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PROGRAMMER EXAM : 2013

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 1 How many numbers lie between 300 and 500 in which 4 comes only one
time ?
1y 98 2 9
(3) 100 @ 101
300 T 500 % drg fepert Tt wed el e 4 Few @ a) s ?
(1) 98 2 9
(3) 100 @ 101

2 Three views of a cube following a particular motion are given below :

R S Q
P Ay u

What is the letter opposite to P ?

1 s @ T
3) R @ u
oF o F d fufe ol @ AR g o s wer & R man ¥
R s Q
P Q 1y " u >

P oat % foaufg ser dm A ¥ ?

n s @ T
) R @ v

3 Given that :
(i) L is the brother of M (i) N is the father of L
(iii) O is the brother of P (iv) P is the daughter of M
Then the uncle of O is -

mn L 2 M
@) N . @) P
R & -
(i) L M#H aE? (i) N, L@ frn ¥
(i) O, P 9 ¥ (ivy PM#
g ¥
€ 0% @ren & - ‘
I L 2 M
(3) N @ P
01/PROG-1_A | 2 [Contd...

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4 If a car moves from Jaipur to Delhi at a speed of 60 knvhr and comes back
from Delhi to Jaipur at a speed of 40 km/hr. What is the average speed
during the journey ?
(1) 46 km/hr (2) 48 km/hr
(3) 50 km/hr (4) 52 kmvhr
Tft we X Ay & feedt 60 Redi/aver Y o & T ¥, e ad F e
& T 40 fadiaver & ae & ol ¥ 1 A % A B B slved = @
¥ 7
(1) 46 fEd/aoa (2) 48 fEdymoa
(3) 50 fardyave 4) 52 fadiyaver

5 Statement 1f P = x% of y
Q= y% of x.
Then which of the following is true based on statement ?
1y rP>0Q 2y P<Q
3Gy P=0Q (4) None of these
wad dfg P =y @ %
Q = x & Yo
|1 e & gt fret F & @ wm o 7
M r>0 @ pP<0
3y P=0 (4) T ¥ B TE

6 The numbers follow a specific pattern. The missing number is -

84 81 88
14 12 18 9 2 11
VRN C R
(1 8 2 12
(3) 16 @) 22
e gEd us fady wer ¥ fad g R, ersna
denr @l -
84 81 88
14 12 18 9 201
(i (i) (i)
(1 8 2 12
(3) 16 @ 22
01/PROG-1_A] 3 [Contd...

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 . The remainder obtained when a prime number greater than 6 is divisible by
6is:
() lor3 () 3ors
@B) 2o0r5 @ lors
6 € oy Fem B 6 ¥ fawie F W Sahe e g -
(1) 173 (2 3@s
(3) 2@s @ 1S

8 The total population in a city is 40,000. The various sections of them are
indicated below in the circle diagram :

I
1A%
- Employed in public sector I - Employed in private sector
M - Employed in corporate sector IV - Self employed
V- Unemployed.
The number of persons employed in corporate sector is -
(1) 3,000 d (2) 6,000
(3) 8,000 (4) 9,000
TS I B TAEET 40,000 ¥1 37 fafi wEl @ A Ry 1 9w e
o gy ¥

I - gt
& ¥ e
/Y ] Pt &= & sRa
m - fofie & ¥ e IV - e
Vo - e
Pt a9 & oy sl @Y den ¥ -
(1) 3,000 (2) 6,000
(3) 8,000 4) 9,000
01/PROG-1_A ) 4 (Contd...

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 9 In the following number series, one number is wrong. Find the Odd number
2, 6, 24, 96, 285, 568, 567
(1) 24 (2) 9
(3) 285 4y 567
Frafafen den e § b den Twa ¥, e () gen ¥ -
2, 6, 24, 96, 285, 568, 567
1) 24 @) 9
(3) 285 4) 567

10 Given a question and two statements numbered 1 and I1 are following. Give
answer as -

(1) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(2) If the data in statement 1I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(3) If the data even in both statement I and II together is sufficient to
answer the question.
(4) If the data neither statement I nor statement 11 is sufficient to ‘answer
the question.
Question : What is the sum of 5 real numbers ?
Statements : () The product of the numbers is 630.

(0) The average of the numbers is 30.

e Wy dur &Y wes (1T 11) R 7T ¥ ) syl § Suws aiEsl b ongR W

TY
(1) afE ug7 @ IO 3 & T O e [ & & Siss v ¥
(2) aft weT @1 waT 3 F g w wET 0 F A eies waiw ¥
(3) o weT &1 T A & Y HeE 1 &R 11 ST % siids et waie
¥
() afg =1 e 1ol T & wu 11 & HiES YT &b Iax a § At
%
g S Areifuds GEell e Qv @ g 7
Fo () el w uEha 630 B
() s & i 30 ¥

01/PROG-1_A] 5 [Contd...

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 11 The Chief of Army staff of India is - )

(1) Bikram Singh (2) Bimal Kumar

(3) V. K. Singh (4) D. K. Joshi

T P I g -
() fem e @ faw g
@) @ *. fie @) = F e

12 The Agni-IV Missile was tested on -

(1) November, 2012 (2) September, 2012

(3) December, 2010 (4) September, 2010

siftg-1v frange &1 wderr fear @ -

(1) +a=, 2012 (2) fa@mz, 2012
(3) fmew, 2010 4) faa=y, 2010

13 Who first used the word Swaraj ?

(1) Ram Mohan Roy ~ (2) Ram Krishna Paramhansa

(3) Swami Dayanand (4) S N. Banerjee
fee Tefwem @O 9= B g R ?
(1) ™ HrewT W (2) T FO TR
(3) @l T@EE (4) TE. TA. T

14 How many persons have been honoured with Bharat Ratna till now ?

(1) 60 @ 4
@) 61 - @ 43
fhe @i @ anf de 9w T @ wEhE fea k7
1y 60 @) 41
@) 6l : @ 43
01/PROG-1_A | 6 [Contd...
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15 Hawa Mahal at Jaipur was constructed by -

(1) Man Singh (2) Ram Singh

(3) Pratap Singh (4) Jai Singh

R fRed samew & el s -

[ORE LY @) e
() vamtE (4) wmafie

16 The total length of roads in Rajasthan in March, 2012 was -

(1) 189402 km. (2) 199502 km.

(3) 170402 km, (4) 155372 km.

nrd, 2012 d% TSN ¥ wSH 1 Fo @ @t —

(1) 189402 fgm. (2) 199502 fest.

(3) 170402 fRdY. . @) 155372 T

17 When the MGNREGA' first Jaunched in Rajasthan ?

(1) 2% Feb. 2006 (@) 2% May, 2007

(3) 15 April, 2008 (4) 2 Feb. 2009

TERIE A0 GEYGH b W @ T ?

(1) 2%, 2006 (2) 2w, 2007

@) 1w, 2008 (4) 2w%tEdl, 2009

01/PROG-1_A] 7 [Contd...
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 18 The Mangarh Dham is situated in the district -

(1) Dungarpur (2) Udaipur

(3) - Chittorgarh (4) Banswara

e am form B 7 fug & -

(1) FIRE (2) @R

¢) fdems (4) <

19 The Tenth Pravasi Bhartiya Divas Conclave was held at -

(1) Ajmer (2) New Delhi

(3) Mumbai (4) Jaipur

qgal warlt wRdr faw wreed e e -

(1) oER @ & e

@) =% (4) TR

20 The amount fixed for the Chief Minister scholarship for higher education in
Rajasthan is -

(1) ¥ 5,000 @) % 6,000

(3) T 7,000 (4) T 8,000

T wed fren ¥ gersh segf e ¥ Preifa ofn

(1) 5,000 ) 6,000

(3) T 7,000 (@) T 8,000

01/PROG-1_A | 8 [Contd...
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21 Which one of the following problems can occur due to introducing locks in
a concurrent transaction scenario?

(1) Information overwrite (2) Loss of information

(3) Deadlock (4) Lack of integrity

22 Which one of the following techniques is sometimes used to solve integrity

problems in a concurrent transaction scenario?

(1) First-come first-served (2) Greedy algorithms

(3) Strassens's algorithm (4) Two-phase locking

23 In transaction, cascade rollback

(1) Can occur in systems which use deferred writeback

(2) Can occur in systems which use immediate writeback

(3) Occurs in systems which use the "waterfall" transaction

management system

(4) Ts a result of simultaneous transaction commits.

24 Given a relation country(name, continent, population) which of the following

is a valid SQL statement?

(1) SELECT continent, population FROM country GROUP BY continent

(2) SELECT continent, SUM(population) FROM country GROUP BY

continent

(3) SELECT name, population FROM country GROUP BY continent

(4) SELECT name, SUM(population) FROM country GROUP BY

continent

01/PROG-1_A | 9 [Contd...
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 25 An athletics meeting involves several competitors who participate in a number
of events. The database is intended to record who is to take part in which
event and to record the outcome of each event. As results become available
the winner attribute will be updated with the cid of the appropriate competitor.

Competitor(cid, name, nationality) s

Event(eid, description, winner)

Competes(cid, eid)

Competitor Event Competes|

cid [ name | nationality | |eid | description | winner | | cid | eid
01 | Pat British 01 | running 01 | 01
02 | Hilary | British 02 | jumping 02 | 01
03 | Sven [ Swedish 03 | throwing 03 | 02
04 | Pierre | French 04 | 02
04 | 03

Select the true statement :

(1) There is a British competitor in every event.

(2) Pierre does not compete in any event

(3) Sven has been ent~ered in two events

(4) . Hilary has entered only the running event

01/PROG-1_A] 10 [Contd...

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 26 An athletics meeting involves several competitors who participate in a number
of events. The database is intended to record who is to take part in which
event and to record the outcome of each event. As results become available
the winner attribute will be updated with the cid of the appropriate competitor.

Competitor(cid, name, nationality)

Event(eid, description, winner)

Competes(cid, eid)

Competitor Event Competes

cid | name | nationality | | eid | description | winner | | cid | eid
01 | Pat British 01 | running 01 | 01
02 | Hilary | British 02 [ jumping 02 | 01
03 | Sven | Swedish 03 | throwing 03 | 02
04 | Pierre | French 04 | 02
04 | 03

Identify the result of the following SQL statement :

SELECT eid FROM Competes, Competitor

WHERE Competes.cid=Competitor.cid

AND nationality = 'Swedish'

(1 o1 2) 02

(3) 03 ) o4
01/PROG-1_A] 1 [Contd...

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 27 Relation C is a projection of relation A. Which of the following statements
must be true in all cases where relation C is different from relation A?

(1) The cardinality of C is greater than the cardinality of A

(2) The cardinality of C is less than the cardinality of A

(3) The arity of C is greater than the arity of A

(4) The arity of C is less than the arity of A

28 When the referential integrity rule is enforced, which one is usually not a
valid action in response to the deletion of a row that contains a primary key
value referenced elsewhere?

(1) Do not allow the deletion

(2) Accept the deletion without any other action

(3) Delete the related rows

(4) Set the foreign keys of related rows to null

29 When an equi-join is performed on a table of N rows and a table of M rows,

the resulting table has the following number of rows :

1 ™M
(2 N
(3) The smaller of M or N

(4) A number in the range 0 to M*N

30 Inan SQL query that gets its data from two tables, and where the keywords
WHERE, GROUP, ORDER and HAVING appear, which operation is
performed before the other ones?

(1) Restriction on WHERE conditions

(2) Restrictions on HAVING conditions

(3) ORDER BY

(4) Sort on GROUP BY

01/PROG-1_A] 12 [Contd...

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31 A Trigger is
(1) A statement that enables to start any DBMS
(2) A statement that is executed by the user when debugging an application
program
(3) A condition the system tests for the validity of the database user
(4) - A statement that is executed automatically by the system as a side
effect of modification to the database

32 With regard to the expressive power of the formal relational Query Languages
which of the following statements is TRUE ?
(1) Relational algebra is more powerful than relational calculus.
(2) Relational algebra has the same power as relational calculus.
(3) Relational algebra has the same power as safe relational calculus.
(4) None of these

33 In SQL, relation can contain nujl values, and comparisons with nuli values
are treated as unknown suppose all comparisons with a null value are treated
as false.
Which of the following pairs is not equivaiem"

(1) x =5 not (not (x = 5))

(2) x=5x>4and x <6, where x is an integer

() x # Snot(x=5)
(4) none of these

34 The SQL expression

Select distinct T. branchname from branch T, branch S where T.

assets > S. assets and S. branchcity = “XYZ”
Finds the names of
(1) All branches that have greater assets than some branch located in XYZ
(2) All branches that have greater assets than all branches located in XYZ
(3) The branch that has the greatest asset in XYZ
(4) Any branch that has greater asset than any branch located in XYZ

01/PROG-1_A | 13 [Contd...

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 35 Let R = (A, B, C, D, E, F) be a relation scheme with the following
dependencies :

C->FE-SAEC—H>DA—>B

Which of the following is a key for R?

() CD (2) EC

(3) AE @) AC

36 Consider the schema R = (S T U V) and the dependencies S — T,

T—>U,U—>VandV - S. Let R = (Rl and R2) be a decomposition such
that Rl N R2 = ¢. The decomposition is

(1) not in 2 NF (2) in 2 NF but not in 3 NF

(3) in 3 NF but not in 2 NF (4) in both 2 NF and 3 NF

37 A functional dependency of the form x — y is trivial if

(1) ycx @) ycx

3) xgcvy (4 xcyandy
< x

38 ° Given the functional dependencies.

X2 w, x>y y—>zand
z - pq

Which of the following does not hold good?

1M x>z 2 w-oz
3B) x> wy (4) None of these

39 Consider Join of a relation R with a relation S. If R has m tuples

and S has n tuples, then maximum and minimum sizes of the Join respectively
are

(1) m+nand 0 (2) mnand 0

(3) m+nand [mn| (4) mnandm+n

01/PROG-1_A] 14 [Contd...

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 40 For two union compatible relations R; (A, B) and R, (C, D), what is the
result of the operation R; A=C AB=D R, ?
(1) R,UR, (@) RpR,
() RiR, 4) R,NR,

41 A primary key, if combined with a foreign key creates

(1) Parent child relationship between the tables that connect them.
(2) Many-to-many relationship between the tables that connect them
(3) Network model between the tables connect them
(4) None of these

42 The employee's salary should not be more than Rs. 6000. This is
(1) Integrity constraint (2) Referential constraint
(3) Over-defined constraint (4) Feasible constraint

43 A relational model which allows non-atomic domains is

(1) Nested relational data model (2) Non-atomic data model
(3) Hierarchical data model (4) None of these

44 1f adjacency relation of vertices in a graph is represented in a table Adj(x.y).

then which of the following Queries cannot be expressed by a relational
algebra expression of constant length ?
(1) List all vertices adjacent to given vertex
(2) List all vertices which have self-loops
(3) List all vertices which belong to cycle of less than three vertices
(4) List all vertices reachable from a given vertex

45 Which of the following is true of the data manipulation language (DML) ?

(1) It refers to data using physical addresses *
(2) It cannot interface with high-level programming language
(3) It is used to define the physical characteristics of each record
(4) None of these
01/PROG-1_A | T [Contd...

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 46 Using relational algebra, the query that finds customers, who have a balance
of over 3000 is

M ’T_cusloum_mm\c (o ha|unte>.‘~("f!!,‘(De|)°Sit))

(2) 6 cusiomer_mimel O balanees3000(DepOsit))

() =© cuslmncr_nm'flc( O halance>3000(BOITow))

@ o cuslumcr‘_numc( T lmlnnce>3()0()(B orTow))

47 Embedded pointer provides a/an

(1) Secondary access path (2) Physical record key
(3) lInverted index (4) Al of these

48 The physical locations of a record is determined by a mathematical formula

that transforms file key into a record location in a/an

(1) B-tree file (2) Indexed file

(3) Hashed file 4) All these

49 Minimum number of record movements required to merge five files A (with

10 records), B (with 20 records), C (with 15 records), D (with 5 records) and
E (with 25 records) is
) 165 2) 90
Gy 75 @) 65

50 Which command allows us to add to our database file ?

(1) CLEAR (2) CREATC

(3) APPEND (4) APPEND BLANK

51 Which of the following commands permanently delete the record marked for
deletion from the data base field?
(1) PACK () ZAP
(3) SEEK (4) SKIP

01/PROG-1_A | 16 [Contd...

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 52 A relational database which is in 3NF may still have undesirable data
redundancy becausc there may exist

(1) Transitive functional dependencies.

(2) "Non-trivial functional dependencies involving prime attributes and the

right side

(3) Non-trivial functional dependencies involving prime attributes only on

the left side.

(4) Trivial functional dependencies involving number of attributes.

53 Data security threats include

(1) Privacy invasion (2) Hardware failure

(3) Fraudlent manipulation of data (4) All of these

54 Which of the following queries finds the clients of banker xyz and the city
they live in ?

(1) T gientcusiomer_name customer_citel O client customer-

numu=cuslomcr.cuslomergmmc( 5Bnnkerin:\mc:‘\y‘[‘(c“em * Customer)))

(2) TEL;usmmcl?nfln\cvc|l.¢lomcr4cil.\'(GB.l|\ker7mmc¢"Wl<Chent % Customer))

(G) = clicn{,l;\|slO|I\L‘17mImc,cuslnmur7e|l'v( O Ranker_name= (6 client customer-

vmmc=cnslomcrcusmmcr_name(C[‘em » Customer)))

(4) T Customer_name Customer_city( O Banker_name="xyz"(Client ¥ Customer))

55 If P and Q are predicates and P is the relational algebra expression, then

which of the following equivalence are valid ?

(1) (aplage) = 6(cp(e) @) (ap(oge) = apuqe)

(3) (op(ape) = ople) (4) None of these

. 01/PROG-1_A| 17 [Contd...

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 56 Find the correct match for terms in Column I to those in Column IT :
Column 1 Column IT
a Roll back P Relationship
b Atomicity Q Checkpoint
c Entity R Attribute
d Domain S Transaction
(1) a-8§, b-P c-R, d-Q
) a-Q b-8S, c-P d-R
3) a-8§, b-Q, c-R, d-P
@ a-Q b-P c-R, d-S

§7 Consider a weak entity set ¥ and its identifying (owner) entity set O. Primary
key of W is composed of
(1) Discriminator of # and primary key of O
(2) Superkey of W and primary key of O
(3) Discriminator of W and foreign key of O
(4) Superkey of W and foreign key of O

58 Which of the following is an assertion in DBMS?

(1) Domain Constraint (2) Generalization
(3) Trigger (4) View

59 Find the correct match for terms in Column I to those in Column II :

Column I Column T1
a Audit Trail P Tuple

b Row Q Privileges
¢ Revoke R Event-Condition-Action
d Trigger S Security
(1) a-§, b-P c-R d-Q

(2) a-P b-S, c-Q d-R

3) a-§ b-Q, c-R, d-P

@) a-S§, b-P c-Q d-R

01/PROG-1 A| 18 [Contd...

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 60 Consider the statement, “Either -2<x<—-] or 1<x<2.”
The negation of this statement is

(1) x<-2o0r 2<x or —1<x<l1

(2) x<-2or 2<x or —1<x<]

(3) x<-2o0r 2<xor —1<x<1

(4) None of these

61 Let A={0, 1}x{0, 1}x{0, 1} and B={a, b, c}x{a, b, c}*{a, b, c}. Suppose
A is listed in lexicographic order based on 0 < 1 and B is listed in
lexicographic order based on a < b < c. If AxBxA is listed in lexicographic
order, then the next element after ((1, 0, 0), (¢, ¢, ¢), (3, 1, 1)) is

(1) (1,0, 1), (a a b), (0,0, 0)

(2) (1,0, 1), (b 2 a), (0,0, 1)
() (1,0, 1), (a, a, a), (0, 0, 0))
@) ((1,0,0) (a ab), (0,0,1)

62 Which normal form is considered adequate for database design?

(1) 2NF (2) 3NF

(3) ANF (4) SNF

63 Which of the following statements is FALSE?

(1) {(2,3,4) € Aand {2, 3} € B implies that {4} ¢ A-B.

(2) {2, 3,4} < Aimplies that 2 € A and {3, 4} € A.

(3) AN B 2 {2 3,4} implies that {2, 3, 4} < A and

{2,3,4} < B.
(4 A-B 2 {3,4}and {1, 2} < B implies that
(1,2,3,4) cAuUB. -

01/PROG-1_A | 19 [Contd...

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 64 Find the correct match for terms in Column I to those in Column IT :

Column I Column II

a topological sorting P grant

b privileges Q concurrency

c multivalued dependency R 4NF

d improved throughput S serializable order

() a-P b-Q, c-R, d-S

2 a-Q b-S§, c-P d-R

(3) a-8, b-Q c-R, d-P

“4) a-S§, b-P c-R, d-Q

65 Two concurrent transactions T1 and T2 are in conflict when

(1) TI reads from x, T2 reads from y

(2) TI reads from x, T2 writes to x

(3) T1 reads from x, T2 writes to y

(4) TI writes to x, T2 writes to y

66 Identify correct matching of the following sets :

a Transaction 1 index

b Natural join 2 relational algebra

¢ B-tree 3 two phase locking

d Concurrency control 4 ACID

(1) a4, b2, ¢-3, d-] (2) a4, b-1, ¢-3, d-2
(3) a3, b-2, c-1, d-4 (4) a-4,b-2, c-1,d-3

01/PROG-1_A] 20 [Contd...

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67 In context of two phase locking protocol, which of the following statements
is correct ?
(1) Growing phase occurs after shrinking phase.
(2) In shrinking phase, transaction can obtain as well as rejease locks but
in growing phase, it can only obtain locks.
(3) In growing phase, transaction can obtain as well as release locks but
in shrinking phase, it can only release locks.
(4) In growing phase, transaction can only obtain locks and in shrinking
phase, it can only release locks

68 Which one of the following is not related to Normal Forms (Normalization)

rule with regards to the Relational Model?
(1) All fields within a table must relate to or directly describe the Primary
Key

(2) Repeating Groups must be eliminated from tables.

(3) Fields that can contain non-numeric data are to be removed and placed
within their own tables with an associated Primary key.
(4) Redundant data is to be eliminated by placing the offending fields in
another table.

69 Which of the following SQL query shall output names of all customers
ending with “Smith” ?
(1) Select name from customer where name like '_Smith'

(2) Select name from customer where name like %Smith'

(3) Select name from customer where name like 'Smith%'
(4) Select name from customer where name like '%Smith%'

70 Which of the following is correct ?

(1) An SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates.
(2) An SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the relations.

(3) SQL queries can be nested.

(4) SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the same relation.

01/PROG-1_A | 21 [Contd...

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 71 172.17.225.125 IP address belong to
(1) Public 1P address (2) Private IP address
(3) Both (4) None

72 Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) and Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) are
examples of
(1) packet filtering services.
(2) network address translation protocols.
(3) security protocols.

(4) service set identifiers.

73 Match the following acronyms to their definitions :

I HTTP a protects 1P addresses from hackers
o SMTP b a protocol associated with Web pages
m NAT c a protocol used for e-mail
vV WAP d an access point on a wireless network
(1) I-b, I-a, INl-d, IV-c
@) b, llc, Tl-a, 1V-d
(3) I, Il-a, HId, IV-b
) I, Id, T, IV-b

74 In the p-persistent approach of CSMA protocol, when a station finds an idle

line, it
(1) Waits | sec before sending (2) Sends with probability 1 —p
(3) Sends with probability p (4) Sends immediately

75 You have a network 1D of 131.107.0.0 and you need to divide it into multiple
subnets. You need 600 host IDs for each subnet with the largest amount of
subnets available. Which subnet mask should you assign ?
(1) 255.255.224.0 (2) 2552552400
(3) 255.255.248.0 (4) 255.255.252.0

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 76 What protocol is used to convert IP addresses to MAC addresses?

1 (2) ARP °

(3) RARP @) 1cwmp

77 A system has an n-layer protocol hierarchy. Applications generate messages

of length M bytes. At each of the layers. An h-byte header is added. What
fractions of the network bandwidth is filled with headers?

_h_ hn
ARV @ Ve

®gy M @)4y g2M

78 The ABC Corporation of XYZ has a fully connected mesh network consisting
of 99 devices. Calculate the number of ports for each device.

(1) 4950 (2) 4851

(3) 100 4) 98

79 FDDIis a

(1) Ring network (2) Star network

(3) Mesh network (4) Bus based network

80 In networking terminology UTP means

(1) Unshielded Twisted pair (2) Unshielded Teflon port

(3) Uniformly terminating port (4) Unshielded T-connector port

01/PROG-1A | 2 [Contd...

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 81 Four bits are used for packed sequence numbering in a sliding window
protocol used in a computer network. What is the maximum window size?

n 4 2) 8
@) 15 T ) 16

82 IP address can be used to specify a broadcast and map to hardware broadcast

if available. By conversion broadcast address has hosted with all bits

@ o @ 1
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

83 ICMP (internet control message protocol) is

1 A protocoi that handles error and control messages

(2) A protocol used to monitor computers

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of these

84 Error detection at the data link level is achieved by

(1) Bit stuffing (2) Cyclic redundancy codes

(3) Hamming codes (4) Equalization

85 The topology with highest reliability is

(1) By topology (2) Star topology

(3) Ring topology (4) Mesh topology

86 How many characters per sec (7 bits + 1 parity) can be transmitted over a
2400 bps line if the transfer is synchronous (1 start and 1 stop bit)?

(1) 300 () 240

@) 250 @) 275

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 87 In Ethernet CSMS/CD, the special bit sequence transmitted by media access
management collision handing is called

(1) Preamble (2) Postamble

(3) Jam (4) None of these

88 A terminal multiplexer has six 1200 bps terminals and ‘a’ 300 bps terminals
connected to it. If outgoing line is 9600 bps, then maximum value of n is

a1 4 2) 16
3) 8 @ 28

89 In time division switches, if each memory access takes 100 ms and one
frame period is 125 ms, then maximum number of lines that can be supported
is
(1) 625 (2) 1250
@) 2300 ) 318

90 If data rate of ring is 20 Mbps, signal propagation speed is 200 b/ms, then
number of bits that can be placed on the channel of 200 km is
(1) 2,000 bits (2) 20,000 bits
() 1,000 bits (4) None of these

91 Decryption and encryption of data are responsibilities of

(1) Physical layer (2) Data link layer

(3) Presentation layer (4) Session layer

92 Router function in which layers

(1) Physical and data link layer

(2) Physical, data link layer and network

(3) Data link and network

(4) Network and transport

01/PROG-1_A | 25 (Contd...

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 93 A channel has a bit rate of 4 kbps and one-way propagation delay of 20 ms.
The channel uses stop and wait protocol. The transmission time of the
acknowledgement frame is negligible. To get a channel efficiency of at least
50%, the minimum frame size should be

(1) 80 bytes (2) 80 bits

(3) 160 bytes (4) 160 bits

94 In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called

(1) an ad hoc architecture

(2) an infrastructure network

(3) either an ad hoc architecture or an infrastructure network

(4) None of the choices is correct

95 Ina network of LANs connected by bridges, packets are sent from one LAN
to another through intermediate bridges. Since more than one path may exist
between two LANs, packets may have to be routed
through multiple bridges. Why is the spanning tree algorithm used for bridge-
routing?
(1) For shortest path routing between LANs
(2) For avoiding loops in the routing paths
(3) For fault tolerance
(4) For minimizing collisions

96 The ____ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node)
to the next. 3
(1) physical (2) data link

3) transporf (4) none of the above

97 Aport address in TCP/IP is _______ bits long.

1) 32 (2) 48
3) 16 (4) none of the above

01/PROG-1_A ] 26 [Contd...

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98 Which of the following IP address class is

(1) Class-A (2) Class-B

(3) Class-C (4) Class-D

99 Which of the following layer of OSI model also called end-to-end layer ?

(1) Presentation layer (2) Network layer

(3) Session layer (4) Transport layer

100 For a sliding window of size (n-1) (n sequence numbers), there can be
maximum of how many frames sent but yet to be acknowledged

(1 o @ n-1
B) n 4 n+1

101 Pick the incorrect statement in error retransmission used in continuous ARQ
method

(1) Go back N method requires more storage at the receiving side

(2) Selected repeat involves complex logging than Go back N

(3) Go back N has better line utilisation

(4) Selective repeat has better line utilisation

102 An IP Network subnet has been assigned a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192.

What is the maximum number of hosts that can belong to this subnet?

1y 14 @2 30
3) 62 4) 126

01/PROG-1_A) 27 [Contd...

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 103 An organization having IP Network has a class B network and wishes to
form subnets for 64 departments. The subnet mask would be

(1) 255.255.0.0 (2) 255255.64.0

(3) 255.255.128.0 (4) 255255.252.0

104 A Jocal area network operates Ethernet with CSMA/CD mechanism and
runs at a transmission rate of 8 Mbps and a one-way signal propagation time
of 25 us. How long (us) has a station to wait before trying to access the
channel again, after experiencing 5 successively collisions?

1y 125 () 625
(3) 800 4) 1600

105 What is the term for two modems establishing communications with each
other ?
(1) Handshaking (2) Syncing

(3) Pinging (4) Linking

106 In computer network terminology, RTS is :

(1) Ready to Sequence (2) Ready Task Set

(3) Request to Send (4) Ready Time Status

107 RS-232 is a standard that is for :

(1) RAM checksum (2) Serial ports

(3) BIOS error checking (4) Parallel ports

108 The first section of a URL identifier is the

(1) protocol (2) path

(3) host (4) port

01/PROG-1_A] 28 [Contd...

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109 In HTTP, ________ server is a computer that keeps copies of responses to
recent requests.

(1) a regular (2) a proxy

(3) an auxiliary (4) aremote

110 During an FTP session the data connection may be opened

(1) only once (2) only two times

(3) as many times as needed (4) none of the choices is correct

111 In FTP, there are three types of ________: stream, block, and compressed.

(1) file types (2) data types

(3) transmission modes (4) none of the choices is correct

112 The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and server in the Internet
is called
(1) SMTP (2) SNMP

(3) TELNET (4) SSH

113 In the stop-and-wait protocol, the maximum send window size is

and the maximum receive window sizeis — where m is the number
of bits in the sequence.

m 11 @ 2m -1
(3) 1,2m (4) 2m;om

114 In TCP, a SYN segment consumes — sequence number(s).

(1) No (2) One

(3) Two (4) None of the choices is correct

01/PROG-1_A] 29 [Contd...

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 115 A serious problem can arise in the sliding window operation when either the
sending application program creates data slowly or the receiving application
program consumes data slowly, or both. This problem is called the
(1) silly window syndrome
(2) unexpected syndrome window
(3) bug
(4) None of the choices is correct

116 InTCP's — algorithm the size of the congestion window increases

exponentially until it reaches a threshold.
(1) congestion avoidance (2) congestion detection
(3) slow start (4) None of the choices is correct

117 The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing

can be :
(1) any number (2) must be a multiple of 256
= (3) must be a power of 2 (4) None of the choices is correct

118 ___ allows a site to use a set of private addresses for internal
communication and a set of global Internet addresses for communication
with the rest of the world.
(1) DHCP (2) NAT
(3) IMCP (4) None of the choicesis correct

119 Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?

(1) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message.
(2) An ICMP error message may be generated for a fragmented datagram.
(3) An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram.
(4) None of the choices is correct

120 The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing
protocol based on ________ routing.
(1) distance vector (2) link state
(3) path vector (4)" None of the choices is correct

01/PROG-1_A] 30 [Contd...
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