA.
Answer (4)
21. The roots that originate from the base of the
S o l . The correct option is (4) because trypsinogen
stem are
is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase,
(1) Prop roots secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active
trypsin. Trypsinogen is a zymogen from
(2) Lateral roots
pancreas.
(3) Fibrous roots 25. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
(4) Primary roots theory of inheritance was done by

Answer (3) (1) Boveri (2) Morgan

(3) Mendel (4) Sutton
S o l . The roots that originate from the base of the
stem are fibrous roots. Answer (2)

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S o l . Experimental verification of the chromosomal 28. Identify the correct statement with regard to
theory of inheritance was done by Morgan. G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
Note: (1) Cell is metabolically active, grows but
Sutton and Boveri proposed chromosomal does not replicate its DNA.
theory of inheritance but it was (2) Nuclear Division takes place.
experimentally verified by T.H. Morgan.
(3) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
26. According to Robert May, the global species
diversity is about (4) Reorganisation of all cell components
takes place.
(1) 50 million (2) 7 million
(3) 1.5 million (4) 20 million Answer (1)

Answer (2) S o l . During G 1 phase the cell is metabolically

active and continuously grows but does not
Sol. • Robert May estimated global species
replicate its DNA.
diversity at about 7 million.
DNA synthesis takes place in S phase. Nuclear
• Although some extreme estimates range
division occurs during Karyokinesis.
from 20 to 50 million.
27. Match the organism with its use in Reorganisation of all cell components takes
biotechnology. place in M-Phase.

(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector 29. Which of the following is correct about
viroids?
thuringiensis
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of (1) They have DNA with protein coat

aquaticus first rDNA (2) They have free DNA without protein coat

molecule (3) They have RNA with protein coat

(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase (4) They have free RNA without protein coat
tumefaciens Answer (4)
(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins S o l . Viroids have free RNA without protein coat.
typhimurium
30. The transverse section of a plant shows
Select the correct option from the following: following anatomical features :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) Large number of scattered vascular
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) bundles surrounded by bundle sheath
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) ground tissue

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
Answer (4) (d) Phloem parenchyma absent
S o l . (a) Bacillus thuringiensis is a source of Cry- Identify the category of plant and its part :
proteins.
(1) Dicotyledonous stem
(b) Thermus aquaticus is a source of
thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq (2) Dicotyledonous root
polymerase) used in PCR. (3) Monocotyledonous stem
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a cloning
(4) Monocotyledonous root
vector.
Answer (3)
(d) The construction of 1st recombinant DNA
molecule was performed using native S o l . All features are related to monocotyledonous
plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium. stems
6
31. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced (1) S phase
amino acids by mixing the following in a (2) G2 phase
closed flask
(3) M phase
(1) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
(4) G1 phase
(2) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
Answer (3)
(3) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
S o l . Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and
(4) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C enter vegetative inactive stage, called
Answer (3) quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at
the end of M-phase and beginning of G1 phase.
S o l . In 1953, S.L. Miller, an American scientist
created electric discharge in a closed flask 35. Which of the following regions of the globe
exhibits highest species diversity?
containing CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at
800°C. (1) Himalayas
32. Identify the basic amino acid from the (2) Amazon forests
following. (3) Western Ghats of India
(1) Lysine (4) Madagascar
(2) Valine Answer (2)
(3) Tyrosine S o l . The largely tropical Amazonian rain forest in
(4) Glutamic Acid South America has the greatest biodiversity
on earth.
Answer (1)
36. Identify the incorrect statement.
S o l . Option (1) is the correct answer because
(1) Sapwood is the innermost secondary
lysine is a basic amino acid.
xylem and is lighter in colour
Valine is a neutral amino acid.
(2) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils
Glutamic acid is an acidic amino acid while etc., heart wood is dark in colour
Tyrosine is an aromatic amino acid.
(3) Heart wood does not conduct water but
33. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to gives mechanical support
(1) High reflection of light from snow (4) Sapwood is involved in conduction of
(2) Damage to retina caused by infra-red water and minerals from root to leaf
rays Answer (1)
(3) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low S o l . Incorrect statement: Sapwood is the
temperature innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in
colour.
(4) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose
of UV-B radiation Correct statement: Sapwood is outermost
secondary xylem.
Answer (4)
37. Floridean starch has structure similar to
S o l . UV-B radiations damage DNA and mutations
may occur. (1) Mannitol and algin

In human eye, cornea absorbs UV-B (2) Laminarin and cellulose

radiations, and a high dose of UV-B causes (3) Starch and cellulose
inflammation of cornea called snow
(4) Amylopectin and glycogen
blindness, cataract, etc.
Answer (4)
34. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and
enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called S o l . Floridean starch is stored food material in
quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at red algae. It's structure is similar to
Amylopectin and Glycogen.
the end of
7
38. Which of the following is not an attribute of a A narrow finger-like tubular projection, the
population? vermiform appendix arises from caecum part
(1) Mortality of large intestine thus, option (2) is incorrect
statement. Ileum opens into the large
(2) Species interaction
intestine, thus option (3) is also an incorrect
(3) Sex ratio statement.
(4) Natality
41. In which of the following techniques, the
Answer (2) embryos are transferred to assist those
S o l . Natality – Population females who cannot conceive?
attribute (1) ICSI and ZIFT
Mortality – Population
(2) GIFT and ICSI
attribute
(3) ZIFT and IUT
Species interaction – Population
interaction (4) GIFT and ZIFT
Sex ratio – Population Answer (3)
attribute
S o l . Option (3) is the answer because ART in which
39. The number of substrate level embryos are transferred, include ZIFT and IUT
phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid i.e. Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer and Intra
cycle is Uterine Transfer respectively, both are
(1) Two embryo transfer (ET) methods.
(2) Three Option (1), (2) and (4) are incorrect because
(3) Zero in GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer),
(4) One gamete is transferred into the fallopian tube
of female who cannot produce ova. ICSI is
Answer (4)
Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection in which
S o l . One substrate level phosphorylation in one sperm is directly injected into the ovum.
turn of citric acid cycle as per following
42. In relation to Gross primary productivity and
reaction:
Net primary productivity of an ecosystem,
Succinate
which one of the following statements is
Thiokinase correct?
Succinyl Co-A Succinate
(1) Gross primary productivity and Net
GDP GTP
primary productivity are one and same

ATP ADP (2) There is no relationship between Gross

primary productivity and Net primary
40. Identify the correct statement with reference productivity
to human digestive system.
(3) Gross primary productivity is always less
(1) IIeum is a highly coiled part than net primary productivity
(2) Vermiform appendix arises from (4) Gross primary productivity is always more
duodenum than net primary productivity
(3) IIeum opens into small intestine
Answer (4)
(4) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
S o l . Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is
alimentary canal
the rate of production of organic matter
Answer (1) during photosynthesis.
S o l . Option (1) is correct as ileum is a highly coiled Net primary productivity is GPP-respiration
tube. Serosa is the outermost layer of the
alimentary canal, thus, option (4) is an Hence gross primary productivity is always
incorrect statement. more than NPP
8
43. Name the plant growth regulator which upon 46. Select the correct statement.
spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the (1) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
length of stem, thus increasing the yield of adipocytes.
sugarcane crop.
(2) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(1) Ethylene
(3) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
(2) Abscisic acid
(4) Glucagon is associated with
(3) Cytokinin
hypoglycemia.
(4) Gibberellin
Answer (3)
Answer (4)
S o l . Glucagon is associated with hyperglycemia.
S o l . Spraying sugarcane crop with gibberellins Insulin acts on hepatocytes and adipocytes
increases the length of the stem, thus and is associated with hypoglycemia.
increasing the yield by as much as 20 tonnes Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis,
per acre. so increase blood sugar level.

44. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, 47. Which of the following refer to correct
strychnine and caffeine are produced by example(s) of organisms which have evolved
plants for their due to changes in environment brought about
by anthropogenic action?
(1) Defence action
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(2) Effect on reproduction
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(3) Nutritive value
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(4) Growth response
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated
Answer (1)
animals like dogs.
Sol. A wide variety of chemical substances that we
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) only (d)
extract from plants on a commercial scale
(nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium, (3) only (a) (4) (a) and (c)
etc) are produced by them (plants) as Answer (1)
defences against grazers and browsers.
S o l . The correct option is (1) because :
45. Select the correct match
• Herbicide resistant weeds, drug resistant
(1) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal eukaryotes and man-created breeds of
recessive trait, domesticated animals like dogs are
chromosome-11 examples of evolution by anthropogenic
(2) Thalassemia – X linked action.
(3) Haemophilia – Y linked • Darwin's Finches of Galapagos islands are
(4) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal example of natural selection, adaptive
dominant trait radiation and founder's effect.

Answer (1) 48. Choose the correct pair from the following
S o l . Phenylketonuria – Autosomal recessive (1) Nucleases - Separate the two strands
disorder of DNA
Thalassemia – Autosomal recessive (2) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
disorder positions within DNA
Haemophilia – X linked recessive (3) Ligases - Join the two DNA
disorder molecules
Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive (4) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
trait, caused due to fragments
mutation in gene
Answer (3)
present on
chromosome no. 11 S o l . Ligases join the two DNA molecules.

9
49. Embryological support for evolution was (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
disapproved by Hemichordata, Tunicata and
(1) Charles Darwin Cephalochordata.
(2) Oparin (1) (a) and (b)
(3) Karl Ernst von Baer (2) (b) and (c)
(4) Alfred Wallace (3) (d) and (c)
Answer (3)
(4) (c) and (a)
S o l . Embryological support for evolution was
Answer (2)
disapproved by Karl Ernst von Baer, he noted
that embryos never pass through the adult S o l . In vertebrata, notochord is present during
stages of other animals during embryonic embryonic period only as it is replaced by
development. vertebral column.
50. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified In chordates, central nervous system is
from dorsal and hollow.
(1) Chondrocytes
53. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic
(2) Compound epithelial cells sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
(3) Squamous epithelial cells (1) Effluents of primary treatment
(4) Columnar epithelial cells
(2) Activated sludge
Answer (4)
(3) Primary sludge
S o l . Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
from columnar epithelial cells which secrete (4) Floating debris
mucus. Answer (2)
51. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the S o l . The sediment in settlement tank is called
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus activated sludge.
thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to
A small part of the activated sludge is
(1) Plant nematodes
pumped back into aeration tank
(2) Insect predators
Remaining major part of the sludge is pumped
(3) Insect pests
into large tank called anaerobic sludge
(4) Fungal diseases digesters.
Answer (3) 54. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond
S o l . Bt cotton is resistant to cotton bollworm and peptide bond, respectively in their
(Insect pest). structure
cry I Ac and cry II Ab genes have been (1) Cellulose, lecithin
introduced in cotton to protect it from cotton
bollworm. This makes Bt cotton as (2) Inulin, insulin
biopesticide. (3) Chitin, cholesterol
52. Which of the following statements are true for (4) Glycerol, trypsin
the phylum-Chordata?
Answer (2)
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
head to tail and it is present throughout S o l . Inulin is a fructan (polysaccharide of
their life. fructose). Adjacent fructose units are linked
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during through glycosidic bond.
the embryonic period only. Insulin is a protein composed of 51
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and aminoacids. Adjacent aminoacids are
hollow. attached through peptide bond.

10
55. Match the following diseases with the Sol. Column-I Column-II
causative organism and select the correct
(a) Clostridium (ii) Butyric acid
option.
butylicum
Column-I Column-II
(b) Trichoderma (i) Cyclosporin-A
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
polysporum
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(c) Monascus (iv) Blood cholesterol
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus purpureus lowering agent

(a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric acid

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) 57. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’
of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Marino rams?
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(1) Cross breeding
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) Inbreeding
Answer (4)
(3) Out crossing
S o l . Typhoid fever in humans is caused by
pathogenic bacterium Salmonella typhi. (4) Mutational breeding

Pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus Answer (1)

Pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. S o l . Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed
Filariasis or elephantiasis is caused by the in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri-ewe and
filarial worm, Wuchereria bancrofti and Marino rams. In cross-breeding, superior
Wuchereria malayi. male of one breed are mated with superior
Malaria is caused by different species of females of another breed.
Plasmodium. 58. Select the correct events that occur during
56. Match the following columns and select the inspiration.
correct option. (a) Contraction of diaphragm
Column-I Column-II (b) Contraction of external inter-costal
(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A muscles
butylicum (c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
polysporum (1) (a), (b) and (d)
(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid (2) only (d)
purpureus (3) (a) and (b)
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol (4) (c) and (d)
lowering agent
Answer (3)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
S o l . Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) diaphragm, which increases the volume of
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) thoracic chamber in the anterio-posterior
axis.
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
The contraction of external intercostal
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
muscles increase the volume of the thoracic
Answer (4) chamber in the dorsoventral axis.
11
59. Match the following columns and select the S o l . The correct option is (3) because the specific
correct option. palindromic sequence which is recognised by
Column-I Column-II Eco RI is
(a) Gregarious, (i) Asterias 5 - GAATTC - 3
polyphagous pest 3 - CTTAAG - 5
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion 62. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
symmetry and larva occurs during
with bilateral (1) Diplotene (2) Leptotene
symmetry (3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana Answer (1)
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta S o l . Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
(a) (b) (c) (d) occurs During Diplotene stage of Prophase-I
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) of Meiosis-I.
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) 63. Match the trophic levels with their correct
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) species examples in grassland ecosystem.
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow
Answer (4) (b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
S o l . (a) Locusta is a gregareous pest. (c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
(b) In Echinoderms, adults are radially (d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally
symmetrical. Select the correct option

(c) Scorpions respire through book lungs. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) Bioluminescence is well marked in (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
ctenophores. (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
60. Which is the important site of formation of
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic
cells? (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) Golgi bodies Answer (3)
(2) Polysomes S o l . Grassland ecosystem is a terrestrial
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum ecosystem. It includes various trophic levels
(4) Peroxisomes First trophic level (T1) – Grass
Answer (1) Second trophic level (T2) – Rabbit
S o l . Golgi bodies are site of formation of Third trophic level (T3) – Crow
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic
cells. Fourth trophic level (T4) – Vulture
61. The specific palindromic sequence which is 64. How many true breeding pea plant varieties
recognized by EcoRI is did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar
(1) 5 - CTTAAG - 3 except in one character with contrasting
traits?
3 - GAATTC - 5
(1) 14
(2) 5 - GGATCC - 3
3 - CCTAGG - 5 (2) 8
(3) 5 - GAATTC - 3 (3) 4
3 - CTTAAG - 5 (4) 2
(4) 5 - GGAACC - 3 Answer (1)
3 - CCTTGG - 5 S o l . Mendel selected 14 True breeding plant
Answer (3) varieties.
12
65. Match the following columns and select the S o l . Cyclostomes have an elongated body bearing
correct option. 6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration, so
Column-I Column-II (a) matches with (ii) in column-II.
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy Air bladder is present in bony fishes belonging
(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence to class Osteichthyes which regulates
deaminase buoyancy, so (c) matches with (iv) in
deficiency column-II.
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV
Trygon, a cartilaginous fish, possesses poison
infection
sting, so, (d) matches with (i) in column-II.
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
thuringiensis Heterocercal caudal fin is present in
(a) (b) (c) (d) members of class Chondrichthyes, so (b) in
column-I matches with (iii) in column-II
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 67. The process of growth is maximum during

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (1) Senescence

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (2) Dormancy
Answer (3) (3) Log phase
S o l . The correct option is (3) because
(4) Lag phase
(a) In Bt cotton the specific Bt toxin gene was
isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis. Answer (3)

(b) The first clinical gene therapy was given S o l . In exponential growth, the initial growth is
in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine slow (lag phase) and it increases rapidly
deaminase (ADA) deficiency. thereafter at an exponential rate in log or
(c) RNAi (RNA interference) takes place in all exponential phase.
eukaryotic organisms as a method of
cellular defense. 68. Identify the wrong statement with reference
to immunity.
(d) PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in
suspected AIDS patients. (1) Active immunity is quick and gives full
66. Match the following columns and select the response.
correct option.
(2) Foetus receives some antibodies from
Column-I Column-II mother, it is an example for passive
(a) 6-15 pairs of (i) Trygon immunity.
gill slits
(3) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes antibodies are produced in the host’s
caudal fin
body. It is called “Active immunity”.
(c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
(4) When ready-made antibodies are directly
(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer (1)
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
S o l . The correct option is (1) because active
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
immunity is slow and takes time to give its full
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
effective response in comparison to passive
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) immunity where pre-formed antibodies are
Answer (3) administered.

13
69. Match the following columns and select the
71. Presence of which of the following conditions
correct option.
in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
second and (2) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
seventh ribs (3) Uremia and Ketonuria
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the (4) Uremia and Renal Calculi
Humerus
Answer (1)
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
Sol. Presence of Ketone bodies in urine
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
with the sternum (Ketonuria) and presence of glucose in urine
(Glycosuria) are indicative of Diabetes
(a) (b) (c) (d)
mellitus.
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 72. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) animals are exemplified by
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (1) Aschelminthes
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (2) Annelida
Answer (2)
(3) Ctenophora
S o l . (a) 11 th and 12 th pairs of ribs are not
(4) Platyhelminthes
connected ventrally and are therefore,
called floating ribs. Answer (4)
(b) Acromion is a flat expanded process of S o l . Platyhelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical,
spine of scapula. The lateral end of triploblastic and acoelomate animals with
clavicle articulates with acromion organ level of organisation.
process.
73. Ray florets have
(c) Scapula is a flat triangular bone in the
dorsal part of the thorax between 2nd and (1) Hypogynous ovary
the 7th rib. (2) Half inferior ovary
(d) Glenoid cavity of scapula articulates with
(3) Inferior ovary
head of the humerus to form the shoulder
joint. (4) Superior ovary
70. If the distance between two consecutive base Answer (3)
pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base
Sol. • Ray floret have inferior ovary.
pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical
mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10 9 bp, then the • Epigynous flower are formed in family
length of the DNA is approximately Asteraceae (e.g., Sunflower)
(1) 2.2 meters 74. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that
(2) 2.7 meters enters the human body is
(3) 2.0 meters (1) Female gametocytes
(4) 2.5 meters (2) Male gametocytes
Answer (1) (3) Trophozoites
S o l . Length of DNA = [0.34 × 10–9] m × 6.6 × 109 bp
(4) Sporozoites
= 2.2 m
Answer (4)
Distance between 2 base pair in DNA helix
S o l . Plasmodium enters the human body as
= 0.34 nm = 0.34 × 10–9 m
sporozoites (Infectious stage) through the bite
Total number of base pair = 6.6 × 109 bp of Infected Female Anopheles mosquito.
14
75. Which of the following statements is (a) (b) (c) (d)
not correct?
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) The functional insulin has A and B chains
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) Genetically engineered insulin is produced
in E.Coli. (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) In man insulin is synthesised as a Answer (1)
proinsulin
S o l . Graves' disease is due to excess secretion of
(4) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called thyroid hormones (T3 & T4).
C-peptide.
Diabetes mellitus is due to hyposecretion of
Answer (1) insulin from -cells of pancreas.
S o l . The correct option is (1) because functional
Diabetes insipidus is due to hyporelease of
insulin has A and B chains linked together by
ADH from posterior pituitary.
disulphide bridges.
Addison's disease is due to hyposecretion of
76. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination
hormone from adrenal cortex.
takes place by :
(1) Wind and water 79. Which one of the following is the most
abundant protein in the animals?
(2) Insects and water
(1) Lectin
(3) Insects or wind
(2) Insulin
(4) Water currents only
(3) Haemoglobin
Answer (3)
(4) Collagen
S o l . In majority of aquatic plants, the flowers
emerge above the level of water. Answer (4)
These may be pollinated by insects or wind S o l . Collagen is the most abundant protein in
eg.: Water hyacinth and water lily animal world and RuBisCO is the most
abundant protein in the whole of the
77. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of
Biosphere.
microvilli is found in
80. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
live for few days because
(2) Eustachian tube
(1) the head holds a small proportion of a
(3) Lining of intestine nervous system while the rest is situated
(4) Ducts of salivary gland along the ventral part of its body.
Answer (1) (2) the head holds a 1/3 rd of a nervous
S o l . Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of system while the rest is situated along the
microvilli is found in proximal convoluted dorsal part of its body.
tubule of nephron (PCT). (3) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
78. Match the following columns and select the cockroach are situated in ventral part of
correct option. abdomen.
Column-I Column-II (4) the cockroach does not have nervous
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease system.

(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus Answer (1)

(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus S o l . The head holds a small proportion of a
nervous system while the rest is situated
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
along the ventral part of its body.
15
81. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are 84. The QRS complex in a standard ECG
examples of represents

(1) Industrial melanism (1) Depolarisation of ventricles

(2) Natural selection (2) Repolarisation of ventricles

(3) Adaptive radiation (3) Repolarisation of auricles

(4) Convergent evolution (4) Depolarisation of auricles
Answer (4) Answer (1)
S o l . The correct option is (4) because flippers of S o l . QRS complex represents the depolarisation of
Penguins and Dolphins are an example of ventricles.
analogous organs. Analogous structures are a
85. Select the option including all sexually
result of convergent evolution.
transmitted diseases.
82. The process responsible for facilitating loss
(1) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
of water in liquid form from the tip of grass
blades at night and in early morning is (2) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
(1) Imbibition (3) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
(2) Plasmolysis (4) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(3) Transpiration Answer (3)
(4) Root pressure S o l . Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes are
Answer (4) sexually transmitted diseases.

Sol. • Root pressure is positive hydrostatic Gonorrhoea is caused by a bacterium

pressure. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

• It develops in tracheary element at night Syphilis is caused by a bacterium Treponema

and in early morning. pallidum.

83. Match the following with respect to meiosis Genital herpes is caused by a virus Type-II-
Herpes simplex virus.
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata 86. Identify the wrong statement with reference
to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
(1) When IA and IB are present together, they
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
express same type of sugar.
Select the correct option from the following
(2) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) The gene (I) has three alleles.
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) A person will have only two of the three
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) alleles.
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) Answer (1)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) S o l . ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I.
Answer (4) The gene I has three alleles IA, IB and i. The
alleles IA and IB produce a slightly different
S o l . Zygotene  Synapsis
form of the sugar while allele i does not
Pachytene  Crossing over produce any sugar. Because humans are
Diplotene  Chiasmata formation diploid organisms, each person can possess
Diakinesis  Terminalisation at the most any two of the three I gene alleles.

16
87. Which of the following is not an inhibitory 89. The ovary is half inferior in :
substance governing seed dormancy?
(1) Sunflower
(1) Phenolic acid
(2) Plum
(2) Para-ascorbic acid
(3) Brinjal
(3) Gibberellic acid
(4) Abscisic acid (4) Mustard

Answer (3) Answer (2)

Sol. • Gibberellic acid break seed dormancy. S o l . The ovary is half inferior in Plum.
• It activate synthesis of -amylase which
90. Match the following
breakdown starch into simple sugar.
(a) Inhibitor of (i) Ricin
88. Match the following columns and select the
catalytic activity
correct option.
Column-I Column-II (b) Possess peptide (ii) Malonate
bonds
(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle
ear and pharynx (c) Cell wall material (iii) Chitin
(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the in fungi
labyrinth (d) Secondary (iv) Collagen
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval metabolite
window
Choose the correct option from the following
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the
basilar membrane (a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
S o l . Option (3) is the correct answer because
Sol. • Option (1) is correct because organ of Corti Malonate is the competitive inhibitor of
is located on the Basilar membrane, thus (a)
catalytic activity of succinic dehydrogenase,
in column-I matches with (iv) in column-II.
so (a) matches with (ii) in column II.
• The coiled portion of the labyrinth is called
Collagen is proteinaceous in nature and
cochlea, so (b) matches with (ii) in
possesses peptide bonds, so (b) matches with
column II.
(iv) in column II.
• The eustachian tube connects the middle
Chitin is a homopolymer present in the cell
ear cavity with the pharynx, thus (c)
wall of fungi and exoskeleton of arthropods,
matches with (i) in column-II.
so, (c) matches with (iii) in column II.
• The middle ear contains ossicle called
Abrin and Ricin are toxins, secondary
Stapes that is attached to the oval window
metabolites, so (d) in column I matches with
of the cochlea, so (d) matches with (iii) in
(i) in column II.
column II.
17
91. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has 7 1
S o l . nN2    0.25
– O – O – linkage? 28 4
(1) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid 8 1
nAr    0.20
(2) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid 40 5

(3) H2SO3, sulphurous acid Now, Applying Dalton’s law of partial

(4) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
 
pressure, pN2  N2 PTotal
Answer ( 1 )
0.25
O O   27 bar
0.45
S o l . HO – S – O – O – S – OH
5
 27  15 bar
O O 9
Peroxodisulphuric acid 95. Reaction between benzaldehyde and
92. An increase in the concentration of the acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is
reactants of a reaction leads to change in known as
(1) threshold energy (1) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction

(2) collision frequency (2) Cross Aldol condensation

(3) activation energy (3) Aldol condensation

(4) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(4) heat of reaction
Answer (2)
Answer ( 4 )
O O
S o l . Heat of reaction is an extensive property.
dil OH(–)
Hence, on change of amount/concentration of Sol. C H+ C CH3
reactants heat of reaction changes.
OH H O
93. Identify the incorrect match.
Name IUPAC Official Name C C C—

(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium H H

O
(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium –H2O
CH = CH—C—
(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
In the presence of dil.OH(–), benzaldehyde and
(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
acetophenone will react to undergo cross-aldol
(1) (c), (iii) (2) (d), (iv) condensation.
(3) (a), (i) (4) (b), (ii) 96. Which one of the followings has maximum
Answer ( 2 ) number of atoms ?
S o l . Unununium (1) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
Atomic number = 111 (2) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]

IUPAC official name : Roentgenium (3) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]

94. A mixture of N 2 and Ar gases in a cylinder (4) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total Answer (2)
pressure of the mixture of the gases in the 1
cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 S o l .  Number of Mg atoms = × NA
24
is :
1
[Use atomic masses (in g mol –1 ) : N = 14,  Number of O atoms = ×2× N
32 A
Ar = 40]
1
(1) 15 bar (2) 18 bar  Number of Li atoms = × NA
7
(3) 9 bar (4) 12 bar 1
 Number of Ag atoms = × NA
Answer ( 1 ) 108
18
97. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives 99. Identify the incorrect statement.

OH (1) Interstitial compounds are those that are

formed when small atoms like H, C or N
are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
(1) + C2H5I metals.

(2) The oxidation states of chromium in

I CrO24 and Cr2O72 are not the same.

(3) Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than

(2) + C2H5OH Fe2+ (d6) in water.

(4) The transition metals and their

OH compounds are known for their catalytic
activity due to their ability to adopt
multiple oxidation states and to form
(3) + CH3I complexes.

Answer ( 2 )
I
S o l . Oxidation state of Cr in CrO24 and Cr2O72 is
+6
(4) + CH3OH
100. Which of the following is a basic amino
acid ?
Answer (3)
(1) Tyrosine (2) Lysine
(3) Serine (4) Alanine
OCH3 HO CH3
Answer ( 2 )

Sol. + H + I S o l . H2N CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH COOH

NH2
SN2
(Structure of Lysine)
OH
Lysine is a basic amino acid.

+ CH3I 101. Which of the following is a natural polymer?

(1) polybutadiene

98. Which of the following amine will give the (2) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
carbylamine test?
(3) cis-1, 4-polyisoprene
N(CH3)2 NHC2H5
(4) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(1) (2) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Naturally occuring polymer, natural rubber
NH2 NHCH3
is cis-1, 4– polyisoprene
(3) (4)
CH3 H
Answer ( 3 ) C C CH2 CH2
S o l . Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines give H 2C CH2 C C
carbylamine reaction. H 3C H

19
102. Match the following and identify the correct O
CH2 – CH = CH2 CH2 – CH CH2
option.
O3 O O
(a) CO(g) + H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2 +
Sol.
Ca(HCO3)2
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron Zn/H2O
hardness of deficient hydride O
water
CH2 – C – H
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas O
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar + H –C–H
structure Methanal

(a) (b) (c) (d) 104. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
4.606 × 10–3 s–1. The time required to reduce
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (1) 500 s (2) 1000 s
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (3) 100 s (4) 200 s
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) Answer ( 1 )
Answer (3)
2.303 A
Sol. k  log 0 (First order rate equation)
Sol. z Mixture of CO and H2 gases is known as t A
water gas or synthesis gas.
2.303 2
z Temporary hardness of water is due to 4.606  10 –3  log
t 0.2
bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium.
z Diborane (B2H6) is an electron deficient 2.303
t  log10
hydride. 4.606  10 –3
z H2O2 is non-planar molecule having open
103
book like structure.   500 sec
2
103. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as
one of the product. Its structure is 105. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using
Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained
CH2 – CH = CH2
at anode will be
(1) (1) H2S gas

(2) SO2 gas

CH2CH2CH3
(3) Hydrogen gas

(2) (4) Oxygen gas

Answer ( 4 )
CH = CH – CH3
S o l . During the electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid
using Pt electrodes following reaction will
(3)
take place.

At cathode :
CH2 – CH2 – CH3
4H (aq)  4e  
 2H2 (g)
(4)
At anode :

Answer ( 1 )  O2 (g)  4H (aq)  4e 

2H2 O(l) 

20
106. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) 109. The mixture which shows positive deviation
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The from Raoult’s law is
atomic radius is
(1) Acetone + Chloroform
4 4
(1)  288 pm (2)  288 pm (2) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
3 2
(3) Ethanol + Acetone
3 2
(3)  288 pm (4)  288 pm
4 4 (4) Benzene + Toluene
Answer ( 3 ) Answer (3)
S o l . For BCC,
S o l . Pure ethanol molecules are hydrogen bonded.
3a  4r a  edge length On adding acetone, its molecules get in
r  radius between the ethanol molecules and break
some of the hydrogen bonds between them.
3a
r This weakens the intermolecular attractive
4 interactions and the solution shows positive
Given, a = 288 pm deviation from Raoult's law.

3 110. Identify compound X in the following sequence

r  288 of reactions
4
107. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives CH3 CHO
(1) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose
Cl2/h H2O
(2) -D-Fructose +-D-Fructose X 373 K
(3) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose
(4) -D-Glucose +-D-Glucose CHCl2 CCl3
Answer ( 1 )
Hydrolysis
S o l . Sucrose    -D- Glucose  (1) (2)
-D-Fructose
CH2OH Cl CH2Cl
H O H HOH C O OH
2
H
OH H H HO (3) (4)
HO O CH2OH

H OH OH H Answer ( 1 )
-D-Glucose -D-Fructose

108. Which of the following is not correct about OH

carbon monoxide ?
CH3 CHCl2 CH–OH
(1) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
bound to CO) is less stable than Cl2/h H2O
oxyhaemoglobin. Sol. 373 K

(2) It is produced due to incomplete (X)

combustion.
–H2O
(3) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin
(4) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood. CHO
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . The carboxyhaemoglobin is about 300 times
more stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
21
111. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of 114. Identify the correct statement from the
benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point following :
depression for the solution of molality (1) Vapour phase refining is carried out for
0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in Nickel by Van Arkel method.
benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal
(2) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of
places) :
shapes.
(1) 0.40 K (3) Wrought iron is impure iron with 4%
carbon.
(2) 0.60 K
(4) Blister copper has blistered appearance
(3) 0.20 K due to evolution of CO2.
(4) 0.80 K Answer ( 2 )

Answer ( 1 ) S o l . The iron obtained from blast furnace contains

about 4% carbon and many impurities like
S o l . Tf = kfm S, P, Si, Mn in smaller amount. This is known
as pig iron and cast into variety of shapes.
= 5.12 (K.kg mol–1) × 0.078 (mol kg–1)
115. What is the change in oxidation number of
= 0.399 K carbon in the following reaction?
 0.40 K
CH4 (g)  4Cl2 (g)  CCl4 (l)  4HCl(g)
112. Which of the following is a cationic
detergent? (1) – 4 to + 4

(1) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide (2) 0 to – 4

(3) + 4 to + 4
(2) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(4) 0 to + 4
(3) Sodium lauryl sulphate
Answer (1)
(4) Sodium stearate
S o l . CH4  x + 4 × 1 = 0  x = –4
Answer ( 1 )
CCl4  x + 4 × (–1) = 0  x = +4
CH3
+ – 4 4
S o l . CH3 (CH2)15 N CH3 Br CH4 (g)  4Cl2 (g)  CCl4 (l)  4HCl(g)
CH3
Change in oxidation state of carbon is from
Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide –4 to +4

113. Paper chromatography is an example of 116. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to

form pent-2-ene is
(1) Thin layer chromatography
(a) -Elimination reaction
(2) Column chromatography (b) Follows Zaitsev rule

(3) Adsorption chromatography (c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction

(d) Dehydration reaction
(4) Partition chromatography
(1) (b), (c), (d)
Answer (4)
(2) (a), (b), (d)
S o l . Paper chromatography is a type of partition
(3) (a), (b), (c)
chromatography in which a special quality
paper known as chromatography paper is (4) (a), (c), (d)
used. Answer ( 3 )
22
S o l . CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH3
Elimination (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Br
(Reactant)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
CH3 CH CH CH2 CH3 (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Mechanism: (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer (4)
S o l . CO : Neutral oxide
BaO : Basic oxide
Al2O3 : Amphoteric oxide

3
Cl2O7 : Acidic oxide
119. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
Since -hydrogen is abstracted it is
(1) C2 (2) O2
-elimination.
(3) He2 (4) Li2
Since more substituted alkene is formed, it
follows zaitsev's rule. Answer ( 3 )
S o l . For He2 molecule
Since 'H' and 'Br' are removed, it is dehydro-
halogenation. Electronic configuration is 1s2, *1s2

117. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following 1

so bond order = [Nb  Na ]
reaction. 2

 Glucose  Fructose

Sucrose  H2 O  1
= [2  2]
2
If the equilibrium constant (KC) is 2 × 1013 at =0
300 K, the value of r G○ at the same Since, bond order is zero, so He2 molecule
temperature will be : does not exist.
(1) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 1013) 120. The number of Faradays(F) required to
produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2
(2) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 1013)
(Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is
(3) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
(1) 3
(4) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
(2) 4
Answer ( 3 ) (3) 1
S o l . G = G° + RT ln Q (4) 2
At equilibrium G = 0, Q = Keq Answer ( 3 )
So rG° = –RT ln Keq S o l . 1 equivalent of any substance is deposited by
rG° = –8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013) 1 F of charge.

118. Match the following : We have, 20 g calcium

Oxide Nature Given mass

Number of equivalents =
Equivalent mass
(a) CO (i) Basic
20
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral = =1
20
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
40
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric Equivalent mass of Ca = = 20
2
Which of the following is correct option? So, 1 faraday of charge is required.

23
121. Urea reacts with water to form A which will 124. Which of the following alkane cannot be made
decompose to form B. B when passed through in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
Cu 2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is
formed. What is the formula of C from the (1) n-Heptane
following ? (2) n-Butane
(1) Cu(OH)2 (2) CuCO3Cu(OH)2 (3) n-Hexane
(3) CuSO4 (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(4) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 1 )
Sol.
S o l . Wurtz reaction is used to prepare symmetrical
alkanes like R1 – R1, as
Dry ether
R1 – X + 2Na + X – R1   R1 – R1 + 2NaX

If R 1 and R 2 are different, then mixture of

Cu2+(aq) 2+
NH3(g) [Cu(NH3 )4 ] alkanes may be obtained as
(B) (C) Dry ether
[Blue coloured R1 – X + 2Na + R2 – X  
solution]

122. Reaction between acetone and R1 – R1 + R1 – R2 + R2 – R2 + 2NaX

methylmagnesium chloride followed by 125. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2,
hydrolysis will give :
MgCl 2 and NaCl. Which of the following
(1) Tert. butyl alcohol (2) Isobutyl alcohol compound(s) crystallise(s)?
(3) Isopropyl alcohol (4) Sec. butyl alcohol
(1) Only MgCl2
Answer ( 1 )
(2) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
Sol.
(3) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
–
O – + O MgBr (4) Only NaCl
CH3– MgBr
CH3– C – CH 3 CH3– C – CH 3
+ Answer ( 4 )
CH3
Acetone S o l . Since CaCl2 and MgCl2 are more soluble than
Hydrolysis NaCl, on passing HCl(g) through a solution
OH containing CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl then NaCl
crystallizes out.
CH3– C – CH 3
126. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in
CH3
determining which property of colloidal
(tert-Butyl alcohol) solution?
123. The number of protons, neutrons and
(1) Stability of the colloidal particles
175
electrons in 71 Lu, respectively, are (2) Size of the colloidal particles
(1) 71, 71 and 104 (2) 175, 104 and 71 (3) Viscosity
(3) 71, 104 and 71 (4) 104, 71 and 71 (4) Solubility
Answer ( 3 ) Answer (1)
175 S o l . In colloidal solution, the potential difference
Sol. 71 Lu
between the fixed layer and the diffused layer
No. of Protons= 71 = No. of Electrons of opposite charge is known as Zeta potential.
No. of Neutrons = Mass no. – No. of Protons
The presence of equal and similar charges on
= 175 – 71 colloidal particles is largely responsible in
= 104 providing stability to the colloidal solution.

24
127. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH) 2 in 0.1 M 129. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of
NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 Cr2+ ion is
is 2 × 10–15
(1) 5.92 BM
(1) 1 × 10–13 M
(2) 2.84 BM
(2) 1 × 108 M
(3) 3.87 BM
(3) 2 × 10–13 M
(4) 4.90 BM
(4) 2 × 10–8 M
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Electronic configuration of Cr – [Ar] 3d5 4s1
2+
Sol. Ni(OH) 2 Ni + 2OH Electronic configuration of Cr2+ – [Ar] 3d4
s s 2s

Number of unpaired e– = 4
–+
NaOH Na + OH
0.1 0.1 0.1
Spin only magnetic moment = n(n  2)

Total [OH] = 2s + 0.1  0.1 n = number of unpaired e–

2+ – 2
Ionic product = [Ni ] [OH] Spin only magnetic moment = 4 (4  2)
2 × 10–15 = s(0.1)2
= 24 BM
s = 2 × 10–13

Solubility of Ni(OH)2 = 2 × 10–13 M = 4.9 BM

130. Identify the correct statements from the

128. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) 
 Cl 2 (g), the following :
correct option is :
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream
(1) rH < 0 and rS > 0 and frozen food.
(2) rH < 0 and rS < 0 (b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(3) rH > 0 and rS > 0

(4) rH > 0 and rS < 0 (c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
alcohols into gasoline.
Answer ( 2 )
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
S o l . Given reaction, 2Cl(g) 
 Cl2 (g) (1) (b) and (c) only

We know that, (2) (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b) and (c) only

Cl2  g  
 2Cl g  is endothermic reaction
because it requires energy to break bond. (4) (a) and (c) only

So reverse reaction is exothermic rH < 0 Answer ( 2 )

Also, two gaseous atom combine together to Sol.  Dry ice, CO2(s), is used as refrigerant
form 1 gaseous molecule.
 C60 contains 20 six membered rings, 12
So, randomness rS < 0 five membered rings

25
131. The following metal ion activates many Answer ( 3 )
enzymes, participates in the oxidation of
S o l . Free expansion  Pex = 0
glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is
responsible for the transmission of nerve  w = – PexV = 0
signals.
∵ Adiabatic process  q = 0
(1) Calcium
also, U = q + w [ first law of thermodynamics]
(2) Potassium
 U = 0
(3) Iron
∵ Internal energy of an ideal gas is a
(4) Copper function of temperature
Answer ( 2 )  If internal energy remains constant
S o l . Potassium (K) activates many enzymes  T = 0
participate in oxidation of glucose to produce
ATP and helps in the transmission of nerve 134. Which of the following is the correct order of
signal along with Na. increasing field strength of ligands to form
coordination compounds?
132. Which of the following set of molecules will
have zero dipole moment? (1) F – < SCN– < C2 O2– –
4 < CN
(1) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene (2) CN– < C2 O24 – < SCN– < F –
(2) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene (3) SCN– < F – < C2 O2–
4 < CN
–

(3) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,

1,4-dichlorobenzene (4) SCN– < F – < CN– < C2 O2–
4

(4) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, Answer ( 3 )

carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
S o l . Spectrochemical series (as given in NCERT) :
Answer ( 2 )
– – –
I– < Br– < SCN < Cl < S2– < F < OH < C2 O2–
4 <
F
– –
=0 H2O < NCS < EDTA4– < NH3 < en < CN < CO
Sol. B
135. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable
F F
than a secondary butyl carbocation because
Be =0 of which of the following ?
F F
(1) – R effect of – CH3 groups
O C O =0
(2) Hyperconjugation
Cl
(3) – I effect of – CH3 groups
=0 (4) + R effect of – CH3 groups
Answer ( 2 )
Cl
133. The correct option for free expansion of an
ideal gas under adiabatic condition is Sol. H

(1) q < 0, T = 0 and w = 0 Tertiary butyl carbocation Secondary butyl carbocation

(9 -H atoms) (5  -H atoms)
(2) q > 0, T > 0 and w > 0
More the number of -H atoms, more will be
(3) q = 0, T = 0 and w = 0
the hyperconjugation effect hence more will
(4) q = 0, T < 0 and w > 0 be the stability of carbocation.

26
136. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same 139. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac
material are slightly out of tune and produce voltage source. When L is removed from the
beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is circuit, the phase difference between current
slightly decreased, the beat frequency 
increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is and voltage is . If instead C is removed from
3
530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be: 
the circuit, the phase difference is again
(1) 536 Hz (2) 537 Hz 3
between current and voltage. The power factor
(3) 523 Hz (4) 524 Hz of the circuit is
Answer (4)
(1) 1.0 (2) –1.0
S o l . Difference of fA and fB is 6 Hz
(3) zero (4) 0.5
If tension decreases, f B decreases and
becomes fB . Answer (1)

Now, difference of fA and fB = 7 Hz (increases) S o l . When L is removed,

So, fA > fB XC  XC
tan    tan  ...(i)
fA – fB = 6 Hz R 3 R
fA = 530 Hz When C is removed,
fB = 524 Hz (original) XL  XL
tan    tan  ...(ii)
137. The increase in the width of the depletion R 3 R
region in a p-n junction diode is due to :
From (i) and (ii), XL = XC
(1) both forward bias and reverse bias
Since, X L = X C, the circuit is in resonance.
(2) increase in forward current
Z=R
(3) forward bias only
R
(4) reverse bias only Power factor = cos  = 1
Z
Answer (4)
140. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a
S o l . Due to reverse biasing, the width of the velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
depletion region increases. the ground after some time with a velocity of
138. The quantities of heat required to raise the 80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2)
temperature of two solid copper spheres of (1) 320 m (2) 300 m
radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 K are in
the ratio : (3) 360 m (4) 340 m

3 5 Answer (2)
(1) (2)
2 3
20 m/s
27 9 Sol.
(3) (4)
8 4
Answer (3) g

S o l . Q = msT
80 m/s
4 3
Q  r sT
3
v2 = u2 + 2gh
3
Q 1  r1 
  v = 80 m/s
Q 2  r2 
u = 20 m/s
= (1.5)3
27 v 2  u2 6400  400
 h=   300 m
8 2g 20

27
141. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the 143. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100
separation between coherent sources is halved turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic
and the distance of the screen from the field at the centre of the solenoid is :
coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe (0 = 4 × 10–7 T m A–1)
width becomes :
(1) 6.28 × 10–5 T
(1) four times (2) one-fourth
(2) 3.14 × 10–5 T
(3) double (4) half
(3) 6.28 × 10–4 T
Answer (1)
(4) 3.14 × 10–4 T
D
S o l .Fringe width   Answer (3)
d
d S o l . Magnetic field at centre of solenoid = 0nI
Now, d  and D  2D
2 N 100
n=   200 turns / m
(2D) 4 D L 50  10 –2
So,   =
d/2 d I = 2.5 A
 = 4
On putting the values
142. Which of the following graph represents the
variation of resistivity () with temperature (T) B  4   10–7  200  2.5
for copper? = 6.28 × 10–4 T
144. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
(1)
frequency is incident on a photosensitive
material. What will be the photoelectric
current if the frequency is halved and intensity
is doubled?
(1) one-fourth (2) zero
T
(2) (3) doubled (4) four times
Answer (2)
3
Sol.   0
2
 3
T    0
2 4
(3)
  <  0
 No photoelectric emission will take place.
145. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
T The pitch of the screw gauge is :
(4) (1) 0.5 mm (2) 1.0 mm
(3) 0.01 mm (4) 0.25 mm
Answer (1)
S o l . Least count
T Pitch

Answer (1) Number of divisions on circular scale
S o l . At temperature much lower than 0°C, graph Pitch
0.01 mm 
deviates considerably from a straight line. 50
Option (1) is correct Pitch = 0.5 mm

28
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-F2)

146. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to 148. For which one of the following, Bohr model is
the ends of a massless string. The string not valid ?
passes over a pulley which is frictionless
(1) Deuteron atom
(see figure). The acceleration of the system in
terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is : (2) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(3) Hydrogen atom
(4) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
Answer (2)
S o l . Bohr model is only valid for single electron
4 kg
species.
Singly ionised neon atom has more than one
6 kg
electron in orbit. Hence, Bohr model is not
(1) g/5 (4) g/2 valid.

(2) g/10 (3) g 149. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in

water and water rises in it to a height h. The
Answer (1)
mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g.

Sol. a 
 m1  m2  g where m1 > m2
Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed
in water. The mass of water that will rise in this
 m1  m2 
tube is :
6  4 g (1) 10.0 g
a
6 4
(2) 20.0 g
g
a (3) 2.5 g
5
Note : Here no option is given according to (4) 5.0 g
acceleration of COM of the system. Answer (1)
147. For transistor action, which of the following S o l . Force of surface tension balances the weight
statements is correct? of water in capillary tube.
FS = 2rTcos = mg
(1) Both emitter junction as well as the
collector junction are forward biased. Here, T and  are constant
So, m  r
(2) The base region must be very thin and
lightly doped. m2 2r
Hence, 
(3) Base, emitter and collector regions should 5.0 r
have same doping concentrations.  m2 = 10.0 g
(4) Base, emitter and collector regions should 150. The ratio of contributions made by the electric
have same size. field and magnetic field components to the
intensity of an electromagnetic wave is :
Answer (2)
(c = speed of electromagnetic waves)
Sol. E B C
(1) 1 : c
(2) 1 : c2
(3) c : 1
For Bi-polar junction transistor (4) 1 : 1
Length Profile is LC > LE > LB Answer (4)
and doping profile is E > C > B S o l . In an electromagnetic wave, half of the
For transistor action Base-emitter junction is intensity is provided by the electric field and
forward biased and Base-collector junction is half by the magnetic field
reversed biased. Hence required ratio should be 1 : 1

29
151. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected 154. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg
to a magnetising field of 1200 A m –1 . The respectively are attached to the two ends of a
permeability of the material of the rod is : rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.
(0 = 4× 10–7 T m A–1) The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg
particle is nearly at a distance of :
(1) 2.4× 10–5 T m A–1
(1) 67 cm (2) 80 cm
(2) 2.4 × 10–7 T m A–1
(3) 33 cm (4) 50 cm
(3) 2.4 × 10–4 T m A–1 Answer (1)
(4) 8.0 × 10–5 Tm A–1 y

Answer (3) 5 kg 10 kg
Sol. x (cm)
S o l . m = 599 (x cm, 0)
(0, 0) (100, 0)
r = 1 + m = 600
m1x1  m2 x 2
xcm 
  r  0 m1  m2
 = 600 × 4 × 10–7 5  0  100  10 200
   66.66 cm
5  10 3
 = 2400 × 10–7
x cm  67 cm
 = 2.4 × 10–4 T m A–1
155. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a
152. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be
charge of 3.2 × 10–7 C distributed uniformly.
(1) 45° < ib < 90° (2) ib = 90° What is the magnitude of electric field at a
(3) 0° < ib < 30° (4) 30° < ib < 45° point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?
Answer (1)  1 
  9  109 Nm2 C2 
 4  0 
S o l .  = tan ib
(1) 1.28 × 106 N/C (2) 1.28 × 107 N/C
1<<
(3) 1.28 × 104 N/C (4) 1.28 × 105 N/C
1 < tan ib < 
Answer (4)
tan–1(1) < ib < tan–1() S o l . Electric field outside a conducting sphere
45° < ib < 90° 1 Q
E
153. The phase difference between displacement 4  0 r 2
and acceleration of a particle in a simple
9  109  3.2  107
harmonic motion is : 
225  104
 = 0.128 × 106
(1) rad (2) zero
2 = 1.28 × 105 N/C
3 156. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is
(3)  rad (4) rad
2 coming from a star. The limit of resolution of
Answer (3) telescope whose objective has a diameter of
S o l . If y = A sint 2 m is :
(1) 7.32 × 10–7 rad
dy
then v  (2) 6.00 × 10–7 rad
dt
(3) 3.66 × 10–7 rad
v = A cost
(4) 1.83 × 10–7 rad
dv Answer (3)
a
dt

a = –A2sin(t) S o l . R  1.22 ;  = 600 × 10–9 m d = 2 m
d
a = A2sin(t + ) 1.22  600  10–9
=
So phase difference between displacement 2
and acceleration is .  = 3.66 × 10–7 rad
30
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-F2)

157. A charged particle having drift velocity of 161. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
7.5 × 10 –4 m s –1 in an electric field of 16 × 10–9 C m. The electric potential due to the
3 × 10–10 Vm–1, has a mobility in m2 V–1 s–1 of : dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from
(1) 2.5 × 10–6 (2) 2.25 × 10–15 the centre of the dipole, situated on a line
(3) 2.25 × 1015 (4) 2.5 × 106 making an angle of 60° with the dipole axis is :
Answer (4)  1 
  9  109 N m2 /C2 
vd  4  0 
S o l . Mobility,  
E (1) 400 V (2) zero
4
7.5  10 (3) 50 V (4) 200 V

3  1010
Answer (4)
= 2.5 × 106 m2V–1s–1
158. Taking into account of the significant figures, kp cos 
Sol. V 
what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m? r2
(1) 9.980 m (2) 9.9 m 9  109  16  109  cos60
V
(3) 9.9801 m (4) 9.98 m 0.36
Answer (4) V = 200 V
9.99 162. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure
 0.0099 of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C.
Sol.
9.9801 m Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)
In subtraction, answer should be reported to (1) 0.1 kg/m3
least number of decimal places, so answer (2) 0.02 kg/m3
should be 9.98 m.
(3) 0.5 kg/m3
159. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance
is : (4) 0.2 kg/m3
(1) 1.5 × 1013 J (2) 0.5 × 1013 J Answer (4)
(3) 4.5 × 1016 J (4) 4.5 × 1013 J PM
S o l . PM = RT  
Answer (4) RT
S o l . From mass-energy equivalence. P = 249 × 103 N/m2
E = mc2 M = 2 × 10–3 kg
= 0.5 × 10–3 × (3 × 108)2 T = 300 K
= 4.5 × 1013 J
(249  103 )(2  10 –3 ) 0.2 kg
235   
160. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded 8.3  300 m3
with a neutron, it generates 89
, three 163. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic
36 Kr
gas is : (k B is Boltzmann constant and T,
neutrons and :
absolute temperature)
101 103
(1) 36 Kr (2) 36 Kr
5 7
(3) 144
(4) 91 (1) kB T (2) kB T
56 Ba 40 Zr 2 2
Answer (3)
1 3
S o l . U235 1 89 1 A (3) kB T (4) kB T
92  0 n  Kr36  3n0  X Z 2 2
92 + 0 = 36 + Z Answer (4)
 Z = 56
S o l . For monoatomic gases, degree of freedom is 3.
235 + 1 = 89 + 3 + A
Hence average thermal energy per molecule is
 A = 144
3
So, 144
is generated. KEavg  kB T
56 Ba 2
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164. The color code of a resistance is given below A
Sol. A
Y
B
B

The values of resistance and tolerance,

_________
respectively, are
Y  AB
(1) 4.7 k, 5% (2) 470 , 5% _____

(3) 470 k, 5% (4) 47 k, 10%  A·B

= A·B  AND Gate
Answer (2)
Truth Table
S o l . According to colour coding
Yellow Violet Brown Gold A B Y
0 0 0
4 7 1 5%
0 1 0
So, R = 47 × 101 ± 5%
1 0 0
R = 470 ± 5% 
1 1 1
165. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is: 166. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of
a metre bridge balances a 10  resistance in
A the right gap at a point which divides the
bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the
Y
resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 
B of the resistance wire is :
(1) 1.5 × 10–1 m
(1) A B Y
(2) 1.5 × 10–2 m
0 0 1
(3) 1.0 × 10–2 m
0 1 1
(4) 1.0 × 10–1 m
1 0 1
Answer (4)
1 1 0 Q = 10
P C
(2) A B Y
G
0 0 1 l1 l2
Sol. A B
0 1 0 D
1 0 0
( )
1 1 0
P l1 3
(3) A B Y Initially,  
10 l2 2
0 0 0
30
0 1 0  P  15 
2
1 0 0 l
Now Resistance, R 
1 1 1 A
(4) A B Y R1 l1

0 0 0 R2 l2

0 1 1 15 1.5
 
1 0 1 1 l2

1 1 1 l2 = 0.1 m

Answer (3) = 1.0 × 10–1 m

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-F2)

167. Find the torque about the origin when a force mg0
S o l . mgh 
of 3j N acts on a particle whose position  h
2
 1 
vector is 2k m . R

(1) 6 i Nm (2) 6k Nm W=

72
2
 R/2
(3) 6i Nm (4) 6j Nm  1 
 R 
Answer (1)
   72 4
Sol .   r F W=   72  32 N
  3 / 2 2 9
  2kˆ  3ˆj
171. An electron is accelerated from rest through a

  6 ˆi Nm potential difference of V volt. If the
de Broglie wavelength of the electron is
168. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is
1.227 × 10–2 nm, the potential difference is :
hanging from a fixed support. The length of the
wire changes to L1 when mass M is suspended (1) 103 V (2) 104 V
from its free end. The expression for Young’s (3) 10 V (4) 102 V
modulus is :
Answer (2)
MgL MgL
(1) AL (2) A(L  L) 12.27
Sol.   Å
1 1

MgL1 Mg(L1  L) V
(3) (4)
AL AL 12.27  10 –10
Answer (2) V  102
1.227  10 –11
Mg
S o l . Stress =  V = 104 volts
A
172. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on
 L L1 – L
Strain =  one surface of a small angle prism (with angle
L L
of prism A) and emerges normally from the
Stress MgL opposite surface. If the refractive index of the
Young's modulus = Strain  A(L – L)
1 material of the prism is , then the angle of
169. A 40 F capacitor is connected to a 200 V, incidence is nearly equal to :
50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current
A
in the circuit is, nearly : (1) A (2)
2
(1) 2.5 A (2) 25.1 A
A 2A
(3) 1.7 A (4) 2.05 A (3) (4)
2 
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
S o l . irms = crms
c = 40 × 10–6 F S o l . Light ray emerges normally from another
surface, hence, e(angle of emergence) = 0
 = 2f = 100
r2 = 0
rms = 200 V
 irms = 200 × 40 × 10–6 × 2 × 50 r1 + r2 = A
= 2.5 A  r1 = A
170. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the Applying Snell's law on first surface
earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a
height equal to half the radius of the earth? 1.sini = sinr1

(1) 30 N (2) 24 N  sini = sinA

(3) 48 N (4) 32 N For small angles (sin  )
Answer (4) hence i = A

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173. The solids which have the negative 
temperature coefficient of resistance are: K
0
(1) semiconductors only
  K 0
(2) insulators and semiconductors
= 5 × 8.85 × 10–12
(3) metals
= 0.44 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–2
(4) insulators only
177. The energy required to break one bond in DNA
Answer (2) is 10–20 J. This value in eV is nearly:
S o l . For metals temperature coefficient of (1) 0.06 (2) 0.006
resistance is positive while for insulators and (3) 6 (4) 0.6
semiconductors, temperature coefficient of Answer (1)
resistance is negative. S o l . 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J
174. In a certain region of space with volume 1
0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V 1J  eV
1.6  10 19
throughout. The magnitude of electric field in
10 20
this region is : 1020 J  eV
1.6  1019
(1) 1 N/C (2) 5 N/C = 0.06 eV
(3) zero (4) 0.5 N/C 178. Dimensions of stress are :
Answer (3) (1) [ML0T–2] (2) [ML–1 T–2]
(3) [MLT ]–2 (4) [ML2T–2]
S o l . Since, electric potential is found throughout
Answer (2)
dV Force
constant, hence electric field, E   =0 S o l . Stress =
dr Area
175. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on MLT 2 
a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence  
having surface area 20 cm 2 . The energy L2 
 
received by the surface during time span of
 ML1T 2 
1 minute is :
179. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
(1) 24 × 103 J (2) 48 × 103 J
connected to each other via a stop cock. A
(3) 10 × 103 J (4) 12 × 103 J contains an ideal gas at standard temperature
Answer (1) and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The
entire system is thermally insulated. The stop
S o l . Energy received = Intensity × Area × Time
cock is suddenly opened. The process is :
= 20 × 20 × 60 (1) isochoric (2) isobaric
= 24 × 103 J (3) isothermal (4) adiabatic
Answer (4)
176. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
S o l .Entire system is thermally insulated. So, no
with air as medium is 6 F. With the
heat exchange will take place. Hence, process
introduction of a dielectric medium, the
will be adiabatic.
capacitance becomes 30 F. The permittivity of
180. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
the medium is :
diameter d and number density n can be
(0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2) expressed as :
(1) 0.44 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–2 1 1
(2) 5.00 C2 N–1 m–2 (1) 2 2 (2) 2 2 2
2 n d 2n  d
(3) 0.44 × 10–13 C2 N–1 m–2 1 1
(4) 1.77 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2 (3) (4)
2 nd 2 nd2
Answer (1) Answer (4)
S o l . C = KC0 S o l . According to the formula
C 30 1
K  5 
C0 6 2 nd2


34