International Class

BASIC MATH
REASONING
 BASIC MATH 1

Follow Instruction A to answer questions number 1 to 17

1. Suppose 𝑥 2 + 𝑏1 𝑥 + 𝑐1 = 0 has roots of 𝛼 and 𝛽, where (𝛼 − 𝛽)2 = 4. If 𝑥 2 + 𝑏2 𝑥 + 𝑐2 = 0 has

roots of 𝛼 + 𝛽 and 𝛼 − 𝛽, then the possible ratio of 𝑐2 : 𝑏1 is ...
A. 2:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:1
D. 1:3
E. 3:1

2. If 𝑥 = 1 and 𝑦 = 3 Let x = 1 and y = 3 is one of the solution of the following equations.

𝑎𝑥 − 𝑏𝑦 = 21 − 𝑏
{
(𝑐 + 1)𝑥 + 𝑐𝑦 = 10 − 𝑎 + 3𝑏
The value of 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 = …
A. −2𝑏
𝑏+9
B.
4
5𝑏+9
C.
4
9𝑏+9
D.
4
−3𝑏+9
E.
4

3. If the polynomial 𝑝(𝑥) is divided by (𝑥 + 1) it gives a remainder of 13, and if it is divided by

(x – 1) it gives a remainder of 7, then the sum of the coefficients of the p (x) terms with an
even power of x is ... .
A. 0
B. 3
C. 6
D. 10
E. 20

|𝑥|
4. The solution set of the inequality √4 − 𝑥 2 + ≥ 0 is ...
𝑥
A. {𝑥 ∈ 𝑅|−√3 ≤ 𝑥 < 0 or 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2}
B. {𝑥 ∈ 𝑅|−√3 < 𝑥 < 0 or 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2}
C. {𝑥 ∈ 𝑅|−√3 < 𝑥 < 0 or 0 < 𝑥 < 2}
D. {𝑥 ∈ 𝑅|−√3 ≤ 𝑥 < 0 or 0 < 𝑥 ≤ √3}
E. {𝑥 ∈ 𝑅|−2 ≤ 𝑥 < 0 or 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2}

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 5. It is known that the sum of the first 50 terms of the arithmetic sequence is 200 and the sum of
the next 50 terms is 2700. The first term of the sequence is ....
A. −1221
B. −21.5
C. −20.5
D. 3
E. 3.5

6. Three numbers 𝑎, 𝑏, and 𝑐 between 2 and 18 satisfies the following terms:

(i) the sum of the 3 numbers = 25;
(ii) 2, 𝑎, 𝑏 are terms of an arithmetic sequence;
(iii) 𝑏, 𝑐, 18 are terms of a geometric sequence;
Therefore, 3𝑎 + 2𝑏 + 𝑐 is ...
A. 40
B. 41
C. 42
D. 43
E. 48

7. 𝑓 −1 , 𝑔−1 , and ℎ−1 consecutively is the inverse of functions 𝑓, 𝑔, and ℎ. It is given that
𝑥−3 1
(𝑓 −1 o 𝑔−1 o ℎ−1 )(𝑥) = 2𝑥 − 4 and (ℎ o 𝑔)(𝑥) = , 𝑥 ≠ − , then 𝑓(8) = ...
2𝑥+1 2
3
A. −
11
4
B. −
5
9
C. −
11
12
D. −
11
5
E. −
4

8. The roots of the equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑛 = 0 is cos 75° and cos 15°. The quadratic equation with
roots of 2m and 2n are ...
A. 2𝑥 2 − 2√6𝑥 − √6 = 0
B. 2𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 − 2√6 = 0
C. 2𝑥 2 − √6𝑥 − √6 = 0
D. 2𝑥 2 − (1 − 2√6)𝑥 − √6 = 0
E. 2𝑥 2 − (1 − √6)𝑥 − 2√6 = 0

1 1
9. If 𝑥 = 3 + 1 and 𝑦 = 3 + 1 , then |𝑥 − 𝑦| is ...
3+ 3+ 1
𝑥 3 𝑦

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

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 𝜋
10. The value of 5 cos 𝜃 + 3 cos (𝜃 ) + 3 is located in intervals ...
3
A. [−5, 11]
B. [−4, 10]
C. [−3, 9]
7 3 19 3
D. [− − √3, + √3]
2 2 2 2
7 3 19 3
E. [− − √3, − √3]
2 2 2 2

𝑓 ′′(0)
11. It is known that 𝑓(𝑥) = sin(sin3 (cos(𝑥))). If = 𝐴 cos(sin3 (1)) sin(1), then 𝐴 = ...
sin(2)
3
A.
2
1
B.
2
C. 0
1
D. −
2
3
E. −
2

12. The number of 𝜃 when 0° ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 360° satisfies the equation

2
log(3 sin 𝜃) = 22 log(−3 cos 𝜃) + 1 is ...
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
E. 0

13. If log(𝑎3 𝑏 7 ), log(𝑎5 𝑏12 ), and log(𝑎8 𝑏15 ) are the first three terms of an arithmetic sequence, and
log(𝑏 𝑛 ) is the 12th terms, then the value of 𝑛 is ...
A. 82
B. 108
C. 112
D. 146
E. 152

14. If k is the smallest natural number given by two quadratic functions 𝑓(𝑥) = (𝑘 − 1)𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 −
1 and 𝑔(𝑥) = (𝑘 − 2)𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 2𝑘 intersect in two different points 𝑥1 , 𝑦1 and 𝑥2 , 𝑦2 , then the
quadratic equation of roots 𝑥1 + 𝑥2 and 𝑦1 + 𝑦2 are ...
A. 𝑥2 − 1 = 0
B. 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 − 5 = 0
C. 𝑥 2 − 10𝑥 = 0
D. 𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 − 7 = 0
E. 𝑥 2 − 26𝑥 − 56 = 0

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 15. Given a cube 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷. 𝐸𝐹𝐺𝐻 with the edge length 𝑎. The coordinates of point A are (0,0,0) and
the vector 𝑐⃗ = (−3, sin 𝜃, − 9). If proj → (prok → (proj → 𝑐⃗)) = (𝑥1 , 𝑥2 , 𝑥3 ), then the value of −𝑥1 +
𝐷𝐸 𝐵𝐶 𝐴𝐵
2𝑥2 + 𝑥32 = ...
A. −2
B. −1
C. 0
D. 1
E. 2

16. Given a pyramid 𝑇. 𝐴𝐵𝐶 with edges 𝑇𝐴, 𝑇𝐵, and 𝑇𝐶 perpendicular to each other at point 𝑇. If
𝐴𝐵 = 𝐴𝐶 = 2√2 and 𝐴𝑇 = 2, and 𝛼 is an angle between the planes 𝐴𝐵𝐶 and 𝑇𝐵𝐶, then tan 𝛼 is ...
A. √2
B. 2√2
C. 3√2
D. 2√3
E. 3√3

1
17. If 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 − 2𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 where −1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 2 has a maximum points at (𝑎, 𝑏), then the value of
3
𝑏
∫𝑎 𝑓′(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 is ...
16
A.
81
15
B.
81
12
C.
81
9
D.
81
8
E.
81

Follow Instruction C to answer questions number 18 to 20.

18. If a cube has 8 vertices of 𝑂(0,0,0), 𝐴(2,0,0), 𝐵(2,2,0), 𝐶(0,2,0), 𝐷(0,0, 2), 𝐸(2,0,2), 𝐹(2,2,2),
𝐺(0,2,2) then ...
(1) ‖𝑂𝐹⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ‖
(2) ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝐹 is the diagonal of the cube
(3) ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝐹 ∙ 𝐴𝐺⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = √8
√8
(4) The sine of the angle between ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝐹 and ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐴𝐺 is
3

19. If sin 10° = 𝑎, then ...

1
(1) − 4 sin 70° = 2
sin 10°
1
(2) + 4 sin 70° = 2𝑎
sin 10°
1 1
(3) − 8 sin 70° = 4 −
sin 10° 𝑎
1 1
(4) − 16 sin 70° = 8 −
sin 10° 𝑎

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 𝑥 2 −2
20. If 𝑓(𝑥) = , then the TRUE statement below is ...
𝑥+2
′ (−2)
(1) 𝑓 =0
(2) 𝑓′(−2 − √2) = 0
(3) Maximum at 𝑥 = −2
(4) The extreme point is at 𝑥 = −2 + √2

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 BASIC MATH 2

Follow Instruction A to answer questions number 1 to 17

1. Given the matrix of 𝐴 is 2 × 2, if 𝐴2 − 5𝐴 + 71 = 0, then the number of elements of the main

diagonal of the matrix A is ...
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

2. If the system of equations

𝑎𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 𝑏 + 1
{
𝑥+𝑦=3
And
2𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 𝑎2 + 2
{
𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 3
have the same solution, then the number of ordered pair (a, b) is ...
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. infinite

3. If 𝑓(𝑥) is a third degree polynomial whose roots are in arithmetic sequence and the value of
the third term is three times of the first term; and the sum of the roots is 12. Then, the remainder of
𝑓(𝑥 6) divided by 𝑥 2 + 1 is ...
A. 7𝑥 − 6
B. 𝑥+6
C. 6𝑥 − 7
D. 𝑥−6
E. 𝑥+1

4. The values of x, for 0° ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 360 which satisfy the equation sin 𝑥 + sin 2𝑥 > sin 3𝑥 is ...
A. 0° < 𝑥 < 120°, 180° < 𝑥 < 240°
B. 0° < 𝑥 < 150°, 180° < 𝑥 < 270°
C. 120° < 𝑥 < 180°, 240° < 𝑥 < 360°
D. 150° < 𝑥 < 180°, 270° < 𝑥 < 360°
E. 0° < 𝑥 < 135°, 180° < 𝑥 < 270°

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 5. In a geometric sequence with 𝑟 > 1, it is given that twice of the first four terms is three time
of the first two even terms.

If four numbers are inserted between these terms: one number is inserted between the second and
the third term, and three numbers are inserted between the third and fourth term, an arithmetic
sequence with a difference of r is formed.

The total of inserted numbers is ...

A. 14
B. 24
C. 28
D. 32
E. 42

6. If a . 6 log 2 + b . 6
log 3 + c . 6
log 5 + d . 6 log 7 = 50, then the average value of a, b, c, and
d is ….
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 80
E. 100

1 1
7. lim csc − cot = ⋯
x→∞ x x
A. -
B. -1
C. 0
D. 1
E. 

8. Solution of the inequality |x − 1| ≤ 3 − |x| is a  x  b. Value of 2a + b = …

A. -3
B. -2
C. 0
D. 2
E. 3

2 4 1
9. If ∫1 f(x)dx = √2, tℎ𝑒𝑛 ∫1 f(√x) dx = ⋯
√x
1
A.
4
√2
1
B.
2
√2
C. √2
D. 2√2
E. 4√2

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 10. A number of bacteria are placed in a medium. If each bacterium divides into two every 10
minutes, the population of bacteria will be k times the original population after... minute.
2
A. log k15
B. 5.2 log k10
C. 5 .2 log k 5
D. 10.2 log k 2
E. 10.2 log k

11. Assume that 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 are three natural numbers, respectively, forming a geometric sequence
𝑏 𝑎 2 𝑏
with is integers. If the mean of 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 is 𝑏 + 1, then 4 ( ) + − 𝑎 + 1 = ...
𝑎 𝑏 𝑎
A. −2
B. −1
C. 0
D. 1
E. 2

12. For 0 < 𝑥 < 𝜋, if {𝑥 ∈ 𝑅 | 𝑎 < 𝑥 < 𝑏} is the solution set of 2 cos(cos 𝑥 − sin 𝑥) + tan2 𝑥 < sec 2 𝑥,
then 𝑏 − 𝑎 = ...
2𝜋
A.
8
3𝜋
B.
8
4𝜋
C.
8
6𝜋
D.
8
E. 𝜋

𝑎 sin 6𝑡
13. If lim ( 2 − ) = −18, then 𝑎 = ...
𝑡→0 𝑡 𝑡 3 cos2 3𝑡
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24
E. 30

𝑥 𝑐
14. If 3𝑥 5 − 3 = ∫𝑐 𝑔(𝑡) 𝑑𝑡 , then 𝑔′ ( ) = ...
2
15
A.
2
15
B.
4
15
C.
8
15
D.
16
15
E.
32

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 15.

Given a cube 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷. 𝐸𝐹𝐺𝐻 with the edge length 𝑎. There is a regular rectangular pyramid 𝑃. 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷
1
with a height of 𝑎 inside the cube. The ratio of the volume of the cube with the volume of the
3
space bounded by the plane 𝑃𝐵𝐶, 𝑃𝐴𝐷, and 𝐵𝐶𝐹𝐺 is ...
A. 6:1
B. 9:4
C. 5:2
D. 6:3
E. 9:6

16. Given √3𝑎 + 𝑏 − 𝑐 = 2, 𝑏𝑐 = −1.5𝑎2 , and 𝑏 2 + 𝑐 2 = √3𝑎, the value of 𝑎 is ...

2√3
A.
15
4√3
B.
15
7√3
C.
15
8√3
D.
15
11√3
E.
15

5 5 35
17. Given a sequence of 0, , , , …. The -12th terms of the sequence is ...
6 36 216
1 1
A. −
211 311
1 2
B. −
211 311
3 1
C. −
211 311
1 1
D.
211 + 311
2 3
E. +
211 311

Follow Instruction C to answer questions number 18 to 20.

18. If vector 𝐚 = (3, −2, −5), 𝐛 = (1, 4, −4), and 𝐜 = (0,3,2), then ...
(1) a,b,c form a parallelogram
(2) 𝐚 ∙ (𝐛 × 𝐜) = (𝐛 × 𝐜) ∙ 𝑎
(3) The volume of the parallelogram = 49
(4) 𝐚 × 𝐛 = (𝐛 × 𝐚)

19. If 𝑓(𝑥) = (2𝑥 − 3)7 − (2𝑥 − 3)5 + (2𝑥 − 3)3 , then ...
(1) f continuously increases on R
(2) f never goes down
(3) f has no relative maximum

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 3
(4) f has minimum relative to 𝑥 =
2

𝜋
20. If 𝛼 = , then ...
12
7
(1) sin4 𝛼 + cos 4 𝛼 =
8
11
(2) sin6 𝛼 + cos 6 𝛼 =
16
4 7 1
(3) cos 𝛼 = − √3
16 4
4 3 1
(4) sin 𝛼 = − √3
8 2

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 BASIC MATH 3

Follow Instruction A to answer questions number 1 to 17.

1. If a circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 2𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏 = 0 whose radius is 2 touches the line 𝑥 − 𝑦 = 0, then the sum of
the squares of all values of 𝑎 might be ...
A. 2
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
E. 18

2. If 6𝑥 2 − 6𝑝𝑥 + 14𝑝 − 2 = 0 has a root of 𝑢 and 𝑣 and not integer with 𝑢, 𝑣 ≥ 1, then the value
of |𝑢 − 𝑣| is ...
A. 14
B. 15
C. 16
D. 17
E. 18

3. If 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 are integers that satisfies 4𝑥 − 5𝑦 + 24𝑧 = 4𝐴 and 2𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 10, where 𝑦 < 2𝑥

and 𝑦 − 20𝑧 < 0, then the largest natural number of 𝐴 that satisfies is ...
A. 25
B. 27
C. 29
D. 40
E. 41

4. It is known that the polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) divided by 𝑥 2 − 4 has a remainder 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑎 and the
polynomial 𝑔(𝑥) divided by 𝑥 2 − 9 has a remainder 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑎 − 5. If the remainder of dividing 𝑓(𝑥)
by 𝑥 + 2 is equal to the remainder of dividing 𝑔(𝑥) by 𝑥 − 3 and 𝑓(−3) = 𝑔(2) = −2, then the
remainder of dividing 𝑓(𝑥)𝑔(𝑥) by 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 − 6 is ...
A. 4𝑥 − 2
B. −4𝑥 − 2
C. 4𝑥 + 2
D. −4𝑥 + 2
E. −4𝑥 − 1

5𝑥−1 2𝑥+3
5. If 𝑓(𝑥) = and 𝑔(𝑥) = , then the largest integer 𝑥 that satisfies
2 3
|𝑓(𝑥) − 𝑔(𝑥)| < 2 is ...
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3

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 D. 2
E. 1

6. On the cube 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷. 𝐸𝐹𝐺𝐻, where 𝐴𝐵 = 6, 𝐵𝐶 = 3, and 𝐶𝐺 = 2. Points 𝑀, 𝑁, and 𝑂 are located
on the edge 𝐸𝐻, 𝐹𝐺, and 𝐴𝐷 respectively. If 3𝐸𝑀 = 𝐸𝐻, 𝐹𝑁 = 2𝑁𝐺, 3𝐷𝑂 = 2𝐷𝐴, and the plane 𝛼 is
passing through 𝑀, 𝑁, 𝑂, the ratio between the area of the plane and the area of the cube is ...
√35
A.
36
√37
B.
36
√38
C.
36
√39
D.
36
√41
E.
36

7. If 𝜃 is the angle between the 𝐵𝐸𝐺 and 𝐷𝐸𝐺 planes on cube 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷. 𝐸𝐹𝐺𝐻, then sin 𝜃 =
√2
A.
9
𝑠√2
B.
9
4√2
C.
9
5√2
D.
9
E. 0

8. If 3𝑥 2 + 5𝑦 = 18, the maximum value of 3𝑥 ∙ 5𝑦 is ...

A. 72
B. 80
C. 81
D. 86
E. 88

9. It is known that 𝑠𝑥 − 𝑦 = 0 is a tangent to a circle whose center is in the third quadrant and is
1 unit from the 𝑥-axis. If the circle is tangent to the 𝑥-axis and the center point is traversed by the
line 𝑥 = 2, the value of 3𝑠 is ...
1
A.
6
4
B.
3
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6

10. If a curve 𝑦 = (𝑎 − 2)𝑥 2 + √3(1 − 𝑎)𝑥 + (𝑎 − 2) lies above the 𝑥-axis, the smallest integer 𝑎 −
2 that fulfills is ...
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

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 E. 10

sin 𝑥 1
11. All values of x that satisfy the equation log ( sin 2𝑥) = 2 are ...
2
𝜋
A. 𝑥 = + 2𝑘𝜋, 𝑘
4
𝜋
B. 𝑥 = + 2𝑘𝜋, 𝑘
2
𝜋
C. 𝑥 = + 𝑘𝜋, 𝑘
4
𝜋
D. 𝑥 = + 2𝑘𝜋, 𝑘
3
𝜋
E. 𝑥 = + 𝑘𝜋, 𝑘
3

1 1
𝐴𝑥 3 + 𝐵𝑥 2 −3𝑥 3
3 2
12. If lim = − , then the value of 20𝐴 + 15𝐵 = ...
𝑥→2 𝑥 3 −2𝑥 2 −8𝑥+16 10
A. 99
B. 72
C. 45
D. 32
E. 16

13. Assume that 𝑓(1) = 2, 𝑓 ′ (1) = −1, 𝑔(1) = 0 and 𝑔′ (1) = 1. If 𝐹(𝑥) = 𝑓(𝑥) cos(𝑔(𝑥)), then
𝐹′(1) = ...
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
D. −1
E. −2

14. Given the functions 𝑓 and 𝑔 that satisfy the equation

1 2 2
∫ 𝑓(𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 + (∫0 𝑔(𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 ) = 3
{0 ,
2
𝑓(𝑥) = 3𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + ∫0 𝑔(𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 ,
2
with ∫0 𝑔(𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 ≠ 0. The value of 𝑓(1) = ...
A. −6
B. −3
C. 0
D. 3
E. 6

15. Given a cube 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷. 𝐸𝐹𝐺𝐻. Point R lies on the edge 𝐸𝐻, so 𝐸𝑅 = 3𝑅𝐻 and point 𝑆 is in the
middle of the edge 𝐹𝐺. The plane Ω passes through the points 𝑅, 𝑆, and 𝐴. If point 𝑈 is the
intersection between the plane Ω and the edge BF, and 𝛼 is the angle formed between the lines 𝑅𝑆
and 𝐴𝑈, then tan 𝛼 = ...
√18
A.
12
√21
B.
12
√24
C.
12

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 15 IUP Preparation

 5
D.
12
√26
E.
12

16. Given the cube 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷. 𝐸𝐹𝐺𝐻 with the edge length 6. Point 𝑃 is the midpoint of edge 𝐴𝐵. If the
point 𝑄 is the intersection point of 𝐵𝐸 and 𝑃𝐹, the distance between point 𝑄 and point 𝐶 is ...
A. 4√11
B. 3√11
C. 2√11
D. √11
1
E.
2
√11

17. It is known that 𝑝 and 𝑞 are the roots of the equation of 𝑎𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0, 𝑎 ≠ 0.

1
If 𝑝, 𝑞, form a geometric sequence and 𝑎log 18 + 𝑎log 𝑝 = 1, the value od 𝑎 + 𝑐 = ...
𝑏𝑝𝑞
1
A.
3
1
B.
2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 7

Follow Instruction C to answer questions number 18 to 20.

18. It is known that the vector 𝐮 = (1,0,2), 𝐯 = (−1, 2,0), 𝐰 = (3,1,1), and 𝐱 = (6, −1,5). If 𝐱 =
𝑘𝐮 + 𝑙𝐯 + 𝑚𝐰 and 𝐲 = (𝑘 + 𝑙)𝐮, then ....
(1) k +l +m = 2
1
(2) the cosine of the angle between 𝐮 and 𝐯 is −
5
(3) √𝐱 ∙ 𝐲 = 4
(4) |𝐲| = |𝐱|but 𝐲 is opposite to 𝐮

19. If sin 3° = 𝑎, then ...

(1) sin 3° − 2 sin 63° = √3 − 3𝑎2
(2) 2sin 63° + sin 3° = 2𝑎 + √3 − 3𝑎2
(3) 3sin 3° − 2 sin 63° = 𝑎 − √3 − 3𝑎2
(4) 2sin 3° − 4 sin 63° = −2√3 − 3𝑎2

2
20. If 𝑓(𝑥) = 2𝑥 − 3𝑥 3 with 𝑥 ∈ [−1, 3] then ...
(1) the minimum value of f is −5
(2) the minimum value of f occurs when 𝑥 = −1
(3) f increases on the interval (−1, 0) or (1, 3)
(4) f goes down on the interval (0, 1)

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 16 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 4

Follow Instruction A to answer questions number 1 to 20.

1. If a polynomial 𝑎𝑥 + 2𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 𝑏 is divided by (𝑥 2 − 1) gives a remainder (6𝑥 + 5), then 𝑎 +

3𝑏 is equal to …
A. 15
B. 12
C. 10
D. 8
E. 5

2. If 𝑥1 and 𝑥2 are the roots of the equation 𝑥 2 − (2𝑘 + 4)𝑥 + (3𝑘 + 4) = 0. If 𝑥1 , 𝑘, 𝑥2 is the first
three terms of a geometric sequences, then the formula for the nth term of the sequences is ...
A. 1 − (−1)𝑛
B. 1 + (−1)𝑛
C. −(−1)𝑛
D. 2(−1)𝑛
E. −1

3. Given the quadratic equation 𝑥 2 + 2𝑝𝑥 − 𝑝2 + 7𝑝 − 6 = 0. The value of 𝑝 so that the quadratic
equation has two roots of opposite sign are...
1
A. 1 < 𝑝 < 2 atau 𝑝 > 3 atau 𝑝 < 1
2
1
B. 1<𝑝<1
2
1
C. 1 <𝑝<3
2
D. 𝑝 < 1 atau 𝑝 > 6
1
E. 𝑝 < 1 atau 𝑝 > 2
2

4. The solution set of the inequalities √𝑥 2 − 1 ≤ √3𝑥 2 + 𝑥 − 2 are ...

1
A. {𝑥|𝑥 ≤ −1 atau 𝑥 3 }
2
3
B. {𝑥 1 atau 𝑥 ≤ −1}
C. {𝑥|𝑥 ≤ −1}
D. {𝑥| − 1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 1}
1
E. {𝑥| ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 1}
2

5. If the coordinates of points A are (3, 1, 2), B are (4, 3, 0) and C are (1, 2, 5), then the area of
triangle ABC is equal to …
A. √14
3
B. √10
2
C. 3√10
D. 2√26
1
E.
2
√114

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 17 IUP Preparation

 6. The sum of first p terms of an arithmetic sequence is q and the sum of first q terms is p. Then
the sum of the first (p + q) terms of the sequence is ...
A. 𝑝 + 𝑞
B. (𝑝 + 𝑞)/2
C. 𝑝 + 𝑞 + 1
D. −(𝑝 + 𝑞)
E. −(𝑝 + 𝑞 + 1)

7. If the remainder on division of polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) by 𝑥, 𝑥 − 1 and 𝑥 + 2 are 2, 3 and 4,

respectively, then the remainder on the division of polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) by 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 is ...
1 2
A. − 𝑥2 − 𝑥 − 2
3 5
1 2 2
B. 𝑥 + 𝑥+2
3 3
1 2 2
C. 𝑥 + 2𝑥 −
3 3
2 2 1
D. 𝑥 − 𝑥−2
3 3
2 2 1
E. 𝑥 + 𝑥+2
3 3

8. If a, b, and c are the angles of a triangle, then

cos 𝑎 − sin 𝑎 cos 𝑏 − sin 𝑏 cos 𝑐 − sin 𝑐
[ ][ ][ ] is equal to ...
sin 𝑎 cos 𝑎 sin 𝑏 cos 𝑏 sin 𝑎𝑐 cos 𝑐
1 0
A. [ ]
0 1
0 1
B. [ ]
1 0
0 −1
C. [ ]
1 0
0 1
D. [ ]
−1 0
−1 0
E. [ ]
0 −1

𝑚
9. If the maximum value of is 2, then the value of m is ...
15 sin 𝑥−8 cos 𝑥+25
A. 4
B. 16
C. 36
D. 64
E. 84

4 4
10. If ∫1 𝑓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 6, then ∫1 𝑓(5 − 𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = ...
A. 6
B. 3
C. 0
D. —1
E. —6

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 18 IUP Preparation

 11. Given the matrix of 𝐴 is 2 × 2, if 𝐴2 − 5𝐴 + 71 = 0, then the number of elements of the main
diagonal of the matrix A is ...
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

12. If the system of equations

𝑎𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 𝑏 + 1
{
𝑥+𝑦=3
And
2𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 𝑎2 + 2
{
𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 3
have the same solution, then the number of ordered pair (a, b) is ...
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. infinite

13. If 𝑓(𝑥) is a third degree polynomial whose roots are in arithmetic sequence andthe value of the
third term is three times of the first term; and the sum of the roots is 12. Then, the remainder of
𝑓(𝑥 6) divided by 𝑥 2 + 1 is ...
A. 7𝑥 − 6
B. 𝑥+6
C. 6𝑥 − 7
D. 𝑥−6
E. 𝑥+1

14. The values of x, for 0° ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 360 which satisfy the equation sin 𝑥 + sin 2𝑥 > sin 3𝑥 is ...
A. 0° < 𝑥 < 120°, 180° < 𝑥 < 240°
B. 0° < 𝑥 < 150°, 180° < 𝑥 < 270°
C. 120° < 𝑥 < 180°, 240° < 𝑥 < 360°
D. 150° < 𝑥 < 180°, 270° < 𝑥 < 360°
E. 0° < 𝑥 < 135°, 180° < 𝑥 < 270°

15. In a geometric sequence with 𝑟 > 1, it is given that twice of the first four terms is three time of
the first two even terms. If four numbers are inserted between these terms: one number is inserted
between the second and the third term, and three numbers are inserted between the third and
fourth term, an arithmetic sequence with a difference of r is formed. The total of inserted numbers
is ...
A. 14
B. 24
C. 28
D. 32

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 19 IUP Preparation

 E. 42

16. A set of data 5, 3, a, 6, b, 6, c has an average of 5 and a mode of 3. The range of the data is ….
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8

2 0 1 0
17. Given matrix A = ( ) and B = ( ) if m dan n are real numbers so A + mB + nA−1 =
6 1 0 1
0 0
( ), then the value of n – m = ….
0 0
A. 5
B. 1
C. -1
D. -5
E. -7

18. The set of all real numbers x on the interval [π, 2π] that satisfies 2 cos2x + sin 2x  0, has the
form [a, b]. The value of (a + b) is …
6
A. π
4
7
B. π
4
13
C. π
4
14
D. π
4
15
E. π
4

19. It is known that the graph y = f(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d as shown in the image below.

If h(x) = (f ∘ f)(x), then h’ (0) = ….

1
A.
9
2
B.
9
4
C.
9
5
D.
9
7
E.
9

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 20 IUP Preparation

 20. It is known that a geometric sequence (a n ) with an infinite series has a sum equal to 6. If a
geometric sequence (a n 2 ) has an infinite series with a sum equal to 18, then the first term of the
sequence (a n ) is ….
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
1
E.
2

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 21 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 5

Follow Instruction A to answer question number 1 to 20.

1
1. At ABC is known B = 45 and CT is perpendicular to. If BC = x and AT = 1 × √2, then cos
2
CAB = ….

2
A.
5
√5
2
B.
5
√2
2
C. √3
5
3
D.
5
√5
3
E.
10
√5

2. Given that f(x) + 3g −1 (x) = x 2 + x − 18 and f(x) + 2g −1 (x) = x 2 − 14. If f 1 (x) is positive,
then the value of f 1 (2) + g −1 (2) = ⋯
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

3. Given block ABCD.EFGH with AB = AE = 4 and BC = 3. Points P and Q are midpoints of FG

and GH, respectively. The tangent angle of the diagonal plane FHDB and plane PQDB is ….
1
A.
10
3
B.
10
2
C.
5
3
D.
8
7
E.
16

4. The system of equations is known

3𝑥 = 𝑦
{ 2
𝑥 − 3𝑥 + 𝑦 2 + 6 = 8 − 2𝑥
Has a solution (p, q). The possible values of the form p – q are ….
2
A.
5
1
B.
2
4
C.
5
D. 1
3
E.
2

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 22 IUP Preparation

 0 a
5. The corresponding transformation matrix A= ( ) maps point (1,2) to point (4, 2). If the same
b 0
transformation maps point (x, y) to point (12, 6) then the value x – y = ….
A. -9
B. -3
C. 0
D. 3
E. 9

6. If m and n are the roots of the quadratic equation 2𝑥 2 + 𝑥 − 2 = 0, then the quadratic equation
of the roots 𝑚3 − 𝑛2 and 𝑛3 − 𝑚2 is ...
A. 32𝑥 2 + 101𝑥 − 124 = 0
B. 32𝑥 2 − 101𝑥 + 124 = 0
C. −32𝑥 2 + 101𝑥 − 124 = 0
D. −32𝑥 2 − 101𝑥 − 124 = 0
E. −32𝑥 2 + 101𝑥 + 124 = 0

7. It is known that 𝑝(𝑥) and 𝑔(𝑥) are two different polynomials, where 𝑝(10) = 𝑚 and 𝑔(10) = 𝑛.
𝑝(𝑥) 16
If 𝑝(𝑥)ℎ(𝑥) = ( − 1) (𝑝(𝑥) + 𝑔(𝑥)), ℎ(10) = − , then the maximum value of |𝑚 + 𝑛| = ...
𝑔(𝑥) 5
A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2
E. 0

8. The solutions set of inequality log|𝑥 + 1| ≥ log 3 + log|2𝑥 − 1| is ...

2 4 1
A. {𝑥 ∈ 𝑅| ≤ 𝑥 ≤ , 𝑥 ≠ }
7 5 2
1 4
B. {𝑥 ∈ 𝑅| ≤ 𝑥 ≤ }
2 5
2 4
C. {𝑥 ∈ 𝑅| ≤ 𝑥 ≤ }
7 5
1
D. {𝑥 ∈ 𝑅|𝑥 ≤ −1 atau 𝑥 > }
2
4 1
E. {𝑥 ∈ 𝑅|𝑥 ≤ , 𝑥 ≠ }
5 2

9. It is known that an arithmetic sequence {𝑎𝑛 } has initial term 𝑎 > 0 and 2𝑎10 = 5𝑎15 . The value of
𝑛 that satisfies in order to reach the maximum total of the first n terms is ...
A. 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 19
E. 20

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 23 IUP Preparation

 10. Given the vector 𝑏⃗ = (𝑦, −2𝑧, 3𝑥), and 𝑐 = (2𝑧, 3𝑥, −𝑦). It is known that the vector 𝑎 forms an
obtuse angle with the y-axis and ‖𝑎 ‖ = 2√3. If 𝑎 forms an angle equal to 𝑏⃗ and 𝑐 , also
perpendicular to 𝑑 = (1, −1,2), then 𝑎 = ...
A. (1, 0, −1)
B. (−2, −2, −2)
C. (2, 0, −2)
D. (−2, 0, 2)
E. (2, −2, −2)

𝑓 ′′ (0)
11. It is known that 𝑓(𝑥) = sin(sin3 (cos(𝑥))). If = 𝐴 cos(sin3 (1)) sin(1), then 𝐴 = ...
sin(2)
3
A.
2
1
B.
2
C. 0
1
D. −
2
3
E. −
2

12. The number of 𝜃 when 0° ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 360° satisfies the equation 2log(3 sin 𝜃) = 22 log(−3 cos 𝜃) + 1
is ...
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
E. 0

13. If log(𝑎3 𝑏 7 ), log(𝑎5 𝑏12 ), and log(𝑎8 𝑏15 ) are the first three terms of an arithmetic sequence, and
log(𝑏 𝑛 ) is the 12th terms, then the value of 𝑛 is ...
A. 82
B. 108
C. 112
D. 146
E. 152

14. If k is the smallest natural number given by two quadratic functions 𝑓(𝑥) = (𝑘 − 1)𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 − 1
and 𝑔(𝑥) = (𝑘 − 2)𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 2𝑘 intersect in two different points 𝑥1 , 𝑦1 and 𝑥2 , 𝑦2 , then the quadratic
equation of roots 𝑥1 + 𝑥2 and 𝑦1 + 𝑦2 are ...
A. 𝑥2 − 1 = 0
B. 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 − 5 = 0
C. 𝑥 2 − 10𝑥 = 0
D. 𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 − 7 = 0
E. 𝑥 2 − 26𝑥 − 56 = 0

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 24 IUP Preparation

 15. Given a cube 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷. 𝐸𝐹𝐺𝐻 with the edge length 𝑎. The coordinates of point A are (0,0,0) and
the vector 𝑐 = (−3, sin 𝜃, − 9). If proj → (prok → (proj → 𝑐 )) = (𝑥1 , 𝑥2 , 𝑥3 ), then the value of −𝑥1 +
𝐷𝐸 𝐵𝐶 𝐴𝐵
2𝑥2 + 𝑥32 = ...
A. −2
B. −1
C. 0
D. 1
E. 2

16.

If 𝑂1 𝑆 = 4 cm and 𝑂2 𝑄 = √3 cm, and 𝑇𝑃 = 4 cm, then the length of the chord 𝑄𝑅 is ... cm.
A. √3
1
B. √3
3
C. 2√3
D. 3
E. 4

17. Assume that 𝛼, 𝛽 is the number of integers 𝑘, and the multiplication of all integers 𝑘 satisfy the
equation 𝑓(𝑥) = (−𝑘_2)𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 − 2 and 𝑔(𝑥) = 2𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 𝑘 + 2, so that the graphs of the two
functions are intersect at two different points. If −3 ≤ 𝑘 ≤ 1, then the quadratic equation of the
roots 𝛼 2 + 𝛽 and 𝛽 2 + 𝛼 are ...
A. 𝑥 2 − 20𝑥 + 64 = 0
B. 𝑥 2 − 42𝑥 + 117 = 0
C. 𝑥 2 − 30𝑥 + 125 = 0
D. 𝑥 2 − 48𝑥 + 380 = 0
E. 𝑥 2 − 50𝑥 + 400 = 0

18. The number of pairs (𝑥, 𝑦) that satisfy the equation 2𝑥 2 − |𝑥𝑦| + 1 = 0 and (4𝑥 − 𝑦)2 + 𝑦 2 = 8
are ...
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 25 IUP Preparation

 𝑔(𝑥)
19. If divided by 𝑥 2 − 𝑥, the remainder is 𝑥 + 2 and if 𝑥𝑓(𝑥) + 𝑔(𝑥) divided by 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 − 2, the
𝑓(𝑥)
remainder is 𝑥 − 4, then 𝑓(1) = ...
3
A.
4
1
B.
2
C. 0
1
D. −
2
3
E. −
4

𝑥 1 2𝑥−1
20. If 𝑓(𝑥) = + and 𝑔(𝑥) = , then the value of 𝑥 that satisfies |𝑓(𝑥) − 𝑔(𝑥)| < 2 is ...
2 2 3
A. −7 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 17
B. 𝑥 < −7 or 𝑥 > 17
C. 𝑥 ≤ −7 or 𝑥 ≥ 17
D. −7 < 𝑥 < 17
E. −17 < 𝑥 < 7

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 26 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 6

1. The graph depicts a function 𝑔(𝑥). Does lim 𝑔(𝑥) exist?

𝑥→1
A. lim 𝑔(𝑥) does not exist because 𝑔(1) is undefined.
𝑥→1
B. lim 𝑔(𝑥) does not exist because lim− 𝑔(𝑥) ≠ lim+ 𝑔(𝑥).
𝑥→1 𝑥→1 𝑥→1
C. lim 𝑔(𝑥) does not exist because 𝑔 is not continuous at 𝑥 = 1.
𝑥→1
D. lim 𝑔(𝑥) exists because lim− 𝑔(𝑥 ) ≠ lim+ 𝑔(𝑥 ).
𝑥→1 𝑥→1 𝑥→1
E. lim 𝑔(𝑥) exists because 𝑔(𝑥 ) is constant on (−∞, 1).
𝑥→1

sin(2𝑥 2 −2)
2. Calculate lim
𝑥→1 𝑥 2 −1
1
A. 2
B. 1
C. −1
D. 2
E. The limit does not exist.

1
3. When 𝑥 = 3, what is the concavity of the graph of 2𝑥 4 + 2 𝑥?
A. Decreasing, convex
B. Increasing, concave
C. Decreasing, concave
D. There is insufficient data to solve.
E. Increasing, convex

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 27 IUP Preparation

 The speed of a car traveling on the highway is given by the following function of time:
𝑓(𝑡) = 5𝑡 2 + 2𝑡

4. Consider a second function:

𝑔(𝑡) = 10𝑡 + 2

What can we conclude about this second function?

A. It represents another way to write the car's speed
B. It represents the total distance the car has traveled at time 𝑡.
C. It has no relation to the previous function.
D. It represents the rate at which the speed of the car is changing.
E. It represents the change in distance over a given time 𝑡.

5. The fourth term in an arithmetic sequence is -20, and the eighth term is -10. What is the
hundredth term in the sequence?
A. 55
B. 105
C. 210
D. 220
E. 110

The speed of a car traveling on the highway is given by the following function of time:
𝑣(𝑡) = 5𝑡 2 + 2𝑡

6. What can you say about the car's speed after a long time (that is, as t approaches infinity)?
A. The speed of the car approaches a constant number.
B. The speed of the car depends on the starting speed.
C. Nothing can be concluded from the given function.
D. The speed of the car approaches zero.
E. The speed of the car approaches infinity.

7. What is the domain of the function below?

1 − 2𝑥
𝑓 (𝑥 ) =
√𝑥 2 − 𝑥 + 1
4
1
A. 𝑥≠
2
B. ℕ
C. 𝑥 ≠ −1
D. 𝑥≠1
1
E. 𝑥 ≠ −2

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 28 IUP Preparation

 8. 𝑜 = 7.6, ℎ = 15.7, Θ =?
A. 85.92°
B. 50.53°
C. 59.28°
D. 0.50°
E. 28.95°

9. Which of the following choices represents a pair of coterminal angles?

17𝜋 23𝜋
A. 3
and 3
17𝜋 23𝜋
B. and
4 4
17𝜋 23𝜋
C. and
5 5
17𝜋 23𝜋
D. and
6 6
17𝜋 23𝜋
E. and
2 2

2
10. How many degrees are in 3 𝜋 radians?
A. 150°
B. 60°
C. 240°
D. 120°
E. 30°

11. Simplify the expression. Find the positive solution only.

√50𝑥 3 𝑦 4

A. 25𝑥 2 𝑦 4 √2𝑥
B. 25𝑥𝑦
C. 5𝑥𝑦√2𝑥
D. 𝑥𝑦 2 √50𝑥𝑦 2
E. 5𝑥𝑦 2 √2𝑥

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 29 IUP Preparation

 12. If the function 𝑓(𝑥) is depicted here, which answer choice graphs 𝑓(𝑥 + 2)?
A.

B.

C.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 30 IUP Preparation

 D.

13. Simplify the expression:

2𝑥 2
𝑥 3 + −1
𝑥

A. 𝑥 3 + 2𝑥 2
2
B. 𝑥 3 + 𝑥3
C. 𝑥3 + 2
D. 3𝑥 3
E. 𝑥 3 + 2𝑥

14. Factor this expression:

𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 + 12

A. (𝑥 + 2) (𝑥 + 6)
B. (𝑥 + 4)(𝑥 + 3)
C. (𝑥 − 2) (𝑥 + 6)
D. (𝑥 + 4)(𝑥 − 3)
E. (𝑥 − 4)(𝑥 + 3)

15. Robert is designing a rectangular garden. He wants the area of the garden to be 9 square
meters. If the length of the lot is going to be three meters less than twice the width, what will the
perimeter of the lot be in meters?
A. 6
B. 1.5
C. 12
D. 10
E. 3

This figure is an isosceles trapezoid with bases of 6 in and 18 in and a side of 10 in.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 31 IUP Preparation

 16. What is the area of the isoceles trapezoid?
A. 60
B. 180
C. 72
D. 120
E. 96

17. What is the length of the diagonal of a square with a side length of 8?
A. 8√2
B. 16
C. 80
D. 64
E. √72

18. An equilateral triangle has a perimeter of 18. What is its area?

A. 36
B. 9√3
C. 18√3
D. 18
E. 9√2

If a = 7 and b = 4, which of the following could be the perimeter of the triangle?

19. I. 11
II. 15
III. 25

A. I Only
B. I and II Only
C. II Only
D. I, II and III
E. II and III Only

20. The base angle of an isosceles triangle is thirteen more than three times the vertex angle.
What is the difference between the vertex angle and the base angle?
A. 101°
B. 22°
C. 57°
D. 65°
E. 79⁰

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 32 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 7

1. At ∆ABC, if ∠ABC = 60°, CT is the altitude from point C, AC = p √3, and AT = p, then the
length of line segment BC is ....
1
A. √6p.s
6
1
B. √6p.s
3
1
C. √6p.s
2
2
D. √6p.s
3
E. √6p.s

2. A ship sails east for 30 miles. Then the ship continues its course at 030° for 60 miles. The
distance of the ship to the position when the ship departs is....
A. 10 √37miles
B. 30 √7miles

C. √(5 + 2√2)mile

D. 30√(5 + 2√3)mile

E. √(5 − 2√3)mile

3. If 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π and 0 ≤ y ≤ 2 satisfies the equation sin (y + x) = sin y. cos x, then cos y. sin x = ....
A. -1
1
B. −
2
C. 0
1
D.
2
E. 1

2 tan x
4. In terms of sine and cosine, =...
1+tan2 x
A. 2 sin x cos x
B. 2 sin² x
C. 2 cos² x
D. sin 2x
E. sin² x – cos² x

3
5. If α and β are acute angles, tanα = and tanβ = 1, then the value 5(cos(α + β) + cos (α – β)) is ....
4
A. √2
B. 2√2
C. 3√2
D. 5
E. 4√2

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 33 IUP Preparation

 6. The value of cos² 15° + cos2 35° + cos2 55° + cos² 75⁰ is ....
A. 2
3
B.
2
C. 1
1
D.
2
E. 0

1 1
7. If cosx tan x + √3 = 0 for 1 π < x < 2π, then cos x = ....
2 2
A. -2
2
B. − √3
3
1
C. −
2
2
D. √3
3
1
E.
2

8. The graph of the function in this area has the equation ....

1
A. y = 2sin (x – π)
2
1
B. y= 2sin ( π – x)
2
1
C. y = 2sin (2x + π)
2
1
D. y = -2sin ( π + x)
2
1
E. y = -2sin ( π – 2x)
2

𝜋
9. If sin (x + ) = 0,6 then sin(x + π) + cos(-x) = ....
2
A. -0.4
B. -0,2
C. 0.2
D. 0.4
E. 0.6

10. tan x sin x - cos x = sin x, so tan x = ....

1 1 1 1
A. − + √3or− − √3
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1
B. + √3or − √3
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1
C. − + √5or− − √5
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1
D. + √5or − √5
2 2 2 2
E. 1 + √5or1 − √5

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 34 IUP Preparation

 11. It is known that the cube ABCD.EFGH has side length of a. If point P lies on the extension AB
so that PB = 2a, and point Q on the extension FG so that QG = a, then PQ = ....
1
A. sin𝜃
t
B. –cos
1
C. tan𝜃
t
D. t sin𝜃
E. t tan𝜃

12. In a regular rectangular pyramid T.ABCD where all the edges are the same length. The angle
between TA and plane ABCD is....
A. 15⁰
B. 30⁰
C. 45⁰
D. 60⁰
E. 75⁰

13. In the ABCD.EFGH cube, 𝜃 is the acute angle between the ACF plane and the ACGE plane.
For 𝜃 apply....
√2
A. sin 𝜃 =
2
B. sin 𝜃 = √2
√2
C. tan 𝜃 =
2
D. tan 𝜃 = √2
E. cot g √3

14. Given a block ABCD.EFGH with AB = 2BC = 2AE = 2 cm. The length of AH is....
1
A. cm
2
B. 1cm
C. √2cm
D. 2cm
E. √3cm

15. It is known that the cube ABCD.EFGH has an edge length of 2a. If P is the midpoint of BF and
Q is the midpoint of EH, then the length of PQ is ....
A. a√3
B. 2a
C. a√5
D. a√6
E. 3a√2

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 35 IUP Preparation

 16. Given the cube ABCD.EFGH. The midpoints of sides AB, BF and FG are symbolized X, Y and
Z. ∠XYZ's value is ....
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°
E. 120°

17. In regular pyramid T.ABCD. TA = 3a √2, AB = 3a. The area of the plane section through A
and perpendicular to TC with a pyramid is....
A. a²√3
B. 3a²√2
C. 3a²√6
D. 6a 2√3
E. 6a 2√6

18. Given the cube ABCD.EFGH. P is the midpoint of HG, M is the midpoint of DC, N is the
midpoint of BC, and S is the midpoint of MN. Comparison of the area of ∆ APS with the area of
projection ∆ APS onto the plane ABCD is ....
A. 2:1
B. 1:2
C. 2:3
D. 3:1
E. 3:2

19. The length of each edge of the regular quadrilateral D-ABC is 16 cm. If P is in the middle of
DA and Q is in the middle of BC, then the length of PQ is .....
A. 3cm √6
B. 8cm √3
C. 8cm √2
D. 12cm √3
E. 12cm √2

20. It is known that cube ABCD.EFGH has length AB = 8 cm, length BC = 8 cm and length AE =
1
16 cm. If point P is in the middle of EH and point Q is on edge AE then EQ = EA. If α is the angle
4
between the PQ line and the BDHF plane, then the size of the angle α is ....
A. 30⁰
B. 45°
C. 60⁰
D. 75⁰
E. 90⁰

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 36 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 8

1. The sum of the x and y values that are integers from the following system of equations:
2x + 3y – 1 = 0
x² - xy - 2y² - x - 4y - 2 = 0,
is....
A. -7
B. -1
C. 1
D. 3
E. 7

2. If x + y + 2z = k, x + 2y + z = k and 2x + y + z = k, k ≠ 0, then x² + y² + z² expressed in k is ....

k2
A.
16
3k2
B.
16
4k2
C.
17
3k2
D.
8
2k2
E.
3

3. Mrs. Retno spent IDR 26,000 to buy 2 kg of flour and 3 kg of sugar. Eli's mother spent IDR
32,000 to buy 2 kg of flour and 4 kg of sugar. At the same shop, Mrs. Kismi buys 2 kg of flour and 1
kg of sugar, she has to pay...
A. IDR 20,000.00
B. IDR 16,000.00
C. IDR 14,000.00
D. IDR 12,000.00
E. IDR 10,000.00

4. 2x + 7y = 10
The solution of is x and y.
3x – 2y = 5
Value of ( x + y ) = ....
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 37 IUP Preparation

 5. x + y = -1
System of linear equations -x + 3y = -11
ax + by = 4
has a solution if the value 3b - 2a = .....
A. -8
B. -4
C. 0
D. 4
E. 8

6. If (x,y,z) satisfies the following system of equations:

2 4 5 9
2
+ 2
+ 2=
(x − 1) (y − 2) z 4
4 2 1 1
+ − =
(x − 1)2 (y + 2)2 z 2 2
3 6 2
2
+ 2
− 2=1
(x − 1) (y + 2) z

Then the value of (x - 1)² + (y + 2)² + z² = ....

A. 0
B. 1
C. 4
D. 9
E. 16

7. The set of all k numbers so that the system of linear equations:

kx + y = 2

x–y=3

have a solution....
A. k < -1 or k > -1
B. -1 < k < 0
C. k>1
D. k<0
E. k>2

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 38 IUP Preparation

 8. The following system of linear equations is known.
13x + 11y = 700

mx – y = 1

In order for a pair of integers (x, y) to satisfy the system of linear equations, the number of m
values that satisfy is....
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6

9. Let x = 1 and y = 3 be one of the solutions to the following system of equations.

ax - by = 2a - b

(c + 1)z + cy = 10 – a + 3b

the value of a + b + c = ....

A. -2b
b+9
B.
4
5b+9
C.
4
9b+9
D.
4
−3b+9
E.
4

10. One of the values of x that satisfies the system of equations xy + y² = 0 and x - 2y = 3 is ....
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
E. 4

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 39 IUP Preparation

 11. Of the 3 numbers, the smallest is 19 and the largest is 75, the arithmetic mean of these three
numbers cannot be equal to....
A. 49
B. 52
C. 53
D. 56
E. 59

12. The average score of the math test of 40 high school students is 70. If a student whose score is
100 and 3 students whose score is 30 each are not included in the calculation, then the average
value will be ....
A. 70.5
B. 72.5
C. 74.5
D. 75.5
E. 76.5

13. It is known that x₁ = 3.5; x₂ = 5.0; x 3 = 6.0; x 4 = 7.5 and x 5 = 8.0. If the average deviation of the
̅
xi −X x
value is expressed by the formula ∑ni=1 | ̅ = ∑ni=1 i, then the average deviation of the
|with X
n n
value above is ....
A. 0
B. 0.9
C. 1.0
D. 1,4
E. 6

14. The ratio of the number of permanent workers and temporary workers in a factory is 1:9. If
the average income of temporary workers is Rp. 1.8 million and permanent workers are Rp. 2.4
million, then the annual income of the two groups is...
A. IDR 4.2 million
B. IDR 2.1 million
C. IDR 1.86 million
D. IDR 2.34 million
E. IDR 2.4 million

15. A data has an average of 35 and a range of 7. If each value in the data is multiplied by p then
reduced by q, new data is obtained with an average of 42 and a range of 9. Value 7p – q = ....
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 40 IUP Preparation

 16. A set of data has an average of 12 and a range of 6. If each data is reduced by x then the result
is divided by y it turns out to produce new data with an average of 2 and a range of 3. Then the
value of x + y is ....
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
E. 16

17. Given the data x₁, x 2 x 3 , .... x 10 . If each value is added by 10, then....
(1) The average will increase by 10
(2) Range increased by 10
(3) The median is increased by 10
(4) The quartile deviation increases by 10

18. In a math test that was attended by 50 students, an average of 35 was obtained with a median
of 40 and a standard deviation of 10. Because the average score was too low, all scores were
multiplied by two and then reduced by fifteen, the result was ....
A. The average score is 70
B. The average score is 65
C. The standard deviation becomes 20
D. The median is 80
E. The standard deviation becomes 5

19. The average score of the math test of both classes is 5.38. If the average value of the first class
consisting of 38 students is 5.8 and the second class consists of 42 students, then the average value
of the second class is ....
A. 5
B. 5,12
C. 5,18
D. 5,21
E. 5,26

20. A set of data has an average of 12 and a range of 6. If each data is reduced by a then the result
is divided by b it turns out to produce new data with an average of 2 and a range of 3, then the
values of a and b are ....
A. 8 and 2
B. 10 and 2
C. 4 and 4
D. 6 and 4
E. 8 and 4

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 41 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 9

1. If a, b, c, d, and e are positive real numbers that form a descending arithmetic sequence and a,
b
d, e form a geometric sequence, then value = ....
e
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
E. 3

2. The five natural numbers form a geometric sequence with a positive ratio. If the sum of the 3
largest terms and the sum of the three smallest terms of the geometric sequence is 171 and 76
respectively, then the sum of the 5 numbers is ....
A. 125
B. 130
C. 180
D. 211
E. 347

3. Eleven numbers form an arithmetic series and have a total of 187. If every 2 consecutive terms
in the series are inserted the average of the 2 consecutive terms, the number of the new series is ....
A. 289
B. 323
C. 357
D. 399
E. 418

4. Given S₁ = 3 + 5 + ... +(2n + 1) and S = 3 + 2(0.6) + 2(0.6)² + ... any of the values of n that satisfy
Sn
the equationS = is ....
2(n−2)

A. 10
B. 9
C. 8
D. 6
E. 5

5. An arithmetic sequence consists of ten terms and the total is 145. If the sum of the fourth and
ninth terms is equal to five times the third term, then the difference in the series is ....
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
1
D. 2
2
1
E. 3
2

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 42 IUP Preparation

 1
6. If Un is the n-th term of an arithmetic sequence that satisfies U5 = and U₁ + U₂ + U3 + U4 + U5 =
4
10, then U3 = ....
9
A.
8
B. 2
23
C.
8
15
D.
4
19
E.
4

7. Regarding the arithmetic series 1, 3, 5, 7, .... it is known that the sum of the first n terms is 225,
then the n-th term is ....
A. 25
B. 35
C. 31
D. 27
E. 29

8. log a + log (ab) + log (ab²) + log (ab³) + .... is an arithmetic series. Then the sum of the first 6
terms is equal to....
A. 6 logs a + 15 logs b
B. 6 logs a + 12 logs b
C. 6 logs a + 18 logs b
D. 7 logs a + 15 logs b
E. 7 logs a + 12 logs b

9. Between the numbers 8 and 112 are inserted 10 numbers so that together, these two numbers
occur an arithmetic series. Then the sum of the arithmetic series that occurs is ....
A. 120
B. 360
C. 480
D. 600
E. 720

10. The sum of the first 50 terms of the series log5 + log55 + log605 + log6655 + .... is ....
A. log(25 25 11 1225 )
B. log(5 25 11 1225 )
C. logs(275 1150 )
D. 1150log(5)
E. log(55 1150 )

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 43 IUP Preparation

 11. The square roots of the quadratic equation:
2x² - 20x + (7k - 1) = 0 are the first and second terms of a geometric series with a ratio greater than
1. If the two square roots of the equation are compared as 2 and 3, then the fourth term of the
geometric series is ....
A. 9 for k= 7
1
B. 13 for any k
2
1
C. 13 for k = 7
2
1
D. 15 for any k
2
1
E. 15 for k = 7
2

12. The quadratic equation x² - ax + 1 = 0 has square roots x 1 and x₂. If the quadratic equation x² +
x1 3 x2 3
px + q = 0 has square roots and then p= ....
x2 x1

A. –a 4 + 4a² - 4 = 0
B. –a 4 – 4a² - 4 = 0
C. –a 4 + 4a² - 2 = 0
D. a 4 +4a² - 4 = 0
E. a + 4a² + 4 = 0

13. If α and β are solutions to the equation √1 + 4x − √2x = 1, then α + β = ....

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

14. Given the quadratic equation ax² + bx + c = 0. One root is a multiple of 4 of the other square
root.
Then a, b, and c satisfy the relationship....
A. b = 4a²c
B. b = 16ac
C. b² = 8ac
D. 4b2 = 9ac
E. 4b2 = 25ac

15. The sum of the square roots of the equation x² - 3x + n = 0 is equal to the sum of the cubes of
the roots of the equation x² + x – n = 0. Then the value of n is ....
A. -10
B. -6
C. 8
D. 10
E. 12

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 44 IUP Preparation

 16. It is known that α and β are the roots of the equation x² - 2x – 4 = 0. A quadratic equation
α β
whose roots and is ....
β α
A. x² - 3x – 1 = 0
B. x² + 3x + 1 = 0
C. x² + 3x – 1 = 0
D. x² - x + 1 = 0
E. x² - 4x – 1 = 0

x²−bx m−1
17. If the two roots of the equation = are opposite in sign, but have the same absolute
ax−c m+1
value, then the value of m is equal to ....
a+b
A.
a−b
B. c
a−b
C.
a+b
1
D.
c
E. 1

18. The square roots of the quadratic equation x² - px + 4 = 0, p > 0 are α² and β². The new
quadratic equation whose roots (α + β)² and (α - β)² are ....
A. x² - px – 2 = 0
B. x² - 8x + (p - 4)² = 0
C. x² - 2px + (p - 4) = 0
D. x² - px + (p - 16) = 0
E. x² - 2px + (p² - 16)² = 0

19. If x 1 and x₂ are square roots of the equation 32x + 33-2x – 28 = 0, then the sum of the two square
roots equals ....
A. 0
B. 1
3
C.
2
D. 3
E. 9 logs28

20. The two equations x² + 2x + k = 0 and x² + x - 2k = 0 have real square roots for ....
1
A. − ≤k≤2
2
1
B. − ≤k≤1
4
1
C. − ≤k≤1
8
1
D. − ≤k≤2
8
1
E. − ≤k<1
8

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 45 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 10

1. It is known that A = {9,7,6,5,4,3,2,1}. Five members of A are taken at random. The probability
that the five members drawn are an even number is...
1
A.
2
25
B.
56
1
C.
2
1
D.
4
5
E.
56

2. The probability that Ali, Budi and Dian pass "UAN" are 0.7 respectively; 0.8; and 0.9. The
probability that only one of the three students will passes is...
A. 0.082
B. 0.092
C. 0.504
D. 0.820
E. 0.920

3. Out of 10 students consisting of 7 boys and 3 girls a team of 5 members will be formed. If it is
required that there are at most 2 girls in the team, then the number of teams that can be formed is
....
A. 168
B. 189
C. 210
D. 231
E. 252

4. A student is required to do 8 out of 10 questions, but numbers 1 to 4 must be done. The

number of choices the student has to make is...
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
E. 30

5. A committee consisting of 4 people with the details of one as chairman, one as secretary, and
2 as members (the two members are not distinguished), will be selected from the 3 men and 3
women available. If the secretary must be a woman, then the number of ways to form the
committee is...
A. 90 C. 150 E. 360
B. 108 D. 180

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 46 IUP Preparation

 6. A school forms a delegation team consisting of 4 grade I students, 5 grade II students, and 6
grade III students. Then a leadership will be determined consisting of a chairman, vice chairman,
secretary. If the leader's home class must be higher than the vice-chairman's and secretary's home
class, then the number of possible leadership arrangements is....
A. 156
B. 492
C. 546
D. 600
E. 720

7. Tono and his 9 friends intend to form a volleyball team consisting of 6 people. If Tono has to
be a member of the team then the number of possible teams is...
A. 126
B. 162
C. 210
D. 216
E. 252

8. A study group for mothers has 10 members. If each recitation is seated in a circle, the number
of ways the mothers can sit in a circle is...
A. 720 ways
B. 1,008 ways
C. 3,528 ways
D. 362,880 ways
E. 3,628,800 ways

2
9. In a penalty shoot-out, the chance that Edwin Van Der Sar will save one kick is . Edwin Van
3
Der Sar's chances of saving 3 of 5 penalty kicks are....
8
A.
27
15
B.
27
8
C.
243
40
D.
243
80
E.
243

10. If Crn expressing the number of combinations of r elements from n elements and Crn = 2n, then
C72n = ...
A. 160
B. 120
C. 116
D. 90
E. 80

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 47 IUP Preparation

 11. If the square roots of the equation: x 4 - 8x³ + ax² - bx + c = 0 form an arithmetic series with a
difference of 2, then ....
A. a = -8, b = -15, c = 16
B. a = 8, b = 15, c = -16
C. a = 14, b = -8, c = 15
D. a = -16, b = 8, c = -15
E. a = 14, b = -8, c = -15

12. Let x 1 and x 2 be integers which are the square roots of the quadratic equation x² - (2k + 4)x+
(3k + 4) = 0. If x₁, k, x₂ are the first three terms of a geometric series, then the formula for the -n
series is ....
A. 1 - (-1) n
B. 1 + (-1) n
C. -(-1) n
D. 2(-1) n
E. -1

13. If the square roots of the polynomial equation x 4 - 8x³ + 2ax² + (5b + 3)x + 4c – 3 = 0 are sorted
according to their value from smallest to largest, then an arithmetic sequence is formed with a
difference of 2. Value a + b + c =....
A. -3
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6

14. If x₁, x₂ and x 3 are square roots of 2x³ - px² - 18x + 36 = 0 and x 1 = -x₂, then the value of p is ....
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

15. If x₁, x₂ and x 3 are square roots of the equation x³ - 5x² + 9x - 3 = 0, then the value of x12 x2 x3 +
x1 x2² x3 + x1 x2 x3² = ....
A. 15
B. 30
C. 33
D. 36
E. 39

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 48 IUP Preparation

 16. It is known that (x - 2) and (x - 1) are factors of P(x) = x³ + ax² -13x + b. If the factors of P(x) are
x₁, x₂, x3 with x₁ > x₂ > x3 , then the value of x1 - x₂ - x3 is ....
A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2
E. 1

17. One of the factors of (2x³ - 5x² - px + 3) is (x + 1). Another factor of that polynomial is....
A. (x - 2) and (x - 3)
B. (x + 2) and (2x - 1)
C. (x + 3) and (x + 2)
D. (2x + 1) and (x - 2)
E. (2x - 1) and (x - 3)

18. The equation of a polynomial whose roots are twice the square roots of the polynomial x³ +
3x² - 5x + 7 is ....
A. 8x³ - 12x² - 10x – 7 = 0
B. x³ + 6x² - 20x + 56 = 0
C. 8x³ + 12x² - 10x + 7 = 0
D. x³ - 3x² - 5x – 7 = 0
E. x³ - 6x² - 20x – 56 = 0

19. The three square roots of the equation x³ + x² - 3x - 2 = 0 equal the square roots of the equation
3³ + (p + 2)x² + (pq - 7)x + pqr = 0, then p + q + r = ....
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

20. The number of real square roots of: x4 - 3x³ - 3x² + 7x + 6 = 0 is ....
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 49 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 11

3 1 −2
1. It is known that matrices A= [ ] The transpose of matrices A is...
0 −5 3
3 1 −2
A. 𝐴𝑇 = [ ]
0 −5 3
3 1
B. 𝐴𝑇 = [−2 0]
−5 3
3 1 −2
C. 𝐴𝑇 =[ ]
0 −5 3
3 0
D. 𝐴𝑇 = [ 1 −5]
−2 3
3 0
E. 𝐴𝑇 = [−5 1]
−2 3

2𝑎 − 4 3𝑏
𝑏−5 3𝑎 − 𝑐 4
2. It is known that matrices P = [ 𝑑 + 2 2𝑐 ]and matrices Q =[ ] If 𝑃𝑇 = Q,
3 6 𝑒
4 4−𝑑
then the value of a + b + c + d = …
A. -2
B. -1
C. 0
D. 1
E. 2

4 2+𝑝 4 2. 𝑝
3. If matrices A = [ ]and B = [ ]and A = B then the value of P is...
𝑞 5 3 5
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

𝑎 𝑏 𝑏 1T
4. Suppose AT is a transpose matrices A matrices that satisfies the equation [ ] + 2[ ] =
3 4 𝑎 0
4 5
[ ], then the value of a 2 – b 2 = …
5 4
A. -9
B. -3
C. -1
D. 3
E. 9

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 50 IUP Preparation

 𝑎 4 2𝑐 − 3𝑏 2𝑎 + 1
5. It is known that the matrices A =[ ] and matrices B = [ ]. If 𝐵𝑇 you state
2𝑏 3𝑐 𝑎 𝑏+7
the transpose matrices B, then A = 2𝐵𝑇 fulfilled for the value of c = ….
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
E. 10

−3 2 8 −4
6. If A = [ ] and B = [ ]then A + B = ….
4 −1 5 2
3 2
A. [ ]
4 −1
5 −2
B. [ ]
9 1
5 −2
C. [ ]
−9 1
5 −2
D. [ ]
9 −1
3 2
E. [ ]
−4 −1

−3 2 8 −4
7. If A = [ ] and B = [ ]then A - B = ….
4 −1 5 2
5 −12
A. [ ]
−9 1
−5 −2
B. [ ]
9 11
−11 6
C. [ ]
−1 −3
−5 −2
D. [ ]
9 12
15 −2
E. [ ]
9 1

−3 2
8. If A = [ ] then 5A = …
4 −1
−15 −20
A. [ ]
9 1
−15 −2
B. [ ]
19 1
−15 −12
C. [ ]
9 10
−15 10
D. [ ]
20 −5
−15 −12
E. [ ]
10 −10

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 51 IUP Preparation

 −3 2 8 −4
9. If A = [ ] and B = [ ]then A ×B = …
4 −1 5 2
−14 16
A. [ ]
27 −18
15 −12
B. [ ]
29 18
−14 −16
C. [ ]
27 −18
15 −21
D. [ ]
19 18
15 −22
E. [ ]
19 18

−3 2 8 −4
10. If A = [ ] and B = [ ]then 3A + B = …
4 −1 5 2
−1 −2
A. [ ]
19 −1
5 2
B. [ ]
17 −1
−1 2
C. [ ]
9 1
−1 2
D. [ ]
17 −1
15 −2
E. [ ]
17 −1

(6x−π)tan (6x−π)
11. lim𝜋 =...
x→ 1−sin3x
6

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 10

cos x−cos5x
12. lim = ...
x→0 x tan2x
A. -4
B. -2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8

tan2x cos8x −tan2x

13. Value oflim =...
x→0 16x3
A. -4
B. -6
C. -8
D. -16
E. -32

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 52 IUP Preparation

 tan(x−1)sin (1−√x)
14. lim = ...
x→1 x2 −2x+1
A. -1
1
B. −
2
C. 0
1
D.
2
E. 1

1−cos (x−a)
15. lim (x−a)sin3(x−a) = . . .
x→a
1
A.
6
1
B.
2
C. 0
2
D.
3
E. 2

sin(p−5)tan (√5−√p)
16. lim = ...
x→0 25−10p+p2

A. √5
1
B.
2
√5
C. 0
1
D. − √5
2
1
E. − √5
5

1 2
17. lim ( − ) =...
x→1 1−x x−x3
3
A. −
2
2
B. −
3
2
C.
3
D. 1
3
E.
2

x2 +x+a
18. If the line y = bx + 1 intersects the parabola y = x² + x + a at the point (1,0) thenlim =...
x→1 bx+1
A. 3
B. 1
C. 0
D. -1
E. -3

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 53 IUP Preparation

 9−x2
19. lim =...
x→3 2√x2 +3−4√3
A. −4√3
B. −2√3
C. 0
D. 2√3
E. 4√3

1
20. lim √x + 3(√x − a − √x − 10) = . Then the value of a = ....
x→∞ 2
A. 14
B. 21
C. 10
D. 13
E. 9

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 54 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 12

6x2 +4
1. Results from ∫ 5 dx =....
√(x3 +2x−1)3
25
A.
5
√(x 3 + 2x − 1)2 + c
55
B.
2
√(x + 2x − 1)2 + c
3

5
C. 5 √(x 3 + 2x − 1)2 + c
5
D. 5 √(x 3 + 2x − 1)3 + c
5
E. 5 √(x 3 + 2x − 1)4 + c

2. The slope of the tangent to the curve y = f(x) at the point (x, y) is 3x² + 4x + 6. If the curve
passes through point (1, 14), then it intersects the y-axis at .....
A. (0.5)
1
B. (0.4 )
2
C. (0.4)
D. (0.3)
E. (0,2)

3. Given ∫ f(x)dx = ax 2 + bx + c, and a ≠ 0. If a, f(a), 2b form an arithmetic sequence, and f(b) =

1
6, then ∫0 f(x)dx =....
17
A.
4
21
B.
4
25
C.
4
13
D.
4
11
E.
4

4. Value of ∫ sin²x cos x dx =....

1
1) sin 3 x + C
3
1
2) cos 3 x + C
3
1 1
3) sin x - sin x cos 2 x + C
3 3
1 1
4) cos x - cos x sin 2 x + C
3 3

5. Given f(x) = a + bx and F(x) is the antiderivative of f(x). If F(1) - F(0) = 3, then 2a + b is ....
A. 10
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
E. 3

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 55 IUP Preparation

 6. If f(x) and g(x) can be integrated in the interval a ≤ x ≤ b and g ≠ 0, then ....
b b
1) ∫a f(x)g(a)dx = g(a) ∫a f(x)dx
b b
2) ∫a (f(a) + g(x))dx = f(a)(b − a) + ∫a g(x)dx
b
∫a f(x)dx b f(x)
3) = ∫a dx
g(a) g(a)
b b b
4) ∫a (f(x) − g(x))dx = ∫a f(x)dx − ∫a g(x) dx

3 7 7
7. If ∫1 2f(x)dx = 10and ∫1 f(x)dx = 8, then ∫3 (f(x) + 2x)dx =...
A. 11
B. 32
C. 43
D. 54
E. 65

1
8. The value of a that satisfies ∫a 12x(x 2 + 1)2 dx = 14 is …
A. -2
B. -1
C. 0
1
D.
2
E. 1

a1 3 3 b
9. If ∫0 √x 2 dx = , ∫0 (2x − 3)dx = 4and a, b > 0 then the value of a² + 2ab + b² is ....
2 10
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
E. 30

10.

The volume of a rotating object that occurs when the area bounded by the curve y = x + 2, x = 0 and
x = 3 is rotated around the X axis as shown in the figure.
A. 10π unit of content
B. 15π unit of content
C. 21π unit of content
D. 33π unit of content
E. 39π unit of content

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 56 IUP Preparation

 3 x 2 3 −10
11. The x value that satisfies( √2) = 2x ( √2) is ....
1
A. -2 or 5
2
2
B. -2 or 1
3
2
C. -1 or 2
3
D. -1 or 4
2
E. - or 5
3

2 −x−12)
12. The sum of all the roots of the equation 10(x 2 − x − 12)log (x = (x − 4)2 (x + 3)2 is...
A. -2
B. -1
C. 0
D. 1
E. 2

2 +7x+10 2 +7x+10
13. If a member of the solution set of the equation(x + 1)x = (2x + 3)x summed up,
the result is....
A. 7
B. 4
C. -4
D. -7
E. -11

2 −3x+1 2 −3x 2 −3x

14. The sum of all x that satisfy the equation: 9x + 9x = 20 − (10)3x is....
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

15. If x and y satisfy the system of equations

2 4x + 7y - 7 = 4 x + 3y

27 x - y = 3 2x – 7
then y - x = ....
A. -2
B. -1
C. 0
D. 1
E. 2

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 57 IUP Preparation

 16. The length of the hypotenuse of a right triangle is 2 x + 2 . If the lengths of the other two sides
are 4 and 22x + 1 , then the value of x that satisfies lies in the interval ....
A. -1 < x < 0
2
B. <x<2
3
1 1
C. − <x<
2 3
D. 1<x<3
E. 0<x<1

17. It is known that f(x) = 25 - x + 2x - 12, if f(x₁) = f(x₂) = 0, then x1 .x2 = ....
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. -5
E. -6

9
18. The solution set 22−2x + 2 > , x ∈ R is....
2
A. {x| -1 < x < 2}
B. {x| -2 < x < 1}
C. {x| x < -1 or x > 2}
D. [x| x < -2 or x > 1}
E. {x| x < 0 or x > 1}

19. The distance between the two intersection points of the y = 2 2x + 1 - 5.2x +2 curve on the x-axis is
....
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

20. Given the equation:

3x
2 3
3 1 3 1
[√ ] =[ x−2 ]
√
243 3 9
3
If x o satisfies the equation, then the value 1 - x o = ....
4
3
A. 1
16
1
B. 1
4
3
C. 1
4
1
D. 2
3
3
E. 2
4

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 58 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 13

dy
1. If y = 3x 4 + sin2x + cos3x, then =....
dx
A. 12x³ + 2 cos2x + 3 sin3x
B. 12x³ + 2 cos2x - sin3x
C. 12x³ - 2 cos2x + 3 sin3x
D. 12x³ - 2 cos2x - 3 sin3x
E. 12x³ + 2 cos2x - 3 sin3x

1+cos x
2. The first derivative of the function f(x) = is f'(x) = ....
sin x
1−sin x
A.
sin2 x
sin x−1
B.
cos x−1
2
C.
cos x+1
2
D.
sin x−1
1
E.
cos x−1

3. If f(x) = -(cos²x - sin²x), then f'(x) is ....

A. 2(sin x - cos x)
B. 2(cos x - sin x)
C. sin x cos x
D. 2 sin x cos x
E. 4 sin x cos x

4. If f(x) = 2x³ - 3x² - 12x + 7, then the function f decreases for all x that satisfy ....
A. -2 ≤ x ≤ 2 or x ≥ 3
B. -2 ≤ x ≤ -1 or x ≥ 3
C. -2 ≤ x ≤ -1 or 2 ≤ x ≤ 3
D. x ≤ -1 or x ≥ 2
E. -1 ≤ x ≤ 2

5. If f(x) = √1 + sin²x, 0 ≤ x ≤ π, then f'(x).f(x) is equal to ....

A. (1 + sin 2 x)sinx. cosx
B. (1 + sin²x)
C. sinx. cosx
D. sinx
1
E.
2

1 4x−1
6. If 9 x – 1 = ( ) , then F(y) = y² + 2xy + 4x² has a minimum value = ....
3

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 59 IUP Preparation

 1
A. 2
2
B.
3
3
C.
4
4
D.
9
E. 1

1000
7. A project will be completed in x days. If the project cost per day is B = (2x + − 40) in
x
thousands of rupiah, then the minimum project cost in x days is equal to ....
A. IDR 550,000.00
B. IDR 800,000.00
C. IDR 880,000.00
D. IDR 900,000.00
E. IDR 950,000.00

x+2 5
8. If f'(x) is the inverse function f(x) = , x ≠ and g(x) is the derivative of f 1 (x), then g(1) = ....
5−3x 3
9 7 13
A. − C. E.
16 16 16
7 11
B. − D.
16
16

3x−2
9. If f(x) = , then the derivative of f -1 (x) is ....
x+4
8x−10
A.
(x−3)2
10
B.
(x−3)2
8x
C.
(x−3)2
14−8x
D.
(x−3)2
14
E.
(x−3)2

3 f(2+h)−f(2)
10. If f(x) = √6x² + 3, then lim = .....
h→0 h
2
A.
9
4
B.
9
8
C.
9
2
D.
3
4
E.
3

11. The circle x² + y² + 2px + 6y + 4 = 0 has a radius of 3 and is tangent to the x-axis. The center of
the circle is equal to....
A. (-2,3)
B. (2,-3)
C. (2,3)
D. (3,-2)
E. (-3,2)

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 60 IUP Preparation

 12. The center of a circle lies on the x-axis. If the circle touches the line y = x at the point (a, a)
with a > 0, then the equation is ....
A. x² + y² - 4ax + 2a² = 0
B. x² + y² + 4ax + 2a² = 0
C. x² + y² - 4ax - 2a² = 0
D. x² + y² + 4ax - 2x² = 0
E. x² + y² - 2ax - 2a² = 0

13. If the circle x² + y² - 4x - 6y + c = 0 centered at point (2,3) touches the line y = 1 - x, then the
value of c is equal to ....
A. 0
B. 4
C. 5
D. 9
E. 13

14. For the line y = x + a to touch the circle x² + y² - 6x - 2y + 2 = 0 it must be ....

A. a = -6 or a = 1
B. a = -5 or a = 2
C. a = -5 or a = 1
D. a = -6 or a = 2
E. a = 6 or a = -2

15. The equation of a circle with center P(3,1) and tangent to the line 4x + 3y - 5 = 0 is ....
A. x² + y² + 4x -6y – 12 = 0
B. x² + y² + 4x - 6y + 12 = 0
C. x² + y² - 6x - 2y + 6 = 0
D. x² + y² - 6x - 6y – 6 = 0
E. x² + y² - 4x - 4y + 12 = 0

16. The circle that touches the line x + y = 5 at the point (4, 1) and passes through the point (8, 2)
has a radius ....
A. 1,4√3
B. 1,6√3
C. 1,7√3
D. 1,7√2
E. 2,1√2

17. It is known that a circle: L ≡ x² + y² + 2y – 24 = 0. If through point P(1,6) a tangent is made to L,

then the distance from P to the point of tangency is ....
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 61 IUP Preparation

 18. The center point of circle L is in quadrant I and is along the line y = 2x. If L alludes to the y-
axis at point (0, 6) then the equation of L is ....
A. x² + y² - 3x - 6y = 0
B. x² + y² + 6x + 12y - 108 = 0
C. x² + y² + 12x + 6y – 72 = 0
D. x² + y² - 12x - 6y = 0
E. x² + y² - 6x - 12y + 36 = 0

19. If A(1, 3), B(7, -5), then the equation of a circle that has a diameter AB is ....
A. x² + y² - 8x + 2y – 8 = 0
B. x² + y² + 8x + 2y – 8 = 0
C. x² + y² + 8x + 2y + 8 = 0
D. x² + y² - 8x - 2y – 8 = 0
E. x² + y² - 8x + 2y + 8 = 0

20. The two straight lines drawn from the point (0, 0) and touching the circle L with the equation
x² + y² - 6x + 2y + 5 = 0, have a gradient of ....
A. -1 or 2
1
B. - or 2
2
C. 1 or -2
1
D. or -2
2
E. -1 or 1

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 62 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 14

1. A vessel is filled with liquid, 3 parts of which are water and 5 parts syrup. How
much of the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water so that the mixture may
be half water and half syrup?
1
A. 3
1
B.
4
1
C. 5
1
D. 7

2. Tea worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the
ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth Rs. 153 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg
will be:
A. Rs. 169.50
B. Rs. 170
C. Rs. 175.50
D. Rs. 180

3. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B is the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres of
mixture are drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7 : 9. How
many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 21
D. 25

4. A milk vendor has 2 cans of milk. The first contains 25% water and the rest milk. The
second contains 50% water. How much milk should he mix from each of the containers so
as to get 12 litres of milk such that the ratio of water to milk is 3 : 5?
A. 4 litres, 8 litres
B. 6 litres, 6 litres
C. 5 litres, 7 litres
D. 7 litres, 5 litres

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 63 IUP Preparation

 5. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of pulses costing Rs. 15 and Rs. 20 per
kg respectively so as to get a mixture worth Rs. 16.50 kg?
A. 3 : 7
B. 5:7
C. 7:3
D. 7 : 5

6. A dishonest milkman professes to sell his milk at cost price but he mixes it with
water and thereby gains 25%. The percentage of water in the mixture is:
A. 4%
1
B. 6 %
4
C. 20%
D. 25%

7. How many kilogram of sugar costing Rs. 9 per kg must be mixed with 27 kg of sugar
costing Rs. 7 per kg so that there may be a gain of 10% by selling the mixture at Rs. 9.24
per kg?
A. 36 kg
B. 42 kg
C. 54 kg
D. 63 kg

8. A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container 4 litres of milk was taken
out and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk
is now contained by the container?
A. 26.34 litres
B. 27.36 litres
C. 28 litres
D. 29.16 litres

9. A jar full of whisky contains 40% alcohol. A part of this whisky is replaced by
another containing 19% alcohol and now the percentage of alcohol was found to be 26%.
The quantity of whisky replaced is:
1
A. 3
2
B. 3
2
C.
5
3
D.
5

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 64 IUP Preparation

 10. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 16 % on selling the mixture at
cost price?
A. 1 : 6
B. 6:1
C. 2:3
D. 4 : 3

11. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs. 7.20 a kg be mixed with rice at Rs. 5.70 a kg to
produce a mixture worth Rs. 6.30 a kg.
A. 1 : 3
B. 2:3
C. 3:4
D. 4 : 5

12. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of tea worth Rs. 60 a kg and Rs. 65 a kg
so that by selling the mixture at Rs. 68.20 a kg he may gain 10%?
A. 3 : 2
B. 3:4
C. 3:5
D. 4 : 5

13. The cost of Type 1 rice is Rs. 15 per kg and Type 2 rice is Rs. 20 per kg. If both Type 1
and Type 2 are mixed in the ratio of 2 : 3, then the price per kg of the mixed variety of rice
is:
A. Rs. 18
B. Rs. 18.50
C. Rs. 19
D. Rs. 19.50

14. 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This
operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in
cask to that of water is 16 : 65. How much wine did the cask hold originally?
A. 18 litres
B. 24 litres
C. 32 litres
D. 42 litres

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 65 IUP Preparation

 15. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at
18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is:
A. 400 kg
B. 560 kg
C. 600 kg
D. 640 kg

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 66 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 15

(2.39)2 −(1.61)2
1. Evaluate : 2.39−1.61
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

2. What decimal of an hour is a second ?

A. .0025
B. .0256
C. .00027
D. .000126

(0.96)3 −(0.1)3
3. The value of (0.96)2 is:
+0.096+(0.1)2
A. 0.86
B. 0.95
C. 0.97
D. 1.06

0.1×0.1×0.1+0.02×0.02×0.02
4. The value of is:
0.2×0.2×0.2+0.04×0.04×0.04
A. 0.0125
B. 0.125
C. 0.25
D. 0.5

5. If 2994 ÷ 14.5 = 172, then 29.94 ÷ 1.45 = ?

A. 0.172
B. 1.72
C. 17.2
D. 172

6. When 0.232323..... is converted into a fraction, then the result is:

1
A.
5
2
B. 9
23
C. 99
23
D. 100

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 67 IUP Preparation

 .009
7. ?
= 0.1
A. .0009
B. .09
C. .9
D. 9

8. The expression (11.98 x 11.98 + 11.98 x x + 0.02 x 0.02) will be a perfect square
for x equal to:
A. 0.02
B. 0.2
C. 0.04
D. 0.4

(0.1667)(0.8333)(0.3333)
9. (0.2222)(0.6667)(0.1250)
is approximately equal to:
A. 2
B. 2.40
C. 2.43
D. 2.50

10. 3889 + 12.952 - ? = 3854.002

A. 47.095
B. 47.752
C. 47.932
D. 47.95

11. 0.04 x 0.0162 is equal to:

A. 6.48 x 10-3
B. 6.48 x 10-4
C. 6.48 x 10-5
D. 6.48 x 10-6

4.2×4.2−1.9×1.9
12. 2.3×6.1
is equal to:
A. 0.5
B. 1.0
C. 20
D. 22

144 14.4
13. If 0.144 = 𝑥
then the value of 𝑥 is:
A. 0.0144
B. 1.44
C. 14.4
D. 144

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 68 IUP Preparation

 14. The price of commodity X increases by 40 paise every year, while the price of
commodity Y increases by 15 paise every year. If in 2001, the price of commodity X was
Rs. 4.20 and that of Y was Rs. 6.30, in which year commodity X will cost 40 paise more
than the commodity Y ?
A. 2010
B. 2011
C. 2012
D. 2013

15. Which of the following are in descending order of their value ?

1 2 3 4 5 6
A. , , , , ,
3 5 7 5 6 7
1 2 3 4 5 6
B. , , , , ,
3 5 5 7 6 7
1 2 3 4 5 6
C. , , , , ,
3 5 5 6 7 7
6 5 4 3 2 1
D. , , , , ,
7 6 5 7 5 3

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 69 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 16

1. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the
run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
A. 6.25
B. 6.5
C. 6.75
D. 7

2. A family consists of two grandparents, two parents and three grandchildren. The
average age of the grandparents is 67 years, that of the parents is 35 years and that of the
grandchildren is 6 years. What is the average age of the family?
4
A. 28 7 years
5
B. 31 7 years
1
C. 32 7 years
D. None of these

3. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5
consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an
average sale of Rs. 6500?
A. Rs. 4991
B. Rs. 5991
C. Rs. 6001
D. Rs. 6991

4. The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater
than zero?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 19

5. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in
place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?
A. 76 kg
B. 76.5 kg
C. 85 kg
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 70 IUP Preparation

 6. The captain of a cricket team of 11 members is 26 years old and the wicket keeper is 3
years older. If the ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the remaining
players is one year less than the average age of the whole team. What is the average age
of the team?
A. 23 years
B. 24 years
C. 25 years
D. None of these

7. The average monthly income of P and Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly income of
Q and R is Rs. 6250 and the average monthly income of P and R is Rs. 5200. The monthly
income of P is:
A. 3500
B. 4000
C. 4050
D. 5000

8. The average age of husband, wife and their child 3 years ago was 27 years and that of
wife and the child 5 years ago was 20 years. The present age of the husband is:
A. 35 years
B. 40 years
C. 50 years
D. None of these

9. A car owner buys petrol at Rs.7.50, Rs. 8 and Rs. 8.50 per litre for three successive
years. What approximately is the average cost per litre of petrol if he spends Rs. 4000
each year?
A. Rs. 7.98
B. Rs. 8
C. Rs. 8.50
D. Rs. 9

10. In Arun's opinion, his weight is greater than 65 kg but less than 72 kg. His brother
doest not agree with Arun and he thinks that Arun's weight is greater than 60 kg but less
than 70 kg. His mother's view is that his weight cannot be greater than 68 kg. If all are
them are correct in their estimation, what is the average of different probable weights of
Arun?
A. 67 kg
B. 68 kg
C. 69 kg
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 71 IUP Preparation

 11. The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40 kg
and that of B and C be 43 kg, then the weight of B is:
A. 17 kg
B. 20 kg
C. 26 kg
D. 31 kg

12. The average weight of 16 boys in a class is 50.25 kg and that of the remaining 8 boys
is 45.15 kg. Find the average weights of all the boys in the class.
A. 47.55 kg
B. 48 kg
C. 48.55 kg
D. 49.25 kg

13. A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The
average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is:
A. 250
B. 276
C. 280
D. 285

14. If the average marks of three batches of 55, 60 and 45 students respectively is 50, 55,
60, then the average marks of all the students is:
A. 53.33
B. 54.68
C. 55
D. None of these

15. A pupil's marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to that the average
marks for the class got increased by half (1/2). The number of pupils in the class is:
A. 10
B. 20
C. 40
D. 73

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 72 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 17

1. The banker's discount on a bill due 4 months hence at 15% is Rs. 420. The true
discount is:
A. Rs. 400
B. Rs. 360
C. Rs. 480
D. Rs. 320

2. The banker's discount on Rs. 1600 at 15% per annum is the same as true discount on
Rs. 1680 for the same time and at the same rate. The time is:
A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 8 months

3. The banker's gain of a certain sum due 2 years hence at 10% per annum is Rs. 24. The
present worth is:
A. Rs. 480
B. Rs. 520
C. Rs. 600
D. Rs. 960

4. The banker's discount on a sum of money for 1 years is Rs. 558 and the true
discount on the same sum for 2 years is Rs. 600. The rate percent is:
A. 10%
B. 13%
C. 12%
D. 15%

5. The banker's gain on a sum due 3 years hence at 12% per annum is Rs. 270. The
banker's discount is:
A. Rs. 960
B. Rs. 840
C. Rs. 1020
D. Rs. 760

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 73 IUP Preparation

 6. The banker's discount of a certain sum of money is Rs. 72 and the true discount on
the same sum for the same time is Rs. 60. The sum due is:
A. Rs. 360
B. Rs. 432
C. Rs. 540
D. Rs. 1080

7. The certain worth of a certain sum due sometime hence is Rs. 1600 and the true
discount is Rs. 160. The banker's gain is:
A. Rs. 20
B. Rs. 24
C. Rs. 16
D. Rs. 12

8. The present worth of a certain bill due sometime hence is Rs. 800 and the true
discount is Rs. 36. The banker's discount is:
A. Rs. 37
B. Rs. 37.62
C. Rs. 34.38
D. Rs. 38.98

9. The banker's gain on a bill due 1 year hence at 12% per annum is Rs. 6. The true
discount is:
A. Rs. 72
B. Rs. 36
C. Rs. 54
D. Rs. 50

1 3
10. The banker's gain on a certain sum due 1 2 years hence is 25 of the banker's discount.
The rate percent is:
1
A. 5 5%
1
B. 9 11%
1
C. 8 8%
1
D. 6 6%

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 74 IUP Preparation

 11. The present worth of a sum due sometime hence is Rs. 576 and the banker's gain is
Rs. 16. The true discount is:
A. Rs. 36
B. Rs. 72
C. Rs. 48
D. Rs. 96

12. The true discount on a bill of Rs. 540 is Rs. 90. The banker's discount is:
A. Rs. 60
B. Rs. 108
C. Rs. 110
D. Rs. 112

11
13. The banker's discount on a certain sum due 2 years hence is 10 of the true discount.
The rate percent is:
A. 11%
B. 10%
C. 5%
D. 5.5%

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 75 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 18

1. A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is
4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream.
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 5 hours

2. A man's speed with the current is 15 km/hr and the speed of the current is 2.5 km/hr.
The man's speed against the current is:
A. 8.5 km/hr
B. 9 km/hr
C. 10 km/hr
D. 12.5 km/hr

3. A boat running upstream takes 8 hours 48 minutes to cover a certain distance, while
it takes 4 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio
between the speed of the boat and speed of the water current respectively?
A. 2 : 1
B. 3 : 2
C. 8 : 3
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

4. A motorboat, whose speed in 15 km/hr in still water goes 30 km downstream and

comes back in a total of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of the stream (in km/hr) is:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10

5. In one hour, a boat goes 11 km/hr along the stream and 5 km/hr against the stream.
The speed of the boat in still water (in km/hr) is:
A. 3 km/hr
B. 5 km/hr
C. 8 km/hr
D. 9 km/hr

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 76 IUP Preparation

 6. A boat running downstream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering
the same distance upstream, it takes 4 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
A. 4 km/hr
B. 6 km/hr
C. 8 km/hr
D. Data inadequate

7. The speed of a boat in still water in 15 km/hr and the rate of current is 3 km/hr. The
distance travelled downstream in 12 minutes is:
A. 1.2 km
B. 1.8 km
C. 2.4 km
D. 3.6 km

8. A boat takes 90 minutes less to travel 36 miles downstream than to travel the same
distance upstream. If the speed of the boat in still water is 10 mph, the speed of the
stream is:
A. 2 mph
B. 2.5 mph
C. 3 mph
D. 4 mph

9. A man can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the velocity of current is 1 kmph and it
takes him 1 hour to row to a place and come back, how far is the place?
A. 2.4 km
B. 2.5 km
C. 3 km
D. 3.6 km

10. A boat covers a certain distance downstream in 1 hour, while it comes back in 1

hours. If the speed of the stream be 3 kmph, what is the speed of the boat in still water?
A. 12 kmph
B. 13 kmph
C. 14 kmph
D. 15 kmph
E. None of these

11. A boatman goes 2 km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1 km
along the current in 10 minutes. How long will it take to go 5 km in stationary water?
A. 40 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 1 hr 15 min
D. 1 hr 30 min

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 77 IUP Preparation

 12. A man can row three-quarters of a kilometre against the stream in 11 minutes and

down the stream in 7 minutes. The speed (in km/hr) of the man in still water is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

13. Speed of a boat in standing water is 9 kmph and the speed of the stream is 1.5 kmph.
A man rows to a place at a distance of 105 km and comes back to the starting point. The
total time taken by him is:
A. 16 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 20 hours
D. 24 hours

14. A man takes twice as long to row a distance against the stream as to row the same
distance in favour of the stream. The ratio of the speed of the boat (in still water) and the
stream is:
A. 2 : 1
B. 3 : 1
C. 3 : 2
D. 4 : 3

15. A man rows to a place 48 km distant and come back in 14 hours. He finds that he can
row 4 km with the stream in the same time as 3 km against the stream. The rate of the
stream is:
A. 1 km/hr
B. 1.5 km/hr
C. 2 km/hr
D. 2.5 km/hr

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 78 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 19

1. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?
A. Sunday
B. Saturday
C. Friday
D. Wednesday

2. What was the day of the week on 28th May, 2006?

A. Thursday
B. Friday
C. Saturday
D. Sunday

3. What was the day of the week on 17th June, 1998?

A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Wednesday
D. Thursday

4. What will be the day of the week 15th August, 2010?

A. Sunday
B. Monday
C. Tuesday
D. Friday

5. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:

A. Wednesday
B. Saturday
C. Tuesday
D. Thursday

6. If 6th March, 2005 is Monday, what was the day of the week on 6th March, 2004?
A. Sunday
B. Saturday
C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 79 IUP Preparation

 7. On what dates of April, 2001 did Wednesday fall?
A. 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th
B. 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th
C. 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th
D. 4th, 11th, 18th, 25th

8. How many days are there in x weeks x days?

A. 7x2
B. 8x
C. 14x
D. 7

9. The last day of a century cannot be

A. Monday
B. Wednesday
C. Tuesday
D. Friday

10. On 8th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday. What was the day of the week on 8th Feb, 2004?
A. Tuesday
B. Monday
C. Sunday
D. Wednesday

11. The calendar for the year 2007 will be the same for the year:
A. 2014
B. 2016
C. 2017
D. 2018

12. Which of the following is not a leap year?

A. 700
B. 800
C. 1200
D. 2000

13. On 8th Dec, 2007 Saturday falls. What day of the week was it on 8th Dec, 2006?
A. Sunday
B. Thursday
C. Tuesday
D. Friday

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 80 IUP Preparation

 14. January 1, 2008 is Tuesday. What day of the week lies on Jan 1, 2009?
A. Monday
B. Wednesday
C. Thursday
D. Sunday

15. January 1, 2007 was Monday. What day of the week lies on Jan. 1, 2008?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Wednesday
D. Sunday

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 81 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 20

1. 3 pumps, working 8 hours a day, can empty a tank in 2 days. How many hours a day
must 4 pumps work to empty the tank in 1 day?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

2. If the cost of x metres of wire is d rupees, then what is the cost of y metres of wire at
the same rate?
𝑥𝑦
A. Rs. ( 𝑑 )
B. Rs. (𝑥𝑑)
C. Rs. (𝑦𝑑)
𝑦𝑑
D. Rs. ( 𝑥 )

3. Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of 270
bottles per minute. At this rate, how many bottles could 10 such machines produce in 4
minutes?
A. 648
B. 1800
C. 2700
D. 10800

4. A fort had provision of food for 150 men for 45 days. After 10 days, 25 men left the
fort. The number of days for which the remaining food will last, is:
1
A. 295
1
B. 374
C. 42
D. 54

5. 39 persons can repair a road in 12 days, working 5 hours a day. In how many days
will 30 persons, working 6 hours a day, complete the work?
A. 10
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 82 IUP Preparation

 6. A man completes of a job in 10 days. At this rate, how many more days will it takes
him to finish the job?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
1
D. 7 2

7. If a quarter kg of potato costs 60 paise, how many paise will 200 gm cost?
A. 48 paise
B. 54 paise
C. 56 paise
D. 72 paise

8. In a dairy farm, 40 cows eat 40 bags of husk in 40 days. In how many days one cow
will eat one bag of husk?
A. 1
1
B.
40
C. 40
D. 80

9. A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When the smaller
wheel has made 21 revolutions, then the number of revolutions mad by the larger wheel
is:
A. 4
B. 9
C. 12
D. 49

10. If 7 spiders make 7 webs in 7 days, then 1 spider will make 1 web in how many days?
A. 1
7
B. 2
C. 7
D. 49

11. A flagstaff 17.5 m high casts a shadow of length 40.25 m. The height of the building,
which casts a shadow of length 28.75 m under similar conditions will be:
A. 10 m
B. 12.5 m
C. 17.5 m
D. 21.25 m

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 83 IUP Preparation

 12. In a camp, there is a meal for 120 men or 200 children. If 150 children have taken the
meal, how many men will be catered to with remaining meal?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50

13. An industrial loom weaves 0.128 metres of cloth every second. Approximately, how
many seconds will it take for the loom to weave 25 metres of cloth?
A. 178
B. 195
C. 204
D. 488

14. 36 men can complete a piece of work in 18 days. In how many days will 27 men
complete the same work?
A. 12
B. 18
C. 22
D. 24
E. None of these

15. 4 mat-weavers can weave 4 mats in 4 days. At the same rate, how many mats would
be woven by 8 mat-weavers in 8 days?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 84 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 21

1. An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will
the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon?
A. 144o
B. 150o
C. 168o
D. 180o

2. The reflex angle between the hands of a clock at 10.25 is:

A. 180o
1°
B. 192 2
C. 195o
1°
D. 197 2

3. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through:
A. 145o
B. 150o
C. 155o
D. 160o

4. A watch which gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes was set right at 7 a.m. In the afternoon
of the same day, when the watch indicated quarter past 4 o'clock, the true time is:
7
A. 59 12 min. past 3
B. 4 p.m.
7
C. 58 11 min. past 3
3
D. 2 11 min. past 4

5. How much does a watch lose per day, if its hands coincide every 64 minutes?
8
A. 32 11 min.
5
B. 36 min.
11
C. 90 min.
D. 96 min.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 85 IUP Preparation

 6. At what time between 7 and 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight
line but, not together?
A. 5 min. past 7
2
B. 5 11 min. past 7
3
C. 5 11 min. past 7
5
D. 5 11 min. past 7

7. At what time between 5.30 and 6 will the hands of a clock be at right angles?
5
A. 43 11 min. past 5
7
B. 43 11 min. past 5
C. 40 min. past 5
D. 45 min. past 5

8. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is
4.20, is:
A. 0o
B. 10o
C. 5o
D. 20o

9. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5?

1°
A. 58 2
B. 64o
1°
C. 67
2
1°
D. 72 2

10. At 3:40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of:
A. 120o
B. 125o
C. 130o
D. 135o

11. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in a day?
A. 22
B. 24
C. 44
D. 48

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 86 IUP Preparation

 12. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is
8.30, is:
A. 80o
B. 75o
C. 60o
D. 105o

13. How many times in a day, are the hands of a clock in straight line but opposite in
direction?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 24
D. 48

14. At what time between 4 and 5 o'clock will the hands of a watch point in opposite
directions?
A. 45 min. past 4
B. 40 min. past 4
4
C. 50 min. past 4
11
6
D. 54 min. past 4
11

15. At what time between 9 and 10 o'clock will the hands of a watch be together?
A. 45 min. past 9
B. 50 min. past 9
1
C. 49 min. past 9
11
2
D. 48 min. past 9
11

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 87 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 22

1. A bank offers 5% compound interest calculated on half-yearly basis. A customer

deposits Rs. 1600 each on 1st January and 1st July of a year. At the end of the year, the
amount he would have gained by way of interest is:
A. Rs. 120
B. Rs. 121
C. Rs. 122
D. Rs. 123

2. The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a

certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is:
A. 625
B. 630
C. 640
D. 650

3. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at simple interest. What will be the
compound interest of Rs. 12,000 after 3 years at the same rate?
A. Rs. 2160
B. Rs. 3120
C. Rs. 3972
D. Rs. 6240
E. None of these

4. What is the difference between the compound interests on Rs. 5000 for 1 years at
4% per annum compounded yearly and half-yearly?
A. Rs. 2.04
B. Rs. 3.06
C. Rs. 4.80
D. Rs. 8.30

5. The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per annum is Rs. 4347. The period (in
years) is:
A. 2
1
B. 22
C. 3
D. 4

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 88 IUP Preparation

 6. What will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 25,000 after 3 years at the rate of
12 p.c.p.a.?
A. Rs. 9000.30
B. Rs. 9720
C. Rs. 10123.20
D. Rs. 10483.20
E. None of these

7. At what rate of compound interest per annum will a sum of Rs. 1200 become Rs.
1348.32 in 2 years?
A. 6%
B. 6.5%
C. 7%
D. 7.5%

8. The least number of complete years in which a sum of money put out at 20%
compound interest will be more than doubled is:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

9. Albert invested an amount of Rs. 8000 in a fixed deposit scheme for 2 years at
compound interest rate 5 p.c.p.a. How much amount will Albert get on maturity of the
fixed deposit?
A. Rs. 8600
B. Rs. 8620
C. Rs. 8820
D. None of these

10. The effective annual rate of interest corresponding to a nominal rate of 6% per
annum payable half-yearly is:
A. 6.06%
B. 6.07%
C. 6.08%
D. 6.09%

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 89 IUP Preparation

 11. Simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 8% per annum is half the
compound interest on Rs. 4000 for 2 years at 10% per annum. The sum placed on simple
interest is:
A. Rs. 1550
B. Rs. 1650
C. Rs. 1750
D. Rs. 2000

12. If the simple interest on a sum of money for 2 years at 5% per annum is Rs. 50, what
is the compound interest on the same at the same rate and for the same time?
A. Rs. 51.25
B. Rs. 52
C. Rs. 54.25
D. Rs. 60

13. The difference between simple interest and compound on Rs. 1200 for one year at
10% per annum reckoned half-yearly is:
A. Rs. 2.50
B. Rs. 3
C. Rs. 3.75
D. Rs. 4
E. None of these

14. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on an amount of Rs.
15,000 for 2 years is Rs. 96. What is the rate of interest per annum?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

15. The compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs. 525. The
simple interest on the same sum for double the time at half the rate percent per annum is:
A. Rs. 400
B. Rs. 500
C. Rs. 600
D. Rs. 800

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 90 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 23

(2.39)2 −(1.61)2
1. Evaluate : 2.39−1.61
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

2. What decimal of an hour is a second ?

A. .0025
B. .0256
C. .00027
D. .000126

(0.96)3 −(0.1)3
3. The value of (0.96)2 is:
+0.096+(0.1)2
A. 0.86
B. 0.95
C. 0.97
D. 1.06

0.1×0.1×0.1+0.02×0.02×0.02
4. The value of is:
0.2×0.2×0.2+0.04×0.04×0.04
A. 0.0125
B. 0.125
C. 0.25
D. 0.5

5. If 2994 ÷ 14.5 = 172, then 29.94 ÷ 1.45 = ?

A. 0.172
B. 1.72
C. 17.2
D. 172

6. When 0.232323..... is converted into a fraction, then the result is:

1
A.
5
2
B. 9
23
C. 99
23
D. 100

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 91 IUP Preparation

 .009
7. ?
= 0.1
A. .0009
B. .09
C. .9
D. 9

8. The expression (11.98 x 11.98 + 11.98 x x + 0.02 x 0.02) will be a perfect square
for x equal to:
A. 0.02
B. 0.2
C. 0.04
D. 0.4

(0.1667)(0.8333)(0.3333)
9. (0.2222)(0.6667)(0.1250)
is approximately equal to:
A. 2
B. 2.40
C. 2.43
D. 2.50

10. 3889 + 12.952 - ? = 3854.002

A. 47.095
B. 47.752
C. 47.932
D. 47.95

11. 0.04 x 0.0162 is equal to:

A. 6.48 x 10-3
B. 6.48 x 10-4
C. 6.48 x 10-5
D. 6.48 x 10-6

4.2×4.2−1.9×1.9
12. 2.3×6.1
is equal to:
A. 0.5
B. 1.0
C. 20
D. 22

144 14.4
13. If 0.144 = 𝑥
then the value of 𝑥 is:
A. 0.0144
B. 1.44
C. 14.4
D. 144

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 92 IUP Preparation

 14. The price of commodity X increases by 40 paise every year, while the price of
commodity Y increases by 15 paise every year. If in 2001, the price of commodity X was
Rs. 4.20 and that of Y was Rs. 6.30, in which year commodity X will cost 40 paise more
than the commodity Y ?
A. 2010
B. 2011
C. 2012
D. 2013

15. Which of the following are in descending order of their value ?

1 2 3 4 5 6
A. , , , , ,
3 5 7 5 6 7
1 2 3 4 5 6
B. , , , , ,
3 5 5 7 6 7
1 2 3 4 5 6
C. , , , , ,
3 5 5 6 7 7
6 5 4 3 2 1
D. , , , , ,
7 6 5 7 5 3

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 93 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 24

1. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is
the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
1
A.
2
2
B. 5
8
C. 15
9
D. 20

2. A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What
is the probability that none of the balls drawn is blue?
10
A. 21
11
B.
21
2
C. 7
5
D. 7

3. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly.
What is the probability that it is neither red nor green?
1
A.
3
3
B. 4
7
C. 19
8
D. 21
9
E. 21

4. What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice?

1
A. 6
1
B. 8
1
C.
9
1
D. 12

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 94 IUP Preparation

 5. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most two
heads?
3
A. 4
1
B. 4
3
C.
8
7
D. 8

6. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting two numbers
whose product is even?
1
A. 2
3
B. 4
3
C.
8
5
D. 16

7. In a class, there are 15 boys and 10 girls. Three students are selected at random. The
probability that 1 girl and 2 boys are selected, is:
21
A. 46
25
B.
117
1
C. 50
3
D.
25

8. In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is
the probability of getting a prize?
1
A. 10
2
B. 5
2
C. 7
5
D. 7

9. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the
probability of both the cards being kings?
1
A. 15
25
B.
57
35
C. 256
1
D.
221

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 95 IUP Preparation

 10. Two dice are tossed. The probability that the total score is a prime number is:
1
A.
6
5
B. 12
1
C.
2
7
D. 9

11. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting a queen of club or
a king of heart is:
1
A.
13
2
B.
13
1
C.
26
1
D. 52

12. A bag contains 4 white, 5 red and 6 blue balls. Three balls are drawn at random from
the bag. The probability that all of them are red, is:
1
A. 22
3
B. 22
2
C.
91
2
D.
77

13. Two cards are drawn together from a pack of 52 cards. The probability that one is a
spade and one is a heart, is:
3
A. 20
29
B. 34
47
C. 100
13
D. 102

14. One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that
the card drawn is a face card (Jack, Queen and King only)?
1
A. 13
3
B.
13
1
C. 4
9
D. 52

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 96 IUP Preparation

 15. A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the
probability that the ball drawn is white?
3
A. 4
4
B. 7
1
C.
8
3
D. 7

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 97 IUP Preparation

 BASIC MATH 25

1. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. log10 10 = 1
B. log (2 + 3) = log (2 x 3)
C. log10 1 = 0
D. log (1 + 2 + 3) = log 1 + log 2 + log 3

2. If log 2 = 0.3010 and log 3 = 0.4771, the value of log5 512 is:
A. 2.870
B. 2.967
C. 3.876
D. 3.912

log √8
3. is equal to:
log 8
1
A.
√8
1
B.
4
1
C.
2
1
D.
8

4. If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is:

A. 0.934
B. 0.945
C. 0.954
D. 0.958

𝑎 𝑏
5. If log 𝑏 + log 𝑎 = log(𝑎 + 𝑏), then:
A. 𝑎+𝑏 =1
B. 𝑎−𝑏 =1
C. 𝑎=𝑏
D. 𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 = 1

1
6. If log10 7 = 𝑎, then log10 (70) is equal to:
A. −(1 + 𝑎)
B. (1 + 𝑎)−1
𝑎
C.
10
1
D.
10𝑎

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 98 IUP Preparation

 7. If log10 2 = 0.3010, then log 2 10 is equal to:
699
A. 301
1000
B. 301
C. 0.3010
D. 0.6990

8. If log10 2 = 0.3010, the value of log10 80 is:

A. 1.6020
B. 1.9030
C. 3.9030
D. None of these

9. If log10 5 + log10(5𝑥 + 1) = log10(𝑥 + 5) + 1, then 𝑥 is equal to:

A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10

1 1 1
10. The value of ( + log + log ) is:
log3 60 4 60 5 60
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 60

11. If log 2 = 0.30103, the number of digits in 264 is:

A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21

9 1
12. If log 𝑥 ( ) = − , then 𝑥 is equal to:
16 2
3
A. −
4
3
B.
4
81
C.
256
256
D.
81

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 99 IUP Preparation

 13. If ax = by, then:
𝑎 𝑥
A. log 𝑏 = 𝑦
log 𝑎 𝑥
B. =
log 𝑏 𝑦
log 𝑎 𝑦
C. log 𝑏
= 𝑥
D. None of these

14. If logx y = 100 and log2 x = 10, then the value of y is:
A. 210
B. 2100
C. 21000
D. 210000

15. The value of log2 16 is:

1
A. 8
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 100 IUP Preparation

 International Class

QUANTITATIVE
REASONING
 QUANTITATIVE 1

1. Xuan sold 9 used books for $9.80 each. With the money from these sales, she bought 4 new
books and had $37.80 left over. What was the average amount Xuan paid for each new book?
A. $5.60
B. $9.45
C. $10.08
D. $12.60
E. $22.05

2. A point at (-5,7) in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane is translated right 7 coordinate units and
down 5 coordinate units. What are the coordinates of the point after the translation?
A. (-12,12)
B. (0,0)
C. (2,2)
D. (2,12)
E. (12,12)

3. Shantiel left her home at 9:00 a.m. on Tuesday and traveled 648 miles. When she arrived at her
destination it was 3:00 a.m. the next day. Given that her home and her destination are in the same
time zone, which of the following is closest to her average speed, in miles per hour, for this trip?
A. 72
B. 54
C. 36
D. 31
E. 18

4. The text message component of each of Juan’s monthly phone bills consists of $10.000 for the
first 300 text messages sent that month, plus $0.10 for each additional text message sent that month.
On Juan’s most recent phone bill he was charged a total of $16.50 for text messages. For how many
text messages in total was Juan charged on this bill?
A. 235
B. 285
C. 315
D. 365
E. 465

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 101 IUP Preparation

 9 8 −6 6
5. Which of the following matrices is equal to [ ]+[ ]?
−4 7 5 4
3 14
A. [ ]
1 11
3 14
B. [ ]
9 11
15 14
C. [ ]
9 11
17 0
D. [ ]
3 9
−14 86
E. [ ]
59 4

6. A function, f, is defined by f(x,y) = 3x2 – 4y. what is the value of f(4,3) ?

A. 11
B. 24
C. 36
D. 65
E. 132

7. A certain group consists of 5 children, 3 of whom are age 10 and 2 of whom are age 5. What is
the mean age of the children in the group?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 7,5
D. 8
E. 10

8. In the figure shown below, ̅̅̅̅ ̅̅̅̅ ; 𝐵𝐷 = 𝐴𝐷; 𝐷 and E on ̅̅̅̅

𝐴𝐶 ‖𝐷𝐸 𝐴𝐵 and ̅̅̅̅
𝐵𝐶 , respectively; AC = 8 feet;
and the height of ABC is 10 feet. What is DE, in feet?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 102 IUP Preparation

 9. In a poll of 500 registered voters, 337 voters favored a proposal to increase funding for local
schools. Suppose the poll is indicative of how the 22,000 registered voters will note on the proposal.
Which of the following values is closest to how many of the 22,000 registered voters will be expected
to vote in favor of the proposal?
A. 13,200
B. 14,830
C. 21,840
D. 22,000
E. 32,640

10. Diego purchased a car that had a purchase price of $13,400, which included all other costs and
tax. He paid $400 as a down payment and got a loan for the rest of the purchase price. Diego paid
off the loan by making 48 payments of $300 each. The total of all his payments, including the down
payment, was how much more than the car’s purchase price?
A. $1,000
B. $1,400
C. $13,000
D. $14,400
E. $14,800

11. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, what is the slope of the line 4x + 7y = 9?
4
A. −
7
4
B.
9
C. −4
D. 4
E. 9

⃡ intersects 𝐵𝐺
12. In the figure below, 𝐴𝐷 ⃡ at C and is perpendicular to ⃡𝐷𝐸 . Line ⃡𝐷𝐸 intersects 𝐵𝐺
⃡ at
F. Given that the measure of EFG is 25, what is the measure of BCD ?

A. 65
B. 115
C. 120
D. 130
E. 155

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 103 IUP Preparation

 13. What is the sum of the 2 solutions of the equation x2 + x – 30 = 0 ?
A. -30
B. -6
C. -1
D. 0
E. 5

4πr3
14. The volume of a sphere is where r is the radius of the sphere. What is the volume, in cubic
3
yards, of a sphere with a diameter of 4 yards?
32
A. π
3
64
B. π
3
C. 32π
D. 48
256
E. π
3

15. What is the smallest integer greater than √85 ?

A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12
E. 43

16. The 3 statements below are true for the elements of sets A, B, C, and D.
I. All elements of A are elements of B.
II. All elements of C are elements of D
III. No elements of D are elements of B
Which of the following statements must be true?
A. All elements of A are elements of C
B. All elements of B are elements of D
C. All elements of C are elements of B
D. No elements of A are elements of B
E. No elements of A are elements of C

17. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, the midpoint of ̅̅̅̅

𝐴𝐵 is at (2,1) and A is at (8,10). What is
the x-coordinate of B?
A. -4
B. -6
C. -8
D. 3
E. 5

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 104 IUP Preparation

 18. Lena will pick 1 card at random from a pack of 25 baseball cards. Each card features the fielding
position for 1 of 25 different baseball players. Each player in the pack has only 1 fielding position.
The table below lists the frequency of fielding positions for 1 of 25 different baseball players. Each
player in the pack has only 1 fielding position. The table below lists the frequency of fielding
positions in the pack. What is the probability that the card Lena picks will feature an outfielder or a
pitcher?
Fielding
Frequency
position
Catcher 4
Infielder 6
Pitcher 8
Outfielder 7
A. 9%
B. 28%
C. 32%
D. 56%
E. 60%

19. According to a soil analysis, a certain lawn requires an application of 40.0 kg of nitrogen
phosphate when the average temperature is 75,0F. To avoid burning the grass, the required
application amount decreases 1.2 kg for each 1.0F that the average temperature is above 75.0F. To
the nearest 0.1 kg, what is the required application amount of nitrogen phosphate when the average
temperature is 83.0F?
A. 30.4
B. 30.8
C. 33.3
D. 38.4
E. 38.8

20. In the figure below, all segments that meet do so at right angles, what is the area, in square
units, of the shaded region?

1
A. 2
4
B. 3
1
C. 3
3
D. 4
E. 7

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 105 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 2

1. The perimeter of a certain scalene triangle is 100 inches. The side lengths of the triangle are
represented by 5x, 3x + 30, and 2x + 10, respectively. What is the length, in inches, of the longest side
of the triangle?
A. 6
B. 22
C. 30
D. 48
E. 72

2. The mayor of Westbook is deciding how to assign the 6 council members to the row of seats
below.

From how many different arrangements can she choose?

A. 21
B. 36
C. 64
D. 720
E. 6,000,000

3. The sum of 2 and 200% of 1 has the same value as which of the following calculations?
A. 100% of 2
B. 150% of 2
C. 300% of 2
D. 300% of 1
E. 400% of 1

4. The graph in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane below is representated by one of the following
equations. Which equation?

3
A. y=− x+2
2
3
B. y=− x+3
2
2
C. y=− x+2
3

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 106 IUP Preparation

 2
D. y=− x+3
3
2
E. y= x+2
3

5. Kamini is constructing the kite shown below. The kite includes 2 perpendicular supports, one
of length 40 inches and the other of length 28 inches. The ends of the supports are connected with
string to form a 40-sided figure that is symmetric with respect to the longer support. A layer of paper
will cover the interior of the 4-sided figure. Which of the following is closest to the area, in square
inches, that Kamini will cover with paper?

A. 101
B. 280
C. 560
D. 840
E. 980

Use the following information to answer questions 6-9.

The top view and side view of a 40-foot-long swimming pool are shown in the figure below. All
dimensions given are in feet.

The top view shows the top rectangular surface of the pool and the surrounding rectangular patio.
All 4 walls of the pool are vertical and perpendicular to the top surface. The side view shows a cross
section along the length of the pool. All cross sections parallel to the side view are congruent. The
shallow end has a constant depth of 4 ft. The deep end has a constant depth of 9 ft. A rectangular
surface connects the shallow and deep ends.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 107 IUP Preparation

 6. What is the area, in square feet, of the patio surrounding the pool?
A. 500
B. 600
C. 900
D. 1,100
E. 1,350

7. Johann put up a fence along the outer edge of the patio. Given that the materials for the fence
cost $12 per foot, what was the total cost of the materials for the fence?
A. $1,020
B. $1,320
C. $1,800
D. $2,040
E. $3,360

1
8. A full lap is 2 times the length of the pool. Johann swam 5 full laps of the pool in 4 minutes.
2
Which of the following values is closest to Johann’s average swimming speed, in feet per minute?
A. 35
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
E. 120

9. The side view of the pool is placed in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, keeping the same
orientation and scale, such that both vertical segments showing depth are parallel to the y-axis.
Which of the following values is closest to the slope of the line segment connecting the shallow end
to the deep end?
A. -0,44
B. -0,63
C. -0,75
D. -1,33
E. -1,60

10. A construction company builds 3 different models of houses (A, B, and C). They order all the
bathtubs, shower stalls, and sinks for the houses from a certain manufacturer. Each model of house
contains different numbers of these bathroom fixtures. The tables below give the number of each
kind of these fixtures required for each model and the cost to the company, in dollars, of each type
of fixture.
Model
Fixture Fixture Cost
A B C
Bathtubs 1 1 2 Bathtub $250
Shower 0 1 1 Shower $150
stalls 1 2 4 stall $120
Sinks Sink

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 108 IUP Preparation

 The company plans to build 3 A’s, 4 B’s, and 6 C’s. What will be the cost to the company of exactly
enough of these bathroom fixtures to put the required number in all of these houses?
A. $1,940
B. $2,070
C. $8,940
D. $9,180
E. $10,450

11. Shown below, a board 5 feet 6 inches long is cut into 2 equal parts. What is the length, to the
nearest inch, og each part?

A. 2 feet 5 inches
B. 2 feet 8 inches
C. 2 feet 9 inches
D. 3 feet 0 inches
E. 3 feet 5 inches

12. A company that builds bridges used a pile driver to drive a post into the ground. The post was
driven 18 feet into the ground by the first hit of the pile driver. On each hit after the first hit, the post
2
was driven into the ground an additional distance that was the distance the post was driven in the
3
previous hit. After a total of 4 hits, the post was driven how many feet into the ground?
8
A. 28
9
B. 30
1
C. 43
3
D. J. 48
E. K. 54

13. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, A’ is the image resulting from the reflection of the point
A(2, -3) across the y-axis. What are the coordinates of A’?
A. (-3, 2)
B. (-2,-3)
C. (-2, 3)
D. (2,3)
E. (3, -2)

14. To increase the mean of 4 numbers by 3, by how much would the sum of the 4 numbers have
to increase?
3
A.
4
B. 1
4
C.
3
D. 7
E. 12

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 109 IUP Preparation

 15. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to (3 + x)−100 ?
A. −3100 − x100
B. −300 − 100x
1 1
C. +
3100 x100
1
D.
(3x)100
1
E.
(3+x)100

3x−12
16. Consider the graph of the equation y = in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane. Which of
2x−6
the following equations represents the vertical asymptote of the graph?
A. x=2
B. x=3
C. x=4
D. x=6
E. x = 12

x
17. For every pair of real numbers x and y such that xy = 0 and = 0, which of the following
y

statements is true?
A. x = 0 and y = 0
B. x  0 and y = 0
C. x = 0 and y  0
D. x  0 and y  0
E. none of the statements is true for every such pair of real numbers x and y

Use the following information to answer questions 18 – 20.

Walter recently vacationed in Paris. While there, he visited the Louvre, a famous art museum.
Afterward, he took a 3.7-kilometer cab ride from the Louvre to the Eiffel Tower. A tour guide named
Amelie informed him that 2.5 million rivets were used to build the tower, which stands 320 meters
tall.

18. Walter’s cab ride lasted 15 minutes. Which of the following values is closest to the average
speed, in miles per hour, of the cab?
(Note: 1 mile  1.6 kilometers
A. 9
B. 15
C. 21
D. 24
E. 35

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 110 IUP Preparation

 19. When written in scientific notation, the number of rivets used to build the Eiffel Tower is equal
to which of the following expressions?
A. 2.5 × 106
B. 2.5 × 107
C. 2.5 × 108
D. 25 × 106
E. 25 × 107

20. At a certain point, the angle of elevation formed by the level ground and the line from that
point to the top of the Eiffel Tower is 70. Which of the following expressions is equal to the distance,
in meters, between that point and the center of the base of the tower?
A. 320 cos 70
B. 320 sin 70
C. 320 tan 70
320
D.
sin 70°
320
E.
tan 70°

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 111 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 3

1. When the vector ai + 3j is added to the vector -2i + bj, the sum is 6i – 6j. what are the values of a
and b ?
A. a = -9 and b = 8
B. a = -8 and b = 9
C. a = -4 and b = 3
D. a = 4 and b = -3
E. a = 8 and b = -9

2. given c = 10b 3 + 50, which of the following is an expression for b in terms of c ?

1
c 3
A. ( − 5)
10
1
c 3
B. ( + 5)
10
1
1
C. (𝑐 − 50)3
10
3
D. 𝑐 +5
E. 10c 3 + 50

3. Given f(x) = x2 + 3x and g(x) = x + 1, what is 𝑓(𝑔(𝑥))?

A. 𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 4
B. 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 1
C. 𝑥 3 + 5𝑥 2 + 4𝑥
D. 𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 + 3𝑥
E. 𝑥 4 + 4𝑥 3 + 3𝑥 2

4. The diameter of one circle is 12 inches long. The diameter of a second circle is 25% longer than
the diameter of the first circle. To the nearest square inch, how much larger is the area of the second
circle than the area of the first circle?
A. 7
B. 28
C. 44
D. 64
E. 254

5. What is the product of the mean and the median of the first 6 prime numbers?
(Note: 2 is the first prime number)
A. 27
B. 37
C. 39
D. 41
E. 42

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 112 IUP Preparation

 6. For all real values of x, which of the following equations is true?
A. sin(7x) + cos(7x) = 7
B. sin(7x) + cos(7x) = 1
C. 7 sin(7x) + 7 cos(7x) = 14
D. sin2(7x) + cos2(7x) = 7
E. sin2(7x) + cos2(7x) = 1

7. In the figure shown below, A, B, and D lie on a circle whose center is O, a diameter is ̅̅̅̅
𝐴𝐵, ̅̅̅̅
𝐶𝐷 is
perpendicular to ̅̅̅̅ ̅̅̅̅ is 5 m, and the length of ̅̅̅̅
𝐴𝐵 at C, the length of 𝐴𝐷 𝐵𝐷 is 12 m. what is the length,
̅̅̅̅ ?
in meters, of 𝐶𝐷

60
A.
13
65
B.
12
C. 13
156
D.
5
E. 60

8. If a and b are real numbers such that a > 0 and b < 0, then which of the following is equivalent
to |𝑎| − |𝑏|?
A. |𝑎 − 𝑏|
B. |𝑎 + 𝑏|
C. |𝑎| + |𝑏|
D. 𝑎−𝑏
E. 𝑎+𝑏

9. If x < y and y < 4, then what is the greatest possible integer value of x + y ?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 4
D. 7
E. 8

10. Given that y varies directly as the square of x, if y = 20 when x = 2, what is y when x = 3 ?
A. 75
B. 45
C. 30
D. 21
E. 15

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 113 IUP Preparation

 11. Shown below in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane are 2 circles and 1 ellipse, each centered at
(0,0). The larger circle has equation x2 + y2 = 25 and intersects the ellipse at exactly 2 points, both on
the x-axis. The smaller circle has equation x2 + y2 = 4 and intersects the ellipse at exactly 2 points,
both on the y-axis. Which of the following equations represents the ellipse?

x2 y2
A. + =1
2 5
x2 y2
B. + =1
4 25
x2 y2
C. + =1
5 2
x2 y2
D. + =1
25 4
x2 y2
E. + =1
100 16

12. The mean of 5 integers is 52. The median of these 5 integers is 82. Three of the integers are 0,
12, and 82. Which of the following could be one of the other integers?
A. 52
B. 66
C. 84
D. 86
E. 105

13. An integer is abundant if its positive integer factors, excluding the integer itself, have a sum that
is greater than the integer. How many of the integers 6, 8, 10, and 12 are abundant?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

14. Vanna walked at a rate of 2 miles per hour for 10 minutes and then walked at a rate of 3 miles
per hour for 5 minutes. Which of the following gives the average rate, in miles per hour, at which
she walked over this 15-minute period?
1
A.
3
7
B.
3
7
C.
24
7
D.
180
35
E.
2

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 114 IUP Preparation

 15. The ratio of Alani’s height to Baahir’s height is 5 : 7. The ratio of Baahir’s height to Connor’s
height is 4 : 3. What is the ratio of Alani’s height to Connor’s height?
A. 2:3
B. 8 : 11
C. 15 : 28
D. 20 : 21
E. 28 : 15

3
16. For all x > 0, which of the following expressions is NOT equivalent to √ √x 2 ?
3
A. √x
6
B. √x 2
3
C. √√x 2
1
D. x3
2
E. x3

17. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 25% and the width is decreased by 10%, the area of
the resulting rectangle is larger than the area of the original rectangle by what percent?
A. 2.5%
B. 12.5%
C. 15%
D. 22.5%
E. 35%

18. Five balls, numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5, are placed in a bin. Two balls are drawn at random without
replacement. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the balls drawn is 7?
1
A.
5
2
B.
5
4
C.
5
5
D.
9
4
E.
25

19. Consider the family of functions y = f(x) = sin x + c, where c is a real number. Which of the
following number lines represents the graph of all and only the possible values of c for which the
graph of y has no x-intercepts?
A.

B.

C.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 115 IUP Preparation

 D.

E.

20. Tameka calculates that she needs 360 square feet of new carpet. But the type of carpet that she
wants is priced by the square yard. How many square yards of carpet does she need?
A. 15
B. 40
C. 60
D. 90
E. 120

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 116 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 4

1. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to a(4 – a) – 5(a + 7) ?

A. -2a – 35
B. -2a + 7
C. –a2 – a – 35
D. –a2 – a + 7
E. -2a3 – 35

1
2. Which of the following inequalities orders the numbers 0.2, 0.03, and from least to greatest?
4
1
A. 0.2 < 0.03 <
4
1
B. 0.03 < 0.2 <
4
1
C. 0.03 < < 0.2
4
1
D. < 0.03 < 0.2
4
1
E. < 0.2 < 0.03
4

3. If 𝑥 2 + 4 = 29, then 𝑥 2 − 4 = ?
A. 5
B. √21
C. 21
D. 25
E. 33

4. The vertices of a rectangle are (-1, -2), (4, -2), (4,3), and (-1, 3). When the rectangle is graphed in
the standard (x, y) coordinate plane below, what percent of the total area of the rectangle lies in
Quadrant III?

A. 8%
B. 12%
C. 12.5%
D. 32%
E. 48%

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 117 IUP Preparation

 5. In 1985, the cost of clothing for a certain family was $620. In 1995, 10 years later, the cost of
clothing for this family was $1,000. Assuming the cost increased linearly, what was the cost of this
family’s clothing in 1991?
A. $908
B. $848
C. $812
D. $810
E. $772

6. The square root of a certain number is approximately 9.2371. the certain number is between
what 2 integers?
A. 3 and 4
B. 4 and 5
C. 9 and 10
D. 18 and 19
E. 81 and 99

7. A bag contains 10 pieces of flavored candy: 4 lemon, 3 strawberry, 2 grape, and 1 cherry. One
piece of candy will be randomly picked from the bag. What is the probability the candy picked is
NOT grape flavored?
1
A.
5
1
B.
4
1
C.
2
3
D.
4
4
E.
5

8. When points A and B(-3, 4) are graphed in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane below, the
midpoint of ̅̅̅̅
𝐴𝐵 will be (1,2). What will be the coordinates of point A ?

A. (-7, 6)
B. (-2, 1)
C. (-1, 3)

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 118 IUP Preparation

 D. (-1, 8)
E. (5, 0)

9. Andrea manages a company that currently has 116 customers, which is 8 more than twice the
number of customers the company had 1 year ago. how many customers did the company have 1
year ago?
A. 50
B. 54
C. 62
D. 66
E. 100

10. Joseph will have a 200-foot-long fence installed around his yard. The A+ Fence Company
charges a $500,00 fee, plus a set amount per foot of fence. The A+ Fence Company has given Joseph
an estimate of $2,200.00 to install the fence around his yard. What is the set amount per foot of fence?
A. $4.00
B. $4.80
C. $8.50
D. $11.00
E. $13.50

11. For a math homework assignment, Karla found the area and perimeter of a room of her house.
She reported that the area of her rectangular living room is 180 square feet and that the perimeter is
54 feet. When drawing a sketch of her living room the next day, she realized that she had forgotten
to write down the dimensions of the room. What are the dimensions of Karla’s living room, in feet?
A. 9 by 20
B. 10 by 18
C. 12 by 15
D. 14 by 13
E. 16 by 11

Use the following information to answer questions 12 – 14

Carrie’s Chocolate Shop and Tamika’s Treat Shop both sell candy in boxes. The table below lists the
price (the total amount the customer pays) of each box of candy sold at the shops. For each shop,
there is a linear relationship between the price of a box of candies and the number of candies in that
box. These are the only numbers of candies that can be purchased at the shops.
Candies per box Price at Carrie’s Chocolate Shop Price at Tamika’s Treat Shop
(n) (c) (t)
5 $1.50 $2.25
10 $2.50 $2.75
15 $3.50 $3.25
20 $4.50 $3.75
25 $5.50 $4.25
30 $6.50 $4.75

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 119 IUP Preparation

 12. Jeremy has $10.00 in quarters to spend on candy. What is the maximum number of quarters he
would have left after paying fox a box of 25 candies at Tamika’s Treat Shop?
(Note: Each quarter is worth $0.25)
A. 10
B. 17
C. 22
D. 23
E. 30

13. At Tamika’s Treat Shop, what is the average price per candy in a box of 20, to the nearest $0.01?
A. $0.08
B. $0.19
C. $0.23
D. $0.30
E. $0.45

14. Which of the following equations gives the relationship between the price in dollars, c, and the
number of candies, n, in a box of candies at Carrie’s Chocolate Shop?
A. c = 0.2n + 0.5
B. c = 0.3n
C. c = 0.5n + 1.5
D. c = n – 3.5
E. c = 1.4n – 5.5

15. Which of the following is a solution to the equation x2 – 36x = 0 ?

A. 72
B. 36
C. 18
D. 6
E. -6

16. In the figure below, vertices D and F of DEF lie on 𝐶𝐺

̅̅̅̅ the measure of CDE is 148, and the
measure of EFG is 140. What is the measure of DEF ?

A. 72
B. 98
C. 100
D. 108
E. 116

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 120 IUP Preparation

 17. A company ships notepads in rectangular boxes that each have inside dimensions measuring
9 inches long, 9 inches wide, and 12 inches tall. Each notepad is in the shape of a cube with an edge
length of 3 inches. What is the maximum number of notepads that will fit in 1 closed box?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 22
E. 36

18. The function f is defined as 𝑓(𝑥) = −4𝑥 3 − 4𝑥 2 what is 𝑓(−4) ?

A. -320
B. -192
C. 16
D. 192
E. 320

19. Which of the following (x,y) pairs is the solution for the system of equations 𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 4 and
−2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 7 ?
A. (-2, 3)
B. (-1, 2.5)
C. (1, 1.5)
D. (2,1)
E. (4,0)

20. Which of the following is a value of x that satisfies log 𝑥 36 = 3 ?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
E. 18

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 121 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 5

1. A 5-inch-by-7-inch photograph was cut to fit exactly into a 4-inch-by-6-inch frame. What is the
area, in square inches, of the part of the photograph that was cut off?
A. 2
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
E. 24

2. A line contains the points A, B, C, and D. Point B is between points A and C. Point D is between
points C and B. which of the following inequalities must be true about the lengths of these segments?
A. BC < AB
B. BD < AB
C. BD < CD
D. CD < AB
E. CD < BC

3. If x and y are positive integers such that the greatest common factor of x2y2 and xy3 is 45, then
which of the following could y equal?
A. 45
B. 15
C. 9
D. 5
E. 3

4. To test a new medicine, each of 300 volunteers was assigned a distinct number from 1 to 300.
Next, a calculator was used to simulate drawing 150 balls from among 300 congruent balls. The balls
were numbered the same way as the volunteers so that 150 volunteers to receive the new medication
would be chosen without bias. The other volunteers received a placebo. Weeks later, the 2 groups
were compared. Which of the following phrases best describes the company’s testing?
A. Randomized census
B. randomized experiment
C. nonrandomized experiment
D. randomized sample survey
E. nonrandomized sample survey

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 122 IUP Preparation

 5. One caution sign flashes every 4 seconds, and another caution sign flashes every 10 seconds.
At a certain instant, the 2 signs flash at the same time. How many seconds elapse until the 2 signs
next flash at the same time?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 14
D. 20
E. 40

6. For all nonzero values of a and b, the value of which of the following expressions is always
negative?
A. a− b
B. -a – b
C. |𝑎| + |𝑏|
D. |𝑎| − |𝑏|
E. −|𝑎| − |𝑏|

7. Graphed in the same standard (x,y) coordinate plane are a circle and a parabola. The circle has
radius 3 and center (0,0). The parabola has vertex (-3, -2), has vertical axis of symmetry, and passes
through (-2, -1). The circle and the parabola intersect at how many points?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4

8. 40% of 250 is equal to 60% of what number?

A. 150
B. 160
2
C. 166
3
D. 270
E. 375

9. Which of the following inequalities is equivalent to -2x – 6y > 2y – 4 ?

A. 𝑥 < −4𝑦 + 2
B. 𝑥 > −4𝑦 + 2
C. 𝑥 < 2𝑦 + 2
D. 𝑥 < 4𝑦 + 2
E. 𝑥 > 4𝑦 + 2

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 123 IUP Preparation

 40 40
10. For an angle with measure  in a right triangle, sin α = and tan α = . What is the value of
41 9
cos  ?
9
A.
41
41
B.
9
9
C.
40
9
D.
√1,519
9
E.
√3,281

11. The perimeter of rectangle ABCD is 96 cm. the ratio of the side lengths AB : BC is 3 : 5. What is
the length, in centimeters, of ̅̅̅̅
𝐴𝐵 ?
A. 6
B. 18
C. 30
D. 36
E. 60

̅̅̅̅ has a length of 16 inches and altitude ̅̅̅̅

12. For ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 shown below, base 𝐴𝐶 𝐵𝐷 has a length of 8
inches. The area of a certain square is equal to the area of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶. What is the length, in inches, of a
side of the square?

A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
E. 32

Use the following information to answer questions 13 – 16.

In the figure shown below, ABCD is the rectangle, EFGH is a square, and ̅̅̅̅ 𝐶𝐷 is the diameter of a
semicircle. Point K is the midpoint of ̅̅̅̅
𝐶𝐷 . point J is the midpoint of both ̅̅̅̅
𝐴𝐵 and 𝐸𝐹̅̅̅̅ . Point E and F
lie on ̅̅̅̅
𝐴𝐵 . The 3 given lengths are in meters.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 124 IUP Preparation

 𝐸𝐻 is what percent of the length of ̅̅̅̅
13. The length of ̅̅̅̅ 𝐴𝐷 ?
A. 15.6%
B. 30%
C. 36%
D. 43.2%
E. 50%

14. What is the length, in meters, of ̅̅̅

𝐽𝐷 ?
A. 13
B. 15.6
C. 17
D. √44
E. √244

15. What is the length, in meters, of are 𝐶𝐷?

A. 2.5 
B. 5
C. 6.25 
D. 10 
E. 25 

16. The figure will be placed in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane so than K is at the origin, 𝐴𝐵 is
parallel to the x-axis, and 1 meter equals 1 coordinate unit. Which of the following values could be
the y-coordinate of H?
A. 1.8
B. 3.6
C. 8.4
D. 10
E. 12

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 125 IUP Preparation

 17. What is the length, in coordinate units, of the altitude from C to 𝐴𝐵 in ABC shown in the
standard (x,y) coordinate plane below?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. √10
E. √13

18. At a local post office, on average, 3 customers are in line when the post office closes each day.
The probability, P, that exactly n customers are in line when the post office closes can be modeled
3𝑛 𝑒 −3
by the equation 𝑃 = . Given that 𝑒 −3 = 0.05, which of the following values is closest to the
𝑛!
probability that exactly 2 customers are in line when the post office closes?
A. 0.08
B. 0.11
C. 0.15
D. 0.23
E. 0.45

1
19. What is the amplitude of the function (𝑥) = cos(3𝑥 + ) ?
2
1
A.
3
1
B.
2
3
C.
2
D. 2
E. 3

20. License plates on cars in a certain state consist of 3 letters taken from the 26 letters, A through
Z, followed by 3 digits taken from the 10 digits, 0 through 9. Which of the following expressions
gives the number of distinct license plates that are possible given that repetition of both letters and
digits is allowed?
A. 103 . 363
B. (10 + 26)3
C. 2(26!)3 (10!)3
D. (3 + 3)26+10
E. (26! .10!)3 + (26! .10!)3

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 126 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 6

1. For 20 quiz scores in a typing class, the table below gives the frequency of the scores in each
score interval. Which score interval contains the median of the scores?
Score interval Frequency
96 – 100 3
91 – 95 1
86 – 90 3
A. 96 – 100 81 – 85 4
B. 91 – 95 76 – 80 9
C. 86 – 90
D. 81 – 85
E. 76 – 80

1 1−𝑖
2. In the complex numbers, where 𝑖 2 = −1, ∙ =?
1+𝑖 1−𝑖
A. 𝑖−1
B. 1+𝑖
C. 1−𝑖
1−𝑖
D.
2
1+𝑖
E.
2

3. Temperatures measured in degrees Fahrenheit (F) are related to temperatures measured in

9
degrees Celsius (C) by the formula 𝐹 = 𝐶 + 32. There is 1 value of x for which x degrees Fahrenheit
5
equals x degrees Celsius. What is that value?
A. −72
B. −40
C. −32
D. 0
E. 32

4. The table below gives experimental data values for variables x dan y. Theory predicts that y
varies directly with x. Based on the experimental data, which of the following values is closest to the
constant of variation?
(Note: The variable y varies directly with the variable x provided that y = kx for some nonzero
constant k, called the constant of variation.)
x y
2.75 0.140
8.50 0.425
14.75 0.750
16.75 0.850
21.00 1.050

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 127 IUP Preparation

 A. −2.61
B. 0.05
C. 3.61
D. 15.90
E. 20.00

5. During a snowstorm, the relationship between the depth of accumulated snow, y inches, and
the elapsed time, x hours, was modeled by the equation 2x – 5y = −5. One of the following graphs in
the standard (x,y) coordinate plane models the equation for positive values of x and y. which one?
A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 128 IUP Preparation

 1 1
6. Diana is baking bread, and the original recipe calls for 1 teaspoons of yeast and 2 cups of
2 2
1
flour. Diana will use the entire contents of a packet that contains 2 teaspoons of yeast and will use
4
the same ratio of ingredients called for in the original recipe. How many cups of flour will Diana
use?
7
A. 1
8
1
B. 3
4
1
C. 3
2
3
D. 3
4
E. 4

12𝑥 6 −9𝑥 2
7. For all nonzero values of 𝑥, =?
3𝑥 2
A. 4𝑥 3 − 3𝑥
B. 4𝑥 3 − 3
C. 4𝑥 4 − 9𝑥 2
D. 4𝑥 4 − 3𝑥
E. 4𝑥 4 − 3

8. Four matrices are given below.

5 8
1 2 3 9 1 3 7
𝑊=[ ] 𝑋=[ ] 𝑌=[ 𝑍 = [2 9] ]
5 8 7 4 4 2 6
3 7
Which of the following matrix products is undefined?
A. WX
B. WY
C. 𝑌𝑍
D. 𝑋𝑊
E. 𝑋𝑍

9. The 3 parabolas graphed in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane below are from a family of
parabolas. A general equation that defines this family of parabolas contains the variable n in
addition to x and y. for one of the parabolas shown, n = 1; for another, n = 2; and for the third, n = 3.
Which of the following could be a general equation that defines this family of parabolas for all n  1
?

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 129 IUP Preparation

 A. 𝑦 = 𝑛𝑥 2 + 1
1
B. 𝑦 = 𝑥2 + 1
𝑛
C. 𝑦 = 𝑥2 + 𝑛
D. 𝑦 = −𝑛𝑥 2 + 1
1
E. 𝑦 = − 𝑥2 + 1
𝑛

10. After polling a class of 20 music students by a show of hands, you find that 8 students play the
guitar and 9 students play the piano. Given that information, what is the minimum number of
students in this music class who play both the guitar and the piano?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 8
D. 9
E. 17

11. A teacher assigns each of her 18 students a different integer from 1 through 18. The teacher
forms pairs of study partners by using the rule that the sum of the pair of numbers is a perfect
square. Assuming the 9 pairs of students follow this rule, the student assigned which number must
be paired with the student assigned the number 1?
A. 16
B. 15
C. 9
D. 8
E. 3

12. Lucky found $8.25 in pennies, nickels, dimes, and quarters while walking home from school
one week. When she deposited this money in the bank, she noticed that she had twice as many
nickels as pennies, 1 fewer dime than nickels, and 1 more quarter than nickels. How many quarters
did Lucky find that week?
A. 3
B. 9
C. 16
D. 21
E. 26

2𝑥−1
( )
13. Given 10 𝑥 = 1, 𝑥 =?
1
A. −
2
1
B. −
8
1
C.
2
10
D.
19
E. 1

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 130 IUP Preparation

 14. The table below shows the result of a survey of 250 people who were asked whether they like
to read and whether they play a musical instrument.
Do NOT play
Play a musical
a musical Total
instrument
instrument
Like to read 50 60 110
Do NOT like to read 40 100 140
Total 90 160 250
1
A.
5
5
B.
9
5
C.
11
9
D.
25
11
E.
25

15. Mario was riding a bicycle with wheels 26 inches in diameter. During 1 minute of Mario’s ride,
the wheels made exactly 200 revolutions. At what average speed, in feet per second, was Mario riding
during that minute?
65
A. 𝜋
9
65
B. 𝜋
18
130
C. 𝜋
9
845
D. 𝜋
18
1,690
E. 𝜋
9

𝑗 𝑗
16. Whenever j and k are positive integers such that (√3) = 27𝑘 , what is the value of ?
𝑘
1
A.
6
3
B.
2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6

3
17. A finite arithmetic sequence has 7 terms, and the first term is . what is the difference between
4
the mean and the median of the 7 terms?
A. 0
3
B.
4
4
C.
3
D. 3
E. 4

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 131 IUP Preparation

 18. In the circle with center D shown below, the length of radius ̅̅̅̅ ̅̅̅̅ is 1
𝐶𝐷 is 4 cm, the length of 𝐵𝐶
̅̅̅̅ at B. when 𝐴𝐷𝐶 is measured in degrees, which of the
̅̅̅̅ is perpendicular to radius 𝐴𝐷
cm, and 𝐵𝐶
̂ ?
following expressions represents the length, in centimeters, of 𝐴𝐶

 1
A. (sin−1 ( ))
45 4
 1
B. (cos −1 ( ))
45 4
2 −1 1
C. (sin ( ))
45 4
2 −1 1
D. (cos ( ))
45 4
2 1
E. (tan−1 ( ))
45 4

19. The lengths of the triangle shown below are rounded to the nearest 0.1 cm. what is the area, to
the nearest 1 cm2, of this triangle?

(Note: The area of any triangle with sides of length a, b, and c opposite angles of measure A, B, and
1
C, respectively, is given by ab sin C.
2
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
E. 14

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 132 IUP Preparation

 20. The probability distribution of the discrete random variable X is shown in the table below.
What is the expected value of X ?
Probability
x
P(X = x)
1
0
6
1
1
12
1
2
4
1
3
12
1
4
12
5 0
1
6
13
1
A.
6
1
B.
3
C. 1
D. 2
1
E. 3
6

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 133 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 7

1. Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder in
each case.
A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13

2. Which of the following fraction is the largest ?

7
A. 8
13
B. 16
31
C. 40
63
D. 80

.009
3. = .01
?
A. .0009
B. .09
C. .9
D. 9

4. The least perfect square, which is divisible by each of 21, 36 and 66 is:
A. 213444
B. 214344
C. 214434
D. 231444

√3 +1 √3 − 1
5. If x = and y = , then the value of (x2 + y2) is:
√3 − 1 √3 + 1
A. 10
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15

Direction (Q.No. 6)
Each of the questions given below consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to
study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to
answer the question.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 134 IUP Preparation

 6. What is Harun's present age?
I. Five years ago, Harun's age was double that of his son's age at that time.
II. Present ages of Harun and his son are in the ratio of 11 : 6 respectively.
III. Five years hence, the respective ratio of Harun's age and his son's age will become 12 : 7.
A. Only I and II
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and III
D. Any two of the three
E. None of these

7. If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is the same as:

A. 4% of a
B. 5% of a
C. 20% of a
D. None of these

8. If A = x% of y and B = y% of x, then which of the following is true?

A. A is smaller than B.
B. A is greater than B
C. Relationship between A and B cannot be determined.
D. If x is smaller than y, then A is greater than B.
E. None of these

9. 3 pumps, working 8 hours a day, can empty a tank in 2 days. How many hours a day must 4
pumps work to empty the tank in 1 day?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

10. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes can fill
the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in:
A. 81 min.
B. 108 min.
C. 144 min.
D. 192 min.

11. A motorboat, whose speed in 15 km/hr in still water goes 30 km downstream and comes back
in a total of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of the stream (in km/hr) is:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 135 IUP Preparation

 12. A man took loan from a bank at the rate of 12% p.a. simple interest. After 3 years he had to
pay Rp. 5,400,000 interest only for the period. The principal amount borrowed by him was:
A. Rp. 2,000,000
B. Rp. 10,000,000
C. Rp. 15,000,000
D. Rp. 20,000,000

13. A man walked diagonally across a square lot. Approximately, what was the percent saved by
not walking along the edges?
A. 20
B. 24
C. 30
D. 33

2
14. By investing in 16 % stock at 64, one earns Rp. 1500000. The investment made is:
3
A. Rp. 5640000
B. Rp. 5760000
C. Rp. 7500000
D. Rp. 9600000

15. A man buys a watch for Rp. 1950000 in cash and sells it for Rp. 2200000 at a credit of 1 year. If
the rate of interest is 10% per annum, the man:
A. gains Rp. 55000
B. gains Rp. 50000
C. loses Rp. 30000
D. gains Rp. 30000

Direction (Q.No. 16)

Find the odd man out.

16. 10, 25, 45, 54, 60, 75, 80

A. 10
B. 45
C. 54
D. 75

Direction (Q.Nos. 17 - 19)

Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers.

17. 36, 54, 18, 27, 9, 18.5, 4.5

A. 4.5
B. 18.5
C. 54
D. 18

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 136 IUP Preparation

 18. 582, 605, 588, 611, 634, 617, 600
A. 634
B. 611
C. 605
D. 600

19. 56, 72, 90, 110, 132, 150

A. 72
B. 110
C. 132
D. 150

20. 8, 24, 12, 36, 18, 54, (....)

A. 27
B. 108
C. 68
D. 72

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 137 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 8

In a regular week, there are 5 working days and for each day, the working hours are 8. A man
gets Rp. 240000 per hour for regular work and Rp. 320000 per hours for overtime. If he earns Rp.
432000 in 4 weeks, then how many hours does he work for ?
A. 160
B. 175
C. 180
D. 195

2. √625 14 11
[ 𝑥 𝑥 ] is equal to:
11 √25 √196
A. 5
B. 6
C. 8
D. 11

Direction (Q.No. 3)
Each of the questions given below consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to
study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to
answer the question.

3. In a cricket team, the average age of eleven players in 28 years. What is the age of the captain?
I. The captain is eleven years older than the youngest player.
II. The average age of 10 players, other than the captain is 27.3 years.
III. Leaving aside the captain and the youngest player, the average ages of three groups of three
players each are 25 years, 28 years and 30 years respectively.
A. Any two of the three
B. All I, II and III
C. II only or I and III only
D. II and III only
E. None of these

4. Find a positive number which when increased by 17 is equal to 60 times the reciprocal of the
number.
A. 3
B. 10
C. 17
D. 20

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 138 IUP Preparation

 5. In a two-digit, if it is known that its unit's digit exceeds its ten's digit by 2 and that the
product of the given number and the sum of its digits is equal to 144, then the number is:
A. 24
B. 26
C. 42
D. 46

6. Sofia's father was 38 years of age when she was born while her mother was 36 years old when
her brother four years younger to her was born. What is the difference between the ages of her
parents?
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 8 years

Direction (Q.No. 7)
Each of the questions given below consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to
study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to
answer the question.

7. What is the present age of Dina?

I. The ratio between the present ages of Dina and her brother Dani is 3 : 4 respectively.
II. After 5 years the ratio between the ages of Dina and Dani will be 4 : 5.
III. Dani is 5 years older than Dina.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. All I, II and III
E. Any two of the three

8. In an election between two candidates, one got 55% of the total valid votes, 20% of the votes
were invalid. If the total number of votes was 7500, the number of valid votes that the other
candidate got, was:
A. 2700
B. 2900
C. 3000
D. 3100

9. A trader mixes 26 kg of rice at Rp. 20000 per kg with 30 kg of rice of other variety at Rp. 36000
per kg and sells the mixture at Rp. 30000 per kg. His profit percent is:
A. No profit, no loss
B. 5%
C. 8%
D. 10%

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 139 IUP Preparation

 E. None of these

Direction (Q.No. 10)

Each of the questions given below consists of a statement and / or a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statement(s) is / are sufficient to answer the given question. Read the both statements and
• Give answer (A) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
• Give answer (B) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
• Give answer (C) if the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
• Give answer (D) if the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.
• Give answer(E) if the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

10. A man mixes two types of rice (X and Y) and sells the mixture at the rate of Rp. 17000 per kg.
Find his profit percentage.
I. The rate of X is Rp. 20000 per kg.
II. The rate of Y is Rp. 13000 per kg.
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E. Both I and II are necessary to answer

11. An industrial loom weaves 0.128 metres of cloth every second. Approximately, how many
seconds will it take for the loom to weave 25 metres of cloth?
A. 178
B. 195
C. 204
D. 488

12. A takes twice as much time as B or thrice as much time as C to finish a piece of work.
Working together, they can finish the work in 2 days. B can do the work alone in:
A. 4 days
B. 6 days
C. 8 days
D. 12 days

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 140 IUP Preparation

 13. If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is:
A. 0.934
B. 0.945
C. 0.954
D. 0.958

14. If log10 2 = 0.3010, the value of log10 80 is:

A. 1.6020
B. 1.9030
C. 3.9030
D. None of these

15. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular park is 3 : 2. If a man cycling
along the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 km/hr completes one round in 8 minutes, then
the area of the park (in sq. m) is:
A. 15360
B. 153600
C. 30720
D. 307200

16. The slant height of a right circular cone is 10 m and its height is 8 m. Find the area of its
curved surface.
A. 30 m2
B. 40 m2
C. 60 m2
D. 80 m2

17. A man wants to sell his scooter. There are two offers, one at Rp. 12.000,000 cash and the other
a credit of Rp. 12.880.000 to be paid after 8 months, money being at 18% per annum. Which is the
better offer?
A. Rp. 12.000.000 in cash
B. Rp. 12.880.000 at credit
C. Both are equally good

18. The banker's discount of a certain sum of money is Rp. 72000 and the true discount on the
same sum for the same time is Rp. 60000. The sum due is:
A. Rp. 360000
B. Rp. 432000
C. Rp. 540000
D. Rp. 1080000

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 141 IUP Preparation

 19. A man standing at a point P is watching the top of a tower, which makes an angle of elevation
of 30° with the man's eye. The man walks some distance towards the tower to watch its top and the
angle of the elevation becomes 60°. What is the distance between the base of the tower and the
point P?
A. 4√3 units
B. 8 units
C. 12 units
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these

20. 8, 7, 11, 12, 14, 17, 17, 22, (....)

A. 27
B. 20
C. 22
D. 24

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 142 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 9

1. A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average
number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is:
A. 250
B. 276
C. 280
D. 285

2. The average monthly income of P and Q is Rp. 5.050.000 The average monthly income of Q
and R is Rp. 6.250.000 and the average monthly income of P and R is Rp. 5.200.000 The monthly
income of P is:
A. Rp. 3.500.000
B. Rp. 4.000.000
C. Rp. 4.050.000
D. Rp. 5.000.000

3. The sum of two number is 25 and their difference is 13. Find their product.
A. 104
B. 114
C. 315
D. 325

Direction (Q.No. 4)
Each of the questions given below consists of a statement and / or a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statement(s) is / are sufficient to answer the given question. Read the both statements and
Give answer (A) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (B) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (C) if the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer (D) if the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer(E) if the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 143 IUP Preparation

 4. What is the number?
I. The sum of the two digits is 8. The ratio of the two digits is 1 : 3.
II. The product of the two digit of a number is 12. The quotient of two digits is 3.
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E. Both I and II are necessary to answer

5. A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of A, B and C be
27, then how old is B?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
E. 11

6. (17)3.5 × (17)? = 178

A. 2.29
B. 2.75
C. 4.25
D. 4.5

1
7. If x = 3 + 2√2 , then the value of (√𝑥 − ) is:
√𝑥
A. 1
B. 2
C. 2√2
D. 3√3

4 2
8. A and B together have Rp. 1.210.000 If of A's amount is equal to of B's amount, how much
15 5
amount does B have?
A. Rp. 460.000
B. Rp. 484.000
C. Rp. 550.000
D. Rp. 664.000

9. Speed of a boat in standing water is 9 kmph and the speed of the stream is 1.5 kmph. A man
rows to a place at a distance of 105 km and comes back to the starting point. The total time taken
by him is:
A. 16 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 20 hours
D. 24 hours

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 144 IUP Preparation

 10. A sum fetched a total simple interest of Rp. 401.625.000 at the rate of 9 p.c.p.a. in 5 years.
What is the sum?
A. Rp. 446.250.000
B. Rp. 803.250.000
C. Rp. 8.900.000
D. Rp. 8.925.000
E. None of these

11. A person takes a loan of Rp. 200.000 at 5% simple interest. He returns Rp. 100.000 at the end
of 1 years. In order to clear his dues at the end of 2 years, he would pay:
A. Rp. 105.000
B. Rp. 110.000
C. Rp. 115.000
D. Rp. 11.550.000

12. The difference between the length and breadth of a rectangle is 23 m. If its perimeter is 206 m,
then its area is:
A. 1520 m²
B. 2420 m²
C. 2480 m²
D. 2520 m²

13. What was the day of the week on 28th May, 2006?
A. Thursday
B. Friday
C. Saturday
D. Sunday

14. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 8.30, is:
A. 80°
B. 75°
C. 60°
D. 105°

15. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 4.20, is:
A. 0°
B. 10°
C. 5°
D. 20°

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 145 IUP Preparation

 16. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5?
1°
A. 58
2
B. 64°
1°
C. 64
2
1°
D. 72
2

17. At what time between 9 and 10 o'clock will the hands of a watch be together?
A. 45 min. past 9
B. 50 min. past 9
1
C. 49 min. past 9
11
2
D. 48 min. past 9
11

18. In how many ways can a group of 5 men and 2 women be made out of a total of 7 men and 3
women?
A. 63
B. 90
C. 126
D. 45
E. 135

Direction (Q.No. 19)

Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers.

19. 8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83

A. 47
B. 63
C. 32
D. 83

Direction (Q.No. 20)

Insert the missing number.

20. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, (....)

A. 54
B. 56
C. 64
D. 81

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 146 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 10

1. A fires 5 shots to B's 3 but A kills only once in 3 shots while B kills once in 2 shots. When B
has missed 27 times, A has killed:
A. 30 birds
B. 60 birds
C. 72 birds
D. 90 birds

2. Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kahfi and Samuel was 6 : 5. Four years hence, the ratio of
their ages will be 11 : 10. What is Samuel's age at present?
A. 16 years
B. 18 years
C. 20 years
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

3. Q is as much younger than R as he is older than T. If the sum of the ages of R and T is 50
years, what is definitely the difference between R and Q's age?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 25 years
D. Data inadequate
E. None of these

1 1
4. + =?
1+a(𝑛−𝑚) 1+a(𝑚−𝑛)
A. 0
1
B.
2
C. 1
D. a𝑚+𝑛

1 1 1
5. + + =?
1+𝑥 (𝑏−a) +𝑥 (𝑐−a) 1+𝑥 (a−𝑏) +𝑥 (𝑐−𝑏) 1+𝑥 (𝑏−𝑐) +𝑥 (a−𝑐)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 𝑥 a−𝑏−𝑐
D. None of these

6. Diki started a software business by investing Rp.50.000.000. After six months, Nanda joined
her with a capital of Rp.80.000.000. After 3 years, they earned a profit of Rp.24.500.000 What was
Diki's share in the profit?
A. Rp.9.423.000
B. Rp.10.250.000
C. Rp.12.500.000
D. Rp.10.500.000

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 147 IUP Preparation

 7. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A
do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
A. 12 days
B. 15 days
C. 16 days
D. 18 days

8. Candra is travelling on his cycle and has calculated to reach point A at 2 P.M. if he travels at
10 kmph, he will reach there at 12 noon if he travels at 15 kmph. At what speed must he travel to
reach A at 1 P.M.?
A. 8 kmph
B. 11 kmph
C. 12 kmph
D. 14 kmph

9. A man rows to a place 48 km distant and come back in 14 hours. He finds that he can row 4
km with the stream in the same time as 3 km against the stream. The rate of the stream is:
A. 1 km/hr
B. 1.5 km/hr
C. 2 km/hr
D. 2.5 km/hr

10. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of pulses costing Rp.15.000 and Rp.20.000 per
kg respectively so as to get a mixture worth Rp.1.650.000 kg?
A. 3:7
B. 5:7
C. 7:3
D. 7:5

a 𝑏
11. If log + log = log (a + 𝑏), then:
𝑏 a
A. a+𝑏 =1
B. a−𝑏 =1
C. a=𝑏
D. a2 − 𝑏 2 = 1

12. In a race of 200 m, A can beat B by 31 m and C by 18 m. In a race of 350 m, C will beat B by:
A. 22.75 m
B. 25 m
C. 19.5 m
4
D. 7 m
7

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 148 IUP Preparation

 13. If 6th March, 2005 is Monday, what was the day of the week on 6th March, 2004?
A. Sunday
B. Saturday
C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday

14. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through:
A. 145°
B. 150°
C. 155°
D. 160°

15. An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how may degrees will the hour
hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon?
A. 144°
B. 150°
C. 168°
D. 180°

16. The market value of a 10.5% stock, in which an income of Rp. 756 is derived by investing Rp.
1
9000 brokerage being %, is:
4
A. Rp. 108.25
B. Rp. 112.20
C. Rp. 124.75
D. Rp. 125.25

17. One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card
drawn is a face card (Jack, Queen and King only)?
1
A.
13
3
B.
13
1
C.
4
9
D.
52

18. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of
both the cards being kings?
1
A.
15
25
B.
57
35
C.
256
1
D.
221

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 149 IUP Preparation

 19. The true discount on Rp. 2562 due 4 months hence is Rp. 122. The rate percent is:
A. 12%
1
B. 13 %
3
C. 15%
D. 14%

Direction (Q.No. 20)

Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers.

20. 22, 33, 66, 99, 121, 279, 594

A. 33
B. 121
C. 279
D. 594

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 150 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 11

1. The greatest number which on dividing 1657 and 2037 leaves remainders 6 and 5 respectively,
is:
A. 123
B. 127
C. 235
D. 305

2. The least multiple of 7, which leaves a remainder of 4, when divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18 is:
A. 74
B. 94
C. 184
D. 364

3. 100 oranges are bought at the rate of Rp 350 and sold at the rate of Rp. 48 per dozen. The
percentage of profit or loss is:
2
A. 14 % gain
7
B. 15% gain
2
C. 14 % loss
7
D. 15 % loss

4. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a
proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of
increased seats?
A. 2:3:4
B. 6:7:8
C. 6:8:9
D. None of these

Direction (Q.No. 5)
Each of these questions is followed by three statements. You have to study the question and all the
three statements given to decide whether any information provided in the statement(s) is
redundant and can be dispensed with while answering the given question.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 151 IUP Preparation

 5. Three friends, P, Q and R started a partnership business investing money in the ratio of 5 : 4 :
2 respectively for a period of 3 years. What is the amount received by P as his share profit?
I.Total amount invested in the business in Rp. 22.000.000
3
II.Profit earned at the end of 3 years is of the total investment.
8
III.The average amount of profit earned per year is Rp. 2.750.000
A. I or II or III
B. Either III only, or I and II together
C. Any two of the three
D. All I, II and III are required.
E. None of these

6. If a quarter kg of potato costs 60 paise, how many paise will 200 gm cost?
A. 48 paise
B. 54 paise
C. 56 paise
D. 72 paise

7. P can complete a work in 12 days working 8 hours a day. Q can complete the same work in 8
days working 10 hours a day. If both P and Q work together, working 8 hours a day, in how many
days can they complete the work?
5
A. 5
11
6
B. 5
11
5
C. 6
11
6
D. 6
11

8. Sinta can do a piece of work in 20 days. Tania is 25% more efficient than Sinta. The number of
days taken by Tania to do the same piece of work is:
A. 15
B. 16
C. 18
D. 25

9. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in which the train
is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:
A. 45 km/hr
B. 50 km/hr
C. 54 km/hr
D. 55 km/hr

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 152 IUP Preparation

 10. Two trains, each 100 m long, moving in opposite directions, cross each other in 8 seconds. If
one is moving twice as fast the other, then the speed of the faster train is:
A. 30 km/hr
B. 45 km/hr
C. 60 km/hr
D. 75 km/hr

1 1
11. A train travelling at a speed of 75 mph enters a tunnel 3 miles long. The train is mile long.
2 4
How long does it take for the train to pass through the tunnel from the moment the front enters to
the moment the rear emerges?
A. 2.5 min
B. 3 min
C. 3.2 min
D. 3.5 min

12. A man takes twice as long to row a distance against the stream as to row the same distance in
favour of the stream. The ratio of the speed of the boat (in still water) and the stream is:
A. 2:1
B. 3:1
C. 3:2
D. 4:3

13. A sum of Rp. 12,500 amounts to Rp. 15,500 in 4 years at the rate of simple interest. What is the
rate of interest?
A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 6%
E. None of these

14. At what rate of compound interest per annum will a sum of Rp. 1200 become Rp. 1348.32 in 2
years?
A. 6%
B. 6.5%
C. 7%
D. 7.5%

Direction (Q.No. 15)

Each of these questions is followed by three statements. You have to study the question and all the
three statements given to decide whether any information provided in the statement(s) is
redundant and can be dispensed with while answering the given question.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 153 IUP Preparation

 15. What is the cost painting the two adjacent walls of a hall at Rp. 5.000 per m2 which has no
windows or doors?
I.The area of the hall is 24 sq. m.
II.The breadth, length and height of the hall are in the ratio of 4 : 6 : 5 respectively.
III.Area of one wall is 30 sq. m.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. Either I or III
E. All I, II and III are required.

Direction (Q.No. 16)

Each of the questions given below consists of a statement and / or a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statement(s) is / are sufficient to answer the given question. Read the both statements and

Give answer (A) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (B) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (C) if the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer (D) if the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer(E) if the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

16. What is the height of a circular cone?

I.The area of that cone is equal to the area of a rectangle whose length is 33 cm.
II.The area of the base of that cone is 154 sq. cm.
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E. Both I and II are necessary to answer

17. At what time between 5.30 and 6 will the hands of a clock be at right angles?
5
A. 43 min. past 5
11
7
B. 43 min. past 5
11
C. 40 min. past 5
D. 45 min. past 5

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 154 IUP Preparation

 3
18. Which is better investment: 11% stock at 143 or 9 % stock at 117?
4
A. 11% stock at 143
3
B. 9 % stock at 117
4
C. Both are equally good
D. Cannot be compared, as the total amount of investment is not given.

19. The banker's gain on a bill due 1 year hence at 12% per annum is Rp. 6.000 The true discount
is:
A. Rp. 72.000
B. Rp. 36.000
C. Rp. 54.000
D. Rp. 50.000

Direction (Q.No. 20)

Find out the wrong number in the given sequence of numbers.

20. 25, 36, 49, 81, 121, 169, 225

A. 36
B. 49
C. 121
D. 169

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 155 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 12

1. If the sum of two numbers is 55 and the H.C.F. and L.C.M. of these numbers are 5 and 120
respectively, then the sum of the reciprocals of the numbers is equal to:
55
A.
601
601
B.
55
11
C.
120
120
D.
11

2. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 is:
A. 9000
B. 9400
C. 9600
D. 9800

3. If a = 0.1039, then the value of √4𝑎2 − 4𝑎 + 1 + 3𝑎 is:

A. 0.1039
B. 0.2078
C. 1.1039
D. 2.1039

4. The product of two numbers is 9375 and the quotient, when the larger one is divided by the
smaller, is 15. The sum of the numbers is:
A. 380
B. 395
C. 400
D. 425

Direction (Q.No. 5)
Each of the questions given below consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to
study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to
answer the question.

5. What is the two-digit number?

I. The difference between the two-digit number and the number formed by interchanging the
digits is 27.
II. The difference between the two digits is 3.
III. The digit at unit's place is less than that at ten's place by 3.
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. All I, II and III
D. I, and either II or III
E. Even with all I, II and III, answer cannot be give.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 156 IUP Preparation

 6. Present ages of Samy and Anan are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the
ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anan's present age in years?
A. 24
B. 27
C. 40
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

Direction (Q.No. 7)
Each of the questions given below consists of a statement and / or a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statement(s) is / are sufficient to answer the given question. Read the both statements and

Give answer (A) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (B) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (C) if the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer (D) if the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer(E) if the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

7. What is Sonia's present age?

I. Sonia's present age is five times Deepa's present age.
II. Five years ago her age was twenty-five times Deepa's age at that time.
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E. Both I and II are necessary to answer

8. If 3(𝑥−𝑦) = 27 and 3(𝑥−𝑦) = 243, then 𝑥 is equal to:

A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

9. Some articles were bought at 6 articles for Rp. 5 and sold at 5 articles for Rp. 6 Gain percent is:
A. 30%
1
B. 33 %
3
C. 35%
D. 44%

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 157 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 10)
Each of the questions given below consists of a statement and / or a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statement(s) is / are sufficient to answer the given question. Read the both statements and

Give answer (A) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (B) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (C) if the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer (D) if the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer(E) if the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

10. What is the length of a running train?

I. The train crosses a man in 9 seconds.
II. The train crosses a 240 metre long platform in 24 seconds.
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E. Both I and II are necessary to answer

Direction (Q.No. 11)

Each of these questions is followed by three statements. You have to study the question and all the
three statements given to decide whether any information provided in the statement(s) is
redundant and can be dispensed with while answering the given question.

11. At what time will the train reach city X from city Y?
I. The train crosses another train of equal length of 200 metres and running in opposite
directions in 15 seconds.
II. The train leaves city Y at 7.15 a.m. for city X situated at a distance of 558 km.
III. The 200 metres long train crosses a signal pole in 10 seconds.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III only
E. All I, II and III are required.

Direction (Q.No. 12)

Each of the questions given below consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to
study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to
answer the question.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 158 IUP Preparation

 12. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
I. The speed downstream is 12 kmph.
II. The speed upstream is 4 kmph.
III. In a to and fro journey between two points, the average speed of the boat was 6 kmph.
A. I and II only
B. All I, II and III
C. III, and either I or II
D. Any two of the three
E. None of these

13. Mr. Thomas invested an amount of Rp. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at
the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of simple interest
earned in 2 years be Rp. 3508 what was the amount invested in Scheme B?
A. Rp. 6400
B. Rp. 6500
C. Rp. 7200
D. Rp. 7500
E. None of these

Direction (Q.No. 14)

Each of the questions given below consists of a question followed by three statements. You have to
study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is/are necessary to
answer the question.

14. What is the principal sum?

I. The sum amounts to Rp. 690.000 in 3 years at S.I.
II. The sum amounts to Rp. 750.000 in 5 years at S.I.
III. The rate of interest is 5% p.a.
A. I and III only
B. II and III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only, or II and III only
E. Any two of the three

15. 66 cubic centimetres of silver is drawn into a wire 1 mm in diameter. The length of the wire in
metres will be:
A. 84
B. 90
C. 168
D. 336

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 159 IUP Preparation

 16. How many times in a day, are the hands of a clock in straight line but opposite in direction?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 24
D. 48

1
17. The cost price of a Rp. 100.000 stock at 4 discount, when brokerage is % is:
4
A. Rp. 9.575.000
B. Rp. 96.000
C. Rp. 9.625.000
D. Rp. 10.425.000

18. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so
that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done?
A. 564
B. 645
C. 735
D. 756
E. None of these

19. The true discount on a bill due 9 months hence at 16% per annum is Rp. 189.000 The amount
of the bill is
A. Rp. 1.386.000
B. Rp. 1.764.000
C. Rp. 1.575.000
D. Rp. 2.268.000

Direction (Q.No. 20)

Find the odd man out.

20. 41, 43, 47, 53, 61, 71, 73, 81

A. 61
B. 71
C. 73
D. 81

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 160 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 13

1. The least number which when divided by 5, 6 , 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3, but when
divided by 9 leaves no remainder, is:
A. 1677
B. 1683
C. 2523
D. 3363

2. 617 + 6.017 + 0.617 + 6.0017 = ?

A. 6.2963
B. 62.965
C. 629.6357
D. None of these

144 14.4
3. If = , then the value of 𝑥 is:
0.144 𝑥
A. 0.0144
B. 1.44
C. 14.4
D. 144

1 2
4. (√3 − ) simplifies to:
√3
3
A.
4
4
B.
√3
4
C.
3
D. None of these

5. The captain of a cricket team of 11 members is 26 years old and the wicket keeper is 3 years
older. If the ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the remaining players is one year
less than the average age of the whole team. What is the average age of the team?
A. 23 years
B. 24 years
C. 25 years
D. None of these

6. The present ages of three persons in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their
ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years).
A. 8, 20, 28
B. 16, 28, 36
C. 20, 35, 45
D. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 161 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 7)
Each of the questions given below consists of a statement and / or a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statement(s) is / are sufficient to answer the given question. Read the both statements and

Give answer (A) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (B) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (C) if the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer (D) if the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer(E) if the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

7. Dita is twice as old as Rina. What is the difference in their ages?

I. Five years hence, the ratio of their ages would be 9 : 5.
II. Ten years back, the ratio of their ages was 3 : 1.
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E. Both I and II are necessary to answer

8. (256)0.16 × (256)0.09 =?
A. 4
B. 16
C. 64
D. 256.25

9. A starts business with Rp. 3500 and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner. After a year,
the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B's contribution in the capital?
A. Rp. 7500
B. Rp. 8000
C. Rp. 8500
D. Rp. 9000

10. Three partners shared the profit in a business in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. They had partnered for 14
months, 8 months and 7 months respectively. What was the ratio of their investments?
A. 5:7:8
B. 20 : 49 : 64
C. 38 : 28 : 21
D. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 162 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 11)
Each of the questions given below consists of a statement and / or a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statement(s) is / are sufficient to answer the given question. Read the both statements and

Give answer (A) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (B) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (C) if the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer (D) if the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
Give answer(E) if the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

11. Rafi, Gilang and Nita are running a business firm in partnership. What is Gilang's share in the
profit earned by them?
I. Rafi, Gilang and Nita invested the amounts in the ratio of 2 : 4 : 7.
II. Nita’s share in the profit is Rp. 8.750.000
A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
E. Both I and II are necessary to answer

12. A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When the smaller wheel has
made 21 revolutions, then the number of revolutions mad by the larger wheel is:
A. 4
B. 9
C. 12
D. 49

13. 10 women can complete a work in 7 days and 10 children take 14 days to complete the work.
How many days will 5 women and 10 children take to complete the work?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 163 IUP Preparation

 14. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can empty 3
gallons per minute. All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15 minutes. The
capacity of the tank is:
A. 60 gallons
B. 100 gallons
C. 120 gallons
D. 180 gallons

15. A train 240 m long passes a pole in 24 seconds. How long will it take to pass a platform 650 m
long?
A. 65 sec
B. 89 sec
C. 100 sec
D. 150 sec

16. A jogger running at 9 kmph alongside a railway track in 240 metres ahead of the engine of a
120 metres long train running at 45 kmph in the same direction. In how much time will the train
pass the jogger?
A. 3.6 sec
B. 18 sec
C. 36 sec
D. 72 sec

17. Two goods train each 500 m long, are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks. Their
speeds are 45 km/hr and 30 km/hr respectively. Find the time taken by the slower train to pass the
driver of the faster one.
A. 12 sec
B. 24 sec
C. 48 sec
D. 60 sec

18. A boatman goes 2 km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1 km along the
current in 10 minutes. How long will it take to go 5 km in stationary water?
A. 40 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 1 hr 15 min
D. 1 hr 30 min

19. 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is
performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of water is 16
: 65. How much wine did the cask hold originally?
A. 18 litres
B. 24 litres
C. 32 litres
D. 42 litres

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 164 IUP Preparation

 20. A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the
probability that none of the balls drawn is blue?
10
A.
21
11
B.
21
2
C.
7
5
D.
7

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 165 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 14

Important Facts:

All numbers used are real numbers.

All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise noted.

Geometric figures, such as lines, circles, triangles, and quadrilaterals, may or may not be
drawn to scale. That is, you should not assume that quantities such as lengths and angle
measures are as they appear in a drawing.

But you can assume that lines shown as straight are indeed straight, points on a line are
in the order shown, and all geometric objects are in the relative positions shown. For
questions involving drawn figures,base your answers on geometric reasoning rather than
on estimation, measurement, or comparison by sight.

Coordinate systems, such as xy-planes and number lines, are drawn to scale. Therefore,
you may read, estimate, and compare quantities in these figures by sight or by
measurement.

Graphical data presentations, such as bar graphs, line graphs, and pie charts, are drawn
to scale. Therefore, you may read, estimate, and compare data values by sight or by
measurement.

Directions
In questions 1–8, compare the value in Quantity A to the value in Quantity B. Information
concerning one or both of the quantities to be compared is centered above the two
quantities.
Compare the two quantities and select A if Quantity A is greater, B if Quantity B is
greater, C if the two quantities are equal, and D if the relationship cannot be determined
from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 166 IUP Preparation

 ΔBCD is an equilateral triangle and AB = 1.

Quantity A Quantity B
The length of CE

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given

2.
3a − 2b = 9
5a = 34 − 3b

Quantity A Quantity B
a b

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

3. A box contains only red, white, and blue marbles. Twenty percent of the marbles are
blue. Of the remaining marbles, one-quarter are red.

Quantity A Quantity B
The number of red One-third the number of white
marbles marbles

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 167 IUP Preparation

 C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

4.
Quantity A Quantity B
(r + 3)(s + 2) rs + 12

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

5. X = (86)(47)(94)(123)(64)(56)(72)

Quantity A Quantity B
The units digit of X 5

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

6. Diego drinks 50% more coffee per year than Pablo does. Lilly drinks the same amount
of coffee in the first half of each year as she does in the second, and she drinks twice as
much coffee in one of these periods as Pablo does in a whole year.

Quantity A
The amount of coffee Diego drinks in 5 years

Quantity B
The amount of coffee Lilly and Pablo combined drink in 2 years

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 168 IUP Preparation

 7.
ABCD is a square with a perimeter of 20 units. AC and BDare diagonals.

Quantity A Quantity B
The length of side The number of square units shaded in
BC in units the figure

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

8. a and b are positive integers such that 4 < a + b < 6 and |a − b| = 1

Quantity A
The volume of a cylinder with radius a and height b

Quantity B
The volume of a cylinder with radius b and height a

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 169 IUP Preparation

 9.
In the figure above, QR is parallel to ST. What is the measure of angle x?
A 35
B 45
C 65
D 70
E 110

10. A particular natural history museum has three rooms where fossilized dinosaur
skeletons are displayed. Nine dinosaur skeletons have recently been donated to the
museum. If each room will have exactly one of these skeletons added to its exhibits, how
many ways are there to arrange the new skeletons?

11. A vase contains 16 tulips, of which 8 are red, 3 are purple, and 5 are white.

Quantity A
The probability of selecting two consecutive red tulips at random if the first tulip is not
replaced

Quantity B
The probability of selecting one purple

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 170 IUP Preparation

 12.
f(x) = x3 − x2 − 16x + 3

Quantity A Quantity B
f(−4) f(4)

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

13. A bag contains two 0.50-carat diamonds and two 0.75-carat diamonds and no others.
Three diamonds are drawn at random from the bag without replacement.

Quantity A
The probability of drawing one 0.50-carat and two 0.75- carat diamonds

Quantity B
The probability of drawing one 0.75-carat and two 0.50-carat diamonds

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

14.

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 171 IUP Preparation

 15. In the xy-plane, the equation of line k is x + 1 = 5y.

Quantity A Quantity B
The slope of line k The y-intercept of line k

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

16.
x>y>z
x and y are odd, and z is even.

Quantity A Quantity B
(−1)xy -z (−1)2xy - z

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

17.
List S = 11, 2, 4, 13, 1, 2, 10, 8, 3

Quantity A Quantity B
The median plus the mode of S The mean of S

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 172 IUP Preparation

 18.

Quantity A Quantity B
X 4
A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

19.
Quantity A
The sum of the coordinates of a point in the fourth quadrant of an xy-coordinate plane

Quantity B
The product of the coordinates of a point in the first quadrant of an xy-coordinate plane

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

20.
6 < 3x < 12
10 < 5y < 20

Quantity A Quantity B
x y
A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 173 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 15

1.
Quantity A
The number of edges on a cube

Quantity B
Twice the number of faces on a cube

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

2.
Quantity A
The length of the hypotenuse of a right triangle with legs of lengths 5 and 12

Quantity B
The length of a leg of a right triangle with a hypotenuse length of 17 and the other leg of
length 8

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

3.
Quantity A
The number of degrees in the largest angle of a triangle inscribed in a circle, in which the
diameter of the circle is one side of the triangle

Quantity B
The number of degrees in a right angle

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 174 IUP Preparation

 4.

Quantity A Quantity B
p+s r + 2q

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

5. 3(a + x) = x + 12 + 3a

Quantity A Quantity B
x 3

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

6. In a three-digit number x, the units digit squared is equal to the hundreds digit.

Quantity A Quantity B
The units digit of x 3

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

7.
Quantity A Quantity B
The number of days in 17 weeks The number of minutes in 2 hours

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.

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 D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

8. 2x + y = z

Quantity A
The value of z when x = −1 and y = 3

Quantity B
The value of z when x = −2 and y = 2

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

9.

Quantity A Quantity B
2x 10

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

10. f(x) = 3x + 4

Quantity A Quantity B
Slope of f(x) y-intercept of f(x)

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 176 IUP Preparation

 11. A film production company must submit 5 of its movies released this year for
consideration for an awards ceremony.

This year, the company released 14 movies; 8 of these were horror movies and 6 were
romantic comedies. If it submits at least 3 romantic comedies, how many groups of 5 movies
can be submitted?
A 276
B 432
C 560
D 681
E 686

12. Last year, a coffee roasting company purchased new roasting machines to bring their
total number of machines to 10.

These 10 machines can roast 210 lbs of coffee beans in 3 hours. Before purchasing the new
machines, the company could roast 84 lbs of beans in 2 hours. If all of the machines work at
the same constant rate, how many machines did the company buy last year?
………… machines

13. Given a positive integer p, how many integers are greater than 2p and less than 4p − 1?

A ,
B p
C p+1
D 2p − 2
E 3p − 3

14.

Indicate all possible choices.

A 1
B 3
C 5
D 10
E 12
F 15

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 177 IUP Preparation

 15.

In the figure above, the perimeter of square ABCD is 32 andthe area of ΔADE is 12. What is
the length of EC?

16. Both x and y are positive integers. If x2 + 2xy + y2 = 49 and x2 − y2 = −7, then y =
A2
B3
C4
D5
E 7

17. If 3 < x < 7 and 4 > y > −2, which of the following must be true?

Indicate all possible choices.

Ax−y>0
Bx+y>0
Cx>y
D 2y − x > 0
E 2x − y > 1

Questions 18–20 are based on the following graphs.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 178 IUP Preparation

 18. During the year when the combined percent downloads of Latin and Dance exceeded
Pop, what was the approximate combined number of Latin and Dance downloads?
A 0.5 million
B 2.5 million
C 8.5 million
D 10 million
E 12 million

19. By what percent did Pop downloads increase from 2008 to 2012?
A 43%
B 57%
C 75%
D 86%
E 133%

20. In 2016, which of the following genres had between 6 million and 11 million downloads,
inclusive?

Choose all that apply.

A Pop
B Country
C R&B/Hip-Hop
D Latin
E Dance
F Other

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 179 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 16

1.

Quantity A Quantity B
ac bd

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

2.
x>0
The probability that event A will occur is x, and the probability that event A will not occur is
y, where y > 3x.

Quantity A Quantity B
x 1/5

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

3. List A contains 7 consecutive multiples of 4 and nothing else. The average (arithmetic
mean) of the 3 greatest integers in list A is 80.

Quantity A Quantity B
The average (arithmetic 68
mean) of the 5 smallest
integers in list A

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 180 IUP Preparation

 A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

4.

Quantity A Quantity B
X 8

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

5. The random variable X has a normal distribution with a mean of 70.

Quantity A
The probability that −30 ≤ X ≤ 150

Quantity B
The probability that −60 ≤ X ≤ 120

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 181 IUP Preparation

 6.

Quantity A Quantity B
The remainder when x is The remainder when y is
divided by 42 divided by 2

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

7.

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 182 IUP Preparation

 a:b = 3:1 c:e = 7:9 a:d = 15:2 c:d = 10:3

8. If e = 60, what is the value of b?

A 20
B 35
C 70
D 180
E The value cannot be determined from the information given.

9. What is the area of the figure bounded by lines described by the following equations?

A6
B 12
C 17
D 35
E 56

10.

A −5
B −2
C2
D7
E 10
F 14

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 11. The length of a rectangular canvas is increased by x percent, and the width of the canvas
is decreased by x percent.

Quantity A Quantity B
The area of the new canvas if x The area of the new canvas if x
= 20 = 40
A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

12.

Quantity A Quantity B
r −3

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

13.

Quantity A
The number of miles driven at 50 miles per hour for 2 hours

Quantity B
The shortest distance between the starting point and the ending point of a trip if a vehicle is
driven 60 miles north and 80 miles east

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 184 IUP Preparation

 14. The area of equilateral triangle ABC is

Quantity A Quantity B
The perimeter of ∆ABC 32

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

15.
x<0<y

Quantity A Quantity B
−2(x + y) −xy

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

16.
f(x) = x2 – 10x + 21

Quantity A Quantity B
f(3) f(7)

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 185 IUP Preparation

 17.

AB is a diameter of the circle. ∠ABC = 20°

Quantity A Quantity B
The measure of ∠BAC 70°

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

18.
Five consecutive even integers have a sum of −20.

Quantity A Quantity B
The greatest of the five even integers 0

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

19.

Quantity A Quantity B
2−r t
A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 186 IUP Preparation

 C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

20. Data set S has x members, where x is an odd integer. The average (arithmetic mean) and
the median of the elements in S are both equal to 0.

Quantity A
The number of elements in S that are less than the median

Quantity B
The number of elements in S that are greater than the median.

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 187 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 17

1. The perimeter of isosceles ΔABC is 32, and the length of one side is 10. The height,

measured from the vertex where the two equal sides meet, is 8.

Quantity A Quantity B
The length of the longest sideof ΔABC 12

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

2.

Quantity A Quantity B

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

3. Cities A and B are 400 miles apart. Eugene can travel from A to B by plane at an
average speed of 300 miles per hour or by train at an average speed of 60 miles per hour.

Quantity A Quantity B
The number of minutes later Eugene could leave A 330
traveling by plane and arrive at B at the same time minutes
that he would have arrived if he had travelled by
train

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 188 IUP Preparation

 4. In 2015, Navid’s annual salary increased from $50,000 to $60,000. In 2017, his annual
salary increased from $60,000 to $70,800.

Quantity A Quantity B
The percent increase in The percent increase in
Navid’s salary in 2015 Navid’s salary in 2017

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

5.
In the above figure, and are parallel. m = 150 and n = 120.

Quantity A Quantity B
The length of AB The length of AC

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the
information given

6.
3y − z = 8 and the length of RT is 4.

Quantity A Quantity B
The length of segment RS 2.5

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 189 IUP Preparation

 A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

7. x+y<z
Quantity A Quantity B
2x – z -y

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

8.

8. The area of ΔABE = the area of rectangle BCDE

Quantity A Quantity B
The ratio of side BE to side DE 4:1

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 190 IUP Preparation

 9. The sides of triangle PQR touch or pass through the center points of each of the six
circles. Each of the circles has the same circumference of 8π. What is the perimeter of PQR
triangle ?
A 16
B 36
C 48
D 56
E 72

10. If , what is the value of x?

A −2
B 1
C 2
D 3
E 4

11. Sequence S is the sequence of numbers a1, a2, a3, ... , an. For each positive integer n,
the nth number an is defined by

What is the product of the first 53 numbers in sequence S?

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 191 IUP Preparation

 E

12. A group of 8 machines that work at the same constant rate can complete 14 jobs in 7
hours. How many hours would it take 17 of these machines to complete 34 of these jobs?
A 4
B 6
C 8
D 12
E 16

13. Let M = 10! and let N = M3. If a is the greatest integer value of x such that 2x is a factor
of N, and b is the greatest integer value of y such that 3y is a factor of N, then what is the
value of a + b?
A 18
B 24
C 33
D 36
E 54

14.
Circles P and Q each have a circumference of 10π and are each tangent to YZ. If XZ = 17,
then YZ =
A 10

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 192 IUP Preparation

 C

D 15
E 17

15. A furniture company has warehouses in two cities: Madison and York. The Madison
warehouse stocks desks, tables, and chairs in a ratio of 5:9:15. If all the desks and tables
are transferred from the Madison warehouse to the York warehouse, increasing that
warehouse’s inventory of items by 20 percent, which of the following could be the
number of items in the York warehouse after the transfer?
Indicate all such numbers.
A 168
B 280
C 290
D 336
E 504
F 600

16. The U.S. Weather Bureau has provided the following information about the total
annual number of reported tornadoes in the United States for the years 1956 to 1975:

The average number of tornadoes per reported year is 730, and the standard deviation of
the set is 168.

If one of the numbers in the data set is chosen at random, what is the probability that the
number is less than the median and is not within one standard deviation of the mean?
A 10%
B 15%
C 25%
D 30%
E 40%

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 193 IUP Preparation

 17. Liquid A is 32 percent iodine and the rest water. Liquid B is 17 percent iodine and the
rest water.

Quantity A Quantity B
The percentage of a 23 percent 38%
iodine mixture of liquid A and
liquid B that is liquid A

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

Questions 18–20 refer to the following graphs.

Source: U.S. Department of Agriculture, Economic Research Service, Table 2—U.S.

certified organic farmland acreage, livestock numbers, and farm operations, 1992–
2011 (based on information from USDA-accredited state and private organic
certifiers), http://www.ers.usda.gov/data-products/organic-production.aspx.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 194 IUP Preparation

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 195 IUP Preparation
 18. If U.S. certified organic farmland acreage increased 42 percent from 1997 to 2002,
and the ratio of certified pasture to cropland was the same in 1997 as in 2006, what was
the approximate percent increase in certified pasture between 1997 and 2008?
A 75%
B 155%
C 200%
D 260%
E 355%

19. In 2000, the ratio of U.S. certified organic sheep/lambs to certified organic turkeys

was 1 to 4. If that year before Thanksgiving, a national organic retailers’ association

randomly selected an animal out of all of the hogs/pigs and turkeys as a seasonal

mascot, what is the probability that a turkey was selected?

20. If all certified organic pasture in the United States was used by beef cows and sheep,
and if each sheep used four times as much pasture as each beef cow, then pproximately
how much did the acreage used by beef cows increase from 2000 to 2008?
A 475,000
B 1,200,000
C 1,550,000
D 2,100,000
E 2,500,000

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 196 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 18

1.

Quantity A Quantity B
X x2

2. Five sixth-grade classes are competing against one another in an effort to raise money
for a local charity. No class raised less than $60, and one class raised at least five times as
much money as all the other classes combined.

Quantity A Quantity B
The minimum average $240
(arithmetic mean) amount
raised by the five classes

Percent of
Rent sample
$900 15%

$1000 25%

$1250 10%

$1300 5%

$1500 25%

$1800 10%

$2400 10%

3. A real estate company conducted a survey to gather information about average rental
prices in a growing urban area. The data from the survey are listed in the table above.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 197 IUP Preparation

 Quantity A Quantity B
Median rent of this sample Average (arithmetic mean) rent of this sample

4.
4. Hexagon ABCDEF is a regular hexagon with a perimeter of 48. What is the volume of
the uniform prism shown?
A 96
B
C 1,104
D 1472 √3
E 2208 √3

5.

6. Top-Notch Landscaping must mow sixteen 0.75-acre lots and twelve 1.5-acre lots to
complete a certain job. Each of the company’s landscapers can mow at a rate of 20
minutes per 0.5 acre.

Quantity A Quantity B
The minimum number of 4
landscapers needed to
complete the job in 6 hours

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 198 IUP Preparation

 7.

8. The perimeters of rectangle Y and rectangle Z are equal. The lengths of the sides of
rectangle Y are x2 + 21 and 7x − 5. The lengths of the sides of rectangle Z are 41 and 5.
What is the area of rectangle Y ?
A 245
B 480
C 540
D 578
E 720

9. The average (arithmetic mean) of a, b, c, and d is 12. The average of b, c, d, and e is 17.
What is the value of 3(e − a) ?

A
B 48
C 54
D 58
E 60

10. The student population of a certain school increased a% from 1995 to 2005 and b%
from 2005 to 2015. If the student population increased by 80% from 1995 to 2015 and the
increase in the number of students in the second decade was three times the increase in
the number of students in the first decade, what is the value of b?
A 20

B
C 50
D 60
E 75

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 199 IUP Preparation

 11.

12.

What is the area of the figure above determined by points A, B, C, and D?

………………… square units

13. Which of the following is 40% less than 1.25 × 104?

A 7.5 × 102
B 5.0 × 103
C 7.5 × 103
D 1.0 × 104
E 1.75 × 104

14. Which of the following is divisible by an odd number of different positive integers?
Indicate all possible numbers.
A9
B 17
C 24
D 36

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 15.

What is the length of a line segment drawn from point B to a point on side AC such that
the line segment is perpendicular to side AC? ………………. Centimeters

16. If the average of three numbers is 5a − 2 and the average of two of the numbers is 4a
+2b + 1, which of the following is the other number in terms of a and b?
A a − 2b − 3
B 5a + 2b + 3
C 7a − 4b − 8
D 9a + 2b − 1
E 11a − 2b − 5

3𝑥 2 +2
17. Which points lie on the graph of 𝑦 =
x−1
Indicate all possible choices.
A (−5,−13)
B (−4,−10)
C (0,2)

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 201 IUP Preparation

 18. If 20,000 members of the national legal association were family law attorneys in
2015, how many members were criminal law attorneys?
A 6,500
B 12,000
C 22,400
D 40,000
E 60,000

19. In the same national legal association in 2016, criminal law attorneys still represented
18% of all lawyers, but there were 4,500 fewer criminal law attorneys in 2016 than there
were in 2015. If there were 28,000 corporate law members in 2015, how many total
members did the legal association have in 2016?
A 160,000
B 175,000
C 180,000
D 200,000
E 220,000

20. Assuming that the number of personal injury lawyers stays constant from 2015 to
2016, by approximately what percent would the number of intellectual property lawyers
have to increase from 2015 to 2016 to reach the number of personal injury lawyers?
A 3%
B 7%
C 10%
D 30%
E 43%

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 202 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 19

Remember the option for quantitative comparison ya !

A Quantity A is greater.
B Quantity B is greater.
C The two quantities are equal.
D The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

1.
Quantity A
The number of distinct ways to form an ordered line of 3 people by choosing from 6

Quantity B
The number of distinct ways to form an unordered group of 3 people by choosing from 10

2.

a° + b° = 2c° and e° = 2d°

Quantity A Quantity B
a° 2(b° − f°)

3.
7p + 3 = r
3p + 7 = s

Quantity A Quantity B
r s

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 4.
The original cost of a shirt is x dollars.

Quantity A Quantity B
x The cost of the shirt if the original cost is first
increased by 10% and then decreased by 10%

5. A customer service center had z inbound calls on hold. During the next minute, one-third
of those calls were answered but 15 new calls were placed on hold so that 35 callers were
then holding.
Quantity A Quantity B
z 33

6. There are n people in a room. One-third of them leave the room.

Four people enter the room. There are now of the original number of people in the room.

Quantity A Quantity B
n 20

7.

Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

Triangle RST is formed by the intersections of the line x = 12 − 2y with the two axes of the
coordinate plane.

Quantity A Quantity B
The measure of angle RST 30°

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 204 IUP Preparation

 8.
x is an integer.
1<x<9

Quantity A Quantity B

9. If and x + y = 15, which of the following is greater than y?

Indicate all possible choices.
A

10. The product of two integers is 10. Which of the following could be the average
(arithmetic mean) of the two numbers?
Indicate all possible choices.
A −5.5
B −3.5
C −1.5
D 1.5
E 3.5

11. The only items on a shelf are 8 green bins and 4 orange bins. If 3 bins are to be selected

from the shelf, one after the other, at random and without replacement, what is the

probability that at least one green bin is selected? Give your answer as a fraction.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 205 IUP Preparation

 12. A store calls the original price of an item the X-level price. The store reduces the X-level
price of an item by 30%, resulting in what the store calls the Y-level price of the item. The
store then reduces the Y-level price of the item by 20%, resulting in what the store calls the
Z-level price of the item. The Z-level price of the item is less than $49. Which of the
following statements must be true?

Indicate all such statements.

A The X-level price of the item is less than $86.00.
B When the Z-level price of the item is subtracted from the Y-level price of the item, the

result is less than $16.00.

C The Y-level price of the item is a percent greater than the Z-level price of the item, where

0 < a < 30.

13. The ratio of w to x is 5:4. The ratio of x to y is 8:1. If the ratio of y to z is 1:3, what is the
ratio of w + x to z ?
A 13:3
B 6:1
C 13:2
D 12:1
E 18:1

14.

A −20

B −5

C 2

D 5

E 7

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 206 IUP Preparation

 15.

is a diameter of circle O and is parallel to If the length of arc ABC is

22π and the length of minor arc CD is 11π, then what is the positive difference
between the degree measures of ∠OYZ and ∠YOZ?

16. In the sequence a1, a2, a3,…, an, …, each term after the first is equal to r times the

previous term, where a1 > 0 and r > 1. If a1 + a2 + a3 = 21 and a2 + a3 = 18, what is the value

of a3 + a4 + a5 ?

17. Blanca took a non-stop car trip that encompassed three different sections of roadways.

Each of the three sections covered the same distance. Blanca averaged 45 miles per hour

over the first section, 60 miles per hour over the second section, and 54 miles per hour for

the entire trip. What was her average speed for the third section to the nearest mile per

hour?

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 207 IUP Preparation

 Questions 18–20 refer to the following data.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 208 IUP Preparation

 18. Family A earns $60,000 and rents its residence, and this family is in the category of
housing cost as a percent of income that contains about 3.5 million renters.

Family B makes $85,000 and owns its residence with a mortgage, and this family is in
the category of housing cost as a percent of income that contains about 8 million
owners. Which of the following could be the difference between the amounts the two
families pay for housing?
Indicate all such values.
A$14,500
B $8,200
C $4,000
D $3,700
E $3,165
F $0

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 209 IUP Preparation

 19. A real estate investment firm is evaluating housing units built after 1939 and before

1980 for their suitability for profitable renovation and resale. Of the markets within the

United States shown, where are there the least such units, if 20 percent of all housing

built in the 1940s and 1950s and 60 percent of all housing built in the 1960s and 1970s is

not within the price range the firm is considering?

A Arizona
B Georgia
C Massachusetts
D Minnesota
E San Francisco

20. A national survey conducted in 2014 randomly selected participants who either rent

or have a mortgage and asked them: “Do you pay 30 percent or more of your income on

housing?” Participants who responded yes completed survey A. Those who responded

no completed survey B. Then a prize winner was drawn randomly from all survey

participants.

What is the approximate ratio of the probability that the prize winner completed

survey A and lived in a residence more than 75 years old at the time of the survey to

the probability that the prize winner completed survey B and lived in a residence

built in the previous 15 years? Assume that percent of income spent on housing is

proportionally distributed across residents of housing of varying ages.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 210 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 20

1. Which one of the following is not a prime number?

A. 31
B. 61
C. 71
D. 91

2. (112 x 54) = ?
A. 67000
B. 70000
C. 76500
D. 77200

3. It is being given that (232 + 1) is completely divisible by a whole number. Which of the
following numbers is completely divisible by this number?
A. (216 + 1)
B. (216 - 1)
C. (7 x 223)
D. (296 + 1)

4. What least number must be added to 1056, so that the sum is completely divisible by
23 ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 18
D. 21
E. None of these

5. 1397 x 1397 = ?
A. 1951609
B. 1981709
C. 18362619
D. 2031719

6. How many of the following numbers are divisible by 132 ?

264, 396, 462, 792, 968, 2178, 5184, 6336
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 211 IUP Preparation

 7. (935421 x 625) = ?
A. 575648125
B. 584638125
C. 584649125
D. 585628125

8. The largest 4 digit number exactly divisible by 88 is:

A. 9944
B. 9768
C. 9988
D. 8888
E. None of these

9. Which of the following is a prime number ?

A. 33
B. 81
C. 93
D. 97

10. What is the unit digit in {(6374)1793 x (625)317 x (341491)}?

A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5

11. 5358 x 51 = ?
A. 273258
B. 273268
C. 273348
D. 273358

12. The sum of first five prime numbers is:

A. 11
B. 18
C. 26
D. 28

13. The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing the larger number by the smaller,
we get 6 as quotient and the 15 as remainder. What is the smaller number ?
A. 240
B. 270
C. 295
D. 360

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 212 IUP Preparation

 14. (12)3 x 64 ÷ 432 = ?
A. 5184
B. 5060
C. 5148
D. 5084
E. None of these

15. 72519 x 9999 = ?

A. 725117481
B. 674217481
C. 685126481
D. 696217481
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 213 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 21

1. 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21 8. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64

A. 21 A. 50
B. 17 B. 26
C. 14 C. 37
D. 3 D. 64

2. 8, 27, 64, 100, 125, 216, 343 9. 10, 14, 16, 18, 21, 24, 26
A. 27 A. 26
B. 100 B. 24
C. 125 C. 21
D. 343 D. 18

3. 10, 25, 45, 54, 60, 75, 80 10. 16, 25, 36, 72, 144, 196, 225
A. 10 A. 36
B. 45 B. 72
C. 54 C. 196
D. 75 D. 225

4. 396, 462, 572, 427, 671, 264 11. 331, 482, 551, 263, 383, 362, 284
A. 396 A. 263
B. 427 B. 383
C. 671 C. 331
D. 264 D. 551

5. 6, 9 , 15, 21, 24, 28, 30 12. 835, 734, 642, 751, 853, 981, 532
A. 28 A. 751
B. 21 B. 853
C. 24 C. 981
D. 30 D. 532

6. 1, 4, 9, 16, 23, 25, 36 13. 41, 43, 47, 53, 61, 71, 73, 81
A. 9 A. 61 C. 73
B. 23 B. 71 D. 81
C. 25
D. 36 14. 3, 5, 7, 12, 17, 19
A. 19
7. 1, 4, 9, 16, 20, 36, 49 B. 17
A. 1 C. 20 C. 5
B. 9 D. 49 D. 12

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 214 IUP Preparation

 15. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years.
What is the age of the youngest child?
A. 4 years
B. 8 years
C. 10 years
D. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 215 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 22

1. A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3 : 2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity
and A's share is Rs. 855, the total profit is:
A. Rs. 1425
B. Rs. 1500
C. Rs. 1537.50
D. Rs. 1576

2. A, B and C jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was

agreed that A would invest Rs. 6500 for 6 months, B, Rs. 8400 for 5 months and C, Rs.
10,000 for 3 months. A wants to be the working member for which, he was to receive 5%
of the profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of B in the profit.
A. Rs. 1900
B. Rs. 2660
C. Rs. 2800
D. Rs. 2840

3. A, B and C enter into a partnership in the ratio : : . After 4 months, A increases

his share 50%. If the total profit at the end of one year be Rs. 21,600, then B's share in the
profit is:
A. Rs. 2100
B. Rs. 2400
C. Rs. 3600
D. Rs. 4000

4. A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B and B
Rs. 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A receives:
A. Rs. 8400
B. Rs. 11,900
C. Rs. 13,600
D. Rs. 14,700

5. Three partners shared the profit in a business in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. They had partnered
for 14 months, 8 months and 7 months respectively. What was the ratio of their
investments?
A. 5 : 7 : 8
B. 20 : 49 : 64
C. 38 : 28 : 21
D. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 216 IUP Preparation

 6. A starts business with Rs. 3500 and after 5 months, B joins with A as his partner.
After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B's contribution in the capital?
A. Rs. 7500
B. Rs. 8000
C. Rs. 8500
D. Rs. 9000

7. A and B entered into partnership with capitals in the ratio 4 : 5. After 3 months, A

withdrew of his capital and B withdrew of his capital. The gain at the end of 10
months was Rs. 760. A's share in this profit is:
A. Rs. 330
B. Rs. 360
C. Rs. 380
D. Rs. 430

8. A and B started a partnership business investing some amount in the ratio of 3 : 5. C

joined then after six months with an amount equal to that of B. In what proportion should
the profit at the end of one year be distributed among A, B and C?
A. 3 : 5 : 2
B. 3 : 5 : 5
C. 6 : 10 : 5
D. Data inadequate

9. A, B, C rent a pasture. A puts 10 oxen for 7 months, B puts 12 oxen for 5 months and
C puts 15 oxen for 3 months for grazing. If the rent of the pasture is Rs. 175, how much
must C pay as his share of rent?
A. Rs. 45
B. Rs. 50
C. Rs. 55
D. Rs. 60

10. A and B started a business in partnership investing Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 15,000
respectively. After six months, C joined them with Rs. 20,000. What will be B's share in
total profit of Rs. 25,000 earned at the end of 2 years from the starting of the business?
A. Rs. 7500
B. Rs. 9000
C. Rs. 9500
D. Rs. 10,000

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 217 IUP Preparation

 11. A began a business with Rs. 85,000. He was joined afterwards by B with Rs. 42,500.
For how much period does B join, if the profits at the end of the year are divided in the
ratio of 3 : 1?
A. 4 months
B. 5 months
C. 6 months
D. 8 months

12. Aman started a business investing Rs. 70,000. Rakhi joined him after six months with
an amount of Rs.. 1,05,000 and Sagar joined them with Rs. 1.4 lakhs after another six
months. The amount of profit earned should be distributed in what ratio among Aman,
Rakhi and Sagar respectively, 3 years after Aman started the business?
A. 7 : 6 : 10
B. 12 : 15 : 16
C. 42 : 45 : 56
D. Cannot be determined

13. Arun, Kamal and Vinay invested Rs. 8000, Rs. 4000 and Rs. 8000 respectively in a
business. Arun left after six months. If after eight months, there was a gain of Rs. 4005,
then what will be the share of Kamal?
A. Rs. 890
B. Rs. 1335
C. Rs. 1602
D. Rs. 1780
E. None of these

14. Simran started a software business by investing Rs. 50,000. After six months, Nanda
joined her with a capital of Rs. 80,000. After 3 years, they earned a profit of Rs. 24,500.
What was Simran's share in the profit?
A. Rs. 9,423
B. Rs. 10,250
C. Rs. 12,500
D. Rs. 10,500

15. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of
his son. The present age of his son is:
A. 14 years
B. 18 years
C. 20 years
D. 22 years

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 218 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 23

1. A batsman scored 110 runs which included 3 boundaries and 8 sixes. What percent of
his total score did he make by running between the wickets?
A. 45%
5
B. 45 11%
6
C. 54 11%
D. 55%

2. Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than
the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them
are:
A. 39, 30
B. 41, 32
C. 42, 33
D. 43, 34

3. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples.
Originally, he had:
A. 588 apples
B. 600 apples
C. 672 apples
D. 700 apples

4. What percentage of numbers from 1 to 70 have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit?

A. 1
B. 14
C. 20
D. 21

5. If A = x% of y and B = y% of x, then which of the following is true?

A. A is smaller than B.
B. A is greater than B
C. Relationship between A and B cannot be determined.
D. If x is smaller than y, then A is greater than B.
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 219 IUP Preparation

 6. If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is the same as:
A. 4% of a
B. 5% of a
C. 20% of a
D. None of these

7. In a certain school, 20% of students are below 8 years of age. The number of students

above 8 years of age is of the number of students of 8 years of age which is 48. What is
the total number of students in the school?
A. 72
B. 80
C. 120
D. 150
E. 100

8. Two numbers A and B are such that the sum of 5% of A and 4% of B is two-third of
the sum of 6% of A and 8% of B. Find the ratio of A : B.
A. 2 : 3
B. 1 : 1
C. 3 : 4
D. 4 : 3

3 5
9. A student multiplied a number by 5 instead of 3. What is the percentage error in the
calculation?
A. 34%
B. 44%
C. 54%
D. 64%

10. In an election between two candidates, one got 55% of the total valid votes, 20% of
the votes were invalid. If the total number of votes was 7500, the number of valid votes
that the other candidate got, was:
A. 2700
B. 2900
C. 3000
D. 3100

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 220 IUP Preparation

 11. Three candidates contested an election and received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes
respectively. What percentage of the total votes did the winning candidate get?
A. 57%
B. 60%
C. 65%
D. 90%

12. Two tailors X and Y are paid a total of Rs. 550 per week by their employer. If X is
paid 120 percent of the sum paid to Y, how much is Y paid per week?
A. Rs. 200
B. Rs. 250
C. Rs. 300
D. None of these

13. Gauri went to the stationers and bought things worth Rs. 25, out of which 30 paise
went on sales tax on taxable purchases. If the tax rate was 6%, then what was the cost of
the tax free items?
A. Rs. 15
B. Rs. 15.70
C. Rs. 19.70
D. Rs. 20

14. Rajeev buys good worth Rs. 6650. He gets a rebate of 6% on it. After getting the
rebate, he pays sales tax @ 10%. Find the amount he will have to pay for the goods.
A. Rs. 6876.10
B. Rs. 6999.20
C. Rs. 6654
D. Rs. 7000

15. The population of a town increased from 1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade. The
average percent increase of population per year is:
A. 4.37%
B. 5%
C. 6%
D. 8.75%

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 221 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 24

1. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a
committee so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be
done?
A. 564
B. 645
C. 735
D. 756
E. None of these

2. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'LEADING' be arranged in
such a way that the vowels always come together?
A. 360
B. 480
C. 720
D. 5040
E. None of these

3. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'CORPORATION' be
arranged so that the vowels always come together?
A. 810
B. 1440
C. 2880
D. 50400
E. 5760

4. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels
can be formed?
A. 210
B. 1050
C. 25200
D. 21400
E. None of these

5. In how many ways can the letters of the word 'LEADER' be arranged?
A. 72
B. 144
C. 360
D. 720
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 222 IUP Preparation

 6. In a group of 6 boys and 4 girls, four children are to be selected. In how many
different ways can they be selected such that at least one boy should be there?
A. 159
B. 194
C. 205
D. 209
E. None of these

7. How many 3-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9, which
are divisible by 5 and none of the digits is repeated?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

8. In how many ways a committee, consisting of 5 men and 6 women can be formed
from 8 men and 10 women?
A. 266
B. 5040
C. 11760
D. 86400
E. None of these

9. A box contains 2 white balls, 3 black balls and 4 red balls. In how many ways can 3
balls be drawn from the box, if at least one black ball is to be included in the draw?
A. 32
B. 48
C. 64
D. 96
E. None of these

10. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'DETAIL' be arranged in such
a way that the vowels occupy only the odd positions?
A. 32
B. 48
C. 36
D. 60
E. 120

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 223 IUP Preparation

 11. In how many ways can a group of 5 men and 2 women be made out of a total of 7
men and 3 women?
A. 63
B. 90
C. 126
D. 45
E. 135

12. How many 4-letter words with or without meaning, can be formed out of the letters
of the word, 'LOGARITHMS', if repetition of letters is not allowed?
A. 40
B. 400
C. 5040
D. 2520

13. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'MATHEMATICS' be
arranged so that the vowels always come together?
A. 10080
B. 4989600
C. 120960
D. None of these

14. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'OPTICAL' be arranged so
that the vowels always come together?
A. 120
B. 720
C. 4320
D. 2160
E. None of these

15. The age of father 10 years ago was thrice the age of his son. Ten years hence,
father's age will be twice that of his son. The ratio of their present ages is:
A. 120
B. 720
C. 4320
D. 2160
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 224 IUP Preparation

 QUANTITATIVE 25

1. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank from empty to full in 30 minutes, 20 minutes,
and 10 minutes respectively. When the tank is empty, all the three pipes are opened. A, B
and C discharge chemical solutions P,Q and R respectively. What is the proportion of the
solution R in the liquid in the tank after 3 minutes?
5
A. 11
6
B.
11
7
C. 11
8
D. 11

2. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 5 and 6 hours respectively. Pipe C can empty it in 12
hours. If all the three pipes are opened together, then the tank will be filled in:
13
A. 1 17 hours
8
B. 2 11 hours
9
C. 3 hours
17
1
D. 4 2 hours

3. A pump can fill a tank with water in 2 hours. Because of a leak, it took 2 hours to
fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water of the tank in:
1
A. 4 3 hours
B. 7 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 14 hours

4. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 37 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both
pipes are opened. The cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if the B is turned off after:
A. 5 min.
B. 9 min.
C. 10 min.
D. 15 min.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 225 IUP Preparation

 5. A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes operating
simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during which the tank is filled by the third
pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours
slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe is:
A. 6 hours
B. 10 hours
C. 15 hours
D. 30 hours

6. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can
empty 3 gallons per minute. All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15
minutes. The capacity of the tank is:
A. 60 gallons
B. 100 gallons
C. 120 gallons
D. 180 gallons

7. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B
and B is twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?
A. 20 hours
B. 25 hours
C. 35 hours
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

8. Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 4 hours. Had they been opened
separately, then B would have taken 6 hours more than A to fill the cistern. How much
time will be taken by A to fill the cistern separately?
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours

9. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both the pipes
are used together, then how long will it take to fill the tank?
A. 12 min
B. 15 min
C. 25 min
D. 50 min

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 226 IUP Preparation

 10. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. Both the
pipes are opened together but after 4 minutes, pipe A is turned off. What is the total time
required to fill the tank?
A. 10 min. 20 sec.
B. 11 min. 45 sec.
C. 12 min. 30 sec.
D. 14 min. 40 sec.

11. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes
can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in:
A. 81 min.
B. 108 min.
C. 144 min.
D. 192 min.

12. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes
respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is
used for half the time and A and B fill it together for the other half?
A. 15 min
B. 20 min
C. 27.5 min
D. 30 min

13. A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps
are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely?
A. 3 hrs 15 min
B. 3 hrs 45 min
C. 4 hrs
D. 4 hrs 15 min

14. Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If A is open
all the time and B and C are open for one hour each alternately, the tank will be full in:
A. 6 hours
2
B. 6 hours
3
C. 7 hours
1
D. 7 2 hours

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 227 IUP Preparation

 15. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 hours. After working at it together for 2
hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of
hours taken by C alone to fill the tank is:
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 228 IUP Preparation

 International Class

LOGICAL
REASONING
 LOGICAL 1

1. A farmer built a fence around his square plot. He used 27 fence poles on each side of the
square. How many poles did he need altogether?
A. 100
B. 101
C. 102
D. 104

2. A farmer built a fence around his square plot. He used 27 fence poles on each side of the
square. How many poles did he need altogether?
A. 100
B. 101
C. 102
D. 104

3. Between two book ends in your study are displayed your five favourite puzzle books. If you
decide to arrange the five books in every possible combination and moved juts one book every
minute, how long would it take you?
A. 4 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 1 hour

4. Ayush was born two years after his father’s marriage. His mother is five years younger
than his father but 20 years older than Ayush who is 10 years old. At what age did the father get
married?
A. 21 years
B. 23 years
C. 33 years
D. 37 years

5. A group of 1200 persons consisting of captains and soldiers is travelling in a train. For every
15 soldiers there is one captain. The number of captains in the group is
A. 70
B. 75
C. 80
D. 85

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 230 IUP Preparation

 6. A man has a certain number of small boxes to pack into parcels. If he packs 3, 4, 5 or 6 in a
parcel, he is left with one over; if he packs 7 in a parcel, none is left over. What is the number of
boxes, he may have to pack?
A. 300
B. 301
C. 303
D. 309

7. A student got twice as many sums wrong as he got right. If he attempted 48 sums in all, how
many did he solve correctly?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18

8. In a class, 20% of the members own only two cars each, 40% of the remaining own three cars
each and the remaining members own only one car each. Which of the following statements is
definitely true from the given statements?
A. 80% of the total members own at least one car.
B. 60% of the total members own atleast two cars each.
C. 48% of the total members own three car each.
D. Only 20% of the total members own three cars each.

9. Today is Varun's birthday. One year from today he will be twice as old as he was 12 years
ago. How old is Varun today?
A. 20 years
B. 21 years
C. 22 years
D. 25 years

10. When Rahul was born, his father was 32 years older than his brother and his mother was 25
years older than his sister. If Rahul's brother is 6 years older than him and his mother is 3 years
younger than his father, how old was Rahul's sister when he was born?
A. 10 years
B. 14 years
C. 17 years
D. 19 years

11. Find the number which when added to itself 13 times, gives 112.
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 231 IUP Preparation

 12. The total number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book having 366 pages is
A. 730
B. 792
C. 990
D. 1098

13. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What is the total of their ages
of three years ago?
A. 70 years
B. 71 years
C. 74 years
D. 77 years

14. The age of a father is twice that of the elder son. Ten years hence the age of the father will be
three times that of the younger son. If the difference of ages of the two sons is 15 years, the age of
the father is
A. 70 years
B. 60 years
C. 55 years
D. 50 years

15. A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half of the number of men. In
city Y, 10 men leave the bus and five women enter. Now, number of men and women is equal. In
the beginning, how many passengers entered the bus?
A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60

16. The number of boys in a class is three times the number of girls. Which one of the following
numbers cannot represent the total number of children in the class?
A. 40
B. 42
C. 44
D. 48

17. Five bells begin to toll together and too respectively at intervals of 6, 5, 7, 10 and 12 seconds.
How many times will they toll together in one hour excluding the one at the start?
A. 6 times
B. 7 times
C. 8 times
D. 11 times

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 232 IUP Preparation

 18. Reena is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, she was three times as old as Sunita. How
old is Reena now?
A. 7 years
B. 9 years
C. 12 years
D. 15 years

19. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for
every wrong answer. If he attempts in all 60 questions and secures 130 marks, the number of
questions he attempts correctly, is
A. 32
B. 35
C. 38
D. 42

20. In a garden, there are 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. The distance between the two
trees is 2 metres and a distance of one metre is left from all sides of the boundary of the two
garden. The length of the garden is
A. 20 m
B. 21 m
C. 22 m
D. 24 m

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 233 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 2

1. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

2. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 25
B. 27
C. 32
D. 37

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 234 IUP Preparation

 3. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 15
B. 16
C. 17
D. 19

4. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 235 IUP Preparation

 5. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11

6. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 535
B. 577
C. 755
D. 775

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 236 IUP Preparation

 7. Find the missing character in each of the following questions.

A. 64
B. 81
C. 100
D. 121

8. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 21

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 237 IUP Preparation

 9. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 10C
B. 12C
C. 14B
D. 16C

10. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. WJK
B. KWT
C. WKJ
D. JKW

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 238 IUP Preparation

 11. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 16
B. 73
C. 76
D. 94

12. Find the missing character in each of the following questions.

A. 201
B. 731
C. 1625
D. 2031

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 239 IUP Preparation

 13. Find the missing character in each of the following questions.

A. 66
B. 68
C. 70
D. 72

14. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 11
B. 22
C. 33
D. 44

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 240 IUP Preparation

 15. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 11
B. 13
C. 15
D. 16

16. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 18
B. 24
C. 36
D. 58

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 241 IUP Preparation

 17. Find the missing character in each of the following questions.

A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13

18. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 242 IUP Preparation

 19. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16

20. In each of the following questions, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters
follow a certain trend, row wise or column wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing
character accordingly.

A. 4
B. 6
C. 36
D. 42

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 243 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 3

1. In a row of girls, Sita and Monika occupy the ninth place from the right end and tenth place
from the left end, respectively. If they interchange their places, Sita and Monika occupy
seventeenth place from the right and eighteenth place from the left, respectively. How many girls
are there in the row?
A. 24
B. 25
C. 26
D. 27

2. Rohan and Suresh are ranked seventh and eleventh respectively from the top in a class of 31
students. What will be their respective ranks from the bottom in the class?
A. 20th and 24th
B. 24th and 20th
C. 26th and 22nd
D. 25th and 21st

3. Sankar ranks seventh from the top and twenty eighth from the bottom in a class. How many
students are there in the class?
A. 34
B. 35
C. 36
D. 37

4. In a row of girls, Shamala is eighth from the left, and Meena is seventeenth from the right. If
they interchange their positions, Shamala becomes fourteenth from the left. How many girls are
there in the row?
A. 25
B. 27
C. 30
D. 32

5. Sahul ranked ninth from the top and thirty eighth from the bottom in a class. How many
students are there in the class?
A. 40
B. 45
C. 46
D. 48

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 244 IUP Preparation

 6. In a queue, Ajith is fourteenth from the front and Jill is seventeenth from the end, while Rani
is in between Ajith and Jill. If Ajith be ahead of Jill and there be 48 persons in the queue, how
many persons are there between Ajith and Rani?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

7. Sugana ranks twelfth in a class of forty six. What will be her rank from the last
A. 33
B. 35
C. 36
D. 37

8. In a queue, Amrita is 10th from the front while Shakul is 25th from behind and Mamta is just in
the middle of the two. If there be 50 persons in the queue, what position does Mamta occupy from
the front?
A. 17th
B. 18th
C. 19th
D. 20th

9. In a row of boys, Karthick is seventh from the left and Suganya is twelfth from the right. If
they interchange their positions, Karthick becomes twenty second from the left. How many boys
are there in the row?
A. 19
B. 29
C. 31
D. 33

10. Some boys are sitting in a row. P is sitting fourteenth from the left and Q is seventh from the
right. If there are four boys between P and Q, how many boys are there in the row?
A. 19
B. 21
C. 23
D. 25

11. Siva ranks sixteenth from the top and forty ninth from the bottom in a class. How many
students are there in the class?
A. 60
B. 64
C. 66
D. 69

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 245 IUP Preparation

 12. In a row of ten boys, when Mohit was shifted by two places towards the left, he became
seventh from the left end. What was his earlier position from the right end of the row?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth

13. Samiksha ranked sixteenth from the top and twenty ninth from the bottom among those who
passed an examination. Six boys did not participate in the competition and five failed in it. How
many boys were there in the class?
A. 40
B. 44
C. 55
D. 56

14. In a row of boys, Kapil is eighth from the right and Nikunj is twelfth from the left. When
Kapil and Nikunj interchange positions, Nikunj becomes twenty first from the left. Which of the
following will be Kapil's position from the right?
A. 8th
B. 16th
C. 17th
D. 21th

15. In a row of trees, one tree is fifth from either end of the row. How many trees are there in the
row?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 11

16. Aruna cut a cake into two halves and cuts one half into smaller pieces of equal size. Each of
the small pieces is twenty grams in weight. If she has seven pieces of the cake in all with her, how
heavy was the original cake?
A. 120 grams
B. 240 grams
C. 280 grams
D. 320 grams

17. A motorist knows four different routes from Bristol and Birmingham. Fro, Birmingham to
Sheffield he knows three different routes and from Sheffield to Carlisle he knows two different
routes. How many routes does he know from Bristol to Carlisle?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 246 IUP Preparation

 18. I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep 2, 3 or 4 in a pack, I am left with one sweet. If I
keep 5 in a pack, I am left with none. What is the minimum number of sweets I have to pack and
distribute?
A. 22
B. 25
C. 37
D. 54

19. The 30 members of a club decided to play a badminton singles tournament. Every time a
member loses a game he is out of the tournament. There are no ties. What is the minimum number
of matches that must be played to determine the winner?
A. 25
B. 27
C. 29
D. 61

20. Five children take part in a tournament. Each one has to play every other one. How many
games must they play?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12

21. 12 years old Manick is three times as old as his brother Rahul. How old will Manick be when
he is twice as old as Rahul?
A. 12 years
B. 14 years
C. 16 years
D. 18 years

22. At the end of a business conference the ten people present all shake hands with each other
once. How many handshakes will there be altogether?
A. 25
B. 35
C. 45
D. 55

23. A placed three sheets with two carbons to get two extra copies of the original. Then he
decided to get more carbon copies and folded the paper in such a way that the upper half of the
sheets were on top of the lower half. Then he typed. How many carbon copies did he get?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 247 IUP Preparation

 24. A monkey climbs 30 feet at the beginning of each hour and rests for a while when he slips
back 20 feet before he again starts climbing in the beginning of the next hour. If he begins his
ascent at 8.00 a.m. what time will he first touch a flag at 120 feet from the ground?
A. 3 p.m.
B. 4 p.m.
C. 5 p.m.
D. 6 p.m.

25. What is the product of all the numbers in the dial of a telephone?
A. 1,58,480
B. 1,59,450
C. 1,59,480
D. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 248 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 4

1. If A stands for +, B stands for -, C stands for x, then what is the value of (10 C 4) A (4 C 4) B 6 ?
A. 46
B. 50
C. 55
D. 60

2. If P denotes ÷, Q denotes x, R denotes + and S denotes -, then what is the value of 18 Q 12 p 4

R5S6?
A. 53
B. 59
C. 63
D. 65

3. If + stands for x, - for ÷, x for – and ÷ for +, find the value of 26 + 74 – 4 × 5 ÷ 2.

A. 220
B. 376
C. 478
D. 488

4. If x means -, + means ÷, - means x and ÷ means +, then 15 – 2 ÷ 900 + 90 × 100 = ?

A. - 60
B. 50
C. 90
D. 100

5. If + means ÷, ÷ means -, - means x, x means +, then 12 + 6 ÷ 3 - 2 × 8 = ?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

6. If ‘when’ means ‘x’, ‘you’ means ‘÷’, ‘come’ means ‘-’ and ‘will’ means ‘+’, then what will be
the value of “8 when 12 will 16 you 2 come 10”?
A. 70
B. 80
C. 94
D. 97

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 249 IUP Preparation

 7. If P means x, R means +, T means ÷ and S means -, then 18 T 3 P 9 S 8 R 6 = ?
A. 46
B. 52
C. 56
D. 64

8. If ‘+’ means ‘minus’, ‘x’ means ‘divided by’, ‘÷’ means ‘plus’ and ‘-’, means ‘multiplied by’,
then which of the following will be the value of the expression 252 × 9 - 5 + 32 ÷ 92?
A. 95
B. 168
C. 192
D. 200

9. If + means x, x means -, ÷ means + and - means ÷, then which of the following gives the result
of 175 - 25 ÷ 5 + 20 × 3 + 10?
A. 77
B. 160
C. 240
D. 2370

10. If ‘+’ means ‘divide by’, ‘-’ means ‘added to’, ‘x’ means ‘subtracted from’ and ‘÷’ means
‘multiplied by’, then what is the value of 24 ÷ 12 - 18 + 9?
A. 90
B. 190
C. 290
D. 390

11. In an imaginary language, the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 are substituted by a, b, c, d, e,

f, g, h, I and j. And 10 is written as ba.
If ‘+’ stands for ‘division’, ‘÷’ stands for ‘multiplication’, ‘x’ stands for ‘subtraction’ and ‘-’ stands
for ‘addition’, which one of the following is correct?
A. 18 ÷ 6 × 7 + 5 - 2 = 22
B. 18 × 6 + 7 ÷ 5 - 2 = 16
C. 18 ÷ 6 - 7 + 5 × 2 = 20
D. 18 + 6 ÷ 7 × 5 - 2 = 18

12. If L denotes ÷, M denotes x, P denotes + and Q denotes - , then which of the following
statements is true?

A. 32 P 8 L 16 Q 4 = −

B. 6 M 18 Q 26 L 13 P 7 =

C. 11 M 34 L 17 Q 8 L 3 =
D. 9 P P L 9 Q 9 M 9 = - 71.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 250 IUP Preparation

 13. (cd + ef) × bc is equal to
A. 684
B. 816
C. 916
D. 1564

14. If L stands for +, M stands for -, N stands for x, P stands for +, then 14 N 10 L 42 P 2 M 8 = ?
A. 153
B. 216
C. 248
D. 251

15. If - means ÷, + means x, ÷ means -, x means +, then which of the following equations is
correct?
A. 52 ÷ 4 + 5 × 8 - 2 = 36
B. 43 × 7 ÷ 5 + 4 - 8 = 25
C. 36 × 4 - 12 + 5 ÷ 3 = 420
D. 36 - 12 × 6 ÷ 3 + 4 = 60

16. In an imaginary language, the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9 are substituted by a, b, c, d, e,

f, g, h, I and j. And 10 is written as ba.
If P denotes +, Q denotes -, R denotes x and S denotes ÷, which of the following statements is
correct?
A. 36 R 4 S 8 Q 7 P 4 = 10
B. 16 R 12 P 49 S 7 Q 9 = 200
C. 32 S 8 R 9 = 160 Q 12 R 12
D. 8 R 8 P S 8 Q 8 = 57

17. baf ÷ bf × d is equal to

A. df
B. cb
C. be
D. d

18. If ‘-’ stands for ‘division’, ‘+’ for ‘multiplication’, ‘÷’ for ‘subtraction’ and ‘x’ for ‘addition’ then
when one of the following equations is correct?
A. 4 × 5 + 9 - 3 ÷ 4 = 15
B. 4 × 5 × 9 + 3 ÷ 4 = 11
C. 4 - 5 ÷ 9 × 3 - 4 = 17
D. 4 ÷ 5 + 9 - 3 + 4 = 18

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 251 IUP Preparation

 19. dc × f - (bf - d) × d is equal to
A. abb
B. abe
C. bce
D. bcf

20. bee + fg - (ca × h/be) is equal to

A. bhc
B. bic
C. bib
D. bja

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 252 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 5

1. The priest told the devotee. The temple bell is rung at regular intervals of 45 minutes. The last
bell was rung five minutes ago. The next bell is due to be rung at 7.45 a.m. At what time did the
priest give this information to the devotee?
A. 6.55 a.m.
B. 7.00 a.m.
C. 7.05 a.m.
D. 7.40 a.m.

2. There are twenty people working in an office. The first group of five works between 8.00
A.M. and 2.00 P.M. The second group of ten works between 10.00 A.M. and 4.00 P.M. And the
third group of five works between 12 noon and 6.00 P.M. There are three computers in the office
which all the employees frequently use. During which of the following hours the computers are
likely to be used most?
A. 10.00 A.M. -12 noon
B. 1.00 P.M. - 3.00 P.M.
C. 2.00 P.M. - 4.00 P.M.
D. 12 noon - 2.00 P.M.

3. A bus for Delhi leaves every thirty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a
passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 9.35 a.m. At
what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger?
A. 8.55 a.m.
B. 9.05 a.m.
C. 9.15 a.m.
D. 9.20 p.m.

4. Reaching the place of meeting on Tuesday 15 minutes before 08.30 hours. Anuj found himself
half an hour earlier than the man who was 40 minutes late. What was the scheduled time of the
meeting?
A. 8.00 hrs
B. 8.05 hrs
C. 8.15 hrs
D. 8.45 hrs

5. A monkey climbs 30 feet at the beginning of each hour and rests for a while when he slips
back 20 feet before he again starts climbing in the beginning of the next hour. If he begins his
ascent at 8.00 a.m., at what time will he first touch a flag at 120 feet from the ground?
A. 4 p.m.
B. 5 p.m.
C. 6 p.m.
D. 7 p.m.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 253 IUP Preparation

 6. Ashish leaves his house at 20 minutes to seven in the morning, reaches Kunal’s house in 25
minutes, they finish their breakfast in another 15 minutes and leave for their office which takes
another 35 minutes. At what time do they leave Kunal’s house to reach their office?
A. 7.20 a.m.
B. 7.40 a.m.
C. 7.55 a.m.
D. 8.15 a.m.

7. Ajay left home for the bus stop 15 minutes earlier than usual. It takes 10 minutes to reach the
stop. He reached the stop at 8.40 a.m. What time does he usually leave home for the bus stop?
A. 8.30. a.m.
B. 8.35. a.m.
C. 8.55 a.m.
D. None of these

8. If it was Saturday on 17th December, 1982 what will be day on 22nd December 1984?
A. Sunday
B. Monday
C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday

9. If the seventh day of a month is three days earlier than Friday. What day will it be on the
nineteenth day of the month?
A. Monday
B. Wednesday
C. Friday
D. Sunday

10. Standing on a platform, Amit told Sunita that Aligarh was more than ten kilometres but less
than fifteen kilometres from there. Sunita knew that it was more than twelve but less then fourteen
kilometres from there. If both of them were correct, which of the following could be distance of
Aligarh from the platform?
A. 11 km
B. 12 km
C. 13 km
D. 14 km

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 254 IUP Preparation

 11. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a week day. Next day he
forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day
evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and
disposed off the matter on the same day i.e., Friday. Which day was the application received by
the inward clerk?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Wednesday
D. Earlier week’s Saturday

12. Kailash remembers that his brother Deepak’s birthday falls after 20th May but before
28th May, while Geeta remembers that Deepak’s birthday falls before 22nd May but after
12th May. On what date Deepak’s birthday falls?
A. 20th May
B. 21st May
C. 22nd May
D. 24th May

13. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be
cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect
of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without
having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer as
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The government has decided to make all the information related to primary education available
to the general public.

II. In the past, the general public did not have access to all these information related to primary
education.

A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.

B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

14. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The Government has imported large quantities of sugar as per trade agreement with other
countries.
II. The prices of sugar in the domestic market have fallen sharply in the recent months.

A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.

B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 255 IUP Preparation

 15. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. Large number of people living in the low lying areas have been evacuated during the last few
years to safer places.

II. The Government has rushed in relief supplies to the people living in the affected areas.

A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.

B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

16. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. All the schools in the area had to be kept closed for most part of the week.

II. Many parents have withdrawn their children from the local schools.

A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.

B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

17. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. There is unprecedented increase in the number of young employed in comparison to the
previous year.

II. A large amount of candidates submitted application against an advertisement for the post of
manager issued by a bank.

A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.

B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 256 IUP Preparation

 18. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The Reserve Bank of India has recently put restrictions on few small banks in the country

II. The small banks in the private and cooperative sector in India are not in a position to withstand
the competitions of the bigger in the public sector.

A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.

B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

19. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The life today is too fast, demanding and full of variety in all aspects which at times leads to
stressful situations.

II. Number of suicide cases among teenagers is on increase.

A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.

B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

20. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. There is increase in water level of all the water tanks supplying drinking water to the city during
the last fortnight.

II. Most of the trains were cancelled last week due to water-logging on the tracks.

A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.

B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 257 IUP Preparation

 21. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. There is considerable reduction in the number of people affected by water borne diseases in City
A during the rainy season.

II. The government has opened four new civil hospitals in City A in the beginning of the year.

A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.

B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

22. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. Police resorted to lathi charge to disperse the unlawful gathering of large number of people.

II. The citizen's forum called a general strike in protest against the police atrocities.

A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.

B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 258 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 6

1. Five girls are sitting in a row. Rashi is not adjacent to Sulekha or Abha. Anuradha is not
adjacent to Sulekha. Rashi is adjacent to Monika. Monika is at the middle in the row. Then,
Anuradha is adjacent to whom out of the following?
A. Abha
B. Monika
C. Sulekha
D. Rashi

2. There are five different houses, A to E in a row. A is to the right of B and E is to the left of C
and right of A. B is to the right of D. Which of the houses is in the middle?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

3. Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Shikha is to the left of Reena. Manju is to
the right of Reena. Rita is between Reena and Manju. Who would be second from the left in the
photograph?
A. Reena
B. Manju
C. Rita
D. Shikha

4. Five children are sitting in a row. S is sitting next to P but not T. K is sitting next to R who is
sitting on the extreme left and T is not sitting next to K. Who are sitting adjacent to S?
A. P and T
B. R and P
C. K and P
D. Only P

5. In a March Past, seven persons are standing in a row. Q is standing left to R but right to P. O
is standing right to N and left to P. Similarly, S is standing right to R and left to T. Find out who is
standing in the middle.
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 259 IUP Preparation

 6. Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow :
i. Eleven students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sitting in the first row of the class facing the
teacher.
ii. D who is to the immediate left of F is second to the right of C.
iii. A is second to the right of E, who is at one of the ends.
iv. J is the immediate left of D and third to the right of I.
v. H is to the immediate left of D and third to the right of I.

Which of the following statements is true in the context of the above sitting arrangements?
A. K is between A and J.
B. There are three students sitting between D and G.
C. B is sitting between J and I.
D. G and C are neighbours sitting to the immediate right of H.

7. Which of the following groups of friends is sitting to the right of G?

A. CHDF
B. CHDF
C. ICHDF
D. IBJA

8. Who is sitting in the middle of the row?

A. B
B. C
C. G
D. I

9. If E and D, C and B, A and H and K and F interchange their positions, which of the following
pairs of students is sitting at the ends?
A. D and K
B. K and F
C. E and F
D. D and E

10. In the above sitting arrangement, which of the following statements is superfluous?
A. (i)
B. (ii)
C. (iii)
D. None is superfluous

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 260 IUP Preparation

 11. The following questions are based on the information given below:
(i). Seven books are placed one above the other in a particular way.
(ii). History book is placed exactly above Civics book.
(iii). Geography book is fourth from the bottom and English book is fifth from the top.
(iv). There are two books in between Civics and Economics books.

Out of the following, which three books are kept above English book ? To answer this question,
which of the other informations, if any, is required?
A. The Science book is placed at the top.
B. The Geography book is above English book.
C. The Economics book is between English and Science books.
D. No other information is required.

12. In a pile of 10 books, there are 3 of History, 2 of Mathematics and 2 of English. Taking from
above, there is an English book between a History and Mathematics book, a History book between
a Mathematics and an English book, a Hindi book between an English and a Mathematics book, a
Mathematics book between two Hindi books and two Hindi books between a Mathematics and a
History book.

Book of which subject is at the sixth position from the top?

A. Mathematics
B. History
C. English
D. Hindi

13. How many books are there between Civics and Science books? To answer this question,
which other extra information is required, if any, from the following?
A. The Civics book is before two books above Economics book.
B. There is one book between English and Science books.
C. There are two books between Mathematics and Geography books.
D. There are two books between Geography and Science books.

14. How many books are there between Civics and Science books? To answer this question,
which other extra information is required, if any, from the following?
A. The Civics book is before two books above Economics book.
B. There is one book between English and Science books.
C. There are two books between Mathematics and Geography books.
D. There are two books between Geography and Science books.

15. How many books are there between Civics and Science books? To answer this question,
which other extra information is required, if any, from the following?
A. The Civics book is before two books above Economics book.
B. There is one book between English and Science books.
C. There are two books between Mathematics and Geography books.
D. There are two books between Geography and Science books.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 261 IUP Preparation

 16. Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
i. There are seven books one each on Psychology, Hindi, English, Sociology, Economics, Education
and Accountancy, lying on a table one above the other.
ii. Sociology is on the top of all the books.
iii. Accountancy is immediately below Education which is immediately below Sociology.
iv. Economics is immediately above Psychology but not in the middle.
v. Hindi is immediately below Psychology.

Economics is between which of the following books?

A. Accountancy and Education
B. Psychology and Sociology
C. Psychology and Hindi
D. English and Psychology

17. Which three books are between Accountancy and Hindi?

A. Economics, Psychology and Hindi
B. Economics, Psychology and Education
C. English, Economics and Psychology
D. Cannot be determined

18. If Sociology and English, Accountancy and Hindi and Education and Psychology interchange
their positions, which book will be between Psychology and Sociology?
A. Economics
B. Hindi
C. Psychology
D. Accountancy

19. In a shop, the items were arranged in a shelf consisting of six rows. Biscuits are arranged
above the tins of chocolates but below the rows of packets of chips, cakes are at the bottom and the
bottles of peppermints are below the chocolates. The topmost row had the display of jam bottles.
Where exactly are the bottles of peppermints? Mention the place from the top.
A. 2nd
B. 3rd
C. 4th
D. 5th

20. In a pile of reading material, there are novels, story books, dramas and comics. Every novel
has a drama next to it, every story book has a comic next to it and there is no story book next to a
novel. If there be a novel at the top and the number of books be 40, the order of the books in the
pile is
A. nscd
B. ndsc
C. csdn
D. dncs

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 262 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 7

1. In this type of questions, a statement is given followed by two courses of action

numbered I and II. The candidate is required to grasp the statement, analyse the problem
or policy it mentions and then decide which of the courses of action logically follows.
Statement :
Youngsters are often found starting at obscene posters.
Courses of action :
I. Children should be punished and penalized if they are doing so.
II. Any display of such material be banned.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

2. Statement :
Orissa and Andhra Pradesh have agreed in principle to set up a joint control board for
better control, management and productivity of several inter state multipurpose projects.
Courses of action :
I. Other neighbouring states should set up such control boards.
II. The proposed control board should not be allowed to function as such joint boards are
always ineffective.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

3. Statement :
The cinema halls are incurring heavy losses these days as people prefer to watch movies
in home on TV than to visit cinema halls.
Courses of action :
I. The cinema halls should be demolished and residential multi storey buildings should
be constructed there.
II. The cinema halls should be converted into the shopping malls.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 263 IUP Preparation

 4. Statement :
A large number of employees have gone on a mass casual leave in protest against the
company new recruitment policy.
Courses of action :
The company should immediately withdraw the new recruitment policy.
II. All these employees should immediately be suspended from their service.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

5. Statement :
Exporters in the capital are alleging that commercial banks are violating a Reserve Bank
of India directive to operate a post shipment export credit denominated in foreign
currency at international rates from January this year.
Courses of action :
I. The officers concerned in the commercial banks are to be suspended.
II. The RBI should be asked to stop giving such directives to commercial banks.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

6. Statement :
Every year, at the beginning or at the end of the monsoons, we have some cases of
conjunctivitis, but this year, it seems to be a major epidemic, witnessed after nearly four
years.
Courses of action :
I. Precautionary measures should be taken after every four years to check this epidemic.
II. People should be advised to drink boiled water during rainy season.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 264 IUP Preparation

 7. Statement :
There has been large number of cases of internet hacking in the recent months creating
panic among the internet users.
Courses of action :
I. The government machinery should make an all out effort to nab those who are
responsible and put them behind bars.
II. The internet users should be advised to stay away from using internet till the culprits
are caught.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

8. Statement :
It is reported that though Vitamin E present in fresh fruits and vegetables is beneficial for
human body, capsuled Vitamin E does not have the same effect on human body.
Courses of action :
I. The sale of capsuled Vitamin E should be banned.
II. People should be encouraged to take fresh fruits and vegetables to meet the body’s
requirement of Vitamin E.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

9. Statement :
As stated in the recent census report the female to male ratio is alarmingly low.
Courses of action :
I. The government should conduct another census to verify the results.
II. The government should immediately issue orders to all the departments to encourage
people to improve the ratio.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 265 IUP Preparation

 10. Statement :
A large cache of live ammunition has been found in the scrap yard of a local steel factory.
Courses of action :
I. The steel factory should immediately be closed down till all these ammunitions are
located and shifted to safe places.
II. The Government should immediately set up an enquiry to unearth the details and take
corrective measures to avoid such incidence in future.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

11. In this type of questions, a statement is given followed by two courses of action
numbered I and II. The candidate is required to grasp the statement, analyse the problem
or policy it mentions and then decide which of the courses of action logically follows.
Statement :
The vegetable traders feel that the prices of onion will again go up shortly in the State.
Arguments :
I. The State Government should purchase and store sufficient quantity of onion in
advance to control prices.
II. The State Government should make available network of fair price shops for the sale of
onions during the period of shortage.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

12. Statement :
Majority of the students have failed in one paper in the first semester examination.
Arguments :
I. All those students who failed should be asked to drop out of the course.
II. The faculty teaching the paper should be asked to resign.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 266 IUP Preparation

 13. Statement :
The Minister said that the teachers are still not familiarised with the need, importance
and meaning of population education in the higher education system. They are not even
clearly aware about their role and responsibilities in the population education
programme.
Arguments :
I. Population education programme should be included in the college curriculum.
II. Orientation programme should be conducted for teachers on population education.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

14. Statement :
The Finance Minister submits his resignation a month before the new budget is to be
presented in the Parliament.
Arguments :
I. The resignation should be accepted and another person should be appointed as the
Finance Minister.
II. The resignation should not be accepted.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

15. Statement :
Doordarshan is concerned about the quality of its programmes particularly in view of
stiff competition it is facing from STAR and other satellite TV channels and is
contemplating various measures to attract talent for its programme.
Arguments :
I. In an effort to attract talent, the Doordarshan has decided to revise its fee structure for
the artists.
II. The fee structure should not be revised until other electronic media also revise it.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 267 IUP Preparation

 16. Statement :
Inspite of the Principal repeated warnings, a child was caught exploding crackers secretly
in the school.
Arguments :
I. All the crackers should be taken away from the child and he should be threatened not
to do it again.
II. The child should be severely punished for his wrong act.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

17. Statement :
One of the problems facing the food processing industry is the irregularly supply of raw
material. The producers of raw material are not getting a reasonable price.
Arguments :
I. The government should regulate the supply of raw material to other industries also.
II. The government should announce an attractive package to ensure regular supply of
raw material for food processing industry.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

18. Statement :
There has been a significant drop in the water level of all the lakes supplying water to the
city.
Arguments :
I. The water supply authority should impose a partial cut in supply to tackle the
situation.
II. The government should appeal to all the residents through mass media for minimal
use of water.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 268 IUP Preparation

 19. Statement :
There has been an unprecedented increase in the number of successful candidates in this
year School Leaving Certificate Examination.
Arguments :
I. The government should make arrangements to increase number of seats of
intermediate courses in existing colleges.
II. The government should take active steps to open new colleges to accommodate all
these successful candidates.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

20. Statement :
Most of those who study in premier engineering colleges in India migrate to developed
nations for better prospects in their professional pursuits.
Arguments :
I. All the students joining these colleges should be asked to sign a bond at the time of
admission to the effect that they will remain in India at least for ten years after they
complete education.
II. All those students who desire to settle in the developed nations should be asked to pay
entire cost of their education which the government subsidises.
A. if only I follows
B. if only II follows
C. if either I or II follows
D. if neither I nor II follows
E. if both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 269 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 8

1. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
1. Statements :
No bat is ball. No ball is wicket.
Conclusions :
I. No bat is wicket.
II. All wickets are bats.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

2. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
All mangoes are golden in colour. No golden coloured things are cheap.
Conclusions :
I. All mangoes are cheap.
II. Golden coloured mangoes are not cheap.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

3. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
All poles are guns. Some boats are not poles.
Conclusions :
I. All guns are boats.
II. Some boats are not guns.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 270 IUP Preparation

 E. if both conclusions I and II follow

4. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
No man is a donkey. Rajesh is a man.
Conclusions :
I. Rajesh is not a donkey.
II. All men are not Rajesh.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

5. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
All film stars are playback singers. All film directors are film stars.
Conclusions :
I. All film directors are playback singers.
II. Some film stars are film directors.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

6. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
Some kings are queens. All queens are beautiful.
Conclusions :
I. All kings are beautiful.
II. All queens are kings.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 271 IUP Preparation

 7. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
Some books are pens. No pen is pencil.
Conclusions :
I. Some books are pencils.
II. No book is pencil.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

8. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
All pens are roads. All roads are houses.
Conclusions :
I. All houses are pens.
II. Some houses are pens.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

9. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
Most teachers are boys. Some boys are students.
Conclusions :
I. Some students are boys.
II. Some teachers are students.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 272 IUP Preparation

 10. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
Some men are educated. Educated persons prefer small families.
Conclusions :
I. All small families are educated.
II. Some men prefer small families.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follo

11. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
Some swords are sharp. All swords are rusty.
Conclusions :
I. Some rusty things are sharp.
II. Some rusty things are not sharp.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

12. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
All men are married. Some men are educated.
Conclusions :
I. Some married are educated.
II. Some educated are married.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 273 IUP Preparation

 13. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
Some adults are boys. Some boys are old.
Conclusions :
I. Some adults are not old.
II. Some boys are not old.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

14. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
Some books are tables. Some tables are mirrors.
Conclusions :
I. Some mirrors are books.
II. No book is mirror.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

15. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
Raman is always successful. No fool is always successful.
Conclusions :
I. Raman is a fool.
II. Raman is not a fool.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 274 IUP Preparation

 16. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
All pens are chalks. All chairs are chalks.
Conclusions :
I. Some pens are chairs.
II. Some chalks are pens.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

17. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
No magazine is cap. All caps are cameras.
Conclusions :
I. No camera is magazine.
II. Some cameras are magazines.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

18. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
All men are dogs. All dogs are cats
Conclusions :
I. All men are cats.
II. All cats are men.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 275 IUP Preparation

 19. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
All jungles are tigers. Some tigers are horses.
Conclusions :
I. Some horses are jungles.
II. No horse is jungle.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

20. In each questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II.
Statements :
All tubes are handles. All cups are handles.
Conclusions :
I. All cups are tubes.
II. Some handles are not cups.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or II follows
D. if neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. if both conclusions I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 276 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 9

1. Assertion (A) : Passengers in a boat are not allowed to stand.

Reason (R) : This may raise the centre of gravity of the boat .
A. A is true but R is false.
B. A is false but R is true.
C. Both A and R are false.
D. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
E. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. Assertion (A) : Graphite is slippery and used as a lubricant.

Reason (R) : Graphite has free electrons.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C. A is false but R is true.
D. A is true but R is false.
E. Both A and R are false.

3. Assertion (A) : Telephone wires sag more in summer.

Reason (R) : They expand due to summer heat.
A. A is true but R is false.
B. A is false but R is true.
C. Both A and R are false.
D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
E. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

4. Assertion (A) : There is no vaccine for AIDS.

Reason (R) : The AIDS virus changes its genetic code.
A. A is true but R is false.
B. A is false but R is true.
C. Both A and R are false.
D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
E. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

5. Assertion (A) : Bronze is used for making statues.

Reason (R) :Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 277 IUP Preparation

 D. A is false but R is true.
E. Both A and R are false.

6. Assertion (A) : A person with blood group O is considered a universal recipient.

Reason (R) : Type O blood does not contain any antigens.
A. A is false but R is true.
B. A is true but R is false.
C. Both A and R are false.
D. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
E. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

7. Assertion (A) : Diamond is used for cutting glass.

Reason (R) : Diamond has a high refractive index.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
E. Both A and R are false.

8. Assertion (A) : Earth is the only planet known to have life.

Reason (R) : Earth has no atmosphere which is a mixture of oxygen, nitrogen and carbon
dioxide.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
E. Both A and R are false.

9. Assertion (A) : Tamil Nadu gets most of the rainfall in winter.

Reason (R) : Tamil Nadu gets rainfall from retreating monsoons.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
E. Both A and R are false.

10. Assertion (A) : Pressure cookers are fitted with ebonite handles.
Reason (R) : Ebonite is strong.
A. A is true but R is false.
B. A is false but R is true.
C. Both A and R are false.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 278 IUP Preparation

 D. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
E. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

11. Assertion (A) : An atom is neutral despite the charged particles in it.
Reason (R) : The neutrons do not have any charge.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C. A is false but R is true.
D. A is true but R is false.
E. Both A and R are false.

12. Assertion (A) : In India, the judiciary is independent of the executive.

Reason (R) : Judiciary favours the government and helps in the implementation of its
plants.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is false but R is true.
D. A is true but R is false.
E. Both A and R are false.

13. Assertion (A) : A ship rises as it enters the sea from a river.
Reason (R) : The density of sea water is higher as compared to river water.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C. A is false but R is true.
D. A is true but R is false.
E. Both A and R are false.

14. Assertion (A) : Bangladesh imports jute from India.

Reason (R) : Bangladesh has most of the jute mills.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
E. Both A and R are false.

15. Assertion (A) : Clothes are not washed properly in hot water.
Reason (R) : Hard water contains many minerals.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 279 IUP Preparation

 D. A is false but R is true.
E. Both A and R are false.

16. Assertion (A) : Petrol fire cannot be extinguished by pouring water over it.
Reason (R) : Water is heavier than petrol.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is false but R is true.
D. A is true but R is false.
E. Both A and R are false.
17. Assertion (A) : Indian President is the head of the state.
Reason (R) : Indian Parliament consists of the President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
E. Both A and R are false.

18. Assertion (A) : Uranium undergoes nuclear fusion reaction.

Reason (R) : It has a big, unstable nucleus.
A. A is false but R is true.
B. A is true but R is false.
C. Both A and R are false.
D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
E. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

19. Assertion (A) : Safety fuses are made up of materials having a high melting point.
Reason (R) : Safety fuses should be resistant to electric current.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
E. Both A and R are false.

20. Assertion (A) : Goitre is a common disease in mountainous regions.

Reason (R) : The diet of the people in mountains lacks iodine content.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
E. Both A and R are false.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 280 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 10

1. Choose the Venn diagram which best illustrates the three given classes in each of the
following questions :
Women, Teachers, Doctors
(A).
(C) .

(B) .
(D) .

2. Yak, Zebra, Bear

(A).

(B) .

(C) .

(D) .

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 281 IUP Preparation

 3. Mountains, Forests, Earth 5. Tennis fans, Cricket players, Students
(A). (A).

(B) .
(B) .

(C) .
(C) .

(D) . (D) .

4. Dogs, Pets, Cats 6. Which of the following figures correctly

(A). represents the relation between: Doctors, Lawyers,
Professionals?

(A).
(B) . (C) .

(C) . (B) .
(D) .

(D) .

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 282 IUP Preparation

 7. Choose the Venn diagram which best illustrates the three given classes in each
question.
Sun, Planets, Earth
(A)Indicates that one class is completely contained in the other but not the third.

(B) Indicates that two classes are completely contained in the third.

(C) Indicates that neither class is completely contained in the other but the two have
common members, forming one entity.

(D) Indicates that two classes are interrelated and third one is not.

8. Each of the following questions below contains three elements. These elements may
or may not have some inter se linkage. Each group of the elements may fit into one of the
diagrams at (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). You have to indicate the group of elements which
correctly fits into the diagrams.
Vegetable, Brinjal, Cauliflower
(A). (C) .

(D) .
(B) .

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 283 IUP Preparation

 9. Choose the Venn diagram which best illustrates the three given classes in each
question:
Copper, Paper, Wire
(A). (C) .

(B) . (D) .

10. Which one of the following logical diagrams correctly the relationship between :
Musicians, Instrumentalists, Violinists?
(A). (C) .

(B) . (D) .

11. In the following questions, three classes are given. Out of the four figures that follow,
you are to indicate which figure will best represent the relationship amongst the three
classes.
Authors, Teachers, Men
(A). (C) .

(B) . (D) .

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 284 IUP Preparation

 12. Languages, French, German
(A). (C) .

(B) .
(D) .

13. Hockey, Cricket, Games

(A). (C) .

(D) .
(B) .

14. If animals that live on land and the animals that live in water are represented by two
big circles and animals that live in water and on land are represented by small circle, the
combination of these three can be best represented as

(A). (C) .

(B) .
(D) .

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 285 IUP Preparation

 15. Protons, Electrons, Atoms
(A). (C) .

(B) . (D) .

16. Each one of the following questions contains three items. Using the relationship
between these items, match each question with the most suitable diagram.
Grams, Beans, Legumes
(A). (C) .

(B) . (D) .

17. In the following questions, three classes are given. Out of the four figures that follow,
you are to indicate which figure will best represent the relationship amongst the three
classes.
Women, Mothers, Widows
(A). (C) .

(B) . (D) .

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 286 IUP Preparation

 18. Each one of the following questions contains three items. Using the relationship
between these items, match each question with the most suitable diagram.
Human beings, Teachers, Graduates
(C) .
(A).

(D) .
(B) .

19. Which is the most suitable Venn diagram among the following, which represents
interrelationship among Antisocial elements, Pick pockets and Black mailers?
(A). (C) .

(D) .
(B) .

20. In each of the following questions, choose the Venn diagram which best illustrates
the relationship among three given items?
Mercury, Mars, Planets
(A). (C) .

(B) . (D) .

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 287 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 11

1. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered

I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.
Statement :
Unemployment allowance should be given to all unemployed Indian youth above 18
years of age.
Assumptions :
I. There are unemployed youth in India who need monetary support.
II. The government has sufficient funds to provide allowance to all unemployed youth.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

2. Statement :
Apply nets on windows to prevent the entrance of mosquitoes in the house.
Assumptions :
I. The entering of mosquitoes from entrance other than window is desirable.
II. Nets are not available to apply on doors.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit
3. Statement :
The party president has directed that no member of the party will give press briefing or
interviews to governments and private T.V. channels about the discussion in scheduled
meeting of the party.
Assumptions :
I. Party members will observe this directive of the president.
II. The general public will not come to know about the happenings in the scheduled
meeting of the party.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. There are enough schools in the state to accommodate four thousand additional
primary school teachers if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 288 IUP Preparation

 4. Statement :
The state government has decided to appoint four thousand primary school teachers
during the next financial year.
Assumptions :.
II. The eligible candidates may not be interested to apply as the government may not
finally appoint such a large number of primary school teachers.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implict
5. Statement :
The regulatory authority has set up a review committee to find out the reasons for
unstable stock prices.
Assumptions :
I. The investors may regain confidence in stock market by this decision.
II. The review committee has the expertise to find out the causes for volatility in the stock
market.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

6. Statement :
Vitamin E tablets improve circulation, keep your complexion in a glowing condition.
Assumptions :
I. People like a glowing complexion.
II. Complexion becomes dull in the absence of circulation.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

7. Statement :
If he is intelligent, he will pass the examination.
Assumptions :
I. To pass, he must be intelligent.
II. He will pass the examination.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 289 IUP Preparation

 8. Statement :
The party president has directed that no member of the party will give press briefing or
interviews to governments and private T.V. channels about the discussion in scheduled
meeting of the party.
Assumptions :
I. Party members will observe this directive of the president.
II. The general public will not come to know about the happenings in the scheduled
meeting of the party.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II s implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implic

9. Statement :
The government has decided to pay compensation to the turns of Rs. 1 lakh to the family
members of those who are killed in railway accidents.
Assumptions :
I. The government has enough funds to meet the expenses due to compensation.
II. There may be reduction in incidents of railway accidents in near future.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

10. Statement :
The management of XYZ Pvt. Ltd. asked the workers union to call off strike immediately
otherwise the management would be forced to close down the factory.
Assumptions :
I. No alternative other than closing down the factory is left for the management of XYZ
Pvt. Ltd.
II. Such threat may have some effect on the workers union.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 290 IUP Preparation

 11. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered
I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implicit.
Statement :
Detergents should be used to clean clothes.
Assumptions :
Detergents form more lather.
II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

12. Statement :
Among all the articles, the prices of personal computers show the highest decline from
June 2005 to December 2005.
Assumptions :
I. Comparative prices of all the articles in June and December 2005 were available.
II. Prices of personal computers were higher in the first six months than the last six
months of 2005.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implici

13. Statement :
Most people who stop smoking gain weight.
Assumptions :
I. If one stops smoking, one will not gain weight.
II. If one does not stop smoking, one will not gain weight.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 291 IUP Preparation

 14. Statement :
Suganya made an application to the bank for a loan of Rs. 1,80,000 by mortgaging her
house to the bank and promised to repay it within five years.
Assumptions :
I. The bank has a practice of granting loans for Rs. 1,00,000 and above.
II. The bank accepts house as collateral security against such loans.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

15. Statement :
It is faster to travel by air to Delhi from Bangalore.
Assumptions :
I. Bangalore and Delhi are connected by air.
II. There are no other means of transport available to Delhi from Bangalore.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

16. Statement :
Today I must satisfy myself only by looking at a pink headed duck in an encyclopaedia.
Assumptions :
I. Pink headed ducks are as good as extinct now.
II. People refer to encyclopaedia to know only about things which do not exist now.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II s implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

17. Statement :
The present examination system is obsolete.
Assumptions :
I. The present examination system is obsolete.
II. Overhauling results in improvement.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 292 IUP Preparation

 18. Statement :
Who rises from the prayer a better man, his prayer is answered.
Assumptions :
I. Prayer makes a man more humane.
II. Prayer atones all of our misdeeds.
A. if only assumption I is implicitc
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

19. Statement :
The patient's condition would improve after operation.
Assumptions :
I. The patient can be operated upon in this condition.
II. The patient cannot be operated upon in this condition.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

20. Statement :
Cases of food poisoning due to consumption of liquor are increasing in rural areas.
Assumptions :
Percentage of people consuming liquor are increasing in rural areas.
II. There are many unauthorized spurious liquor shops in the rural areas.
A. if only assumption I is implicit
B. if only assumption II is implicit
C. if either I or II is implicit
D. if neither I nor II is implicit and
E. if both I and II are implicit

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 293 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 12

1. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements
may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements in
each question and mark your answer as
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for
the past few months.
II. The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last
few months.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

2. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The literacy rate in the district has been increasing for the last four years.
II. The district administration has conducted extensive training programmes for the
workers involved in the literacy drive.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

3. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The police authority has recently caught a group of house breakers.
II. The citizens group in the locality have started night vigil in the area.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 294 IUP Preparation

 4. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. Majority of the students in the college expressed their opinion against the college
authority’s decision to break away from the university and become autonomous.
II. The university authorities have expressed their inability to provide grants to its
constituent colleges.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

5. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. There is sharp decline in the production of oil seeds this year.
II. The Government has decided to increase the import quantum of edible oil.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

6. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The performance of most of the students in final exam of class X in the schools run by
the Government was excellent.
II. Many teachers of the Government schools left the school and joined private schools.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

7. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. There has been a high increase in the incidents of atrocities women in the city during
the past few months.
II. The police authority has been unable to nab the culprits who are committing crime
against women.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 295 IUP Preparation

 8. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. Most of the steel producing companies in the country have made considerable profit
during the last financial year.
II. Many Asian countries have been importing huge quantities of steel from India.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

9. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The government has recently fixed the fees for professional courses offered by the
unaided institutions which are much lower than the fees charged last year.
II. The parents of the aspiring students launched a severe agitation last year protesting
against the high fees charged by the unaided institutions.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

10. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. Many people visited the religious place during the weekend.
II. Few people visited the religious place during the week days.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

11. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
There may be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two
statements may be the effect of the same cause or independent causes. These statements
may be independent causes without having any relationship. Read both the statements in
each question and mark your answer as
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The prices of petroleum products dropped marginally last week.
II. The state Government reduced the tax on petroleum products last week.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 296 IUP Preparation

 12. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The private medical colleges have increased the tuition fees in the current year by 200
percent over the last years fees to meet the expenses.
II. The Government medical colleges have not increased their fees in spite of price
escalation.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

13. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The local cooperative credit society has decided to stop giving loans to farmers with
immediate effect.
II. A large number of credit society members have withdrawn major part of their deposits
from the credit society.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

14. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The employees of the biggest bank in the country have given an indefinite strike call
starting from third of the next month.
II. The employees of the Central Government have withdrawn their week long
demonstrations.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

15. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The staff of Airport authorities called off the strike they were observing in protest
against privatisation.
II. The staff of Airport authorities went on strike anticipating a threat to their jobs.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 297 IUP Preparation

 16. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The majority authority has instructed all the colleges under its jurisdiction to ban use of
all phones inside the college premises.
II. Majority of the teachers of the colleges signed a joint petition to the university
complaining the disturbances caused by cell phone ring tones inside the classrooms.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

17. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. The farmers have decided against selling their kharif crops to the Government agencies.
II. The Government has reduced the procurement price of kharif crops starting from last
month to the next six months.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

18. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
The prices of vegetables have been increased considerably during this summer.
II. There is tremendous increase in the temperature during this summer thereby
damaging crops greatly.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

19. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. Majority of the citizens in the locality belong to higher income group.
II. The sales in the local super market are comparatively much higher than in other
localities.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 298 IUP Preparation

 20. In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given.
I. Rural and semi-urban in the country have been suffering due to load shedding for quite
some time.
II. If the Government is not able to overcome the power crisis, load shedding will be
extended even to the urban areas.
A. if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effects.
B. if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effects.
C. if both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. if both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. if both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 299 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 13

1. Each question given below consist of a statement, followed by two arguments

numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments us a strong argument and
which is a weak argument.
Statement :
Should agriculture in rural India be mechanized?
Arguments :
I. Yes. It would lead to higher production.
II. No. Many villagers would be left unemployed.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

2. Statement :
Should new big industries be started in Mumbai?
Arguments :
I. Yes. It will be create job opportunities.
II. No. It will further add to the pollution of the city.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are stro

3. Statement :
Should offers accepting bribe be punished?
Arguments :
I. No. certain circumstances may have compelled them to take bribe.
II. Yes. They should do the job they are entrusted with, honestly.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 300 IUP Preparation

 4. Statement :
Should India give away Kashmir to Pakistan?
Arguments :
I. No. Kashmir is a beautiful state. It earns a lot of foreign exchange for India.
II. Yes. This would help settle conflicts.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

5. Statement :
Should foreign films be banned in India?
Arguments :
I. Yes. They depict an alien culture which adversely affects our values.
II. No. Foreign films are a high artistic standard.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

6. Statement :
Should fashionable dresses be banned?
Arguments :
I. Yes. Fashions keep changing and hence consumption of cloth increases.
II. No. Fashionable clothes are a persons self expression and therefore his/her
fundamental right.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

7. Statement :
Should school education be made free in India?
Arguments :
I. Yes. This is the only way to improve the level of literacy.
II. No. It would add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 301 IUP Preparation

 8. Statement :
Should students take part in politics?
Arguments :
I. Yes. It inculcates in them qualities of leadership.
II. No. They should study and build up their career.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

9. Statement :
Should there be no place of interview in selection?
Arguments :
I. Yes. It is very subjective in assessment.
II. No. It is the only instrument to judge candidates motives and personality.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

10. Statement :
Should there be a ban of product advertising?
Arguments :
I. No. It is an age of advertising. Unless your advertisement is better than your other
competitors, the product will not be sold.
II. Yes. The money spent on advertising is very huge and it inflates the cost of the
product.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 302 IUP Preparation

 11. Each question given below consist of a statement, followed by two arguments
numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments us a strong argument and
which is a weak argument.
Statement :
Can pollution be controlled?
Arguments :
I. Yes. If everyone realize the hazards it may be create and cooperate to get rid of it,
pollution may be controlled.
II. No. The crowded highways, factories and industries and an ever growing population
eager to acquire more and more land for constructing houses are beyond control.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

12. Statement :
Should new universities be established in India?
Arguments :
I. No. we have still not achieved the target for literacy.
II. No. We will have to face the problem of unemployed but highly qualified people.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

13. Statement :
Should all the annual examinations upto Std. V be abolished?
Arguments :
I. Yes. The young students should not be burdened with such examinations which
hampers their natural growth.
II. No. The students will not study seriously as they will get automatic promotion to the
next class and this will affect them in future.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 303 IUP Preparation

 14. Statement :
Should education be brought under the control of the Central Government like defence?
Arguments :
I. No. Education is a state subject and it should remain with the state.
II. Yes. This is the only way to establish uniformity in growth of education across the
states.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

15. Statement :
Should luxury hotels be banned in India?
Arguments :
I. Yes. They are places from where international criminals operate.
II. No. Affluent foreign tourists will have no place to stay.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

16. Statement :
Should cutting of trees be banned altogether?
Arguments :
I. Yes. It is very much necessary to do so to restore ecological balance.
II. No. A total ban would harm timber based industries.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

17. Statement :
Should family planning be made compulsory in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Looking to the miserable conditions in India, there is no other go.
II. No. In India there are people of various religions and family planning is against the
tenets of some of the religions.
A. if only argument II is strong
B. if only argument I is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if both I and II are strong
E. if neither I nor II is strong

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 304 IUP Preparation

 18. Statement :
Should there be a restriction on the migration of people from one state to another state in
India?
Arguments :
I. No. Any Indian citizen has a basic right to stay at any place of his/her choice and hence
they cannot be stopped.
II. Yes. This is the way to effect an equitable distribution of resources across the states in
India.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

19. Statement :
Should all the infrastructural development projects in India be handed over to the private
sector?
Arguments :
I. No. The private sector entities are not equipped to handle such projects.
II. Yes. Such projects are handled by private sector in the developed countries.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

20. Statement :
Should the political parties be banned?
Arguments :
I. Yes. It is necessary to teach a lesson to the politicians.
II. No. It will lead to an end of democracy.
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I and II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong and
E. if both I and II are strong

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 305 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 14

Direction (Q.Nos. 1 - 2)
Look carefully at the sequence of symbols to find the pattern. Select correct pattern.

1.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

2.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Direction (Q.No. 3)
Each question has an underlined word followed by four answer choices. You will choose the word
that is a necessary part of the underlined word.

3. Diploma
A. Principal
B. Curriculum
C. Employment
D. Graduation

Direction (Q.No. 4)
Every one of the following questions consists of a related pair of words, followed by five pairs of
words. Choose the pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the
original pair of words.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 306 IUP Preparation

 4. DIVISION : SECTION
A. layer : tier
B. tether : bundle
C. chapter : verse
D. riser : stage
E. dais : speaker

Direction (Q.No. 5)
First, you will be given a list of three "nonsense" words and their English word meanings. The
question(s) that follow will ask you to reverse the process and translate an English word into the
artificial language.

5. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

hapllesh means cloudburst
srenchoch means pinball
resbosrench means ninepin
Which word could mean "cloud nine"?
A. Leshsrench
B. Ochhapl
C. Haploch
D. Haplresbo

Direction (Q.No. 6)
Translate from an imaginary language into English. Then, look for the word elements that appear
both on the list and in the answer choices.

6. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

malgauper means peach cobbler
malgaport means peach juice
moggagrop means apple jelly
Which word could mean "apple juice"?
A. Moggaport
B. Malgaauper
C. Gropport
D. Moggagrop

Direction (Q.No. 7)
Each problem consists of three statements. Based on the first two statements, the third statement
may be true, false, or uncertain.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 307 IUP Preparation

 7. Josua is younger than Karina.
Marsel was born after Josua.
Karina is older than Marsel.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. True
B. False
C. Uncertain

Direction (Q.No. 8)
Choose the statement that is best supported by the information given in the question passage.

8. Yoga has become a very popular type of exercise, but it may not be for everyone. Before you
sign yourself up for a yoga class, you need to examine what it is you want from your fitness
routine. If you're looking for a high-energy, fast-paced aerobic workout, a yoga class might not be
your best choice.
This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. yoga is more popular than high-impact aerobics.
B. before embarking on a new exercise regimen, you should think about your needs and desires.
C. yoga is changing the world of fitness in major ways
D. yoga benefits your body and mind
E. most people think that yoga isn't a rigorous form of exercise.

Direction (Q.No. 9)
In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together
and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given
in the statement.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.

9. Statements: Vegetable prices are soaring in the market.

Conclusions:
I. Vegetables are becoming a rare commodity.
II. People cannot eat vegetables.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 308 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.Nos. 10 - 11)
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

10. Statement: The 'M' Cooperative Housing Society has put up a notice at its gate those sales
persons are not allowed inside the society.
Assumptions:
I. All the sales persons will stay away from the 'M' Cooperative Housing Society.
II. The security guard posted at the gate may be able to stop the sales persons entering the society.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

11. Statement: Highly brilliant and industrious students do not always excel in the written
examination.
Assumptions:
I. The written examination is good mainly for mediocre students.
II. The brilliant and industrious students cannot always write good answers in the exam
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (Q.Nos. 12 - 14)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 309 IUP Preparation

 12. Statement: "Two months ago, it was announced that Central Government pensioners would
get dearness relief with immediate effect but till date, banks have not credited the arrears." - A
statement from a Pensioners' Forum.
Assumptions:
I. Most of the banks normally take care of the pensioners.
II. Two months time is sufficient for the government machinery to move and give effect to
pensioners.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

13. Statement: Money is the root cause of all the problems in a family.
Assumptions:
I. Every problem is caused by something.
II. There are always some problems in a family.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

14. Statement: To investigate the murder of the lone resident of a flat, the police interrogated the
domestic servant, the watchman of the multi-storeyed buildings and the liftman.
Assumptions:
I. The domestic servant, watchman and the liftman can give a clue about the suspected murder.
II. Generally in such cases the persons known to the resident are directly or indirectly involved in
the murder.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (Q.Nos. 15 - 18)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information
given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for
pursuing.
Give answer
(A) If only I follows
(B) If only II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 310 IUP Preparation

 (E) If both I and II follow.

15. Statement: Most of the development plans develop in papers only.

Courses of Action:
I. The in-charges should be instructed to supervise the field-work regularly.
II. The supply of paper to such departments should be cut short.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

16. Statement: A very large number of students have failed in the final high school examination
due to faulty questions in one of the subjects.
Courses of Action:
I. All the students who have failed in the subject should be allowed to take supplementary
examination.
II. All those who are responsible for the error should be suspended and an enquiry should be
initiated to find out the facts.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

17. Statement: Four districts in State A have been experiencing severe drought for the last three
years resulting into exodus of people from these districts.
Courses of Action:
I. The government should immediately start food for work programme in the district to put a halt
to the exodus.
II. The government should make since efforts to provide drinking/potable water to these districts
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 311 IUP Preparation

 18. Statement: The Government has decided not to provide financial support to voluntary
organisations from next Five Year Plan and has communicated that all such organisations should
raise funds to meet their financial needs.
Courses of Action:
I. Voluntary organisations should collaborate with foreign agencies.
II. They should explore other sources of financial support.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Direction (Q.No. 19)

Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Give answer:
(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If either I or II is strong
(D) If neither I nor II is strong and
(E) If both I and II are strong.

19. Statement: Should the educated unemployed youth be paid "unemployment allowance" by
the Government?
Arguments:
I. Yes. It will provide them some monetary help to either seek employment or to kick-start some
'self-employment' venture.
II. No. It will dampen their urge to do something to earn their livelihood and thus promote
idleness among the unemployed youth.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 312 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 20)
In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and
III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three
given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

20. Statement: Lack of coordination between the University, its colleges and various authorities
has resulted in students ousted from one college seeking migration to another.
Courses of Action:
I. If a student is ousted from a college, the information should be sent to all the other colleges of
the University
II. The admissions to all the colleges of the University should be handled by the University
directly.
III. A separate section should be made for taking strict action against students indulging in anti-
social activities.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Only I and III follow
E. Only II and III follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 313 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 15

Direction (Q.No. 1)
The words in the bottom row are related in the same way as the words in the top row. For each
item, find the word that completes the bottom row of words.

1. candle lamp floodlight

hut cottage ?
A. tent
B. city
C. dwelling
D. house

Direction (Q.No. 2)
Each problem consists of three statements. Based on the first two statements, the third statement
may be true, false, or uncertain.

2. All the trees in the park are flowering trees.

Some of the trees in the park are dogwoods.
All dogwoods in the park are flowering trees.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

Direction (Q.No. 3)
Each problem consists of three statements. Based on the first two statements, the third statement
may be true, false, or uncertain.

3. Spot is bigger than King and smaller than Sugar.

Ralph is smaller than Sugar and bigger than Spot.
King is bigger than Ralph.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

Direction (Q.No. 4)
Choose the statement that is best supported by the information given in the question passage.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 314 IUP Preparation

 4. During the last six years, the number of practicing physicians has increased by about 20%.
During the same time period, the number of healthcare managers has increased by more than
600%. These percentages mean that many doctors have lost the authority to make their own
schedules, determine the fees that they charge, and decide on prescribed treatments.
This paragraph best supports the statement that doctors
A. resent the interference of healthcare managers.
B. no longer have adequate training.
C. care a great deal about their patients.
D. are less independent than they used to be.
E. are making a lot less money than they used to make.

Direction (Q.No. 5)
Read the below passage carefully and answer the questions:
Some groups want to outlaw burning the flag. They say that people have fought and died for the
flag and that citizens of the United States ought to respect that. But I say that respect cannot be leg-
islated. Also, most citizens who have served in the military did not fight for the flag, they fought
for what the flag represents. Among the things the flag represents is freedom of speech, which
includes, I believe, the right for a citizen to express displeasure with the government by burning
the flag in protest.

5. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the speaker's argument?

A. An action is not considered a part of freedom of speech.
B. People who burn the flag usually commit other crimes as well.
C. The flag was not recognized by the government until 1812.
D. State flags are almost never burned
E. Most people are against flag burning.

Direction (Q.Nos. 6 - 7)
Each of the following questions contains a small paragraph followed by a question on it. Read
each paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.

6. The virtue of art does not allow the work to be interfered with or immediately ruled by
anything other than itself. It insists that it alone shall touch the work in order to bring it into being.
Art requires that nothing shall attain the work except through art itself.
This passage best supports the statement that:
A. art is governed by external rules and conditions.
B. art is for the sake of art and life.
C. art is for the sake of art alone.
D. artist realises his dreams through his artistic creation.
E. artist should use his art for the sake of society.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 315 IUP Preparation

 7. The consumption of harmful drugs by the people can be prevented not only by banning their
sale in the market but also by instructing users about their dangerous effects which they must
understand for their safety. Also the drug addicts may be provided with proper medical facilities
for their rehabilitation. This will help in scaling down the use of drugs.
The passage best supports the statement that consumption of harmful drugs –
A. are on increase in the society.
B. can always be reduced.
C. are due to lack of medical facilities.
D. can be eliminated with the help of banning their sale.
E. may be channelized through proper system.

Direction (Q.No. 8)
In each of the following questions, a statement/group of statements is given followed by some
conclusions. Without resolving anything yourself choose the conclusion which logically follows
from the given statements).

8. To pass the examination, one must work hard.

A. Examination is related with hard work.
B. All those who work hard, pass.
C. Examination causes some anxiety and those who work hard overcome it.
D. Without hard work, one does not pass.
E. Hard-working person is a satisfied person.

Direction (Q.No. 9)
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be
cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect
of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without
having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer as
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes; and
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

9. Statements:
I. The government has recently fixed the fees for professional courses offered by the unaided
institutions which are much lower than the fees charged last year.
II. The parents of the aspiring students launched a severe agitation last year protesting against
the high fees charged by the unaided institutions.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 316 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 10)
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

10. Statement: The next meeting of the Governing Board of the Institute will be held after one
year.
Assumptions:
I. The Institute will remain in function after one year.
II. The Governing Board will be dissolved after one year.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (Q.No. 11)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information
given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for
pursuing.
Give answer
(A) If only I follows
(B) If only II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows
(E) If both I and II follow.

11. Statement: The cinema halls are incurring heavy losses these days as people prefer to watch
movies in home on TV than to visit cinema halls.
Courses of Action:
I. The cinema halls should be demolished and residential multi-storey buildings should be
constructed there.
II. The cinema halls should be converted into shopping malls.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 317 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 12)
In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information
given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for
pursuing.
Give answer
(A) If only I follows
(B) If only II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows
(E) If both I and II follow.

12. Statement: The Meteorology Department has forecast that a severe cyclonic storm would hit
coastal Nusa Penida and Labuan bajo in the next forty-eight hours.
Courses of Action:
I. The local administration should advise the fishermen not to go to dangerous area in the sea.
II. The local administration should alert the people of coastal areas of these two states and they
should be prepared to shift to safer places.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Direction (Q.Nos. 13 - 14)

In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.

13. Statements: Some books are tables. Some tables are mirrors.
Conclusions:
I. Some mirrors are books.
II. No book is mirror.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 318 IUP Preparation

 14. Statements: All fishes are grey in colour. Some fishes are heavy.
Conclusions:
I. All heavy fishes are grey in colour.
II. All light fishes are not grey in colour.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Direction (Q.No. 15)

Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Give answer:
(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If either I or II is strong
(D) If neither I nor II is strong and
(E) If both I and II are strong.

15. Statement: Should Indonesia scientists working abroad be called back to Indonesia?
Arguments:
I. Yes. They must serve the motherland first and forget about discoveries, honours, facilities and
all.
II. No. We have enough talent; let them stay where they want.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

Direction (Q.Nos. 16 - 17)

Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Give answer:
(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If either I or II is strong
(D) If neither I nor II is strong and
(E) If both I and II are strong.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 319 IUP Preparation

 16. Statement: Should the vehicles older than 15 years be rejected in metros in Indonesia?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This is a significant step to lower down the pollution level in metros.
II. No. It will be very difficult for vehicle owners to shift to other parts in country because they
will not get suitable job for their very existence.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

17. Statement: Is pen mightier than a sword?

Arguments:
I. Yes. Writers influence the thinking of the people.
II. No. With the help of physical force one can conquer all.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

Direction (Q.No. 18)

In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and
III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three
given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

18. Statement: There are more than 200 villages in the hill area of Argosari which are severely
damaged due to cyclone and it causes an extra burden of Rs 200 crore on State Government for
relief and rehabilitation work.
Courses of Action:
I. People of hill area should be shifted to other safer places.
II. State Government should ask more financial support from Central Government.
III. Government should levy relief tax to the corporate sector to ease the additional burden.
A. None follows
B. Only I and II follow
C. Only II and III follow
D. Only I and III follow
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 320 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.Nos. 19 - 20)
Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by three or four arguments numbered
I, II, III and IV. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are 'strong' arguments) and which
is/are 'weak' arguments) and accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below
each question.

19. Statement: Should seniority be the only criterion for the promotion?
Arguments:
I. No. It would be an injustice to those juniors who are more deserving and suitable for higher
positions than their senior counterparts.
II. Yes. Otherwise senior employees do feel humiliated.
III. Yes. Senior employees are more experienced and must be rewarded for the same.
A. None is strong
B. Only I is strong
C. Only I and III are strong
D. Only I and II are strong
E. All are strong

20. Statement: Should workers/employees be allowed to participate in the management of

factories in Indonesia?
Arguments:
I. Yes. It is the present management theory.
II. No. Many workers are illiterate and so their contributions will not be of any value.
III. Yes. Employees-owned companies generally have higher productivity.
IV. No. Employee-union ownership drives up salaries and wages.
A. Only I and II are strong
B. None is strong
C. Only II and III are strong
D. All are strong
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 321 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 16

Direction (Q.No. 1)
Remember, you are looking for the word that does NOT belong in the same group as the others.
Sometimes, all four words seem to fit in the same group. If so, look more closely to further narrow
your classification.

1. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

A. wing
B. fin
C. beak
D. rudder

Direction (Q.No. 2)
First, you will be given a list of three "nonsense" words and their English word meanings. The
question(s) that follow will ask you to reverse the process and translate an English word into the
artificial language.

2. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

lelibroon means yellow hat
plekafroti means flower garden
frotimix means garden salad
Which word could mean "yellow flower"?
A. lelifroti
B. lelipleka
C. plekabroon
D. frotibroon

Direction (Q.No. 3)
Find the statement that must be true according to the given information.

3. Gani is older than her cousin Marsya. Marsya's brother Beni is older than Gani. When Marsya
and Beni are visiting with Gani, all three like to play a game of Monopoly. Marsya wins more
often than Gani does.
A. When he plays Monopoly with Marsya and Gani, Beni often loses.
B. Of the three, Gani is the oldest.
C. Gani hates to lose at Monopoly.
D. Of the three, Marsya is the youngest.

Direction (Q.Nos. 4 - 5)
Each problem consists of three statements. Based on the first two statements, the third statement
may be true, false, or uncertain.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 322 IUP Preparation

 4. Tom puts on his socks before he puts on his shoes.
He puts on his shirt before he puts on his jacket.
Tom puts on his shoes before he puts on his shirt.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

5. The bookstore has a better selection of postcards than the newsstand does.
The selection of postcards at the drugstore is better than at the bookstore.
The drugstore has a better selection of postcards than the bookstore or the newsstand.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

Direction (Q.No. 6)
The logic problems in this set present you with three true statements: Fact 1, Fact 2, and Fact 3.
Then, you are given three more statements (labeled I, II, and III), and you must determine which of
these, if any, is also a fact. One or two of the statements could be true; all of the statements could
be true; or none of the statements could be true. Choose your answer based solely on the
information given in the first three facts.

6. Fact 1: Islands are surrounded by water.

Fact 2: Maui is an island.
Fact 3: Maui was formed by a volcano.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?
I: Maui is surrounded by water.
II: All islands are formed by volcanoes.
III: All volcanoes are on islands.
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.

Direction (Q.No. 7)
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be
cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect
of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without
having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer as
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes; and
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 323 IUP Preparation

 7. Statements:
I. The school authority has asked the X Std. students to attend special classes to be conducted
on Sundays.
II. The parents of the X Std. students have withdrawn their wards from attending private
tuitions conducted on Sundays.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Direction (Q.Nos. 8 - 10)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

8. Statement: Please note that the company will provide accommodation to only outside
candidates if selected.' - A condition in an advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. The local candidates would be having some other arrangement for their stay.
II. The company plans to select only local candidates.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

9. Statement: "In order to bring punctuality in our office, we must provide conveyance
allowance to our employees." - In charge of a company tells Personnel Manager.
Assumptions:
I. Conveyance allowance will not help in bringing punctuality.
II. Discipline and reward should always go hand in hand.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 324 IUP Preparation

 10. Statement: 'Double your money in five months.' - An advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. The assurance is not genuine.
II. People want their money to grow.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (Q.No. 11)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

11. Statement: "If you want to give any advertisement, give it in the newspaper X." - A tells B.
Assumptions:
I. B wants to publicise his products.
II. Newspaper X has a wide circulation.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (Q.No. 12)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 325 IUP Preparation

 12. Statement: "In my absence, I request you to look after the affairs of our company." - B tells C.
Assumptions:
I. C may not accept the request of B.
II. C has the expertise to handle the affairs of the company.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (Q.No. 13)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

13. Statement: The electric supply corporation has decided to open a few more collection centres
in the business district area.
Assumptions:
I. The people in the area may welcome the decision.
II. Henceforth there may be less time required by the customers for paying electricity bill.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (Q.Nos. 14 - 16)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information
given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for
pursuing.
Give answer
(A) If only I follows
(B) If only II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows
(E) If both I and II follow.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 326 IUP Preparation

 14. Statement: The police department has come under a cloud with recent revelations that at
least two senior police officials are suspected to have been involved in the illegal sale of a large
quantity of weapons from the state police armoury.
Courses of Action:
I. A thorough investigation should be ordered by the State Government to bring out all those
who are involved into the illegal sale of arms.
II. State police armoury should be kept under Central Government's control.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

15. Statement: The Minister said that the teachers are still not familiarised with the need,
importance and meaning of population education in the higher education system. They are not
even clearly aware about their role and responsibilities in the population education programme.
Courses of Action:
I. Population education programme should be included in the college curriculum.
II. Orientation programme should be conducted for teachers on population education
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

16. Statement: The kharif crops have been affected by the insects for consecutive three years in
the district and the farmers harvested less than fifty percent of produce during these years.
Courses of Action:
I. The farmers should seek measures to control the attack of insects to protect their crops next
year.
II. The Government should increase the support price of kharif crops considerably to protect the
economic interests of farmers.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 327 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 17)
In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.

17. Statements: All poles are guns. Some boats are not poles.
Conclusions:
I. All guns are boats.
II. Some boats are not guns.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Direction (Q.No. 18)

Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Give answer:
(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If either I or II is strong
(D) If neither I nor II is strong and
(E) If both I and II are strong.

18. Statement: Should there be a cap on maximum number of contestants for parliamentary
elections in any constituency?
Arguments:
I. Yes. This will make the parliamentary elections more meaningful as the voters can make a
considered judgement for casting their vote.
II. No. In a democracy any person fulfilling the eligibility criteria can contest parliamentary
elections and there should be no restrictions.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 328 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 19)
In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and
III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three
given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

19. Statement: It is estimated that about twenty lakh people will visit the city during the ensuing
festival.
Courses of Action:
I. The civic authority should monitor the crowd and restrict entry of the people beyond a
manageable number.
II. The local police authority should be put on high alert to maintain law and order during the
festival.
III. All the hospitals in the city should be put on high alert in case of any eventuality.
A. Only I and II follow
B. Only II and III follow
C. Only I and III follow
D. All follow
E. None of these

Direction (Q.No. 20)

In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III.
You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

20. Statement: A State Government suspended two additional district judges.

Assumptions:
I. They were negligent in discharging duties.
II. There was a charge of misconduct against them.
III. The government officials were biased against them.
A. None is implicit
B. Either I or II is implicit
C. Any one of the three is implicit
D. Only I and III are implicit
E. Either I or III is implicit

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 329 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 17

Direction (Q.Nos. 1 - 2)
In these series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number pattern. Fill the blank
in the middle of the series or end of the series.

1. JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, _____

A. OEP
B. NEO
C. MEN
D. PFQ

2. SCD, TEF, UGH, ____, WKL

A. CMN
B. UJI
C. VIJ
D. IJT

Direction (Q.No. 3)
Find the word that names a necessary part of the underlined word.

3. purchase
A. trade
B. money
C. bank
D. acquisition

Direction (Q.Nos. 4 - 5)
The words in the bottom row are related in the same way as the words in the top row. For each
item, find the word that completes the bottom row of words.

4. snow mountain ski

warmth lake ?
A. sand
B. swim
C. sunburn
D. vacation

5. apples fruit supermarket

novel book ?
A. bookstore
B. magazine
C. vegetable
D. shopping

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 330 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 6)
Every one of the following questions consists of a related pair of words, followed by five pairs of
words. Choose the pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the
original pair of words.

6. PULSATE : THROB
A. walk : run
B. tired : sleep
C. examine : scrutinize
D. ballet : dancer
E. find : lose

Direction (Q.No. 7)
First, you will be given a list of three "nonsense" words and their English word meanings. The
question(s) that follow will ask you to reverse the process and translate an English word into the
artificial language.

7. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

dionot means oak tree
blyonot means oak leaf
blycrin means maple leaf
Which word could mean "maple syrup"?
A. blymuth
B. hupponot
C. patricrin
D. crinweel

Direction (Q.No. 8)
Each of the following questions contains a small paragraph followed by a question on it. Read
each paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.

8. Though the waste of time or the expenditure on fashions is very large, yet fashions have come
to stay. They will not go, come what may. However, what is now required is that strong efforts
should be made to displace the excessive craze for fashion from the minds of these youngsters.
The passage best supports the statement that:
A. fashion is the need of the day.
B. the excessive craze for fashion is detrimental to one's personality.
C. the hoard for fashion should be done away with so as not to let down the constructive
development.
D. work and other activities should be valued more than the outward appearance.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 331 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.Nos. 9 - 10)
In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together
and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given
in the statement.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.

9. Statements: In a recent survey report, it has been stated that those who undertake physical
exercise for at least half an hour a day are less prone to have any heart ailments.
Conclusions:
I. Moderate level of physical exercise is necessary for leading a healthy life.
II. All people who do desk-bound jobs definitely suffer from heart ailments.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

10. Statements: People who speak too much against dowry are those who had taken it
themselves.
Conclusions:
I. It is easier said than done.
II. People have double standards.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Direction (Q.No. 11)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together
and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given
in the statement.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 332 IUP Preparation

 11. Statements: The best way to escape from a problem is to solve it.
Conclusions:
I. Your life will be dull if you don't face a problem.
II. To escape from problems, you should always have some solutions with you.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Direction (Q.No. 12)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

12. Statement: Never before such a lucid book was available on the topic.
Assumptions:
I. Some other books were available on this topic.
II. You can write lucid books on very few topics.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (Q.Nos. 13 - 14)

Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Give answer:
(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If either I or II is strong
(D) If neither I nor II is strong and
(E) If both I and II are strong.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 333 IUP Preparation

 13. Statement: Should cottage industries be encouraged in rural areas?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Rural people are creative.
II. Yes. This would help to solve the problem of unemployment to some extent.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

14. Statement: Should so much money be spent on advertisements?

Arguments:
I. Yes. It is an essential concomitant in a capitalist economy.
II. No. It leads to wastage of resources.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

Direction (Q.No. 15)

In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and
III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three
given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

15. Statement: The meteorological department has reported that a severe storm is likely to hit the
city during the next forty-eight hours.
Courses of Action:
I. The administration should advise all the business and educational establishments to close
down for two days.
II. The administration should not make the information public as it could create panic among
the residents of the city.
III. The administration should activate its disaster management program to tackle any possible
emergency situation.
A. Only I and II follow
B. Only III follows
C. Only II and III follow
D. Only I and III follow
E. All follow

Direction (Q.Nos. 16 - 17)

Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by three or four arguments numbered
I, II, III and IV. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are 'strong' arguments) and which
is/are 'weak' arguments) and accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below
each question.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 334 IUP Preparation

 16. Statement: Should government established higher level Institutes of Technology (IIT's) be
privatized?
Arguments:
I. Yes. Privatization will make these institutes financially healthy, competitive and quality
conscious.
II. Yes. Privatization is the key of the new era - can we survive without it?
III. No. Standard of education of these institutes will fall.
A. None is strong
B. All are strong
C. Only I is strong
D. Only I and III are strong
E. Only II and III are strong

17. Statement: Should trade unions be banned completely?

Arguments:
I. Yes. Workers can concentrate on production.
II. No. This is the only way through which employees can put their demands before the
management.
III. Yes. Employees get their illegal demands fulfilled through these unions.
IV. No. Trade unions are not banned in other economically advanced countries.
A. Only I is strong
B. Only II is strong
C. Only I and II are strong
D. Only I, II and III are strong
E. None of these

Direction (Q.No. 18)

In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III.
You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

18. Statement: During pre-harvest kharif season, the government has decided to release vast
quantity of food grains from FCI.
Assumptions:
I. There may be a shortage of food grains in the market during this season.
II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI.
III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop immediately after harvest.
A. All are implicit
B. Only II and III are implicit
C. None is implicit
D. Only I and II are implicit
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 335 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.Nos. 19 - 20)
In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III.
You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

19. Statement: Bill Clinton is the second democrat to be re-elected as President of America, the
other being the legendary Roosevelt.
Assumptions:
I. Clinton has the same qualities that Roosevelt had.
II. The majority of people in America have faith in Clinton.
III. The election campaign of Clinton's rivals was not impressive.
A. Only I is implicit
B. Only II is implicit
C. Only III is implicit
D. Either I or III is implicit
E. Either II or III is implicit

20. Statement: "Television X - the neighbour's envy, the owner's pride" - A T.V. advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. Catchy slogans appeal to people.
II. People are envious of their neighbours superior possessions.
III. People want to be envied by their neighbours.
A. Only I and II are implicit
B. Only II and III are implicit
C. Only I and III are implicit
D. All are implicit
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 336 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 18

Direction (Q.No. 1)
Look carefully at the sequence of symbols to find the pattern. Select correct pattern.

1.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Direction (Q.No. 2)
Choose the picture that would go in the empty box so that the two bottom pictures are related in
the same way as the top two are related.

2.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Direction (Q.Nos. 3 - 4)
Translate from an imaginary language into English. Then, look for the word elements that appear
both on the list and in the answer choices.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 337 IUP Preparation

 3. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.
slar means jump
slary means jumping
slarend means jumped
Which word could mean "playing"?
A. clargslarend
B. clargy
C. ellaclarg
D. slarmont

4. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

plekapaki means fruitcake
pakishillen means cakewalk
treftalan means buttercup
Which word could mean "cupcake"?
A. shillenalan
B. treftpleka
C. pakitreft
D. alanpaki

Direction (Q.No. 5)
Each question presents a situation and asks you to make a judgment regarding that particular
circumstance. Choose an answer based on given information.

5. Eileen is planning a special birthday dinner for her husband's 35th birthday. She wants the
evening to be memorable, but her husband is a simple man who would rather be in jeans at a
baseball game than in a suit at a fancy restaurant. Which restaurant below should Eileen choose?
A. Alfredo's offers fine Italian cuisine and an elegant Tuscan decor. Patrons will feel as though
they've spent the evening in a luxurious Italian villa.
B. Pancho's Mexican Buffet is an all-you-can-eat family style smorgasbord with the best tacos in
town.
C. The Parisian Bistro is a four-star French restaurant where guests are treated like royalty. Chef
Dilbert Olay is famous for his beef bourguignon.
D. Marty's serves delicious, hearty meals in a charming setting reminiscent of a baseball
clubhouse in honor of the owner,Marty Lester, a former major league baseball all-star.

Direction (Q.No. 6)
Read the below passage carefully and answer the questions:
Raina: Our state is considering raising the age at which a person can get a driver's license to
eighteen. This is unfair because the age has been sixteen for many years and sixteen-year-olds
today are no less responsible than their parents and grandparents were at sixteen.Many young
people today who are fourteen and fifteen years old are preparing to receive their licenses by
driving with a learner's permit and a licensed driver, usually one of their parents. It would not be
fair to suddenly say they have to wait two more years.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 338 IUP Preparation

 Andi: It is true that people have been allowed to receive a drivers license at sixteen for generations.
However, in recent years, the increase in traffic means drivers face more dangers than ever and
must be ready to respond to a variety of situations. The fact that schools can no longer afford to
teach drivers education results in too many young drivers who are not prepared to face the traffic
conditions of today.

6. On what does Raina rely in making her argument?

A. statistics
B. emotion
C. fairness
D. anecdotes
E. actualities

Direction (Q.Nos. 7 - 8)
In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together
and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given
in the statement.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.

7. Statements: The 'Official Secrets Act' (OSA) enacted by the ABC government during the war
seems to be one of the major source of corruption in the country X.
Conclusions:
I. The OSA has to be abolished immediately to put an end to the corruption in the country X.
II. The ABC government had an intention of encouraging corruption in the government offices.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

8. Statements: About 50 per cent of the animal by-products - hair, skin, horns etc. is edible
protein. American chemists have developed a method of isolating 45 per cent of this protein. They
used an enzyme developed in Japan to break down soya protein.
Conclusions:
I. Americans have not been able to develop enzymes.
II. Animal by-products protein has the same composition as soya protein.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 339 IUP Preparation

 D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Direction (Q.No. 9)
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be
cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect
of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without
having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer as
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes; and
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

9. Statements:
I. The Government has imported large quantities of sugar as per trade agreement with other
countries.
II. The prices of sugar in the domestic market have fallen sharply in the recent months.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Direction (Q.No. 10)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

10. Statement: The first step in treating addicts is to re-establish their lost ties, for which a
continuous personal attention should be paid to the addicts under treatment.
Assumptions:
I. Addicts under treatment respond better when shown personal interest.
II. Addiction and strained relationships are intimately connected.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 340 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 11)
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

11. Statement: Sania wrote to his brother at Bengkulu to collect personally the application form
from the University for the Post-graduation Course in Mathematics.
Assumptions:
I. The University may issue application forms to a person other than the prospective student.
II. Sania's brother may receive the letter well before the last date of collecting application forms.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (Q.No. 12)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

12. Statement: What a fool I am to rely on trickster like Sellen !

Assumptions:
I. Sellen is unreliable.
II. I am a fool.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 341 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 13)
In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information
given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for
pursuing.
Give answer
(A) If only I follows
(B) If only II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows
(E) If both I and II follow.

13. Statement: A large number of people in ward X of the city are diagnosed to be suffering from
a fatal malaria type.
Courses of Action:
I. The city municipal authority should take immediate steps to carry out extensive fumigation
in ward X.
II. The people in the area should be advised to take steps to avoid mosquito bites.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Direction (Q.No. 14)

In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.

14. Statements: All windows are doors. No door is wall.

Conclusions:
I. No window is wall.
II. No wall is door.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 342 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.Nos. 15 - 16)
Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
You have to decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Give answer:
(A) If only argument I is strong
(B) If only argument II is strong
(C) If either I or II is strong
(D) If neither I nor II is strong and
(E) If both I and II are strong.

15. Statement: Should import duty on all the electronic goods be dispensed with?
Arguments:
I. No. This will considerably reduce the income of the government and will adversely affect the
developmental activities.
II. No. The local manufacturers will not be able to compete with the foreign manufacturers who
are technologically far superior.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

16. Statement: Should there be uniforms for students in the colleges in Indonesia as in the
schools?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this will improve the ambience of the colleges as all the students will be decently
dressed.
II. No. The college students should not be regimented and they should be left to choose their
clothes for coming to the college.
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Either I or II is strong
D. Neither I nor II is strong
E. Both I and II are strong

Direction (Q.No. 17)

Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by three or four arguments numbered
I, II, III and IV. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are 'strong' arguments) and which
is/are 'weak' arguments) and accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below
each question.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 343 IUP Preparation

 17. Statement: Should religion be taught in our schools?
Arguments:
I. No. Ours is a secular state.
II. Yes. Teaching religion helps inculcate moral values among children.
III. No. How can one dream of such a step when we want the young generation to fulfil its role in
the 21st century.
A. All are strong
B. None is strong
C. Only I is strong
D. Only II is strong
E. Only I and III are strong

Direction (Q.No. 18)

In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III.
You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

18. Statement: "Join X-tuition classes for sure success. Excellent teaching by excellent teachers is
our strength." - An advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. Sure success is desirable.
II. Students expect sure success when they join any tuition class.
III. Just having excellent teachers does not ensure success.
A. Only I and II are implicit
B. Only II and III are implicit
C. Only I and III are implicit
D. Only II is implicit
E. All are implicit

Direction (Q.Nos. 19 - 20)

In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered
I, II and III, You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

19. Statements: All tigers are lions. No cow is lion. Some camels are cows.
Conclusions:
I. Some lions are camels.
II. No camel- is tiger.
III. Some tigers are cows.
A. None follows
B. Only I follows
C. Only II follows
D. Only III follows
E. Either I or II follows

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 344 IUP Preparation

 20. Statements: Some pictures are frames. Some frames are idols. All idols are curtains.
Conclusions:
I. Some curtains are pictures.
II. Some curtains are frames.
III. Some idols are frames.
A. Only I and II follow
B. Only II and III follow
C. Only I and III follow
D. All follow
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 345 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 19

Direction (Q.No. 1)
Three of the words will be in the same classification, the remaining one will not be. Your answer
will be the one word that does NOT belong in the same classification as the others.

1. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

A. leopard
B. cougar
C. elephant
D. lion

Direction (Q.No. 2)
A good way to figure out the relationship in a given question is to make up a sentence that
describes the relationship between the first two words. Then, try to use the same sentence to find
out which of the answer choices completes the same relationship with the third word.

2. Reptile is to lizard as flower is to

A. petal
B. stem
C. daisy
D. alligator

Direction (Q.No. 3)
Read each definition and all four choices carefully, and find the answer that provides the best
example of the given definition.

3. Erratic Behavior occurs when an individual acts in a manner that lacks consistency,
regularity, and uniformity. Which situation below is the best example of Erratic Behavior?
A. Rani cannot contain her anger whenever the subject of local politics is discussed.
B. Diki has just been told that he is being laid off. Before leaving his supervisor's office, he
punches a hole in the door.
C. Ilham has visited the dealership several times, but she still cannot decide which car to buy.
D. In the past month, Niko, who has been a model employee for three years, has repeatedly
called in sick, forgotten important meetings, and been verbally abusive to colleagues.

Direction (Q.No. 4)
Read the paragraph carefully and determine the main point the author is trying to make. What
conclusion can be drawn from the argument? Each paragraph is followed by five statements.One
statement supports the author's argument better than the others do.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 346 IUP Preparation

 4. Today's high school students spend too much time thinking about trivial and distracting
matters such as fashion. Additionally, they often dress inappropriately on school grounds. Rather
than spending time writing another detailed dress policy, we should make school uniforms
mandatory. If students were required to wear uniforms, it would increase a sense of community
and harmony in our schools and it would instill a sense of discipline in our students. Another
positive effect would be that teachers and administrators would no longer have to act as clothing
police, freeing them up to focus on more important issues.
This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. inappropriate clothing leads to failing grades.
B. students who wear school uniforms get into better colleges.
C. teachers and administrators spend at least 25% of their time enforcing the dress code.
D. students are not interested in being part of a community
E. school uniforms should be compulsory for high school students.

Direction (Q.No. 5)
Choose the statement that is best supported by the information given in the question passage.

5. In the 1966 Supreme Court decision Miranda v. Arizona, the court held that before the police
can obtain statements from a person subjected to an interrogation, the person must be given a
Miranda warning. This warning means that a person must be told that he or she has the right to
remain silent during the police interrogation. Violation of this right means that any statement that
the person makes is not admissible in a court hearing.
This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. police who do not warn persons of their Miranda rights are guilty of a crime.
B. a Miranda warning must be given before a police interrogation can begin.
C. the police may no longer interrogate persons suspected of a crime unless a lawyer is present.
D. the 1966 Supreme Court decision in Miranda should be reversed
E. persons who are interrogated by police should always remain silent until their lawyer comes

Direction (Q.No. 6)
Read the below passage carefully and answer the questions:
Giving children computers in grade school is a waste of money and teachers time. These children
are too young to learn how to use computers effectively and need to spend time on learning the
basics, like arithmetic and reading. After all, a baby has to crawl before she can walk.

6. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the speaker's argument?

A. a demonstration that computers can be used to teach reading and arithmetic
B. analysis of the cost-effectiveness of new computers versus repairing old computers
C. examples of adults who do not know how to use computers
D. recent grade reports of students in the computer classes
E. a visit to a classroom where computers are being used

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 347 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 7)
In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together
and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given
in the statement.
Give answer:
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows and
(E) If both I and II follow.

7. Statements: Modern man influences his destiny by the choice he makes unlike in the past.
Conclusions:
I. Earlier there were fewer options available to man.
II. There was no desire in the past to influence the destiny.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Direction (Q.No. 8)
In each of the following questions, two statements numbered I and II are given. There may be
cause and effect relationship between the two statements. These two statements may be the effect
of the same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without
having any relationship. Read both the statements in each question and mark your answer as
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect;
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes; and
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

8. Statements:
I. The prices of vegetables have been increased considerably during this summer.
II. There is tremendous increase in the temperature during this summer thereby damaging crops
greatly.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 348 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 9)
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

9. Statement: The regulatory authority has set up a review committee to find out the reasons for
unstable stock prices.
Assumptions:
I. The investors may regain confidence in stock market by this decision.
II. The review committee has the expertise to find out the causes for volatility in the stock
market.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (Q.Nos. 10 - 12)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

10. Statement: The present examination system needs overhauling thoroughly.

Assumptions:
I. The present examination system is obsolete.
II. Overhauling results in improvement.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 349 IUP Preparation

 11. Statement: I have written several letters to the branch manager regarding my account in the
bank but did not receive any reply so far.
Assumptions:
I. Branch manager is expected to read letters received from the customer.
II. Branch manager is expected to reply to the letters received from the customers.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

12. Statement: The end of a financial year is the ideal time to take a look at the performance of
various companies.
Assumptions:
I. All the companies take such a review at the end of a financial year.
II. The performance data of various companies is available.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Direction (Q.No. 13)

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
(A) If only assumption I is implicit
(B) If only assumption II is implicit
(C) If either I or II is implicit
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

13. Statement: Children, who get encouragement, usually perform better. - A note by the
Principal to the parents.
Assumptions:
I. Some parents do not encourage children.
II. Parents may follow Principal's advice.
A. Only assumption I is implicit
B. Only assumption II is implicit
C. Either I or II is implicit
D. Neither I nor II is implicit
E. Both I and II are implicit

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 350 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.Nos. 14 - 15)
In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information
given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for
pursuing.
Give answer
(A) If only I follows
(B) If only II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows
(E) If both I and II follow.

14. Statement: Exporters in the capital are alleging that commercial banks are violating a Reserve
Bank of Indonesia directive to operate a post shipment export credit denominated in foreign
currency at international rates from January this year.
Courses of Action:
I. The officers concerned in the commercial banks are to be suspended.
II. The RBI should be asked to stop giving such directives to commercial banks.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

15. Statement: Most of those who study in premier engineering colleges in Indonesia migrate to
developed nations for better prospects in their professional pursuits.
Courses of Action:
I. All the students joining these colleges should be asked to sign a bond at the time of admission
to the effect that they will remain in Indonesia at least for ten years after they complete education.
II. All those students who desire to settle in the developed nations should be asked to pay entire
cost of their education which the government subsidises.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 351 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 16)
In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II.
You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information
given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for
pursuing.
Give answer
(A) If only I follows
(B) If only II follows
(C) If either I or II follows
(D) If neither I nor II follows
(E) If both I and II follow.

16. Statement: The Union Ministry of Tourism and Civil Aviation has fixed an annual target of
Rs 10,000 crores by way of tourism earnings towards the end of the current decade.
Courses of Action:
I. There is no need of development of further new tourist spots to meet the target.
II. The Ministry should evolve attractive packages to woo the foreign tourists to meet the target.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Direction (Q.No. 17)

In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and
III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the three
given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

17. Statement: A large number of students who have passed their XII Std. terminal examination
in the country could not get admission to colleges as the number of seats available are grossly
inadequate.
Courses of Action:
I. The evaluation system of XII Std. terminal examination should be made more tough so that
fewer students pass the examination.
II. The Government should encourage the private sector to open new colleges by providing
them land at cheaper rate.
III. The rich people should be asked to send their wards to foreign countries for higher studies
enabling the needy students to get admission in colleges within the country.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only I and II follow
D. Only II and III follow
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 352 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 18)
In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III.
You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions, decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose your answer accordingly.

18. Statement: "A rare opportunity to be a professional while you are at home." - An
advertisement for computer literate housewives by a computer company.
Assumptions:
I. Some housewives simultaneously desire to become professional.
II. Computer industry is growing at a fast pace.
III. It is possible to be a professional as well as a housewife.
A. Only I and II are implicit
B. Only II and III are implicit
C. Only I and III are implicit
D. Only II is implicit
E. None of these

Direction (Q.Nos. 19 - 20)

In each of the following questions, three statements are given followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, III and TV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

19. Statements: All pencils are birds. All birds are skies. All skies are hills.
Conclusions:
I. All pencils are hills.
II. All hills are birds
III. All skies are pencils.
IV. All birds are hills.
A. Only I and II follow
B. Only I and III follow
C. Only III and IV follow
D. All follow
E. None of these

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 20. Statements: All myths are fictions. No fiction is novel. All novels are stories.
Conclusions:
I. No myth is novel.
II. Some fictions are novels.
III. Some fictions are myths.
IV. Some myths are novels.
A. Only either I or II and both III and IV follow
B. Only either I or IV and II follow
C. Only either I or IV and both II and III follow
D. All follow
E. None of these

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 LOGICAL 20

1. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

gorblflur means fan belt
pixngorbl means ceiling fan
arthtusl means tile roof
Which word could mean "ceiling tile"?
A. gorbltusl
B. flurgorbl
C. arthflur
D. pixnarth

2. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

hapllesh means cloudburst
srenchoch means pinball
resbosrench means ninepin
Which word could mean "cloud nine"?
A. leshsrench
B. ochhapl
C. haploch
D. haplresbo

3. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

agnoscrenia means poisonous spider
delanocrenia means poisonous snake
agnosdeery means brown spider
Which word could mean "black widow spider"?
A. deeryclostagnos
B. agnosdelano
C. agnosvitriblunin
D. trymuttiagnos

4. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

moolokarn means blue sky
wilkospadi means bicycle race
moolowilko means blue bicycle
Which word could mean "racecar"?
A. wilkozwet
B. spadiwilko

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 C. moolobreil
D. spadivolo

5. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

migenlasan means cupboard
lasanpoen means boardwalk
cuopdansa means pullman
Which word could mean "walkway"?
A. poenmigen
B. cuopeisel
C. lasandansa
D. poenforc

6. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

godabim means kidney stones
romzbim means kidney beans
romzbako means wax beans
Which word could mean "wax statue"?
A. godaromz
B. lazbim
C. wasibako
D. romzpeo

7. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

granamelke means big tree
pinimelke means little tree
melkehoon means tree house
Which word could mean "big house"?
A. granahoon
B. pinishur
C. pinihoon
D. melkegrana

8. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

daftafoni means advisement
imodafta means misadvise
imolokti means misconduct
Which word could mean "statement"?
A. kratafoni
B. kratadafta
C. loktifoni

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 D. daftaimo

9. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

lelibroon means yellow hat
plekafroti means flower garden
frotimix means garden salad
Which word could mean "yellow flower"?
A. lelifroti
B. lelipleka
C. plekabroon
D. frotibroon

10. Here are some words translated from an artificial language.

myncabel means saddle horse
conowir means trail ride
cabelalma means horse blanket
Which word could mean "horse ride"?
A. cabelwir
B. conocabel
C. almamyn
D. conoalma

11. Applying for Seasonal Employment occurs when a person requests to be considered
for a job that is dependent on a particular season or time of year. Which situation
below is the best example of Applying for Seasonal Employment?
A. The ski instructors at Top of the Peak Ski School work from December through
March.
B. Matthew prefers jobs that allow him to work outdoors.
C. Lucinda makes an appointment with the beach resort restaurant manager to
interview for the summer waitressing position that was advertised in the
newspaper.
D. Doug's ice cream shop stays open until 11 p.m. during the summer months.

12. Violating an Apartment Lease occurs when a tenant does something prohibited by
the legally binding document that he or she has signed with a landlord. Which
situation below is the best example of Violating an Apartment Lease?
A. Tim has decided to move to another city, so he calls his landlord to tell him that
he is not interested in renewing his lease when it expires next month.
B. Valerie recently lost her job and, for the last three months, has neglected to pay
her landlord the monthly rent they agreed upon in writing when she moved
into her apartment eight months ago.

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 C. Mark writes a letter to his landlord that lists numerous complaints about the
apartment he has agreed to rent for two years.
D. Leslie thinks that her landlord is neglecting the building in which she rents an
apartment. She calls her attorney to ask for advice.

13. An Informal Gathering occurs when a group of people get together in a casual,
relaxed manner. Which situation below is the best example of an Informal
Gathering?
A. The book club meets on the first Thursday evening of every month.
B. After finding out about his promotion, Jeremy and a few coworkers decide to
go out for a quick drink after work.
C. Mary sends out 25 invitations for the bridal shower she is giving for her sister.
D. Whenever she eats at the Mexican restaurant, Clara seems to run into Peter.

14. People speculate when they consider a situation and assume something to be true
based on inconclusive evidence. Which situation below is the best example of
Speculation ?
A. Francine decides that it would be appropriate to wear jeans to her new office on
Friday after reading about "Casual Fridays" in her employee handbook.
B. Mary spends thirty minutes sitting in traffic and wishes that she took the train
instead of driving.
C. After consulting several guidebooks and her travel agent, Jennifer feels
confident that the hotel she has chosen is first-rate.
D. When Emily opens the door in tears, Theo guesses that she's had a death in her
family.

15. Posthumous Publication occurs when a book is published after the author's death.
Which situation below is the best example of Posthumous Publication ?
A. Richard's illness took his life before he was able to enjoy the amazing early
reviews of his novel.
B. Melissa's publisher cancels her book contract after she fails to deliver the
manuscript on time.
C. Clarence never thought he'd live to see the third book in his trilogy published.
D. Elizabeth is honored with a prestigious literary award for her writing career
and her daughter accepts the award on behalf of her deceased mother.

16. A Guarantee is a promise or assurance that attests to the quality of a product that is
either (1) given in writing by the manufacturer or (2) given verbally by the person
selling the product. Which situation below is the best example of a Guarantee?
A. Melissa purchases a DVD player with the highest consumer ratings in its
category.

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 B. The salesperson advises Curt to be sure that he buys an air conditioner with a
guarantee.
C. The local auto body shop specializes in refurbishing and selling used cars.
D. Lori buys a used digital camera from her coworker who says that she will
refund Lori's money if the camera's performance is not of the highest quality.

17. The rules of baseball state that a batter Legally Completes His Time at Bat when he is
put out or becomes a base runner. Which situation below is the best example of a
batter Legally Completing His Time at Bat?
A. Jared's blooper over the head of the short-stop puts him in scoring position.
B. The umpire calls a strike, even though the last pitch was way outside.
C. The pitcher throws his famous knuckleball, Joe swings and misses, and the
umpire calls a strike.
D. The count is two balls and two strikes as Mario waits for the next pitch.

18. Erratic Behavior occurs when an individual acts in a manner that lacks consistency,
regularity, and uniformity. Which situation below is the best example of Erratic
Behavior?
A. Julia cannot contain her anger whenever the subject of local politics is
discussed.
B. Martin has just been told that he is being laid off. Before leaving his
supervisor's office, he punches a hole in the door.
C. Rhonda has visited the dealership several times, but she still cannot decide
which car to buy.
D. In the past month, Jeffrey, who has been a model employee for three years, has
repeatedly called in sick, forgotten important meetings, and been verbally
abusive to colleagues.

19. A Tiebreaker is an additional contest or period of play designed to establish a winner

among tied contestants. Which situation below is the best example of a Tiebreaker?
A. At halftime, the score is tied at 28.
B. Mary and Megan have each scored three goals in the game.
C. The referee tosses a coin to decide which team will have possession of the ball
first.
D. The Sharks and the Bears each finished with 14 points, and they are now
battling it out in a five-minute overtime.

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 20. In the Maple Hill school district, a Five-Day Suspension occurs when a student is not
permitted to attend school for five days for (1) physically assaulting another student,
a teacher, or a school employee or (2) willfully destructing or defacing school
property. Which situation below is the best example of a Five-Day Suspension?

A. Lillian gets caught cheating on a math test for the second time and is
suspended from school.
B. Marc is asked to leave the classroom due to his constant disruptions.
C. Franny uses spray paint to write derogatory comments on the locker room wall
and she is given a suspension.
D. Ms. Farmer tells her class that students who fail the midterm exam will be
expected to stay after school for tutoring help.

21. Eileen is planning a special birthday dinner for her husband's 35th birthday. She
wants the evening to be memorable, but her husband is a simple man who would
rather be in jeans at a baseball game than in a suit at a fancy restaurant. Which
restaurant below should Eileen choose?
A. Alfredo's offers fine Italian cuisine and an elegant Tuscan decor. Patrons will
feel as though they've spent the evening in a luxurious Italian villa.
B. Pancho's Mexican Buffet is an all-you-can-eat family style smorgasbord with
the best tacos in town.
C. The Parisian Bistro is a four-star French restaurant where guests are treated like
royalty. Chef Dilbert Olay is famous for his beef bourguignon.
D. Marty's serves delicious, hearty meals in a charming setting reminiscent of a
baseball clubhouse in honor of the owner,Marty Lester, a former major league
baseball all-star.

22. The film director wants an actress for the lead role of Lucy who perfectly fits the
description that appears in the original screenplay. He is not willing to consider
actresses who do not resemble the character as she is described in the screenplay, no
matter how talented they are. The screenplay describes Lucy as an average-sized,
forty something redhead, with deep brown eyes, very fair skin, and a brilliant smile.
The casting agent has four actresses in mind.
Actress #1 is a stunning red-haired beauty who is 5'9" and in her mid-twenties. Her
eyes are brown and she has an olive complexion.
Actress #2 has red hair, big brown eyes, and a fair complexion. She is in her mid-
forties and is 5'5".
Actress #3 is 5'4" and of medium build. She has red hair, brown eyes, and is in her
early forties.
Actress #4 is a blue-eyed redhead in her early thirties. She's of very slight build and
stands at 5'.

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 A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 2, 4

23. The school principal has received complaints from parents about bullying in the
school yard during recess. He wants to investigate and end this situation as soon as
possible, so he has asked the recess aides to watch closely. Which situation should
the recess aides report to the principal?
A. A girl is sitting glumly on a bench reading a book and not interacting with her
peers.
B. Four girls are surrounding another girl and seem to have possession of her
backpack.
C. Two boys are playing a one-on-one game of basketball and are arguing over the
last basket scored.
D. Three boys are huddled over a handheld video game, which isn't supposed to
be on school grounds.

24. Mrs. Carson took a taxi to meet her three friends for lunch. They were waiting for her
outside the restaurant when she pulled up in the car. She was so excited to see her
friends that she left her tote bag in the taxi. As the taxi pulled away, she and her
friends took notice of the license plate number so they would be able to identify the
car when they called the taxi company.
#1: The four women seem to agree that the plate starts out with the letter J.
#2: Three of them agree that the plate ends with 12L.
#3: Three of them think that the second letter is X, and a different three think that the
third letter is K.
The four license plate numbers below represent what each of the four women thinks
she saw. Which one is most likely the license plate number of the taxi?
A. JXK 12L
B. JYK 12L
C. JXK 12I
D. JXX 12L

25. Zachary has invited his three buddies over to watch the basketball game on his wide-
screen television. They are all hungry, but no one wants to leave to get food. Just as
they are arguing about who should make the food run, a commercial comes on for a
local pizze-ria that delivers. The phone number flashes on the screen briefly and they
all try to remember it. By the time Zachary grabs a pen and paper, each of them
recollects a different number.
#1: All of the men agree that the first three numbers are 995.

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 #2: Three of them agree that the fourth number is 9.
#3: Three agree that the fifth number is 2.
#4: Three agree that the sixth number is 6; three others agree that the seventh number
is also 6.

Which of the numbers is most likely the telephone number of the pizzeria?
A. 995-9266
B. 995-9336
C. 995-9268
D. 995-8266

26. Mark is working with a realtor to find a location for the toy store he plans to open in
his town. He is looking for a place that is either in, or not too far from, the center of
town and one that would attract the right kind of foot traffic. Which of the following
locations should Mark's realtor call to his attention?
A. a storefront in a new high-rise building near the train station in the center of
town whose occupants are mainly young, childless professionals who use the
train to commute to their offices each day.
B. a little shop three blocks away from the town's main street, located across the
street from an elementary school and next door to an ice cream store
C. a stand-alone storefront on a quiet residential street ten blocks away from the
town's center
D. a storefront in a small strip mall located on the outskirts of town that is also
occupied by a pharmacy and a dry cleaner

27. The neighborhood block association has received many complaints about people
knocking on doors and soliciting money for an unknown charity organization even
though door-to-door solicitation is prohibited by local laws. Three residents have
provided descriptions of individuals who have come to their door asking for money.
Solicitor #1 is a white male, 20-25 years old, 5'9", 145 pounds, with very short brown
hair. He was wearing a dark blue suit and carrying a brown leather briefcase.
Solicitor #2 is a white male, 25-30 years old, 6'2", 200 pounds, with a shaved-head. He
was wearing a red T-shirt and jeans.
Solicitor #3 is a white male, approximately 23 years old, 5'10", slight build, with short
brown hair. He was wearing a blue suit.
Three days after the block association meet- ing, a resident noticed a man knocking
on doors in the neighborhood and phoned the police to report the illegal activity.
This solic- itor was described as follows:
Solicitor #4 is a white male, 22 years old, 140 pounds, about 5'10", with short brown
hair. He was carrying a briefcase and wearing a dark suit.

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 Based on this description, which of the three solicitations was also likely carried out
by Solicitor #4?
A. #1, #2, and #3
B. #1, but not #2 and #3
C. #1 and #3, but not #2
D. #1 and #2, but not #3

28. Rita, an accomplished pastry chef who is well known for her artistic and exquisite
wedding cakes, opened a bakery one year ago and is surprised that business has
been so slow. A consultant she hired to conduct market research has reported that
the local population doesn't think of her shop as one they would visit on a daily basis
but rather a place they'd visit if they were celebrating a special occasion. Which of
the following strategies should Rita employ to increase her daily business?
A. making coupons available that entitle the coupon holder to receive a 25%
discount on wedding, anniversary, or birthday cakes
B. exhibiting at the next Bridal Expo and having pieces of one of her wedding
cakes available for tasting
C. placing a series of ads in the local newspaper that advertise the wide array of
breads
D. moving the bakery to the other side of town

29. Dr. Miller has a busy pediatric dentistry practice and she needs a skilled, reliable
hygienist to keep things running smoothly. The last two people she hired were
recommended by top dentists in the area, but they each lasted less than one month.
She is now in desperate need of a hygienist who can competently handle the specific
challenges of her practice. Which one of the following candidates should Dr. Miller
consider most seriously?
A. Marilyn has been a hygienist for fifteen years, and her current employer, who is
about to retire, says she is the best in the business. The clientele she has worked
with consists of some of the wealthiest and most powerful citizens in the
county.
B. Lindy recently graduated at the top of her class from one of the best dental
hygiene programs in the state. Prior to becoming a dental hygienist, Lindy
spent two years working in a day care center.
C. James has worked as a dental hygienist for three years in a public health clinic.
He is very interested in securing a position in a private dental office.
D. Kathy is an experienced and highly recommended dental hygienist who is also
finishing up a degree in early childhood education, which she hopes will get
her a job as a preschool teacher. She is eager to find a job in a pediatric practice,
since she has always wanted to work with children.

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 30. Mrs. Jansen recently moved to Arizona. She wants to fill her new backyard with
flowering plants. Although she is an experienced gardener, she isn't very well-versed
in what plants will do well in the Arizona climate. Also, there is a big tree in her
backyard making for shady conditions and she isn't sure what plants will thrive
without much direct sunlight. Her favorite gardening catalog offers several backyard
seed packages. Which one should Mrs. Jansen choose?
A. The Rainbow Collection is ideal for North-east gardens. It includes a variety of
colorful perennials that thrive in cool, moist conditions.
B. The Greenhouse Collection will blossom year after year if planted in brightly lit
locations and watered regularly.
C. The Treehouse Collection will provide lush green plants with delicate colorful
flowers that thrive in shady and partially shady locations.
D. The Oasis Collection includes a variety of perennials that thrive in dry climates
and bright sunlight.

31. Vincent has a paper route. Each morning, he delivers 37 newspapers to customers in
his neighborhood. It takes Vincent 50 minutes to deliver all the papers. If Vincent is
sick or has other plans, his friend Thomas, who lives on the same street, will
sometimes deliver the papers for him.
A. Vincent and Thomas live in the same neighborhood.
B. It takes Thomas more than 50 minutes to deliver the papers.
C. It is dark outside when Vincent begins his deliveries.
D. Thomas would like to have his own paper route.

32. The Pacific yew is an evergreen tree that grows in the Pacific Northwest. The Pacific
yew has a fleshy, poisonous fruit. Recently, taxol, a substance found in the bark of
the Pacific yew, was discovered to be a promising new anticancer drug.
A. Taxol is poisonous when taken by healthy people.
B. Taxol has cured people from various diseases.
C. People should not eat the fruit of the Pacific yew.
D. The Pacific yew was considered worthless until taxol was discovered.

33. Erin is twelve years old. For three years, she has been asking her parents for a dog.
Her parents have told her that they believe a dog would not be happy in an
apartment, but they have given her permission to have a bird. Erin has not yet
decided what kind of bird she would like to have.
A. Erin's parents like birds better than they like dogs.
B. Erin does not like birds.
C. Erin and her parents live in an apartment.
D. Erin and her parents would like to move.

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 34. Tim's commute never bothered him because there were always seats available on the
train and he was able to spend his 40 minutes comfortably reading the newspaper or
catching up on paperwork. Ever since the train schedule changed, the train has been
extremely crowded, and by the time the doors open at his station, there isn't a seat to
be found.
A. Tim would be better off taking the bus to work.
B. Tim's commute is less comfortable since the train schedule changed.
C. Many commuters will complain about the new train schedule.
D. Tim will likely look for a new job closer to home.

35. When they heard news of the hurricane, Maya and Julian decided to change their
vacation plans. Instead of traveling to the island beach resort, they booked a room at
a fancy new spa in the mountains. Their plans were a bit more expensive, but they'd
heard wonderful things about the spa and they were relieved to find availability on
such short notice.
A. Maya and Julian take beach vacations every year.
B. The spa is overpriced.
C. It is usually necessary to book at least six months in advance at the spa.
D. Maya and Julian decided to change their vacation plans because of the
hurricane.

36. Ten new television shows appeared during the month of September. Five of the
shows were sitcoms, three were hour-long dramas, and two were news-magazine
shows. By January, only seven of these new shows were still on the air. Five of the
shows that remained were sitcoms.
A. Only one of the news-magazine shows remained on the air.
B. Only one of the hour-long dramas remained on the air.
C. At least one of the shows that was cancelled was an hour-long drama.
D. Television viewers prefer sitcoms over hour-long dramas.

37. On weekends, Mr. Sanchez spends many hours working in his vegetable and flower
gardens. Mrs. Sanchez spends her free time reading and listening to classical music.
Both Mr. Sanchez and Mrs. Sanchez like to cook.
A. Mr. Sanchez enjoys planting and growing vegetables.
B. Mr. Sanchez does not like classical music.
C. Mrs. Sanchez cooks the vegetables that Mr. Sanchez grows.
D. Mrs. Sanchez enjoys reading nineteenth century novels.

38. Georgia is older than her cousin Marsha. Marsha's brother Bart is older than Georgia.
When Marsha and Bart are visiting with Georgia, all three like to play a game of
Monopoly. Marsha wins more often than Georgia does.

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 A. When he plays Monopoly with Marsha and Georgia, Bart often loses.
B. Of the three, Georgia is the oldest.
C. Georgia hates to lose at Monopoly.
D. Of the three, Marsha is the youngest.

39. Sara lives in a large city on the East Coast. Her younger cousin Marlee lives in the
Mid-west in a small town with fewer than 1,000 residents. Marlee has visited Sara
several times during the past five years. In the same period of time, Sara has visited
Marlee only once.
A. Marlee likes Sara better than Sara likes Marlee.
B. Sara thinks small towns are boring.
C. Sara is older than Marlee.
D. Marlee wants to move to the East Coast.

40. Tanya is older than Eric.

Cliff is older than Tanya.
Eric is older than Cliff.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

41. Blueberries cost more than strawberries.

Blueberries cost less than raspberries.
Raspberries cost more than strawberries and blueberries.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

42. All the trees in the park are flowering trees.

Some of the trees in the park are dogwoods.
All dogwoods in the park are flowering trees.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

43. Mara runs faster than Gail.

Lily runs faster than Mara.
Gail runs faster than Lily.

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 If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

44. Apartments in the Riverdale Manor cost less than apartments in The Gaslight
Commons.
Apartments in the Livingston Gate cost more than apartments in the The Gaslight
Commons.
Of the three apartment buildings, the Livingston Gate costs the most.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

45. The Kingston Mall has more stores than the Galleria.
The Four Corners Mall has fewer stores than the Galleria.
The Kingston Mall has more stores than the Four Corners Mall.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

46. All the tulips in Zoe's garden are white.

All the pansies in Zoe's garden are yellow.
All the flowers in Zoe's garden are either white or yellow
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

47. During the past year, Josh saw more movies than Stephen.
Stephen saw fewer movies than Darren.
Darren saw more movies than Josh.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

48. Rover weighs less than Fido.

Rover weighs more than Boomer.

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 Of the three dogs, Boomer weighs the least.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

49. All the offices on the 9th floor have wall-to-wall carpeting.
No wall-to-wall carpeting is pink.
None of the offices on the 9th floor has pink wall-to-wall carpeting.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

50. Class A has a higher enrollment than Class B.

Class C has a lower enrollment than Class B.
Class A has a lower enrollment than Class C.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

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 LOGICAL 21

Read the below passage carefully and answer the questions:

The government of an island nation is in the process of deciding how to spend its limited
income. It has $7 million left in its budget and eight programs to choose among. There is
no provision in the constitution to have a surplus, and each program has requested the
minimum amount they need; in other words, no program may be partially funded. The
programs and their funding requests are:
* Hurricane preparedness: $2.5 million
* Harbor improvements: $1 million
* School music program: $0.5 million
* Senate office building remodeling: $1.5 million
* Agricultural subsidy program: $2 million
* National radio: $0.5 million
* Small business loan program: $3 million
* International airport: $4 million

Senators from urban areas are very concerned about assuring that there will be funding
for a new international airport. Senators from rural areas refuse to fund anything until
money for agricultural subsidies is appropriated. If the legislature funds these two
programs, on which of the following could they spend the rest of the money?

1.
A. the school music program and national radio
B. hurricane preparedness
C. harbor improvements and the school music program
D. small business loan program
E. national radio and senate office building remodeling

2. If the legislature decides to fund the agricultural subsidy program, national radio, and
the small business loan program, what two other programs could they fund?
A. harbor improvements and international airport
B. harbor improvements and school music program
C. hurricane preparedness and school music program
D. hurricane preparedness and international airport
E. harbor improvements and hurricane preparedness

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 3. If the legislature decides to fund the agricultural subsidy program, national radio, and
the small business loan program, the only other single program that can be funded is
A. hurricane preparedness.
B. harbor improvements.
C. school music program.
D. senate office building remodeling.
E. international airport.

Read the below passage carefully and answer the questions:

At a small company, parking spaces are reserved for the top executives: CEO, president,
vice president, secretary, and treasurer with the spaces lined up in that order. The
parking lot guard can tell at a glance if the cars are parked correctly by looking at the
color of the cars. The cars are yellow, green, purple, red, and blue, and the executives
names are Alice, Bert, Cheryl, David, and Enid.
* The car in the first space is red.
* A blue car is parked between the red car and the green car.
* The car in the last space is purple.
* The secretary drives a yellow car.
* Alice's car is parked next to David's.
* Enid drives a green car.
* Bert's car is parked between Cheryl's and Enid's.
* David's car is parked in the last space.

4. Who is the secretary?

A. Enid
B. David
C. Cheryl
D. Bert
E. Alice

5. Who is the CEO ?

A. Alice
B. Bert
C. Cheryl
D. David
E. Enid

6. What color is the vice president's car?

A. green
B. yellow
C. blue

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 370 IUP Preparation

 D. purple
E. red

Read the below passage carefully and answer the questions:

Five cities all got more rain than usual this year. The five cities are: Last Stand, Mile City,
New Town, Olliopolis, and Polberg. The cities are located in five different areas of the
country: the mountains, the forest, the coast, the desert, and in a valley. The rainfall
amounts were: 12 inches, 27 inches, 32 inches, 44 inches, and 65 inches.
* The city in the desert got the least rain; the city in the forest got the most rain.
* New Town is in the mountains.
* Last Stand got more rain than Olliopolis.
* Mile City got more rain than Polberg, but less rain than New Town.
* Olliopolis got 44 inches of rain.
* The city in the mountains got 32 inches of rain; the city on the coast got 27 inches of rain.

7. Which city got the most rain?

A. Last Stand
B. Mile City
C. New Town
D. Olliopolis
E. Polberg

8. How much rain did Mile City get?

A. 12 inches
B. 27 inches
C. 32 inches
D. 44 inches
E. 65 inches

9. Which city is in the desert ?

A. Last Stand
B. Mile City
C. New Town
D. Olliopolis
E. Polberg

10. Where is Olliopolis located?

A. the mountains
B. the coast
C. in a valley
D. the desert

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 371 IUP Preparation

 E. the forest

Read the below passage carefully and answer the questions:

Five roommates Randy, Sally, Terry, Uma, and Vernon each do one housekeeping task
mopping, sweeping, laundry, vacuuming, or dusting one day a week, Monday through
Friday.
* Vernon does not vacuum and does not do his task on Tuesday.
* Sally does the dusting, and does not do it on Monday or Friday.
* The mopping is done on Thursday.
* Terry does his task, which is not vacuuming, on Wednesday.
* The laundry is done on Friday, and not by Uma.
* Randy does his task on Monday.

11. What task does Terry do on Wednesday?

A. vacuuming
B. dusting
C. mopping
D. sweeping
E. laundry

12. What day does Uma do her task?

A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Wednesday
D. Thursday
E. Friday

13. What task does Vernon do?

A. vacuuming
B. dusting
C. mopping
D. sweeping
E. laundry

14. What day is the vacuuming done?

A. Friday
B. Monday
C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday
E. Thursday

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 372 IUP Preparation

 15. When does Sally do the dusting?
A. Friday
B. Monday
C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday
E. Thursday

Each problem consists of three statements. Based on the first two statements, the third
statement may be true, false, or uncertain.

16. Tanya is older than Eric.

Cliff is older than Tanya.
Eric is older than Cliff.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

17. Blueberries cost more than strawberries.

Blueberries cost less than raspberries.
Raspberries cost more than strawberries and blueberries.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

18. All the trees in the park are flowering trees.

Some of the trees in the park are dogwoods.
All dogwoods in the park are flowering trees.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

19. Mara runs faster than Gail.

Lily runs faster than Mara.
Gail runs faster than Lily.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 373 IUP Preparation

 C. uncertain

20. Apartments in the Riverdale Manor cost less than apartments in The Gaslight
Commons.
Apartments in the Livingston Gate cost more than apartments in the The Gaslight
Commons.
Of the three apartment buildings, the Livingston Gate costs the most.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

21. A fruit basket contains more apples than lemons.

There are more lemons in the basket than there are oranges.
The basket contains more apples than oranges.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

22. The Shop and Save Grocery is south of Greenwood Pharmacy.

Rebecca's house is northeast of Greenwood Pharmacy.
Rebecca's house is west of the Shop and Save Grocery.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

23. Joe is younger than Kathy.

Mark was born after Joe.
Kathy is older than Mark.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

24. On the day the Barton triplets are born,

Jenna weighs more than Jason.
Jason weighs less than Jasmine.
Of the three babies, Jasmine weighs the most.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 374 IUP Preparation

 A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

25. The temperature on Monday was lower than on Tuesday.

The temperature on Wednesday was lower than on Tuesday.
The temperature on Monday was higher than on Wednesday
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

26. All Lamels are Signots with buttons.

No yellow Signots have buttons.
No Lamels are yellow.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

27. The hotel is two blocks east of the drugstore.

The market is one block west of the hotel.
The drugstore is west of the market.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

28. A toothpick is useful.

Useful things are valuable.
A toothpick is valuable.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

29. Tom puts on his socks before he puts on his shoes.

He puts on his shirt before he puts on his jacket.
Tom puts on his shoes before he puts on his shirt.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true

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 B. false
C. uncertain

30. Three pencils cost the same as two erasers.

Four erasers cost the same as one ruler.
Pencils are more expensive than rulers.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true
B. false
C. uncertain

The logic problems in this set present you with three true statements: Fact 1, Fact 2, and
Fact 3. Then, you are given three more statements (labeled I, II, and III), and you must
determine which of these, if any, is also a fact. One or two of the statements could be true;
all of the statements could be true; or none of the statements could be true. Choose your
answer based solely on the information given in the first three facts.

31.
Fact 1: All dogs like to run.
Fact 2: Some dogs like to swim.
Fact 3: Some dogs look like their masters.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a
fact?
I: All dogs who like to swim look like their masters.
II: Dogs who like to swim also like to run.
III: Dogs who like to run do not look like their masters.

A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.

32.
Fact 1: Jessica has four children
Fact 2: Two of the children have blue eyes and two of the children have brown eyes.
Fact 3: Half of the children are girls.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a
fact?
I: At least one girl has blue eyes.
II: Two of the children are boys.
III: The boys have brown eyes.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 376 IUP Preparation

 A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.

33.
Fact 1: All drink mixes are beverages.
Fact 2: All beverages are drinkable.
Fact 3: Some beverages are red.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a
fact?
I: Some drink mixes are red.
II: All beverages are drink mixes.
III: All red drink mixes are drinkable.
A. I and II only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. III only
E. None of the statements is a known fact.

34.
Fact 1: All chickens are birds.
Fact 2: Some chickens are hens.
Fact 3: Female birds lay eggs.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a
fact?
I: All birds lay eggs.
II: Some Hens are birds.
III: Some chickens are not hens.
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.

35.
Fact 1: All hats have brims.
Fact 2: There are black hats and blue hats.
Fact 3: Baseball caps are hats.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a
fact?
I: All caps have brims.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 377 IUP Preparation

 II: Some baseball caps are blue.
III: Baseball caps have no brims.
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. None of the statements is a known fact.

Read the question carefully and choose the correct answer.

36. Four defensive football players are chasing the opposing wide receiver, who has the
ball. Calvin is directly behind the ball carrier. Jenkins and Burton are side by side behind
Calvin. Zeller is behind Jenkins and Burton. Calvin tries for the tackle but misses and
falls. Burton trips. Which defensive player tackles the receiver?
A. Burton
B. Zeller
C. Jenkins
D. Calvin

37. A four-person crew from Classic Colors is painting Mr. Field's house. Michael is
painting the front of the house. Ross is in the alley behind the house painting the back.
Jed is painting the window frames on the north side, Shawn is on the south. If Michael
switches places with Jed, and Jed then switches places with Shawn, where is Shawn?
A. in the alley behind the house
B. on the north side of the house
C. in front of the house
D. on the south side of the house

38. In a four-day period Monday through Thursday each of the following temporary
office workers worked only one day, each a different day. Ms. Johnson was scheduled to
work on Monday, but she traded with Mr. Carter, who was originally scheduled to work
on Wednesday. Ms. Falk traded with Mr. Kirk, who was originally scheduled to work on
Thursday. After all the switching was done, who worked on Tuesday?
A. Mr. Carter
B. Ms. Falk
C. Ms. Johnson
D. Mr. Kirk

39. Four people witnessed a mugging. Each gave a different description of the mugger.
Which description is probably right?
A. He was average height, thin, and middle-aged.
B. He was tall, thin, and middle-aged.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 378 IUP Preparation

 C. He was tall, thin, and young.
D. He was tall, of average weight, and middle-aged.

40. Ms. Forest likes to let her students choose who their partners will be; however, no
pair of students may work together more than seven class periods in a row. Adam and
Baxter have studied together seven class periods in a row. Carter and Dennis have
worked together three class periods in a row. Carter does not want to work with Adam.
Who should be assigned to work with Baxter?
A. Carter
B. Adam
C. Dennis
D. Forest

41. At the baseball game, Henry was sitting in seat 253. Marla was sitting to the right of
Henry in seat 254. In the seat to the left of Henry was George. Inez was sitting to the left
of George. Which seat is Inez sitting in?
A. 251
B. 254
C. 255
D. 256

42. As they prepare for the state championships, one gymnast must be moved from the
Level 2 team to the Level 1 team. The coaches will move the gymnast who has won the
biggest prize and who has the most experience. In the last competition, Roberta won a
bronze medal and has competed seven times before. Jamie has won a silver medal and
has competed fewer times than Roberta. Beth has won a higher medal than Jamie and has
competed more times than Roberta. Michele has won a bronze medal, and it is her third
time competing. Who will be moved to the Level 1 team?
A. Roberta
B. Beth
C. Michele
D. Jamie

43. Four friends in the sixth grade were sharing a pizza. They decided that the oldest
friend would get the extra piece. Randy is two months older than Greg, who is three
months younger than Ned. Kent is one month older than Greg. Who should get the extra
piece of pizza?
A. Randy
B. Greg
C. Ned
D. Kent

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 379 IUP Preparation

 44. The high school math department needs to appoint a new chairperson, which will be
based on seniority. Ms. West has less seniority than Mr. Temple, but more than Ms.
Brody. Mr. Rhodes has more seniority than Ms. West, but less than Mr. Temple. Mr.
Temple doesn't want the job. Who will be the new math department chairperson?
A. Mr. Rhodes
B. Mr. Temple
C. Ms.West
D. Ms. Brody

45. Danielle has been visiting friends in Ridge-wood for the past two weeks. She is
leaving tomorrow morning and her flight is very early. Most of her friends live fairly
close to the airport. Madison lives ten miles away. Frances lives five miles away,
Samantha, seven miles. Alexis is farther away than Frances, but closer than Samantha.
Approximately how far away from the airport is Alexis?
A. nine miles
B. seven miles
C. eight miles

46. Nurse Kemp has worked more night shifts in a row than Nurse Rogers, who has
worked five. Nurse Miller has worked fifteen night shifts in a row, more than Nurses
Kemp and Rogers combined. Nurse Calvin has worked eight night shifts in a row, less
than Nurse Kemp. How many night shifts in a row has Nurse Kemp worked?
A. eight
B. nine
C. ten
D. eleven

47. Children are in pursuit of a dog whose leash has broken. James is directly behind the
dog. Ruby is behind James. Rachel is behind Ruby. Max is ahead of the dog walking
down the street in the opposite direction. As the children and dog pass, Max turns
around and joins the pursuit. He runs in behind Ruby. James runs faster and is alongside
the dog on the left. Ruby runs faster and is alongside the dog on the right. Which child is
directly behind the dog?
A. James
B. Ruby
C. Rachel
D. Max
D. six miles

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 380 IUP Preparation

 48.
Statements: No women teacher can play. Some women teachers are athletes
Conclusions:
I. Male athletes can play.
II. Some athletes can play.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

49.
Statements: All bags are cakes. All lamps are cakes.
Conclusions:
I. Some lamps are bags.
II. No lamp is bag.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

50.
Statements: All mangoes are golden in colour. No golden-coloured things are cheap.
Conclusions:
I. All mangoes are cheap.
II. Golden-coloured mangoes are not cheap.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

51.
Statements: Some kings are queens. All queens are beautiful.
Conclusions:
I. All kings are beautiful.
II. All queens are kings.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 381 IUP Preparation

 C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

52.
Statements: Some doctors are fools. Some fools are rich.
Conclusions:
I. Some doctors are rich
II. Some rich are doctors.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

53.
Statements: All branches are flowers. All flowers are leaves.
Conclusions:
I. All branches are leaves.
II. All leaves are branches.
III. All flowers are branches.
IV. Some leaves are branches.
A. None follows
B. Only I and IV follow
C. Only II and III follow
D. All follow

54.
Statements: Some bags are pockets. No pocket is a pouch.
Conclusions:
I. No bag is a pouch.
II. Some bags are not pouches.
III. Some pockets are bags.
IV. No pocket is a bag.
A. None follows
B. Only I and III follow
C. Only II and III follow
D. Only either I or IV follows
E. All follow

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 382 IUP Preparation

 55.
Statements: All aeroplanes are trains. Some trains are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. Some aeroplanes are chairs.
II. Some chairs are aeroplanes.
III. Some chairs are trains.
IV. Some trains are aeroplanes.
A. None follows
B. Only I and II follow
C. Only II and III follow
D. Only III and IV follow

56.
Statements: All politicians are honest. All honest are fair.
Conclusions:
I. Some honest are politicians.
II. No honest is politician.
III. Some fair are politicians.
IV. All fair are politicians.
A. None follows.
B. Only I follows.
C. Only I and II follow.
D. Only I and III follow

57.
Statements: Some clothes are marbles. Some marbles are bags.
Conclusions:
No cloth is a bag.
All marbles are bags.
Some bags are clothes.
No marble is a cloth.
A. Only either I or IV follows
B. Only either I or II follows
C. None follows
D. Only either I or III follows

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 383 IUP Preparation

 58.
Statements:All fruits are vegetables. All pens are vegetables. All vegetables are rains.
Conclusions:
All fruits are rains.
All pens are rains.
Some rains are vegetables.
A. None follows
B. Only I and II follow
C. Only II and III follow
D. Only I and III follow
E. All follow

59.
Statements: Some towels are brushes. No brush is soap. All soaps are rats.
Conclusions:
Some rats are brushes.
No rat is brush.
Some towels are soaps.
A. None follows
B. Only either I or II follows
C. Only II follows
D. Only I and III follow
E. None of these

60.
Statements: Some pictures are frames. Some frames are idols. All idols are curtains.
Conclusions:
Some curtains are pictures.
Some curtains are frames.
Some idols are frames.
A. Only I and II follow
B. Only II and III follow
C. Only I and III follow
D. All follow
E. None of these

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 384 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 22

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Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 386 IUP Preparation
Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 387 IUP Preparation
Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 388 IUP Preparation
Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 389 IUP Preparation
Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 390 IUP Preparation
Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 391 IUP Preparation
Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 392 IUP Preparation
Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 393 IUP Preparation
Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 394 IUP Preparation
 LOGICAL 23

1. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

2. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

3. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

4. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

5. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 395 IUP Preparation

 6. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

7. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

8. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

9. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

10. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

11. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 396 IUP Preparation

 12. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

13. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

14. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

15. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

16. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

17. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 397 IUP Preparation

 18. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

19. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

20. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 398 IUP Preparation

 LOGICAL 24

1. Rafi left home and cycled 10 km towards South, then turned right and cycled 5 km and then
again turned right and cycled 10 km. After this he turned left and cycled 10 km. How many
kilometers will he have to cycle to reach his home straight?
A. 10 km
B. 15 km
C. 20 km
D. 25 km

2. Some boys are sitting in three rows all facing North such that A is in the middle row. P is just
to the right of A but in the same row. Q is just behind of P while R is in the North of A. In which
direction of R is Q?
A. South
B. South-West
C. North-East
D. South-East

3. P is the brother of Q; P x Q means P is the father of Q and P - Q means P is the sister of Q,

which of the following relations shows that I is the niece of K?
A. K+Y+Z-I
B. K+YxI-Z
C. Z-IxY+K
D. KxY+I-Z

4.
1. A3P means A is the mother of P
2. A4P means A is the brother of P
3. A9P means A is the husband of P
4. A5P means A is the daughter of P
Which of the following means that K is the mother-in-law of M?
A. M9N3K4J
B. M9N5K3J
C. K5J9M3N
D. K3J9N4M

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 399 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.Nos. 5 - 6)
In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by
two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding
commonly known facts.
Give answer:
• (A) If only (1) conclusion follows
• (B) If only (2) conclusion follows
• (C) If either (1) or (2) follows
• (D) If neither (1) nor (2) follows and
• (E) If both (1) and (2) follow.

5. Statements: All the harmoniums are instruments. All the instruments are flutes.
Conclusions:
1. All the flutes are instruments.
2. All the harmoniums are flutes.
A. Only (1) conclusion follows
B. Only (2) conclusion follows
C. Either (1) or (2) follows
D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows
E. Both (1) and (2) follow

6. Statements: Some dogs are bats. Some bats are cats.

Conclusions:
1. Some dogs are cats.
2. Some cats are dogs.
A. Only (1) conclusion follows
B. Only (2) conclusion follows
C. Either (1) or (2) follows
D. Neither (1) nor (2) follows
E. Both (1) and (2) follow

7. A lotus flower always has

A. Mud
B. Petals
C. Root
D. Water

8. Which one of the following is always found in 'Bravery'?

A. Experience
B. Power
C. Courage
D. Knowledge

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 9. Which symbol will be on the face opposite to the face with symbol * ?

A. @
B. $
C. 8
D. +

Direction (Q.No. 10)

Below in each of the questions are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either
independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these
statements may be the effect of the other statements. Read both the statements and decide which of
the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Mark answer
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

10. Statements:
1. The employees of the biggest bank in the country have given an indefinite strike call starting
from the third of the next month.
2. The employees of the Central Government have withdrawn their week long demonstrations.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Direction (Q.Nos. 11 - 13)

Each of these questions given below contains three elements. These elements may or may not have
some inter linkage. Each group of elements may fit into one of these diagrams at (A), (B), (C), (D)
and/or (E). You have to indicate the group of elements which correctly fits into the diagrams.

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 11. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Teacher, Writer and
Musician ?
A.

B.

C.

D.

12. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Men, Rodents and
Living beings ?
A.

B.

C.

D.

13. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Lion, Dog and Snake ?
A.

B.

C.

D.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 402 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 14)
Study the following figure and answer the questions given below.

14. By which letter, the people who live in joint family but are neither married nor teachers are
represented ?
A. T
B. R
C. Q
D. S

Direction (Q.No. 15)

A cube is cut in two equal parts along a plane parallel to one of its faces. One piece is then
coloured red on the two larger faces and green on the remaining, while the other is coloured green
on two smaller adjacent faces and red on the remaining. Each is then cut into 32 cubes of same size
and mixed up.

15. How many cubes have two red and one green face on each ?
A. 0
B. 8
C. 16
D. 4

Direction (Q.Nos. 16 - 17)

In each word of the following questions consists of pair of words bearing a relationship among
these, from amongst the alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrate a similar relationship.

16. Sound : Muffled

A. Moisture : Humid
B. Colour : Faded
C. Despair : Anger
D. Odour : Pungent

17. Chalk : Blackboard

A. Type : Point
B. Table : Chair
C. Door : Handle
D. Ink : Paper

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 Direction (Q.No. 18)
Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Salma is to the left of Rani and to the right of
Bella. Maya is to the right of Rani. Rita is between Rani and Maya.

18. Who is sitting immediate right to Rita ?

A. Bella
B. Rani
C. Maya
D. Salma

Direction (Q.No. 19)

In an Exhibition seven cars of different companies - Cadillac, Ambassador, Fiat, Maruti, Mercedes,
Bedford and Fargo are standing facing to east in the following order :
1. Cadillac is next to right of Fargo.
2. Fargo is fourth to the right of Fiat.
3. Maruti car is between Ambassador and Bedford.
4. Fiat which is third to the left of Ambassador, is at one end.

19. Which one of the following is the correct position of Mercedes ?

A. Next to the left of Cadillac
B. Next to the left of Bedford
C. Between Bedford and Fargo
D. Fourth to the right of Maruti.

Direction (Q.No. 20)

Each of these questions are based on the information given below:
1. A ,B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a line facing to south - while M, N, O, P and Q are five
ladies sitting in a second line parallel to the first line and are facing to North.
2. B who is just next to the left of D, is opposite to Q.
3. C and N are diagonally opposite to each other.
4. E is opposite to O who is just next right of M.
5. P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite to D.
6. M is at one end of the line.

20. If B shifts to the place of E, E shifts to the place of Q, and Q shifts to the place of B, then who
will be the second to the left of the person opposite to O ?
A. Q
B. P
C. E
D. D

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 LOGICAL 25

1. P started from his house towards west. After walking a distance of 25 m. He turned to the
right and walked 10 m. He then again turned to the right and walked 15 m. After this he is to turn
right at 135o and to cover 30 m. In which direction should he go?
A. West
B. South
C. South-West
D. South-East

2. One day at 2 P.M. Marsya and Mirna were talking to each other face to face. If Marsya's
shadow was exactly to the left of Mirna, which direction Marsya was facing?
A. North
B. South
C. East
D. None of these

3. A's son B is married with C whose sister D is married to E the brother of B. How D is related
to A?
A. Sister
B. Daughter's-in-law
C. Sister-in-law
D. Cousin

4. Vina who is the sister-in-law of Alshad, is the daughter-in-law of Kalya. Deri is the father of
Sandi who is the only brother of Alshad. How Kalya is related to Alshad?
A. Mother-in-law
B. Aunt
C. Wife
D. None of these

5. A boy is sitting at the back seat of a car. When the driver suddenly starts moving the car (in
forward direction), the boy experiences a backward force?
A. Always
B. Never
C. Often
D. Sometimes

Direction (Q.No. 6)
The figure given on the left hand side in each of the following questions is folded to form a box.
Choose from the alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4) the boxes that is similar to the box formed.

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 6.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Direction (Q.No. 7)
Below in each of the questions are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either
independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these
statements may be the effect of the other statements. Read both the statements and decide which of
the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Mark answer
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

7. Statements:
I.Rural and semi-urban areas in the country have been suffering due to load-shedding for quite
some time.
II.If the Government is not able to overcome the power crisis, load-shedding will be extended even
to the urban areas.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

Direction (Q.No. 8)
Each of these questions given below contains three elements. These elements may or may not have
some inter linkage. Each group of elements may fit into one of these diagrams at (A), (B), (C), (D)
and/or (E). You have to indicate the group of elements which correctly fits into the diagrams.

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 8. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Hockey, Football and
Cricket ?
A.

B.

C.

D.

Direction (Q.Nos. 9 - 10)

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

9. Ice : Coldness :: Earth : ?

A. Weight
B. Jungle
C. Gravitation
D. Sea

10. Safe : Secure :: Protect : ?

A. Lock
B. Sure
C. Guard
D. Conserve

Direction (Q.Nos. 11 - 12)

In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

11. Computer : fqprxvht :: Language : ?

A. oxpixdig
B. ocqicyig
C. ocqixcjg
D. ocqixcig

12. ? : QEHMDF :: WIDELY : HVCDXK

A. FRINGE
B. STRING
C. FRANCE
D. DEMAND

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 407 IUP Preparation

 Direction (Q.No. 13)
In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

13. 68 : 130 :: ? : 350

A. 220
B. 224
C. 222
D. 226

Direction (Q.No. 14)

In each word of the following questions consists of pair of words bearing a relationship among
these, from amongst the alternatives, pick up the pair that best illustrate a similar relationship.

14. Numismatist : Coins

A. Jeweller : Jewels
B. Cartographer : Maps
C. Philatelist : Stamps
D. Geneticist : Chromosomes

Direction (Q.No. 15)

Each of these questions are based on the information given below:
1. A ,B, C, D and E are five men sitting in a line facing to south - while M, N, O, P and Q are five
ladies sitting in a second line parallel to the first line and are facing to North.
2. B who is just next to the left of D, is opposite to Q.
3. C and N are diagonally opposite to each other.
4. E is opposite to O who is just next right of M.
5. P who is just to the left of Q, is opposite to D.
6. M is at one end of the line.

15. If O and P, A and E and B and Q interchange their positions, then who will be the second
person to the right of the person who is opposite to the person second of the right of P ?
A. D
B. A
C. E
D. O

Direction (Q.No. 16)

Six girls are sitting in a circle facing to the centre of the circle. They are P, Q, R, S, T and V. T is not
between Q and S but some other one. P is next to the left of V. R is 4th to the right of P.

16. If P and R interchange their positions then which of the following pair will sit together ?
A. RT
B. PV
C. VT
D. QV

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 17. Which one will replace the question mark ?

A. 60
B. 46
C. 86
D. 75

18. Which one will replace the question mark ?

A. 262
B. 622
C. 631
D. 824

19. Which one will replace the question mark ?

A. 45
B. 29
C. 39
D. 37

20. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

1. Key
2. Door
3. Lock
4. Room
5. Switch on
A. 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
B. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 409 IUP Preparation

International Preparation Class

ENGLISH
REASONING
 ENGLISH 1

PASSAGE 1
From Salad to Symphony
[1]
Though they can often be seen lugging bags stuffed with fresh vegetables home from Beijing
markets, brothers Nan Weidong and Nan Weiping are not chefs – they are musicians. [A] Their
instruments of choice is considered rather unusual: a pan pipe fashioned from carrots, an ocarina
1
created from a sweet potato, other brightly colored vegetables. Gourds, daikon radishes, and
2
other vegetables, are used to round out the “orchestra”.
3
[2]
From an early age, the Nan brothers, raised on a vegetable farm in China’s Anhui province, who
were taught to play conventional musical instruments by their father, a music teacher. [B] The
4
sibling’s love of music and passion for performance led them to begin experimenting with vegetable
musical instruments a few years ago.
[3]
Working by hand while constructing their edible instruments, the brothers manually bore holes
5
into the vegetables by using long metal drill bits, snacking on discarded pieces as they work. [C]
Weiping says that to create a low pitch, which makes a deep hole. Nonetheless, a high pitch requires a
6 7
shallow hole. Other factors, like, the diameter of the hole and changes in air temperature and
8

humidity, also effects the sound quality.

9
[4]
[1] A newly picked vegetable that sits at the market for even one day may lose much of its water
content, producing a pitch that is out of tune. [2] Because of this, the brothers must carve a fresh
10
set of instruments before each performance. [3] Still, the most critical ingredient in creating high-quality
12
sound, Weidong says, is the vegetables’ high water content.
11
[5]
While the brothers’ musical repertoire is as varied as their instruments, ranging from
13
traditional Chinese flute music to modern pop songs. [D] They maintain that different vegetables have
different scales and are therefore suited to different types of music. Since 2011, the Nan brothers have

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 performed regularly, playing a wide variety of music on their edible instruments and bringing a whole
14
new meaning to the idea of playing with your food.

1.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Does seem
C. Are
D. Is

2. Which choice best maintains the pattern established in the sentence’s two previous examples?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Vegetable instruments of all shapes and sizes
C. A flute made from a bamboo shoot
D. certain type of root vegetable

3.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Other; vegetables are used
C. Other vegetables are used
D. Other vegetables are used

4.
A. NO CHANGE
B. were
C. and were
D. DELETE the underlined portion

5.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Eating unused vegetable parts while they construct
C. Using metal tools to construct
D. To construct

6.
A. NO CHANGE
B. having made
C. by making
D. he makes

7.
A. NO CHANGE
B. conversely,
C. otherwise,
D. Even so,

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 412 IUP Preparation

 8.
A. NO CHANGE
B. factors – like
C. factors, like
D. factors like

9.
A. NO CHANGE
B. affects
C. affect
D. effect

10.
A. NO CHANGE
B. such vegetables produce
C. it will produce
D. this produces

11.
A. NO CHANGE
B. sound, Weidong says,
C. sound Weidong says,
D. sound Weidong says

12. Which sequence of sentences makes this paragraph most logical?

A. NO CHANGE
B. 1, 3, 2
C. 2, 1, 3
D. 3, 1, 2

13.
A. NO CHANGE
B. With the brothers’ musical repertoire being
C. Having the brothers’ musical repertoire be
D. The brothers’ musical repertoire is

14. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following true statement:
Each pitch is tested and perfected with the help of an old electronic tuner.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A. Yes, because it supports the idea that the brothers exercise care and attention to detail as they
craft their vegetable instruments.
B. Yes, because it helps explain how vegetables can be turned into precise musical instruments
C. No, because it provides information about the process of creating instruments that is not
relevant at this point in the essay.
D. No, because it conflicts with the idea that the brothers have a strong musical background.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 413 IUP Preparation

 Question 15 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.

15. The writer wants to add the following sentence to the essay:
As teenagers, they performed with a local theater company.
The sentence would most logically be placed at:
A. Point A in paragraph 1
B. Point B in paragraph 2
C. Point C in paragraph 3
D. Point D in paragraph 5

PASSAGE II
Nature Meets Art
[1]
Located in Olympic Sculpture Park in Seattle, artist Mark Dion’s Neukom Vivarium has been called
a combination of art and ecology, sculpture and nature. The installation contains a sixty-foot-long nurse
log, it is a slowly decaying piece of tree trunk that provides a home and nutrients for
16
young plants and supports a variety of microbial life. [A] This single long offers visitors to the urban
17

park, a glimpse into the complicated cycle of life unfolding in the forests outside the city.
18
[2]
Vivarium comes from the Latin word vivus, which means “alive” – a fitting description for a piece
of art that exemplifies a thriving forest ecosystem. [B] Dion found the log, part of a western hemlock
lying in a Washington forest, and, transporting it to the city along with some of the soil,
19 20
fungi, and plants that had surrounded the tree. [C] Working with a team of scientists and architects,
Dion installed the log in a specially constructed eighty-foot-long greenhouse. The greenhouse is
customized with magnifying glasses and microscopes that disclose minute details of the life supported
by the log. Repeated visits to the installation reveals the larger process of decay and
21 22
Transformation.
[3]
In the wild, this complex, interconnected system of life would have had no trouble sustaining it
self. In the city, however, maintaining the nurse log requires a great number of energy and
23
technology. [D] Humidity is electronically monitored, the soil is
constantly replenished with nutrients and sunlight is filtered through green-hued glass designed to
24

25
mimic the color of a forest canopy.

[4]
For Dion, the amount of work in the middle of a busy city required to sustain this ecosystem
26
conveys an importants message. According with the artist, the constant effort substitutes for what
27

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 Nature does instinctively, which highlights the fact that “it’s incredibly difficult, expensive, and
technological to approximate that system.” In other words, nature, once destroyed is virtually
28
impossible to reconstructs.

16.
A. NO CHANGE
B. the turn “nurse log” is defined as
C. this type of log is
D. DELETE the underlined portion

17.
A. NO CHANGE
B. log, in addition to acting as a home and providing
C. massive piece of tree (a sixty-foot log) offers visitors
D. decaying nurse log offers visitors who come

18.
A. NO CHANGE
B. park a glimpse into the complicated cycle of life
C. park a glimpse into the complicated cycle of life,
D. park, a glimpse into the complicated cycle of life,

19.
A. NO CHANGE
B. laying within
C. lying with
D. laying in

20.
A. NO CHANGE
B. and, to transport
C. and transported
D. transported

21.
A. NO CHANGE
B. log, repeating
C. log repeating
D. log, repeated

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 415 IUP Preparation

 22.
A. NO CHANGE
B. has revealed
C. is revealing
D. reveal

23.
A. NO CHANGE
B. a great amount in
C. great amounts of
D. great numbers in

24.
A. NO CHANGE
B. constantly provided with and restrored by nutrients on a regular basis
C. often constantly replenished with healthful nutrients
D. constantly replenished with restorative nutrients regularly

25. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the paragraph would primarily lose a
statement that:
A. explains why good air quality and healthy soil are necessary to maintain nature-based exhibits
B. illustrates how much effort is required to ensure that the exhibit survives in an urban setting
C. describes how the greenhouse is more important to the installation than is the nurse log
D. emphasizes how difficult it was for Dion to build the greenhouse

26. The best placement for the underlined portion would be:
A. where it is now,
B. before the word the,
C. after the word this,
D. after the word ecosystem.

27.
A. NO CHANGE
B. In accordance with
C. In accord with
D. According to

28.
A. NO CHANGE
B. destroyed, is virtually,
C. destroyed, is virtually
D. destroyed is virtually,

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 416 IUP Preparation

 Questions 29 and 30 ask about the preceding passage as a whole

29. The writer is considering adding the following parenthetical information to the essay:
(The Neukom in the installation’s title refers to the name of the work’s patrons.)
If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most logically be placed at:
A. Point A in paragraph 1
B. Point B in paragraph 2
C. Point C in paragraph 2
D. Point D in paragraph 3

30. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to describe how one artist uses a work of art
to educate people about an issue the artist feels is important. Would this essay accomplish that
purpose?
A. Yes, because it describes how Dion saw that local forests were being destroyed and the decided
to make a sculpture out of a fallen tree.
B. Yes, because it describes Dion’s nature-based installation and explains the massage Dion hopes
to convey through Neukom Vivarium
C. No, because it focuses on what Dion’s installation looks like and how it contributes to the
Olympic Sculpture Park.
D. No, because it fails to indicate what Neukom Vivarium’s viewers actually learn from the
Installation

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 ENGLISH 2

PASSAGE I
Internet Gain: Andreessen’s Mosaic
Before Mosaic – the web browser widely credited with popularizing the World Wide Web – was
invented, the Internet wasn’t user-friendly. Internet navigation required knowledge of specific
1
typed commands; online documents, consisting almost entirely of text, were hard to locate and
download. Given these obstructive hindrances, many people assumed the web would remain the
2
domain of technology experts and never have mass appeal. Marc Andressen believed the opposite
3

4
everyone would want the Internet.
As a student worker, for the National Center for Supercomputing Application, (NCSA) at the
5

University of Illinois, Andressen became enthralled by the Internet. In 1992, he conceived of a

6

Browser that would simplify web navigation. Rather than typing specific commands, people would be
able to access different web pages by clicking on icons. He showed his idea to fellow student Eric Bina,
who helped refine the program. The two then worked with the NCSA to develop Mosaic,
which became available in 1993. Free to anyone with an Internet connection, Mosaic quickly became
7
popular. Approximately 60.000 copies of the browser were downloaded in its first year.
8
Mosaic was soon not the first web browser, but it surpassed all rivals. Unlike other browsers,
9
Mosaic was easy to install, and it worked on every operating system. It was the first browser to display
10
pictures and text on the same page . Featuring hyperlinks, the user of the program was
11

able to visit other web pages with one click. “With Mosaic,” said one writer, “the online world appears
12
to be a vast, interconnected universe of information.”
Even though it gave way to other, more sophisticated browsers within a few years, Mosaic
showed average users the significance of the Internet. Comparatively, its simplicity encouraged
13
people to create and upload their own content. In the year Mosaic was discharged, 623 websites
14
existed. Four years later, there were more than 600.000.
15

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 418 IUP Preparation

 1.
A. NO CHANGE
B. navigation, which required
C. navigation that required
D. navigation requiring

2.
A. NO CHANGE
B. What with the problematic issues,
C. Because of these difficulties
D. Owing to the messiness

3.
A. NO CHANGE
B. opposite; because
C. opposite;
D. opposite

4. Which of the following statements, if added here, would provide the best transition to the
discussion of Andreessen’s browser?
A. He thought Internet speeds would eventually increase
B. The amount of information online was immense
C. Few people had Internet access at the time
D. People just needed the right tool

5.
A. NO CHANGE
B. worker, for the National Center for Supercomputing Applications, (NCSA)
C. worker for the National Center for Supercomputing Applications, (NCSA),
D. worker for the National Center for Supercomputing Applications (NCSA)

6. Which choice most strongly conveys that Andreessen developed a strong affinity for the
Internet?
A. NO CHANGE
B. first gained access to
C. spent many hours on
D. saw the utility of

7.
A. NO CHANGE
B. the NCSA made the program
C. they made Mosaic
D. it became

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 419 IUP Preparation

 8.
A. NO CHANGE
B. That year, approximately 60,000 copies of the browser
C. Approximately 60,000 copies of the browser (Mosaic)
D. Approximately, but not exactly, 60,000 copies of the browser

9. The best placement for the underlined portion would be:

A. where it is now
B. after the word Mosaic
C. after the word browser (and before the comma)
D. after the word it.

10. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following phrase (adjusting the punctuation
as needed):
Adding much-needed visual appeal
Should the writer make this addition?
A. Yes, because it reveals that Mosaic was the first browser to display pictures alongside text
B. Yes, because it emphasizes that using Mosaic made web browsing more enjoyable.
C. No, because it implies that the text-based documents on the Internet weren’t useful
D. No, because it suggests that, initially, Mosaic was similar to other web browsers

11.
A. NO CHANGE
B. the program’s user was enabled
C. the program enabled the user
D. it was easy for the user

12. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the essay would primarily lose a statement
that:
A. argues that, before Mosaic, few people searched the Internet for information
B. specifies some of the features that made Mosaic popular among its users
C. credits Mosaic with making the Internet feel more coherent to users
D. compares the designs of later web browsers to Mosaic’s design

13.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Moreover,
C. Conversely,
D. Instead,

14.
A. NO CHANGE
B. relinguished,
C. released,
D. emitted

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 15. Given that all the choices are true, which one best concludes the essay by using specific
information to complete the constrast begun in the previous sentence?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Mosaic’s point-and-click interface revolutionized the way people used the Internet
C. Adreessen would go on to develop another highly successful web browser
D. Since then, the web has expanded at an exponential rate.

PASSAGE II
A Poetic Olympics
[1]
During athletic festivals in ancient Greece, great poets were placed alongside champion
16
athletes. This has never been true of the modern Olympic Games. [A] The Olympic literary competition,
reintroduced in 1912 in Stockholm and included in the Games for decades,
is poorly remembered and rarely missed. The only genuine public excitement for even the
17
very first modern, Olympic literary contest was focused on the scandal surrounding the winning
18
poem. [B]
[2]
French aristocrat Baron Pierre de Coubertin, who in 1896 founded the modern Olympic Games,
he insisted that talent in the fine arts was as important as skill in athletics. After years of opposition
19
from officials whom felt that the modern Games should focus solely on athletics, Coubertin
20
implemented fine arts competitions, known as the Pentathlon of Muses, in 1912. [C] For the literary
contest, it would submit an unpublished work; Coubertin did not establish a length requirement.
21 22
After a long deliberation during the literary event’s first year; finally judges named duo George
23

Hohrod and Martin Eschbach as gold medalists for their poem “Ode to Sport.”
[3]
The judges, so impressed by “Ode to sport” that they called it “the perfect poem,” refused to award
24
either silver or bronze medals to any other literary competitors. Weeks, after the Games had come to
25
an end, the judges attempted to contact Hohrod and Eschbach given that the two had not come forward
to receive their medals. The judges discovered that neither author existed. A few years later,
26

27
Coubertin admitted that he himself had submitted “the perfect poem” pseudonymously.
[4]
The judges argued that they did not know that Coubertin had written “Ode to Sport.” But once
Coubertin’s ruse was uncovered, distrust for the already unpopular competition expanded as a result
28
– and the feeling endured. [D] The literary competition was dropped after the 1948 London Games.
Many of the winning poems have since vanished, with only their titles remaining. Few literary
historians think that much has been lost.

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 16. Which choice most clearly emphasizes the overwhelm-ingly positive reception great poets
enjoyed during athletic festivals in ancient Greece?
A. NO CHANGE
B. celebrated
C. accepted
D. liked

17. Given that all the chonces are accurate which one best connects this sentence to the information
that follows in the next sentence?
A. NO CHANGE
B. was featured along with competitions in music composition, architecture, sculpture, and
painting.
C. is sometimes commented upon when the Olympie Games are held today.
D. was an homage to the traditions of the people of ancient Greece

18.
A. NO CHANGE
B. very, first, modern Olympic
C. very first, modern Olympic,
D. very first modern Olympc

19.
A. NO CHANGE
B. insistent in his belief
C. insisting
D. insisted

20.
A. NO CHANGE
B. themselves whom
C. who
D. which

21.
A. NO CHANGE
B. competitors
C. those
D. they

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 422 IUP Preparation

 22. given that all the choices are accurate, which one provides information about the Olympic
literary contest that is most clearly relevant at this point in the essay?
A. NO CHANGE
B. work. At the Olympic Games in Paris in 1924, a poem about fencing called “Sword Songs” was
the winning piece.
C. work, though critics mocked some of the limitations placed on writers.
D. work, preferably a poem, that was “inspired by the idea of sport.”

23.
A. NO CHANGE
B. year, judges
C. year, then judges
D. year, Judges

24.
A. NO CHANGE
B. judges, and having been
C. judges had been
D. judges were

25.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Weeks after the Games had come to an end,
C. Weeks, after the Games had come to an end
D. Weeks after the Games had come to an end

26. Given that all the choices are true, which one most effectively leads the reader from the
information about Hohrod and Eschbach in the preceding sentence to the information about
Coubertin in the next sentence?
A. NO CHANGE
B. After “Ode to Sport” won, Swedish art academies claimed that the contest, with its Thematic
focus on sport, lacked purpose.
C. Submissions began to arrive in anticipation of the next Olympic literary competition.
D. The judges had read the winning poem, “Ode to Sport,” aloud to spectators.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 423 IUP Preparation

 27. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence:
The founder of the modern Olympic Games, Coubertin was also the person who brought about the
fine arts competitions.
Given that the information is true, should the writer make this addition here?
A. Yes, because it makes clear why Coubertin didn’t include his real name on his poetry
Submission.
B. Yes, because it suggests that Coubertin knew that the poem he submitted was particularly Well
written.
C. No, because it repeats information about Coubertin that is provided earlier in the essay
D. No, because it doesn’t make clear whether Coubertin had discussed “Ode to Sport” with the
judges of the literary competition

28.
A. NO CHANGE
B. increased even though dislike of it was not new –
C. grew –
D. blew up because of this unveiling –

Questions 29 and 30 ask about the preceding passage as a whole

29. The writer is considering adding the following sentence to the essay:
Over the years, the contest attracted many people who wanted to be poets but few talented poets,
and even contest organizers began to doubt the quality of the submissions.
If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most logically be placed at:
A. Point A in paragraph 1
B. Point B in paragraph 1
C. Point C in paragraph 2
D. Point D in paragraph 4

30. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to explain a lesser-known aspect of a widely
known event. Would this essay accomplish that purpose?
A. Yes, because it outlines Coubertin’s most important accomplishments as the founder of the
Modern Olympic Games.
B. Yes, because it describes an element of the modern Olympic Games that was relatively Short
lived and is not very well remembered
C. No, because it instead considers the merits of fine arts competitions being a part of Popular
athletic events
D. No, because it instead discusses the poem “Ode to Sport” and explains why the poem
Influenced Coubertin to compete in literary competitions

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 ENGLISH 3

PASSAGE I
What Elephants Learn
Cynthia Moss has been studying elephants, since 1972 when she started the now-famous
1 2

Amboseli Elephant Research Project in Amboseli National Park in Kenya. An author, lecturer,
filmmaker, and a fierce advocate for elephants—which face a daunting array of threats to their survival,
from droughts to human encroachment Moss is widely considered an expert on the social behavior
3

4
of these creatures. A key finding from her intensive, field, studies is the extent to which elephant
5
survival depends on learned behavior.
As Moss has observed, however, a calf must learn how to use its trunk. At first a young elephant
6
will drink by kneeling down at the water's edge and it sipped directly with its mouth. The habit of
7
pulling water into its trunk. Then releasing that water into its mouth develops only after months
8

as if witnessing other elephants doing so.

9

On occasion, Moss will see a calf stick its trunk into the mouth of its mother and pull out a bit of
whatever plant material she is eating. In this way, the calf learns what kinds of vegetation are safe to
eat on the savanna, where poisonous plants also grow.
[1] Elephants live in family groups, each one headed by a matriarch. [2] This senior female
teaches adolescent females by modeling proper care of younger elephants. [3] One of Moss's most
memorable observations in which this regard involved three elephants. [4] These were a matriarch,
10
Echo, and two offspring: Enid, a ten-year-old female, and Ely, also named by Moss. [5] Echo showed
11

Enid how to care for Ely by staying close to him when he was feeding and sleeping and by running to
his aid when he signaled his distress. [6] Ely not only overcame his early limitations, but he also grew
12
up to be a confident young bull. [7] Ely was born with deformed feet that initially prevented him from
13
walking.
Moss has brought compelling stories and information about elephants is provided to an
14
ever-expanding audience. She hopes others will in turn become advocates for the animals she admires
and understands in ways few others do.

1. 2.
A. NO CHANGE A. NO CHANGE
B. elephants, since 1972, B. more-then-famous
C. elephants since 1972, C. now famously
D. elephants' since 1972 D. famously

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 3.
A. NO CHANGE
B. encroachment—
C. encroachment:
D. encroachment,

4. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following true statement:
Humans are among the threats to the animal's survival.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A. Yes, because it presents a crucial factor in determining Moss's interest in working with
elephants.
B. Yes, because it introduces the idea that becomes the focus of the rest of the essay.
C. No, because the essay is focused on elephants and does not otherwise mention a human
presence in their lives.
D. No, because this information is already provided in the paragraph.

5. 10.
A. NO CHANGE A. NO CHANGE
B. intensive field studies B. in this regard
C. intensive field studies, C. ones that
D. intensive, field studies D. which

6. 11.
A. NO CHANGE A. NO CHANGE
B. for instance, B. a baby male.
C. as always, C. an elephant.
D. by now, D. the third.

7. 12.
A. NO CHANGE A. NO CHANGE
B. which it sips B. he also will have grown
C. and sipping C. he also had grown
D. that sips D. also growing

8. 13. For the sake of logic and cohesion, the best

A. NO CHANGE placement for Sentence 7 would be:

B. trunk and then A. where it is now.

B. before Sentence 1.
C. trunk then by
C. after Sentence 3.
D. trunk
D. after Sentence 4.
9.
14.
A. NO CHANGE
A. NO CHANGE
B. when witnessing
B. is given by her to
C. of witnessing
C. is reaching
D. then witness
D. to

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 Question 15 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.

15. Suppose the writer's goal had been to write a brief essay focusing on some aspect of animal
behavior in the wild. Would this essay accomplish that goal?
A. Yes, because the essay focuses on Moss's research on how elephants on the savanna learn to
identify their various family members.
B. Yes, because the essay focuses on elephants on the savanna and some of the behaviors they
display. as studied by Moss.
C. No, because the essay focuses instead on how elephants have evolved in Kenya as compared
to how they have evolved in other parts of Africa.
D. No, because the essay focuses on elephants that Moss studies in zoos around the world.

PASSAGE II
The following paragraphs may or may not be in the most logical order. Each paragraph is numbered
in brackets, and question 29 will ask you to choose where Paragraph 2 should most logically be
placed.

Ghost Signs
[1]
Seeing remnants of outdoor advertisements from a bygone era, they are called "ghost signs."
16 17
I search for them on city streets, in town squares, and along country roads. Some are weather-beaten
billboards; others are faded murals painted years ago on the sides of old buildings. Whatever words
remain Fruiterer . . . Apothecary . . . Gramophones . . . Pan-Handle Coffee—are often barely legible, pale
18
fragments of yesterday's consumer culture should strike me as silly or sad. After all, there they are:
19
advertising products and businesses that no longer exist. Yet, they themselves survive without
20
apology, with instead, their simple claims and complex colors. The contrast draws me in every time.
21
[2]
I collect ghost signs. Not the signs themselves, but photos of them. Driving home from school
one chilly October evening, my collection got its start. I had made the same drive countless times before,
22
but I had never noticed the sign.
[3]
Then there it was, an ad for "Joe's Café," perched atop a metal pole, which was upright under a
23
cape of kudzu vines. Maybe it was the way the setting sun's illumination of the yellowing plastic.
24
Maybe it was the small hole, a clue to vandalism or of a hailstorm. Instead, something about the sign
25 26
touched me. I pulled over. In the twilight, I got out of the car, snapped a picture with my phone, and
sent it to some friends. I vowed to return with my camera to better capture the forlorn, luminous beauty
of my discovery. Since that dusky evening. I have been happily haunted by ghost signs.
[4]

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 Once in a while, I take a friend with me on my searches. People who know of my fascination will point
me to where they think they have seen a ghost sign. Favorite finds include an ad for sliced bread, one
for a "modern" motel, and yet another for fountain pen repair services. As fun as it is to have company,
my best hunts have been solitude trips. I appreciate the beauty of ghost signs more when
27
I like the signs, am alone.
28

16.
A. NO CHANGE
B. The sight of remnants
C. To see remnants
D. Remnants

17.
A. NO CHANGE
B. era that is no more,
C. era of another time,
D. era of times past,

18.
A. NO CHANGE
B. remain—
C. remain,
D. remain:

19.
A. NO CHANGE
B. that should
C. they should
D. should they

20.
A. NO CHANGE
B. products and businesses,
C. products, and businesses
D. products: businesses

21.
A. NO CHANGE
B. apology, with, instead,
C. apology with instead,
D. apology with instead

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 22.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Driving home from school one chilly October evening was the beginning of my collection.
C. I started my collection one chilly October evening, driving home from school.
D. The start of my collection came to me driving home from school one chilly October evening.

23. Given that all the choices are accurate, which one echoes a central point the writer makes about
ghost signs?
A. NO CHANGE
B. was not what interested me,
C. might have been wood,
D. was disappearing

24.
A. NO CHANGE
B. illuminating setting sun on
C. sun illuminated the set on
D. setting sun illuminated

25.
A. NO CHANGE
B. evidence of
C. evidently
D. DELETE the underlined portion.

26.
A. NO CHANGE
B. On the other hand, something
C. Meanwhile, something
D. Something

27.
A. NO CHANGE
B. solitarily
C. solitaire
D. solo

28.
A. NO CHANGE
B. I, like, the signs
C. I, like the signs,
D. I like, the signs,

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 Questions 29 and 30 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.

29. For the sake of logic and cohesion, Paragraph 2 should be placed:
A. where it is now.
B. before Paragraph 1.
C. after Paragraph 3.
D. after Paragraph 4.

30. Suppose the writer's primary purpose had been to describe starting and enjoying a new hobby.
Would this essay accomplish that purpose?
A. Yes, because it presents the event that led to the narrator becoming interested in finding ghost
signs and taking photographs of them.
B. Yes, because it describes the narrator's experience of learning from a friend where to find ghost
signs and how much fun the search itself can be.
C. No, because it uses negative terms such as lonely and forlorn to describe the narrator's
experience of collecting ghost signs.
D. No, because it instead describes two hobbies—photography and collecting ghost signs—and
does not indicate which one gave the narrator more pleasure.

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 ENGLISH 4

PASSAGE I
Blue Holes of the Bahamas
[1]
The Bahamas, a series of semitropical islands off the southeast coast of the United
States, which are home to some of the most unusual geological formations in the world: underwater
1
caves known as blue holes. [A] These vertical caves were formed over thousands of years, and their
cold depths provide abundant clues to the islands' past.
[2]
2
During the formation process. tiny grains of calcium carbonate separated from the
seawater. These grains built up, then compacted, forming the limestone that makes up the islands.
3

[B] Over time, rainwater permeated the porous limestone but was trapped just above sea level,
buoyed by the denser seawater below. Jostled back and forth by tides, the layer of slightly acidic,
4
brackish water eroded limestone faster than either rainwater—or seawater—could alone. As the
5
limestone eroded caves formed.
6
[3]
Over time periods in which the weather changed drastically, sea levels rose and fell by hundreds
7
of feet. This allowed the cave-creating process to be a process that repeated at different depths hundreds
8
of feet apart. The roofs of many caves collapsed, leaving the chambers beneath exposed. Some of these
10
blue holes open to small contained caves others open to miles-long interconnected tunnels.
9
[4]
The telltale sign of a blue hole is a circular patch of water striking darker than the water
11
surrounding them. (The darker water indicates greater depth.) [C] Divers have found the remains of
12
turtles and alligators. Now extinct on the islands, stalactites and stalagmites from a time when the caves
13

were above sea level, and artifacts of early human inhabitants.

[5]
[D] Hundreds of blue holes can be sighted off the Bahamas. So far, most remain unexplored by
14
divers. owing in part to the danger of cave diving. Often the only clue to the mysteries below is the
tantalizing sight of dark blue water leading deep into the sea.

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 1.
A. NO CHANGE
B. States, are
C. States are
D. States,

2. Given that all the following statements are true, which one, if added here, would most
effectively introduce the topic of this paragraph?
A. The Bahamas were formed from calcium carbonate, a component of seawater.
B. Calcium carbonate, a common rock substance, is also found in seawater.
C. Much of the land making up the Bahamas is still underwater.
D. Most types of limestone contain calcium carbonate.

3.
A. NO CHANGE
B. are building
C. will build
D. build

4.
A. NO CHANGE
B. being buoyed because of
C. it being buoyed by
D. buoying it was

5.
A. NO CHANGE
B. rainwater, or seawater,
C. rainwater, or seawater
D. rainwater or seawater

6.
A. NO CHANGE
B. limestone, eroded caves
C. limestone eroded, caves
D. limestone eroded caves,

7. Which choice most specifically illustrates how long the cave-creating process took?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Between ice ages and the more temperate eras that followed them,
C. During this extended time,
D. As time passed,

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 8.
A. NO CHANGE
B. repeat again and again at various different depths.
C. repeat at different depths that varied.
D. repeat at different depths.

9.
A. NO CHANGE
B. caves that
C. caves;
D. caves,

10. At this point, the writer is considering adding the fol-lowing true sentence:
At 663 feet deep, Dean's Blue Hole in Long Island, Bahamas, is a popular cave-diving destination.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A. Yes, because it supports the preceding sentence by providing an example of a blue hole that is
very deep.
B. Yes, because it allows the reader to visualize a specific blue hole in the Bahamas.
C. No, because it offers a detail that is unrelated to the paragraph's focus on the cave-creating
process.
D. No, because it does not provide an adequate description of Dean's Blue Hole.

11.
A. NO CHANGE
B. strikingly darker
C. strikingly darkly
D. striking darkly

12.
A. NO CHANGE
B. these.
C. one.
D. it.

13.
A. NO CHANGE
B. alligators now. Extinct on
C. alligators now extinct on
D. alligators now extinct. On

14. Which choice most effectively suggests the shape of blue holes as described earlier in the essay?
A. NO CHANGE
B. dot the waters of
C. darken parts of
D. appear in

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 Question 15 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.

15. The writer wants to add the following sentence to the essay:
In these depths, fossils and ancient rock formations are incredibly well preserved.
This sentence would most logically be placed at:
A. Point A in Paragraph 1.
B. Point B in Paragraph 2.
C. Point C in Paragraph 4.
D. Point D in Paragraph 5.

PASSAGE II
The Walls of Rome
[1]
Rome, founded on the banks of the Tiber River, boasts two ancient walls that, when they were
built, surrounded the city. [A] Although both were built as walls intended to defend the city
16

protectively and stood ten meters tall they were erected under different historical circumstances.
17

[2]
It's thought that the Servian Wall was constructed as in the early fourth century BCE and named
18
after Servius Tullius, who was the sixth king of Rome. The eleven-kilometer wall encircled Rome's seven
hills and stood entirely on the east side of the Tiber River. [B]
[3]
The Aurelian Wall, built in the late third century CE by the Roman Emperor Aurelian, was
19
more sturdier than the older wall. It was nineteen kilometers long greatly expanded and surrounded
20 21
the city of Rome as well as a small section of the Tiber's west bank. Erected almost 600 years after the
Servian Wall, the Aurelian Wall protected Rome while the army was away, defending the empire's far-
flung frontiers from enemy attacks. [C] The massive wall deterred many enemies who might have been
tempted to attack Rome during those intervals the city was sparsely defended.
[D] The Aurelian Wall featured eighteen large gateways permitting both foot and chariot traffic
in and out of the city. In other words, a series of 381 towers and eleven smaller side gates called posterns
22
were evenly spaced along the rest of the wall. Both the posterns and the towers served as defensive
23
positions for protecting Rome. Walkable passages lined the inner side of the wall.
24
[5]
The Romans used bricks to build the Aurelian Wall. However, only small portions of the Servian
Wall remains, some of which can be seen inside a chain restaurant located beneath Rome's central train
26

27
station. It could, perhaps, be considered ironic that remnants of a wall that once protected
the future capital of one of the ancient world's most famous empires are now preserved and recognized
28
as historically significant by archaeologists. 29

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 16.
A. NO CHANGE
B. defensive walls for defending the city
C. walls to provide defensive protection
D. defensive walls

17.
A. NO CHANGE
B. tall. They
C. tall, they
D. tall; they

18.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Among historians, its
C. Its'
D. Its

19.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Wall had been
C. Wall, which,
D. Wall, was

20.
A. NO CHANGE
B. much sturdier than
C. more sturdier then
D. much sturdier then

21. Which of the following placements for the underlined portion makes it most clear that it was
Rome that had expanded?
A. Where it is now
B. After the words surrounded the
C. After the word Rome
D. After the words of the

22.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Therefore, a
C. Instead, a
D. A

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 23.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Both, the posterns and the towers,
C. Both the posterns, and the towers
D. Both the posterns and the towers,

24. Which choice provides the most specific information about how posterns and towers served as
defensive positions?
A. NO CHANGE
B. by providing cover for armed guards during an enemy attack.
C. in that they were designed to help Rome repel enemy attacks.
D. by keeping Rome safe from invaders.

25. Given that all the statements are true, which one provides the most effective transition to
Paragraph 5?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Today, the Aurelian Wall continues to dominate the Roman landscape.
C. Emperor Aurelian did not survive long enough to see the completion of the Aurelian Wall.
D. Before the Servian and Aurelian Walls were built, ancient Rome was most likely protected by
mounds of earth.

26.
A. NO CHANGE
B. were remaining,
C. has remained,
D. remain,

27. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following true statement:
To hasten the construction of the Aurelian Wall, existing architectural features, such as aqueducts,
were incorporated into the structure.
Should the statement be added here?
A. Yes, because it adds information about the Aurelian Wall that supports the main idea of the
paragraph.
B. Yes, because it demonstrates how innovative and practical the Roman engineers were.
C. No, because it provides a detail that interrupts the paragraph's discussion of the Servian Wall
in the present day.
D. No, because it provides a level of detail about the wall that is inconsistent with the level of
detail in the rest of the essay.

28.
A. NO CHANGE
B. what was yet to be appointed to the designation of
C. what would in reality become the
D. would be but not yet

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 29. Which choice best completes the irony that is set up in the first part of the sentence?
A. NO CHANGE
B. as important relics of Rome's earliest boundaries.
C. within a fast-food restaurant.
D. in such varied locations.

Question 30 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.

30. The writer is considering adding the following statement to the essay:
The two walls can be thought of as concentric circles emanating from the ancient Roman Forum.
If the writer were to add this statement, it would most logically be placed at:
A. Point A in Paragraph 1.
B. Point B in Paragraph 2.
C. Point C in Paragraph 3.
D. Point D in Paragraph 4.

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 ENGLISH 5

PASSAGE I
The Kam Wah Chung & Co. Museum
To the casual observer, the Kam Wah Chung & Co. building, located in the eastern Oregon
community of John Day, that is, simply a small, unassuming structure made of rock and wood. To those
1
with an interest in history, however, it's a unique building that preserves a part of the legacy of the
Chinese community in the nineteenth-century American West.
2
Built in the 1860s, the Kam Wah Chung building first served as a trading post for travelers who
attract to the land east of the Cascade Mountains by news of gold strikes there. In 1887, the original
3

4
owner sold the building . The men combined their skills, organized a group of investors, and
remains in business together for more than fifty years.
5
Educated in the Chinese classics and fluent in English, Lung On was a skilled merchant who built
a successful textile and import business. He also sold food and supplies to local miners. His partner,
Doc Hay, established an herbal medicine clinic. Hay became famous throughout central and eastern
Oregon when he would make perceptive diagnoses and curing patients
6

8
whose previous treatments had failed. Over time, the partners' building evolved into a social,
7

9
medical, and supply center, as well as a post office, library, and herb shop.
[1] Hay and On's businesses prospered through the turn of the century, during the Great
Depression, and beginning the 1940s. [2] Because the climate in eastern Oregon is semi-arid, the artifacts
10
left inside—including gold-mining tools, rare antique furniture, financial documents, and a thousand
different herbs—were preserved. [3] Although On died in 1940, Hay continued to run Kam Wah Chung
& Co. until 1948. [4] After Hay's death, his nephew inherited the building and donated it to the city of
John Day. [5] For almost twenty years, it remained locked. [6] The building was restored by the state of
Oregon in the 1970s and has became the Kam Wah Chung & Co. Museum. [7] Designated
11

14
as being called a National Historic Landmark in 2005, besides, it encapsulates an era.
12 13

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 1.
A. NO CHANGE
B. is
C. it's
D. DELETE the underlined portion.

2. Given that all the choices are true, which one most effectively introduces the historical and
cultural significance of the Kam Wah Chung & Co. building?
A. NO CHANGE
B. has seven rooms: a front room, an herb shop, two bedrooms, a stockroom, a general store, and
a kitchen and bunk room.
C. is cooperatively preserved and operated by the Oregon Parks and Recreation Department and
the City of John Day.
D. has a kitchen that holds antique tables, a large woodstove, and a variety of Chinese teas and
cooking utensils.

3.
A. NO CHANGE
B. will be attracted
C. were attracted
D. are attracted

4. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following accurate information:
to two enterprising young Chinese immigrants, Ing "Doc" Hay and Lung On
Should the writer make this addition here?
A. Yes, because it builds upon a claim made about Hay and On in the preceding sentence.
B. Yes, because it provides a logical link to the information that follows in the essay.
C. No, because it unnecessarily states information that's implied later in the essay.
D. No, because it provides little information about Hay and On's partnership.

5.
A. NO CHANGE
B. has remained
C. have remain
D. remained

6.
A. NO CHANGE
B. for making
C. as he made
D. and made

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 7.
A. NO CHANGE
B. who experienced that their previous treatments
C. being previous treatments which
D. of whom previous treatments

8. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sentence. Should the sentence be kept or
deleted?
A. Kept, because it provides information that suggests why Hay's work was particularly
noteworthy.
B. Kept, because it presents examples of Hay's most challenging and successful diagnoses.
C. Deleted, because it doesn't make clear whether On was involved with Hay's herbal medicine
clinic.
D. Deleted, because it doesn't fit logically in this paragraph about On's accomplishments.

9. If the writer were to delete the preceding sentence, the paragraph would primarily lose a
statement that:
A. demonstrates the scope of services eventually provided in the Kam Wah Chung & Co. building.
B. makes clear that the social aspect of Kam Wah Chung & Co. was most important to visitors.
C. provides a summary of one regular visitor's experiences at Kam Wah Chung & Co.
D. indicates for how long Hay and On's businesses prospered.

10.
A. NO CHANGE
B. as it entered
C. becoming
D. into

11.
A. NO CHANGE
B. have become
C. became
D. become

12.
A. NO CHANGE
B. with the appropriation of
C. in being identified as a
D. a

13.
A. NO CHANGE
B. in conclusion,
C. in time,
D. DELETE the underlined portion.

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 14. For the sake of the logic and coherence of this paragraph, Sentence 2 should be placed:
A. where it is now.
B. before Sentence 1.
C. after Sentence 3.
D. after Sentence 5.

Question 15 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.

15. Suppose the writer's goal had been to write a brief essay that outlined the steps the state of
Oregon took to restore the Kam Wah Chung & Co. building. Would this essay accomplish that goal?
A. Yes, because it makes clear that the Kam Wah Chung & Co. building was renovated in the 1970s.
B. Yes, because it explains why the artifacts that were inside the Kam Wah Chung & Co. building
were preserved.
C. No, because it instead focuses on describing the history of the Kam Wah Chung & Co. building
and the building's uses.
D. No, because it instead focuses on critiquing both On's business philosophies and Hay's medical
diagnoses and treatments.

PASSAGE II
One Fair Season
At first glance a Renaissance fair, looks a lot like a theme park. Crowds of people mill about,
16

moseying they're way past costumed characters and colorful booths. Being that roller coasters and
17 18
Ferris wheels, the fair's attractions are the sights, sounds, and tastes inspired by sixteenth-century
England. Musicians, magicians. and archers demonstrate their talents to curious fairgoers. Horses
carrying knights to a jousting match walk along the streets. Vendors, ranging from king-sized turkey
19 20 21

legs to suits of armor, peddle wares.

21
I've always enjoyed attending Renaissance fairs, and I found out just how interesting they are.
22
Those of us working at the fair spent weeks perfecting our characters' accents and mannerisms. We also
incorporated sixteenth-century English vocabulary into our speech. Substituting good morrow for “good
23
morning" and gramercy for "thank you." In my role as a lady-in-waiting, I often used the sixteenth-
century expressions while I served the queen's meals or introduced her to guests.
24
It was exhausting to spend every day in the hot summer temperatures while pretending to be a
person whom had lived in a different country and century. The physical demands were especially
25
strenuous for the queen and us ladies-in-waiting because our costumes, they consisted of confining
26

27
corsets, several scratchy petticoats, and heavy velvet gowns.

We strove to make the fairgoers' experience as authentic as possible. Things that had come into
existence more recently after the sixteenth century had to be explained in Renaissance terms. However,

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 28 29

when a guest wished to take a photograph, we would marvel at the camera and ask how such lifelike
paintings were created inside the tiny box.
After three tiring months of rehearsals and performances, the fair closed for the season, and I
bade fare thee well to my Renaissance character when the summer months were over. Although it had
30
been a wonderful trip back in time, it was a relief to return to the comforts of my own century.

16.
A. NO CHANGE
B. glance, a Renaissance fair,
C. glance, a Renaissance fair
D. glance a Renaissance fair;

17.
A. NO CHANGE
B. they're way passed
C. their way passed
D. their way past

18.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Yet instead of
C. Because of
D. Given that

19.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Horses, carrying knights,
C. Horses carrying knights,
D. Horses, carrying knights

20. Which choice best conveys the horses' movement in a way that adds a sensory detail to the
description of the fair?
A. NO CHANGE
B. clip-clop
C. move
D. travel

21.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Peddling wares, ranging from king-sized turkey legs to suits of armor are vendors.
C. Ranging from king-sized turkey legs to suits of armor, vendors peddle wares.
D. Vendors peddle wares ranging from king-sized turkey legs to suits of armor.

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 22. Which choice best introduces the subject of the paragraph and the rest of the essay?
A. NO CHANGE
B. but it wasn't until I spent a summer working at one that I understood how much effort went
into recreating the past.
C. and I knew that getting a job at one would be the easiest way to experience one and have fun
at the same time.
D. so one summer's day. some friends and I decided to attend a nearby fair.

23.
A. NO CHANGE
B. speech, we substituted
C. speech, substituting
D. speech; substituting

24.
A. NO CHANGE
B. to introduce
C. introducing
D. introduce

25.
A. NO CHANGE
B. who were to live
C. whom lived
D. who lived

26.
A. NO CHANGE
B. of our costumes, they
C. of our costumes
D. our costumes

27. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following sentence:
Many theme park characters have to wear uncomfortable costumes.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A. Yes, because it develops the essay's earlier comparison between Renaissance fairs and theme
parks.
B. Yes, because it elaborates on the preceding sentence's point about costumes.
C. No, because it adds a comment that's only loosely related at this point in the essay.
D. No, because it repeats information stated else-where in the essay.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 443 IUP Preparation

 28.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Any kind of object or type of item created and introduced for use
C. Anything invented
D. Stuff from

29.
A. NO CHANGE
B. For example,
C. One time,
D. Instead,

30.
A. NO CHANGE
B. when the fair closed down.
C. at the end of the summer.
D. DELETE the underlined portion and end the sentence with a period.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 444 IUP Preparation

 ENGLISH 6

PASSAGE I
Uncovered at Johnson's Shut-Ins
In Reynolds County, Missouri, a one-billion-gallon blast of water caused by a breach of the Taum
31

Sauk reservoir roared down Proffit Mountain into the east fork of the Black River on December 14, 2005.
They ripped a channel through Johnson's Shut-Ins, one of Missouri's most popular state parks. Though
32
flood damage marred the parks beauty for a time, the scar the raging water left in its wake specifically
33 34
revealed over a billion years' worth of Earth's geologic history.
The area known today as Johnson's Shut-Ins State Park had began to develop 1.5 billion years
35
ago. When the volcanoes that created the St. Francois Mountains exploded. Slow-moving magma
36
cooled down its temperature and crystallized to form silica-rich rhyolite rock. Over time sedimentary
37 38
rock such as limestone and shale, formed from material deposited by shallow inland seas, buried the
rhyolite. After the seas had receded, gravel-rich rivers and streams eventually chipped away the soft
sedimentary rock in some areas, exposing the erosion-resistant rhyolite rock and creating pockets and
pits. In low places, the Black River was confined (or "shut in") by the rhyolite and creating the natural
39 40
waterslides and canyon-like gorges that have become a summer playground for thousands of visitors.
Although the flood left the shut-ins unscathed, the surge of water that tore through the park in
2005 stripped away all trees, soil, and sedimentary rock in its path. Left behind is a channel that is
41

composed of granite—and previously unexposed rhyolite rock—and contain rocks from at least three
42
other geological eras. The menacing floodwaters also revealed a half-billion-year-old beach made of
both sand and gravel.
Five years of work has restored most of the park surrounding the shut-ins. Some have returned
43

back. Geologists from around the world visit to get a close look at the ancient volcanic rock along what
44
has been named the "Scour Channel." The "Scour Channel" now rivals the park's other geologic
curiosities for most frequently visited site.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 445 IUP Preparation

 1.
A. NO CHANGE
B. water caused by,
C. water caused, by
D. water, caused by

2.
A. NO CHANGE
B. That they
C. Which
D. It

3.
A. NO CHANGE
B. park's beauty for a time,
C. parks' beauty for a time,
D. park's beauty for a time

4.
A. NO CHANGE
B. ultimately
C. instead
D. thus

5.
A. NO CHANGE
B. begun developing
C. began to develop
D. begun to develop

6.
A. NO CHANGE
B. ago; when
C. ago when
D. ago

7.
A. NO CHANGE
B. cooled down to a lower temperature
C. lowered its temperature to cool
D. cooled

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 446 IUP Preparation

 8.
A. NO CHANGE
B. form silica-rich, rhyolite,
C. form silica-rich rhyolite,
D. form, silica-rich rhyolite

9. The writer is considering deleting the underlined portion. Should the underlined portion be
kept or deleted?
A. Kept, because it describes how people feel when they visit the park.
B. Kept, because it suggests the inspiration for the park's name.
C. Deleted, because it makes an informal observation that is not consistent with the essay's tone.
D. Deleted, because it interrupts the sentence's description of the Black River.

10.
A. NO CHANGE
B. rhyolite; creating
C. rhyolite, creating
D. rhyolite, created

11.
A. NO CHANGE
B. on their
C. in their
D. on its

12.
A. NO CHANGE
B. have contained
C. are containing
D. contains

13.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Those who are nuts about the outdoors
C. Swimmers, hikers, and campers
D. All types of outdoorsy people

14.
A. NO CHANGE
B. by coming back to the park.
C. to revisit the park.
D. DELETE the underlined portion and end the sentence with a period.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 447 IUP Preparation

 PASSAGE II
A Birthplace of Stars
The winter night I attempted to see the famed Orion Nebula, I didn't expect to succeed. I was an
inexperienced astronomer peering through light-polluted skies. But I was eager to test my new
45
telescope's capabilities, and the nebula being one of the greatest sights in the night sky. So I bundled
46
Up, set out my scope to cool down (its mirrors must adjust to the cold air for optimal viewing), and
scanned for the constellation Orion.
I had prepared for this night by studying constellations in my astronomy books. Orion appears
as a hunter who, in some mythologies, is fighting Taurus the Bull, another constellation. [A] Even in
47
bright skies, the telltale three stars marking Orion's belt has been easy to spot. [B] I knew to follow the
48

belt to Orion's sword, a dim line of stars extending south. [C] The middle of these is actually not a star
but a nebula, the Great Orion Nebula, a birthplace of stars. [D] When gravity causes the gas and dust
to collapse, forming stars. The nebula, is home to thousands of young stars, is often so called a galactic
49 50

51
"nursery."
I centered my scope where the nebula should be, inserted my lowest-powered eyepiece, and
leaned in to look. I just made out a dull smudge. I couldn't get much improvement even when I adjusted
the focuser. Coincidentally, I switched to a higher-powered eyepiece and tried a trick I'd read about for
52 53
viewing faint objects: using averted vision.
The principle of averted vision states that the eye can often see distant objects better by looking
55
to their one side rather than directly at them. I focused my eye on an area beside the smudge,
54
and, sure enough, my peripheral vision yielded far more of a better view of the nebula's swirling clouds.
56
I even saw the Trapezium star cluster, illuminated by four bright young stars nestled in the nebula like
57

59
birds' eggs in a nest.

15.
A. NO CHANGE
B. astronomer, peering through,
C. astronomer: peering through
D. astronomer peering through,

16.
A. NO CHANGE
B. is by them said to be
C. is said to be
D. having been

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 17.
A. NO CHANGE
B. hunter, who in some mythologies,
C. hunter who, in some mythologies
D. hunter who in, some mythologies,

18.
A. NO CHANGE
B. were being
C. are
D. is

19.
A. NO CHANGE
B. collapse to form stars.
C. collapse, stars form.
D. collapse and form stars.

20.
A. NO CHANGE
B. nebula is home to thousands of young stars, and
C. nebula, home to thousands of young stars, and
D. nebula, home to thousands of young stars,

21. The writer wants to add the following sentence to the preceding paragraph:
Located 1,300 light-years from Earth, the nebula is a massive cloud of gas and dust.
This sentence would most logically be placed at:
A. Point A.
B. Point B.
C. Point C.
D. Point D.

22.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Similarly,
C. Besides,
D. So,

23.
A. NO CHANGE
B. tried a trick I'd have
C. try a trick I'd
D. try a trick I

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 24.
A. NO CHANGE
B. one side of them
C. they're side
D. one's side

25. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sentence. Should the sentence be kept or
deleted?
A. Kept, because it elaborates on why the narrator is capable of using averted vision when looking
at the night sky.
B. Kept, because it explains the principle that allowed the narrator to see the nebula more clearly.
C. Deleted, because it adds a level of technical detail that is inappropriate for the tone of the essay.
D. Deleted, because it digresses from the main point of the paragraph.

26.
A. NO CHANGE
B. a farther,
C. a far
D. a far,

27.
A. NO CHANGE
B. emanated
C. emulated
D. eliminated

28.
A. NO CHANGE
B. bird's eggs
C. birds eggs
D. bird eggs'

29. Given that all the following statements are true, which one, if added here, would best conclude
the paragraph and the essay by referring back to the opening paragraph?
A. Observing these features made my winter trek outdoors worthwhile, teaching me that a change
in focus is sometimes helpful to see more clearly.
B. In addition to averted vision, it is also important to eliminate stray light and use the correct
magnification when observing the night sky.
C. Although my initial goal was to observe Orion's belt and sword, the constellation is also very
useful as an aid to locating other constellations such as Taurus and Gemini.
D. The Trapezium star cluster was originally discovered in 1617 by Galileo, whom I'd read about
extensively in my astronomy books.

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 Question 60 asks about the preceding passage as a whole.

30. Suppose the writer's goal had been to write an essay about a personal experience with
astronomy. Would this essay accomplish that goal?
A. Yes, because the narrator recounts several past adventures and challenges of using the telescope
to view the night sky.
B. Yes, because the narrator describes a stargazing session from start to finish, from setting up the
telescope to observing an actual constellation.
C. No, because it primarily focuses on the Orion Nebula and its process of star formation.
D. No. because it describes a universally used technique for viewing distant objects in the night
sky.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 451 IUP Preparation

 ENGLISH 7

In the late spring of 1953, New Zealand mountaineer Sir Edmund Hillary and Nepalese
Sherpa Tenzing Norgay became the first people to walk on the top of the world. After a
grueling expedition that spanned several 1months. They had finally reached the summit
of Mount Everest.

1.
A. NO CHANGE
B. months, and they
C. months; they
D. months, they

Questions 2–6 refer to the following passage.

The Sun
It is perhaps impossible to overestimate the impact of the Sun on our planet Earth. 2 The
Sun is situated roughly 100 million miles away from the Earth, the Sun provides
essentially all of Earth’s heat. Functioning like a great thermonuclear reactor, 3 the Sun’s
core temperature of nearly 30 million degrees Fahrenheit. The energy sources we use
daily to fuel our cars and heat our homes, resources like oil and coal harvested from
deep within the Earth’s crust, were produced by the power of the Sun acting upon living
organisms millions of years ago. The radiant energy of the Sun is the reason the Earth
has 4 light, warmth, and other forms of electromagnetic waves; plants, animals, and all
metabolic life; weather patterns, atmospheric movement, and many more of the Earth’s
natural phenomena. Yet, while the Sun’s ability to provide heat and light can be easily
felt by simply lying out on a beach or gazing up into a brilliant blue sky, closer
inspection of the Sun’s dynamic surface through special telescopes has revealed activity
capable of affecting the Earth in less obvious ways.

One of the most curious features of the Sun’s violent surface is sunspots, which are dark
stormy areas half the temperature of the Sun’s surface and as large as 19,000 miles across.
They were first viewed by telescope as early as 5 1610 but scientists today know relatively
little about them. Scientists have noticed that these spots seem to erupt and fade in 11-
year cycles, affecting the Sun’s luminosity and, in turn, the Earth’s climate. Studies have
shown that the charged particles released by solar flares, associated with sunspots, can
react with the Earth’s magnetic 6 field, the radiation can disrupt satellite communications,
radio broadcasts, and even cell phone calls. As scientists continue to carefully observe

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 such occurrences, referred to as “space weather,” they gain a greater understanding of
the powerful ability of the Sun to impact our lives.

2.
A. NO CHANGE
B. However, the Sun
C. Not many know that the Sun
D. Even though the Sun

3.
A. NO CHANGE
B. the Sun has a core temperature
C. the core temperature of the Sun
D. the temperature of the Sun’s core

4.
A. NO CHANGE
B. light, warmth, and other forms of electromagnetic waves— plants, animals, and all
metabolic life—weather patterns, atmospheric movement, and many more of the Earth’s
natural phenomena.
C. light, warmth, other forms of electromagnetic waves, plants, animals, all metabolic
life, weather patterns, atmospheric movement, and many more of the Earth’s natural
phenomena.
D. light, warmth, and other forms of electromagnetic waves, plants, animals, and all
metabolic life, weather patterns, atmospheric movement, and many more of the Earth’s
natural phenomena.

5.
A. NO CHANGE
B. 1610, but scientists
C. 1610 still scientists
D. 1610, still scientists

6.
A. NO CHANGE
B. field, however the radiation
C. field so the radiation
D. field; the radiation

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 Questions 7 refer to the following passage.

But climbing Mount Everest may be easier than answering the question posed by decades
of non-climbers: Why? Perhaps Mallory said it best in 1923 before his ill-fated 7climb;
“Because it is there.”

7.
A. NO CHANGE
B. climb: “Because it is there.”
C. climb. “Because it is there.”
D. climb “Because it is there.”

Questions 8–15 refer to the following passage.

Mauritius
8 Although, most of the products we buy today are made abroad in places well-known to
Americans, such as Mexico and China, a quick check of many clothing labels will reveal
the name of a country that might not be so 9 familiar. Mauritius. Named in honor of
Prince Maurice of Nassau by the Dutch who colonized it in 1638, this small island in the
Indian Ocean has a complicated history influenced by several international powers. Since
gaining independence in 10 1968—Mauritius has emerged as a stable democracy with one
of Africa’s highest per capita incomes. Mauritius is considered a significant 11 player: in
the modern global economy one of the few in the Southern Hemisphere.

Yet, before its hard-won economic and political stability, Mauritius underwent several
tumultuous phases. After the Portuguese landed on the island in 1511, they hunted a
large, slow-moving, native bird known as the dodo into extinction. The Portuguese were
followed by the Dutch, who brought waves of 12 traders, planters, and slaves; and
indentured laborers, merchants, and artisans, whose collective arrival brought
international recognition to Mauritius. In 1715, the island again changed hands, this time
to the French, and in 1810, with a successful invasion during the Napoleonic Wars, the
British became the fourth European power to rule the island. Yet it was during this
period of changing 13 colonial powers—Mauritius was traded like a commodity, that the
demographics of the island began to experience important changes with great political
ramifications. By the time slavery was abolished in 1835, for example, the growing
Indian population, the Creoles who could trace their roots back to island’s sugarcane
plantations, and the Muslim community originating from present-day Pakistan far
outnumbered the remaining Franco-Mauritian elites. And with these demographic
changes came political change. The first step toward self-rule came with the legislative
elections of 14 1947 and in March of 1968, an official constitution was adopted. Today,

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 Mauritius peacefully balances the diversity of its multicultural society and flourishes in
international 15 trade through its advantageous geographic location and large labor force.

8.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Although most
C. Although; most
D. Most

9.
A. NO CHANGE
B. familiar and it’s Mauritius
C. familiar: Mauritius
D. familiar which is Mauritius

10.
A. NO CHANGE
B. 1968; Mauriutius
C. 1968 as Mauritius
D. 1968, Mauritius

11.
A. NO CHANGE
B. player in the modern global economy, one
C. player—in the modern global economy—one
D. player in the modern, global economy one

12.
A. NO CHANGE
B. traders, planters and slaves, indentured laborers, merchants and artisans,
C. traders, planters, slaves, indentured laborers, merchants, artisans,
D. traders, planters, slaves, indentured laborers, merchants, and artisans,

13.
A. NO CHANGE
B. colonial powers—Mauritius was traded like a commodity that
C. colonial powers—Mauritius was traded like a commodity— that
D. colonial powers, Mauritius was traded like a commodity that

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 455 IUP Preparation

 14.
A. NO CHANGE
B. 1947, and in March
C. 1947 and, in March
D. 1947 and in March,

15.
A. NO CHANGE
B. trade, through
C. trade through,
D. trade; through

16.
A. NO CHANGE
B. was found
C. are found
D. is found

Questions 17–22 refer to the following passage.

Smom
At 69 Condotti Street in Rome sits what 17 is believed by many to be the smallest country
in the world, a country that few have ever heard of. The Sovereign Military and
Hospitaller Order of St. John of Jerusalem of Rhodes and of Malta, or SMOM, 18 were an
ancient order of knights well known for its humanitarian activities. The order’s
headquarters in Rome—a mere 6,000 square meters, or about one acre—is considered an
independent state by at least 75 nations. How SMOM got to Rome is a story almost a
millennium old, spanning as many places as the order’s official name suggests. SMOM
began in 1099, during the First Crusade, a large-scale military conflict pitting Christian
armies against the Muslim rulers of what is now Israel. The order’s task was to protect
and defend Christian pilgrims traveling to Jerusalem as well as 19 providing a hospital
for their care. Though it began as a religious order, SMOM developed into a military
knighthood as a result of the volatile political situation.

First because of the ongoing conflict between Muslims and Christians and, later,
Napoleon Bonaparte’s expansionist ambitions, the order was forced to move a number of
times. After the Muslims had taken Jerusalem in the 1170s, forcing SMOM to relocate
first to the Mediterranean island of Cyprus and then to the nearby island of Rhodes, the
Ottoman Turks 20 had seized Rhodes in 1522, forcing SMOM to move again, this time to
Malta. Then 21 Napoleon drives the order from Malta in 1798, and the island fell into

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 British hands soon after. SMOM wandered from city to city in Italy, finally establishing
its current headquarters in 1834.

Today, SMOM 22 will concentrate on providing humanitarian aid to everyone regardless

of creed, establishing hospitals and charities in all corners of the world. Its many
activities include vaccination programs, refugee relief, and philanthropic works to
combat deadly diseases, such as leprosy and malnutrition.

17.
A. NO CHANGE
B. are believed
C. is to be believed
D. are to be believed

18.
A. NO CHANGE
B. was
C. are
D. is

19.
A. NO CHANGE
B. to provide
C. providing them
D. ensuring availability of

20.
A. NO CHANGE
B. seized
C. have seized
D. would have seized

21.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Napoleon drove
C. Napoleon had driven
D. Napoleon was driving

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 457 IUP Preparation

 22.
A. NO CHANGE
B. will be concentrating
C. concentrates
D. concentrates and is concentrating

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 458 IUP Preparation

 ENGLISH 8

1 Called “Mother of the Universe” by the Tibetan people, the lives of George Mallory and
Andrew Irvine had already been claimed by Mount Everest, despite its maternal
appellation, before Hillary and Norgay finally conquered its icy peak.

1.
A. NO CHANGE
B. it’s
C. their
D. there

Questions 2–7 refer to the following passage.

Akira Kurosawa
What do samurai, cowboys, shogun, gangsters, peasants, and William Shakespeare all
have in common? 2 He is just one of the varied influences on the work of Akira Kurosawa
(1910–1998), a Japanese film director considered by movie critic Leonard Maltin to be
“one of the undisputed giants of cinema.” Over his career, Kurosawa’s unique blend of
Western themes and Eastern settings made 3 them arguably the most important Japanese
filmmaker in history.

The most famous example of Kurosawa’s style is his 1954 film Seven Samurai. Although
the setting is medieval Japan, with peasants and samurai, 4 its story is influenced by
Western films: a village, terrorized by local bandits, turns to seven down-on-their-luck
yet good-hearted samurai for the protection 5 they need. Like movie cowboys, these
samurai are romantic heroes, sure of their morals and battling clear forces of evil. The
traditional Japanese version of a samurai was a noble and often distant symbol of Japan’s
imperial heritage, but Kurosawa considered the main characters differently. To 6 him, the
film’s samurai were distinctly human characters, each with a conscience and the will to
act to correct the wrongs around them.

Although Kurosawa’s films enjoy a lofty reputation in the West, many critics and
moviegoers in his home country view his films as neither original nor particularly
Japanese. His use of Western ideals and themes— even reinterpreting Western authors
such as William Shakespeare and Fyodor Dostoyevsky—leads Japanese cinema lovers,
many of 7 who see Kurosawa’s use of Japanese culture as mere “window dressing”
applied to essentially foreign stories, to regard his work with suspicion. Ironically, it

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 was Kurosawa’s success that opened the door for other, more “Japanese” directors, such
as Yasujiro Ozu and Kenji Mizoguchi, to gain a wider audience.

1 samurai: noble warriors of medieval Japan, similar to European knights

2 shogun: military dictators of Japan from 1603 to 1868.

2.
A. NO CHANGE
B. His is just one
C. They are just some
D. Theirs are just some

3.
A. NO CHANGE
B. he
C. him
D. his

4.
A. NO CHANGE
B. their
C. the film’s
D. the setting’s

5.
A. NO CHANGE
B. it needs.
C. he needs.
D. you need.

6.
A. NO CHANGE
B. me
C. you
D. us

7.
A. NO CHANGE
B. whose
C. which
D. whom

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 460 IUP Preparation

 Questions 8 refer to the following passage.

8 Called “Mother of the Universe” by the Tibetan people, the lives of George Mallory and
Andrew Irvine had already been claimed by Mount Everest, despite its maternal
appellation, before Hillary and Norgay finally conquered its icy peak.

8.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Hillary and Norgay, called “Mother of the Universe” by the Tibetan people, finally
conquered the icy peak of Mount Everest, which had already claimed the lives of George
Mallory and Andrew Irvine, despite its maternal appellation.
C. The lives of George Mallory and Andrew Irvine, called “Mother of the Universe” by
the Tibetan people, had already been claimed by Mount Everest, despite its maternal
appellation, before Hillary and Norgay finally conquered its icy peak.
D. Called “Mother of the Universe” by the Tibetan people, Mount Everest had already,
despite its maternal appellation, claimed the lives of George Mallory and Andrew Irvine
before Hillary and Norgay finally conquered its icy peak.

Questions 9–15 refer to the following passage.

Sergei Eisenstein
Considered the father of the montage, a popular cinematic technique that involves a
rapid succession of shots, often superimposed, 9 the modern movie has as one of its
principal architects Russian director Sergei Eisenstein. Although his career was not
particularly prolific—he completed only seven feature-length films—Eisenstein’s work
contains a clarity and sharpness of composition that make the depth of his plots and the
10 powerfully complexity of his juxtaposed images easily accessible to most viewers. In
fact, few filmmakers were 11 most instrumental in pushing the envelope of the
established, conservative nineteenth-century Victorian theatre than Eisenstein, whose
films helped to usher in a new era of abstract thought and expression in art.

Eisenstein’s feature debut, a film entitled Statchka (Strike in English) 1125released in

1925, was many 12 moviegoer’s first experience of montage on the big screen. Based on
the contemporary theory of biomechanics and criticizing the mechanical and repetitive
movements required of exploited factory workers, 13 Eisenstein’s montage consisted of a
powerful sequence of conflicting images that were able to abbreviate time spans in the
film while introducing new metaphors and allusions to the storyline. Essentially,
Eisenstein sought to use the montage to create a cumulative emotional effect that was
greater than the sum of the individual shots.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 461 IUP Preparation

 14 Enormously, it was with the successful technique of montage that Eisenstein’s work
caught the eye of the new Communist Party leaders in Moscow, who saw in his
cinematic style a film for the “common man.” His next two films, Battleship Potemkin and
October: Ten Days That Shook the World, were commissioned by party officials in an
attempt to use Eisenstein’s mass appeal to disseminate Soviet propaganda. As a result,
these achievements have been frequently criticized 15 for they’re lack of artistic integrity.
Yet, in the end, regardless of politics, Eisenstein’s films continue to have an undeniably
significant and lasting impact on filmmakers.

9.
A. NO CHANGE
B. the modern movie has Russian director Sergei Eisenstein to thank as one of its
principal architects.
C. the Russian director Sergei Eisenstein was one of the principal architects of the
modern movie.
D. critics name the Russian director Sergei Eisenstein as one of the principal architects
of the modern movie.

10.
A. NO CHANGE
B. powerful
C. power
D. power of

11.
A. NO CHANGE
B. more instrumental
C. the best at being instrumental
D. better at instrumentally

12.
A. NO CHANGE
B. movie’s goer
C. moviegoers
D. moviegoers’

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 462 IUP Preparation

 13.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Eisenstein arranged a powerful sequence of conflicting images into a montage that
was
C. Eisenstein used conflicting images in a powerful sequence, composing a montage
that was
D. Eisenstein created a montage consisting of a powerful sequence of conflicting images
that were

14.
A. NO CHANGE
B. It was enormously with the successful technique of montage that Eisenstein’s work
caught the eye of the new Communist Party leaders
C. It was with the enormously successful technique of montage that Eisenstein’s work
caught the eye of the new Communist Party leaders
D. It was with the successful technique of montage that Eisenstein’s work caught the
eye of the enormously new Communist Party leaders

15.
A. NO CHANGE
B. therefore
C. for their
D. for there

Questions 16 refer to the following passage.

Like other ectotherms, Galapagos lava lizards are dependent on their environment for
warmth, so they can often be seen basking in the sun to increase their body temperature,
which in turn determines their speed of locomotion. The lizards can move very quickly
during the day 16 but at night, only slowly.

16.
A. NO CHANGE
B. but at nighttime, that they must move slowly.
C. but at night, they are slower.
D. but only slowly at night.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 463 IUP Preparation

 Questions 17–21 refer to the following passage.

Houses by Mail
Long before the advent of the giant internet retailers like Amazon and Wayfair, and long
before there was an internet, there was the Sears Catalog. It was an immense book that
17 exceeded 600 pages in length and there was seemingly every item that a person might
buy or dream of buying. Furthermore, it offered a vastly larger selection and lower prices
than local stores could do. From pocket watches to patent medicines, 18 women’s gowns
and water pumps, from hunting rifles to horse-drawn plows, the Sears Catalog offered it
all. Whatever you wanted, you simply mailed your order form and payment to the
company’s Chicago headquarters, and days or weeks later, your order would arrive at
your 19 mailbox, local post office, or at the freight depot.

Amazingly, there was a period from 1908 to 1940 when you could order an entire house
by mail from Sears. In fact, Sears issued a completely separate catalog—Sears Modern
Homes— specifically to market these homes by mail. Over the 33 years of the program,
buyers had the choice of some 370 home designs and floor plans. What’s more, the
homes offered were not just simple cottages: designs ranged from modest, two-room
bungalows to impressive, multi-story mansions that featured 20 intricate decorative
elements, servants’ quarters, and wrap-around porches. The homes came in kit form,
with all lumber pre-cut and fitted. The kits were delivered by railroad freight cars to the
local train depot to be picked up by the buyer and brought to the building site. Each kit
could consist of as many as 30,000 pieces, and Sears guaranteed that “a man of average
skills” could assemble the home in under 90 days. While many buyers built their own
homes, 21 for others, local contractors or builders did the work. It’s a tribute to the
quality of the Sears homes, and their builders, that some 70 percent of these kit houses
are still standing to this day.

17.
A. NO CHANGE
B. exceeded 600 pages in length and in it was seemingly
C. exceeded 600 pages in length and seemingly
D. exceeded 600 pages in length and advertised seemingly

18.
A. NO CHANGE
B. as well as women’s gowns and water pumps
C. from women’s gowns to water pumps
D. and women’s gowns to water pumps

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 19.
A. NO CHANGE
B. mailbox, at the local post office, or freight depot.
C. mailbox, local post office, or the freight depot.
D. mailbox, local post office, or freight depot.

20.
A. NO CHANGE
B. intricate decorative elements, quarters for servants, and wrap- around porches.
C. intricate decorative elements, servants’ quarters, and porches that wrapped around
the house.
D. intricate elements of decoration, quarters for servants, and wrap-around porches.

21.
A. NO CHANGE
B. others hired local contractors or builders to do the work.
C. local contractors or builders might be hired by others to do the work.
D. the services of local contractors or builders could also be used.

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 ENGLISH 9

Questions 1 refer to the following passage.

1 The goal of the conference was not only to find ways to reduce carbon emissions but to
provide information to communities threatened by sea level rise as well.

1.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Not only was the goal of the conference to find ways to reduce carbon emissions,
albeit also to provide information to communities threatened by sea level rise.
C. The goal of the conference was not only to find ways to reduce carbon emissions, and
to provide information to communities whom sea level rise threatens.
D. The goal of the conference was not only to find ways to reduce carbon emissions but
also to provide information to communities threatened by sea level rise.

Questions 2–7 refer to the following passage.

The Intriguing Opossum

Much maligned as a repulsive nuisance, the opossum is actually one of North America’s
most interesting animals, exhibiting many notable characteristics. For example,
opossums boast an incredible array of 50 razor-sharp teeth, the most of any mammal in
the world. Also, because opossums are partially or totally immune, 2 neither rabies or
snake venom presents much of a danger to them.

While their beady eyes, pointy snouts, and bald tails might make them seem like a
cousin of the rat, opossums are actually closely related to the kangaroo and are the only
marsupial native to the continent. One of the most primitive animals, existing since the
time of the dinosaurs, opossums have survived for millions of years by adapting to
diverse habitats—including dense urban areas—and food supplies. 3 There isn’t hardly
anything that opossums will not eat; included in their possible diet are rodents, birds,
frogs, eggs, insects, snails, slugs, earthworms, plants, tree roots, fruits, and grains.
Today, many opossums that live in areas densely populated by humans survive on
garbage and small mice, even consuming the bones to satisfy their high need for calcium.

Of course, the opossum does have vulnerabilities. Its average three-year life span is not
unusual for its size, typically 4 between two or three feet long. What is unusual is that
opossums continue growing throughout their lifetimes. Such a state of constant
development is linked with metabolic limitations 5 of the amount of food and energy that
can be stored within the opossum’s body, requiring that ready food sources be available

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 year-round. In addition, opossums are highly susceptible to the cold, making it rather
common to see opossums with frostbitten ears and tails.

Nevertheless, opossums have displayed amazing resilience over the years, often
surviving attacks from intimidating predators like dogs and even hawks. While the
opossum’s first reaction when threatened is to begin running to the nearest tree, their
primary defense 6 is an affect of the nervous system that, when sensing danger, throws
the opossum’s body into a catatonic state that dramatically slows its heart rate. The
opossum will then 7 lay still, begin to drool, and appear dead, another trait that only adds
to the fascinating nature of these animals.

2.
A. NO CHANGE
B. neither rabies nor snake venom presents much of a danger to them.
C. not even rabies nor snake venom presents much of a danger to them.
D. not much of a danger is presented by even rabies or snake venom.

3.
A. NO CHANGE
B. There is hardly nothing that opossums will not eat;
C. There is hardly anything that opossums will not eat;
D. Opossums will not eat hardly anything;

4.
A. NO CHANGE
B. either two or three
C. at least two or three
D. between two and three

5.
A. NO CHANGE
B. on
C. with
D. for

6.
A. NO CHANGE
B. is an effect of the nervous system
C. effects the nervous system so
D. of the nervous system is an affect

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 7.
A. NO CHANGE
B. have laid
C. lie
D. have lain

Questions 8-18 refer to the following passage.

The Experts of Visual Communication

When people consider different types of 8 communication often, they think of only verbal
or written forms. Few, perhaps, think of art as a 9 mode of communication; however,
from early cave paintings and the intricate craftwork of ancient civilizations to
contemporary, esoteric, abstract works that challenge traditional notions of aesthetic
representation, art has played an essential role in visual communication. In the world of
business, the intersection of art and communication is graphic design. 10 The explosion of
media brought on by the digital age offered a growing platform for art, through graphic
design, to express ideas and messages.

There is almost no detail too small, no space too unimportant to escape the attention of a
graphic designer. 11Their work is nearly ubiquitous in modern commercial life:
12 business logos, billboard advertisements; website layouts, T-shirt designs; and even
the decorated cardboard of cereal boxes and coffee cups feature graphic design. In a
culture increasingly wired for visual communication, graphic designers wield a powerful
influence over the ordinary consumer. They craft the formats, styles, images, and
symbols that shape how we perceive products, services, and ideas. How do these visual
innovators navigate a career path? Most 13 began by studying graphic design and earn a
bachelor’s degree at a four-year college, where they build skills through interactive class
settings to hone expertise. These programs are heavily project-based and provide the sort
of experience professional work will require. Students gradually compile design
portfolios to showcase their best work. Once students have graduated, these portfolios
are essential for the job search because 14 it demonstrates the ability and creative potential
of designers.

Competition in the job market for graphic designers is 15 rigorous yet the field offers a
variety of professional options. Some work in design studios. There they team with other
graphic designers, taking on projects for external clients. Others work “inhouse” for
businesses that staff their own graphic designers to create media on a more frequent
basis. Those with more entrepreneurial inclinations can work as freelance graphic
designers, doing their own networking and contracting. Trying to expand their
possibilities, 16 many graphic designers are also now applying their knowledge to

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 website and web application design, which continues to be a growing field for tech-
minded artists.

17 Although the demand for graphic designers persists the highly competitive job market
gives some prospective artists pause. The trope of the “struggling artist” holds true, it
seems, even in our highly visually oriented society. Still, most graphic designers find
their 18 careers both satisfying and also invigorating. Perhaps, for the dedicated artists
who seek a career in graphic design, the thrill and beauty of the work yields enough
motivation and inspiration to persevere and succeed.

8.
A. NO CHANGE
B. communication often, they think of only verbal
C. communication, often only they think of verbal
D. communication, often they think of only verbal

9.
A. NO CHANGE
B. mode of communication; however from early cave paintings
C. mode of communication, however, from early cave paintings
D. mode of communication, however from early cave paintings

10.
A. NO CHANGE
B. The explosion of media brings on by the digital age offers
C. The explosion of media brought on by the digital age offering
D. The explosion of media brought on by the digital age offers

11.
A. NO CHANGE
B. The work of them
C. The work of graphic designers
D. The work of theirs

12.
A. NO CHANGE
B. business logos, billboard advertisements, website layouts, T- shirt designs, and even
the decorated cardboard of cereal boxes and coffee cups feature graphic design.
C. business logos, billboard advertisements, website layouts, T- shirt designs, and, even
the decorated cardboard of cereal boxes, and coffee cups feature graphic design.

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 D. business logos; billboard advertisements; website layouts; T- shirt designs; and even
the decorated cardboard of cereal boxes, and coffee cups feature graphic design.

13.
A. NO CHANGE
B. have begun by studying graphic design and earning
C. begin by studying graphic design and earning
D. will begin by studying graphic design and will earn

14.
A. NO CHANGE
B. you demonstrate
C. they demonstrate
D. theirs demonstrate

15.
A. NO CHANGE
B. rigorous, although the field offers
C. rigorous; even though the field offers
D. rigorous, but the field offers

16.
A. NO CHANGE
B. much graphic design knowledge also now applies to website and web application
design, which
C. many graphic designers’ knowledge also now applies to website and web
application design, which
D. website and web application design allows many graphic designers to apply their
knowledge, which

17.
A. NO CHANGE
B. Yet the demand for graphic designers persists; the highly competitive job market
C. While the demand for graphic designers persists, but the highly competitive job
market
D. Even though the demand for graphic designers persists, the highly competitive job
market

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 18.
A. NO CHANGE
B. careers neither satisfying or invigorating.
C. careers both satisfying and invigorating.
D. career not only satisfying but invigorating.

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 ENGLISH 10

Questions 1–10 refer to the following passage.

This passage describes the varying and changing scientific theories surrounding
sunspots.

1 Astronomers noted more than 150 years ago 2that sunspots wax and wane in number in
an 311-year cycle. Ever since, people have speculated 4that the solar cycle might exert
some influence on 5the Earth’s weather. In this century, for example, 6scientists have
linked the solar cycle to droughts 7in the American Midwest. Until recently, 8however,
none of these correlations has held up 9under close scrutiny.

10 One problem is that sunspots themselves have 11been poorly understood. Observation
revealed 12that the swirly smudges represent areas of intense 13magnetic activity where
the sun’s radiative energy 14has been blocked and that they are considerably 15cooler than
bright regions of the sun. Scientists 16had not been able, however, to determine just 17how
sunspots are created or what effect they have 18on the solar constant (a misnomer that
refers to 19the sun’s total radiance at any instant).

20 The latter question, at least, seems to have 21been resolved by data from the Solar
Maximum 22Mission satellite, which has monitored the solar 23constant since 1980, which
was the peak of a 24solar cycle. As the number of sunspots decreased 25through 1986, the
satellite recorded a gradual 26dimming of the sun. Over the next year, as 27sunspots
proliferated, the sun brightened. These 28data suggest that the sun is 0.1 percent more
29 luminous at the peak of the solar cycle, when 30the number of sunspots is greatest, than
at its 31nadir, according to Richard C. Willson of the Jet 32Propulsion Laboratory and
Hugh S. Hudson of 33the University of California at San Diego.

34 The data show that sunspots do not 35themselves make the sun shine brighter. Quite
36 the contrary. When a sunspot appears, it initially 37causes the sun to dim slightly, but
then after a 38period of weeks or months islands of brilliance 39called faculas usually
emerge near the sunspot 40and more than compensate for its dimming 41effect. Willson
says faculas may represent regions 42where energy that initially was blocked beneath a
43 sunspot has
finally breached the surface.

44 Does the subtle fluctuation in the solar 45constant manifest itself in the Earth’s weather?
46 Meteorological reports offer statistical evidence 47that it does, albeit rather indirectly.
The link 48seems to be mediated by a phenomenon known as 49the quasi biennial

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 oscillation (QBO), a 180-degree 50shift in the direction of stratospheric winds above 51the
Tropics that occurs about every two years.

52 Karin Labitzke of the Free University of Berlin 53and Harry van Loon of the National
Center for 54Atmospheric Research in Boulder, Colorado, were 55the first to uncover the
QBO link. They gathered 56temperature and air-pressure readings from 57various
latitudes and altitudes over the past three 58solar cycles. They found no correlation
between 59the solar cycle and their data until they sorted the 60data into two categories:
those gathered during
61 the QBO’s west phase (when the stratospheric 62winds blow west) and those gathered
during its 63east phase. A remarkable correlation appeared: 64temperatures and pressures
coincident with the 65QBO’s west phase rose and fell in accordance 66with the solar cycle.

67 Building on this finding, Brian A. Tinsley of 68the National Science Foundation

discovered a 69statistical correlation between the solar cycle and 70the position of storms in
the North Atlantic. The 71latitude of storms during the west phase of the 72QBO, Tinsley
found, varied with the solar cycle: 73storms occurring toward the peak of a solar cycle
74 traveled at latitudes about six degrees nearer the 75Equator than storms during the
cycle’s nadir.

76 Labitzke, van Loon, and Tinsley acknowledge 77that their findings are still rather
mysterious. 78Why does the solar cycle seem to exert more of 79an influence during the
west phase of the QBO 80than it does during the east phase? How does the 1 percent
variance in solar radiation trigger the 82much larger changes—up to six degrees Celsius
83 in polar regions—observed by Labitzke and van 84Loon? Van Loon says simply, “We
can’t explain it.”

85 John A. Eddy of the National Center for 86Atmospheric Research, nonetheless, thinks
these 87QBO findings as well as the Solar Maximum 88Mission data “look like
breakthroughs” in 89the search for a link between the solar cycle 90and weather. With
further research into how 91the oceans damp the effects of solar flux, 92for example, these
findings may lead to models 93that have some predictive value. The next few 94years may
be particularly rich in solar flux.

1. Which one of the following best describes the main idea of the passage?
A. The scientific advances provided by the research of Labitzke and van Loon have
finally cleared up some of the mysteries that long plagued the study of sunspots.
B. Recent research combining astronomical and climate data provides a promising
foundation for better understanding the relationship between sunspots and Earth’s
weather.

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 C. Despite recent breakthroughs, scientists are unlikely to ever fully explain correlations
between sunspot activity and Earth’s weather patterns.
D. Scientists have used data from the Solar Maximum Mission satellite to explain how
sunspots affect Earth’s climate during the quasi-biennial oscillation’s west phase.

2. The author’s point of view can best be described as that of

A. a meteorologist voicing optimism that the findings of recent solar research will
improve weather forecasting.
B. an astronomer presenting a digest of current findings to a review board of other
astronomers.
C. a science writer explaining the possible influence of a solar phenomenon on
terrestrial weather patterns.
D. a historian listing the contributions to climate science made by the Solar Maximum
Mission.

3. The passage indicates which of the following about the sun’s luminosity and the
solar cycle?
A. Scientists have found no correlation between the sun’s brightness and the solar cycle.
B. The sun is brightest at the nadir of the solar cycle.
C. The sun is brightest at the peak and again at the nadir of the solar cycle.
D. The sun is brightest at the peak of the solar cycle.

4. Which one of the following provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 10–11 (“One problem... understood”)
B. Lines 15–18 (“Scientists had... constant”)
C. Lines 20–24 (“The latter... cycle”)
D. Lines 27–31 (“These data... nadir”)

5. Based on information in the passage, it can most reasonably be inferred that faculas
A. are directly responsible for increased temperatures on Earth.
B. have a dimming effect on the sun’s luminescence during sunspot activity.
C. are mostly likely to appear at the peak of the solar cycle.
D. grow in number as the number of sunspots decreases.

6. Which one of the following provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 20–24 (“The latter... cycle”)
B. Lines 34–35 (“The data... brighter”)
C. Lines 36–41 (“When a... effect”)
D. Lines 46–47 (“Meteorological... indirectly”)

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 7. As used in line 45, “manifest” most nearly means
A. impact.
B. disguise.
C. itemize.
D. reveal.

8. According to the passage, Labitzke and van Loon’s research on the quasi-biennial
oscillation (QBO) shows that
A. the QBO’s west phase correlates to the solar cycle.
B. the QBO’s west phase has a longer duration than that of its east phase.
C. the QBO shows no correlation with the solar cycle.
D. the reasons for the QBO’s correlation to the solar cycle are now well understood.

9. The main purpose of the questions in the second-to-last paragraph (lines 76–84) is to
A. emphasize how little scientists know about the solar constant.
B. explain more fully the mysterious nature of the scientists’ findings.
C. question the basis upon which these scientists built their hypotheses.
D. express doubts about the scientists’ interpretations of their findings.

10. The use of the quoted phrase “look like breakthroughs” in line 88 is primarily meant
to convey the idea that
A. information about the solar cycle has allowed scientists to predict changes in Earth’s
complex climate system.
B. additional analysis of the link between the solar cycle and Earth’s weather may yield
useful models.
C. despite the associated costs, space missions can lead to important discoveries.
D. an alternative interpretation of the data may contradict the initial findings.

Questions 11–21 refer to the following passage.

This passage is adapted from Carrie Chapman Catt’s 1917 “Address to the United States
Congress.” Catt served as president of the National American Woman Suffrage
Association, which advocated giving women the right to vote; the closing arguments
from her speech are excerpted below.

1 Your party platforms have pledged woman 2suffrage. Then why not be honest, frank
friends 3of our cause, adopt it in reality as your own, 4make it a party program and “fight
with us”? As 5a party measure—a measure of all parties—why 6not put the amendment
through Congress and 7the Legislatures? We shall all be better friends, 8we shall have a
happier nation, we women will 9be free to support loyally the party of our choice, 10and
we shall be far prouder of our history.

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 11 “There is one thing mightier than kings and 12armies”—aye, than Congresses and
political 13parties—“the power of an idea when its time has 14come to move.” The time for
woman suffrage has 15come. The woman’s hour has struck. If parties 16prefer to postpone
action longer and thus do 17battle with this idea, they challenge the inevitable. 18The idea
will not perish; the party which opposes 19it may. Every delay, every trick, every political
20 dishonesty from now on will antagonize the 21women of the land more and more, and
when the 22party or parties which have so delayed woman 23suffrage finally let it come,
their sincerity will be 24doubted and their appeal to the new voters will 25be met with
suspicion. This is the psychology of 26the situation. Can you afford the risk? Think it
27 over.

28 We know you will meet opposition. There 29are a few “woman haters” left, a few “old
males 30of the tribe,” as Vance Thompson calls them, 31whose duty they believe it to be to
keep women 32in the places they have carefully picked out for 33them. Treitschke, made
world famous by war 34literature, said some years ago: “Germany, which 35knows all
about Germany and France, knows 36far better what is good for Alsace-Lorraine than
37 that miserable people can possibly know.” A 38few American Treitschkes we have who
know 39better than women what is good for them. 40There are women, too.... But the
world does not 41wait for such as these, nor does Liberty pause 42to heed the plaint of men
and women with a 43grouch. She does not wait for those who have a 44special interest to
serve, nor a selfish reason for 45depriving other people of freedom. Holding her 46torch
aloft, Liberty is pointing the way onward 47and upward and saying to
America, “Come.”

48 To you the supporters of our cause, in 49Senate and House, and the number is large, the
50 suffragists of the nation express their grateful 51thanks. This address is not meant for
you. We 52are more truly appreciative of all you have done 53than any words can express.
We ask you to make 54a last, hard fight for the amendment during the 55present session.
Since last we asked for a vote on 56this amendment your position has been fortified 57by
the addition to suffrage territory of Great 58Britain, Canada, and New York.

59 Some of you have been too indifferent to give 60more than casual attention to this
question. It 61is worthy of your immediate consideration—a 62question big enough to
engage the attention of 63our Allies in war time, is too big a question for 64you to neglect....

65 Gentlemen, we hereby petition you, our 66only designated representatives, to redress

our 67grievances by the immediate passage of the 68influence to secure its ratification in
your own 69state, in order that the women of our nation 70may be endowed with political
freedom that 71our nation may resume its world leadership in 72democracy.

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 73 Woman suffrage is coming—you know it. Will 74you, Honorable Senators and Members
of the 75House of Representatives, help or hinder it?

11. What was Carrie Chapman Catt’s primary purpose in giving this speech?
A. To assert that women will vote for the party that supports their cause
B. To demand more women candidates on political party tickets
C. To persuade lawmakers to pass an amendment ensuring women’s right to vote
D. To rally support for women’s equal representation in Congress

12. The stance that Catt takes in her speech is best described as that of
A. a historian reflecting on historical events.
B. an official campaigning for political office.
C. an activist advocating for legislative reform.
D. a reporter investigating a current controversy.

13. What counterclaim does Catt offer to the argument that some men and women still
oppose suffrage?
A. They are not voicing their opinions in Congress.
B. They cannot stop the inevitable.
C. They do have just cause for opposition.
D. They have no legal basis for their claims.

14. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 7–10 (“We shall all... our history”)
B. Lines 48–51 (“To you... grateful thanks”)
C. Lines 55–58 (“Since last... New York”)
D. Lines 60–64 (“It is worthy... to neglect”)

15. As used in line 20, “antagonize” most nearly means

A. dishearten.
B. embitter.
C. humiliate.
D. inhibit.

16. The phrase in lines 21–25 (“when the party... with suspicion”) implies that
A. women voters will not support lawmakers who have resisted suffrage.
B. women will not run for office because they do not trust politicians.
C. women will vote more women into political office.
D. women’s influence on Congress will be minimal and is not a threat.

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 17. Catt most likely discusses Treitschke (lines 33–37) for which of the following
reasons?
A. To demonstrate support for women’s suffrage in Europe
B. To remind her audience of what happened to a politician who supported unpopular
legislation
C. To contrast his views on Alsace-Lorraine with the American values of freedom and
democracy
D. To draw an analogy between his views and the views of those who believe they
know better than women what is best for women

18. The passage indicates which one of the following about the status ofwomen’s
suffrage at the time of Catt’s speech?
A. At the time, only a minority of the U.S. population supported women’s right to vote.
B. Women already had the right to vote in at least one state in the United States.
C. An earlier amendment to grant women the right to vote had been defeated.
D. The women’s suffrage movement was a recent development in American politics.

19. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 14–17 (“The time... inevitable”)
B. Lines 28–33 (“There are... them”)
C. Lines 55–58 (“Since last... New York”)
D. Lines 65–72 (“Gentlemen... democracy”)

20. As used in line 66, “redress” most nearly means

A. appeal.
B. communicate.
C. implement.
D. remedy.

21. What can you most reasonably infer from the thoughts expressed in lines 69–72 (“in
order that... in democracy”)?
A. No citizen in our democracy is free as long as women cannot vote.
B. Other nations have demanded that our government grant woman suffrage.
C. A nation needs more women in positions of leadership.
D. Woman suffrage is essential to true democracy.

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 ENGLISH 11

Questions 1–11 refer to the following passage.

This passage is adapted from a 2018 article summarizing two different proposals for
solving problems with maintaining New York City’s mass transit system.

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Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 480 IUP Preparation
 1. Which of the following best expresses the primary purpose of the passage?
A. To argue that the New York City subway system maintenance plan should be altered
B. To explain the effects of the current New York City subway system maintenance plan
and a proposed alternative
C. To discuss the economic and social importance of the New York City subway system
D. To show how the history of the New York City subway system has resulted in the
current maintenance crisis

2. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the New York City
subway system?
A. It is the oldest subway system in the world.
B. It is the busiest mass transit system in the world.
C. It has more stations than any other subway system.
D. A majority of city residents rely on the subway to get to work.

3. Based on the passage, advocates of the current New York City subway maintenance
plan would most likely agree that
A. given its size, the city’s subway system is one of the most well maintained in the
world.
B. avoiding service interruptions during rush hour is a paramount consideration when
designing a maintenance schedule.
C. confusion caused by route switching is a minor inconvenience for commuters and
tourists.
D. operating the subway system 24 hours a day seven days a week is untenable given
the wear and tear it causes.

4. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 14–19 (“Such a... maintenance”)
B. Lines 30–37 (“The main... time”)
C. Lines 50–53 (“While... repairs”)
D. Lines 96–99 (“Proponents... maintenance”)

5. Based on the passage, which choice best describes a claim that critics of the current
subway maintenance plan would likely make?
A. The negative impacts that arise from neglecting preventative maintenance outweigh
the benefits of minimizing subway service interruptions.
B. When devising a subway maintenance plan, no factor is more important than
avoiding rush hour service interruptions.
C. The negative impact from subway line closures is greater on commuters than it is on
businesses near the affected lines.

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 D. Slightly longer periods of scheduled maintenance would help the subway system
minimize rush hour service interruptions.

6. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 24–30 (“A subway... stops”)
B. Lines 60–65 (“Problems... later on”)
C. Lines 69–74 (“Beginning in... upgrades”)
D. Lines 84–90 (“Moreover, studies... them”)

7. As used in line 41, “labyrinthine” most nearly means

A. subterranean.
B. mythological.
C. meandering.
D. complicated.

8. In the third paragraph, the discussion of two specific subway lines (lines 44–49)
primarily serves to
A. support the contention that line switching has a negative impact on tourism.
B. illustrate one problem created by the current subway maintenance plan.
C. underline the importance of minimizing subway service interruptions.
D. quantify the social costs that arise from extended subway repair schedules.

9. The fifth paragraph (lines 66–90) serves mainly to

A. illustrate the impact of the current maintenance plan on one subway line.
B. advocate for increased funding for subway repair and maintenance.
C. provide support for a proposal to curtail 24-hour subway service.
D. outline the negative impacts of extended subway line outages.

10. The passage indicates that non–rush hour commuters

A. would risk losing public transportation options if 24-hour subway service were
suspended.
B. would face only minor inconveniences if 24-hour subway service were suspended.
C. work primarily in health care and its related fields.
D. are among the strongest advocates for a change to the current subway maintenance
plan.

11. With which one of the following statements would the author of the passage be most
likely to agree?
A. The controversy surrounding New York City’s subway system reflects similar issues
for mass transit in many American cities.

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 B. Without major changes to its subway maintenance plan, New York City will be
unable to provide regular service to its 5.7 million weekly riders.
C. Any plan for maintaining New York City’s subway system will entail advantages
and disadvantages for commuters.
D. The social and economic costs resulting from New York City’s current subway
maintenance schedule justify an end to 24- hour, seven-day subway service.

Questions 12–22 refer to the following passage and supplementary material.

This passage was adapted from an article titled “Millennials and the Market,” written by
a money management expert in 2018.

12. One central idea of the passage is that

A. changes to social “safety net” programs such as Social Security and Medicare will
force millennials to retire later in life than their parents did.
B. investing in the stock market is the only money management strategy that will allow
millennials to amass savings sufficient to retire comfortably.
C. leveraging opportunities in the “gig economy” has allowed millennials to avoid the
risks associated with investing in the stock market.
D. despite their distrust of the stock market, millennials will need a variety of
investment tools and strategies to build adequate retirement savings.

13. Which choice best describes the overall structure of the passage?
A. A surprising attitude is introduced, two criticisms of it are offered, an alternative
attitude is presented, and data proving the alternative is superior is provided.
B. A surprising attitude is introduced, two reasons for it are described, a mistaken idea
associated with it is revealed through data, and its effect on those holding it is assessed.
C. A previously held attitude is presented, reasons for its rejection are offered, new data
is presented, and those rejecting the old attitude are endorsed.

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 D. Two reasons for a previously held attitude are presented, both reasons are rejected,
and data is presented to introduce an alternative attitude.

14. According to the passage, large corporations are

A. less likely to offer their employees pension plans than they were in the past.
B. more likely to invest in the stock market than millennial individuals are.
C. opposed to the gig economy because it reduces the number of permanent employees.
D. skeptical that their current employees will receive their full Social Security benefit.

15. As used in line 38, “erased” most nearly means

A. canceled.
B. effaced.
C. laundered.
D. eradicated.

16. The passage most strongly implies which of the following statements about the Great
Recession?
A. It could have been avoided by continued funding of Social Security and Medicare.
B. It impacted families with millennial-age children more severely than any other
group.
C. It resulted from misconceptions about the stability of stock market investments.
D. It caused at least some millennials to forego their educational and career goals.

17. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 10–17 (“Unfortunately... Medicare”)
B. Lines 39–43 (“A study... Recession”)
C. Lines 48–54 (“For a... opportunities”)
D. Lines 89–91 (“But... wealth building”)

18. In the third paragraph (lines 63–91), the most likely purpose of the author’s
discussion of the “gig economy” is to
A. argue that short-term contracts and freelance work are preferable to permanent
employment.
B. explain why millennials are unable to raise sufficient capital to buy a home.
C. examine one factor in millennials’ hesitancy to invest in the stock market.
D. cast doubt on claims that up to 40 percent of workers hold short-term and freelance
jobs.

19. In the context of the passage as a whole, the question in lines 89–91 (“But is... wealth
building”) primarily functions to help the author
A. establish that millennials are mismanaging their retirement investments.

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 B. show how professional money managers diversify their investments to avoid market
volatility.
C. introduce data that reveals a flaw in the premises that influence millennials’
investment choices.
D. call into question opposing opinions about the effects of the gig economy.

20. The passage indicates that investing in the stock market

A. is the stepping stone from which most individuals begin to build personal wealth.
B. remains less stable and lucrative than home ownership as a source of wealth.
C. has tax implications well suited to retirement planning.
D. is limited by IRS rules to a $5,500 annual maximum.

21. Which of the following statements about the period from 2010 to is supported by the
graph?
A. Investment in the stock market generated more wealth than home ownership in
every market listed in the graph.
B. The value of a home appreciated by a greater percentage in Portland, Oregon, than in
Charlotte, North Carolina.
C. The return on a median financial portfolio outperformed the value of home
ownership by a greater margin in each subsequent year.
D. Austin, Texas, saw a greater disparity between home value appreciation and return
on financial portfolios than Atlanta, Georgia, saw.

22. Which statement from the passage is most directly reflected by the data presented in
the graph?
A. Lines 48–51 (“For a... wealth”)
B. Lines 74–78 (“Research... United States”)
C. Lines 98–101 (“statistics... wealth”)
D. Lines 110–115 (“Stock... drawn on”)

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 ENGLISH 12

Questions 1–11 refer to the following passage.

This passage was adapted from an article titled “Quantum Computing: Where Is It
Going?” published in a science magazine in 2018. It discusses the background and
potential of quantum computing.

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Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 487 IUP Preparation
Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 488 IUP Preparation
Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 489 IUP Preparation
 1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
A. argue that quantum computing will provide the solution to pressing societal
problems.
B. compare the speed and efficiency of quantum computing to that of classical
computing.
C. explain the progress and potential of quantum computing despite current obstacles.
D. refute those who argue that quantum computing is too impractical and expensive to
succeed.

2. According to the passage, which one of the following is true of Urmila Mahadev’s
graduate work?
A. It was focused on ways to improve “cloud computing.”
B. Its results cannot be confirmed by classical computing techniques.
C. It will likely have applications for the pharmaceutical industry.
D. It may lead to verification of quantum computing calculations.

3. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 1–9 (“Pharmaceutical... goal”)
B. Lines 67–73 (“One barrier... results”)
C. Lines 78–83 (“The result... calculations”)
D. Lines 83–90 (“Given... two”)

4. In the second paragraph, the discussion of locating a person’s home on a globe (lines
26–36) primarily serves to
A. contrast the processing power of quantum computing to that of classical computing.
B. illustrate the rapid progress of research in quantum computing.
C. argue that quantum computing will allow for exponentially more complicated
mapping software.
D. support the claim that quantum computing will enable autonomous vehicles to
navigate.

5. Based on the passage, the author would most likely criticize classical computing
because it
A. has developed more slowly than quantum computing in recent years.
B. lacks any application for autonomous vehicles.
C. employs serial processing.
D. cannot verify quantum computing calculations.

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 6. Which statement best describes the technique the author uses to advance the main
point of the third paragraph (lines 39–62)?
A. She describes research done by leading scientists and engineers.
B. She proposes a laboratory experiment that would prove a hypothesis.
C. She offers a hypothetical example to illustrate a complex comparison.
D. She cites data demonstrating the superior efficiency of one technique.

7. The passage indicates that which of the following factors slowed early developments
in the theory of quantum computing?
A. Feynman and Benioff were discouraged that their computing models were rejected.
B. At least one academic journal was reluctant to publish papers containing advanced
logic.
C. Quantum computing was too expensive for colleges and universities to support
effectively during the 1980s.
D. A focus on cryptology in the early 1960s drew the most talented researchers away
from quantum computing.

8. Which one of the following does the passage imply about the development of
quantum computing in the 21st century?
A. At least some companies anticipate commercial viability for quantum computing in
the future.
B. Recent advancements in hardware have demonstrated “quantum superiority.”
C. Research into quantum computing led to the discovery of the “buckyball.”
D. It has stalled due to reluctance of major corporations and governments to fund such
expensive research.

9. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 115–119 (“The first... respectively”)
B. Lines 119–124 (“In 2006... pulses”)
C. Lines 124–133 (“The first... computing”)
D. Lines 139–142 (“At present... supremacy”)

10. As used in line 123, “maintain” most nearly means

A. sustain.
B. repair.
C. resupply.
D. nurture.

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 11. The author’s attitude toward the potential success of quantum computing can best be
described as
A. skeptical.
B. resigned.
C. incredulous.
D. optimistic.

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 Questions 12–22 refer to the following passage.
This passage was adapted from an article entitled “John Snow Knew Something”
published in a popular history magazine in 2018.

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Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 494 IUP Preparation
 12. The passage primarily serves to
A. summarize the history of research into the causes and prevention of cholera.
B. critique government officials for failing to consider evidence that could have
prevented further loss of life.
C. chronicle an episode in the history of medicine that changed the way in which
research is conducted.
D. demonstrate similarities in the methods used by medical researchers and by police
detectives.

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 13. The author of this passage writes from the perspective of
A. a public health official advocating for improved disease prevention measures.
B. a journalist narrating medical history to lay readers.
C. an editorial opinion writer critiquing the actions of local officials.
D. a medical school professor explaining the techniques of epidemiological research.

14. The second paragraph serves mainly to

A. suggest a reasonable alternative to a hypothesis presented later.
B. outline the scientific and historical context for a problem that required a novel
solution.
C. summarize the conditions that led to a recurring public health issue.
D. criticize the stubbornness of physicians and politicians against considering new
evidence.

15. Which of the following is most analogous to John Snow’s theory that contaminated
water caused the cholera outbreak?
A. Gregor Mendel described the principles of biological heredity years before the
discovery of genes and DNA.
B. Robert Koch used Louis Pasteur’s experiments to develop the postulates of the germ
theory of disease.
C. Rosalind Franklin produced X-ray diffraction images of DNA, which were used by
Watson and Crick to describe its structure.
D. Galileo Galilei promoted a sun-centered model of the solar system but was put on
trial because his views conflicted with those of the Spanish Inquisition.

16. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 17–20 (“It would... theory”)
B. Lines 38–45 (“Snow would... water”)
C. Lines 57–63 (“Though he... subsided”)
D. Lines 85–87 (“This revelation... outbreaks”)

17. The passage indicates that the main reason government officials rejected Snow’s
hypothesis was
A. a lack of concrete scientific proof.
B. a fear of public backlash.
C. mistrust of Snow’s methods.
D. financial ties to the city’s water suppliers.

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 18. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 35–38 (“Despite the... view”)
B. Lines 57–63 (“Though he... subsided”)
C. Lines 68–73 (“Snow created... Thames”)
D. Lines 100–103 (“It seems... confirmed”)

19. Which of the following is cited as the primary reason Snow suspected the Broad
Street pump as the source of the epidemic?
A. The discovery of decaying organic matter in soil near the Thames releasing gases into
the air
B. The decline of cases of the disease following the removal of the pump handle
C. A pattern in the geographical location of cases of the disease
D. A lack of cases of the disease among those working in a brewery near the pump

20. It can be reasonably inferred from the passage that scientists in 1855 would have
found which of the following solutions to be most practical in dealing with future
outbreaks of cholera?
A. Using alcoholic beverages in place of water for all applications
B. Removing the handles from all water pumps in the affected area
C. Vaccinating the public against the disease using inactive V. cholerae bacteria
D. Advising the public to boil all water from municipal sources before use

21. As used in line 97, the word “flagged” most nearly means
A. subsided.
B. indicated.
C. penalized.
D. peaked.

22. The author uses the final sentence of the passage (“It wasn’t... outbreaks”) at least in
part to
A. underscore the assertion that Snow’s explanation of the cause of the epidemic was
ultimately correct.
B. demonstrate that an explanation of a phenomenon will not be accepted until after the
mechanism behind it is fully detailed.
C. suggest that there is often a significant delay between medical discovery and its
application.
D. lament the loss of life caused by failing to act on medical recommendations that are
reasonably supported by evidence.

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 ENGLISH 13

Questions 1–10 refer to the following passages.

Passage 1 is adapted from Federalist Paper No. 64 (1788), by John Jay, in which he
discusses the powers of the president and the Senate to form treaties under Article II of
the Constitution. Passage 2 is adapted from Federalist Paper No. 75 (1788), by Alexander
Hamilton, on the same subject.

Passage 1
1The second section gives power to the 2President, “by and with the advice and consent 3of the

Senate, to make treaties, provided two 4thirds of the Senators present concur...” 5Some are
displeased with it, not on 6account of any errors or defects in it, but 7because they say the
treaties will have the 8force of laws, and thus should be made only 9by the legislature.
These gentlemen seem not 10to consider that the judgement of our courts, 11and the
commissions constitutionally given 12by our governor, are as valid and as binding 13on all
persons whom they concern as the laws 14passed by our legislature. All constitutional
15acts of power, whether in the executive or in 16the judicial department, have as much

legal 17validity and obligation as if they proceeded 18from the legislature. It surely does
not follow 19that because the people have given the power 20of making laws to the
legislature, they should 21therefore likewise give the legislature the power 22to do every
other act of government by which 23the citizens are to be bound and affected.

Passage 2
24The President is to have power, “by and 25with the advice and consent of the Senate, 26to

make treaties, provided two thirds of the 27senators present concur.”...

28Though several writers on the subject 29of government place the power of making

30treaties in the class of executive authorities, 31this is evidently an arbitrary classification;

for 32if we attend carefully to its operation, it will 33be found to partake more of the
legislative 34than of the executive character, though it does 35not seem strictly to fall
within the definition 36of either of them. The essence of the legislative 37branch is to enact
laws, or, in other
words, 38to prescribe rules for the regulation of the 39society; while the execution of the
laws, and 40the employment of the common strength, 41either for this purpose or for the
common 42defense, seem to comprise all the functions of 43the executive branch. The
power of making 44treaties is, plainly, neither the one nor the 45other. It relates neither to
the execution of the 46existing laws, nor to the creation of new ones; 47and still less to an
exertion of the common 48strength. Its objects are CONTRACTS with 49foreign nations,
which have the force of law, 50but derive it from the obligations of good 51faith. They are
not rules prescribed by the 52government of the citizen, but agreements 53between two
governments. The power in 54question seems therefore to form a distinct 55department,
and to belong, properly, neither to 56the legislative nor to the executive branch. The

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 qualities elsewhere detailed as indispensable 58in the management of foreign
57

negotiations 59point to the Executive as the best agent in 60those transactions; while the
vast importance 61of the trust, and the
operation of treaties as 62laws, plead strongly for the participation of the 63whole or a
portion of the legislative body in 64the office of making them.

1. Jay includes the reasoning of those who are displeased with the president’s treaty-
making power (lines 5–9) in order to
provide an opposing conclusion that gives context for his own argument.
acknowledge flaws and defects in Article II of the Constitution.
explain the importance of the legislature in creating laws that impact citizens.
support his own opinions about judicial and executive authority.

2. What does Passage 1 suggest about Jay’s opponents’ opinion of the second section of
Article II of the Constitution?
A. Jay’s opponents’ criticisms of the second section would be legitimate if the second
section contained errors and defects.
B. Jay’s opponents think anything having the same force as a law is, in effect, a law.
C. Jay’s opponents perceive the legislature as the only branch that should act in ways
that legally bind citizens.
D. Jay’s opponents agree with Jay that the legislature should be empowered to enact all
duties of government.

3. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 5–9 (“Some are... legislature”)
B. Lines 9–14 (“These gentlemen... legislature”)
C. Lines 14–18 (“All constitutional... legislature”) \
D. Lines 18–23 (“It surely... affected”)

4. Based on Passage 2, it can be inferred that Hamilton would agree with which of the
following statements?
A. Most writers on the subject of government fail to provide evidence sufficient to
support their conclusions.
B. Citizens should not be bound by agreements between one government and another.
C. Any power that is not properly described as judicial or legislative must be an
executive power.
D. At least some writers on the subject of government reach unsubstantiated
conclusions about the scope of executive authority.

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 5. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 28–31 (“Though several... classification”)
B. Lines 36–39 (“The essence... society”)
C. Lines 48–51 (“Its objects... faith”)
D. Lines 60–64 (“while the... them”)

6. As used in line 33, “partake” most nearly means

A. consume.
B. share.
C. receive.
D. savor.

7. As used in line 64, “office” most nearly means

A. bureaucracy.
B. workplace.
C. commission.
D. situation.

8. Which choice best states the relationship between the two passages?
A. Both passages refute different points using different evidence but reach the same
conclusion.
B. Passage 2 and Passage 1 examine different but related propositions.
C. Passage 2 questions assumptions made by the author of Passage 1.
D. Passages 1 and 2 use different examples to illustrate the same reasoning.

9. Based on Passage 2, how would Hamilton most likely respond to Jay’s statement that
the decisions of the judicial and executive branches “are as valid and as binding on all
persons whom they concern as the laws passed by our legislature” (lines 12–14)?
A. Hamilton would agree that all non-legislative rules are legitimately binding, and he
would agree about the source of that power.
B. Hamilton would disagree that treaties are as valid as laws passed by the legislature
because treaties are contracts.
C. Hamilton would agree that at least some rules prescribed by the executive branch are
just as valid as those issued from the legislature.
D. Hamilton would disagree with Jay’s contention that judicial decisions are as valid as
laws passed by the legislature.

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 10. In Passage 1, Jay’s statement at lines 7–9 (“they say... legislature”) and in Passage 2,
Hamilton’s statement at lines 36–39 (“The essence... society”) both serve to help the
authors
A. argue that the power to make treaties should reside exclusively with the legislature.
B. critique those who place the power to make treaties in the class of executive
authorities.
C. define the widely accepted role of the legislative branch to make laws.
D. support the contention that treaties carry the same legal authority as laws.

Questions 11–21 refer to the following passages.

Passage 1 is adapted from an 1823 speech by President James Monroe, in which he
discusses European colonialism in the Americas. The position expressed in this speech
would eventually become known as the Monroe Doctrine. Passage 2 is adapted from a
1905 speech by President Theodore Roosevelt. His position would become known as the
Roosevelt Corollary to the Monroe Doctrine.

Passage 1
1The American continents, by the free 2and independent condition which they have

3assumed and maintain, are hence forth 4not to be considered as subjects for future

5colonization by any European powers.

6The citizens of the United States cherish 7friendly sentiments in favor of the liberty 8and
happiness of their fellow men on the 9European side of the Atlantic. In the wars of 10the
European powers in matters relating to 11themselves we have never taken any part, nor
12does it comport with our policy to do so.

13It is only when our rights are invaded or 14seriously menaced that we resent injuries 15or
make preparation for our defense. With 16the movements in our own hemisphere we 17are
more immediately connected, by causes 18which must be obvious to all enlightened and
19impartial observers.

We owe it, therefore, to candor and to 21the amicable relations existing between the
20

22United States and European nations to declare 23that we should consider any attempt on

their 24part to extend their system of government to 25any portion of this hemisphere as
dangerous 26to our peace and safety. With the existing 27colonies or dependencies of any
European 28power we have not interfered and shall 29not interfere. However, we could
not view 30any meddling with those former European 31colonies who have declared their
independence 32and maintained it, and whose independence 33we have, on great
consideration and on just 34principles, acknowledged, in any other light 35than as the
manifestation of an unfriendly 36disposition toward the United States.

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 Passage 2

37It is not true that the United States feels 38any land hunger or entertains any projects
39regarding the other nations of the Western 40Hemisphere except for their welfare. All

that 41this country desires is to see our neighboring 42countries stable, orderly, and
prosperous. Any 43country whose people conduct themselves 44well can count upon our
hearty friendship. 45If a nation shows that it knows how to act 46with reasonable
efficiency and decency in 47social and political matters, if it keeps order 48and pays its
obligations, it need not fear 49interference from the United States. However, 50chronic
wrongdoing, or an impotence 51which results in a general loosening of the 52ties of
civilized society, may in America, as 53elsewhere, ultimately require intervention.... 54In
the Western Hemisphere, the adherence of 55the United States to the Monroe Doctrine
may 56force the United States, however reluctantly, 57in flagrant cases of such wrongdoing
or 58impotence, to the exercise of an international 59police power. If every country washed
by 60the Caribbean Sea would show the progress 61in stable and just civilization which
Cuba 62has shown since our troops left the island, 63and which so many of the republics in
both 64Americas are constantly and brilliantly 65showing, all question of interference by
this 66Nation with their affairs would be at an 67end. Our interests and those of our
southern 68neighbors are in reality identical. They have 69great natural riches, and if
within their 70borders the reign of law and justice obtains, 71prosperity is sure to come to
them. While 72they thus obey the primary laws of civilized 73society, they may rest
assured that they will be 74treated by us in a spirit of cordial and helpful 75sympathy. We
would interfere with them only 76in the last resort, and then only if it became 77evident
that their inability or unwillingness to 78do justice at home and abroad had violated the
79rights of the United States or had invited foreign 80aggression to the detriment of the

entire body 81of American nations. Every nation, whether 82in America or anywhere else,
which desires 83to maintain its freedom and independence 84must ultimately realize that
the right of such 85independence can not be separated from the 86responsibility of making
good use of it.

11. The primary purpose of the statement in lines 6–9 (“The citizens... of the Atlantic”) is to
A. respond to critics of the United States.
B. mislead the audience regarding Monroe’s intent.
C. recommend that people adopt a certain attitude.
D. balance the overall tone of the message.

12. When discussing his views on foreign policy in Passage 1, Monroe indicates that the
United States does not intend to
A. prevent further European colonization in the Americas.
B. intervene in conflicts that exist solely between European powers.
C. maintain a friendly relationship with European powers.
D. allow European powers to keep their existing colonies in the Americas.

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 13. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 9–12 (“In the ... do so”)
B. Lines 15–19 (“With the... observers”)
C. Lines 20–26 (“We owe... safety”)
D. Lines 29–36 (“However... States”)

14. According to Roosevelt in Passage 2, what circumstance must exist before the United
States may justifiably interfere with the affairs of another nation in the Western
Hemisphere?
A. The other nation must have been invaded by a foreign power.
B. The other nation must have invaded a foreign power.
C. The other nation must have harmed the United States.
D. The other nation must have committed human rights abuses.

15. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 42–44 (“Any country... friendship”)
B. Lines 59–67 (“If every... end”)
C. Lines 68–71 (“They have... them”)
D. Lines 75–81 (“We would... nations”)

16. As used in line 59, “washed” most nearly means

A. cleaned.
B. overwhelmed.
C. touched.
D. bathed.

17. As used in line 70, “obtains” most nearly means

A. gathers.
B. seizes.
C. collects.
D. prevails.

18. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the passages?
A. Passage 2 expands an idea that was mentioned briefly in Passage 1.
B. Passage 2 disputes the primary argument advanced in Passage 1.
C. Passage 2 provides examples to support a central claim made in Passage 1.
D. Passage 2 offers a justification for the main opinion asserted in Passage 1.

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 19. Based on the information contained in the passages, it is likely that Monroe and
Roosevelt were each motivated at least in part by a lack of political stability in the
A. Western Hemisphere.
B. threatened or potential aggression by foreign powers.
C. ongoing criticism from their political opponents.
D. a strong commitment to pacifism.

20. Based on the ideas expressed in Passage 1, Monroe would most likely characterize
Roosevelt’s claim in lines 67–68 (“Our interests... identical”) as
A. an appropriate understanding of the relationship between countries in the Americas.
B. an unfair characterization of an opinion expressed in the Monroe Doctrine.
C. an unwarranted exaggeration of the actual state of affairs in the Western
Hemisphere.
D. an example of a phenomenon mentioned in the Monroe Doctrine.

21. Which of the following statements can be supported by Passage 2 but not by Passage
1?
A. The United States intends to maintain friendly relationships with other nations.
B. European powers should refrain from intervening in matters affecting only North
and South America.
C. At least one nation in the Americas other than the United States has achieved
political stability.
D. The United States should adopt a position of neutrality regarding all conflicts
between foreign powers.

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 ENGLISH 14

Questions 1–7 refer to the following passage.

This passage is an excerpt from Sherwood Anderson’s short story “Unlighted Lamps.”
Published 1921. Mary Cochran contemplates how her father’s impending death could
lead her to leave Huntersburg, the small town where she grew up and now lives.
1 Pushing her way in among the weeds, many 2of which were covered with blossoms,
Mary 3found herself a seat on a rock that had been 4rolled against the trunk of an old
apple tree. 5The weeds half concealed her and from the 6road only her head was visible.
Buried away 7thus in the weeds she looked like a quail that 8runs in the tall grass and that
on hearing some 9unusual sound, stops, throws up its head and 10looks sharply about.
11 The doctor’s daughter had been to the 12decayed old orchard many times before. At the
13 foot of the hill on which it stood the streets of 14the town began, and as she sat on the
rock she 15could hear faint shouts and cries coming out of 16Wilmott Street. A hedge
separated the orchard 17from the fields on the hillside. Mary intended 18to sit by the tree
until darkness came creeping 19over the land and to try to think out some 20plan regarding
her future. The notion that her 21father was soon to die seemed both true and 22untrue, but
her mind was unable to take hold 23of the thought of him as physically dead. For 24the
moment death in relation to her father did 25not take the form of a cold inanimate body
26 that was to be buried in the ground, instead 27it seemed to her that her father was not to
die 28but to go away somewhere on a journey. Long 29ago her mother had done that.
There was a 30strange hesitating sense of relief in the thought. 31“Well,” she told herself,
“when the time 32comes I also shall be setting out, I shall get 33out of here and into the
world.” On several 34occasions Mary had gone to spend a day with 35her father in Chicago
and she was fascinated 36by the thought that soon she might be going 37there to live.
Before her mind’s eye floated a 38vision of long streets filled with thousands of 39people all
strangers to herself. To go into such 40streets and to live her life among strangers 41would
be like coming out of a waterless desert 42and into a cool forest carpeted with tender
43 young grass.
44 In Huntersburg she had always lived under 45a cloud and now she was becoming a
woman 46and the close stuffy atmosphere she had always 47breathed was becoming
constantly more and 48more oppressive. It was true no direct question 49had ever been
raised touching her own 50standing in the community life, but she felt that 51a kind of
prejudice against her existed. While 52she was still a baby there had been a scandal
53 involving her father and mother. The town of 54Huntersburg had rocked with it and
when she 55was a child people had sometimes looked at her 56with mocking sympathetic
eyes. “Poor child! 57It’s too bad,” they said....
58 For ten or fifteen minutes Mary sat on the 59stone beneath the tree in the orchard and
60 thought of the attitude of the town toward 61herself and her father. “It should have

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 drawn us 62together,” she told herself, and wondered if the 63approach of death would do
what the cloud that 64had for years hung over them had not done. It 65did not at the
moment seem to her cruel that 66the figure of death was soon to visit her father. 67In a way
Death had become for her and for the 68time a lovely and gracious figure intent upon
69 good. The hand of death was to open the door 70out of her father’s house and into life.
With 71the cruelty of youth she thought first of the 72adventurous possibilities of the new
life.

1. Which choice best describes a major theme from the passage?

A. The bitter grief inevitably produced by death
B. The difficulty of thinking clearly in nature
C. A community uprising against an individual
D. The passage from childhood into adulthood

2. Mary’s comment to herself in lines 31–33 (“Well... world”) most nearly implies that
A. when her father dies, Mary is going to leave Huntersburg.
B. Mary is going to leave the decayed orchard and return to the town.
C. now that her mother has left, Mary is going to move to Chicago.
D. Mary thinks of her own death as a journey to another world.

3. In line 37, the word “floated” most nearly means

A. bobbed.
B. appeared.
C. glimpsed.
D. rested.

4. Based on the passage, which answer choice best represents how Mary would
describe her father’s death?
A. Unlikely and metaphorical
B. Appealing and freeing
C. Vicious but advantageous
D. Depressing but manageable

5. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 23–28 (“For the moment... journey”)
B. Lines 33–37 (“On several... to live”)
C. Lines 67–70 (“In a way... into life”)
D. Lines 70–72 (“With the cruelty... new life”)

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 6. The dialogue in lines 56–57 (“Poor child! It’s too bad”) mainly serves to
A. characterize the townspeople’s subtle ostracism of Mary.
B. contradict the previous statement that the townspeople had mocking sympathy for
Mary.
C. reveal the concern that townspeople had about Mary’s family’s financial situation.
D. highlight the townspeople’s lack of involvement with Mary.

7. Mary indicates that she believes that she and her father should have been brought
closer together by
A. her mother’s absence.
B. her father’s approaching death.
C. their mutual love of Chicago.
D. the town’s shared feelings for them.

Questions 8–17 refer to the following passage.

The following passage is adapted from Jules Verne, Around the World in Eighty Days,
first published in 1873.

1 Phileas Fogg, having shut the door of his 2house at half-past eleven, and having put his
3 right foot before his left five hundred and 4seventy-five times, and his left foot before 5his
right five hundred and seventy-six times, 6reached the Reform Club. He repaired at once
7 to the dining-room and took his place at the 8habitual table, the cover of which had
already 9been laid for him. A flunkey handed him 10an uncut Times, which he proceeded
to cut 11with a skill which betrayed familiarity with 12this delicate operation. The perusal
of this 13paper absorbed Phileas Fogg until a quarter 14before four, whilst the Standard, his
next task, 15occupied him till the dinner hour. Dinner 16passed as breakfast had done, and
Mr. Fogg 17re-appeared in the reading-room and sat down 18to the Pall Mall1 at twenty
minutes before 19six. Half an hour later several members of the 20Reform came in and
drew up to the fireplace. 21They were Mr. Fogg’s usual partners at whist:2 22Andrew
Stuart, an engineer; John Sullivan and 23Samuel Fallentin, bankers; Thomas Flanagan, 24a
brewer; and Gauthier Ralph, one of the 25Directors of the Bank of England.
26 “Well, Ralph,” said Thomas Flanagan, “what 27about that robbery?” “Oh,” replied
28

Stuart, “the Bank will lose the 29money.” “On the contrary,” broke in Ralph, “I hope
30

31 we may put our hands on the robber. Skillful 32detectives have been sent to all the
principal 33ports of America and the Continent, and he’ll 34be a clever fellow if he slips
through their 35fingers.”
36 “But have you got the robber’s description?” 37asked Stuart. 38“In the first place, he is no
robber at all,” 39returned Ralph, positively.
40 “What! a fellow who makes off with fiftyfive 41thousand pounds, no robber?”
42 “No.”

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 43 “Perhaps he’s a manufacturer, then.”
44 “The Daily Telegraph says that he is a 45gentleman.”
46 It was Phileas Fogg, whose head now 47emerged from behind his newspapers, who
48 made this remark. A package of banknotes, to 49the value of fifty-five thousand pounds,
had 50been taken from the principal cashier’s table, 51that functionary being at the moment
engaged 52in registering the receipt of three shillings and 53sixpence. Let it be observed
that the Bank of 54England reposes a touching confidence in the 55honesty of the public.
There are neither guards 56nor gratings to protect its treasures; gold, silver, 57banknotes
are freely exposed, at the mercy of 58the first comer. A keen observer of English 59customs
relates that, being in one of the rooms 60of the Bank one day, he had the curiosity to
61 examine a gold ingot weighing some seven 62or eight pounds. He took it up, scrutinized
it, 63passed it to his neighbour, he to the next man, 64and so on until the ingot, going from
hand 65to hand, was transferred to the end of a dark 66entry; nor did it return to its place
for half an 67hour. Meanwhile, the cashier had not so much 68as raised his head. But in the
present instance 69things had not gone so smoothly. The package 70of notes not being
found when five o’clock 71sounded from the ponderous clock in the 72“drawing office,”
the amount was passed to the 73account of profit and loss.
74 There were real grounds for supposing, as 75the Daily Telegraph said, that the thief did
76 not belong to a professional band. On the day 77of the robbery a well-dressed gentleman
of 78polished manners, and with a well-to-do air, 79had been observed going to and fro in
the 80paying room where the crime was committed. 81A description of him was easily
procured and 82sent to the detectives; and some hopeful spirits, 83of whom Ralph was one,
did not despair of 84his apprehension. The papers and clubs were 85full of the affair, and
everywhere people were 86discussing the probabilities of a successful 87pursuit; and the
Reform Club was especially 88agitated, several of its members being Bank 89officials.
90 Ralph would not concede that the work of 91the detectives was likely to be in vain, for
he 92thought that the prize offered would greatly 93stimulate their zeal and activity. But
Stuart 94was far from sharing this confidence; and, as 95they placed themselves at the
whist-table, they 96continued to argue the matter. “I maintain,” 97said Stuart, “that the
chances are in favour of 98the thief, who must be a shrewd fellow.” 99“Well, but where can
he fly to?” asked 100Ralph. “No country is safe for him.” 101“Pshaw!” 102“Where could he
go, then?” 103“Oh, I don’t know that. The world is big 104enough.” 105“It was once,” said
Phileas Fogg, in a low 106tone.

8. What is the primary purpose of the passage?

A. To illustrate the problems with theft at the Bank of England
B. To examine the lives of wealthy men in England
C. To introduce Phileas Fogg and his social circle at the Reform Club
D. To parody the social customs of the upper class

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 9. The passage suggests that Phileas Fogg is a man who
A. focuses on cultural activities.
B. lives beyond his means.
C. enjoys routine.
D. keeps to himself.

10. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 6–9 (“He repaired... for him”)
B. Lines 9–12 (“A flunkey... operation”)
C. Lines 15–19 (“Dinner... six”)
D. Lines 31–35 (“Skillful... fingers”)

11. As used in line 6, “repaired” most nearly means

A. fixed.
B. returned.
C. stormed.
D. proceeded.

12. One impression created by the narrator’s description of Phileas Fogg in the first
paragraph is that he
A. keeps abreast of current events.
B. is a political reformer.
C. has strong opinions about crime.
D. makes his living as a banker.

13. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the 972 previous question?
A. Lines 9–12 (“A flunkey... operation”)
B. Lines 19–20 (“Half... fireplace”)
C. Lines 31–35 (“Skillful... fingers”)
D. Lines 44–48 (“The Daily... remark”)

14. As used in line 51, “functionary” most nearly means

A. official.
B. money.
C. servant.
D. criminal.

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 15. According to the passage, which statement about the Bank of England is true?
A. The public has faith in the integrity of the Bank.
B. The Bank has taken few precautions to guard against theft.
C. The Bank has a history of money being stolen.
D. The Bank has carefully managed public relations.

16. The passage suggests that the thief was not part of a professional crime ring because
A. the suspect acted alone.
B. the Bank had never been burglarized before.
C. the suspect was described as a gentleman.
D. the Bank carefully screens its customers.

17. The purpose of lines 105–106 (“ ‘It was once,’... a low tone”) is to
A. create an ominous atmosphere at the table.
B. foreshadow Fogg’s ideas about the world.
C. illustrate Fogg’s proper demeanor and social skills.
D. introduce the conflict of the plot.

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 ENGLISH 15
Vocabulary Part 1

1. The prince abdicated the crown and returned to his castle. Abdicated means…
A. Gave up.
B. Sold.
C. Reinvested into.
D. Auctioned.

2. The convicted criminal absconded prior to the sentencing phase of the trial. Absconded
means…
A. Touched the jury.
B. Reported immediately.
C. Left after discussion.
D. Departed secretly.

3. The aural component of balance is critical for postural control during ambulation. Aural
means related to the…
A. Eye.
B. Ear.
C. Nose.
D. Mouth.

4. The old man was benevolent with his fortune. Benevolent means…
A. Secretive.
B. Stingy.
C. Kind.
D. Careful.

5. The extra dirt was a key buttress to the foundation. Buttress means…
A. Limiting factor.
B. Support.
C. Overwhelming condition.
D. Obstacle.

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 6. The cathode of a battery was removed. Cathode means…
A. Positive pole.
B. Negative pole.
C. Neutral pole.
D. Opposite pole.

7. The doctor was known as a charlatan over the years of his practice. Charlatan means…
A. Quack.
B. Knowledgeable physician.
C. Procedural physician.
D. Medical examiner.

8. The wound exhibited signs of copious drainage requiring medical intervention. Copious
means…
A. Minimal.
B. Clear.
C. Maximal.
D. Foul.

9. The attorney accused the witness of defaming the defendant. Defaming means…
A. Killing.
B. Badgering.
C. Suffocating.
D. Slandering.

10. The detective was able to derive the facts of the case. Derive means…
A. Desist.
B. Deter.
C. Devise.
D. Deduce.

11. The scientist was able to evoke powerful emotions from her audience. Evoke means…
A. Sell.
B. Calm.
C. Call forth.
D. Exaggerate.

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 12. The judge was fallible during deliberation. Fallible means…
A. Careful not to err.
B. Falsely accused.
C. Loyal to his supporters.
D. Capable of mistakes.

13. The chemist collected the germane data during the experiment. Germane means…
A. Relevant.
B. Obscure.
C. Limited.
D. Usual.

14. The desperados held up in a grotto in New Mexico during the escape. Grotto means…
A. Large cave.
B. Small cavern.
C. Hotel.
D. Motel.

15. The official exhibited a heedless attitude when dealing with the dignitaries. Heedless
means…
A. Thoughtless.
B. Pleasant.
C. Friendly.
D. Bitter.

16. The Sherman tank commander noted innumerable troops moving forward against his
position. Innumerable means…
A. Limited.
B. Weary.
C. Countless.
D. Harmless.

17. The general tried to instill in his troops the hope of victory. Instill means…
A. Infuse.
B. Delay.
C. Inscribe.
D. Indict.

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 18. The winning team of the World Series often has a jovial attitude. Jovial means…
A. Merry.
B. Sad.
C. Somber.
D. Laborious.

19. The plant entered the latent phase of development in the fall. Latent means…
A. First.
B. Growth.
C. Last.
D. Dormant.

20. The yacht club members were excited about conditions on the loch. Loch means…
A. Water.
B. Lake.
C. Gulf.
D. Ocean.

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 Vocabulary Part 2

Choose the correct word to fill in the blanks!

1. There is always the … that the plane will be early. (OPPORTUNITY /

CHANCE/POSSIBILITY)

2. My grandfather gave me a very useful piece of …. (ADVISE/ADVICE)

3. The strike will … all trains in the London area. (EFFECT/AFFECT)

4. The police will … anyone from leaving the building.(AVOID/PREVENT)

5. Come and is down … me. (BESIDE/BESIDES)

6. … managing the shop, he teaches in the evening. (BESIDE/BESIDES)

7. Can you switch to ... 4 for the news? (CHANNEL/CANAL)

8. Our team has a good … of winning. (OPPORTUNITY / CHANCE/POSSIBILITY)

9. You should travel early to … traffic jams. (AVOID/PREVENT)

10. I am getting fed up with her complaints. (CONTINUAL/CONTINUOUS)

11. It took two policemen to … the traffic. (DIRECT/CONDUCT)

12. I … you to put all your money into a savings account. (ADVISE/ADVICE)
13. I didn’t have much … on my birthday (FUN/FUNNY).

14. Don’t … my sunglasses if you borrow them. (DAMAGE/HARM)

15. The English … is beautiful in spring. (NATURE/COUNTRYSIDE)

16. He didn’t mean to … the girl. (DAMAGE/HARM)

17. You can get a good … of the sea from the church tower. (VIEW/SCENERY)

18. Her jewels were all imitations; they are quite ... (PRICELESS/WORTHLESS)

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 19. You can take a boat trip around the … of Amsterdam.(CHANNEL/CANAL)

20. Von Karajan will … the orchestra at the concert. (DIRECT/CONDUCT)

21. Did Alexander Fleming penicillin? (INVENT/DISCOVER)

22. The cuts in spending will have a serious … on the educational system.
(EFFECT/AFFECT)

23. Staying indoors was a thing to do in this kind of weather. (SENSIBLE/SENSITIVE)

24. You should always be … to children. (SYMPATHETIC/KIND)

25. He made … faces and made the children laugh. (FUN/FUNNY).

26. I am very tired; I’ll just go and … down for a few minutes. (LIE/LAY)

27. She has been in … plain for over three days.(CONTINUAL/CONTINUOUS)

28. He asked me if I would him some money until Monday. .(LEND/BORROW)

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 29. The … wants to see you in his office. (PRINCIPLE/PRINCIPAL)

30. We must try to protect … and the environment. (NATURE/COUNTRYSIDE)

31. Goods cannot be exchanged unless a sales … can be shown. (RECIPE/RECEIPT)

32. I am very … to her problems. (SYMPATHETIC/KIND)

33. Be very careful with that painting; it’s …. (PRICELESS/WORTHLESS)

34. The airlines are going to … their fairs again. (RAISE/RISE)

35. Can I … your car to go to the supermarket? (LEND/BORROW)

36. I gave her an Italian … book for her birthday. (RECIPE/RECEIPT)

37. My father is going to … a new carpet in the dining room. (LIE/LAY)

38. Did you … to switch off the kitchen light? (REMIND/REMEMBER)

39. When did she … the new computer terminal? (INVENT/DISCOVER)

40. I adore the beautiful … in the Lake District. (VIEW/SCENERY)

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 PART 4
Complete the crossword with nouns formed from the words below.

Across Down
3. admire 1. prove
4. decide 2. wide
10. assist 5. succeed
12. die 6. deep
13. hot 7. intend
14. invent 8. long
15. amuse 9. reduce
10. able
11. true

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 Across Down
1. laugh 2. high
4. attract 3. satisfy
7. produce 5. explode
10. serve 6. rob
11. compete 7. pay
12. pack 8. safe
13. act 9. direct
14. important

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 ADJECTIVE

Across
1. very unhappy because you feel lonely or bad
3. very angry
5. to have courage in a dangerous situation
7. if you are willing to give people money or other things so that you can help them
10. kind and careful in the way you do things
11. having the usual features or qualities of a person or thing
13. known by a lot of people
14. if something makes you feel ashamed

Down
2. unusual or surprising in a way that is difficult to explain or understand
4. happy; or behaving in a happy way
5. always telling people what to do in an annoying way
6. not interesting
8. having a lot of money
9. something that is enjoyable and makes you feel happy
12. relaxed and quiet; not nervous

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 Across
2. unhappy because you keep thinking about a problem or something bad that may
happen
5. not the same as something else
7. someone or something that can be trusted or depended on
8. fair and sensible
12. not as good as hoped or expected
14. wanting to know about something
15. making you feel very happy

Down
1. not able to understand or think clearly about what someone is saying or what is
happening
3. feeling calm and not worried about anything
4. physically strong and not weak or ill
6. very good at understanding things; clever
9. frightened
10. not making much noise or no noise at all
11. feeling that something is as good as it should be

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 521 IUP Preparation

 ENGLISH 16
Reading Comprehension Part 1

Questions 1 through 7 refer to the following passage:

In the 16th century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration, Ferdinand
Magellan led the first expedition to sail around the world. As a young Portuguese noble,
he served the king of Portugal, but he became involved in the quagmire of political
intrigue at court and lost the king’s favor. After he was dismissed from service by the
king of Portugal, he offered to serve the future Emperor Charles V of Spain.

A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World west of 50 degrees W
longitude to Spain and all the land east of that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to prove
that the East Indies fell under Spanish authority. On September 20, 1519, Magellan set sail
from Spain with five ships. More than a year later, one of these ships was exploring the
topography of South America in search of a water route across the continent. This ship
sank, but the remaining four ships searched along the southern peninsula of South
America. Finally they found the passage they sought near 50 degrees S latitude. Magellan
named this passage the Strait of All Saints, but today it is known as the Strait of Magellan.
One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were
privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean. Those who remained
crossed the meridian now known as the International Date Line in the early spring of
1521 after 98 days on the Pacific Ocean. During those long days at sea, many of
Magellan’s men died of starvation and disease.

Later, Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and was killed
in a tribal battle. Only one ship and 17 sailors under the command of the Basque
navigator Elcano survived to complete the westward journey to Spain and thus prove
once and for all that the world is round, with no precipice at the edge.

1. The 16th century was an age of great ………….. exploration.

A. cosmic
B. land
C. mental
D. common man
E. None of the above

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 2. Magellan lost the favor of the king of Portugal when he became involved in a political
…………………..
A. entanglement
B. discussion
C. negotiation
D. problem
E. None of the above

3. The Pope divided New World lands between Spain and Portugal according to their
location on one side or the other of an imaginary geographical line 50 degrees west of
Greenwich that extends in a …….. direction.
A. north and south
B. crosswise
C. easterly
D. south east
E. north and west

4. One of Magellan’s ships explored the …………….. of South America for a passage
across the continent.
A. coastline
B. mountain range
C. physical features
D. islands
E. None of the above

5. Four of the ships sought a passage along a southern …………..

A. coast
B. inland
C. body of land with water on three sides
D. border
E. Answer not available

6. The passage was found near 50 degrees S of …………….. .

A. Greenwich
B. The equator
C. Spain
D. Portugal
E. Madrid

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 7. In the spring of 1521, the ships crossed the ………….. now called the International
Date
Line.
A. imaginary circle passing through the poles
B. imaginary line parallel to the equator
C. area
D. land mass
E. Answer not available

The following passage refers to questions 8 through 14.

Marie Curie was one of the most accomplished scientists in history. Together with her
husband, Pierre, she discovered radium, an element widely used for treating cancer, and
studied uranium and other radioactive substances. Pierre and Marie’s amicable
collaboration later helped to unlock the secrets of the atom.

Marie was born in 1867 in Warsaw, Poland, where her father was a professor of physics.
At an early age, she displayed a brilliant mind and a blithe personality. Her great
exuberance for learning prompted her to continue with her studies after high school. She
became disgruntled, however, when she learned that the university in Warsaw was
closed to women. Determined to receive a higher education, she defiantly left Poland and
in 1891 entered the Sorbonne, a French university, where she earned her master’s degree
and doctorate in physics.

Marie was fortunate to have studied at the Sorbonne with some of the greatest scientists
of her day, one of whom was Pierre Curie. Marie and Pierre were married in 1895 and
spent many productive years working together in the physics laboratory. A short time
after they discovered radium, Pierre was killed by a horse-drawn wagon in 1906. Marie
was stunned by this horrible misfortune and endured heartbreaking anguish.
Despondently she recalled their close relationship and the joy that they had shared in
scientific research. The fact that she had two young daughters to raise by herself greatly
increased her distress.

Curie’s feeling of desolation finally began to fade when she was asked to succeed her
husband as a physics professor at the Sorbonne. She was the first woman to be given a
professorship at the world-famous university. In 1911 she received the Nobel Prize in
chemistry for isolating radium. Although Marie Curie eventually suffered a fatal illness
from her long exposure to radium, she never became disillusioned about her work.

Regardless of the consequences, she had dedicated herself to science and to revealing the
mysteries of the physical world.

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 8. The Curies’ …………. collaboration helped to unlock the secrets of the atom.
A. friendly
B. competitive
C. courteous
D. industrious
E. chemistry

9. Marie had a bright mind and a …………….. personality.

A. strong
B. lighthearted
C. humorous
D. strange
E. envious

10. When she learned that she could not attend the university in Warsaw, she felt……….
A. hopeless
B. annoyed
C. depressed
D. worried
E. None of the above

11. Marie ………………… by leaving Poland and traveling to France to enter the
Sorbonne.
A. challenged authority
B. showed intelligence
C. behaved
D. was distressed
E. Answer not available

12. …………… she remembered their joy together.

A. Dejectedly
B. Worried
C. Tearfully
D. Happily
E. Irefully

13. Her ……………… began to fade when she returned to the Sorbonne to succeed her
husband.
A. misfortune
B. anger
C. wretchedness

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 D. disappointment
E. ambition

14. Even though she became fatally ill from working with radium, Marie Curie was
never………….
A. troubled
B. worried
C. disappointed
D. sorrowful
E. disturbed

The following passage refers to questions 15 through 19.

Mount Vesuvius, a volcano located between the ancient Italian cities of Pompeii and
Herculaneum, has received much attention because of its frequent and destructive
eruptions. The most famous of these eruptions occurred in A.D. 79.

The volcano had been inactive for centuries. There was little warning of the coming
eruption, although one account unearthed by archaeologists says that a hard rain and a
strong wind had disturbed the celestial calm during the preceding night. Early the next
morning, the volcano poured a huge river of molten rock down upon Herculaneum,
completely burying the city and filling the harbor with coagulated lava.

Meanwhile, on the other side of the mountain, cinders, stone and ash rained down on
Pompeii. Sparks from the burning ash ignited the combustible rooftops quickly. Large
portions of the city were destroyed in the conflagration. Fire, however, was not the only
cause of destruction. Poisonous sulfuric gases saturated the air. These heavy gases were
not buoyant in the atmosphere and therefore sank toward the earth and suffocated
people.
Over the years, excavations of Pompeii and Herculaneum have revealed a great deal
about the behavior of the volcano. By analyzing data, much as a zoologist dissects an
animal specimen, scientists have concluded that the eruption changed large portions
of the area’s geography. For instance, it turned the Sarno River from its course and raised
the level of the beach along the Bay of Naples. Meteorologists studying these events have
also concluded that Vesuvius caused a huge tidal wave that affected the world’s climate.
In addition to making these investigations, archaeologists have been able to study the
skeletons of victims by using distilled water to wash away the volcanic ash.

By strengthening the brittle bones with acrylic paint, scientists have been able to examine
the skeletons and draw conclusions about the diet and habits of the residents. Finally, the
excavations at both Pompeii and Herculaneum have yielded many examples of classical

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 art, such as jewelry made of bronze, which is an alloy of copper and tin. The eruption of
Mount Vesuvius and its tragic consequences have provided everyone with a wealth of
data about the effects that volcanoes can have on the surrounding area. Today,
volcanologists can locate and predict eruptions, saving lives and preventing the
destruction of other cities and cultures.

15. Herculaneum and its harbor were buried under …………….. lava.
A. liquid
B. solid
C. flowing
D. gas
E. Answer not available

16. The poisonous gases were not ……………. in the air.

A. able to float
B. visible
C. able to evaporate
D. invisible
E. able to condense

17. Scientists analyzed data about Vesuvius in the same way that a zoologist …
a specimen.
A. describes in detail
B. studies by cutting apart
C. photographs
D. chart
E. Answer not available

18. …………… have concluded that the volcanic eruption caused a tidal wave.
A. Scientists who study oceans
B. Scientists who study atmospheric conditions
C. Scientists who study ash
D. Scientists who study animal behavior
E. Answer not available in article

19. Scientists have used ……………… water to wash away volcanic ash from the
skeletons of victims.
A. bottled B. volcanic
C. purified
D. sea
E. fountain

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 The following passage refers to questions 20-24.

Conflict had existed between Spain and England since the 1570s. England wanted a share
of the wealth that Spain had been taking from the lands it had claimed in the Americas.
Elizabeth I, Queen of England, encouraged her staunch admiral of the navy, Sir Francis
Drake, to raid Spanish ships and towns. Though these raids were on a small scale, Drake
achieved dramatic success, adding gold and silver to England’s treasury and diminishing
Spain’s supremacy.
Religious differences also caused conflict between the two countries. Whereas Spain was
Roman Catholic, most of England had become Protestant. King Philip II of Spain wanted
to claim the throne and make England a Catholic country again. To satisfy his ambition
and also to retaliate against England’s theft of his gold and silver, King Philip began to
build his fleet of warships, the Spanish Armada, in January 1586.
Philip intended his fleet to be indestructible. In addition to building new warships, he
marshaled 130 sailing vessels of all types and recruited more than 19,000 robust soldiers
and 8,000 sailors. Although some of his ships lacked guns and others lacked ammunition,
Philip was convinced that his Armada could withstand any battle with England.
The martial Armada set sail from Lisbon, Portugal, on May 9, 1588, but bad weather
forced it back to port. The voyage resumed on July 22 after the weather became more
stable.

The Spanish fleet met the smaller, faster, and more maneuverable English ships in
battle off the coast of Plymouth, England, first on July 31 and again on August 2. The two
battles left Spain vulnerable, having lost several ships and with its ammunition depleted.
On August 7, while the Armada lay at anchor on the French side of the Strait of Dover,
England sent eight burning ships into the midst of the Spanish fleet to set it on fire.
Blocked on one side, the Spanish ships could only drift away, their crews in panic and
disorder. Before the Armada could regroup, the English attacked again on August 8.
Although the Spaniards made a valiant effort to fight back, the fleet suffered extensive
damage. During the eight hours of battle, the Armada drifted perilously close to the
rocky coastline. At the moment when it seemed that the Spanish ships would be driven
onto the English shore, the wind shifted, and the Armada drifted out into the North Sea.
The Spaniards recognized the superiority of the English fleet and returned home,
defeated.

20. Sir Francis Drake added wealth to the treasury and diminished Spain’s ………..
A. unlimited power
B. unrestricted growth
C. territory
D. treaties

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 E. Answer not available in article

21. King Philip recruited many….. soldiers and sailors.

A. warlike
B. strong
C. accomplished
D. timid
E. inexperienced

22. The ………... Armada set sail on May 9, 1588.

A. complete
B. warlike
C. independent
D. isolated
E. Answer not available

23. The two battles left the Spanish fleet ……………….

A. open to change
B. triumphant
C. open to attack
D. defeated
E. discouraged

24. The Armada was ………….. on one side.

A. closed off
B. damaged
C. alone
D. circled
E. Answer not available in this article

The following passage refers to questions 25-29.

The victory of the small Greek democracy of Athens over the mighty Persian Empire in
490 B.C. is one of the most famous events in history. Darius, king of the Persian Empire,
was furious because Athens had interceded for the other Greek city-states in revolt
against Persian domination. In anger the king sent an enormous army to defeat Athens.
He thought it would take drastic steps to pacify the rebellious part of the empire.

Persia was ruled by one man. In Athens, however, all citizens helped to rule. Ennobled
by this participation, Athenians were prepared to die for their city-state. Perhaps this
was the secret of the remarkable victory at Marathon, which freed them from Persian

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 rule. On their way to Marathon, the Persians tried to fool some Greek city-states by
claiming to have come in peace. The frightened citizens of Delos refused to believe this.
Not wanting to abet the conquest of Greece, they fled from their city and did not return
until the Persians had left. They were wise, for the Persians next conquered the city of
Eritrea and captured its people.
Tiny Athens stood alone against Persia. The Athenian people went to their sanctuaries.
There they prayed for deliverance. They asked their gods to expedite their victory. The
Athenians refurbished their weapons and moved to the plain of Marathon, where their
little band would meet the Persians. At the last moment, soldiers from Plataea reinforced
the Athenian troops.

The Athenian army attacked, and Greek citizens fought bravely. The power of the mighty
Persians was offset by the love that the Athenians had for their city. Athenians defeated
the Persians in both archery and hand combat. Greek soldiers seized Persian ships and
burned them, and the Persians fled in terror. Herodotus, a famous historian, reports that
6,400 Persians died, compared to only 192 Athenians.

25. Athens had …….. the other Greek city-states against the Persians.
A. refused help to
B. intervened on behalf of
C. wanted to fight
D. given orders for all to fight
E. defeated

26. Darius took drastic steps to ………. the rebellious Athenians.

A. weaken B. destroy C. calm
D. irritate
E. Answer not available

27. Their participation …………….. to the Athenians.

A. gave comfort
B. gave honor
C. gave strength
D. gave fear
E. gave hope

28. The people of Delos did not want to ………………. the conquest of Greece.
A. end
B. encourage
C. think about
D. daydream about

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 E. Answer not available

29. The Athenians were …………….. by some soldiers who arrived from Plataea.
A. welcomed
B. strengthened
C. held
D. captured
E. Answer not available

The following passage refers to questions 30-32.

The Trojan War is one of the most famous wars in history. It is well known for the 10-year
duration, for the heroism of a number of legendary characters, and for the Trojan horse.
What may not be familiar, however, is the story of how the war began. According to
Greek myth, the strife between the Trojans and the Greeks started at the wedding of
Peleus, King of Thessaly, and Thetis, a sea nymph. All of the gods and goddesses had
been invited to the wedding celebration in Troy except Eris, goddess of discord. She had
been omitted from the guest list because her presence always embroiled mortals and
immortals alike in conflict.

To take revenge on those who had slighted her, Eris decided to cause a skirmish. Into the
middle of the banquet hall, she threw a golden apple marked “for the most beautiful.” All
of the goddesses began to haggle over who should possess it. The gods and goddesses
reached a stalemate when the choice was narrowed to Hera, Athena, and Aphrodite.
Someone was needed to settle the controversy by picking a winner. The job eventually
fell to Paris, son of King Priam of Troy, who was said to be a good judge of beauty. Paris
did not have an easy job. Each goddess, eager to win the golden apple, tried aggressively
to bribe him.

“I’ll grant you vast kingdoms to rule,” promised Hera. “Vast kingdoms are nothing in
comparison with my gift,” contradicted Athena. “Choose me and I’ll see that you win
victory and fame in war.” Aphrodite outdid her adversaries, however. She
won the golden apple by offering Helen, daughter of Zeus and the most beautiful mortal
in the land, to Paris. Paris, anxious to claim Helen, set off for Sparta in Greece.

Although Paris learned that Helen was married, he nevertheless accepted the hospitality
of her husband, King Menelaus of Sparta. Therefore, Menelaus was outraged for a
number of reasons when Paris departed, taking Helen and much of the king’s wealth
back to Troy. Menelaus collected his loyal forces and set sail for Troy to begin
the war to reclaim Helen.

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 30. Eris was known for ………….. both mortals and immortals.
A. scheming against
B. creating conflict amongst
C. feeling hostile toward
D. ignoring
E. comforting

31. Each goddess tried …………………. to bribe Paris.

A. boldly
B. effectively
C. secretly
D. carefully
E. Answer not available

32. Athena ………………. Hera, promising Paris victory and fame in war.
A. disregarded the statement of
B. defeated
C. agreed with
D. restated the statement of
E. questioned the statement of

Refer to the following passage for questions 33-37.

One of the most intriguing stories of the Russian Revolution concerns the identity of
Anastasia, the youngest daughter of Czar Nicholas II. During his reign over Russia, the
czar had planned to revoke many of the harsh laws established by previous czars. Some
workers and peasants, however, clamored for more rapid social reform. In 1918, a group
of these people known as Bolsheviks overthrew the government. On July 17 or 18, they
murdered the czar and what was thought to be his entire family.

Although witnesses vouched that all the members of the czar’s family had been executed,
there were rumors suggesting that Anastasia had survived. Over the years, a number of
women claimed to be Grand Duchess Anastasia. Perhaps the most famous claimant was
Anastasia Tschaikovsky, who was also known as Anna Anderson.

In 1920, 18 months after the czar’s execution, this terrified young woman was rescued
from drowning in a Berlin river. She spent two years in a hospital, where she attempted
to reclaim her health and shattered mind. The doctors and nurses thought that she
resembled Anastasia and questioned her about her background. She disclaimed any
connection with the czar’s family. Eight years later, however, she claimed that she was
Anastasia. She said that she had been rescued by two Russian soldiers after the czar and

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 the rest of her family had been killed. Two brothers named Tschaikovsky had carried her
into Romania. She had married one of the brothers, who had taken her to Berlin and left
her there, penniless and without a vocation. Unable to invoke the aid of her mother’s
family in Germany, she had tried to drown herself.

During the next few years, scores of the czar’s relatives, ex-servants, and
acquaintances interviewed her. Many of these people said that her looks and mannerisms
were evocative of the Anastasia that they had known. Her grandmother and other
relatives denied that she was the real Anastasia, however.

Tired of being accused of fraud, Anastasia immigrated to the United States in 1928 and
took the name Anna Anderson. She still wished to prove that she was Anastasia, though,
and returned to Germany in 1933 to bring suit against her mother’s family. There she
declaimed to the court, asserting that she was indeed Anastasia and deserved her
inheritance.
In 1957, the court decided that it could neither confirm nor deny Anastasia’s identity.
Although it will probably never be known whether this woman was the Grand Duchess
Anastasia, her search to establish her identity has been the subject of numerous books,
plays, and movies.

33. Some Russian peasants and workers ………………. for social reform.
A. longed
B. cried out
C. begged
D. hoped
E. thought much

34. Witnesses ……………. that all members of the czar’s family had been executed.
A. gave assurance
B. thought
C. hoped
D. convinced some
E. Answer not available

35. Tschaikovsky initially ………………. any connection with the czar’s family.
A. denied
B. stopped
C. noted
D. justified
E. Answer not available

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 36. She was unable to …………………… the aid of her relatives.
A. locate
B. speak about
C. call upon
D. identify
E. know

37. In court she ……………… maintaining that she was Anastasia and deserved her
inheritance.
A. finally appeared
B. spoke forcefully
C. gave testimony
D. gave evidence
E. Answer not available

Refer to the following passage for questions 38-39.

King Louis XVI and Queen Marie Antoinette ruled France from 1774 to 1789, a time when
the country was fighting bankruptcy. The royal couple did not let France’s insecure
financial situation limit their immoderate spending, however. Even though the minister
of finance repeatedly warned the king and queen against wasting money, they continued
to spend great fortunes on their personal pleasure. This lavish spending greatly enraged
the people of France. They felt that the royal couple bought its luxurious lifestyle at the
poor people’s expense.

Marie Antoinette, the beautiful but exceedingly impractical queen, seemed uncaring
about her subjects’ misery. While French citizens begged for lower taxes, the queen
embellished her palace with extravagant works of art. She also surrounded herself with
artists, writers, and musicians, who encouraged the queen to spend money even more
profusely.
While the queen’s favorites glutted themselves on huge feasts at the royal table, many
people in France were starving. The French government taxed the citizens outrageously.
These high taxes paid for the entertainments the queen and her court so enjoyed. When
the minister of finance tried to stop these royal spendthrifts, the queen replaced him. The
intense hatred that the people felt for Louis XVI and Marie Antoinette kept building until
it led to the French Revolution. During this time of struggle and violence (1789-1799),
thousands of aristocrats, as well as the king and queen themselves, lost their lives at the
guillotine. Perhaps if Louis XVI and Marie Antoinette had reined in their extravagant
spending, the events that rocked France would not have occurred.

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 38. The people surrounding the queen encouraged her to spend money ………… .
A. wisely
B. abundantly
C. carefully
D. foolishly
E. joyfully

39. The minister of finance tried to curb these royal …………….. .

A. aristocrats
B. money wasters
C. enemies
D. individuals
E. spenders

Refer to the following passage for questions 40-45.

Many great inventions are initially greeted with ridicule and disbelief. The invention of
the airplane was no exception. Although many people who heard about the first powered
flight on December 17, 1903 were excited and impressed, others reacted with peals of
laughter. The idea of flying an aircraft was repulsive to some people. Such people called
Wilbur and Orville Wright, the inventors of the first flying machine, impulsive fools.
Negative reactions, however, did not stop the Wrights. Impelled by their desire to
succeed, they continued their experiments in aviation.

Orville and Wilbur Wright had always had a compelling interest in aeronautics and
mechanics. As young boys they earned money by making and selling kites and
mechanical toys. Later, they designed a newspaper-folding machine, built a printing
press, and operated a bicycle-repair shop. In 1896, when they read about the death of
Otto Lilienthal, the brothers’ interest in flight grew into a compulsion.

Lilienthal, a pioneer in hang-gliding, had controlled his gliders by shifting his body in the
desired direction. This idea was repellent to the Wright brothers, however, and they
searched for more efficient methods to control the balance of airborne vehicles. In 1900
and 1901, the Wrights tested numerous gliders and developed control techniques. The
brothers’ inability to obtain enough lift power for the gliders almost led them to abandon
their efforts.
After further study, the Wright brothers concluded that the published tables of air
pressure on curved surfaces must be wrong. They set up a wind tunnel and began a
series of experiments with model wings. Because of their efforts, the old tables were
repealed

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 in time and replaced by the first reliable figures for air pressure on curved surfaces. This
work, in turn, made it possible for the brothers to design a machine that would fly. In
1903 the Wrights built their first airplane, which cost less than $1,000. They even designed
and built their own source of propulsion-a lightweight gasoline engine. When they
started the engine on December 17, the airplane pulsated wildly before taking off. The
plane managed to stay aloft for 12 seconds, however, and it flew 120 feet.

By 1905, the Wrights had perfected the first airplane that could turn, circle, and remain
airborne for half an hour at a time. Others had flown in balloons and hang gliders, but the
Wright brothers were the first to build a full-size machine that could fly under its own
power. As the contributors of one of the most outstanding engineering achievements in
history, the Wright brothers are accurately called the fathers of aviation.

40. The idea of flying an aircraft was………….. to some people.

A. boring
B. distasteful
C. exciting
D. needless
E. Answer not available

41. People thought that the Wright brothers had …………..

A. acted without thinking
B. been negatively influenced
C. been too cautious
D. been mistaken
E. acted in a negative way

42. The Wrights’ interest in flight grew into a …………….

A. financial empire
B. plan
C. need to act
D. foolish thought
E. Answer not available

43. Lilienthal’s idea about controlling airborne vehicles was …………… the Wrights.
A. proven wrong by
B. opposite to the ideas of
C. disliked by
D. accepted by
E. improved by

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 44. The old tables were ………….. and replaced by the first reliable figures for air
pressure on curved surfaces.
A. destroyed
B. invalidated
C. multiplied
D. approved
E. not used

45. The Wrights designed and built their own source of ……………… .
A. force for moving forward
B. force for turning around
C. turning
D. force for going backward
E. None of the above

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 Reading Comprehension Part 2

Refer to the following passage for questions 1 through 5.

In 1892, the Sierra Club was formed. In 1908, an area of coastal redwood trees north of
San Francisco was established as Muir Woods National Monument. In the Sierra Nevada
Mountains, a walking trail from Yosemite Valley to Mount Whitney was dedicated in
1938. It is called the John Muir Trail.

John Muir was born in 1838 in Scotland. His family name means “moor,” which is a
meadow full of flowers and animals. John loved nature from the time he was small. He
also liked to climb rocky cliffs and walls.

When John was 11 years old, his family moved to the United States and settled in
Wisconsin. John was good with tools and soon became an inventor. He first invented a
model of a sawmill. Later, he invented an alarm clock that would cause the sleeping
person to be tipped out of bed when the timer sounded.

Muir left home at an early age. He took a 1,000-mile walk south to the Gulf of Mexico in
1867and 1868. Then he sailed for San Francisco. The city was too noisy and crowded for
Muir, so he headed inland for the Sierra Nevadas.

When Muir discovered the Yosemite Valley in the Sierra Nevadas, it was as if he had
come home. He loved the mountains, the wildlife, and the trees. He climbed the
mountains and even climbed trees during thunderstorms in order to get closer to the
wind. He put forth the theory in the late 1860s that the Yosemite Valley had been formed
through the action of glaciers. People ridiculed him. Not until 1930 was Muir’s theory
proven correct.

Muir began to write articles about the Yosemite Valley to tell readers about its beauty.
His writing also warned people that Yosemite was in danger from timber mining and
sheep ranching interests. In 1901, Theodore Roosevelt became president of the United
States. He was interested in conservation. Muir took the president through Yosemite,
and Roosevelt helped get legislation passed to create Yosemite National Park in 1906.

Although Muir won many conservation battles, he lost a major one. He fought to save the
Hetch Hetchy Valley, which people wanted to dam in order to provide water for San
Francisco. In late 1913, a bill was signed to dam the valley. Muir died in 1914. Some
people say losing the fight to protect the valley killed Muir.

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 1. What happened first?
A. The Muir family moved to the United States.
B. Muir Woods was created.
C. John Muir learned to climb rocky cliffs.
D. John Muir walked to the Gulf of Mexico.
E. John Muir visited along the east coast.

2. When did Muir invent a unique form of alarm clock?

A. While the family still lived in Scotland.
B. After he sailed to San Francisco.
C. After he traveled in Yosemite.
D. While the Muir family lived in Wisconsin.
E. After he took the long walk.

3. What did John Muir do soon after he arrived in San Francisco?

A. He ran outside during an earthquake.
B. He put forth a theory about how Yosemite was formed.
C. He headed inland for the Sierra Nevadas.
D. He began to write articles about the Sierra Nevadas.
E. He wrote short stories for the local newspaper.

4. When did John Muir meet Theodore Roosevelt?

A. Between 1901 and 1906
B. Between 1838 and 1868
C. Between 1906 and 1914
D. Between 1868 and 1901
E. Between 1906 and 1907

5. What happened last?

A. John Muir died.
B. John Muir Trail was dedicated.
C. Muir’s glacial theory was proven.
D. The Sierra Club was formed.
E. John’s family visited him.

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 Refer to the following passage for questions 6 through 9.

When using a metal file, always remember to bear down on the forward stroke only. On
the return stroke, lift the file clear of the surface to avoid dulling the instrument’s teeth.
Only when working on very soft metals is it advisable to drag the file’s teeth slightly on
the return stroke. This helps clear out metal pieces from between the teeth.
It is best to bear down just hard enough to keep the file cutting at all times. Too little
pressure uses only the tips of the teeth, while too much pressure can chip the teeth. Move
the file in straight lines across the surface. Use a vise to grip the work so that your hands
are free to hold the file. Protect your hands by equipping the file with a handle. Buy a
wooden handle and install it by inserting the pointed end of the file into the handle hole.

6. These directions show you how to…

A. Work with a hammer.
B. Use a file.
C. Polish a file.
D. Oil a vise.
E. Repair shop tools.

7. When using a file…

A. Always bear down on the return stroke.
B. Move it in a circle.
C. Remove the handle.
D. Press down on the forward stroke.
E. Wear protective gloves.

8. When working on soft metals, you can…

A. Remove the handle.
B. Clear metal pieces from the teeth.
C. Bear down very hard on the return stroke.
D. File in circles.
E. Strengthen them with added wood.

9. Protect your hands by…

A. Dulling the teeth.
B. Dragging the teeth on the backstroke.
C. Using a vise.
D. Installing a handle.
E. Wearing safety gloves.

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 Refer to the following passage for questions 10 through 19.

“Old woman,” grumbled the burly white man who had just heard Sojourner Truth speak,
“do you think your talk about slavery does any good? I don’t care any more for your talk
than I do for the bite of a flea.”

The tall, imposing black woman turned her piercing eyes on him. “Perhaps not,”
she answered, “but I’ll keep you scratching.”

The little incident of the 1840s sums up all that Sojourner Truth was: utterly dedicated to
spreading her message, afraid of no one, and both forceful and witty in speech.

Yet 40 years earlier, who could have suspected that a spindly slave girl growing up in a
damp cellar in upstate New York would become one of the most remarkable women in
American history? Her name then was Isabella Baumfree, and by the time she was 14
years old she had seen both parents die of cold and hunger. She herself had been sold
several times. By 1827, when New York freed its slaves, she had married and given birth
to four children.

The first hint of Isabella’s fighting spirit came soon afterwards, when her youngest son
was illegally seized and sold. She marched to the courthouse and badgered officials until
her son was returned to her.

In 1843, inspired by religion, she changed her name to Sojourner (meaning “one who
stays briefly”) Truth and, with only pennies in her purse, set out to preach against
slavery. From New England to Minnesota she trekked, gaining a reputation for her plain
but powerful and moving words. Incredibly, despite being black and female (only white
males were expected to be public speakers), she drew thousands to town halls, tents, and
churches to hear her powerful, deep-voiced pleas on equality for blacks-and for women.
Often she had to face threatening hoodlums. Once she stood before armed bullies and
sang a hymn to them. Awed by her courage and her commanding presence, they
sheepishly retreated.

During the Civil War she cared for homeless ex-slaves in Washington, D.C. President
Lincoln invited her to the White House to bestow praise on her. Later, she petitioned
Congress to help former slaves get land in the West. Even in her old age, she forced the
city of Washington, D.C. to integrate its trolley cars so that black and white passengers
could ride together.

Shortly before her death at the age of 86, she was asked what kept her going. “I think of
the great things,” replied Sojourner.

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 10. The imposing black woman promised to keep the white man…
A. Searching.
B. Crying.
C. Hollering.
D. Scratching.
E. Fleeing.

11. This incident occurred in the…

A. 1760s.
B. 1900s.
C. 1840s.
D. 1920s.
E. 1700s.

12. Sojourner Truth was raised in a damp cellar in…

A. New York.
B. Georgia.
C. New Jersey.
D. Idaho.
E. Maryland.

13. Isabella lost both parents by the time she was…

A. 27 years old.
B. 2 years old.
C. 7 years old.
D. 14 years old.
E. 19 years old.

14. When New York freed its slaves, Isabella had…

A. Problems.
B. No children.
C. Four children.
D. An education.
E. Three children.

15. Her change in name was inspired by…

A. A fighting spirit.
B. Religion.
C. Her freedom.
D. Officials.

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 E. Friends.

16. She traveled from New England to…

A. Canada.
B. California.
C. Minnesota.
D. Alaska.
E. Virginia.

17. She forced the city of Washington, D.C. to…

A. Integrate its trolleys.
B. Give land grants.
C. Care for ex-slaves.
D. Provide food for ex-slaves.
E. Clean its trolleys.

18. She preached against…

A. Smoking.
B. Slavery.
C. Alcohol.
D. Hoodlums.
E. Women having no rights.

19. Sojourner Truth died at…

A. 48.
B. 72.
C. 63.
D. 86.
E. 88.

Refer to the following passage for questions 20 through 24.

The Galapagos Islands are in the Pacific Ocean, off the western coast of South America.
They are a rocky, lonely spot, but they are also one of the most unusual places in the
world. One reason is that they are the home of some of the last giant tortoises left on
earth.

Weighing hundreds of pounds, these tortoises, or land turtles, wander slowly around the
rocks and sand of the islands. Strangely, each of these islands has its own particular kinds
of tortoises. There are seven different kinds of tortoises on the eight islands, each kind
being slightly different from the other.

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 Hundreds of years ago, thousands of tortoises wandered around these islands. However,
all that changed when people started landing there. When people first arrived in 1535,
their ships had no refrigerators. This meant that fresh food was always a problem for the
sailors on board. The giant tortoises provided an easy solution to this problem. Ships
would anchor off the islands, and crews would row ashore and seize as many tortoises as
they could. Once the animals were aboard the ship, the sailors would roll the tortoises
onto their backs. The tortoises were completely helpless once on their backs, so they
could only lie there until used for soups and stews. Almost 100,000 tortoises were carried
off in this way.

The tortoises faced other problems, too. Soon after the first ships, settlers arrived,
bringing pigs, goats, donkeys, dogs and cats. All of these animals ruined life for the
tortoises. Donkeys and goats ate all the plants that the tortoises usually fed on, while the
pigs, dogs and cats consumed thousands of baby tortoises each year. Within a few years,
it was hard to find any tortoise eggs-or even any baby tortoises.

By the early 1900s, people began to worry that the last of the tortoises would soon die
out. No one, however, seemed to care enough to do anything about the problem. More
and more tortoises disappeared, even though sailors no longer needed them for food. For
another 50 years, this situation continued. Finally, in the 1950s, scientists decided that
something must be done.

The first part of their plan was to remove as many cats, dogs and other animals as they
could from the islands. Next, they tried to make sure that more baby tortoises would be
born. To do this, they started looking for wild tortoise eggs. They gathered the eggs and
put them in safe containers. When the eggs hatched, the scientists raised the tortoises in
special pens. Both the eggs and tortoises were numbered so that the scientists knew
exactly which kinds of tortoises they had and which island they came from. Once the
tortoises were old enough and big enough to take care of themselves, the scientists took
them back to their islands and set them loose. This slow, hard work continues today, and,
thanks to it, the number of tortoises is now increasing every year. Perhaps
thesewonderful animals will not disappear after all.

20. What happened first?

A. Sailors took tortoises aboard ships.
B. The tortoise meat was used for soups and stews.
C. Tortoises were put onto their backs.
D. Settlers brought other animals to the islands.
E. Pigs had been all the sailors had to eat.

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 21. What happened soon after people brought animals to the islands?
A. Tortoise eggs were kept in safe containers.
B. Scientists took away as many animals as they could.
C. The animals ate the tortoises’ food and eggs.
D. The tortoises fought with the other animals.
E. The tortoises continued to wander freely.

22. When did people start to do something to save the tortoises?

A. In the 1500s
B. In the 1950s
C. In the early 1900s
D. In the 1960s
E. In the 1400s

23. What happens right after the tortoise eggs hatch?

A. The scientists take the tortoises back to their islands.
B. The scientists get rid of cats, dogs, and other animals.
C. The sailors use the tortoises for food.
D. The scientists raise the tortoises in special pens.
E. The scientists encourage the villagers to help.

24. What happened last?

A. The tortoises began to disappear.
B. The number of tortoises began to grow.
C. Scientists took away other animals.
D. Tortoises were taken back to their home islands.
E. The number of tortoises began to decrease.

Refer to the following passage for questions 25 through 28.

The first person in the group starts off by naming anything that is geographical. It could
be a city, state, country, river, lake, or any proper geographical term. For example, the
person might say, “Boston.” The second person has 10 seconds to think of how the word
ends and come up with another geographical term starting with that letter. The second
participant might say, “Norway,” because the geographical term has to start with “N.”
The third person would have to choose a word beginning with “Y.” If a player fails to
think of a correct answer within the time limit, that player is out of the game. The last
person to survive is the champion.

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 25. This game may help you with…
A. History.
B. Music.
C. Geography.
D. Sports.
E. Current events.

26. The person trying to answer needs…

A. No time limit.
B. To know geography only.
C. To ignore the last letters of words.
D. To know something about spelling and geography.
E. To be a good speller.

27. Before you choose your own word, think about how…
A. The last word starts.
B. The last word ends.
C. Smart you are.
D. Long the last word is.
E. The first word is spelled.

28. The answer must be…

A. In New York.
B. Within the United States.
C. A proper geographical term.
D. In the same region.
E. Along a coast line.

Refer to the following passage for questions 29 through 33.

Charles A. Lindbergh is remembered as the first person to make a nonstop solo flight
across the Atlantic, in 1927. This feat, performed when Lindbergh was only 25 years old,
assured him a lifetime of fame and public attention.

Charles Augustus Lindbergh was more interested in flying airplanes than he was in
studying. He dropped out of the University of Wisconsin after two years to earn a living
performing daredevil airplane stunts at county fairs. Two years later, he joined the
United States Army so that he could go to the Army Air Service flight-training school.
After completing his training, he was hired to fly mail between St. Louis and Chicago.

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 Then came the historic flight across the Atlantic. In 1919, a New York City hotel owner
offered a prize of $25,000 for the first pilot to fly nonstop from New York to Paris. Nine
St. Louis business leaders helped pay for the plane Lindbergh designed especially for the
flight. Lindbergh tested the plane by flying it from San Diego to New York, with an
overnight stop in St. Louis. The flight took only 20 hours and 21 minutes, a
transcontinental record.

Nine days later, on May 20, 1927, Lindbergh took off from Long Island, New York, at 7:52
a.m. He landed in Paris on May 21 at 10:21 p.m. He had flown more than 3,600 miles in
less than 34 hours. His flight made news around the world. He was given awards and
parades everywhere he went. He was presented with the US Congressional Medal of
Honor and the first Distinguished Flying Cross. For a long time, Lindbergh toured the
world as a US goodwill ambassador. He met his future wife, Anne Morrow, in Mexico,
where her father was the United States ambassador.

During the 1930s, Charles and Anne Lindbergh worked for various airline companies,
charting new commercial air routes. In 1931, for a major airline, they charted a new route
from the east coast of the United States to the Orient. The shortest, most efficient route
was a great curve across Canada, over Alaska, and down to China and Japan. Most pilots
familiar with the Arctic did not believe that such a route was possible. The Lindberghs
took on the task of proving that it was. They arranged for fuel and supplies to be set out
along the route. On July 29, they took off from Long Island in a specially equipped small
seaplane. They flew by day and each night landed on a lake or a river and camped. Near
Nome, Alaska, they had their first serious emergency. Out of daylight and nearly out of
fuel, they were forced down into a small ocean inlet. In the next morning’s light, they
discovered they had landed on barely three feet of water. On September 19, after two
more emergency landings and numerous close calls, they landedin China with the maps
for a safe airline passenger route.

Even while actively engaged as a pioneering flier, Lindbergh was also working as an
engineer. In 1935, he and Dr. Alexis Carrel were given a patent for an artificial heart.
During World War II in the 1940s, Lindbergh served as a civilian technical advisor in
aviation. Although he was a civilian, he flew over 50 combat missions in the Pacific. In
the 1950s, Lindbergh helped design the famous 747 jet airliner. In the late 1960s, he spoke
widely on conservation issues. He died in August 1974, having lived through aviation
history from the time of the first powered flight to the first steps on the moon and having
influenced a big part of that history himself.

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 29. What did Lindbergh do before he crossed the Atlantic?
A. He charted a route to China.
B. He graduated from flight-training school.
C. He married Anne Morrow.
D. He acted as a technical advisor during World War II.
E. He was responsible for the fuel supply for planes.

30. What happened immediately after Lindbergh crossed the Atlantic?

A. He flew the mail between St. Louis and Chicago.
B. He left college.
C. He attended the Army flight-training school.
D. He was given the Congressional Medal of Honor.
E. He married Anne Morrow.

31. When did Charles meet Anne Morrow?

A. Before he took off from Long Island.
B. After he worked for an airline.
C. Before he was forced down into an ocean inlet.
D. After he received the first Distinguished Flying Cross.
E. When visiting his parents.

32. When did the Lindberghs map an air route to China?

A. Before they worked for an airline.
B. Before Charles worked with Dr. Carrel.
C. After World War II.
D. While designing the 747.
E. When he was 30 years old.

33. What event happened last?

A. Lindbergh patented an artificial heart.
B. The Lindberghs mapped a route to the Orient.
C. Lindbergh helped design the 747 airliner.
D. Lindbergh flew 50 combat missions.
E. Lindbergh was finally given an honorary degree from college.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 548 IUP Preparation

 Refer to the following passage for questions 34 through 37.

Always read the meter dials from the right to the left. This procedure is much easier,
especially if any of the dial hands are near the zero mark. If the meter has two dials, and
one is smaller than the other, then it is not imperative to read the smaller dial because it
only registers a small amount. Read the dial at the right first. As the dial turns clockwise,
always record the figure the pointer has just passed. Read the next dial to the left and
record the figure it has just passed. Continue recording the figures on the dials from right
to left. When finished, mark off the number of units recorded. Dials on water and gas
meters usually indicate the amount each dial records.

34. These instructions show you how to…

A. Read a meter.
B. Turn the dials of a meter.
C. Install a gas meter.
D. Repair a water meter.
E. Be prepared for outside employment.

35. Always read the meter dials…

A. From top to bottom.
B. From right to left.
C. From left to right.
D. From the small to the large dial.
E. From the large dial to the small dial.

36. As you read the first dial, record the figures…

A. On the smaller dial.
B. The pointer is approaching.
C. The pointer has just passed.
D. At the top.
E. At the bottom.

37. When you have finished reading the meter, mark off…
A. The number of units recorded.
B. The figures on the small dial.
C. The total figures.
D. All the zero marks.
E. The last reading of the month.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 549 IUP Preparation

 Refer to the following passage for questions 38 through 44.

The village of Vestmannaeyjar, in the far northern country of Iceland, is as bright and
clean and up-to-date as any American or Canadian suburb. It is located on the island of
Heimaey, just off the mainland. One January night in 1973, however, householders were
shocked from their sleep. In some backyards, red-hot liquid was spurting from the
ground. Flaming “skyrockets” shot up and over the houses. The island’s volcano,
Helgafell, silent for 7,000 years, was violently erupting!

Luckily, the island’s fishing fleet was in port, and within 24 hours almost everyone was
ferried to the mainland. But then the agony of the island began in earnest. As in a
nightmare, fountains of burning lava spurted 300 feet high. Black, baseball-size cinders
rained down. An evil-smelling, eye-burning, throat-searing cloud of smoke and gas
erupted into the air, and a river of lava flowed down the mountain. The constant shriek
of escaping steam was punctuated by ear-splitting explosions.

As time went on, the once pleasant village of Vestmannaeyjar took on a weird aspect. Its
street lamps still burning against the long Arctic night, the town lay under a thick blanket
of cinders. All that could be seen above the 10-foot black drifts were the tips of street
signs. Some houses had collapsed under the weight of cinders, while others had burst
into flames as the heat ignited their oil storage tanks. Lighting the whole lurid scene, fire
continued to shoot from the mouth of the looming volcano.

The eruption continued for six months. Scientists and reporters arrived from around the
world to observe the awesome natural event. But the town did not die that easily. In July,
when the eruption ceased, the people of Heimaey Island returned to assess the chances of
rebuilding their homes and lives. They found tons of ash covering the ground. The
Icelanders are a tough people, however, accustomed to the strange and violent nature of
their Arctic land. They dug out their homes. They even used the cinders to build new
roads and airport runways. Now the new homes of Heimaey are warmed
from water pipes heated by molten lava.

38. The village is located on the island of…

A. Vestmannaeyjar.
B. Hebrides.
C. Heimaey.
D. Helgafell.
E. Heima.

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 39. The color of the hot liquid was…
A. Orange.
B. Black.
C. Yellow.
D. Red.
E. Gray.

40. This liquid was coming from the…

A. Mountains.
B. Ground.
C. Sea.
D. Sky.
E. Ocean.

41. The island’s volcano had been inactive for…

A. 70 years.
B. 7,000 years.
C. 7,000 months.
D. 700 years.
E. 70 decades.

42. Black cinders fell that were the size of…

A. Baseballs.
B. Pebbles.
C. Golf balls.
D. Footballs.
E. Hailstones.

43. Despite the eruption…

A. The buses kept running.
B. The radio stations kept broadcasting.
C. The police kept working.
D. The street lamps kept burning.
E. Television stations kept broadcasting.

44. This volcanic eruption lasted for six…

A. Weeks.
B. Hours.
C. Months.
D. Days.
E. Years.

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 551 IUP Preparation

 ENGLISH 17
Grammar and Structure

1. I ..... tennis every Sunday morning.

A. playing
B. play
C. am playing
D. am play

2. Don't make so much noise. Noriko ..... to study for her ESL test!
A. try
B. tries
C. tried
D. is trying

3. Jun-Sik ..... his teeth before breakfast every morning.

A. will cleaned
B. is cleaning
C. cleans
D. clean

4. Sorry, she can't come to the phone. She ..... a bath!

A. is having
B. having
C. have
D. has

5. ..... many times every winter in Frankfurt.

A. It snows
B. It snowed
C. It is snowing
D. It is snow

6. How many students in your class ..... from Korea?

A. comes
B. come
C. came
D. are coming

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 7. Weather report: "It's seven o'clock in Frankfurt and ..... ."
A. there is snow
B. it`s snowing
C. it snows
D. it snowed

8. Babies ..... when they are hungry.

A. cry
B. cries
C. cried
D. are crying

9. Jane: "What ..... in the evenings?" Mary: "Usually I watch TV or read a book."
A. you doing
B. you do
C. do you do
D. are you doing

10. Jane: "What ..... ?"

Mary: "I'm trying to fix my calculator."
A. you doing
B. you do
C. do you do
D. are you doing

11. Jane ..... her blue jeans today, but usually she wears a skirt or a dress.
A. wears
B. wearing
C. wear
D. is wearing

12. I think I ..... a new calculator. This one does not work properly any more.
A. needs
B. needed
C. need
D. am needing

13. Sorry, you can't borrow my pencil. I ..... it myself.

A. was using
B. using
C. use

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 553 IUP Preparation

 D. am using

14. At a school dance: Jane: " ..... yourself?"

Mary: "Yes, I'm having a great time!"
A. You enjoying
B. Enjoy you
C. Do you enjoy
D. Are you enjoying

15. I've just finished reading a story called Dangerous Game. It's about a man who
..... his wife because he doesn't want to lose her.
A. kills
B. killed
C. kill
D. is killing

16. What time .....

A. the train leaves?
B. leaves the train?
C. is the train leaving?
D. does the train leave?

17. Jane: "Are you going to the dance on Friday?"

Mary: "No, I'm not. I ..... school dances; they're loud, hot and crowded!"
A. not enjoy
B. don`t enjoy
C. doesn`t enjoy
D. am not enjoying

18. I ..... for my pen. Have you seen it?

A. will look
B. looking
C. look
D. am looking

19. You can keep my iPod if you like. I ..... it any more.
A. don`t use
B. doesn`t use
C. didn`t use
D. am not using

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 20. The phone ...... Can you answer it, please?
A. rings
B. ring
C. rang
D. is ringing

21. I bought a new computer last week, but it ..... so I took it back to the shop.
A. worked not
B. hasn`t worked
C. don`t work
D. didn`t work

22. I tried to find you before school today. .....

A. Where were you?
B. Where was you?
C. Where have you been? D. Where did you be?

23. My math teacher wasn't happy yesterday. I ..... to bring my calculator to class.
A. was forgetting
B. have forgotten
C. forgot
D. forget

24. Have you seen my pencil? It was here a minute ago and now ..... . .
A. it`s gone
B. it went
C. it was going
D. it have gone

25. I ..... to the cinema since I came to Germany.

A. went not
B. haven`t gone
C. hasn`t gone
D. didn`t go

26. I like your watch. How long ..... it?

A. you have
B. have you had
C. did you have

Bimbel Lavender | 1st Exclusive Bimbel 555 IUP Preparation

 D. are you having

27. Have you ever ridden a horse? - No, but I ..... a camel when I visited Egypt last
year.
A. was riding
B. rode
C. ride
D. have ridden

28. My big sister ..... a baby. She's going to call it Yoshi.

A. was having
B. has had
C. has
D. had

29. I went to the school dance last Friday, but I ..... it very much
A. haven`t enjoyed
B. don`t enjoy
C. didn`t enjoyed
D. didn`t enjoy

30. I ..... very well last night. There was loud music coming from a house down the
road.
A. wasn`t sleeping
B. haven`t slept
C. didn`t slept
D. didn`t sleep

31. I ..... very well since I bought a new bed. I don't find it very comfortable.
A. was sleeping
B. haven`t slept
C. haven`t sleep
D. didn`t sleep

32. I ..... my foot playing tennis last week, and now I can hardly walk.
A. was injuring
B. injured
C. injure
D. have injured

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 33. ..... my hand on a piece of glass. Do you have a Band-Aid?
A. I`ve cut
B. I was cutting
C. I cutted
D. I cut

34. ..... my calculator? I can't find it anywhere?

A. You seen
B. Have you seen
C. Did you seen
D. Did you see

35. I was in a big hurry so I ..... no time to phone you.

A. was having
B. have had
C. have
D. had

36. My grandmother ..... for 62 years before dying at the age of 89!
A. was smoking
B. smoked
C. have smoked
D. has smoked

37. My grandmother ..... for 62 years and she never even coughs. What a lucky
woman!
A. smokes
B. smoked
C. is smoking
D. has smoked

38. I ..... late for school again this morning. The teacher was not happy!
A. have arrived
B. arrived
C. arrive
D. am arriving

39. "Where's Emiko?" - " ..... to the library!"

A. She`s gone
B. She went
C. She is going

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 D. She goes

40. I ..... anything since breakfast so I feel very thirsty now.

A. wasn`t drinking
B. haven`t drunk
C. don`t drink
D. didn`t drink

41. Vegetables are an excellent source vitamins.

A. have
B. of
C. where
D. contain

42. Microscopes make small things appear larger than .

A. really are
B. are really
C. are they really
D. they really are

43. The city of Montreal on an island in the Saint Lawrence River.

A. was built
B. has built
C. that built
D. built

44. A singer's struggle to succeed in popular music is the kind of story a

fascinating film could be made.
A. with
B. by
C. for whom
D. about which

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