BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR

ATA 06

1. 500 is the major zone for:

a. Power plant and nacelles.
b. Left wing.
c. Right wing

2. The zoning system is based on:

a. One group.
b. Two groups.
c. Three groups.

3. The sequence of zone numbering run:

a. After to forward.
b. From inboard to outboard in the wing.
c. Rear to the front in the wing.

ATA 07

4. When jacking of aircraft is performed:

a. Fuel in both tanks must be the same.
b. Fuel in the left tank is more than in the right tank.
c. Fuel in the right tank is more than in the left tank.

5. When jacking of aircraft is performed outside of the hangar, the allowable able
wind speed is:
a. 40 km/h.
b. 45 km/h.
c. 50 km/h.

6. Aircraft must be in the following configuration for jacking:

a. Main gear wheel brakes engaged; wheel chocks removed.
b. Main gear wheel brakes released; wheel chocks installed.
c. Main gear wheel brakes released; wheel chocks removed.

ATA 08

7. During quick levelling precision rule and clinometer are positioned:

a. At the event forwarding cargo compartment.
b. At the level of the cargo compartment door.
c. At the level of after cargo compartment.

ATA 09

8. Towing of the aircraft by nose gear cannot be performed when:

a. Aircraft in the hangar.
b. Aircraft in runway way.
c. Aircraft in soft sand or mud.

9. Towing of the aircraft by nose gear cannot be performed when:

a. Nose gear has two flat tires.
b. Nose gear has one flat tire.
1
c. Main gear has one flat tire.

10. Aircraft can be towed with speed:

a. Same as slow walk.
b. Less than a slow walk.
c. Faster than a slow walk.

11. the N/W steering switch is in which position before towing the aircraft?
a. OFF.
b. ON.
c. Neutral.

12. Towing operation must have permission from:

a. Director.
b. Maintenance manager.
c. Control tower.

ATA 10

13. Aircraft must be parked:

a. Head into the wind.
b. Tail into the wind.
c. Crosswind.

14. In which position, When checking the ng full travel of the rudder TLU Switalski
switches?
a. HI SPD.
b. LO SPD.
c. AUTO.

15. For parking for longer than one week:

a. Install the two-air inlet covers.
b. Install the two-engine nacelle covers.
c. Remove MLG safety pins.

16. For parking for less than one week:

a. Install the two-air inlet covers.
b. Install the two-engine nacelle covers.
c. Remove MLG safety pins.

17. Mooring is needed when:

a. Aircraft on its wheels and parked outside, wind speed exceeding the limit.
b. Aircraft on its wheels and parked in hangar wind speed exceeding the limit.
c. Aircraft on its wheels and parked outside, wind speed less than the limit.

ATA 11

18. For installation of decals applied across lap joints:

a. Decal is wrapped smoothly and continuously around the edge of the lap joint.
b. Decal is cut and wrapped around the edge.
c. Decal is cut and wrapped over the edge.

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 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR
ATA 12

19. On the aircraft, a black point strip shows:

a. The NO STEP areas.
b. The NO SMOKING areas.
c. The DANGEROUS areas.

20. What are the kinds of drainage points on the aircraft?

a. Draining points with piston valves and direct draining points.
b. Draining points with piston valves; direct draining points and draining points with
pipes.
c. Draining points with piston valves and draining points with pipes.

21. Only use explosion-proof inspection lights when:

a. Carry out refueling or defueling.
b. Refill hydraulic fluids.
c. Refill engine oils.

22. What is the purpose of installation of the caps or other suitable protectors when
electrical connectors are disconnected?
a. To prevent the entry of hydraulic fluid, moisture, and foreign objects.
b. To prevent the entry of foreign objects.
c. To prevent the entry of hydraulic fluid id, moisture.

23. During MLG wheel/Tire assy. removal and installation, what do you do to prevent
inadvertent retraction of landing gear on the ground?
a. Check that the landing gear ground locking pins are in place.
b. Display a warning notice prohibiting landing gear operation on panel 404VU.
c. Both (a) & (b).

24. During NLG wheel/Tire ASSY removal and installation, the old cotter pin is:
a. Discarded.
b. Re-used.
c. Inspected before re-using.

25. You can check the fuel level by using manual indicators when the fuel quantity of
each tank is:
a. Greater than 300 liters.
b. Greater than 150 liters.
c. Greater than 200 liters.

26. During a check of fuel level by using manual indicators, the accuracy of the
manual indicators is:
a. + or - 200 liters.
b. + or - 50 liters.
c. + or - 100 liters.
27. During a check of fuel level by using manual indicators, you calculate fuel
quantity by using an inclinometer indicating when:
a. One magnetic indicator shows an extreme value: inner indicator is 0 or 30cm; outer
indicator is 0 or 30cm.

3
b. One magnetic indicator shows an extreme value: inner indicator is 0 or 30cm; outer
indicator is 0 or 20cm.
c. One magnetic indicator shows an extreme value: inner indicator is 0 or 20cm; outer
indicator is 0 or 20cm.

28. How do you know the water tank is full during potable water filling?
a. Observe the water quantity indicator the on the potable water service panel.
b. Check that water flows through the overflow port.
c. Observe the water quantity indicator the on the service vehicle.

ATA 20

29. Safetying principle for using lockwire:

a. Applied tension must come with loosening.
b. Applied tension must oppose loosening.
c. Applied tension can either come with loosening or oppose loosening.

30. What is inter-fraying?

a. Applying a high-viscosity sealant on the structural assembly's edge.
b. Applying a skinny layer of sealant on the edge of a structural assembly.
c. Apply a very thin layer of sealant between the surfaces of the two materials to be
assembled.

31. Fuel leaks are defined into categories:

a. Seepage only.
b. Running leaks only.
c. Seepage and running leak.

32. What is slight seepage (oozing)?

a. A measurement not exceeding 50 mm in any direction.
b. A measurement not exceeding 60 mm in any direction.
c. A measurement not exceeding 70 mm in any direction.

33. What is heavy seepage (dripping)?

a. A measurement greater than 50 mm but not exceeding 100 mm in any direction.
b. A measurement greater than 60 mm but not exceeding 100 mm in any direction.
c. A measurement greater than 70 mm but not exceeding 100 mm in any direction.

34. What is a running leak?

a. A leak less than seepage.
b. A leak greater than seepage.
c. A leak is the same s seepage.

35. If there is a fuel leak with 0 to 10 drops per minute:

a. No action.
b. Weekly inspection to ensure that the leak is not worsening.
c. Repair to be carried out at next A check.

36. If there is a fuel leak with 10 to 20 drops per minute:

a. No action.
b. Weekly inspection to ensure that the leak is not worsening.
c. Repair to be carried out at next A check.

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 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR

37. If there is a fuel leak with 20 to 30 drops per minute:

a. Repair to be carried out within 100 flights. Daily inspection.
b. Repair to be carried out at next A check.
c. Repair to be carried out at next Check.

38. If there is a fuel leak of over 30 drops per minute:

a. Immediate repair action before the next flight.
b. Repair at next A check.
c. Repair at next C check.

39. How many fuel leak locations can be defined on aircraft?

a. 3.
b. 4.
c. 5.

ATA 21

40. In an air conditioning system, airflow and pressure are controlled by:
a. Two-packsack valves.
b. Two ACMs (air cycle machine).
c. Two turbofan shutoff valves.

41. A DUMP function is used:

a. In case of emergency depressurization (full open signal).
b. In case of ditching.
c. In both cases (a) and (b).

42. A DITCH function is used:

a. In case of emergency depressurization.
b. In case of ditching.
c. In both cases (a) and (b).

43. To avoid a bump at landing the automatic mode controls the cabin altitude to
have a value:
a. Equal to selected landing altitude minus 530 ft.
b. Equal to selected landing altitude plus 300 ft.
c. Equal to selected landing altitude minus 300 ft.

44. Overpressure relief allows the valve to open when:

a. ∆P reaches 6.35 PSI.
b. ∆P reaches 6.50 PSI.
c. ∆P reaches 0.50 PSI.

45. Cabin pressure and rate of change are obtained through:

a. A manual pneumatic controller (in Manual mode) only.
b. An automatic digital controller (in Auto mode) or a manual pneumatic controller (in
Manual mode).
c. An automatic digital controller (in Auto mode) only.

46. The automatic digital pressure controller receives several parameters, such as:

5
a. Landing elevation, take-off elevation, static aircraft pressure (from ADC), TAT(Total
air temperature)
b. Landing elevation, take-off elevation, static aircraft pressure (from ADC), cabin
pressure.
c. Landing elevation, take-off elevation, static aircraft pressure (from ADC), cabin
pressure, TAT(Total air temperature)

47. During the automatic digital pressure controller test, the following items are
checked:
a. Electropneumatic outflow valve torque motors; barometric correction; digital controller
electrical circuitries.
b. Pneumatic outflow valve torque motors; barometric correction; landing gear and pack
valves microswitches, digital controller electrical circuitries.
c. Electropneumatic outflow valve torque motors; barometric correction; landing gear and
pack valves microswitches, digital controller electrical circuitries.

48. The test of an automatic digital pressure controller is performed by depressing the
test pushbutton. The test is OK if:
a. No light comes on.
b. The digits displayed on the controller’s front face switch ON indicate alternatively:
18800 and -8800.
c. The digits displayed on the controller’s front face switch ON indicate alternatively:
18000 and -8800.

ATA 22

49. The yaw actuator is located

a. In the wing centre box.
b. In the rear unpressurized compartment
c. Inside the rudder.

50. The yaw actuator controls the rudder when:

a. The AP is engaged.
b. YD is engaged only.
c. Both a & b are correct.

51. Manual disengagement of the AP is achieved by:

a. Using STBY & NORMAL PITCH TRIM
b. Using AIL.TRIM
c. Using RUDDER TRIM.

52. Manual disengagement of the YD is achieved by:

a. Using the AP quick disconnect SW.
b. Press the GA pushbutton on the power lever.
d. Applying a force greater than 30daN on rudder pedals.

53. The purpose of the STBY pushbutton SW on the AFCS control panel is:
a. To control the bank angle (HI or LO)
b. To engage FD mode.
c. To disengage FD mode.

54. The DH Audio warning is generated by the:

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 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR
a. MFC.
b. AFCS system.
c. GPWS system.

55. AP is automatically disengaged in the:

a. Icing condition.
b. Stall condition.
c. Bad weather.

56. YD is automatically disengaged:

a. In stall condition.
b. In icing or bad weather.
c. At touch down during landing.

57. The AFCS computer is located in:

a. Racks 90VU
b. Racks 80VU
c. Forward electronic rack.

58. The GA pushbutton SW is located on:

a. Power lever.
b. Condition lever.
c. Captain instrument panel.

59. GUIDANCE light is illuminated in case of:

a. Cat 2 invalid
b. EXCESS DEV warning.
c. Both a & b are correct.

60. In the heading select mode, if the ADU indicates "HDG SEL LO" the bank angle
limit is:
a. 15o
b. 27o
c. 30o
61. GA mode can be disengaged by action on the:
a. Quick release p.b.
b. TCS p.b.
c. GA p.b.

62. The pitch, roll & rudder actuator are:

a. Interchangeable.
b. Not identical
c. Both a & b are correct.

63. Action on CPL p.b. on AFCS control panel, you can:

a. Change the coupled side.
b. Engage the AP.
c. Both a & b are correct.

64. The AFCS computer interfaces with SGU, AHRS, ADU & ADC through:
a. ARINC 429
b. ARINC 629
7
c. ASCB (Avionic Standard Communication Bus)

65. Which is the correct statement:

a. When AFCS is operating in FD mode (FD only), the AFCS computer provides
information through FD bars on EADI which al the automatic guidance of the aircraft.
b. When AFCS is operating in FD mode (FD only), the AFCS computer provides
information through FD bars on EADI which the manual guidance of the aircraft.
c. There is no information on EADI. In this mode, the AFCS computer is not powered.

66. FD mode (lateral or vertical) can be disengaged:

a. By a second action on the corresponding p.b. HDG, NAV, APP, BC – IAS – VS – ALT.
b. By action on STBY p.b.
c. Boof a& b are correct.

67. With AP not engaged, YD automatic disengagement results in:

a. "YD DISENGAGED" steady on ADU.
b. "AP/YD DISENGAGED" steady on ADU.
c. "YD DISENGAGED" flashing on ADU.

68. In AP mode, the TCS function declutches the:

a. Roll & pitch servo actuators.
b. Roll, pitch & yaw servo actuators.
c. Roll servo actuator only.

69. GA mode can be engaged by:

a. Action on both GA p.b.
b. Action on only one GA p.b.
c. Both a &b are correct.

70. The Roll actuator is located in the:

a. Left-wing side.
b. Center part of the wing
c. Right-wing side.

71. The function of the BANK p.b. on ACP:

a. to clear the upper mode if it has been engaged before.
b. To change bank angle limit value.
c. To engage FD function.

72. Which bank angle limit value is automatically selected upon energization:
a. Hi
b. Low
c. The value stored in AFCS computer memory.

73. GA mode sélection disengages:

a. AP
b. YD
c. AP/YD

ATA-23

74. The frequency of VHF:

8
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR
a. 118.0MHz. – 136,975MHz.
b. 118,0 MHz – 130,975MHz.
c. 2,00 MHz – 20, 0 MHz.

75. Power Supply for VHF#1

a. DC Bus 1
b. DC Bus 2.
c. DC Emergency Bus.

76. When the TX annunciator the in VHF control panel illuminates:

a. Receiver is receiving.
b. VHF is transmitting.
c. VHF is remotely tuned.

77. Which statement is NOT correct:

a. Six preset frequencies can be stored in the preset display window of VHF.
b. The function of SQ OFF in the selector of the control panel is to disable the receiver
squelch circuit.
c. ACT button in the VHF control panel is controlled for brightness.

78. When performing the test in VHF, if displayed in the control panel showed a
DIAG message and code 03:
a. No fault detected.
b. Fault detected.
c. None of the above.

79. The priority for Passenger Address announcement between Cockpit and
Attendant:
a. Cockpit announcement is a priority.
b. Attendant announcement is a priority.
c. Both of them are the same priority.

80. To make Passenger Address announcement by Attendant:

a. Lift off the handset in the Attendant panel, press the PA switch, and the press PTT
switch in the Attendant handset.
b. Lift off the handset in the attendant panel, press the PA switch in Audio Control Panel,
and press the PTT switch in the Attendant handset.
c. Lift off the handset in the Attendant panel, press the INT switch, and the press PTT
switch in the Attendant handset.

81. Which statement is correct:

a. The audio level of Passenger Address is increased by 6 dB as soon as an engine is
running, via the contacts of the corresponding engine low oil pressure relay.
b. Cockpit announcements are given priority over cabin attendant announcements via pulse
generator.
c. There are three loudspeakers in the cockpit ceiling.

82. To make a call from Cockpit to Mechanic:

a. The horn is sound.
b. The doorbell is sound.
c. The single chime is sound.

9
83. The condition to erase the information recorded in Cockpit Voice Recorder:
a. In all flight phases.
b. A/C on the ground, Press Erase switch.
c. A/C on the ground, Parking Brake set, Press ERASE switch.

ATA 24

84. The Main Battery is charged by

a. DC Bus 1
b. DC Bus 2
c. DC Emer Bus

85. AC on the ground, no engine running, no EXT. power, the DC GRND HDL Bus is
supplied from
a. The HOT EMER BAT Bus
b. The HOT MAIN BAT Bus
c. The DC SVCE Bus

86. The 45% NH signal (starter cut out) is sent to the GCU from the
a. Speed sensor incorporated in S/G
b. BPCU
c. HE’S

87. Rated nominal voltage of the Starter/Generator is

a. 28V
b. 30V
c. 24V

88. GFR (Generator Field Relay) is incorporated in

a. BPCU
b. MFC
c. GCU

89. The Generator Under speed protection is one of the functions of

a. BPCU
b. MFC
c. GCU

90. The BTC (Bus Tie Contactor) is controlled by

a. BPCU
b. GCU
c. MFC

91. The SC (Starter Contactor) is controlled by:

a. BPCU
b. GCU
c. MFC

92. Nominal capacity of the Main Battery is:

a. 45 Ah
b. 15 Ah
c. 43 Ah

10
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR

93. In the AC CF system the BTR (Bus Tie Relay) is controlled by

a. BPCU
b. MFC
c. GCU

94. In flight, with the 2 SGs failed, or on the ground with the Batt. ON only (no EXT
power, no engine running), the INV2 is supplied by:
a. DC Bus 2
b. HOT MAIN BAT Bus
c. None of a & b is correct

95. ACW GEN is driven by

a. Eng. AGB
b. Propeller RGB
c. Both a & b are correct

96. How many BTCs (Bus Tie Contactor) are there in the ACW electrical system
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3

97. The GCU confidence check can be performed

a. On-ground only with the main buses not energized (battery only)
b. In flight, after take-off
c. Anytime

98. An ACW SVCE Bus can be supplied from

a. The EXT power
b. The ACW Bus 1, if the EXT. Power is not available and if the 2 ACW generators are
operational.
c. Both a & b are correct.

99. What is the meaning of the BCC

a. Battery Charging Contactor
b. Bus Contactor Controller
c. Bus Cut-off Contactor

100. The GC (Generator Contactor) is controlled by the:

a. BPCU
b. GCU
c. MFC

101. The DC GEN is driven by:

a. Engine AGB
b. Propeller RGB
c. Both a & b are correct.

102. The EPC (external power contactor) is controlled by

a. GCU
b. BPCU
c. MFC
11
103. What is the purpose of the DC Electrical generating power feeder system
A To provide warning and/or maintenance signal only when the AC is on the ground
b. To provide warning and/or maintenance signal only when the AC is in flight.
c. It can provide a warning at any time when the DC Gen is in generation mode.

104. The normal capacity of the Emer Batt.

a. 13 Ah
b. 15 Ah
c. 43 Ah

105. What is an internal Battery over temperature

a. >1000C
b. >810C
c. >710C

106. In normal conditions, AC STBY Bus is supplied from

a. Static inverter 1
b. Static inverter 2
c. Both a & b are correct.

107. What is the inverter’s nominal power in continuous operation

a. 500 W
b. 500VA
c. 750VA

108. What is the ACW GEN normal frequency range

a. 400Hz ± 10%
b. 400Hz ± 10Hz
c. From 341 to 488 Hz

109. Open phase protection is one of the functions of

a. GCU ACW
b. BPCU ACW
c. MFC

110. ACW SVCE Bus is controlled by

a. BPCU DC
b. BPCU ACW
c. GCU ACW

111. The HES (Hall Effect Sensor) is used in the ACW system for purposes
a. Overload, Open phases, and differential current protection
b. Over/under voltage protection and current measuring
c. Both a & b are not correct (ACW Sys used CT (current transformer). Not HES)

112. AC in flight, if one ACW GEN is faulty:

a. Both ACW Bus 1 & ACW Bus 2 are supplied from operating ACW GEN via BTCs
closing.
b. ACW SVCE Bus is supplied from ACW Bus 1, ACW SVCE Bus is supplied from ACW
Bus 2
c. ACW SVCE Bus is shed off.

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 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR

113. You can perform the ACW system confidence check

a. Only on ground
b. Only in flight
c. At any time

ATA 25

114. The ATR flight compartment is equipped with:

a. A Captain seat and a First Officer seat are adjustable on the three axes and bolted onto
the floor structure. Observer folding seat hinged onto the electronics rack.
b. An Observer seat and a First Officer seat are adjustable on the three axes and bolted
onto the floor structure. Captain folding seat hinged onto the electronics rack.
c. A Captain seat and an Observer seat are adjustable on the three axes and bolted onto
the floor structure The First Officer folding seat is hinged onto the electronics rack.

115. Emergency evacuation of the crew is made via:

a. Emergency exit doors are in the forward passenger compartment.
b. An emergency hatch located in the flight compartment ceiling.
c. Cargo door located on forwarding cargo compartment.

116. An evacuation rope is located:

a. In the upper part of the electrics rack.
b. Under Captain’s seat.
c. Under Observer seat.

117. The Pax double-seat unit consists of:

a. A forward folding backrest ASSY; an ashtray on the center or exterior armrest; a
baggage retainer; a seat pouch for reviews and passenger instructions; a seat belt; a
folding t-le eat back.
b. A forward folding backrest ASSY; an ashtray on the center or exterior armrest; a
baggage retainer; a seat pouch for reviews and passenger instructions; a life vest
stowage; a seat belt.
c. A forward folding backrest ASSY; an ashtray on the center or exterior armrest; a
baggage retainer; a seat pouch for reviews and passenger instructions; a life vest
stowage; a seat belt; a folding table attached seat back; a bumper strip on the aisle side.

118. The ATR aircraft consists of:

a. Two cargo compartments, there’re 03 nets in the FWD cargo compartment and 02 nets
the in AFT cargo compartment.
b. Two cargo compartments, there’re 02 nets in the FWD cargo compartment and 02 nets
the in AFT cargo compartment.
c. Two cargo compartments, there’re 03 nets in the FWD cargo compartment and 01 net
the in AFT cargo compartment.

119. How many cabin attendant seats are the in-passenger compartment?
a. Only one cabin attendant seat is provided in the AFT section.
b. Two cabin attendant seats are provided: one in the FWD section and the other in the
AFT section.
c. Three cabin attendant seats are provided: one in the FWD section, one in the MID
section and the other in the AFT section.

13
120. AFT section cabin attendant seat is:
a. Located next to the cabin attendant partition in line with the aisle and attached to the
floor rail.
b. Located in the housing, behind the AFT partition. The seat slides towards the aisle for
utilization.
c. Located in the housing, behind the AFT partition and attached to the floor rail.

121. FWD section cabin attendant seat is:

a. Located in the housing, behind the AFT partition and attached the to floor rail.
b. Located in the housing, behind the FWD partition. The seat slides towards the aisle for
utilization.
c. Located next to the cabin attendant partition in line with the aisle and attached to the
floor rail.

122. Each basic PSU(Passenger Service Unit) includes:

a. Two attendant call pushbuttons; a loudspeaker; passenger lighted signs; 2 or 4 reading
lights; 2 or 4 air outlets.
b. One attendant calls pushbutton; a loudspeaker; passenger lighted signs; 2 or 4 reading
lights; 2 or 4 air outlets.
c. Two attendants call pushbuttons; a loudspeaker; passenger lighted signs; 2 or 4 reading
lights; 01 air outlet.

123. The Passenger Service Units are located:

a. On the LH armrest of the double seat.
b. Under the overhead stowage compartments above the passengers.
c. On the RH armrest of the double seat.

124. The purpose of the attendant call pushbutton is:

a. To call the captain when the passenger needs his help.
b. To call the attendant when the passenger needs their help.
c. To call the attendant in emergency case only.

125. The passenger can use PSU (Passenger Service Units) to:
a. Call attendant; adjust air outlets and volume of the loudspeaker; turn on or turn off the
reading light.
b. Call the attendant; adjust the volume the of loudspeaker; turn on or turn off the reading
light.
c. Call attendant; adjust air outlets; turn on or turn off the reading light.

126. The emergency items of equipment in the flight compartment are:

a. A rope; a fuse and lamp box; fireproof gloves; torches and life vests.
b. A rope; a fuse and lamp box; an axe; fireproof gloves; torches and life vests.
c. A rope; a fuse and lamp box; an axe; fireproof gloves and torches.

127. The emergency items of equipment in the passenger compartment are:

a. A megaphone; first aid kits; torches and a rope.
b. A megaphone; first aid kits; torches.
c. A megaphone; first aid kits; life vests; torches and a rope.

128. The emergency locator system consists of:

a. A transmitter; remote control and an antenna.
b. A transmitter and remote control.

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 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR
c. A transmitter and an antenna.

129. Several galleys exist:

a. One main galley is located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the right side,
forward of the service door. One secondary galley is located in the passenger
compartment aft section, on the left side, of the entry door.
b. One main galley is located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the right side,
forward of the service door. One secondary galley is located in the passenger
compartment aft section, on the left side, aft of the entry door.
c. One main galley is located in the passenger compartment aft section, on the right side,
forward of the entry door. One secondary galley is located in the passenger
compartment aft section, on the left side, forward of the service door.

ATA 26

130. NAC OVHT system is ready to operate when:

a. Aircraft is on the ground.
b. Aircraft is in flight.
c. Aircraft is on the ground, 30 seconds after landing.

131. NAC OVHT system monitors temperature in:

a. Right nacelle.
b. Left nacelle.
c. Left and right nacelle.

132. NAC OVHT located on the Crew Alert Panel light comes on when the right
nacelle temperature reaches:
a. 170ْ C.
b. 177ْ C.
c. 177ْ C.

133. In engine fire detection, the “FAULT” light comes on when:

a. “Short circuit” occurred in engine fire detection circuit.
b. The cartridge of the engine fire extinguisher bottle failed.
c. The sensing element was double broken.

134. When the sensing element of engine fire detection was single-broken:
a. “FAULT” light comes on.
b. “FAULT” light doesn’t come on.
c. Both (a) and (b) are not correct.

135. In engine fire detection, when a fire is detected:

a. Resistance of fire sensing element reduces, and capacitance of fire sensing element
increases.
b. Resistance of fire sensing element increases, and capacitance of fire sensing element
reduces.
c. Both resistance and capacitance of fire sensing element increase.

136. In case of single or double break of the engine fire sensing element:
a. The fault is always indicated to the crew.
b. The fault is not indicated to the crew at any time.
c. The fault is indicated to the crew during the pre-flight test only.
15
137. In engine fire detection, the fault signal activates when:
a. There is a variation in resistance of the sensing element not accompanied by a variation
in capacitance.
b. There is a variation in the resistance of the sensing element.
c. There is a variation in the capacitance of the sensing element.

138. What’s kind of smoke detector located in the Avionic Compartment?

a. Ambient detector.
b. Duct detector
c. Both (a) and (b) are not correct.

139. A lavatory fire extinguisher is activated automatically when the temperature the
of heat source reaches:
a. 77ْ C
b. 70ْ C.
c. 100ْ C.

140. The whole engine fire detection system is supplied from:

a. DC EMER BUS.
b. DC STBY BUS.
c. DC ESS BUS.

141. In flight, FWD cargo, lavatory and aft cargo smoke detection circuits can be
tested by:
a. Action on the “SMK TEST” pushbutton switch located on the ceiling panel of the
cockpit.
b. Action on selector switch located on left maintenance of the cockpit.
c. Both (a) & (b).

142. What’s kind of smoke detector located in the Lavatories Compartment?

a. Photoelectric cell detector
b. Duct detector.
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct.

143. Where are two fixed fire extinguisher bottles installed?

a. In the engine.
b. After the firewall into the fairing between the engine nacelle and the wing.
c. In the wing-to-fuselage junction fillet.

144. When the engine fire handle is pulled:

a. All LP fuel shutoff valves, air bleed valve, pressure regulating and shut off valve, de-
icing shut off valve close; AC & DC generators de-energize; SQUIB legend comes on
b. SQUIB legend comes on.
c. LP fuel shutoff valve closes, and SQUIB legend comes on.

145. What is the function of the SQUIB TEST switch?

a. Discharge the fire extinguisher bottle.
b. Check the enabling electrical continuity of the percussion resistances.)
c. Check the pressure inside the fire extinguisher bottle.

16
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR
ATA27

146. The control of the aileron is done:

a. By control wheel.
b. By control column.
c. By pedal.

147. The purposes of TLU:

a. To limit rudder travel at high speed.
b. To limit rudder travel at low speed.
c. To limit the damper function for the rudder.

148. The TLU switch in the overhead panel includes:

a. Two positions: AUTO- MANUAL.
b. Three positions: HIGH SPEED-AUTO-LOW SPEED.
c. Two positions: ON–AUTO-OFF.

149. The signal of the aileron position transmitter sends to:

a. The indicator in the flight Deck.
b. The FDAU.
c. Both above.

150. In all trim actuators of the flight control system, there are two ELECTRO-
MOTOR, one electric motor is not used if installed in:
a. Rudder trim and Elevator trim.
b. Aileron trim and Elevator trim.
c. Aileron trim and Rudder trim.

151. Which of the following cases are given warning alerts:

a. Flaps asymmetry.
b. Pitch asymmetry.
c. Pitch disconnected.

152. The flaps system includes:

a. 02 flap valve block, 04 actuators.
b. 01 flap valve block, 02 actuators.
c. 01 flap valve block, 04 actuators.

153. The hydraulic system supply for flaps is came from:

a. green system.
b. blue system.
c. Both hydraulic system

154. When flaps asymmetry occurs:

a. The flaps are returned to the up position.
b. The flaps can be controlled by an alternate method.
c. The flaps remain in reached position.

155. When pressing on one of two Roll trim switches:

a. Trim actuator will be supplied for acting on the left tab.
b. Trim actuator will be supplied for acting the right tab.
c. Trim actuator will not be supplied.
17
156. The desiccant cartridge in the aileron trim actuator is used to:
a. Absorb ambient humidity.
b. Check actuator temperature.
c. Check the actuator’s external condition.

157. Releasable Centering Unit (RCU) is automatically centred when:

a. Trim command is applied.
b. Yaw damper is active.
c. Pedals are free.

158. When pushing on the Elevator trim switches on the first officer control wheel:
a. The left trim actuator is supplied to move the left tab and the right tab is moved
through a flexible shaft.
b. Both left and right trim actuators are supplied.
c. The left trim actuator is supplied to move the left tab and the right tab is moved
through Pitch Uncoupling Mechanism.

159. The elevator trim value is supplied by:

a. Position transmitter installed on control surfaces.
b. Right trim actuator position transmitter.
c. Left trim actuator position transmitter.

160. The shift between the left and right trim actuator is performed by:
a. FDAU.
b. DFDR.
c. MFC.

161. There is a green sector on the elevator trim indicator:

a. The pointer must not be out of this sector when taking off.
b. The pointer must not be out of this sector when landing.
c. The pointer must not be out of this sector when crazing.

162. When the left AOA sensor is failed:

a. The stall warning system is failed.
b. The right stick shaker is still operative.
c. The right stick shaker and the stick pusher are still operative to prevent aircraft from
stalling.

163. When the stick pusher is operating it:

a. Pushes elevator control linkage in a nose-down direction.
b. Pushes elevator control linkage in nose-up direction.
c. Causes vibration to the control columns.

164. The angle-of-attack limit value depends on:

a. Aircraft speed.
b. Aircraft configuration and flight conditions.
c. Engine power.

165. An EXT electromagnetic flag on the flap position indicator indicates:

a. Energization of the extension solenoid valve.
b. Energization of the retraction solenoid valve.

18
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR
c. Indicator failure.

166. Spoilers are controlled by:

a. Control wheel.
b. Control column.
c. Pedals.

167. When turning the control wheel to the right end:

a. The left spoiler moves up.
b. Both left and right spoilers move up.
c. The right spoiler moves up.

168. Spoiler extension is initiated for aileron deflection of:

a. 4.5 degrees.
b. 3.5 degrees.
c. 2.5 degrees.

ATA 28

169. Where are the fuel tanks located on the wing of the aircraft?
a. Between RIB#3 and RIB#24.
b. Between RIB#4 and RIB#23.
c. Between RIB#4 and RIB#24.

170. How many kilograms is the fuel’s maximum capacity?

a. 5500.
b. 4800.
c. 5000.

171. Where is the feeder tank located on the wing of the aircraft?
a. Between RIB#4 and RIB#5.
b. Between RIB#0 and RIB#4.
c. Between RIB#23 and RIB#24.

172. How many litres is the capacity of the feeder tank?

a. 200.
b. 220.
c. 150.

173. Where is the vent surge tank located on the wing of the aircraft?
a. Between RIB#24 and RIB#25.
b. Between RIB#22 and RIB#23.
c. Between RIB#23 and RIB#24.

174. What is the purpose of the tank venting system?

a. To ensure tank venting in all operating phases in flight and on the ground.
b. To recover fuel entering the vent line and evacuated outwards in case of skidding.
c. Both (a) & (b).

175. Where is the NACA intake located?

a. On the lower surface of the vent surge tank.
b. On the upper surface of the vent surge tank.
19
c. On the lower surface of the feeder tank.

176. What is the purpose of the NACA intake?

a. To keep constant pressure in the fuel tank.
b. To enable a slight overpressure of approximately 20MB(0.3psi) to be maintained in the
fuel tank.
c. To enable a slight overpressure of approximately 20MB(0.3psi) to be maintained in the
fuel tank and limit overpressure in the tank.

177. Each feeder tank is equipped with:

a. One electric pump and two jet pumps.
b. Two electric pumps and one jet pump.
c. One electric pump and one jet pump.

178. LO LVL light comes on when:

a. Fuel quantity of each tank is lower than 160 kg.
b. Fuel quantity of each tank is lower than 260 kg.
c. Fuel quantity of each tank is lower than 150 kg.

179. Fuel mass is measured by:

a. Six capacitance probes are installed in each feeder tank.
b. Six capacitance probes are installed in each tank.
c. Five capacitance probes are installed in each tank.

180. To close the fuel LP valve, what do you do?

a. Pull the corresponding engine fire handle.
b. Place the corresponding condition lever at the FUEL SO position.
c. Both (a) & (b).

181. Each tank is equipped with.

a. Two manual magnetic indicators.
b. Four manual magnetic indicators.
c. Three manual magnetic indicators.

182. When the two REFUEL VALVES switches are in NORM position, the
refuel/defuel valves are opened by:
a. Placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in the REFUEL position.
b. Placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in the DEFUEL position.
c. Both (a) & (b).

183. How do you know the refuel/defuel valves were opened?

a. By two indicator lights identified VALVE/LH/OPEN and VALVE/RH/OPEN located
on the REFUELING panel come on.
b. By placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in the REFUEL position.
c. By placing the REFUEL/OFF/DEFUEL switch in the DEFUEL position.

184. What is the function of a cross feed system?

a. To allow both engines to be fed by one tank.
b. To allow one engine to be fed by both tanks.
c. Both (a) & (b).

185. Low pressure in the engine feed system is detected by:

20
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR
a. The electric pump auto control pressure switch is installed on the engine feed jet pump
outlet duct.
b. The fuel feed low-pressure switch is installed downstream of the LP valve.
c. Both (a) & (b).

ATA 29

186. The aircraft is provided with:

a. Two independent hydraulic systems.
b. Three independent hydraulic systems.
c. Four independent hydraulic systems.

187. During all normal conditions, both hydraulic systems operate:

a. Alternatively providing 3000psi supply pressure.
b. Simultaneously providing 3000psi supply pressure.
c. Simultaneously providing 1500psi supply pressure.

188. The blue hydraulic system uses:

a. One 115V ACW pump.
b. One 28 DC pump.
c. One 115V ACW pump, one 28V DC pump.

189. The green hydraulic system is pressurized by:

a. Its electric pump normally.
b. The blue electric pump, through the cross-feed valve, in case of failure of its electric
pump.
c. Both (a) & (b).

190. Each pressure module external casing is equipped with:

a. A low-pressure switch; an overheat sensor.
b. A thermal switch; a pressure transmitter.
c. A low-pressure switch; an overheat sensor; a pressure transmitter.

191. The LO LVL light (on Blue & Green hydraulic system control panel 26VU)
comes on when:
a. Fluid quantity below 8.5 L
b. The fluid quantity below 2.5 L
c. Fluid quantity below 4.0 L

192. The OVHT light (on Blue & Green hydraulic system control panel 26VU) comes
on when:
a. Temperature in case drain line reaches 121ºC.
b. Temperature in the return line reaches 121ºC.
c. Temperature in the supply line reaches 121ºC.

193. The auxiliary electric pump can be controlled by:

a. Pushbutton switch located on the overhead panel.
b. Momentary switch located on pedestal.
c. Both (a) & (b).

194. The auxiliary electric pump is supplied by:

a. 28V DC.
21
b. 115V AC.
c. 115V ACW

195. AUX PUMP runs in AUTO mode when:

a. AUX PUMP pushbutton is pressed, and at least one engine running.
b. Propeller brake disengaged, landing gear lever in “DOWN” position, pressure on blue
system < 1500 PSI.
c. AUX PUMP pushbutton is pressed, at least one engine running, propeller brake
disengaged, landing gear lever in “ DOWN ” position, pressure on blue system < 1500
PSI

196. How can you release the propeller brake with both engines not running and no
ground power unit?
a. Press the pushbutton switch of the auxiliary electric pump located the on overhead
panel.
b. Press the pushbutton switch of the blue electric pump located the on overhead panel.
c. Press the momentary switch located on the pedestal.

197. During hydraulic pump running, the corresponding LO PR light comes on

when:
a. The hydraulic fluid pressure falls below 1500 +/- 100 psi.
b. The hydraulic fluid pressure falls below 3000 +/- 100 psi.
c. The hydraulic fluid pressure falls below 1800 +/- 100 psi.

ATA 30

198. How many overheated thermal switches are pneumatic de-icing systems
equipped with?
a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 6.

199. Where is the overheat thermal switch located?

a. Upstream of the pressure regulator and shutoff valves.
b. Downstream of the pressure regulator and shutoff valves.
c. Upstream of isolation valves.

200. When the de-icing system is working, if the H engine fire handle is pulled then:
a. All pressure regulators and shutoff valves and Isolation valves close.
b. Only the pressure regulator and shutoff valve and isolation valve associated with LH
engine fire handle close.
c. Both pressure regulator and shutoff valves close and both isolation valves open.

201. During the flight in no icing condition, the nly AFR AIR BLEED pushbutton
switch is pressed (ON position) then:
a. Both pressure regulator and shutoff valves open, and both isolation valves close.
b. All pressure regulators and shutoff valves and isolation valves open.
c. Both pressure regulator and shutoff valves close, and both isolation valves open.

202. During the flight, when the AFR AIR BLEED pushbutton switch is released
(OFF position) and the only ENG #1 DE-ICING pushbutton is pressed (ON position):
a. Both pressure regulator and shutoff valves open, and both isolation valves close.

22
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR
b. The pressure regulator and shutoff valve associated with ENG #1 open, band other
isolation valves close.
c. Only the pressure regulator and shutoff valve and isolation valve associated with ENG
are #1 open.

203. When SAT< -20ْC, the de-icing system operates at:

a. Normal 90s cycle.
b. Slow 180s cycle.
c. Slow 120s cycle.

204. The engine ice protection system is composed of:

a. Air intake leading edge deicers; cooler upper duct deicers; upper throat deicers.
b. Air intake leading edge deicers; cooler upper duct deicers; air intake throat deicers;
upper throat deicers.
c. Air intake leading edge deicers; air intake throat deicers upper throat deicer

205. The isolation valve is:

a. Maintained close by spring and opened by exciting control solenoid.
b. Maintained open by spring and closed by exciting control solenoid.
c. Both (a) & (b) are not correct.

206. The excessive bleed air temperature is detected by overheating thermal switch
when the air temperature reaches:
a. 230ْC +/- 11.
b. 250ْC +/- 11.
c. 270ْC +/- 11.

207. The AIRFRAME / AIR BLEED FAULT light illuminates when:

a. Air pressure inside the supply manifold < 14 PSI during more than 10 seconds
b. Air temperature upstream of the pressure regulator S/O valve > 230 C
c. Both a & b are correct.

208. The wing & horizontal stabilizer pneumatic de-icing system is controlled and
monitored by:
a. MFC 1
b. MFC 2
c. MFC 1 & MFC 2

209. The location of the horns anti-icing controller:

a. Rack 80VU
b. Rack 90VU
c. Forward Avionics compartment

210. The engine air intake de-icing is used:

a. 115V ACW current
b. 28V DC
c. Air bled from the engine.

211. The engine air intake de-icing system is controlled and monitored by:
a. MFC 1
b. MFC 2
c. Both MFC 1 and MFC 2
23
212. Propeller blade heating elements are supplied with:
a. 115V ACW
b. 115V AC – CF
c. 28V DC

213. The static ports heating elements are supplied with:

a. 28V DC
b. 115V ACW
c. 115V AC-CF

214. The AOA sensor heating elements are supplied with:

a. 28V DC
b. 115V AC – CF
c. 115V ACW

215. The probe’s heating system is controlled & monitored by:

a. MFC 1
b. MFC 1 & MFC 2
Both a & b are not correct

216. The ice detector operation can be checked through a test p.b. switch:
a. On ground only
b. In-flight only
c. Either on the ground or in flight.

ATA 31

217. The Capt. The clock is supplied by:

a. 28 VDC EMER Bus
b. 28 VDC Bus1
c. 28 VDC Bus2

218. The Engine Objective Torque on the Torque Indicator is computed by:
a. FDAU
b. DFDR
c. FEB

219. The location of DFDR:

a. electronic rack 90VU
b. electronic rack 80VU
c. Zone 311 (under pressurized tail cone) frame 42

220. Where is located ULB (underwater locating beacon)

a. On the front face of DFDR
b. On the front face of FDAU
c. On the front face of FDEP

221. The three-axis accelerometer is located

a. At the Aircraft’s center of gravity
b. In the electronic rack 90VU
c. In the cockpit behind the center pedestal

24
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR

222. The Accelerometer is supplied power from

a. DC EMER Bus
b. MFC’s
c. FDAU

223. FDEP is located in

a. electronic Centre pedestal
b. electronic rack 90 VU
c. electronic rack 80 VU

224. The master warning light flashing red is associated with

a. Continuous repetitive chime (CRC) and an amber caution light on CAP
b. Continuous repetitive chime (CRC) and a red warning light on CAP
c. Single chime (SC) and an amber caution light on CAP

225. The alerts are classified in

a. 3 levels (from 2 to 0)
b. 4 levels (from 3 to 0)
c. 5 levels (from 4 to 0)

226. The CCAS is controlled by

a. MFC 1(module 1A & 1B)
b. MFC 2(module 2A & 2B)
c. MFC 1(module 1B) & MFC 2 (module 2B)

227. What is the purpose of Emergency audio cancel switch

a. It enables the crew to cancel the spurious audio alert.
b. It causes CAP amber caution lights (level 2) to go off.
c. It enables the crew to cancel audio alerts in flight only.

228. The F/O Clock is power supplied by

a. 28 VDC Emer Bus
b. 28 VDC Bus 2 Sect 1
c. 28 VDC Stby Bus

229. The Recorder System collects, formats, and records the various parameters and
stores:
a. The last 25Hr of recording
b. The last 25 flights recording.
c. The last 30Hr of the recording

230. The FDAU receives an Event marker signal from

a. FDEP
b. DFDR
c. CVR

231. The Accelerometer sends three-axis acceleration information to

a. DFDR
b. FDAU
c. FDEP

25
232. On the crew alerting panel (CAP), the "MAINT PNL" caution light illuminates
if
a. The rotary switch on MFC MAINT PNL is positioned on "MFC" position.
b. The MFC power supply is lost.
c. The rotary switch on MFC MAINT PNL is not in the "NORM. FLT" position.

233. The 2 MFCs are located in

a. The avionics rack 90 VU (MFC1 in 91VU shelf, MFC2 in 92 VU shelf)
b. The avionics rack 80 VU (MFC1 in 81VU shelf, MFC2 in 82 VU shelf)
c. MFC1 located in rack 90VU, MFC2 located in rack 80VU.

234. Pressing the TO/INHI push button switch located on CAP when AC is on the
ground:
a. Enables to inhibit alerts which must not be processed during TO
b. Enables extinguishing amber caution lights which are on the CAP.
c. Both a & b are correct.

235. The TO/INHI function is cancelled:

a. Automatically as soon as the main LDG starts retracting.
b. Manually by action on the RCL push button switch.
c. Both a & b are correct.

236. During the TO CONFIG test, we will have an amber ENG caution light on CAP
if
a. PWR MGT selector switch is not in the TO position.
b. One of the engines torques is not sufficient for TO
c. Both a & b are correct.

237. During the test of the MFC crosstalk function, the rotary switch on MFC
MAINT PNL must be placed on
a. MFC position
b. ERS (erase) position
c. Any position

238. During the TO config test, the amber FLT caution light will be illuminated on
CAP if
a. Pitch trims outside green range
b. Flaps are not into configuration.
c. Both a & b are correct.

ATA 32

239. Forward nose landing gear doors open:

a. During nose landing gear motion.
b. When the Nose landing gear is extended and down locked.
c. When the Nose landing gear is retracted up-locked.

240. The landing gear selector valve is located at:

a. At the rear area of the right main landing gear.
b. At the wheel well area of the nose landing gear.
c. At the rear area of the left main landing gear.

26
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR
241. The landing gear control system uses:
a. Hydraulic pressure from the blue system.
b. Hydraulic pressure from the green system.
c. Hydraulic pressure from accumulators.

242. The landing gear selector valve has:

a. 01 solenoid UP.
b. 01 solenoid DWN.
c. 01 solenoid UP, 01 solenoid DWN.

243. The main landing gear free fall assister is:

a. A spring.
b. A pneumatic spring.
c. A hydraulic spring.

244. Antiskid control boxes are located at:

a. Left electronic rack 80VU.
b. Right electronic rack 91VU.
c. Rear area of the left main landing gear.

245. The total of Brake Speed transducers is:

a. 02.
b. 03.
c. 04.

246. The total of Brake Temperature transducers is:

a. 02.
b. 03.
c. 04.

247. When the blue system is switched off, the nose wheels can be towed of:
a. ± 91 ºper side.
b. ± 60 ºper side.
c. ± 90 ºper side.

248. The landing gears light indication system has:

a. 01 system.
b. 02 systems: primary and secondary light indicating system.
c. 03 systems.

249. Do the Antiskid Control Box and Antiskid Module control braking action during
emergency brakes?
a. Emergency brake is not controlled by Antiskid Control Box and Antiskid Module.
b. Emergency brake is controlled by Antiskid Control Box and Antiskid Module.
c. Antiskid Control Box and Antiskid Module control braking sequence all the time.

250. At touchdown, the braking action is inhibited for:

a. 10 seconds maximum, as long as wheel spin up does not exceed 35 kt.
b. 15 seconds maximum, as long as wheel spin up does not exceed 35 kt.
c. 5 seconds maximum, as long as wheel spin up does not exceed 35 kt.

27
ATA-33

251. Which statement is corrected for the colour of navigation lights?

a. Left: Green, right: red, tail: white.
b. Left: red, right: green, tail: white.
c. The same color in the above three positions.

252. The taxi and take–off lights come on when:

a. The taxi and take-off light switch turns on.
b. The lights automatically come on when the landing gear lever is in the down position.
c. The lights come on when the landing gear lever is the in down position and the light
switch is turned on.

253. When the emergency light switch is in the arm position and no power supply for
the aircraft:
a. The outside emergency lights come on.
b. The internal emergency light comes on.
c. Both above are correct.

254. When the emergency light switch in Attendance Panel is in position:

a. The emergency lights only come on if the ON-ARM-DISARM switch in Cockpit is in
the ON position.
b. The emergency lights only come on if the ON-ARM-DISARM switch in Cockpit is in
the ARM position.
c. The emergency lights are on.

255. The light in the Refuel/ Defuel panel is come on:

a. When the light switch in the refuel/ defuel panel turns to an on position.
b. When the light switch in the power receptacle turns in on position.
c. When refuel/defuel panel door opens.

256. If the aircraft power is only supplied by battery:

a. Only Captain side dome light illuminates.
b. Only the First Officer dome light illuminates.
c. Both above.

257. Which statement is NOT correct:

a. Action on the entrance door push button enables AFT and FWD entrances and EXT
signs lighting to illuminate for 2 minutes even if the main battery switch is in the FF
position.
b. There are two entrance door pushbuttons equipped in ATR aircraft.
c. The entrance door and exit sign lighting are supplied by 28VDC Bus 1.

258. The Landing lights are supplied by:

a. 28VDC.
b. 115V ACW.
c. 115 V 400Hz.

ATA-34

259. The heading comparison function of SGU is for:

a. Attitude, Heading.

28
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR
b. Attitude, Heading, ILS.
c. Attitude, Heading, ILS, RA.

260. During the flight, if A/C systems are only supplied by Battery:
a. Captain EFIS are operative.
b. EADIs are operative.
c. Captain EADI is only operative.

261. Overheat condition of EADI and EHSI can be determined by:

a. BITE loaded magnetic indicator.
b. Turn the rotary switch of MFC to the NAV position.
c. All of the above.

262. When SGU #1 failed, transfer to SGU#2 occurs:

a. automatically.
b. by pressing the captain SGU switch.
c. by pressing the F/O SGU switch.

263. Composite Mode of EFIS is operative:

a. One display unit failed (EADI or EHSI), and the other display unit is automatically
transferred to composite mode.
b. One display unit failed; turn off the failed display unit. The other display unit is
transferred to composite mode.
c. All of the above.

264. The flight environment data included:

a. Three pitot probes, three static probes.
b. Three pitot probes, six static probes.
c. One pitot probe, and two static probes.

265. When the dash appeared in TAS/TAT-SAT indicator:

a. The system failed.
b. Invalid data received from ADC.
c. All of the above.

266. If ADC#1 failed:

a. AHRS #1 receives true airspeed from ADC#2 via the ASCB bus.
b. Press ATT/HDG switch in the captain switching panel.
c. The AHRS returns to basic mode.

267. The heading signal from AHRS#1 is supplied for:

a. Captain RMI.
b. F/O RMI.
c. All of the above.

268. The distance of the DME station is displayed at:

a. RMI.
b. EADI.
c. EHSI.

269. The DME system consists of:

a. Two antennas.
29
b. Three antennas.
c. Four antennas.

270. The frequency of ATC is:

a. 1030 MHz and 1090MHz.
b. 1030MHz for interrogation, and 1090 MHz for reply.)
c. 1030 MHz for the reply and 1090 MHz for interrogation.

271. When the transponder is replied to the interrogation signal of the ground
station:
a. The ACT light in the control panel comes on.
b. The ID light in the control panel comes on.
c. The TX light in the control panel comes on.

272. When doing the test mode of ATC, the message DIAG and code 02 appeared in
the control panel:
a. ATC system OK.
b. ATC system showed failure.
c. All of the above.

273. The bearing of the ADF system is:

a. Magnetic Bearing.
b. Relative Bearing.
c. None of the above.

274. The indication of ADF showed at:

a. RMI.
b. EHSI.
c. All of the above.

275. The magnetic bearing of VOR sends to RMI:

a. Via Symbol Generator Unit.
b. RMI received from VOR receiver directly.
c. Via EHSI.

276. The returned target of weather radar is indicated at:

a. EADI.
b. EHSI in full mode.
c. EHSI in arc mode.

277. During the selection of test mode in weather radar:

a. The transceiver transmits, the range is 100 nm and the test display showed.
b. The transceiver is not transmitted, the range is 100nm and the test display showed.
c. All the above.

278. Reset of GPWS Mode 2a occurs:

a. The A/C altitude above terrain 300feet
b. The A/C altitude below the terrain is 300 feet.
c. The A/C altitude above terrain is 500 feet.

279. Mode 6 of GPWS occurs:

a. RA between 1000 ft and 50 ft, Landing Gear down, A/C altitude equal DH.

30
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR
b. RA between 1000 ft and 50 ft, A/C altitude equal DH.
c. RA below 1000 ft, A/C altitude equal DH.

280. Which statement is NOT correct:

a. On the ground or above 1000 ft with gear up, pressing the GPWS-GS switch will
perform the system test.
b. The most important input signal for GPWS computers is RA.
c. There are three GPWS-GS switches.

281. The location of RA antennas:

a. In the top of the fuselage.
b. In the bottom of the fuselage.
c. In the tail section.

282. The indication of the ILS system is shown on the:

a. EADI.
b. EHSI.
c. All of the above.

283. When the testing of ILS receives in the display of the control panel showed four
dashes with code 00:
a. Fault detected during the test.
b. No fault was detected during the test.
c. Invalid signal detected.

284. Location of Glide Slope antenna:

a. In the vertical stabilizer.
b. In the bottom of the fuselage.
c. Inside radome.

285. GPWS receives altitude and airspeed input signals from:

a. ADC #1.
b. ADC #2.
c. Both ADCs.

286. The Glide Slope deviation signal sent to GPWS is from:

a. ILS receiver # 1.
b. ILS receiver # 2.
c. Both ILS receivers.

287. The function of Marker Beacon is integrated into the:

a. VOR/ILS Receiver # 1.
b. VOR/ILS Receiver # 2.
c. VOR/ILS Receivers.

288. The frequency range of the ADF system is:

a. 150KHz – 1500 KHz.
b. 190 KHz – 1750 KHz.
c. 300 KHz – 3000 KHz.

ATA 35

31
289. To test Crew Oxygen the en mask by blinker indication:
a. Press the “PAX SUPPLY” pushbutton switch only.
b. Press the “MAIN SUPPLY” pushbutton switch only.
c. Press both the “PAX SUPPLY” and “MAIN SUPPLY” pushbutton switches.

290. LP (low pressure) pressure switch is located in:

a. Supply manifold.
b. Crew feed stop valve.
c. HP (high pressure) regulator transmitter.

291. The pressure of the oxygen cylinder in the cockpit is determined by:
a. Gauge attached on oxygen cylinder and indicator on overhead panel
b. The indicator on the overhead panel.
c. Indicator on the overhead panel and overboard discharge indicator.

292. The crew fixed oxygen system is used by the flight crew member in the following
conditions:
a. Brutal depressurization; smoke.
b. Brutal depressurization.
c. Brutal depressurization; smoke or noxious gas emission.

293. What is connected to a discharge indicator visible from the outside of the
aircraft?
a. HP overpressure safety system.
b. LP overpressure safety system.
c. Both (a) & (b).

294. When a discharge indicator visible from the outside of the aircraft has a yellow
color, means:
a. Normal.
b. Pressure exceeding occurred.
c. Low pressure occurred.

295. How do you check the oxygen cylinder pressure when the BAT switch is in the
OFF position?
a. Look at a discharge indicator visible from the outside of the aircraft.
b. Look at a direct reading pressure gauge installed on the cylinder.
c. Look at an indicator located on the overhead panel.

296. The oxygen distributor manifold is connected with:

a. The supply system; the crew distribution system; one pneumatic test connector.
b. The supply system; the passenger distribution system; one LP pressure switch.
c. The supply system; the crew and passenger distribution system; one LP pressure
switch; one pneumatic test connector.

297. What is the purpose of the test port assy installed on the distributor manifold?
a. A strength and leakage test of the oxygen systems; cleaning of the oxygen systems.
b. A functional test of the oxygen systems and equipment.
c. Both (a) & (b).

298. How do you supply oxygen to the passenger distribution system?

a. Press the “PAX SUPPLY” pushbutton switch only.

32
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR
b. Press the “MAIN SUPPLY” pushbutton switch only.
c. Press both the “PAX SUPPLY” and “MAIN SUPPLY” pushbutton switches.

ATA 36

299. The “FAULT” light on the air bleed valve pushbutton switch comes on when:
a. Engine is not running, and the relevant air bleed valve push button is in the “ON”
position.
b. Air pressure upstream of the air bleed valve is greater than 80 PSI.
c. Both (a) and (b).

300. On the control panel of the pneumatic system, the “X VALVE OPEN” light
comes on when:
a. Cross feed valve failed.
b. Cross feed valve opens.
c. Both air bleed valves open.

301. The bleed air overtemperature switches give a signal to the OVHT legend on the
caution light when air temperature reaches:
a. 254ْC.
b. 264ْC.
c. 274ْC.

ATA 52

302. The FWD cargo door is:

a.Hinged on the upper side and opens outwards and upward with a nominal travel of 77 º.
b. Hinged on the lower side and opens outwards and downward with a nominal travel
of 87 º.
c.Hinged on the upper side and opens outwards and upward with a nominal travel of 87 º.

303. During opening the FWD cargo door:

a. First, pull down the Latch lock handle and then pull down the Latch handle. The vent
door is opened by the Latch handle.
b. First, pull down the Latch lock handle and then pull down the Latch handle. The vents
door is open by a latch lock handle.
c. First, pull down the latch lock handle and then pull down the Latch handle Vent door is
automatically opened by electrical power.

304. What is the purpose of the viewports located on the lower side of the FWD cargo
door outer skin?
a. To inspect from inside all three latch lock pins.
b. To inspect from outside all three hooks.
c. To inspect from outside all three latch lock pins.

305. During operating the FWD cargo door, the locking action is performed by:
a. Two locking pins machined to engage with the latching hooks in the closed position,
preventing venting the hook’s unlatching rotation.
b. Three locking pins machined to engage with the latching hooks in the closed position,
thus preventing the hook’s unlatching rotation.
c. Four locking pins machined to engage with the latching hooks in the closed position,
thus preventing the hooks from unlatching rotation.
33
306. The Pax door is:
a. Hinged on the upper side and opens outwards and upwards.
b. Hinged on the lower side and opens outwards and downwards.
c. Hinged on the lower side and opens inwards and downwards.

307. The Pax door can be:

a. Closed or opened by electrical power or manual from outside only.
b. Closed or opened manually from aircraft inside or outside.
c. Only closed manually from the aircraft inside and only opened manually from the
aircraft outside.

308. How do you know the Pax door is completely closed when you close this door
from the outside?
a. Look through the viewport located on the lower forward area of the door skin to make
sure that the word” LOCKED” disappears.
b. Look through the viewport located on the lower forward area of the door skin to make
sure that the word” LOCKED” appears.
c. Look through the viewport located on the stair step of the door to make sure that the
word” LOCKED” appears.

309. The service door can be:

a. Closed or opened manually on the inside or outside.
b. Opened from inside or outside and only closed from the inside manually.
c. Closed from inside or outside and only opened from inside manually.

310. Emergency Hatch can be:

a. Opened from aircraft inside or outside and closed from aircraft inside only.
b. Opened and closed from aircraft inside or outside.
c. Opened and closed from aircraft inside.

311. The passenger compartment emergency exit doors can be:

a. Closed or opened manually on the inside or outside.
b. Opened from inside or outside and only closed from the inside man manually.
c. Closed from inside or outside and only opened from inside manually.

ATA 60

312. What is the position of the Np indicator pointer in case of power supply loss:
a. At 0
b. The pointer is stuck at 21%
c. Below 0 to a low stop

313. No Np indicator is supplied by the:

a. 28V DC ESS BUS
b. 28V DC BUS 1 & BUS 2
c. 26V DC STBY BUS

314. The hydraulic supply for a prop. brake is provided by the:

a. Blue hydraulic system
b. Green hydraulic system
c. Both a & b are not correct.

34
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR

315. Propeller Brake operation is controlled and monitored by:

a. MFC
b. PCU
c. AFU

316. The location of the ATPCS selector switch:

a. Electrical center pedestal ENG TEST panel
b. RH console (702VU)
c. Center instrument panel (9VU)

ATA 61

317. Propeller synchro phaser is only operating when:

a. SYNCH switch is pressed when taking off.
b. SYNCH switch is pressed when landing.
c. SYNCH switch is pressed in when cruising.

318. When synchronizing is operating:

a. Torque motor on PCU number 2 acts on the blade angle of propeller number 1.
b. Torque motor on PCU number 1 acts on the blade angle of propeller number 2.
c. Torque motor on PCU number 2 acts on the blade angle of propeller number 2.

319. The propeller synchro phasor is located in:

a. Electronic rack shelf 94VU.
b. Electronic rack shelf 90VU.
c. Electronic rack shelf 80VU.

320. The "LO PITCH" light is on thanks to:

a. Microswitch in the pitch change mechanism.
b. Microswitch in the Overspeed governor.
c. Microswitch in the PCU.

321. When the propeller can be feathered automatically?

a. During take-off.
b. During climb.
c. During Cruize.

322. The automatic feathering system is operational if it is armed:

a. During climb.
b. Before taking off.
c. During cruize.

323. The solenoid in the overspeed governor is for:

a. Controlling the governor.
b. Cut the oil to the governor.
c. The ground tests.

324. If the "LO PITCH" light is on during the flight:

a. Nothing happens.
b. Feather solenoid in PCU is energized.
c. Feathering mechanical valve in PCU opens.
35
325. The green READY light must be on before engaging or releasing the propeller
brake. Conditions for the READY light to be on are:
a. Aircraft on the ground, Gust lock ON, propeller in feather position, blue pressure is
3000psi.
b. Aircraft on the ground, Gust lock ON, CL at FTR position, blue pressure is 3000psi.
c. Aircraft on the ground, Gust lock OFF, propeller in feather position, blue pressure is
3000psi.

326. The Propeller brake is considered engaged if:

a. Only the "PROP PRK" light on the Memo panel is on.
b. Only the "PROP PRK" light on the Propeller brake panel is on.
c. Both a and b are correct.

ATA 71

327. Engine PW124B has a maximum power of:

a. 2200 SHP.
b. 2300 SHP.
c. 2400 SHP.

328. At engine shut down the fuel from nozzle manifolds is drained towards:
a. Drain mast.
b. Drain manifold.
c. Ecological tank.

329. Oil leak through ACW carbon seal is drained towards:

a. Drain mast.
b. Drain manifold.
c. Ecological tank.

ATA 72

330. PW124B installed on ATR-72 is engine of:

a. Three shafts with a free turbine driving the propeller through RGB.
b. Two shafts with an HP shaft driving the propeller through RGB.
c. Three shafts with an HP shaft driving the propeller.

331. PW124B is a engine having:

a. One centrifugal compressor.
b. Two centrifugal compressor.
c. Three centrifugal compressor.

332. On AGB are:

a. Starter-DC generator, ACW generator, oil pump.
b. Starter-DC generator, PCU, oil pump.
c. Starter-DC generator, HP fuel pump, oil pump.

333. Which turbine is not turning during hotel mode?

a. Free turbine.
b. LP turbine.
c. HP turbine.

36
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR

334. On RGB are:

a. ACW generator, PCU, Overspeed governor, feather pump.
b. Starter-DC generator, PCU, oil pump.
c. Starter-DC generator, HP fuel pump, oil pump.

ATA 73

335. Air for fuel regulation is taken from which engine station?
a. 2.5.
b. 3.
c. 6.

336. When the “FUEL CLOG” light is on:

a. HP fuel pump filter is clogged.
b. Fuel heater filter is clogged.
c. Both the HP fuel pump filter and Fuel heater filter are clogged.

337. During flight fuel regulation is controlled by:

a. PL controlling HMU.
b. CL controlling HMU.
c. EEC depending on flight conditions and PL positions.

338. During cruising EEC failed:

a. FAULT light in EEC pushbutton is on.
b. FAULT light in the EEC pushbutton is off.
c. FAULT light in the EEC pushbutton is flashing.

339. EEC controls HMU through:

a. Torque motor.
b. Stepper motor.
c. Control motor.

340. Transfer from EEC mode to manual mode happens when:

a. Automatically when EEC fails.
b. EEC switch is released.
c. Retard PL to the green sector.

341. If one engine fails during take-off:

a. This engine will be feathered while the remaining engine is operating normally.
b. This engine will be shut down by CL and the remaining engine will increase the power
to compensate for the failed engine.
c. This engine will be feathered while the remaining engine will increase the power to
100%.

ATA 74

342. Ignition exciters are located:

a. On the right-hand side of the engine.
b. On the left-hand side of the engine.
c. In the electronic rack in the cockpit.

37
343. Ignition exciters control:
a. Spark plug A or spark plug B depending on the selector switch.
b. Two spark plugs separately through two high-tension leads.
c. Two spark plugs alternately through one high-tension lead.

344. To perform an aural check on ignitor plug A:

a. Open circuit breaker spark plug A.
b. Open circuit breaker spark plug B.
c. Open circuit breaker spark plugs A and B.

ATA 75

345. AC generator ventilation is provided by:

a. Zone 1.
b. Zone 2.
c. Zone 3.

346. DC starter/generator ventilation is provided by:

a. A scoop located in the lateral right opening cowl.
b. A scoop located in the lateral left opening cowl.
c. A scoop located at the top of the opening cowl.

347. Handling Bleed Valve is controlled by:

a. EEC.
b. AFU.
c. FDAU.

ATA 76

348. The white mark (notch) on the center pedestal indicates the power lever position:
a. GI.
b. FI.
c. TO.

349. The microswitches located in the central pedestal microswitch unit are for:
a. Transmitting the power lever angular position only.
b. Transmitting the condition lever angular position only.
c. Transmitting the power lever and condition lever angular position.

350. In case of IDLE GATE system failure:

a. IDLE GATE FAIL annunciator on CAP is on.
b. IDLE GATE FAIL annunciator on a center pedestal is on.
c. IDLE GATE FAIL annunciator Memo panel is on.

ATA 79

351. The oil system supplies oil to:

a. Turbomachinery.
b. Propeller reduction gearbox and control system.
c. Both and b.

352. How to know that the oil filter is clogged?

38
 BANCO DE PREGUNTAS DE CURSO INICIAL DE ATR
a. By indication in the cockpit.
b. By oil low-pressure warning.
c. By pop-out indication on filter body.

353. How many oil filters are there on the engine?

One pressure filter only.
Two: one pressure and one scavenge.
Three: One pressure and two scavenging’s.

354. Engine oil low-pressure warning system is operating when:

a. After the engine started up in the 30s but the oil pressure is less than 40psi.
b. Engine is stopped, advance the CL to FTR position, and let it there for more than the
30s.
c. Both a and b are correct.

355. When is the proper time for an engine oil level check?
a. After the engine shut down, the propeller stopped.
b. After the engine shut down, wait for 15 to 20 min.
c. 1 hour before departure.

ATA 80

356. Starting of the engine is provided by:

a. DC starter/generator.
b. AC starter/generator.
c. Air starter.

357. Starting when NH reaches 45%:

a. ON light in the start pushbutton is on.
b. ON light in the start pushbutton is off.
c. ON light in the start pushbutton is flashing.

358. What is cross-start?

a. Second engine started with power produced by the running engine generator.
b. Second engine started with main and emergency batteries.
c. Second engine started with a battery and power is produced by the running engine
generator.

359. Cross-start can be used:

a. On-ground only.
b. On flight only.
c. On the ground and flight.

360. During flight:

a. Ignitor A is operating.
b. Ignitor B is operating.
c. No ignitor is operating.

361. What does mean engine crank?

a. Stater generator drive HP spool, ignition off.
b. Stater generator drive propeller, ignition off.
c. Stater generator drives HP spool, ignition is on only for 15s.
39
362. What is dry motoring?
a. Cranking with CL in FTR position.
b. Cranking with CL in FUEL SO position.
c. Cranking with PL in FI position.

363. What is wet motoring?

a. Cranking with CL in FTR position.
b. Cranking with CL in FUEL SO position.
c. Cranking with PL in FI position.

364. Dry motoring is used to:

a. Evaporate the remaining fuel in the combustion chamber.
b. Test HP fuel line.
c. Test LP fuel line.

365. Wet motoring is used to:

a. Evaporate the remaining fuel in the combustion chamber.
b. Test HP fuel line.
c. Test LP fuel line.

40