SECOND TERM EXAMINATION

BUSINESS STUDIES
J.H.S 3

COMMERCE
1. Which of the following financial institutions accepts and keeps deposits for customers?
a) central bank b) commercial banks c) finance houses d) insurance
exchange e) stock exchange
2. The market for lending and borrowing of long-term loans is the ……………… market.
a) capital b) commodity c) consumer d) foreign e) money
3. The pay through which goods pass from producers to final consumers is a) channel of
distribution b) dissemination route c) post-sale service d) pre-sale activity
e) transmission route
4. An expression of feeling of dissatisfaction amount a business activity is a) complaint
b) exoneration c) opportunity d) threat e) weakness
5. The maximum number of individuals that can form a private company is a) 10 b) 20
c) 28 d) 50 e) 70
6. Granting discount to a buyer of a product is an example of a) after-sales service
b) customer care c) pre-sale service d) public relations e) social responsibility
7. The reward for capital as a factor of production is a) interest b) profit
c) rent d) salary e) wage
8. The selling of Nigeria crude oil to a firm in Britain is an example of …………………….. trade.
a) entrepot b) export c) home d) retail e) wholesale
9. Who among the following renders direct service? a) barber b) civil servant
c) police officer d) sales representative e) soldier
10.An agreed sum of money that the insured pays to the insurer at periodic intervals is
a) contribution b) indemnity c) interest d) premium e) subrogation
11.An example of a non-insurable risk is a loss arising from a) fire accident b) flood
c) marine insurance d) motor accident e) theft
12.The medium of advertisement that provides pictorial and motion representation is
a) journal b) newspaper c) radio d) sticker e) television
13.Giving information about a product to the public defines a) advertising b) business
c) communication d) insurance e) marketing
14.A major advantage of rail over road transportation is that, it a) has low cost of maintenance
b) is flexible c) it suitable for carrying heavy goods d) offers door – to door
service e) requires no special routes
15.The person who buys goods in large quantity from the manufacturer and sells in small quantity
to the retailer is/an a) agent b) broker c) consumer d) producer
e) wholesaler
16.Which of the following is an advantage of a sale proprietorship business? a) death of sole
proprietor can end the business b) it is easy to start-up c) liability of the
business is unlimited d) losses can be distributed easily e) owner bears all risks
17.An unfair treatment in business transaction can be corrected by seeking for
a) exoneration b) justification c) popularity d) ratification e) redress
18.Production is completed when goods a) are distributed b) are stored in
warehouse c) create demand for other brands d) get to the wholesalers
e) reach the final consumer
19.The aim of production is to a) advertise goods and services b) exploit
consumers c) grant discounts to customers d) satisfy consumers e) sell goods
and services on credit
20.When a consumer derives satisfaction from the consumption of an intangible products, he/she
is said to have enjoyed quality. a) item b) product c) service
d) supply e) trade

BOOK KEEPING
The following extract is from the books of Kareem Enterprise

Capital 26,000

Creditors 1,800

Loan from Aboki 4,000

21.What is the total of Kareem’s assets? a) £20,200 b) £22,000 c) £27,000

d) £28,000 e) £ 31,800
22. The document sent by a seller to a customer when there is an undercharge is a) cheque
book b) credit note c) debit note d) invoice e) receipt
23. Which of the following is a current asset? a) cash b) furniture and fitting
c) goodwill d) land and building e) plant and machinery
24.The aim of the profit and loss account is to show a) gross loss b) gross profit/loss
c) net loss d) net profit/loss e) net profit
25.The principle of recording transactions in book keeping is based on a) assets and liabilities
b) buyers and sellers c) creditors and debtors d) givers and receivers
e) profit and loss
26.Money received and paid is recorded in a) cash book b) invoice
c) journal d) purchases day book e) sales day book
27.The following are features of an invoice except a) cheque number of the paying
customer b) description of goods c) name and address of the customer
d) reference number e) terms of payment
28.The gross profit of a business is calculated as a) opening stock + total purchases
b) total expenses – total income c) total expenses + total income d) total
purchases – closing stock e) total sales – cost of goods sold
29.A statement that shows the assets and liabilities of a business on a specific date is
a) balance sheet b) bank statement c) cash book d) journal book
e) trading account
30.The amount received by a buyer for prompt settlement of account is a) bonus
b) commission c) discount d) loan e) surplus
31.Which of the following is an asset? a) accrual b) creditors c) loan
d) overdraft e) stock
32.Cheque returned from the bank as a result of wrong signature is called………………………. cheque
a) crossed b) dishonored c) stale d) uncredited
e) unpresented11,000 b)€21,000 c)€22,000 d)€26,000 e) € 29,000

Use the following information to answer questions 33 to 35

Johnson’s books showed the following as at 30th June, 2020.

€
Office machinery 18,000
Stock of goods 2,000
Debtors 22,000
Capital 26000
Cash at bank 500
33.What is the total of Johnson’s liability? a)€11,000 b)€21,000 c)€22,000
d)€26,000 e) € 29,000
34.What is the total of Johnson’s fixed asset? a) €18,000 b)€23,000 c)€40,000
d)€47,000 e) € 48,000
35.What is the total of Johnson’s Balance sheet? a) €26,000 b)€33,000 c)€40,000
d)€47,000 e) €48,000
36.The following are credited to trial balance except a) capital b) debtor
c) loan d) rent e) sales
37.The burden of the book keeper doing his work manually has been eased with the introduction of
………………………. Machine a) cash register b) fax c) photocopying
d) printing e) typewriting
Use the following information to answer questions 38 to 40
Purchases ……………………………………………………………….. N160,000
Carriage outwards …………………………………………………..N 8,000
Rent and rates ………………………………………………………..N 4000
Wages …………………………………………………………………… N 10,000
Sales …………………………………………………………………….. N240,000
38.Calculate the amount of expenses. a) N4000 b) N8000 c) N10,000
d) N 18000 e) N22000
39.Calculate the gross profit a) N58000 b) N80,000 c) N140,000
d) N 160,000 e) N240,000
40.Calculate the net profit a) N58,000 b) N800,000 c) N140,000
d) N 160,000 e) N240,000

OFFICE PRACTICE

41.An office equipment that is used for reproducing speeches already recorded is …………………
Machine a) adding b) dictating c) franking d) scanning e) slapping
42.A closed office occupied by chief accountant officer of a secondary school is called
a) bursary b) computer laboratory c) counsellor’s office d) principal’s office
e) staff room
43.The part of a business letter which contains code for identification is a) address
b) date c) matter d) reference e) salutation
44.Great love and Zeal for work is called…………… to duty a) commitment
b) devotion c) honesty d) obedience e) punctuality
45.The act of being at work on time is a) commitment b) consistency
c) honesty d) promptness e) punctuality
46. A device used for making holes on documents and files is …………………….. machine a) fax
b) franking c) guillotine d) perforating e) stapling
47.A business document sent by a prospective buyer to the seller asking about a product is
a) catalogue b) invoice c) letter of enquiry d) order e) price list
48.Which of the following is a job quality of a clerk? a) Efficient in performing official duties
b) Good appearance at all times c) Maintaining good health condition
d) politeness in communication e) sound education
49.The initial amount of money given to a petty cashier for minor expenses is a) cash at hand
b) cash float c) cash in bank d) money order e) postal order
50. An evidence of payment in a business transaction is a) credit invoice b) debit
note c) delivery note d) invoice e) receipt
51. Customer service unit is in department a) accounts b) administrative
c) personnel d) purchases e) sales
52.Incoming mails are recorded in ………………. book a) dispatch b) inward
c) outward d) postage e) visitors’
53.Printing of postage
stamp impression on an envelope is made possible with the use of
………………….machine a) collating b) counting c) franking d)
scanning e) shredding
54.A document that contains detailed information about a guest to an organization is called
a) appointment b) business c) complimentary card d) dispatch book
e) visitors’ book
55.The particulars of letters that leave an organization by hand are recorded in………………. book
a) dispatch b) inward correspondence c) office correspondence
d) petty cash e) postage
56.Office correspondence comprises of outgoing and incoming letters as well as a)
appointment lists b) information system c) office equipment d) parcels
received e) stationary supplied
57.Which of the following documents is handled by a receptionist? a) invoice b) pay
slip c) postage book d) receipt e) visitors’ slip
58.Which of the following is not a quality of a receptionist? a) courtesy b)
flippancy c) fluency d) modesty e) tactfulness
59.Manufacturing of goods is the function of ………………….. department a) administrative
b) finance c) marketing d) personnel e) production
60.The office equipment used for holding two or more papers together is known as ……………………
machine a) collating b) franking c) guillotine d) shredding
e) stapling

KEYBOARDING

61.The act of producing printed characters by manipulating the keyboard on a computer is

a) calibration b) keyboarding c) photography d) phrasing
e) stenciling
62.Keyboarding is associated with producing printed characters by manipulating fingers on the
………………………. of a computer. a) carriage release b) keys c) knob
d) paper grip e) platen
63.The keys used to send special commands to the central processing unit of a computer are a)
alphabetic b) alphanumeric c) cursor d) function e) numeric
64.The computer numeric keys are made up of 0 to. a) 9 b) 8 c) 6
d) 5 e) 3
65.The second row of a computer keyboard contains the …………….. key(s). a) alphabetic
b) cursor movement c) function d) numeric e) space bar
66.The application of a wrong cleaning agent on the computer will ……………… its life span.
a) enhance b) enrich c) improve d) increase e) jeopardise
67.Which of the following items is not used for talking care of a computer? a) engine oil
b) keyboard cover c) long-handled soft brush d) soft duster e) stiff bristle
brush
68.The computer keyboard consists of …………………… rows keys. a) 7 b) 6
c) 5 d) 4 e) 3
69.Computer keyboard can be manipulated by a/an ………………. touch a) aggressive
b) hard c) little d) slow e) soft
70.Which of the following is the correct arrangement of the computer home keys at the left hand
side? A, S, D and a) F b) K c)L d) P e) T
71. Letter ‘T’ is struck by left ……………… finger. a) baby b) index c) middle
d) ring e) thumb
72.The part of computer keyboard that consists of alphabets and numbers is ……………. Keys.
a) alphabetic b) alphanumeric c) function d) numeric e) special
73.The format of a memorandum includes the following except. a) date b) from
c) reference d) salutation e) subject
74.Which of the following computer parts is an input device? a) CPU b) keyboard
c) printer d) speaker e) UPS
75.How many number keys are on the computer keyboard? a) 14 b) 12 c) 10
d) 9 e) 8
76.An electronic device that is used to accept, process and analyse data is a) computer
b) perforator c) photocopier d) scanner e) typewriter
77.The command that opens up a new page is Ctrl + a) B b) J c) N d) S
e) V
78.In word processing, columns and rows are created using ………………… key. a) control
b) delete c) enter d) shift e) tab
79. Documents are said to be justified when the edges of the paragraphs are flushed with the
………………… margins. a) bottom b) left c) right d) top e) vertical
80.A brief and short official notice written and received by workers of the same organization is
a) agenda b) bulletin c) memorandum d) minutes e) report
 PHYSICAL AND HEALTH EDUCATION

J.H.S.3

1. The pythian games were held to honour the God of a) Aphrodite b) Apollo
c) Hera d) Poseidon e) Zeus
2. Which of the following is an objectives of recreational activities? a) choose more
preferred games b) eliminate boredom and reduce tension c) know the health
status of individuals d) prepare athletics for competition e) study body types
and skills
3. Which of the following is an outdoor recreational activity? a) chess b) Cycling
c) Draught d) Monopoly e) Scrabble
4. A gymnast is a person who a) can perform track activities b) perform stunts,
rope and chair exercise c) perform warm-up exercise before an activity
d) specializes in different games e) a person trained or skilled in gymnastics
5. Suffocation due to the presence of water in the lungs is a) asphyxia b) drowning
c) fainting d) hemorrhage e) shock
6. When did Nigeria first participated in the Olympic Games? a) 1950 b) 1952
c) 1954 d) 1956 e) 1958
7. The ability of an individual to control and adjust his mood is ………………….. fitness.
a) emotional b) mental c) physical d) social e) total
8. What is the distance between the take off board and landing pit in long jump? a) 1.0m
b) 1.5m c) 2.0m d) 2.5m e) 3.0m
9. The abnormal in body fat as a result of excessive consumption of food and drink is
a) cancer b) diabetes c) kwashiorkor d) marascus e) obesity
10. Which of the following is not a components of physical fitness?
a) balance b) coordination c) power d) speed e) weight
11. Which of the following is a skill in Hockey game? a) flick b) kick c) service
d) smash e) volleying
12. The nutrient needed for the proper development of children’s bones is a) calcium
b) iodine c) iron d) potassium e) sodium
13. The standard weight of men’s javelin is a) 500g b) 600g c) 700g
d) 800g e) 900g
14. Which of the following exercises is for muscular endurance?
a) hand grip b) static balance c) truck extension
d) static push e) weight lifting
15. Which of the following skills in volleyball has the dink? a) blocking b) passing
c) serving d) setting e) spiking
16. Which of the following contains more vitamin C? a) beans b) grape c)
groundnuts d) rice e) wheat
17. A programme designed to acquired attitude, knowledge and habits to improve wellbeing
describes …………………………… education. a) adapted b) drug c) health
d) physical e) safety
18. Recreational activities engaged in voluntarily for fun and enjoyment are carried out at
……………….. time. a) leisure b) lesson c) lunch d) rest
e) worship
19. In performing forward roll, you will start in a ……………… position. a) lying b) rolling
c) sitting d) squatting e) standing
20. Which of the following is not a determinant of health? a) education
b) environment c) gender d) heredity e) lifestyle
21. Which of the following skills in used to halt a ball in hockey game? a) dribbling
b) fielding c) flicking d) gripping e) hitting
22. An individual who uses specific exercise for body development is a/an
a) anthropologist b) nutritionist c) physiologist d) physiotherapist
e) psychologist
23. Which of the following is a stunt activity? a) backward roll b) cat spring c)
caterpillar walk d) cock-fighting e) duck walk
24. The act of putting the ball into play after it has gone out through the sideline in a football game
is ..................... a) drilling b) goal – kick c) heading d) shooting
e) thrown-in
25. The major function of carbohydrates in the body is to a) conserve heat
b) increase blood c) maintain the eyes d) produce energy e) repair the body
26. Hop, step and jump describe a) high jump b) long jump c) pole vault
d) shot put e) triple jump
27. The capacity to apply muscular force against a resistance is a) agility b) endurance
c) flexibility d) speed e) strength
28. When a pointed object makes a deep hole in the body tissue, it is …………… wound. a)
abrasion b) confused c) incised d) lacerated e) punctured
29. A game of volleyball is won on ……………… points. a) 21 b) 22 c) 23
d) 24 e) 25
30. Which of the following countries won the 2024 African cup of Nation? a) Cameroon
b) Ghana c) Ivory Coast d) Nigeria e) South Africa
31. Which of the following activities can be recommended for an elderly person? a) camping
b) cycling c) running d) swimming e) walking
32. Who is the father of modern Olympic games? a) Captain Clia b) Frederick Ludwing Jahn
c) Johann Basedow d) James Naismith e) Pierre de Couberton
33. Insufficient warm up activities may leads to a) anaemia b) convulsion c)
nausea d) scurvy e) strain
34. The ability of a group of muscles to sustain contraction over a period of time is a) agility
b) balance c) endurance d) flexibility e) strength
35. The expressive movement of the body to conform with rhythm of sound is a) dancing
b) galloping c) skipping d) sporting e) swinging
36. Which of the following is a partnership activity? a) duck fight b) elbow balance
c) frog jump d) press up e) push up
37. An example of an indoor activity is a) camping b) cricket c) hiking
d) scrabble e) surfing
38. An injury that occurs as a result of over-stretching of the ligament of the joint is
a) abrasion b) dislocation c) fracture d) sprain e) strain
39. Which of the following is a style in swimming? a) breast stroke b) eastern cut off
c) forward roll d) rowing e) spiking
40. A place where two or more bones meet in the body is a a) joint b) ligament
c) limbs d) tendon e) trunk
41. Which of the following is a skill in the game of football? a) dribbling b) flick
c) grip d) scoop e) hitting
42. How many players make a team in a handball game? a) 3 b) 5 c) 7
d) 9 e) 11
43. Which of the following is an equipment in swimming? a) baton b) floats c)
gloves d) pool e) racket
44. The bones at the joint are held together by a) cartilage b) fibre c) ligament
d) muscle e) tendon
45. Repairs of worn out tissues and building of white blood cells is the function of
a) carbohydrates b) fats and oil c) mineral salt d) protein e) protein
46. …………………….. Is the activities engaged in during leisure hours to revitalize the body and brain.
a) physical training b) swimming c) tennis d) recreation e)
dancing
47. …………………………………… are physical exercise designed to improve strength, flexibility, balance,
agility, co- ordination of the body. a) hockey b) swimming c) football
d) gymnastics e) volleyball
48. The decathlon consists of …………………… athletics events. a) 5 b) 7 c) 8
d) 10 e) 11
49. Which of the skill is not applicable to swimming? a) fosbury flop b) front crawl
c) back stroke d) butterfly stroke e) crab stroke
50. Buoyancy in aquatics means a) ability to swim b) ability to float with
confidence in water c) ability to drive d) ability to play in water
e) ability of swim well
51. Which of these is not basic skill in contact sport? a) tackling b) swimming
c) kicking d) dribbling e) walking
52. The importance of balance diet are………………………………. except a) it helps to maintain
good health b) it promotes growth and builds the body tissues c) it provide
needed energy for physical exercises d) it help the environment clean e) it
keeps the body fit
53. Which of this is not an agency for promoting health education in Nigeria a) NAFDAC
b) NFF c) NDLEA d) NAHET e) FIFA
54. Which official ensures that all competitors start the race at the same time? a) referee
b) umpire c) track judge d) field judge e) starter
55. The following injuries can be sustained in gymnastics except.
a) fracture b) dislocation c) drawn d) strain e) sprain
56. Which of the following is not gymnastics equipment? a) balancing beam b) shin guard
c) ring d) mat e) bed sheet
57. One of the importance roles of a child in the family is ……………………… a) beat their parents
b) to run errands for parents c) disobey their parents d) insult their parents e)
fight with their parents
58. The heptathlon consists of ………………………. Athletics events. a) 10 b) 7
c) 5 d) 4 e) 6
59. Hurdle, 1500m, 800m 400 race are for ………………………….. a) track b) field
c) track and field d) all the above
60. ………………………. Is the responsibility of Federal Road Safety corps of Nigeria. a) to
promote health of the nation b) to control importation of drug c) to provides
safety on the road d) all of the above

SECTION B

Answer all question in this section

1. Explain the following and give 2 examples each (6mks)

i) Heptathlon
ii) Pentathlon
iii) Decathlon
2. Explain two contribution that Harding J. Ekperigin contributed to Nigeria. (4mks)
3. Mention four heroes and two heroines that contributed to Nigeria sports development
(6mks)
4. State three safety rules guiding combined events (3mks)
5. Mention three physical changes in puberty boys and girls each. (6mks)
6. What did these acronyms stands for? i) FRSC ii) NSHA iii) NAHET
7. List four career opportunities in physical and health education and explain one (6mks)
8. Mention three consequence of teenage pregnancy (9mks)
 BASIC TECHNOLOGY

J.H.S 3

1. Which of the following instruments is used for transferring measurement? a) French

curves b) pairs of compasses c) pairs of dividers d) set square
e) Tee – square
2. Which of the following scales will produce the largest view of an objects? a) 1: 1
b) 2 : 1 c) 3 : 4 d) 5 : 2 e) 7 : 3
3. Paper is made from wood a) bark b) grains c) log d) pulp
e) shavings
4. The machine used in cutting timber across the grain is a) band saw b) circular
saw c) surfacer d) thicknesses e) wood lathe
5. Which of the following is a property of wood? a) brittleness b) ductility
c) elasticity d) malleability e) rigidity
6. Which of the following equipment is classified as an impelling tool? a) G – clamp
b) hack saw c) hammer d) hand plane e) spoke shave
7. The method of reducing moisture content in wood is a) carving b) conversion
c) felling d) preservation e) seasoning
8. The complete angle of rotation of a machine gear is a) 90° b) 120° c) 180°
d) 240° e) 360°
9. Simple maintenance carried out on a television is a) adjustment b) dusting
c) greasing d) oiling e) polishing
10. Which of the following equipment is non- hydraulically operated device? a) bicycle pump
b) bulldozer c) car brake d) car jack e) fork lift
11. The first action to be taken in a case of severe bleeding is to a) apply pressure with clean
cloth b) cover surface with clean water c) give the victim oxygen d) give
the victim water e) place the victim in recovery position
12. The equipment used to protect the head against injury in a workshop is a) gloves
b) goggles c) helmet d) mask e) overall
13. Which of the following materials is usually placed in a first aid box? a) plaster
b) scanner c) stethoscope d) syringe e) thermometer
14. Metal stiffness is also known as a) conductivity b) ductility c) elasticity
d) malleability e) rigidity
15. The metalwork operation that is not required for making metals stool is a) bending
b) folding c) joining d) knurling e) shearing
16. The cutting part of a drill bit is a) flank b) flute c) land d) lip
e) tang
17. Cutleries are usually made of a) cast iron b) copper c) duralumin
d) mild steel e) stainless steel
18. A component of hydraulic machine that controls the fluid direction, pressure and flow rate is
a) actuator b) pipe c) pump d) reservoir e) valve
19. The following are types of belt drive except a) crossed b) flat c) rope
d) sprocket e) vee
20. Which of the following is not a building material? a) anvil b) glass c) plastic
d) wood e) gravel
21. Which of the following is not used for rescue operation? a) ambulance b) escalator
c) grader d) ladder e) stretcher
22. The Global System for Mobile (GMS) Communication is facilitated by …………………………
technology a) computer signals b) gamma rays c) infrared rays
d) microwaves e) radio waves
23. Disposable hand gloves in first aid box is used to a) keep the injured area compressed
b) prevent blood circulation c) prevent further injuries d) reduce bleeding
e) reduce chance of infection
24. Tin is generally used for a) decorative purposes b) manufacturing aircraft parts
c) producing roofing sheets d) producing water pipes e) protective coating on metals
25. Solders are alloys of tin and a) aluminum b) copper c) lead
d) silver e) zinc
26. The ability of a material to resist breaking is a) brittleness b) ductility c) elasticity
d) hardness e) toughness
27. Which of the following tools is used for measuring external diameter of an object? a)
depth gauge b) inside caliper c) micrometer screw gauge d) try square
e) vainer caliper
28. Which of the following is commonly referred to as a general purpose machine? a) drilling
b) lathe c) miller d) planer e) reamer
29. Metals sheets are usually cut with a) dividers b) power saw c) scissors
d) sledge hammer e) snips
30. Which of the following instruments is mainly used for measuring straight lines? a)
French curves b) pair of compasses c) pair of dividers d) set square
e) scale rule
31. A normal is at what angle to the tangent of a circle? a) 105° b) 90° c) 75°
d) 60° e) 45°
32. Vertex point is part of a a) circle b) circumference c) cylinder
d) quadrant e) triangle
33. The axes of isometric projection should be at a) 30° b) 45° c) 60°
d) 90° e) 120°
34. A quadrilateral that has four equal sides at right angles to each other is a) deltoid
b) parallelogram c) rectangle d) rhombus e) square
35. The removal of plants and unwanted materials on site is a) clearance b) digging
c) excavation d) profiling e) trenching
 TECHNICAL DRAWING PRACTICAL

INSTRACTION:

i. Answer all question

ii. Use all necessary drawing instruments and materials
iii. All dimensions are in mm
iv. Credit will be awarded for good draughtmanship
v. Show all construction lines
1. a) draw on the sheet, borderline and tittle block with the following information:
i) Your name
ii) School
iii) Examination number
iv) Scale used
v) Date

b) Draw line AB 100mm and divide it into 8 equal parts.

2. Using a pencil, pair of compasses and a ruler only. Construct a hexagon in a circle of 80mm
diameter. Measure and write down the altitude of the hexagon

3. a) Construct a triangle of line XY = 80mm. XZ = 60mm and angle X at 60°

3. b) Measure and write the length of line XY