Q1. What are the primary purposes of computer networks?

• Sharing cat photos

• Facilitating data sharing
• Sending handwritten letters
• Playing video games

Correct Answer: B

Q2. How do computer networks support communication?

• By delivering pizzas
• By enabling data and resource sharing
• By predicting the weather
• By composing music

Correct Answer: B

Q3. What is a common use of computer networks?

• Baking cookies
• Remote access and mobility
• Gardening
• Skydiving

Correct Answer: B

Q4. What is the role of computer networks in collaboration?

• Sharing secret recipes

• Enabling users to work together from different locations
• Solving crossword puzzles
• Creating origami art

Correct Answer: B

Q5. What is a star topology known for?

• Redundancy
• Circular shape
• Mesh connections
• High collision rates

Correct Answer: A

Q6. Which topology forms a closed-loop structure?

 • Bus
• Ring
• Star
• Mesh

Correct Answer: B

Q7. What topology offers high fault tolerance and redundancy?

• Bus
• Ring
• Star
• Mesh

Correct Answer: D

Q8. In which topology do all devices share the same communication medium?

• Star
• Ring
• Bus
• Mesh

Correct Answer: C

Q9. What is a collision domain in networking?

• A group of devices sharing the same MAC address

• A network segment where collisions can occur
• A domain for scheduling network tasks
• A domain for storing network data

Correct Answer: B

Q10. How does the collision domain size affect network performance?

• It has no impact on performance

• Larger collision domains lead to better performance
• Smaller collision domains lead to better performance
• It determines the color of network cables

Correct Answer: C

Q11. What mechanism helps prevent collisions in Ethernet networks?

• Collision detection
 • Collision avoidance
• Collision celebration
• Collision prediction

Correct Answer: B

Q12. What can be done to reduce collisions within a collision domain?

• Increase the collision domain size

• Add more devices to the domain
• Implement collision detection algorithms
• Segment the network into smaller collision domains

Correct Answer: D

Q13. What is the role of a broadcast domain in network communication?

• It ensures secure communication

• It limits the size of network traffic
• It enables devices to communicate with each other
• It defines the area where broadcasts are heard

Correct Answer: D

Q14. How does a switch reduce the size of a broadcast domain compared to a hub?

• By making coffee
• By forwarding broadcasts to all ports
• By isolating devices into separate domains
• By broadcasting louder

Correct Answer: C

Q15. What do VLANs (Virtual LANs) do in terms of broadcast domains?

• Increase the broadcast domain size

• Reduce the broadcast domain size
• Convert broadcasts into unicasts
• Broadcast to all devices in a network

Correct Answer: B

Q16. What are the implications of a large broadcast domain on network traffic?

• Faster data transfer

• Reduced network congestion
 • Increased network traffic
• Improved network security

Correct Answer: C

Q17. What is the OSI model, and how many layers does it consist of?

• 4 layers
• 5 layers
• 6 layers
• 7 layers

Correct Answer: D

Q18. In the OSI model, which layer is responsible for data encryption and decryption?

• Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer
• Presentation Layer
• Transport Layer

Correct Answer: C

Q19. Which layer of the OSI model is primarily responsible for routing and logical addressing?

• Network Layer
• Transport Layer
• Session Layer
• Data Link Layer

Correct Answer: A

Q20. What is the primary function of the Transport Layer in the OSI model?

• Ensuring data integrity

• Physical data transmission
• Logical addressing
• Establishing and managing connections

Correct Answer: D

Q21. Which layer of the OSI model deals with error detection and correction at the bit level?

• Data Link Layer

• Physical Layer
• Transport Layer
 • Network Layer

Correct Answer: A

Q22. What is the purpose of the OSI model's Session Layer?

• Data encryption
• Managing user sessions
• Error detection
• Data compression

Correct Answer: B

Q23. How many layers does the TCP/IP model consist of?

• 4 layers
• 5 layers
• 6 layers
• 7 layers

Correct Answer: A

Q24. Which layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to the OSI model's Transport Layer?

• Internet Layer
• Link Layer
• Transport Layer
• Application Layer

Correct Answer: C

Q25. What is the primary advantage of the TCP/IP model over the OSI model?

• Simplicity and widespread adoption

• Enhanced security features
• Improved physical layer standards
• Greater flexibility in data presentation

Correct Answer: A

Q26. In the TCP/IP model, which layer is responsible for addressing and routing data packets?

• Internet Layer
• Link Layer
• Transport Layer
• Application Layer
Correct Answer: A

Q27. How does the OSI model compare to the TCP/IP model in terms of layer definitions?

• The layers have different names and numbers

• The layers have the same names but different numbers
• The layers have the same names and numbers
• The OSI model has more layers than the TCP/IP model

Correct Answer: A

Q28. Which model, OSI or TCP/IP, is more commonly used in practical network implementations
today?

• OSI model
• TCP/IP model
• Both are equally popular
• Neither is used anymore

Correct Answer: B

Q29. What are the primary functions of the Physical Layer in a network?

• Routing and addressing

• Data link control
• Bit-level transmission
• Logical addressing

Correct Answer: C

Q30. What is the main advantage of using fiber optic cables over copper cables for data
transmission?

• Lower cost
• Faster transmission speeds
• Greater flexibility
• Easier installation

Correct Answer: B

Q31. Which of the following is an example of guided transmission media?

• Wireless
• Optical fiber
• Infrared
 • Microwave

Correct Answer: B

Q32. In wireless communication, what is the purpose of modulation and demodulation (modem)?

• To convert digital data into analog signals for transmission

• To encrypt and decrypt data packets
• To route data packets between networks
• To establish Wi-Fi connections

Correct Answer: A

Q33. What type of wireless transmission is used in cellular telephone networks?

• Infrared
• Microwave
• Radio waves
• Bluetooth

Correct Answer: C

Q34. Which of the following wireless technologies is commonly used for satellite-based internet
connections?

• 4G LTE
• Wi-Fi
• VSAT (Very Small Aperture Terminal)
• NFC (Near Field Communication)

Correct Answer: C

Q35. What are the advantages of using microwave transmission for long-distance communication?

• Low cost and ease of installation

• High data rates and low latency
• Immunity to interference and wide coverage
• Secure and encrypted communication

Correct Answer: B

Q36. What is the role of a transceiver in wireless communication?

• Data encryption
• Signal amplification
• Transmitting and receiving signals
 • Routing data packets

Correct Answer: C

Q37. What is latency in network communication, and how does it relate to the Physical Layer?

• Latency is the delay in data transmission, affected by the transmission medium.

• Latency is the data rate of a communication channel.
• Latency is the protocol used to establish connections.
• Latency is the distance between network devices.

Correct Answer: A

Q38. What is the key difference between half-duplex and full-duplex communication?

• Half-duplex can transmit data in both directions simultaneously, while full-duplex cannot.
• Half-duplex can only transmit data in one direction at a time, while full-duplex can
transmit in both directions simultaneously.
• Half-duplex uses optical fibers, while full-duplex uses copper cables.
• Half-duplex is used in wireless communication, while full-duplex is used in wired
communication.

Correct Answer: B

Q39. 1. What are the common types of errors that can occur in data transmission over a network?

• Bit errors
• Link errors
• Frame errors
• All of the above

Correct Answer: D

Q40. 2. What is redundancy in the context of error detection and correction?

• The process of reducing data size for faster transmission

• The inclusion of extra information to detect and correct errors
• The removal of duplicate data from a message
• None of the above

Correct Answer: B

Q41. 3. Which error detection technique uses a polynomial division to calculate a remainder that is
added to the data for error checking?

• CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check)

 • Checksum
• Parity bit
• Hamming code

Correct Answer: A

Q42. 4. What is the purpose of a checksum in error detection?

• To count the number of bits in a message

• To check for errors in the data by comparing the sum of bits to a predefined value
• To encrypt the data for secure transmission
• None of the above

Correct Answer: B

Q43. 5. Which error correction technique can correct single-bit errors and detect double-bit errors in
data?

• CRC
• Checksum
• Hamming code
• Parity bit

Correct Answer: C

Q44. 6. What is the Hamming distance between two binary words of equal length?

• The number of bits that differ between the two words

• The total number of bits in the words
• The number of bits set to 1 in the words
• None of the above

Correct Answer: A

Q45. 7. Which error detection method involves adding an extra bit to the data so that the total
number of 1s is always even (or odd)?

• CRC
• Checksum
• Parity bit
• Hamming code

Correct Answer: C

Q46. 8. What is the purpose of error detection and correction at the Data Link Layer?
 • To ensure data confidentiality
• To prevent unauthorized access to the network
• To detect and correct errors in data transmission
• To establish network connections

Correct Answer: C

Q47. 9. Which error detection technique is commonly used in Ethernet networks to detect errors in
frames?

• CRC
• Checksum
• Parity bit
• Hamming code

Correct Answer: A

Q48. 10. In error detection, what is the purpose of the receiver's acknowledgment (ACK) to the
sender?

• To request retransmission of the entire data

• To confirm successful receipt of data
• To notify the sender of an error in the data
• To terminate the data transmission

Correct Answer: B

Q49. 1. What is the ALOHA protocol used for in computer networks?

• Error correction
• Multiple access control
• Data encryption
• Packet routing

Correct Answer: B

Q50. 2. In ALOHA, how is the transmission time divided into slots?

• Equally sized slots for all stations

• Unequally sized slots based on station priority
• Dynamically sized slots based on traffic load
• There are no slots in ALOHA

Correct Answer: A
Q51. 3. What is the key disadvantage of the pure ALOHA protocol?

• High collision rate

• Low throughput
• Complex synchronization requirements
• Limited scalability

Correct Answer: A

Q52. 4. What does CSMA stand for in CSMA/CA and CSMA/CD?

• Centralized Synchronization Media Access

• Carrier Sense Multiple Access
• Collision-Free Media Allocation
• Controlled Synchronization Medium Allocation

Correct Answer: B

Q53. 5. In CSMA, what is the purpose of "carrier sense"?

• To detect collisions
• To sense the presence of a carrier signal
• To encrypt data packets
• To regulate access to the medium

Correct Answer: B

Q54. 6. How does CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) handle
collisions?

• Stations always transmit, and collisions are resolved by the central controller.
• Stations sense the collision and retransmit after a random backoff time.
• Collisions are prevented through strict time-slot allocation.
• Collisions are ignored, and the sender keeps transmitting.

Correct Answer: B

Q55. 7. In CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance), how are collisions
avoided?

• Stations transmit simultaneously to reduce the chance of collision.

• Stations request permission before transmitting.
• Collisions are resolved by the central controller.
• Collisions are detected and corrected in real-time.

Correct Answer: B
Q56. 8. What is the primary advantage of CSMA/CA over CSMA/CD in wireless networks?

• Lower latency
• Higher throughput
• Reduced collisions
• Simplicity of implementation

Correct Answer: C

Q57. 9. Which protocol is commonly used in Ethernet LANs and employs CSMA/CD?

• ALOHA
• Token Ring
• Wi-Fi
• Ethernet

Correct Answer: D

Q58. 10. What is the primary purpose of the contention window in CSMA/CA?

• To set the maximum data rate

• To specify the channel frequency
• To control the backoff time before retransmission
• To define the maximum frame size

Correct Answer: C

Q59. 1. What does FDMA stand for in the context of channelization protocols?

• Frequency Division Multiple Access

• Frequency Data Management Algorithm
• Fast Digital Modulation Analysis
• Frequency Data Modulation Array

Correct Answer: A

Q60. 2. In FDMA, how are multiple users allocated channels for communication?

• Users share the same frequency channel simultaneously.

• Each user is assigned a unique frequency channel.
• Users take turns transmitting on the same frequency.
• Channels are dynamically assigned based on deman

Correct Answer: B
Q61. 3. What is the primary advantage of FDMA in terms of channel allocation?

• High flexibility and adaptability

• Low susceptibility to interference
• Efficient use of available bandwidth
• Simple implementation and low cost

Correct Answer: C

Q62. 4. What does TDMA stand for in the context of channelization protocols?

• Time Division Media Allocation

• Time Division Multiple Access
• Transmission Data Management Algorithm
• Telecommunication Data Modulation Array

Correct Answer: B

Q63. 5. In TDMA, how is the transmission time divided among multiple users sharing the same
channel?

• Users transmit simultaneously on different time slots.

• Users transmit sequentially one after another.
• Users transmit in random order to minimize collisions.
• Users transmit on separate frequency channels.

Correct Answer: A

Q64. 6. What is the key benefit of TDMA in terms of spectrum efficiency?

• High resistance to interference

• Lower latency in data transmission
• Efficient use of available bandwidth
• Reduced complexity of synchronization

Correct Answer: C

Q65. 1. What is the primary goal of the reservation protocol in controlled access?

• Minimize latency
• Maximize throughput
• Ensure fairness
• Reduce collision probability

Correct Answer: A
Q66. 2. In reservation-based protocols, how are time slots allocated to devices for transmission?

• Devices compete for slots in real-time.

• Slots are pre-allocated based on a reservation phase.
• Slots are allocated randomly to devices.
• Slots are assigned permanently to devices.

Correct Answer: B

Q67. 3. What is a potential drawback of reservation-based protocols in dynamic networks?

• Inefficient use of bandwidth

• High collision rates
• Excessive overhead for slot allocation
• Limited scalability

Correct Answer: C

Q68. 1. In polling-based protocols, who controls the communication and polling process?

• Devices independently poll each other.

• A central controller polls devices sequentially.
• Devices send messages whenever they want.
• Devices poll each other randomly.

Correct Answer: B

Q69. 2. What is the advantage of using polling in controlled access networks?

• Low latency due to simultaneous transmission

• High throughput for all devices
• Predictable access to the shared medium
• Minimal overhead in the communication process

Correct Answer: C

Q70. 3. What is a potential drawback of polling-based protocols in large networks with many
devices?

• High collision rates

• Long waiting times for polling
• Difficulty in synchronization
• Inefficient use of bandwidth

Correct Answer: B
Q71. 1. What is the fundamental concept behind token passing protocols in controlled access?

• Devices compete for access to the medium.

• Devices transmit when they have a token.
• Devices use polling to access the medium.
• Devices reserve time slots for transmission.

Correct Answer: B

Q72. 2. In token passing, how is access to the shared medium controlled?

• Devices send requests for transmission.

• A token is passed sequentially among devices.
• Devices transmit data simultaneously.
• A central controller allocates time slots.

Correct Answer: B

Q73. 3. What is a significant advantage of token passing protocols in controlled access networks?

• High flexibility in medium access

• Minimal collision probability
• Reduced overhead in communication
• Low latency due to parallel transmission

Correct Answer: B

Q74. Which of the following is a valid IPv4 address format?

• 256.1.1
• 10.10.300
• 31.256.0
• 168.1.1000

Correct Answer: D

Q75. Which network class is primarily used for large-scale organizations and provides over 16 million
host addresses?

• g., 10.0.0.0)
• g., 172.16.0.0)
• g., 192.168.0.0)
• g., 224.0.0.0)

Correct Answer: A
Q76. What is the default subnet mask for a Class B network?

• 0.0.0
• 255.0.0
• 255.255.0
• 255.255.255

Correct Answer: B

Q77. Which subnet mask does RIP v1 assume by default when sending route updates?

• 255.255.255)
• 255.255.0)
• 255.0.0)
• 0.0.0)

Correct Answer: C

Q78. What is the multicast address used by RIP v2 for sending route updates?

• 0.0.5
• 0.0.9
• 255.255.255
• 0.0.1

Correct Answer: B

Q79. Which type of protocol does UDP (User Datagram Protocol) represent: connectionless or
connection-oriented?

• Connectionless
• Connection-oriented
• Both connectionless and connection-oriented
• Neither connectionless nor connection-oriented

Correct Answer: A

Q80. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is an example of which type of protocol: connectionless or
connection-oriented?

• Connectionless
• Connection-oriented
• Both connectionless and connection-oriented
• Neither connectionless nor connection-oriented

Correct Answer: B
Q81. In a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, what is the purpose of the three-way handshake
during connection establishment?

• To confirm data delivery

• To exchange encryption keys
• To synchronize sequence numbers
• To establish a reliable connection

Correct Answer: C

Q82. In a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, if a segment is not acknowledged by the receiver,
what action does the sender take?

• Retransmits the segment

• Drops the segment and continues
• Reduces the transmission speed
• Sends an error message to the receiver

Correct Answer: A

Q83. UDP is often used for real-time applications like streaming and online gaming. What advantage
does UDP offer for these applications?

• Reliable data delivery is not required

• Lower latency and reduced overhead
• Greater error checking and correction
• Enhanced security and encryption

Correct Answer: B

Q84. What is the primary role of the Transport Layer protocols such as TCP and UDP?

• To transmit data between devices

• To establish network connections
• To encrypt data for secure transmission
• To manage the physical network

Correct Answer: A

Q85. Which Transport Layer protocol is commonly used for secure, encrypted data transmission on
the web?

• FTP
• HTTPs
• SNMP
 • ICMP

Correct Answer: B

Q86. Which Transport Layer protocol is designed for email communication and is responsible for
sending and receiving emails?

• HTTP
• SMTP
• SNMP
• DNS

Correct Answer: B

Q87. Which Transport Layer protocol is often used for file transfer and allows for efficient, bulk data
transfer?

• FTP
• SNMP
• HTTP
• SMTP

Correct Answer: A

Q88. What is the purpose of port numbers in the Transport Layer protocols?

• To identify the physical interface of a device

• To specify the device's IP address
• To identify the application or service
• To determine the device's location

Correct Answer: C

Q89. What does TCP stand for in the context of networking?

• Transmission Control Protocol

• Textual Communication Protocol
• Transport Control Protocol
• Telecommunication Connection Protocol

Correct Answer: A

Q90. Which TCP flag is used to initiate the connection setup in the TCP three-way handshake?

• ACK (Acknowledgment)
• SYN (Synchronize)
 • RST (Reset)
• FIN (Finish)

Correct Answer: B

Q91. In TCP, what term refers to the process of ensuring that data segments are received by the
destination and in the correct order?

• Segmentation
• Flow control
• Error correction
• Sequence control

Correct Answer: D

Q92. In a TCP connection, which side, the sender or receiver, acknowledges the successful receipt of
data segments?

• Only the sender

• Only the receiver
• Both the sender and receiver
• Neither the sender nor receiver

Correct Answer: B

Q93. What is the purpose of the TCP FIN (Finish) flag during the connection termination process?

• To acknowledge data receipt and continue communication

• To reset the connection
• To initiate the connection termination
• To establish a new connection

Correct Answer: C

Q94. What does the term "handshaking" refer to in the context of the TCP three-way handshake?

• A process of physical handshakes between devices

• An agreement to establish a connection
• An authentication method
• A security protocol

Correct Answer: B

Q95. In the TCP three-way handshake, what does the SYN (Synchronize) segment indicate to the
receiving device?
 • The sender is ready to receive data
• The sender is terminating the connection
• The sender is synchronizing sequence numbers
• The sender is requesting encryption

Correct Answer: C

Q96. In the TCP three-way handshake, after the client sends a SYN segment, what action does the
server take?

• The server responds with a SYN-ACK segment

• The server sends data
• The server acknowledges the client's request
• The server terminates the connection

Correct Answer: A

Q97. Which transport layer protocol uses a message format with no header checksum, providing
minimal overhead?

• TCP
• UDP
• IP
• HTTP

Correct Answer: B

Q98. What is the maximum length, in bytes, of the UDP message payload (data) that can be
accommodated in a single packet?

• 512 bytes
• 1,500 bytes
• 65,535 bytes
• 4,096 bytes

Correct Answer: C

Q99. Which field in the TCP message header indicates the number of 32-bit words in the TCP header
itself?

• Window size
• Data offset
• Checksum
• Acknowledgment number

Correct Answer: B
Q100. What field in the TCP message format specifies the maximum number of bytes the sender is
willing to accept in one message?

• Checksum
• Sequence number
• Window size
• Acknowledgment number

Correct Answer: C

Q101. In the TCP message format, what is the purpose of the Urgent Pointer field?

• To indicate the start of a new message

• To specify the sender's IP address
• To identify the data sequence number
• To indicate the end of the message

Correct Answer: D

Q102. In congestion control, what does "window-based" congestion control refer to?

• Controlling congestion by limiting the number of packets sent

• Controlling congestion based on network latency
• Controlling congestion by adjusting window size
• Controlling congestion using traffic shaping

Correct Answer: C

Q103. In QoS, what is "jitter," and why is it important to control in real-time communication?

• Jitter refers to network congestion

• Jitter is the variation in packet arrival times
• Jitter indicates the number of lost packets
• Jitter measures data throughput

Correct Answer: B

Q104. What is the primary purpose of a token bucket in traffic shaping for QoS?

• To store packets temporarily

• To prioritize voice traffic
• To control the rate of packet transmission
• To increase network capacity

Correct Answer: C
Q105. Which QoS mechanism involves marking packets with different priority levels based on their
importance or type of traffic?

• Packet switching
• Quality of Service (QoS)
• Traffic shaping
• Packet loss prevention

Correct Answer: B

Q106. What is the primary function of the Domain Name System (DNS) in computer networks?

• To encrypt data transmissions

• To resolve human-readable domain names to IP addresses
• To manage email communication
• To perform network monitoring

Correct Answer: B

Q107. What is the significance of a DNS cache in speeding up domain name resolution?

• It stores encrypted DNS records

• It stores frequently accessed DNS records
• It encrypts DNS traffic
• It manages email servers

Correct Answer: B

Q108. What is a top-level domain (TLD) in the context of DNS?

• The highest level of the DNS hierarchy

• A domain that exclusively uses numeric characters
• The domain name of a web server
• A domain used for email addressing

Correct Answer: A

Q109. Which DNS record type is used to specify the mail servers responsible for receiving email for a
domain?

• A (Address)
• PTR (Pointer)
• MX (Mail Exchanger)
• CNAME (Canonical Name)
Correct Answer: C

Q110. In remote logging, what is the role of a log collector?

• To encrypt log data

• To centralize and store log data from various sources
• To manage email servers
• To generate network traffic logs

Correct Answer: B

Q111. Who is credited with inventing email, and when was it first introduced?

• Bill Gates in 1995

• Ray Tomlinson in the early 1970s
• Mark Zuckerberg in 2004
• Tim Berners-Lee in 1989

Correct Answer: B

Q112. How does the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) play a role in email transmission?

• It encrypts email messages

• It defines the rules for routing and sending email
• It manages email storage
• It controls email access

Correct Answer: B

Q113. How does email address formatting adhere to the [email protected] structure?

• It uses IP addresses for email

• It separates username and domain with a period
• It encrypts email data
• It encrypts email headers

Correct Answer: B

Q114. What is the purpose of email aliases and distribution lists in email communication?

• To encrypt email headers

• To manage email attachments
• To route email traffic
• To simplify sending emails to groups

Correct Answer: D
Q115. How does email support the concept of folders and organizational structures?

• By encrypting email contents

• By allowing users to categorize and store emails
• By compressing email headers
• By securing email attachments

Correct Answer: B

Q116. What are the basic components of an FTP connection?

• Username, password, and email client

• Server, client, and encryption key
• Sender, receiver, and IP address
• Header, footer, and routing table

Correct Answer: B

Q117. How does FTP handle file transfers between different operating systems?

• It converts email attachments

• It uses a universal format for all files
• It encrypts email messages
• It encrypts email headers

Correct Answer: B

Q118. What are some common security risks associated with FTP, and how can they be mitigated?

• Lack of email encryption

• Unauthorized access and data interception
• Excessive email logs storage
• Slow email delivery due to FTP use

Correct Answer: B

Q119. What are web servers, and how do they serve web content?

• Servers for secure email delivery

• Computers that store and distribute web pages
• Devices for email encryption
• Routers for FTP file transfers

Correct Answer: B
Q120. What is the purpose of HTML (Hypertext Markup Language) in web development?

• It encrypts email contents

• It defines the structure and content of web pages
• It manages email attachments
• It optimizes email routing

Correct Answer: B

Q121. What is HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), and what is its primary purpose?

• A protocol for secure email delivery

• A protocol for transferring files
• A protocol for web communication
• A method of email encryption

Correct Answer: C

Q122. What is the purpose of cookies in HTTP, and how are they used?

• They are email attachments for web pages

• They store session information
• They encrypt email data
• They optimize email routing

Correct Answer: B

Q123. What is the role of HTTP headers in web communication, and what types of information do
they convey?

• They are email headers for web pages

• They indicate the content type and length
• They manage email routing
• They encrypt email attachments

Correct Answer: B

Q124. How does SMTP facilitate email transmission between email clients and email servers?

• It encrypts email headers

• It uses email attachments for transmission
• It relays email messages
• It optimizes email routing

Correct Answer: C
Q125. Explain the roles of SMTP clients (MUAs) and their interactions with SMTP servers in sending
emails.

• Clients compose email content

• Clients store email attachments
• Clients encrypt email headers
• Clients optimize email delivery

Correct Answer: A

Q126. How does SMTP ensure the reliability of email delivery, and what mechanisms are in place for
handling failed deliveries?

• It uses email encryption methods

• It tracks email logs for errors
• It implements retries and queuing
• It optimizes email routing

Correct Answer: C

Q127. What are SNMP agents and managers, and how do they interact in network management?

• They are encryption methods for emails

• Agents collect and report data, managers
• They manage email routing
• They compress email attachments

Correct Answer: B

Q128. What are SNMP community strings, and how do they control access to SNMP-managed
devices?

• They are email attachments for web pages

• They are authentication keys for SNMP
• They are used to encrypt email data
• They specify SNMP server addresses

Correct Answer: B

Q129. What types of information can SNMP provide about network devices and resources?

• It tracks email logs for errors

• Configuration settings, performance metrics
• It encrypts email headers
• It manages email logs

Correct Answer: B
Q130. What is the purpose of SNMP MIBs (Management Information Bases), and how are they
organized?

• They are email logs for SNMP messages

• They store SNMP data and are organized hierarchically
• They encrypt email contents
• They manage email routing

Correct Answer: B

Q131. How does network segmentation contribute to security services, and what are some common
segmentation methods?

• It encrypts network traffic

• It improves network performance
• It isolates network segments
• It manages network authentication

Correct Answer: C

Q132. What is the role of disaster recovery planning in network security, and how does it ensure
business continuity?

• It ensures data confidentiality

• It verifies user identities
• It restricts unauthorized access
• It prepares for unforeseen disruptions

Correct Answer: D

Q133. How does encryption contribute to data security, and what are common encryption
algorithms used in network security?

• It ensures data confidentiality

• It verifies user identities
• It restricts unauthorized access
• It optimizes network performance

Correct Answer: A

Q134. What is the purpose of digital signatures in network security, and how do they verify the
authenticity of data?

• They encrypt network traffic

• They improve user authentication
 • They authenticate the sender's identity
• They optimize network routing

Correct Answer: C

Q135. Explain the significance of end-to-end encryption in securing data transmission across
networks.

• It ensures data confidentiality

• It optimizes network routing
• It restricts unauthorized access
• It detects and responds to incidents

Correct Answer: A

Q136. What is the primary purpose of a digital signature in network security?

• To encrypt network traffic

• To restrict unauthorized access
• To verify the authenticity and integrity of data
• To optimize network routing

Correct Answer: C

Q137. What cryptographic key is typically used for generating a digital signature?

• Public key
• Private key
• Symmetric key
• Session key

Correct Answer: B

Q138. Explain the concept of a revocation list (CRL) in digital certificate management.

• It ensures data confidentiality

• It verifies user identities
• It restricts unauthorized access
• It lists revoked or expired digital certificates

Correct Answer: D

Q139. What is the OSI Model, and how does it work?

• A protocol for wireless communication.

• A conceptual framework with seven layers that standardizes networking functions.
 • A type of firewall used in enterprise networks.
• A software for network configuration.

Correct Answer: B

Q140. What is redundancy in the context of error detection and correction?

• The process of reducing data size for faster transmission

• The inclusion of extra information to detect and correct errors
• The removal of duplicate data from a message
• None of the above

Correct Answer: B

Q141. What is the purpose of a checksum in error detection?

• To count the number of bits in a message

• To check for errors in the data by comparing the sum of bits to a predefined value
• To encrypt the data for secure transmission
• None of the above

Correct Answer: B

Q142. In ALOHA, how is the transmission time divided into slots?

• Equally sized slots for all stations

• Unequally sized slots based on station priority
• Dynamically sized slots based on traffic load
• There are no slots in ALOHA

Correct Answer: A

Q143. What does CSMA stand for in CSMA/CA and CSMA/CD?

• Centralized Synchronization Media Access

• Carrier Sense Multiple Access
• Collision-Free Media Allocation
• Controlled Synchronization Medium Allocation

Correct Answer: B

Q144. In CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance), how are collisions
avoided?

• Stations transmit simultaneously to reduce the chance of collision.

• Stations request permission before transmitting.
 • Collisions are resolved by the central controller.
• Collisions are detected and corrected in real-time.

Correct Answer: B

Q145. What does TDMA stand for in the context of channelization protocols?

• Time Division Media Allocation

• Time Division Multiple Access
• Transmission Data Management Algorithm
• Telecommunication Data Modulation Array

Correct Answer: B

Q146. What is the primary goal of the reservation protocol in controlled access?

• Minimize latency
• Maximize throughput
• Ensure fairness
• Reduce collision probability

Correct Answer: A

Q147. What is a potential drawback of reservation-based protocols in dynamic networks?

• Inefficient use of bandwidth

• High collision rates
• Excessive overhead for slot allocation
• Limited scalability

Correct Answer: C

Q148. What is a potential drawback of polling-based protocols in large networks with many devices?

• High collision rates

• Long waiting times for polling
• Difficulty in synchronization
• Inefficient use of bandwidth

Correct Answer: B

Q149. What is a significant advantage of token passing protocols in controlled access networks?

• High flexibility in medium access

• Minimal collision probability
• Reduced overhead in communication
 • Low latency due to parallel transmission

Correct Answer: B

Q150. In the Stop and Wait protocol, what is the role of the sender after sending a data frame?

• Continue sending data frames

• Wait for an acknowledgment (ACK) from the receiver
• Send the next data frame immediately
• Request retransmission of the data frame

Correct Answer: B

Q151. What is the major drawback of the Stop and Wait protocol in terms of efficiency?

• High throughput
• Low latency
• Inefficient use of bandwidth
• Minimal overhead

Correct Answer: C

Q152. In the context of the Stop and Wait protocol, what is the significance of using timers?

• To synchronize sender and receiver

• To measure transmission speed
• To manage network congestion
• To handle timeouts and retransmissions

Correct Answer: D

Q153. Which factor makes the Stop and Wait protocol less suitable for high-speed networks and
long-distance communication?

• Reliability
• Simplicity
• Low overhead
• Efficiency

Correct Answer: D

Q154. Which data link layer protocol is known for its simplicity and involves the sender waiting for an
acknowledgment before sending the next frame?

• Go-Back-N
• Selective Repeat
 • Stop and Wait
• Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ)

Correct Answer: C

Q155. Which data link layer protocol uses a sliding window approach, allowing the sender to
transmit multiple frames before waiting for acknowledgments?

• Go-Back-N
• Selective Repeat
• Stop and Wait
• Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ)

Correct Answer: A

Q156. Which ARQ protocol provides more efficient error recovery by retransmitting only the frames
with errors, rather than the entire window?

• Go-Back-N
• Selective Repeat
• Stop and Wait
• Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ)

Correct Answer: B

Q157. In the Selective Repeat ARQ protocol, what is the key advantage over Go-Back-N in terms of
efficiency and retransmissions?

• It retransmits only frames with errors

• It has a smaller window size
• It offers lower throughput
• It requires fewer acknowledgments

Correct Answer: A

Q158. What is the primary disadvantage of Selective Repeat ARQ compared to Go-Back-N in terms of
complexity and implementation?

• Increased complexity of sender and receiver

• Smaller window size
• Lower efficiency
• Higher overhead for acknowledgment

Correct Answer: A

Q159. Which of the following best describes an IP packet in the context of the Network Layer?
 • A logical group of data bytes
• A physical network cable
• A data frame within a switch
• A wireless access point

Correct Answer: A

Q160. In IPv4, how many bits are used to represent an IP address?

• 8 bits
• 16 bits
• 32 bits
• 64 bits

Correct Answer: C

Q161. Which part of an IPv4 address designates the network portion?

• The first two octets

• The last two octets
• The third octet
• The fourth octet

Correct Answer: A

Q162. What is the maximum number of IPv4 addresses that can exist within a single subnet?

• 255
• 256
• 2^32 - 1
• 2^32 - 2

Correct Answer: C

Q163. Which routing algorithm updates routing tables based on the number of hops to a destination
and shares this information with neighboring routers?

• Distance Vector Routing (DVR)

• Link State Routing (LSR)
• Static Routing
• Default Routing (DR)

Correct Answer: A

Q164. What is a routing metric in the context of routing algorithms?

 • The number of routers in the network
• A value used to determine the best path
• The physical distance between routers
• The number of hops to the destination

Correct Answer: B

Q165. What is the key advantage of Link State Routing (LSR) over Distance Vector Routing (DVR)?

• Simplicity and ease of implementation

• Faster convergence
• Lower bandwidth consumption
• Resistance to routing loops and more accurate routing

Correct Answer: D

Q166. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is primarily used for what purpose in IP networks?

• Network address translation (NAT)

• Error reporting and diagnostics
• Secure data transmission
• IP address allocation and management

Correct Answer: B

Q167. What is the purpose of IPv6 (Internet Protocol version 6) in comparison to IPv4?

• To reduce the number of available IP addresses

• To improve network security and encryption
• To enhance support for multimedia and IoT applications
• To provide backward compatibility with IPv4

Correct Answer: C

Q168. What is the maximum number of unique IP addresses that can be represented by IPv6?

• 2^64 (approximately 18.4 quintillion addresses)

• 2^16 (approximately 65,536 addresses)
• 2^32 (approximately 4.3 billion addresses)
• 2^128 (approximately 340 undecillion addresses)

Correct Answer: D

Q169. In IPv6, what type of address is used to identify a group of devices that may belong to
different networks?
 • Unicast address
• Anycast address
• Multicast address
• Broadcast address

Correct Answer: C

Q170. What is the primary reason for the transition from IPv4 to IPv6 in modern networking?

• To improve network performance and speed

• To reduce the complexity of routing tables
• To increase backward compatibility with legacy systems
• To accommodate the growing number of internet-connected devices

Correct Answer: D

Q171. In a Class C network, how many bits are assigned to the host portion of the IP address?

• 8 bits
• 16 bits
• 24 bits
• 32 bits

Correct Answer: C

Q172. What is the maximum number of host addresses that can be assigned in a Class C network
with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224?

• 8
• 16
• 32
• 64

Correct Answer: C

Q173. What is the primary purpose of a subnet mask in IP networking?

• To indicate the default gateway for the network

• To identify the network and host portions
• To encrypt data during transmission
• To assign unique hostnames to devices in the network

Correct Answer: B

Q174. What is the term for borrowing bits from the host portion of an IP address to create subnets?
 • Subnet borrowing
• Network slicing
• Bit masking
• Subnetting

Correct Answer: D

Q175. What is the primary characteristic of a static routing algorithm?

• It dynamically adjusts routes based on traffic

• It requires manual configuration
• It uses metrics like hop count for routing
• It adapts to network changes automatically

Correct Answer: B

Q176. In a network topology where link costs represent delay, which routing algorithm is suitable for
minimizing latency?

• RIP (Routing Information Protocol)

• BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)
• OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)
• EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol)

Correct Answer: C

Q177. Which routing protocol typically uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm for path selection?

• OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)

• RIP (Routing Information Protocol)
• BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)
• EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol)

Correct Answer: B

Q178. In dynamic routing, what does the term "metric" refer to?

• The maximum hop count to a destination

• A unique identifier for each route
• A measurement used to determine route preference
• The number of routers in the network

Correct Answer: C

Q179. Which type of routing algorithm adjusts routes based on real-time network conditions?
 • Dynamic routing algorithms
• Static routing algorithms
• Shortest Path Routing algorithms
• Link-State routing algorithms

Correct Answer: A

Q180. What does RIP stand for in the context of routing protocols?

• Routing Information Protocol

• Reliable Internet Protocol
• Routing Internet Protocol
• Remote Information Protocol

Correct Answer: A

Q181. What is the maximum hop count allowed in RIP v1 for a valid route?

• 10 hops
• 15 hops
• 16 hops
• 100 hops

Correct Answer: C

Q182. Which metric does RIP use to measure the distance to a destination network?

• Hop count
• Bandwidth
• Delay
• Reliability

Correct Answer: A

Q183. What is the purpose of the RIP "split horizon" rule?

• To prevent routing loops

• To optimize network traffic
• To split route updates into segments
• To ensure equal distribution of routes

Correct Answer: A

Q184. What does OSPF stand for in the context of routing protocols?

• Open Shortest Path Forwarding

 • Open System Path Finder
• Open Source Path Forwarding
• Open Shortest Path First

Correct Answer: D

Q185. OSPF uses a link-state routing algorithm. What type of information is stored in OSPF's link-
state database?

• The routing tables of all routers

• A list of all network IDs
• Information about the routers in the AS
• The number of hops to reach each router

Correct Answer: C

Q186. What is the purpose of OSPF's Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR) in
a multi-access network?

• To reduce OSPF routing overhead

• To maintain network stability
• To optimize the use of OSPF areas
• To increase OSPF's compatibility with RIP

Correct Answer: B

Q187. What OSPF packet type is used by routers to discover neighbors and establish adjacencies?

• Link-state advertisements (LSAs)

• OSPF Hello packets
• OSPF Database Description (DBD) packets
• OSPF Link State Update (LSU) packets

Correct Answer: B

Q188. In OSPF, what is an ASBR (Autonomous System Border Router)?

• A router that connects to the internet

• A router that connects to an OSPF area
• A router that connects to a different AS
• A router that connects to the backbone area

Correct Answer: C

Q189. What does EIGRP stand for in the context of routing protocols?
 • Enhanced Internet Gateway Routing Protocol
• Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
• Efficient Internet Gateway Routing Protocol
• Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Process

Correct Answer: B

Q190. In EIGRP, what is a feasible successor?

• A backup route with a higher metric

• A loop-free backup route
• A route advertised by an ASBR
• A virtual link to a remote router

Correct Answer: B

Q191. EIGRP uses a composite metric to calculate the best path to a destination. What is this metric
called?

• Cost metric
• Bandwidth-delay product
• EIGRP metric
• Successor metric

Correct Answer: C

Q192. What is the administrative distance of EIGRP?

• 90
• 100
• 110
• 120

Correct Answer: A

Q193. What is the primary reason for using EIGRP in a Cisco network environment?

• Compatibility with other vendors' routers

• Scalability
• Support for classless routing
• Support for open-standard routing protocols

Correct Answer: C

Q194. What does BGP stand for in the context of routing protocols?
 • Border Gateway Protocol
• Best Gateway Protocol
• Border Gateway Process
• Basic Gateway Protocol

Correct Answer: A

Q195. BGP is classified into two main categories based on its role in routing. What are these
categories?

• Internal BGP (iBGP) and External BGP (eBGP)

• Border BGP and Core BGP
• Simple BGP and Complex BGP
• Basic BGP and Advanced BGP

Correct Answer: A

Q196. What is the administrative distance of BGP?

• 90
• 100
• 110
• 120

Correct Answer: B

Q197. In the Transport Layer, what service ensures that data units are delivered error-free and in the
correct order?

• Segmentation and reassembly

• Error detection and correction
• Flow control
• Multiplexing

Correct Answer: C

Q198. What is the primary purpose of segmentation in the Transport Layer?

• Data encryption
• Breaking large messages into smaller segments
• Error detection and correction
• End-to-end communication

Correct Answer: B
Q199. What type of communication does the Transport Layer provide: connectionless or connection-
oriented?

• Connectionless
• Connection-oriented
• Both connectionless and connection-oriented
• Neither connectionless nor connection-oriented

Correct Answer: C

Q200. Which Transport Layer service allows the receiver to detect and correct errors in the data?

• Flow control
• Error detection and correction
• Multiplexing
• Segmentation and reassembly

Correct Answer: B

Q201. Which Transport Layer service provides a means of multiplexing, demultiplexing, and
identifying different data streams?

• Flow control
• Multiplexing
• Error detection and correction
• Segmentation and reassembly

Correct Answer: B

Q202. In a connectionless protocol like UDP, are acknowledgments sent to confirm successful data
transmission?

• Yes
• No
• It depends on the application
• Acknowledgments are optional

Correct Answer: B

Q203. Which type of protocol provides reliable, error-checked, and ordered data delivery:
connectionless or connection-oriented?

• Connectionless
• Connection-oriented
• Both connectionless and connection-oriented
• Neither connectionless nor connection-oriented
Correct Answer: B

Q204. Which type of protocol is more suitable for applications that require low-latency
communication?

• Connectionless
• Connection-oriented
• Both connectionless and connection-oriented
• Neither connectionless nor connection-oriented

Correct Answer: A

Q205. Which type of protocol is less complex in terms of overhead and resource usage:
connectionless or connection-oriented?

• Connectionless
• Connection-oriented
• Both connectionless and connection-oriented
• Neither connectionless nor connection-oriented

Correct Answer: A

Q206. In a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, how are data segments organized and identified for
proper sequencing at the receiver?

• Using sequence numbers

• Using port numbers and IP addresses
• Using timestamps and checksums
• Using packet identifiers

Correct Answer: A

Q207. Which Transport Layer protocol provides a connectionless, unreliable, and low-overhead data
transfer service?

• TCP
• SMTP
• UDP
• HTTP

Correct Answer: C

Q208. In the Transport Layer, which protocol is responsible for reliable, error-checked data delivery
with flow control?

• UDP
 • ICMP
• HTTP
• TCP

Correct Answer: D

Q209. What is the primary difference between TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User
Datagram Protocol)?

• TCP provides reliable, ordered data delivery, while UDP offers connectionless, unreliable
delivery.
• TCP is faster than UDP.
• UDP provides encryption, while TCP does not.
• TCP is used for video streaming, while UDP is used for web browsing.

Correct Answer: A

Q210. In a Transport Layer protocol like TCP, how is data sequencing achieved to ensure that packets
are delivered in the correct order?

• Using sequence numbers

• Using timestamps
• Using encryption keys
• Using checksums

Correct Answer: A

Q211. Which Transport Layer protocol is associated with the World Wide Web and is used for
fetching web pages and data?

• FTP
• SMTP
• HTTP
• SNMP

Correct Answer: C

Q212. What is the purpose of the TCP three-way handshake during the establishment of a
connection?

• To synchronize sequence numbers

• To encrypt the data
• To establish a secure tunnel
• To transmit data

Correct Answer: A
Q213. During the TCP three-way handshake, what happens after the client sends a SYN (Synchronize)
segment to the server?

• The server responds with a SYN-ACK segment

• The client sends data
• The server acknowledges the client's request
• The client acknowledges the server's response

Correct Answer: A

Q214. What is the primary advantage of TCP's reliable data delivery mechanism over UDP's
connectionless approach?

• Lower latency and reduced overhead

• Enhanced security
• Reliable and ordered data delivery
• Greater scalability and efficiency

Correct Answer: C

Q215. Which TCP flag is used to indicate the end of data transmission and to initiate connection
termination?

• ACK (Acknowledgment)
• SYN (Synchronize)
• RST (Reset)
• FIN (Finish)

Correct Answer: D

Q216. In TCP, what is the purpose of the ACK (Acknowledgment) flag?

• To acknowledge successful data receipt

• To request data retransmission
• To reset the connection
• To synchronize sequence numbers

Correct Answer: A

Q217. During the TCP three-way handshake, which side initiates the process by sending a SYN
(Synchronize) segment?

• The server
• The client
• Both the server and client
 • Neither the server nor client

Correct Answer: B

Q218. What is the purpose of the SYN-ACK (Synchronize-Acknowledgment) segment sent by the
receiving device in the TCP three-way handshake?

• To acknowledge the receipt of data and continue communication

• To reset the connection
• To initiate the connection termination
• To request data retransmission

Correct Answer: A

Q219. What is the final step in the TCP three-way handshake process after both sides have
exchanged SYN and ACK segments?

• Data transmission can begin

• The connection is terminated
• Data segmentation is performed
• An acknowledgment is sent

Correct Answer: A

Q220. In the UDP message format, what is the purpose of the source port number field?

• To identify the destination host

• To identify the source host
• To track the sequence number
• To specify the data length

Correct Answer: B

Q221. In TCP, what is the purpose of the Sequence Number field in the message header?

• To identify the destination port

• To track the number of packets received
• To keep track of the order of sent data
• To provide error detection

Correct Answer: C

Q222. In the TCP message format, what is the role of the Acknowledgment (ACK) flag?

• To acknowledge the receipt of data

• To reset the connection
 • To indicate the end of the message
• To request data retransmission

Correct Answer: A

Q223. Which field in the UDP message format is used to perform error checking on the message
header and data?

• Source port
• Destination port
• Checksum
• Length

Correct Answer: C

Q224. What is the primary goal of congestion control mechanisms in computer networks?

• To maximize network throughput

• To minimize packet loss and delays
• To increase the network's physical capacity
• To prioritize multimedia traffic

Correct Answer: B

Q225. Which QoS technique allows network administrators to assign higher or lower priorities to
different types of traffic?

• Traffic shaping
• Packet switching
• Quality of Service (QoS)
• Error correction

Correct Answer: C

Q226. What is the primary metric used to measure the quality of voice and video communication in
QoS evaluations?

• Packet loss rate

• Round-trip time (RTT)
• Jitter
• Mean Opinion Score (MOS)

Correct Answer: D

Q227. What is a common technique for mitigating network congestion by temporarily holding
packets before transmission?
 • Quality of Service (QoS)
• Traffic shaping
• Congestion control
• Jitter control

Correct Answer: B

Q228. Which DNS record type is used to associate an IP address with a domain name?

• MX (Mail Exchanger)
• PTR (Pointer)
• A (Address)
• CNAME (Canonical Name)

Correct Answer: C

Q229. What is the purpose of a DNS recursive query?

• To obtain a DNS cache entry

• To query the root DNS server
• To resolve the entire DNS hierarchy
• To secure email communications

Correct Answer: C

Q230. In DNS, what does an authoritative DNS server do?

• It provides DNS caching services

• It has the final say on the DNS resolution for a domain
• It encrypts DNS queries
• It manages email traffic

Correct Answer: B

Q231. What does the term "DNS propagation" refer to in DNS management?

• The process of encrypting DNS records

• The delay in DNS record updates propagating across the Internet
• The speed of DNS query resolution
• The process of securing email communication

Correct Answer: B

Q232. How does remote logging contribute to security incident detection and response?

• By encrypting log entries

 • By providing real-time access to log data
• By managing email communication
• By routing network traffic

Correct Answer: B

Q233. What are the basic components of an email message?

• Subject, recipient, and attachment

• Sender, message body, and attachment
• Encryption key, header, and footer
• DNS server, firewall, and router

Correct Answer: B

Q234. What is the significance of email encryption in ensuring message confidentiality?

• It compresses email attachments

• It protects email contents from unauthorized access
• It manages email routing
• It provides secure email storage

Correct Answer: B

Q235. What is the concept of email forwarding, and how is it used?

• It sends email to multiple recipients

• It redirects received emails to another address
• It encrypts email contents
• It optimizes email routing

Correct Answer: B

Q236. What is spam email, and how do email providers combat spam?

• Unwanted email messages

• Encrypted email messages
• Email encryption keys
• Email server logs

Correct Answer: A

Q237. What is FTP (File Transfer Protocol), and what is its primary purpose?

• A text encryption protocol

• A network protocol for transferring files
 • A method of email delivery
• A data compression technique

Correct Answer: B

Q238. What role do passive and active modes play in FTP connections?

• They manage FTP encryption keys

• They define how data connections are established
• They compress email headers
• They optimize email routing

Correct Answer: B

Q239. What is FTPS, and how does it enhance FTP security?

• It encrypts FTP traffic

• It optimizes email delivery
• It manages email logs
• It encrypts email headers

Correct Answer: A

Q240. What is the World Wide Web (WWW), and how does it function in modern communication?

• A system of encrypted emails

• A global network of interconnected web pages
• A method of email delivery
• A file storage protocol

Correct Answer: B

Q241. How are web addresses (URLs) structured, and what do they represent?

• They use IP addresses for encryption

• They indicate the email server's location
• They specify web page content
• They define FTP server addresses

Correct Answer: C

Q242. What is the significance of HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) in web communication?

• It encrypts email headers

• It facilitates the transfer of web page data
• It compresses email attachments
 • It manages email logs

Correct Answer: B

Q243. What is a URL (Uniform Resource Locator), and how does it relate to HTTP?

• It is an email attachment format

• It defines the structure of web pages
• It specifies web page addresses
• It encrypts email headers

Correct Answer: C

Q244. How does caching work in HTTP, and what benefits does it offer in web browsing?

• It optimizes email delivery

• It improves web page loading times
• It encrypts email contents
• It manages email attachments

Correct Answer: B

Q245. What is SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol), and what is its primary purpose?

• A protocol for secure email delivery

• A protocol for transferring files
• A protocol for web communication
• A method of email encryption

Correct Answer: A

Q246. What are SMTP servers (MTAs), and how do they handle email routing and delivery?

• They are web servers for email storage

• They manage email logs
• They relay email messages
• They compress email headers

Correct Answer: C

Q247. What are the SMTP port numbers (e.g., 25, 587), and how are they used in email
transmission?

• They are email attachment formats

• They are used to encrypt email data
• They indicate email destinations
 • They specify email server addresses

Correct Answer: C

Q248. How does SNMP enable the monitoring and management of network devices and resources?

• It encrypts email contents

• It uses email attachments to control devices
• It retrieves and configures data
• It optimizes email routing

Correct Answer: C

Q249. Explain the roles of SNMP traps and informs in network management and alerting.

• They are email headers for web pages

• Traps are unsolicited alerts, informs
• They are email headers for SNMP messages
• They encrypt email attachments

Correct Answer: B

Q250. How does SNMP version 3 enhance security and authentication in network management
compared to earlier versions?

• It encrypts SNMP messages

• It optimizes email delivery
• It uses email headers for authentication
• It compresses email headers

Correct Answer: A

Q251. How does SNMP contribute to proactive network management and troubleshooting?

• It uses email encryption methods

• It provides real-time monitoring and alerts
• It compresses email attachments
• It optimizes email routing

Correct Answer: B

Q252. What role do firewalls play in network security, and how do they filter network traffic?

• They ensure data confidentiality

• They optimize network performance
• They prevent unauthorized access
 • They track network logs for errors

Correct Answer: C

Q253. Explain the concept of incident response in network security and its importance in mitigating
security breaches.

• It enhances user authentication

• It minimizes network performance impact
• It detects and responds to incidents
• It optimizes network routing

Correct Answer: C

Q254. What is the primary goal of cryptography in network security?

• To minimize network performance impact

• To ensure data confidentiality
• To optimize network routing
• To restrict unauthorized access

Correct Answer: B

Q255. Explain the difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption, and when is each used
in network security?

• Symmetric encryption uses one key

• Asymmetric encryption uses one key pair
• Symmetric encryption uses two keys
• Asymmetric encryption uses two keys

Correct Answer: C

Q256. What is a cryptographic hash function, and how is it used in data integrity verification and
password storage?

• It ensures data confidentiality

• It improves network performance
• It verifies data integrity
• It restricts unauthorized access

Correct Answer: C

Q257. What are some common challenges in implementing cryptography in network security, and
how can they be mitigated?
 • Lack of encryption algorithms
• Key management issues
• Slow network performance
• Lack of user authentication

Correct Answer: B

Q258. Explain the concept of a digital signature algorithm and how it works.

• It encrypts the entire message

• It verifies the sender's identity
• It creates a unique hash of the message
• It improves network performance

Correct Answer: B

Q259. How does the recipient of a digitally signed message verify the signature's authenticity and
integrity?

• By comparing it to a public key

• By decrypting the message using a private key
• By hashing the message and comparing hashes
• By optimizing network routing

Correct Answer: B

Q260. What challenges can arise in implementing digital signatures, and how can they be mitigated
for secure data transmission?

• Lack of key management practices

• Slow network performance
• Insufficient user authentication
• Inadequate encryption algorithms

Correct Answer: A

Q261. What is the difference between TCP and UDP?

• They are two different versions of the same protocol.

• Both are connectionless protocols.
• TCP is connection-oriented and provides reliable data delivery, while UDP is
connectionless and offers lower overhea
• TCP and UDP are the same and can be used interchangeably.

Correct Answer: c
Q262. What is the primary purpose of the Stop and Wait protocol in data link layer communication?

• Minimize latency
• Maximize throughput
• Ensure error detection
• Achieve reliable data transfer

Correct Answer: D

Q263. What does the receiver do upon successfully receiving a data frame in the Stop and Wait
protocol?

• Sends a negative acknowledgment (NAK)

• Waits for the next data frame
• Sends an acknowledgment (ACK) to the sender
• Requests retransmission of the data frame

Correct Answer: C

Q264. In the Stop and Wait protocol, what happens if the sender does not receive an
acknowledgment (ACK) within a certain time frame?

• It continues sending data frames

• It sends a negative acknowledgment (NAK)
• It waits indefinitely for the ACK
• It retransmits the same data frame

Correct Answer: D

Q265. In the Stop and Wait protocol, what is the purpose of sequence numbers attached to data
frames?

• To identify the sender

• To ensure frame integrity
• To avoid duplicate frames
• To enable parallel transmission

Correct Answer: C

Q266. What is the Stop and Wait protocol's impact on the effective data transmission rate compared
to the overall channel capacity?

• It achieves 100% efficiency

• It achieves nearly 100% efficiency
• It achieves 50% efficiency
• It achieves less than 50% efficiency
Correct Answer: D

Q267. What is the main advantage of the Stop and Wait protocol in noiseless channels?

• Minimal latency
• High throughput
• Simple implementation
• Support for parallel transmission

Correct Answer: C

Q268. In a noisy channel, what is the primary challenge that data link layer protocols like ARQ aim to
address?

• Minimizing latency
• Ensuring error-free data transmission
• Maximizing throughput
• Reducing the number of frames transmitted

Correct Answer: B

Q269. What action does the sender take in the Stop and Wait protocol upon receiving a negative
acknowledgment (NAK) from the receiver?

• Resends the current frame

• Advances to the next frame
• Pauses transmission
• Requests retransmission of the frame

Correct Answer: A

Q270. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if the receiver detects an error in a frame, what action is taken regarding
subsequent frames in the window?

• All subsequent frames are discarded

• Only the erroneous frame is discarded
• All frames from the current frame onward are discarded
• The receiver continues accepting frames in the window

Correct Answer: A

Q271. What happens if a frame is lost or corrupted in the Go-Back-N protocol, and the receiver
acknowledges subsequent frames?

• The sender resends only the lost or corrupted frame

• All frames following the lost or corrupted frame are discarded
 • The sender waits for a timeout and retransmits the entire window
• The receiver retransmits the acknowledgment

Correct Answer: A

Q272. What characteristic of Selective Repeat ARQ allows it to recover from errors in any frame
within the window without affecting the rest?

• Independent acknowledgment for each frame

• Sliding window approach
• Simplicity
• Reduced acknowledgment overhead

Correct Answer: A

Q273. What is the primary function of the Network Layer in the OSI model?

• Ensuring error-free data transmission

• Packet forwarding and routing
• Data link establishment and management
• Session establishment and termination

Correct Answer: B

Q274. What is the purpose of an IP address in computer networking?

• Identifying the location of a device

• Encrypting data for secure transmission
• Controlling access to the internet
• Determining the speed of data transmission

Correct Answer: A

Q275. What does the subnet mask in an IPv4 address indicate?

• The host portion of the IP address

• The network portion of the IP address
• The number of available IP addresses
• The broadcast address of the network

Correct Answer: B

Q276. What is the purpose of Network Address Translation (NAT) in IPv4?

• Encrypting data for secure transmission

• Converting private IP addresses to public addresses
 • Determining the speed of data transmission
• Resolving domain names to IP addresses

Correct Answer: B

Q277. What is the function of the default gateway in a network configuration?

• Assigning IP addresses to devices

• Providing access to external networks
• Filtering incoming network traffic
• Managing DNS resolution requests

Correct Answer: B

Q278. In IPv4 addressing, what is the purpose of the subnetting process?

• Increasing the number of available IP addresses

• Improving network security by hiding IP addresses
• Grouping IP addresses by geographic location
• Enhancing the speed of data transmission

Correct Answer: A

Q279. Which field in the IPv4 header is used to indicate the time-to-live (TTL) of a packet?

• Protocol
• Destination IP Address
• Source IP Address
• Time-to-Live (TTL)

Correct Answer: D

Q280. In Distance Vector Routing (DVR), what is the primary drawback known as the "count-to-
infinity" problem?

• Slow convergence
• Routing loops
• Limited scalability
• Inefficient bandwidth utilization

Correct Answer: B

Q281. Which routing algorithm employs a "link state advertisement" (LSA) flooding mechanism to
share routing information with all routers in a network?

• Distance Vector Routing (DVR)

 • Link State Routing (LSR)
• Static Routing
• Default Routing (DR)

Correct Answer: B

Q282. In Link State Routing (LSR), what information is included in the link state advertisement (LSA)
packets?

• Routing tables and hop counts of neighboring routers

• Network topology and link status
• Encryption keys and access permissions
• IP addresses of all devices in the network

Correct Answer: B

Q283. In the context of routing algorithms, what is the purpose of a routing table?

• To store information about the network topology

• To list all available IP addresses
• To determine the physical distance between routers
• To provide encryption for data in transit

Correct Answer: A

Q284. Which routing algorithm is commonly used in interior routing within autonomous systems and
relies on routers broadcasting routing tables to neighbors?

• Distance Vector Routing (DVR)

• Link State Routing (LSR)
• Static Routing
• Default Routing (DR)

Correct Answer: A

Q285. What is the main function of IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) in network
communications?

• Managing router access control lists (ACLs)

• Allowing devices to join or leave multicast groups
• Providing secure remote access
• Assigning unique IP addresses to devices within a network

Correct Answer: B
Q286. Which of the following is a key advantage of IPv6 over IPv4?

• Longer addresses with fewer address bits

• More efficient header format
• Less security and encryption options
• Incompatibility with older networking equipment

Correct Answer: B

Q287. How does IPv6 address the limitation of IPv4's address exhaustion issue?

• By increasing the length of IP addresses

• By reducing the number of devices per network
• By using NAT (Network Address Translation)
• By implementing IP address sharing between devices

Correct Answer: A

Q288. Which transition mechanism facilitates the coexistence of IPv4 and IPv6 in a network by
encapsulating IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets?

• Dual-stack
• Tunneling
• IPv6 over IPv4 (6over4)
• Network Address Translation (NAT)

Correct Answer: B

Q289. Which of the following IPv6 address formats represents a loopback address used for testing on
the local device?

• 2001:db8::/32
• ::1/128
• ff00::/8
• fe80::/10

Correct Answer: B

Q290. How many bits are reserved for the network portion in a Class A IP address?

• 8 bits
• 16 bits
• 24 bits
• 32 bits

Correct Answer: A
Q291. What does subnetting allow network administrators to do?

• Assign multiple IP addresses to a single host

• Create smaller, more manageable networks
• Increase the size of the IP address pool
• Eliminate the need for routers in the network

Correct Answer: B

Q292. In a subnetted network, what is the role of a broadcast address?

• To identify the default gateway for the network

• To represent all hosts within a subnet
• To forward data between subnets
• To encrypt data during transmission

Correct Answer: B

Q293. What is the CIDR notation for a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240?

• /24
• /26
• /28
• /30

Correct Answer: C

Q294. Which routing algorithm is commonly used for finding the shortest path in a network?

• OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)

• RIP (Routing Information Protocol)
• BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)
• EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol)

Correct Answer: A

Q295. What is the primary advantage of dynamic routing algorithms over static routing?

• Reduced administrative overhead

• Simplicity and ease of configuration
• High security due to manual updates
• Lower network scalability

Correct Answer: A
Q296. Which routing algorithm calculates the shortest path based on the cumulative link costs?

• OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)

• RIP (Routing Information Protocol)
• BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)
• EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol)

Correct Answer: A

Q297. Which dynamic routing protocol uses a distance-vector algorithm and broadcasts routing
updates?

• OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)

• RIP (Routing Information Protocol)
• BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)
• EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol)

Correct Answer: B

Q298. What is the primary disadvantage of static routing in a large and complex network?

• High computational overhead

• Difficulty in initial configuration
• Inability to adapt to network changes
• High resource utilization

Correct Answer: C

Q299. Which version of RIP sends routing updates using broadcast messages?

• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• Both RIP v1 and v2
• Neither RIP v1 nor v2

Correct Answer: A

Q300. In RIP v2, what is the primary enhancement over RIP v1?

• Support for classless routing

• Faster convergence
• Compatibility with IPv6
• Increased hop count limit

Correct Answer: A
Q301. What action does a RIP router take if it receives a route update with a higher metric than its
own?

• It discards the route update

• It updates its routing table
• It compares the source IP address
• It sends an acknowledgment back to the sender

Correct Answer: B

Q302. What is the administrative distance of RIP?

• 90
• 100
• 110
• 120

Correct Answer: C

Q303. In OSPF, what is an Autonomous System (AS)?

• A group of routers using OSPF

• A collection of routers
• A network with a single administrator
• A type of routing algorithm

Correct Answer: C

Q304. Which OSPF area type connects to the backbone area (Area 0)?

• Stub area
• Backbone area
• Transit area
• Virtual link area

Correct Answer: C

Q305. Which OSPF area is typically used to connect multiple OSPF areas together?

• Backbone area
• Transit area
• Stub area
• Virtual link area

Correct Answer: A
Q306. OSPF uses a cost metric to determine the best path to a destination. What does this metric
represent?

• Bandwidth
• Delay
• Hop count
• Reliability

Correct Answer: A

Q307. What is OSPF's default administrative distance?

• 90
• 100
• 110
• 120

Correct Answer: A

Q308. EIGRP is a Cisco-proprietary routing protocol. What feature of EIGRP allows it to converge
quickly after topology changes?

• DUAL (Diffusing Update Algorithm)

• Hello protocol
• Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
• Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

Correct Answer: A

Q309. What is the primary advantage of EIGRP over distance-vector routing protocols like RIP?

• Fast convergence
• Simplicity
• Compatibility with other routing protocols
• Support for large-scale networks

Correct Answer: A

Q310. In EIGRP, what type of packets are used to establish and maintain neighbor adjacencies?

• Update packets
• Hello packets
• Query packets
• Acknowledgment packets

Correct Answer: B
Q311. EIGRP supports both IPv4 and IPv6. Which protocol does EIGRP use for IPv4 routing?

• EIGRPv4
• EIGRP-NG (Next Generation)
• EIGRPv6
• EIGRP-IPv4

Correct Answer: A

Q312. What is the maximum hop count allowed in EIGRP for a valid route?

• 10 hops
• 15 hops
• 16 hops
• 100 hops

Correct Answer: B

Q313. In BGP, what is the primary function of the Autonomous System (AS) number?

• To identify the router's manufacturer

• To specify the router's location
• To uniquely identify the router in the AS
• To determine the router's cost to reach a destination

Correct Answer: C

Q314. What is the primary difference between iBGP and eBGP in BGP routing?

• iBGP is used within an AS, and eBGP is used between different ASes
• iBGP uses a simpler metric than eBGP
• eBGP is used for internal routing, while iBGP is used for external routing
• iBGP uses a different protocol stack than eBGP

Correct Answer: A

Q315. What is the purpose of the BGP "path attribute"?

• To specify the AS path that a route has traversed

• To indicate the route's cost
• To determine the route's administrative distance
• To encrypt BGP routing updates

Correct Answer: A
Q316. In BGP, what is a prefix or network prefix?

• The identifier of a BGP session

• A unique identifier for a router
• A summary of IP addresses within an AS
• A route to a destination network

Correct Answer: D

Q317. BGP is commonly used at the edge of the Internet to exchange routing information between
ISPs. What is this type of BGP deployment called?

• Core BGP
• Border BGP
• Edge BGP
• Intermediate BGP

Correct Answer: B

Q318. Which BGP message type is used to establish and maintain BGP neighbor relationships?

• OPEN message
• UPDATE message
• KEEPALIVE message
• NOTIFICATION message

Correct Answer: A

Q319. What is the primary benefit of BGP's path vector routing algorithm over distance-vector or
link-state algorithms?

• Loop prevention
• Faster convergence
• Support for classless routing
• Simplicity

Correct Answer: A

Q320. Which Transport Layer service allows multiple applications on the same device to share the
network connection simultaneously?

• Segmentation
• Error correction
• Multiplexing
• Flow control

Correct Answer: C
Q321. Which Transport Layer service is responsible for controlling the rate of data exchange between
sender and receiver to prevent congestion?

• Segmentation
• Multiplexing
• Flow control
• Error correction

Correct Answer: C

Q322. In the context of Transport Layer services, what is flow control?

• Controlling data flow between devices

• Ensuring error-free data transfer
• Multiplexing data streams
• Encrypting data for security

Correct Answer: A

Q323. When using the Transport Layer, what is the purpose of error detection and correction?

• Ensuring timely delivery of data

• Providing end-to-end encryption
• Detecting and correcting errors
• Managing network resources

Correct Answer: C

Q324. In a TCP connection, what role does the ACK (Acknowledgment) flag play during normal data
transmission?

• It acknowledges successful data receipt

• It resets the connection
• It synchronizes sequence numbers
• It requests data retransmission

Correct Answer: A

Q325. During the TCP three-way handshake, if the SYN-ACK segment sent by the server is lost or not
received by the client, what happens?

• The client retransmits the SYN segment

• The server sends a RST segment
• The server initiates the connection termination
• The connection remains in an undefined state
Correct Answer: A

Q326. What is the purpose of Quality of Service (QoS) mechanisms in network communication?

• To ensure all traffic is treated equally

• To prioritize traffic based on its importance
• To reduce network latency and jitter
• To increase the network's physical capacity

Correct Answer: B

Q327. What is the purpose of admission control in Quality of Service (QoS) management?

• To admit all incoming traffic

• To prioritize high-bandwidth applications
• To block all incoming traffic
• To ensure network resources are not overcommitted

Correct Answer: D

Q328. How does DNS contribute to load balancing for websites with multiple servers?

• By encrypting user data

• By redirecting DNS queries to the closest server
• By assigning the same IP to all servers
• By managing email routing

Correct Answer: B

Q329. What is the role of DNSSEC (DNS Security Extensions) in DNS?

• To encrypt DNS traffic

• To authenticate and secure DNS data
• To control DNS cache size
• To optimize email delivery

Correct Answer: B

Q330. What is remote logging, and why is it important in network management?

• It's a type of encryption

• It allows monitoring of network events from a remote location
• It is a file storage protocol
• It manages email logs

Correct Answer: B
Q331. What are some common challenges associated with remote logging in distributed
environments?

• Inadequate encryption of logs

• Difficulty in accessing logs remotely
• Inefficient handling of email logs
• Limited log storage capacity

Correct Answer: B

Q332. What is log rotation in the context of remote logging, and why is it important?

• A technique for encrypting logs

• A process of periodically archiving and replacing log files
• A method for prioritizing email logs
• A mechanism for load balancing

Correct Answer: B

Q333. What is the syslog protocol, and how is it used for remote logging?

• A file storage protocol

• A network protocol for sending log messages
• An encryption method for logs
• A tool for managing email logs

Correct Answer: B

Q334. How does remote logging facilitate troubleshooting network issues?

• By providing encryption keys

• By storing detailed logs of network events
• By optimizing email routing
• By securing log files

Correct Answer: B

Q335. What is the significance of log correlation in remote logging analysis?

• It ensures email privacy

• It links related log entries to reveal a complete event
• It improves network performance
• It encrypts log data

Correct Answer: B
Q336. How can remote logging be used to monitor user activity and access control?

• By monitoring email attachments

• By tracking logins and access patterns
• By encrypting log data
• By routing network traffic

Correct Answer: B

Q337. Describe the role of log compression in optimizing remote log storage.

• It manages network bandwidth

• It reduces the size of log files for efficient storage
• It encrypts log entries
• It enhances email delivery

Correct Answer: B

Q338. What is electronic mail (email), and how does it function in modern communication?

• A method of network encryption

• A system for sending text messages electronically
• A file storage protocol
• A communication method using digital envelopes

Correct Answer: B

Q339. How does passive FTP differ from active FTP in terms of data transfer?

• Passive FTP uses email for transfers

• Active FTP requires manual intervention
• Passive FTP is slower
• Active FTP requires encryption

Correct Answer: C

Q340. Explain the concept of FTP authentication.

• It encrypts file transfers

• It verifies the identity of users
• It compresses email attachments
• It optimizes email routing

Correct Answer: B
Q341. What is anonymous FTP, and why is it used?

• An encryption method for FTP

• A type of FTP server for secure transfers
• FTP access without user authentication
• A method of email forwarding

Correct Answer: C

Q342. How do FTP clients and FTP servers interact in a typical FTP session?

• Clients send email attachments

• Clients initiate file transfers to servers
• Servers send email logs
• Servers access user email folders

Correct Answer: B

Q343. Who is credited with inventing the World Wide Web, and when was it first introduced?

• Bill Gates in 1995

• Tim Berners-Lee in 1989
• Ray Tomlinson in the 1970s
• Mark Zuckerberg in 2004

Correct Answer: B

Q344. What are web browsers, and how do they work?

• Software for encrypting emails

• Applications for accessing and displaying web pages
• Servers for email routing
• Devices for FTP file transfers

Correct Answer: B

Q345. Explain the difference between a website and a web page.

• A website is a single web address

• A website is a collection of web pages
• A web page is an encrypted file
• A web page is a DNS server

Correct Answer: B

Q346. What is the role of CSS (Cascading Style Sheets) in web design?
 • To secure email attachments
• To define the layout and appearance of web pages
• To optimize email delivery
• To encrypt email data

Correct Answer: B

Q347. How does JavaScript enhance web interactivity and functionality?

• It manages email routing

• It provides secure email access
• It allows dynamic web content
• It compresses email headers

Correct Answer: C

Q348. What role does HTTP play in web browsing and accessing web pages?

• It encrypts email contents

• It manages email logs
• It facilitates web page retrieval
• It optimizes email routing

Correct Answer: C

Q349. How does HTTP handle hyperlinks and navigation between web pages?

• It encrypts email headers

• It uses email attachments to navigate
• It uses hyperlinks and URLs
• It encrypts email data

Correct Answer: C

Q350. Explain the concept of HTTP methods (GET, POST, PUT, DELETE, et) and their purposes.

• They are encryption algorithms for emails

• They define actions to perform on resources
• They manage email routing
• They compress email attachments

Correct Answer: B

Q351. What is the significance of HTTP status codes (e.g., 200, 404, 500) in web communication?

• They manage email attachments

 • They facilitate email encryption
• They indicate the outcome of requests
• They optimize email delivery

Correct Answer: C

Q352. How does HTTPS (HTTP Secure) enhance web security compared to HTTP?

• It encrypts web page contents

• It optimizes email routing
• It manages email logs
• It uses email headers for navigation

Correct Answer: A

Q353. What is SMTP authentication, and why is it important for email security?

• It encrypts email contents

• It verifies the identity of email clients
• It manages email headers
• It compresses email attachments

Correct Answer: B

Q354. What is the purpose of SMTP relaying, and how does it work in email routing?

• It optimizes email delivery

• It forwards email messages
• It compresses email attachments
• It manages email logs

Correct Answer: B

Q355. How does SMTP handle email attachments, and what formats are commonly used for email
attachments?

• It optimizes email routing

• It encrypts email data
• It uses various formats for attachments
• It manages email logs

Correct Answer: C

Q356. What are some common security challenges and solutions in SMTP email communication?

• Lack of email encryption

 • Spam filtering and email authentication
• Excessive email attachment sizes
• Slow email delivery due to encryption

Correct Answer: B

Q357. What is SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), and what is its primary purpose?

• A protocol for secure email delivery

• A protocol for managing network devices
• A protocol for web communication
• A method of email encryption

Correct Answer: B

Q358. What are some common use cases for SNMP in network management, and how does it
benefit IT professionals?

• Lack of email encryption

• Network monitoring, device configuration
• Excessive email attachment sizes
• Slow email delivery due to encryption

Correct Answer: B

Q359. What are the primary goals of network security services?

• Ensuring data confidentiality

• Minimizing network performance impact
• Reducing device costs
• Enhancing user authentication

Correct Answer: A

Q360. Which network security service is responsible for verifying the identity of users and devices?

• Data integrity
• Authentication
• Data encryption
• Intrusion detection systems (IDS)

Correct Answer: B

Q361. How does access control contribute to network security, and what types of access control are
commonly used?
 • It optimizes network routing
• It restricts unauthorized access
• It encrypts network traffic
• It compresses network logs

Correct Answer: B

Q362. What is the role of intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDS/IPS) in network security?

• They ensure data confidentiality

• They verify user identities
• They detect and respond to threats
• They optimize network performance

Correct Answer: C

Q363. How does network monitoring enhance security services, and what are some common tools
used for monitoring?

• It improves user authentication

• It detects security incidents
• It encrypts network logs
• It minimizes network performance impact

Correct Answer: B

Q364. What is the significance of security policy enforcement in network security, and how is it
implemented?

• It optimizes network routing

• It verifies user identities
• It restricts unauthorized access
• It ensures compliance with security policies

Correct Answer: D

Q365. How do cryptographic keys enhance the security of encrypted data, and what key
management practices are important?

• Keys improve user authentication

• Keys are used to encrypt network traffic
• Keys verify the sender's identity
• Keys are stored securely

Correct Answer: B
Q366. What is the concept of a digital certificate, and how does it relate to public key infrastructure
(PKI) in network security?

• Certificates improve user authentication

• Certificates encrypt network traffic
• Certificates verify data integrity
• Certificates optimize network routing

Correct Answer: A

Q367. What is the purpose of secure sockets layer (SSL) and transport layer security (TLS) protocols
in network encryption?

• They ensure data confidentiality

• They restrict unauthorized access
• They optimize network performance
• They verify user identities

Correct Answer: A

Q368. What is the significance of a digital certificate in the context of digital signatures?

• It encrypts network traffic

• It verifies the sender's identity
• It optimizes network performance
• It restricts unauthorized access

Correct Answer: B

Q369. What is the difference between a digital signature and a digital certificate in network security?

• Digital signatures verify sender authenticity

• Digital certificates verify data integrity
• Digital signatures use symmetric keys
• Digital certificates encrypt network traffic

Correct Answer: A

Q370. How does a timestamp enhance the security of a digital signature?

• It improves user authentication

• It restricts unauthorized access
• It verifies the message's creation time
• It optimizes network routing

Correct Answer: C
Q371. What is the purpose of the Certificate Authority (CA) in digital signature validation, and how
does it work?

• To encrypt the message

• To verify user identities
• To issue and manage digital certificates
• To optimize network performance

Correct Answer: C

Q372. In the TCP header, what field is used to specify the maximum segment size that a sender can
handle?

• Acknowledgment Number
• Sequence Number
• Window Size
• Maximum Segment Size (MSS)

Correct Answer: D

Q373. Which field in the UDP header is optional and used for error checking when set to a non-zero
value?

• Source Port
• Checksum
• Destination Port
• Length

Correct Answer: B

Q374. What is the purpose of the Urgent Pointer field in the TCP header?

• It specifies the source port number.

• It indicates the length of the header and dat
• It points to the urgent data in the TCP segment.
• It identifies the destination IP address.

Correct Answer: C

Q375. Which field in the TCP header is used to acknowledge the receipt of data and indicate the next
expected sequence number?

• Sequence Number
• Acknowledgment Number
• Window Size
 • Urgent Pointer

Correct Answer: B

Q376. In the UDP header, what is the purpose of the Length field?

• It stores the source port number.

• It specifies the acknowledgment number.
• It indicates the length of the UDP header and dat
• It identifies the destination IP address.

Correct Answer: C

Q377. What is the primary goal of congestion control in network communication?

• To maximize network throughput at all times.

• To minimize latency for all network traffi
• To maintain network stability and prevent congestion.
• To prioritize certain types of traffic over others.

Correct Answer: C

Q378. Which QoS technique allows network administrators to assign different priority levels to
different types of network traffic?

• Traffic Shaping
• Traffic Policing
• Traffic Classification
• Traffic Engineering

Correct Answer: C

Q379. Which congestion control mechanism in TCP reduces the sender's transmission rate when
congestion is detected?

• Slow Start
• Congestion Avoidance
• Fast Retransmit
• Selective Acknowledgment

Correct Answer: B

Q380. What is the primary purpose of Quality of Service (QoS) in networking?

• To provide network security and encryption.

• To minimize network latency and jitter.
 • To manage and prioritize network traffi
• To determine the physical layout of network components.

Correct Answer: C

Q381. Which QoS parameter measures the variation in packet arrival times in a network?

• Latency
• Throughput
• Jitter
• Bandwidth

Correct Answer: C

Q382. Which Application Layer protocol is primarily responsible for translating human-readable
domain names into IP addresses?

• HTTP
• DNS
• SMTP
• POP3

Correct Answer: B

Q383. What is the primary purpose of the FTP (File Transfer Protocol) in the Application Layer?

• Transferring files between client and server

• Resolving domain names to IP addresses
• Sending and receiving email messages
• Remote login and command execution

Correct Answer: A

Q384. Which protocol is used for retrieving email messages from a mail server to a client device,
allowing users to read their emails?

• SMTP
• HTTP
• POP3
• DNS

Correct Answer: C

Q385. Which Application Layer protocol is responsible for the delivery of web pages from web
servers to web browsers?
 • SMTP
• FTP
• HTTP
• Telnet

Correct Answer: C

Q386. What is the primary purpose of the IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) in the
Application Layer?

• To transfer files between clients and servers

• To retrieve email messages from a server while keeping them on the server
• To resolve domain names to IP addresses
• To secure web communication

Correct Answer: B

Q387. Which Application Layer protocol is commonly used for remote login and terminal emulation
on remote systems?

• SMTP
• Telnet
• FTP
• POP3

Correct Answer: B

Q388. What does the SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) in the Application Layer
primarily enable?

• File transfers between devices on a network

• Secure web communication
• Management and monitoring of network devices
• Real-time communication, including voice and video calls

Correct Answer: C

Q389. Which Application Layer protocol is used for the exchange of email messages between mail
servers?

• SMTP
• HTTP
• SIP
• SNMP

Correct Answer: A
Q390. What is the primary function of the SSH (Secure Shell) protocol in the Application Layer?

• File transfer between client and server

• Email communication
• Secure remote login and command execution
• Resolving domain names to IP addresses

Correct Answer: C

Q391. Which Application Layer protocol is used for the retrieval and management of directory
information in a network?

• LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

• HTTP
• SIP
• SNMP

Correct Answer: A

Q392. Which security service ensures that data is not altered during transmission and can be relied
upon as genuine?

• Authentication
• Integrity
• Confidentiality
• Availability

Correct Answer: B

Q393. Which cryptographic key is used for encrypting data in symmetric-key cryptography?

• Public Key
• Private Key
• Session Key
• Digital Signature

Correct Answer: C

Q394. Which cryptographic technique involves the use of a pair of keys, one for encryption and one
for decryption, and is commonly used in asymmetric encryption?

• Hashing
• Digital Signatures
• Public Key Cryptography
• Symmetric Key Cryptography
Correct Answer: C

Q395. What security service ensures that only authorized users or systems have access to data and
network resources?

• Confidentiality
• Data Integrity
• Authentication
• Non-repudiation

Correct Answer: C

Q396. What is the maximum number of bytes in the TCP header

• 16 bytes
• 20 bytes
• 24 bytes
• 28 bytes

Correct Answer: B

Q397. Which field in the TCP header is used for flow control and specifies the number of bytes the
sender can transmit before receiving an acknowledgment?

• Acknowledgment Number
• Sequence Number
• Window Size
• Urgent Pointer

Correct Answer: C

Q398. In the UDP header, what is the purpose of the Checksum field?

• It stores the source port number.

• It provides error-checking for the entire UDP datagram.
• It indicates the length of the UDP header and dat
• It identifies the destination IP address.

Correct Answer: B

Q399. Which field in the TCP header is used to ensure the integrity of the header and data?

• Source Port
• Checksum
• Acknowledgment Number
 • Urgent Pointer

Correct Answer: B

Q400. What is the purpose of the Sequence Number field in the TCP header?

• It identifies the source port.

• It specifies the acknowledgment number.
• It provides error-checking for the header and dat
• It helps in reordering and reassembling segments at the receiver.

Correct Answer: D

Q401. What is the primary goal of congestion control in computer networking?

• To maximize network throughput at all times.

• To minimize the delay and latency in the network.
• To prevent network congestion and maintain network stability.
• To prioritize certain types of traffic over others.

Correct Answer: C

Q402. Which congestion control algorithm is commonly used in TCP to detect and respond to
network congestion?

• Leaky Bucket
• Token Bucket
• Slow Start
• Quality of Service (QoS)

Correct Answer: C

Q403. What is Quality of Service (QoS) in networking?

• A protocol used for routing data packets.

• A technique for compressing data to reduce congestion.
• A set of techniques and mechanisms to manage and prioritize network traffi
• A method for error checking and correction in data transmission.

Correct Answer: C

Q404. In QoS, what does the term "Traffic Shaping" refer to?

• The process of detecting and reacting to network congestion.

• The process of allocating bandwidth to different types of traffi
• The process of controlling the flow of traffic to conform to a specified profile.
 • The process of encrypting network traffic for security.

Correct Answer: C

Q405. Which of the following is NOT a commonly used QoS parameter for traffic classification and
prioritization?

• Delay
• Packet Size
• Throughput
• Jitter

Correct Answer: B

Q406. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for providing network services directly to end-
users or applications?

• Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer
• Transport Layer
• Application LAyer

Correct Answer: D

Q407. What is the primary function of the Application Layer in the OSI model?

• Data encapsulation and framing

• Error detection and correction
• User interface and data access
• Routing and path determination

Correct Answer: C

Q408. Which protocol is commonly used for sending and receiving email messages over the
Internet?

• SMTP
• HTTP
• FTP
• DNS

Correct Answer: A

Q409. What is the primary purpose of the HTTP protocol?

• File transfer
 • Email communication
• Web page retrieval
• Remote login

Correct Answer: C

Q410. Which protocol is used for secure data transmission over the web, ensuring confidentiality and
data integrity?

• HTTP
• FTP
• SMTP
• HTTPS

Correct Answer: D

Q411. Which Application Layer protocol is used for transferring files between a client and a server
over a network?

• SMTP
• Telnet
• FTP
• POP3

Correct Answer: C

Q412. Which Application Layer protocol is commonly used for remote login and command execution
on remote servers?

• HTTP
• Telnet
• SMTP
• FTP

Correct Answer: B

Q413. What is the primary purpose of the DNS (Domain Name System) protocol in the Application
Layer?

• Transferring files between clients and servers

• Resolving human-readable domain names to IP addresses
• Sending and receiving email messages
• Secure web communication

Correct Answer: B
Q414. Which Application Layer protocol is responsible for the retrieval of email messages from a mail
server to a client device?

• FTP
• HTTP
• POP3
• IMAP

Correct Answer: C

Q415. Which Application Layer protocol is used for real-time communication, including voice and
video calls, over the Internet?

• SMTP
• HTTP
• SIP
• SNMP

Correct Answer: C

Q416. Which network security service ensures that data is not disclosed to unauthorized users?

• Authentication
• Integrity
• Confidentiality
• Availability

Correct Answer: C

Q417. What is the primary purpose of cryptography in network security?

• To prevent unauthorized access to a network

• To protect data from being altered during transmission
• To authenticate users and devices
• To detect and respond to network intrusions

Correct Answer: B

Q418. Which cryptographic key is used for both encryption and decryption in symmetric-key
cryptography?

• Public Key
• Private Key
• Session Key
• Digital Signature

Correct Answer: C
Q419. What is a digital signature primarily used for in network security?

• Encrypting data for secure transmission

• Verifying the identity of the sender and ensuring data integrity
• Protecting data from unauthorized access
• Scanning for malware and viruses

Correct Answer: B

Q420. Which cryptographic technique involves the use of two keys, one for encryption and one for
decryption, and is commonly used in asymmetric encryption?

• Hashing
• Digital Signatures
• Public Key Cryptography
• Symmetric Key Cryptography

Correct Answer: C

Q421. Which field in the IP header is used for ensuring the integrity of the packet during
transmission?

• DES (Data Encryption Standard)

• AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
• RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman)
• MD5 (Message Digest 5)

Correct Answer: C

Q422. In DNS, what is the purpose of a CNAME (Canonical Name) record?

• To map an alias or nickname to a canonical (true) domain name

• To specify the mail server responsible for receiving email messages
• To indicate the authoritative DNS server for a domain
• To define the start of a zone of authority in the DNS hierarchy

Correct Answer: A

Q423. In email terminology, what is a "mail relay" or "SMTP relay"?

• A system that automatically sends email responses

• An email client application
• A mail server that forwards email messages to their destinations
• A type of email attachment
Correct Answer: C

Q424. In HTTP, what is the purpose of the "Referer" header field in an HTTP request?

• To specify the URL of the current web page

• To indicate the encoding used for the request body
• To identify the previous web page from which the request was initiated
• To define the content type of the response

Correct Answer: C

Q425. In SMTP, what role does the "MX record" play in the email delivery process?

• It specifies the sender's email address

• It defines the email server's IP address
• It identifies the recipient's mail server for a given domain
• It indicates the type of encryption used for email transmission

Correct Answer: C

Q426. In SNMP, what does the term "OID" (Object Identifier) refer to?

• A network device's IP address

• A unique identifier for a managed object in the MIB
• The SNMP version number used for communication
• A specific SNMP security credential

Correct Answer: B

Q427. In the context of network security, what does the term "access control" refer to?

• Controlling the physical access to network devices

• Controlling user privileges and permissions to network resources
• Monitoring network traffic for suspicious activities
• Encrypting sensitive data during transmission

Correct Answer: B

Q428. In the context of network security, what is the primary purpose of an Intrusion Prevention
System (IPS)?

• To monitor network traffic for security incidents

• To identify and respond to security incidents
• To prevent security incidents from occurring
• To encrypt data for secure transmission
Correct Answer: C

Q429. What does Quality of Service (QoS) in computer networks refer to?

• The speed of data transmission in a network

• The reliability of network connections
• The ability to prioritize and control network traffic to meet specific service requirements
• The physical security of network infrastructure

Correct Answer: C

Q430. What does the term "digital signature" refer to in cryptography?

• A code that hides the original message

• A method for encrypting data
• A unique identifier for a network device
• A cryptographic technique to verify the authenticity and integrity of a message

Correct Answer: D

Q431. What is the primary benefit of centralizing log management through remote logging?

• It reduces the need for network security measures.

• It simplifies log analysis and troubleshooting.
• It eliminates the need for network monitoring.
• It increases network performance.

Correct Answer: B

Q432. What is the primary purpose of an email "alias" or "nickname"?

• To specify the email recipient's location on the internet

• To provide an alternative email address for the same recipient
• To categorize emails into folders
• To indicate the importance level of an email

Correct Answer: B

Q433. What is the primary purpose of HTTP in computer networks?

• To transfer files between a client and a server

• To exchange emails and messages
• To browse websites and retrieve web pages
• To manage network security

Correct Answer: C
Q434. What is the primary purpose of S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) in
email communication?

• To filter spam emails

• To provide end-to-end encryption and digital signatures for email messages
• To compress email attachments
• To improve email server performance

Correct Answer: B

Q435. What is the primary role of SMTP in computer networks?

• To transfer files between client and server

• To manage network security
• To exchange email messages between clients and servers
• To browse websites and retrieve web pages

Correct Answer: C

Q436. What is the purpose of a web browser's "cookie" in the context of the World Wide Web?

• To store passwords for websites

• To encrypt web traffic
• To remember user preferences and track user sessions
• To block unwanted advertisements

Correct Answer: C

Q437. What is the purpose of the "Cache-Control" header field in HTTP responses?

• To specify the maximum file size for caching

• To indicate whether the response can be cached and for how long
• To request the server to send a compressed response
• To define the character encoding for the response content

Correct Answer: B

Q438. Faster data transmission

• To specify the character encoding of the response content

• To indicate whether the response is compressed
• To define the maximum file size for caching
• To identify the type of content being sent

Correct Answer: D
Q439. What is the purpose of the HTML (Hypertext Markup Language) in the World Wide Web?

• To encrypt web pages for security

• To define the structure and content of web pages
• To manage domain name registrations
• To establish secure connections between web servers

Correct Answer: B

Q440. What is the role of a firewall in network security?

• To encrypt data for secure transmission

• To prevent unauthorized access to a network by filtering incoming and outgoing traffic
• To detect and respond to security incidents
• To provide real-time monitoring of network traffic

Correct Answer: B

Q441. Which cryptographic protocol is commonly used for securing web traffic by encrypting data
between a web browser and a web server?

• SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)

• SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security)
• SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
• HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)

Correct Answer: B

Q442. Which email authentication mechanism helps prevent email spoofing and phishing by
verifying the sender's domain in the email headers?

• SMTPS (SMTP Secure)

• SPF (Sender Policy Framework)
• POP3S (POP3 Secure)
• DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance)

Correct Answer: B

Q443. Which protocol is commonly used for remote logging in Unix and Linux systems?

• RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)

• SSH (Secure Shell)
• SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
• Syslog
Correct Answer: D

Q444. Which QoS approach involves reserving network resources in advance to guarantee a certain
level of service for specific traffic flows?

• Integrated Services (IntServ)

• Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
• Best-Effort Service
• Flow-Based QoS

Correct Answer: A

Q445. Which type of attack in cryptography involves attempting every possible key until the correct
one is found?

• Brute-force attack
• Man-in-the-middle attack
• Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
• Phishing attack

Correct Answer: A

Q446. Which of the following is a connection-oriented protocol?

• TCP
• UDP
• ICMP
• ARP

Correct Answer: A

Q447. Which of the following fields is present in the TCP header but not in the UDP header?

• Sequence number
• Acknowledgement number
• Both sequence number and acknowledgement number
• None of the above

Correct Answer: C

Q448. What are the two main types of congestion control algorithms?

• Open-loop
• Closed-loop
• Both open-loop and closed-loop
 • None of the above

Correct Answer: C

Q449. Which of the following is an example of a closed-loop congestion control algorithm?

• TCP slow start

• TCP congestion avoidance
• TCP fast recovery
• All of the above

Correct Answer: D

Q450. Which of the following is an example of an open-loop congestion control algorithm?

• Random early detection (RED)

• Weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
• TCP congestion avoidance
• None of the above

Correct Answer: A

Q451. What is the Domain Name System (DNS) used for?

• To translate domain names into IP addresses

• To provide a directory service for email servers
• To provide a way to log into remote systems
• All of the above

Correct Answer: D

Q452. What is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) used for?

• To send email messages

• To receive email messages
• To store email messages
• All of the above

Correct Answer: C

Q453. What is the Post Office Protocol (POP3) used for?

• To receive email messages

• To store email messages
• To send email messages
• None of the above
Correct Answer: A

Q454. What is the Internet Mail Access Protocol (IMAP) used for?

• To access email messages that are stored on a remote server

• To send email messages
• To receive email messages
• None of the above

Correct Answer: A

Q455. Which of the following protocols is used for remote logging?

• SSH
• Telnet
• Both SSH and Telnet
• None of the above

Correct Answer: C

Q456. What is FTP used for?

• To transfer files between computers

• To browse the web
• To send email
• None of the above

Correct Answer: A

Q457. What is the WWW used for?

• To browse the web

• To transfer files between computers
• To send email
• None of the above

Correct Answer: A

Q458. What is the difference between FTP and the WWW?

• FTP is used to transfer files between computers, while the WWW is used to browse the
we
• FTP is a file transfer protocol, while the WWW is a hypertext transfer protocol.
• FTP uses TCP, while the WWW uses HTTP.
• All of the above
Correct Answer: D

Q459. Which of the following protocols is used by email servers?

• SMTP
• HTTP
• SNMP
• None of the above

Correct Answer: A

Q460. Which of the following protocols is used to monitor network devices?

• SNMP
• HTTP
• SMTP
• None of the above

Correct Answer: A

Q461. What is the main goal of network security?

• To protect networks and their data from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption,
modification, or destruction.
• To improve the performance of networks.
• To reduce the cost of network operations.
• All of the above.

Correct Answer: D

Q462. What are the five main security services?

• Confidentiality, integrity, authentication, non-repudiation, and access control.

• Confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
• Confidentiality, integrity, and authentication.
• Confidentiality and integrity.

Correct Answer: A

Q463. What are the two main types of cryptography?

• Symmetric-key cryptography and asymmetric-key cryptography.

• Public key cryptography and private key cryptography.
• Strong cryptography and weak cryptography.
• None of the above.
Correct Answer: A

Q464. What is the difference between symmetric-key cryptography and asymmetric-key

cryptography?

• Symmetric-key cryptography uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data, while
asymmetric-key cryptography uses two different keys: a public key and a private key.
• Public key cryptography is more secure than symmetric-key cryptography.
• Symmetric-key cryptography is faster than asymmetric-key cryptography.
• All of the above.

Correct Answer: D

Q465. Which of the following are examples of digital signature algorithms?

• RSA, DSA, and ECDSA

• AES, DES, and 3DES
• SHA-1, SHA-2, and MD5
• None of the above

Correct Answer: A

Q466. What are the benefits of using digital signatures?

• Digital signatures can help to protect against data tampering, forgery, and
impersonation.
• Digital signatures can help to improve the efficiency of electronic transactions.
• Digital signatures can help to reduce the cost of doing business electronically.
• All of the above.

Correct Answer: D

Q467. In a connection-oriented protocol, what is the purpose of the "Three-Way Handshake"

process?

• To establish a reliable connection before data transmission

• To exchange routing information with neighboring routers
• To ensure the confidentiality of data being transmitted
• To negotiate the encryption settings for the communication

Correct Answer: A

Q468. Which protocol is an example of a connection-oriented protocol used for secure data
transmission over the internet?

• HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)

 • FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
• UDP (User Datagram Protocol)
• TLS (Transport Layer Security)

Correct Answer: D

Q469. What is the primary benefit of a connectionless protocol's approach to data transmission?

• Guaranteed delivery of data packets

• Minimal delay due to lack of connection establishment
• Reliable delivery and error correction mechanisms
• Improved congestion control mechanisms

Correct Answer: B

Q470. In a connectionless protocol, how are data packets delivered to the destination?

• With guaranteed delivery and sequencing

• Without any addressing information
• Using virtual circuit switching
• Individually, without establishing a formal connection

Correct Answer: D

Q471. In the TCP header, which field indicates the length of the TCP header and any optional data
that follows it?

• Sequence Number
• Acknowledgment Number
• Header Length
• Window Size

Correct Answer: C

Q472. What does the term "Sequence Number" refer to in the context of TCP communication?

• The position of a packet in the transmission order

• The number of packets in the sender's queue
• The maximum amount of data a receiver can handle
• The checksum value calculated for the data

Correct Answer: A

Q473. In the TCP/UDP message format, what is the purpose of the "Source Port" field?

• Identifies the application layer protocol being used

 • Identifies the port number of the sender's device
• Specifies the destination port of the receiver
• Provides information about the type of data being transmitted

Correct Answer: B

Q474. Which network security protocol provides secure communication over the web by encrypting
data between a web browser and a web server?

• SSH (Secure Shell)

• HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)
• SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
• FTP (File Transfer Protocol)

Correct Answer: B

Q475. Which cryptographic technique is used to verify the integrity and authenticity of a message by
generating a fixed-length hash?

• Digital signature
• Symmetric encryption
• Asymmetric encryption
• Hashing

Correct Answer: D

Q476. What is the primary purpose of a firewall in network security?

• To encrypt data transmissions

• To authenticate users
• To protect against unauthorized access and threats
• To load balance network traffic

Correct Answer: C

Q477. Which key is used for encryption in asymmetric encryption?

• Private key
• Secret key
• Public key
• Symmetric key

Correct Answer: C

Q478. Which security service ensures that data is not disclosed to unauthorized users?
 • Authentication
• Data Integrity
• Confidentiality
• Availability

Correct Answer: C

Q479. Which FTP mode allows for data to flow in both directions but not simultaneously, with the
client initiating the data connection?

• Active mode
• Passive mode
• Extended Passive mode
• Passive-active mode

Correct Answer: A

Q480. SNMP is primarily used for:

• Transferring files between computers.

• Managing and monitoring network devices.
• Browsing the World Wide We
• Sending emails securely.

Correct Answer: B

Q481. Which HTTP method is idempotent, meaning that making multiple identical requests will
produce the same result as a single request?

• GET
• POST
• PUT
• DELETE

Correct Answer: A

Q482. Which HTTP status code indicates a successful request, and the server has fulfilled it?

• 200 OK
• 302 Found
• 404 Not Found
• 500 Internal Server Error

Correct Answer: A
Q483. In FTP, which mode is used for transferring files where data flows independently of control and
may be sent on separate connections?

• Active mode
• Passive mode
• Extended Passive mode
• Stream mode

Correct Answer: B

Q484. What is the primary function of the SNMP Trap message?

• To request information from the SNMP agent.

• To acknowledge the receipt of SNMP messages.
• To inform the SNMP manager of significant events or alarms.
• To encrypt SNMP data for security.

Correct Answer: C

Q485. In HTTP, which request method is typically used to make changes to the server's state or
create new resources?

• GET
• POST
• PUT
• HEAD

Correct Answer: C

Q486. Which of the following is NOT a primary security service provided by network security
protocols?

• Authentication
• Access Control
• Data Integrity
• Load Balancing

Correct Answer: D

Q487. Which cryptographic algorithm is widely used for securing email communications?

• RSA
• AES
• SHA-256
• HMAC

Correct Answer: A
Q488. Which DiffServ (Differentiated Services) field in an IP header is used to specify the priority
level of a packet?

• TOS (Type of Service) field

• TTL (Time-to-Live) field
• Payload Length field
• Identification field

Correct Answer: A

Q489. What does the term "Traffic Policing" refer to in QoS?

• Prioritizing high-priority traffic over low-priority traffic

• Controlling traffic by dropping excess packets
• Measuring network bandwidth
• Encrypting all network traffic

Correct Answer: B

Q490. In a network with QoS, what does the term "DSCP" stand for?

• Delayed Service Control Packet

• Data Sequence Control Protocol
• Differentiated Services Code Point
• Dynamic Source and Channel Protocol

Correct Answer: C

Q491. Identify the field that is NOT present in the TCP header

• Sequence number
• Source port number
• Destination port number
• Time to live (TTL)

Correct Answer: D

Q492. Identify the connectionless protocol

• TCP
• UDP
• Both TCP and UDP
• Neither TCP nor UDP

Correct Answer: B
Q493. Identify the congestion control mechanism that is NOT used by TCP

• Slow start
• Congestion avoidance
• Fast recovery
• Forward error correction (FEC)

Correct Answer: D

Q494. Identify the algorithm that is used by TCP to avoid congestion

• Additive increase, multiplicative decrease

• Round robin
• Weighted fair queuing
• None of the above

Correct Answer: A

Q495. Identify the QoS parameter that is used to measure the delay of a packet

• Latency
• Jitter
• Packet loss rate
• Bandwidth

Correct Answer: A

Q496. Identify the type of DNS record that is NOT valid

• A record
• CNAME record
• MX record
• ARP record

Correct Answer: D

Q497. Identify the protocol that is used for remote logging

• Syslog
• SNMP
• Both Syslog and SNMP
• Neither Syslog nor SNMP

Correct Answer: A
Q498. Identify the component of an email message that is NOT mandatory

• Message header
• Message body
• Message envelope
• Message signature

Correct Answer: D

Q499. Identify the protocol that is used to transfer files over a network

• FTP
• HTTP
• Both FTP and HTTP
• Neither FTP nor HTTP

Correct Answer: A

Q500. Identify the protocol that is used to access web pages

• FTP
• HTTP
• Both FTP and HTTP
• Neither FTP nor HTTP

Correct Answer: B

Q501. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using additive increase, multiplicative decrease
(AIMD) for congestion control?

• It is efficient in avoiding congestion.

• It is fair to all flows.
• It is simple to implement.
• It is robust to changes in network conditions.

Correct Answer: B

Q502. Which of the following QoS mechanisms can be used to guarantee bandwidth to a particular
flow?

• Token bucket
• Leaky bucket
• Weighted fair queuing
• All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Q503. Which of the following DNS records is used to map a domain name to an IP address?

• A record
• CNAME record
• MX record
• NS record

Correct Answer: A

Q504. Which of the following is NOT a type of firewall?

• Packet filtering firewall

• Stateful inspection firewall
• Application-level firewall
• Proxy firewall

Correct Answer: C

Q505. Which of the following routing algorithms is used to find the shortest path between two nodes
in a network?

• Dijkstra's algorithm
• Bellman-Ford algorithm
• Link state routing
• Distance vector routing

Correct Answer: A

Q506. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of UDP?

• It is unreliable.
• It is connectionless.
• It is inefficient for large data transfers.
• It is complex to implement.

Correct Answer: D

Q507. Which of the following factors can affect the performance of TCP congestion control?

• The size of the network

• The type of traffic
• The bandwidth of the links
• All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Q508. Which of the following QoS mechanisms can be used to reduce jitter?

• Packet buffering
• Traffic shaping
• Priority queuing
• All of the above

Correct Answer: D

Q509. Which of the following DNS records is used to map a domain name to a mail server?

• A record
• CNAME record
• MX record
• NS record

Correct Answer: C

Q510. Which of the following security threats can be mitigated by using a firewall?

• Denial-of-service attacks
• Man-in-the-middle attacks
• Malware infections
• All of the above

Correct Answer: D

Q511. Which of the following routing protocols is used in the Internet?

• Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

• Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
• Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
• All of the above

Correct Answer: D

Q512. Which of the following wireless networking standards is used for high-speed data transfers?

• 802.11a
• 802.11b
• 802.11g
• 802.11n

Correct Answer: D
Q513. Which of the following tools can be used to measure network performance?

• Ping
• Traceroute
• Wireshark
• All of the above

Correct Answer: D

Q514. Which of the following troubleshooting steps can be used to resolve a connectivity issue?

• Check the cables

• Restart the devices
• Update the firmware
• All of the above

Correct Answer: D

Q515. Which of the following factors should be considered when designing a network?

• The size of the network

• The type of traffic
• The budget
• All of the above

Correct Answer: D