01
01
Topics Covered
Physics: Units and Dimensions, Mathematical Tools, Motion in a Straight Line
Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in
Properties
Mathematics: Basic Mathematics, Sets, Trigonometric Functions, Trigonometric Equation
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 30 questions in each section in which first 20 questions are
compulsory and are of Objective Type and last 10 questions are integer type with answers ranging from ‘0’ to ‘999’
where answer needs to be rounded off to the nearest integer. Only 5 questions have to be attempted out of the last
10 questions of each section.
5. There is only one correct response among 4 alternate choices provided for each objective type question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area
may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
[1]
IMPORTANT CONSTANTS
IMPORTANT VALUES
2 = 1.414 ln 10 = 2.303
3 = 1.732 log102 = 0.3010
5 = 2.236 log103= 0.4770
= 3.142 log107 = 0.845
e (Euler’s constant) = 2.718
[2]
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions smaller)? {[work done] = [p] [time], [force] = [T]
1. The velocity-position graph of a particle moving [length], [h] = [energy] [time]}
in a straight line along x-axis is given below. (1) p, T, h (2) p, h, T
Acceleration of particle at x = 2m is (3) T, p, h (4) T, h, p
[3]
10. A particle with mass m and initial speed V0 is 4a2 4a2
(1) (2)
subjected to a velocity-dependent resistive force (2a2 − a1 ) (a2 − a1 )
of the form bVn. The stopping time t depends on a2 2a2
m, V0, and b. If the relation is of the form (3) (4)
(2a2 − a1 ) (a2 − a1 )
t = Am bV0 where A is pure numeral; powers
15. The frequency of vibration f of a mass m
, , and will be suspended from a spring of spring constant k is
(1) = 1, = –1, = 1– n given by a relation f = cmx ky; where c is a
(2) = 2 – n, = –1, = 2 dimensionless quantity. The value of x and y are.
(3) = 1, = 1, = n – 1 {[Force] = [k] × [displacement]}
(4) = –1, = –1, = 1– n 1
(1) x = , y =
1 1
(2) x = − , y = −
1
2 2 2 2
11. The length of a rod is measured by four different 1 1 1 1
(3) x = , y = − (4) x = − , y =
instruments and the measurements are reported as 2 2 2 2
a. 500.0 mm 16. As shown the displacement–time graph for two
b. 50.0 cm particles A and B are straight lines inclined at
c. 0.500 m angles of 30° and 60° with the time axis. The ratio
d. 5.0 × 10–4 km of velocity of particle A & B (VA : VB) is
We can conclude that
(1) a is most precise measurement
(2) c is most precise measurement
(3) a, c and b are equally precise measurements
(4) The precision of all the measurements is the
same
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1: 3
12. If the sides of a rectangle are 45.1 cm and (3) 3 :1 (4) 1 : 3
2.32 cm, what is the perimeter correct to
significant digits? 17. Imagine a system of units in which the unit of
(1) 94.84 cm (2) 94.8 cm mass is 100 kg, length is 1 km and time is 1
(3) 95 cm (4) 94.862 cm minute. Then 1 joule in this system is equal to
(1) 360 new units
13. Satement-1: All instrumental errors are random (2) 3.6 new units
(3) 36 × 105 new units
errors.
(4) 36 × 10–6 new units
Statement-2: Some of the readings taken using
an instrument may be more and some of the 18. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Assuming the
readings may be lesser than the actual value of the air resistance to be constant in magnitude and
physical quantity. considerable:
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and is (1) the time of ascent the time of descent
correct explanation of statement-1 (2) the time of ascent < the time of descent
(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true but is (3) the time of ascent > the time of descent
not a correct explanation of statement-1 (4) the time of ascent = the time of descent
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true 19. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level
of water is h distance below the top of the well. If
14. The acceleration-time (a-t) curves for two bodies v is velocity of sound, the time T after which the
A and B starting from rest are shown in the figure. splash is heard after the drop, is given by.
Body A achieves maximum velocity Vm and body 2h
(1) T =
B achieves maximum velocity Vm/2. Find the v
value of time t in terms of a1 and a2: 2h h
(2) T = +
g v
2h h 2 gh
(3) T = +
v 2v 2
h 2h
(4) T = +
2g v
[4]
20. Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap 6 pb d c
m above the ground. The third drop is leaving the according to relation v = . Find the value of
la
tap at the instant the first drop touches the ground.
(a + b + c)
How far above the ground is the second drop at
that instant?
25. If x denotes the position of a particle then,
(1) 1.25 m
dx x
(2) 2.50 m = a n sin −1 − 1
2ax − x 2 a
(3) 3.75 m
(4) 4.5 m Find the value of n.
(a is a physical constant of appropriate
Integer Type Questions dimensions and all other integers used is equation
21. The relation between time t and distance x moved are dimension less)
by a particle is t = x2 + βx where and are
26. In a new system, the unit of mass is made 10
constants. The magnitude of retardation (if v
times, the unit of length is made 1/100 times and
represents velocity) is equal to |nv3|. Value of n
unit of time is made 10 times. Magnitude of 1J in
is equal to
the new system of unit is 10x. What is the value of
x?
22. Two cyclists, A and B, are moving on a straight
road in the same direction, both at constant
27. A man standing in a lift throws a ball at t = 0,
velocity 15 km/h with cyclist B 100 m behind
with a speed of 24 m/s in upward direction
cyclist A. A man is walking at constant velocity 5
relative to lift and lift is moving upwards with an
km/h on the same road in the same direction as
acceleration a = 2 m/s2. Find the time t (in
the cyclists. At t = 0, A overtakes the man. Then,
seconds) when ball comes back to man. {Take g =
B overtakes the man at t = ________seconds.
10 m/s2}. {Assume the ball does not hit the roof
of lift}.
23. Two trains, which are moving along different
tracks in opposite directions towards each other,
28. The position x of a particle with respect to time t
are put on the same track due to a mistake. Their
along x-axis is given by x = 9t2 – t3 where x is in
drivers, on noticing the mistake, start slowing
metres and t in seconds. What will be the position
down the trains when the trains are 300 m apart.
(in metre) of this particle when it achieves
Graphs given below show their velocities as
maximum speed along the + x direction?
function of time as the trains slow down. The
separation between the trains (in m), when both
29. In a vernier callipers 9 divisions of it's main scale
have stopped is :
v(m/s) match with 10 divisions on its vernier scale. Each
40 division of the main scale is of 20 units. Least
20 count of apparatus is x units. Value of x is equal
t(s) to _____.
Train I 10
v(m/s) 30. The acceleration-time graph of a particle moving
in a straight line is as shown in figure. The
velocity of the particle at time t = 0 is 2 m/s. The
8 velocity (in m/s) of the particle at t = 2 s, is ____.
t(s)
Train II a(m/s2)
–20
4
24. Frequency of sound that can be produced by a
pipe depends on length (l) of the pipe, t(s)
1 2
atmospheric pressure (p) and density (d) of air,
[5]
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 36. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second
31. If 0 is the threshold wavelength for photoelectric Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is (a0 is Bohr
emission from a metal surface, is the radius)
wavelength of light falling on the surface of h2
(1)
metal and m is the mass of electron, then the 42 ma 02
maximum speed of ejected electrons is given by
h2
1/2 (2)
2h 162 ma 02
(1) ( 0 − )
m
h2
1/2 (3)
2hc 322 ma 02
(2) ( 0 − )
m
h2
1/2 (4)
2hc 0 − 642 ma 02
(3)
m 0
1/2 37. Generally commercial hydrochloric acid is
2h 1 1
(4) − prepared by heating NaCl with concentrated
m 0 H2SO4. How much H2SO4 solution containing
93.0% H2SO4 by mass is required for the
32. At one time, the meter was defined as production of 1000 kg of concentrated
1650763.73 wavelength of the orange light hydrochloric acid solution containing 43% HCl by
emitted by a light source containing 86Kr atoms. weight?
(1) 590.0 kg solution of H2SO4.
What is the corresponding photon energy of this
(2) 310.3 kg solution of H2SO4.
radiation?
(3) 620.7 kg solution of H2SO4.
(1) 3.28 × 10–19 J/quanta (4) 708.2 kg solution of H2SO4.
(2) 1.2 × 10–31 J/quanta
(3) 1.09 × 10–27 J/quanta 38. Following sequential reaction is used to prepare
(4) 2.048 J/quanta NaOH.
4Na + O2 → 2Na2O
33. The speed of electron revolving around H- Na2O + H2O → 2 NaOH
nucleus is 0.547 × 106 m/s. The distance of The amount of Na required to prepare 16 g of
electron from the nucleus is NaOH is
(1) 2.116 Å (2) 4.761 Å (1) 13.8 g (2) 4.6 g
(3) 8.464 Å (4) 0.529 Å (3) 18.4 g (4) 9.2 g
34. The wavelengths of the first Lyman lines of 39. Which one of the following pairs of formulae
hydrogen, He+ and Li2+ ions are 1, 2, 3 correctly describes the molecular formula-
respectively. The ratio of these wavelengths is empirical formula relationship?
(1) 1 : 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4 : 1 (1) C3H6O, CH2O
(3) 36 : 9 : 4 (4) 6 : 3 : 2 (2) C4H8O2, C2H4O
(3) C4H12O2, C2H3O
35. Rutherford’s experiment, which established the (4) C2H6, CH2
nuclear model of the atom, used a beam of
(1) β-particles, which impinged on a metal foil 40. When some amount of solute is added to 800 g of
and got absorbed H2O (solvent) , mole fraction of solute is
(2) γ-rays, which impinged on a metal foil and 1 1
changed from to . The ratio of molality of
got scattered 4 2
(3) Helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal initial solution before addition and final solution
foil and got scattered after addition of solute will be:
(4) None of these (1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 4
[6]
41. A liquid is having density of 1.2 g/mL. If there 46. Higher first ionisation energy is represented by
are 35 drops present in 2 mL of the liquid, the first member of which of the following pair?
number of molecules present in one drop of the (1) N, O (2) B, Be
liquid is: (It is given that the liquid has molar (3) Al, Ga (4) Cl, F
mass 70 g/mol)
1 1
2
1.2 47. An element of modern periodic table has
(1) NA (2) NA electronic configuration of 18[Ar] 3d5 4s2. It
1.2 35 35
should be placed in :
1.2
(3) NA (4) 1.2 NA (1) 5th group, d-block
(35) 2
(2) 2nd group, s-block
(3) 1st group, s-block
42. Consider two samples of HCl having molarity 1 (4) 7th group, d-block
M and 0.25 M. What volumes of these samples
should be taken, in respective order, to prepare 48. Select the incorrect statement about helium.
0.75 M HCl solution? (1) The first ionization energy of helium is
(1) 20 ml and 10 ml highest among noble gases.
(2) 50 ml and 35 ml (2) The first electron gain enthalpy of helium is
(3) 50 ml and 20 ml positive.
(4) 100 ml and 60 ml (3) Helium belongs to a group of elements,
which are largest in size in respective
43. Consider the following statements period.
Statement-I: All Isoelectronic species have same (4) The last electron of helium enters in 1s
size. orbital, so it is placed along with the s-block
Statement-II: Isoelectronic species may contain elements in modern periodic table.
different electrons
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is 49. Match the atoms/ions with their corresponding
correct electron affinity values. (eV/atom).
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is Column-I Column-II
incorrect. A F P 3.4
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct B F+ Q 17.4
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are C Cl R 13
incorrect. D Cl+ S 3.6
A B C D
44. Among the statements given in the options, the (1) P R S Q
incorrect statement is (2) Q P S R
(1) First ionisation energies of elements along a (3) P Q S R
period sometimes vary in an irregular (4) R P Q S
manner with the increase in atomic number.
(2) Non–metallic elements are lesser in number 50. 300 g of 40% (w/w) NaOH aqueous solution is
as compared to metallic elements. mixed with 400 g of 30% (w/w) NaOH aqueous
(3) The chemical properties of elements are solution. The mass of solvent (in g) in the final
periodic function of their atomic numbers as solution is
per modern periodic law. (1) 260 (2) 560
(4) For transition elements, the d–subshells are (3) 460 (4) 360
filled with electrons monotonically with
increase in atomic number. Integer Type Questions
51. An element with IUPAC symbol ‘Unq’ belongs
45. Which one of the following arrangements is to group number ________.
incorrect w.r.t. the mentioned periodic property?
(1) Rb+ < Br– < Se2–: Ionic size 52. An element of group 18 has total s, p and d
(2) S > Se > Te > Po > O: | 1st Electron gain electrons equal to x, y and z respectively. If x + z =
enthalpy| y, then period number of element is____. (Assume
(3) Al > K > Mg > B: Metallic character z 0)
(4) Al < B < Cl < O < F: Electronegativity
[7]
53. Calculate the sum of "Code numbers" of all the 57. A sample of hydrogen atoms containing all the
cases in which correct order of the mentioned atoms in a particular excited state absorb
parameter is represented. radiations of a particular wavelength by which
the atoms get excited to another excited state.
S. No. Order Parameter Code When the atoms finally de-excite to the ground
Number state, they emit the radiations of 10 different
1. Na < Cl < F Electronegativity 28 wavelengths. Out of these 10 radiations, 7 have
2. Metallic 53 wavelengths shorter than the absorbed radiation
Be < Mg < Na
character and 2 have wavelength longer than the absorbed
3. Al3+ > Mg2+ Ionic radius 14
radiation. The orbit number for the initial excited
4. O < F < Cl 1 |ΔegH|
st 8
state of atoms is x, find the value of x.
5. Cl2O7 > Basic nature of 59
Al2O3 > Na2O oxide 58. The diameter of a dust particle of mass 10–3 g is 2
Å. The speed of this dust particle is measured
54. Average atomic mass of magnesium is 24.31 3.313
a.m.u. This magnesium is composed of 79 mole with the uncertainty of 10−3 m/s. The
% of 24Mg and remaining 21 mole % of 25Mg and minimum uncertainty in measuring the position
26
Mg. Calculate mole % of 26Mg. of the dust particle (in order of 10–26 m) is y. Find
the value of y
55. 1 g of a mixture of equal number of moles of
Li2CO3 and M2CO3 required 44.44 ml of 0.5 M 59. The circumference of the second orbit of an atom
HCl for completion of the following reactions. or ion having single electron is 4 nm. The de
Li2CO3 + 2HCl → 2LiCl + H2O + CO2 Broglie wavelength of electron (in nm) revolving
M2CO3 + 2HCl → 2 MCl + H2O + CO2 in this orbit is x, then determine the value of x
If the atomic mass of Li is 7, then find the
Atomic mass of M. Report (M – 16) 60. The Schrodinger wave equation for hydrogen
r0
r0 − a 0
3/2
1 1
56. A piece of Al weighing 27 g is reacted with 200 atom is 2s = 2 − e ,
ml of H2SO4 (specific gravity = 1.8 and 54.5 % 4 2 a 0 a 0
by weight) After the metal is completely where a0 is Bohr’s radius. If the radial node of 2s
dissolved 73 g HCl is added and solution is r
be at r0, then the value of 0 is_____.
further diluted to 500 ml solution. The a0
concentration of H+ ion in the final solution is
____ M.
SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 63. In triangle ABC, angle A is greater than B. If the
61. The number of elements in A B, if measures of angles A and B satisfy the equation
A = ( a, b ) : a 2 + 3b 2 = 28, a, b Z and 4 cos3 x – 3 cos x = k, k∈[–1, 1] ∼ {0}, then the
2
B = {( a, b ) : a b, a, b Z } and Z denotes set of measure of angle C is A
3
all integers, is
(1) 12 (1) (2)
6 3
(2) 10
2
(3) 8 (3) (4)
2 3
(4) 6
62. If x = sin 130° cos 80°, y = sin 80° cos 130°, 64. If a N = a x : x N and 15 N 6 N = d N ,
z = 1 + xy, which of the following is true? then least value of d is
(1) x > 0, y > 0, z > 0 (1) 30
(2) x > 0, y < 0, 0 < z < 1 (2) 11
(3) x > 0, y < 0, z > 1 (3) 10
(4) x < 0, y < 0, z < 1 (4) 15
[8]
65. Range of the function 71. If a + b + c = 0, a2 + b2 + c2 = 2 then a 4 + b 4 + c 4
f ( x) = sin 4 x(1 + sin 2 x) + cos 4 x(1 + cos 2 x) is is equal to
3 (1) 1 (2) 6
(1) [0, 2] (2) 0, (3) 5 (4) 2
4
3 3 5
(3) , 2 (4) , 72. If 3 cos x + 2 cos 3 x = cos y, 3 sin x + 2 sin 3x =
4 4 4 sin y, then the value of cos 2x is
1
66. If a cos3 A + 3a cos A sin2 A = m and a sin3 A + (1) –1 (2)
8
3a cos2 A sin A = n. Then (m + n)2/3 + (m – n)2/3 is 1 7
equal to (3) − (4)
8 8
(1) 2a2 (2) 2a1/3
2/3
(3) 2a (4) 2a3 73. Number of solutions of the equations sin4x –
tan4x = 1 in the interval [0, 2) is
67. Let Z denote the set of integers, then (1) Zero (2) 1
x Z : x − 3 4 x Z : x − 4 5 = (3) 2 (4) 3
(1) −1,0,1, 2,3, 4
74. If P, Q are set defined as follows
−1,0,1, 2,3, 4,5,6,7
(2)
P = ( x, y ) | y = x 3 , x R
(3) 0,1, 2,3, 4,5,6
Q = ( x, y ) | y =| x |, x R
(4) −1,0,1, 2,3,5,6,7,8,9
Then correct statement is
(1) n (P Q) = 1 (2) n (P Q) = 0
68. Consider equation |x – 4 | + |2x + 3| = k. Match
(3) n (P Q) = 2 (4) n (P Q) = 3
the following
Column-I Column-II
−x
A If k > 11/2, then P no solution ( x − 3) x ( x − 4 )2 (17 − x )
( )
75. If < 0 then no. of
B If k = 11/2, then Q one solution − x − x 2 + x − 1 ( x − 32 )
C If k < 11/2, then R two solutions integers x satisfying the inequality is:
(1) 29 (2) 30
D If k = 11, then S infinite solutions (3) 31 (4) 32
A B C D
(1) R S P R 76. Given log10 2 = a and log10 3 = b. If 3x+2 = 45,
(2) S Q P P 1− a
then the value of is equal to
(3) R Q R S b
(4) R Q P R (1) x/2
(2) x
(3) 2x
C C
69. If A + B + C = and sin A + = k sin , then (4) x/6
2 2
A B
tan tan = 77. Complete set of values of ‘x’ satisfying:
2 2
2x
k −1 k +1 −1 4 are
(1) (2) x −1
k +1 k −1
(1) x −, (1, )
1
k k +1
(3) (4) 3
k +1 k
(2) x −, (2, )
1
70. The value of cot x + cot (60° + x) + cot (120° + 3
[9]
84. The sum of all real values of x satisfying the
78. If x + 3 − 4 x − 1 + x + 8 − 6 x − 1 = 1, then 2
+ 4 x − 60
complete solution set of equation is equation ( x 2 − 5 x + 5) x = 1 is
(1) {5, 10} (2) (1, )
(3) [5, 10] (4) [1, 5) 85. The value of the expression
3 7 9
If x2y + y2z + z2x = 2022; x2z + y2x + z2y = 2020. 1 + cos 1 + cos 1 + cos 1 + cos
79. 10 10 10 10
Then value of (x − y)3 + (y − z)3 + (z − x)3 is 1
is P, then value of is
equal to P
(1) −3 (2) −6
(3) −9 (4) 3 86. If sum of roots of 3 cos x − sin x = 2 in [0, 4]
1 − ka 2 tan140 − tan130
83. If = where a=tan 40°
2a 1 + tan140 tan130
then absolute value of k is
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[10]