1.

In which condition may stress incontinence be experienced during

pregnancy?
a) Frequent urination
b) Painful urination
c) Involuntary leakage of urine when coughing or sneezing
d) Urinary retention

Answer: c) Involuntary leakage of urine when coughing or sneezing

2. What are the two longest tubes that open into the urethra beside the
meatus in the vestibule?
a) Urethral crypts
b) Skene's ducts
c) Renal tubules
d) Nephrons

Answer: b) Skene's ducts

3. In newborns, the ability to control micturition is underdeveloped until

what age?
a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 2-3 years
d) 5 years

Answer: c) 2-3 years

4. During the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, why does a woman experience

increased frequency of urination?
a) Enlarging uterus obstructing the bladder
b) Urinary infection
c) Hormonal changes
d) Pressure on the urethra from the fetus

Answer: a) Enlarging uterus obstructing the bladder

5. Acute retention of urine is a rare condition in pregnancy and is most

likely to occur around which week of gestation?
a) 4th week
b) 12th week
c) 24th week
d) 36th week

Answer: b) 12th week

6. In labor, what position of the fetus is associated with increased

frequency of urination due to pressure on the sacral plexus?
a) Anterior position
b) Posterior position
 c) Occipitoanterior position
d) Occipitoposterior position

Answer: d) Occipitoposterior position

7. The What is the primary cause of acute retention of urine in labor?

a) Lack of sensation stimulus to the bladder
b) Overstretching of the bladder
c) Pressure on the nerve plexus
d) Infection of the urethra

Answer: a) Lack of sensation stimulus to the bladder

8. During labor, if the bladder is not emptied at the end of the first stage,
what may occur during the second stage?
a) Acute retention
b) Urinary incontinence
c) Dribbling of urine with each contraction
d) Increased frequency of urination

Answer: c) Dribbling of urine with each contraction

9. What complication can a full bladder during labor lead to?

a) Premature birth
b) Non-separation of the placenta
c) Preeclampsia
d) Gestational diabetes

Answer: b) Non-separation of the placenta

10. What is the main cause of increased frequency of urination in the

first 48 hours of the puerperium?
a) Urinary infection
b) Hormonal changes
c) Lax muscle tone
d) Over distention of the bladder

Answer: b) Hormonal changes

11. In the puerperium, acute retention of urine may be due to all of the
following reasons EXCEPT:
a) Complete bed rest with the use of a bedpan
b) Privacy and embarrassment
c) Fear of pain following perineal tear or difficult labor
d) Lax muscle tone due to regular exercise

Answer: d) Lax muscle tone due to regular exercise

12. Stress incontinence in the puerperium is more common in:

 a) Nulliparous women
b) Women with a history of vaginal fistula
c) Women with strong pelvic floor muscles
d) Multigravida with weak pelvic floor muscles and sphincters
Answer: d) Multigravida with weak pelvic floor muscles and
sphincters

13. What are the two hormones responsible for lactation?

a) Estrogen and progesterone
b) Prolactin and oxytocin
c) Testosterone and cortisol
d) Thyroxine and insulin

Answer: b) Prolactin and oxytocin

14. When does the action of prolactin become suppressed during

pregnancy?
a) Third trimester
b) First trimester
c) Around the 12th week of gestation
d) After childbirth

Answer: c) Around the 12th week of gestation

15. What hormone is responsible for causing the formation of new

globules in the cells of the alveoli and pushing milk into the lactiferous
ducts?
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Prolactin
d) Oxytocin

Answer: c) Prolactin

16. During lactation, what stimulates the release of milk from the
ampulla and lactiferous ducts?
a) Sucking reflex of the baby
b) Nipple stimulation
c) Hormonal changes
d) Regular exercise

Answer: a) Sucking reflex of the baby

17. Which phase of lactation is responsible for maintaining milk

production based on positive feedback mechanism?
a) Production of milk
b) Flow of milk
c) Maintenance of milk
d) Post-lactation phase
 Answer: c) Maintenance of milk

18. What is the primary function of the breasts in the reproductive

system?
a) Filtration of blood
b) Production of ova
c) Manufacture of milk
d) Formation of hormones
Answer: c) Manufacture of milk

19. Which hormone is responsible for the formation of milk in the

mammary glands?
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Prolactin
d) Oxytocin

Answer: c) Prolactin

20. When does the process of lactation typically begin?

a) During pregnancy
b) At the onset of puberty
c) After menopause
d) After childbirth

Answer: d) After childbirth

21. What initiates the release of prolactin for milk production?

a) High levels of estrogen during pregnancy
b) High levels of progesterone during pregnancy
c) Decrease in estrogen levels after delivery
d) Increase in oxytocin levels after childbirth

Answer: c) Decrease in estrogen levels after delivery

22. What is the primary hormone responsible for the flow of milk from
the mammary glands to the nipple during breastfeeding?
a) Prolactin
b) Estrogen
c) Progesterone
d) Oxytocin

Answer: d) Oxytocin

23. What causes the rhythmic movement of a baby's gums on the

breast during breastfeeding?
a) Swallowing reflex
b) Neuroendocrine reflex
 c) Prolactin secretion
d) Oxytocin secretion

Answer: b) Neuroendocrine reflex

24. Why is it important to empty the breast at each feed during

lactation?
a) To conserve milk for later feedings
b) To reduce the release of oxytocin
c) To prevent the release of prolactin
d) To stimulate more milk production

Answer: d) To stimulate more milk production

25. Which group of signs and symptoms of pregnancy includes those

that suggest but do not positively indicate pregnancy?
a) Presumptive signs
b) Probable signs
c) Positive signs
d) Possible signs

Answer: a) Presumptive signs

26. Which of the following is considered a presumptive sign of

pregnancy?
a) Seeing fetal movements
b) Enlargement of the abdomen
c) Feeling tiredness
d) Palpating fetal parts

Answer: c) Feeling tiredness

27. What is the term for the darkening of the vulva during pregnancy?
a) Striae gravidarum
b) Linea Nigra
c) Chloasma
d) Jacquemiers sign

Answer: d) Jacquemiers sign

28. Which sign is considered a probable sign of pregnancy and can be

detected by palpation during vaginal examination?
a) Hearing fetal heartbeats
b) Seeing fetal movements
c) Feeling fetal parts
d) Quickening

Answer: c) Feeling fetal parts

29. What hormone is tested for using a biological test to detect the
presence of pregnancy?
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
d) Prolactin

Answer: c) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

30. Which group of signs includes definite indications of the presence of

a fetus and confirms a diagnosis of pregnancy?
a) Presumptive signs
b) Probable signs
c) Positive signs
d) Possible signs

Answer: c) Positive signs

31. At what week of pregnancy can fetal movements be seen or felt by

the person examining?
a) 4 weeks
b) 8 weeks
c) 16 weeks
d) 20 weeks

Answer: d) 20 weeks

32. What is the term for the palpable softening of the cervix during
pregnancy?
a) Osiander's sign
b) Braxton Hicks contraction
c) Leuchonhoea
d) Heger's sign

Answer: d) Heger's sign

33. Which sign is NOT associated with a possible diagnosis of

pregnancy?
a) Amenorrhea
b) Early morning sickness
c) Seeing fetal movements
d) Quickening

Answer: c) Seeing fetal movements

34. What test has replaced the biological test for detecting pregnancy
and is used to reveal a gestational sac as early as 4 weeks?
a) Palpation of fetal movement
b) Plain abdominal X-ray
 c) Ultrasound scanning (ultrasonogram)
d) Investigation of hormonal levels

Answer: c) Ultrasound scanning (ultrasonogram)

35. Which sign refers to the enlargement and fullness of the breast,
starting around the 4th week of pregnancy?
a) Striae gravidarum
b) Quickening
c) Montgomery's tubercles
d) Breast changes

Answer: d) Breast changes

36. What are definite indications of the presence of a fetus and must be
present to confirm a diagnosis of pregnancy?
a) Probable signs
b) Presumptive signs
c) Possible signs
d) Positive signs

Answer: d) Positive signs

37. What is the term for the rhythmic movement of the baby's gums on
the breast during breastfeeding?
a) Neuroendocrine reflex
b) Braxton Hicks contraction
c) Heger's sign
d) Quickening

Answer: a) Neuroendocrine reflex

38. Which sign involves seeing or feeling fetal movements by the

person examining the pregnancy?
a) Quickening
b) Early morning sickness
c) Abdominal changes
d) Skin changes

Answer: a) Quickening

39. Which sign is considered a probable sign of pregnancy and can be

detected through vaginal examination?
a) Seeing fetal movements
b) Hearing fetal heartbeats
c) Enlargement of the abdomen
d) Increased cervical secretion

Answer: d) Increased cervical secretion

40. What is the primary function of the uterus during pregnancy?
a) To produce hormones for fetal development
b) To provide a nutritive and protected environment for the fetus to
grow and develop
c) To aid in digestion during pregnancy
d) To support the placenta

Answer: b) To provide a nutritive and protected environment for the

fetus to grow and develop

41. How does the size of the uterus change during pregnancy?
a) It decreases in size
b) It remains the same
c) It gradually increases in size
d) It becomes smaller and then larger

Answer: c) It gradually increases in size

42. What is the approximate weight of the uterus at term during

pregnancy?
a) 30 grams
b) 60 grams
c) 90 grams
d) 120 grams

Answer: c) 90 grams

43. How does the position of the uterus change as pregnancy

progresses?
a) It becomes anteverted and anterflexed
b) It remains in the pelvic cavity
c) It becomes more vertical and leans towards the right
d) It tilts towards the left

Answer: c) It becomes more vertical and leans towards the right

44. What is the shape of the uterus as it fills up with the growing fetus?
a) Ovoid
b) Cylindrical
c) Spherical
d) Globular

Answer: d) Globular

45. What is the role of relaxin produced by the decidua and trophoblast
during pregnancy?
a) It relaxes the myometrium
b) It stimulates fetal growth
 c) It aids in digestion
d) It increases blood supply to the uterus

Answer: a) It relaxes the myometrium

46. How does the blood supply to the uterus change during pregnancy?
a) It decreases to half of the normal amount
b) It remains the same as before pregnancy
c) It increases to almost ten times the normal amount
d) It becomes erratic and unpredictable

Answer: c) It increases to almost ten times the normal amount

47. Which ligament experiences the greatest strain during pregnancy

due to changes in the size of the uterus?
a) Round ligament
b) Uterosacral ligament
c) Ovarian ligament
d) Cardinal ligament

Answer: a) Round ligament

48. What causes the uterine "souffle" sound during pregnancy?

a) Fetal heartbeat
b) Movement of the fetus
c) Enlargement of blood vessels in the uterus
d) Contraction of uterine muscles

Answer: c) Enlargement of blood vessels in the uterus

49. What is the role of the myometrum during pregnancy?

a) To produce relaxin
b) To increase the size of the uterus
c) To support the placenta
d) To undergo hyperplasia and hypertrophy under the influence of
estrogen

Answer: d) To undergo hyperplasia and hypertrophy under the

influence of estrogen

50. What happens to the size of the uterus during pregnancy?

a) It remains the same throughout pregnancy
b) It decreases gradually
c) It increases progressively
d) It becomes smaller and then larger

Answer: c) It increases progressively

51. At what week does the uterus fill the pelvic cavity and become
globular in shape?
a) 8th week
b) 12th week
c) 20th week
d) 30th week

Answer: b) 12th week

52. Which sign indicates that the uterus has risen to less than halfway
between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus?
a) Quickening
b) Uterine souffle
c) Fetal heartbeat
d) Fetal movement

Answer: a) Quickening

53. At what stage of pregnancy does the fundus reach the level of the
umbilicus?
a) 12th week
b) 20th week
c) 30th week
d) 40th week

Answer: b) 20th week

54. What is the term used when the fetal presenting part descends,
leaving pressure on the upper abdomen?
a) Engagement
b) Effacement
c) Lightening
d) Engagement

Answer: c) Lightening

55. What happens to the cervix during pregnancy?

a) It remains closed throughout pregnancy
b) It becomes shorter and narrower
c) It becomes softer and more bluish in color
d) It secretes less mucus

Answer: c) It becomes softer and more bluish in color

56. What is the role of the operculum in the cervix during pregnancy?
a) To prevent ascending infection into the uterus
b) To facilitate cervical dilation during labor
c) To protect the fetus from external factors
d) To regulate hormonal changes during pregnancy
 Answer: a) To prevent ascending infection into the uterus

57. What is the effect of pregnancy on the vagina?

a) It becomes thinner and more delicate
b) It experiences hypertrophy of the muscle layer
c) It secretes less vaginal fluid
d) It becomes less vascularized

Answer: b) It experiences hypertrophy of the muscle layer

58. What happens to the ovaries during pregnancy?

a) They decrease in size
b) They become more horizontal in position
c) They produce higher levels of estrogen and progesterone
d) They degenerate after the 12th week

Answer: c) They produce higher levels of estrogen and progesterone

59. How does pregnancy affect the cardiovascular system?

a) The heart slightly reduces in size
b) Cardiac output decreases
c) Blood pressure increases by 10%
d) Blood vessels dilate due to action of progesterone

Answer: d) Blood vessels dilate due to action of progesterone

60. What is the reason for physiological anemia during pregnancy?

a) Decreased red blood cell production
b) Increase in plasma volume
c) Increased destruction of red blood cells
d) Dehydration

Answer: b) Increase in plasma volume

61. How does the rising uterine fundus affect respiration during
pregnancy?
a) It increases basal metabolic rate
b) It decreases tidal volume
c) It leads to costal respiration
d) It causes dyspnea in most pregnant women

Answer: c) It leads to costal respiration

62. What percentage of pregnant women may experience dyspnea

during pregnancy?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
 d) 70%

Answer: d) 70%

63. What should be ruled out when a pregnant woman experiences

dyspnea?
a) Normal physiological adaptation to pregnancy
b) Cardiac and pulmonary disease
c) Gestational diabetes
d) Anemia
Answer: b) Cardiac and pulmonary disease

64. During pregnancy, how much does the blood volume increase by in
the mid-trimester?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%

Answer: c) 50%

65. Which hormone affects all smooth muscles of the gut during
pregnancy, leading to indigestion, heartburn, and constipation?
a) Estrogen
b) Insulin
c) Progesterone
d) Testosterone

Answer: c) Progesterone

66. What is the term for the condition in which the gum becomes
oedematous, soft, and spongy during pregnancy?
a) Gingivitis
b) Epulis
c) Chloasma
d) Triae gravidarum

Answer: a) Gingivitis

67. When does nausea and morning sickness typically occur during
pregnancy?
a) Second trimester
b) Third trimester
c) Last three months of pregnancy
d) First three months of pregnancy

Answer: d) First three months of pregnancy

68. What causes skin darkening on the face during pregnancy,
commonly referred to as chloasma or pregnancy mask?
a) Hormonal changes
b) Sun exposure
c) Excessive sweating
d) Lack of hydration

Answer: a) Hormonal changes

69. What are the small tears in the deeper layers of the skin on the
abdomen, resulting from the stretching of the skin during pregnancy?
a) Chloasma
b) Epulis
c) Gingivitis
d) Striae gravidarum

Answer: d) Striae gravidarum

70. How does pregnancy hormone progesterone affect the skeletal

system?
a) Increases bone density
b) Reduces joint movement
c) Enhances muscle growth
d) Increases ligament flexibility

Answer: d) Increases ligament flexibility

71. Which aspect of the nervous system is commonly affected during

pregnancy, leading to emotional instability, anxiety, and depression?
a) Motor skills
b) Visual perception
c) Auditory processing
d) Emotional state

Answer: d) Emotional state

72. What is the recommended average maximum weight gain during

pregnancy?
a) 5kg
b) 7.5kg
c) 10kg
d) 11.5kg

Answer: d) 11.5kg

73. When does the most significant weight gain typically occur during
pregnancy?
a) First trimester
b) Second trimester
 c) Third trimester
d) Throughout all trimesters evenly

Answer: c) Third trimester

74. What contributes to the weight gain during pregnancy?

a) Decreased muscle tissue
b) Reduction in blood volume
c) Contraction of the uterus
d) Growth of the uterus and product of conception

Answer: d) Growth of the uterus and product of conception

75. What percentage of pregnant women experience nausea and

vomiting, commonly known as morning sickness, during the first 16
weeks of pregnancy?
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 70%

Answer: c) 50%

76. What hormone is associated with morning sickness during

pregnancy?
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Testosterone
d) Hypoglycemia

Answer: b) Progesterone

77. How can morning sickness be managed?

a) Avoiding carbohydrates
b) Drinking more water
c) Taking full meals instead of snacks
d) Eating easily digestible foods

Answer: d) Eating easily digestible foods

78. What is the cause of heartburn during pregnancy?

a) High level of estrogen
b) Excessive salivation
c) Relaxing effect of progesterone on the cardiac sphincter
d) Hypoglycemia

Answer: c) Relaxing effect of progesterone on the cardiac sphincter

79. Which trimester is heartburn most troublesome in pregnancy?

 a) First trimester
b) Second trimester
c) Third trimester
d) Throughout all trimesters evenly

Answer: c) Third trimester

80. What may cause excessive salivation (ptyalism) during pregnancy?

a) High level of estrogen
b) High level of progesterone
c) Excessive intake of spicy foods
d) Psychological factors

Answer: d) Psychological factors

81. What term is used when a pregnant woman craves strange foods or
unusual substances?
a) Nausea
b) Pica
c) Heartburn
d) Cramp

Answer: b) Pica

82. What percentage of pregnant women experience backache at some

point during their pregnancy?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 90%

Answer: c) 75%

83. Which hormone softens ligaments during pregnancy, contributing to

backache?
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Testosterone
d) Hypoglycemia

Answer: b) Progesterone

84. How can backache during pregnancy be managed?

a) High heels
b) Adequate rest
c) Sleeping on the back
d) Bending over for extended periods

Answer: b) Adequate rest

85. What is the term for the burning sensation in the intestinal region
due to reflux of gastric content into the esophagus?
a) Morning sickness
b) Ptyalism
c) Heartburn
d) Pica

Answer: c) Heartburn

86. What causes constipation during pregnancy?

a) High level of estrogen
b) Relaxing effect of progesterone on the gut
c) Increased peristalsis
d) Rapid digestion

Answer: b) Relaxing effect of progesterone on the gut

87. What is the common term for the whitish, non-irritant vaginal
discharge in pregnancy?
a) Nausea
b) Ptyalism
c) Leucorrhoea
d) Heartburn

Answer: c) Leucorrhoea

88. What might cause fainting in early pregnancy?

a) High level of estrogen
b) Vasodilation due to progesterone
c) Excessive salivation
d) Dehydration

Answer: b) Vasodilation due to progesterone

89. How can fainting be managed during pregnancy?

a) Avoid lying on the side
b) Avoiding crowded rooms
c) Avoiding sitting or lying down when feeling faint
d) Drinking more water

Answer: b) Avoiding crowded rooms

90. What might cause frequency of micturition during early and late
pregnancy?
a) Excessive fluid intake
b) High level of estrogen
c) Relaxing effect of progesterone on the bladder
d) Increased peristalsis
 Answer: c) Relaxing effect of progesterone on the bladder

91. What is the term used when a pregnant woman craves for unusual
substances like coal or chalk?
a) Heartburn
b) Pica
c) Ptyalism
d) Leucorrhoea

Answer: b) Pica

92. What system of the body does backache primarily affect during
pregnancy?
a) Cardiovascular system
b) Respiratory system
c) Musculoskeletal system
d) Nervous system

Answer: c) Musculoskeletal system

93. What is the common term for the burning sensation in the intestinal
region due to reflux of gastric content into the esophagus?
a) Morning sickness
b) Ptyalism
c) Heartburn
d) Pica

Answer: c) Heartburn

94. What system of the body does frequency of micturition primarily

affect during pregnancy?
a) Cardiovascular system
b) Respiratory system
c) Musculoskeletal system
d) Genitourinary system

Answer: d) Genitourinary system

95. What causes varicosities in pregnancy?

a) High level of estrogen
b) Increased cardiac output
c) Progesterone's effect on smooth muscles of veins
d) Reduced blood volume

Answer: c) Progesterone's effect on smooth muscles of veins

96. Which of the following is NOT a common location for varicosities

during pregnancy?
 a) Legs
b) Vulva
c) Anus
d) Neck

Answer: d) Neck

97. How can varicosities be managed during pregnancy?

a) Avoiding elastic stockings
b) Prolonged standing
c) Exercising calf muscles
d) Wearing tight clothing

Answer: c) Exercising calf muscles

98. What causes oedema of the legs during pregnancy?

a) Increased blood flow to the legs
b) Pressure of the growing uterus on veins
c) Reduced blood volume
d) Excessive intake of fluids

Answer: b) Pressure of the growing uterus on veins

99. What is the term for the skin changes characterized by a darkened
area of the breast and a linea nigra during pregnancy?
a) Ptyalism
b) Oedema
c) Chloasma
d) Haemorrhoid

Answer: c) Chloasma

100. Which of the following can help relieve itching of the vulva during
pregnancy?
a) Wearing nylon pants
b) Using scented soap
c) Taking hot baths
d) Cotton underwear and unscented soap

Answer: d) Cotton underwear and unscented soap

101. What may cause insomnia in late pregnancy?

a) Fetal movement
b) Heartburn
c) Anxiety or fear
d) High level of estrogen

Answer: c) Anxiety or fear

102. What condition causes numbness and tingling in the fingers and
hands during pregnancy?
a) Carpal tunnel syndrome
b) Varicosities
c) Pica
d) Ptyalism

Answer: a) Carpal tunnel syndrome

103. What might cause glossitis and gingivitis during pregnancy?

a) Poor oral hygiene and diet
b) High level of estrogen
c) Lack of sleep
d) Reduced blood volume

Answer: a) Poor oral hygiene and diet

104. What does the term "psycho-social care" refer to in pregnancy?

a) Medical care during pregnancy
b) Emotional and social support during pregnancy
c) Management of varicosities
d) Treatment of insomnia

Answer: b) Emotional and social support during pregnancy

105. How might the presence of a newborn affect family dynamics during
pregnancy?
a) It may lead to reduced income and increased independence.
b) It may cause conflict within the family.
c) It will have no impact on the family.
d) It may lead to greater financial stability.

Answer: b) It may cause conflict within the family.

106. What role can a caring and considerate husband play during
pregnancy?
a) Providing medical care to the pregnant woman
b) Taking over household chores
c) Providing emotional support and meeting her psychological needs
d) Attending classes on preparation for labor

Answer: c) Providing emotional support and meeting her

psychological needs

107. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of minor

disorders of pregnancy?
a) Nausea and vomiting
b) Backache
c) Constipation
 d) Increased appetite
Answer: d) Increased appetite

108. What might cause carpal tunnel syndrome during pregnancy?

a) High level of estrogen
b) Pressure on the median nerve due to fluid retention
c) Lack of sleep
d) Constipation

Answer: b) Pressure on the median nerve due to fluid retention

109. What treatment can help relieve oedema of the legs during
pregnancy?
a) Avoiding fluid intake
b) Elevating the legs on 2-3 pillows
c) Applying cold compress
d) Wearing tight shoes

Answer: b) Elevating the legs on 2-3 pillows

110. What is the definition of antenatal care?

a) Care provided during labor and delivery
b) Care given to a pregnant woman from conception to delivery
c) Postpartum care after childbirth
d) Care provided during the first trimester of pregnancy

Answer: b) Care given to a pregnant woman from conception to

delivery

111. What is the aim of antenatal care?

a) To ensure a healthy pregnancy only
b) To promote physical health during pregnancy
c) To promote mental health during pregnancy
d) To achieve a live, healthy baby at the end of pregnancy

Answer: d) To achieve a live, healthy baby at the end of pregnancy

112. Who is responsible for providing antenatal care?

a) Midwife only
b) Doctor only
c) Either the Midwife or the Doctor
d) Obstetrician only

Answer: c) Either the Midwife or the Doctor

113. What is one of the aims of antenatal care regarding family

influence?
a) Promoting good physical health for the family
b) Building a trusting relationship with the family
 c) Encouraging client participation in care choices
d) Providing prompt management for the family

Answer: b) Building a trusting relationship with the family

114. What is one of the roles of antenatal care in promoting infant

feeding?
a) Encouraging formula feeding over breastfeeding
b) Supporting the mother's choice of feeding method
c) Providing formula preparation guidelines
d) Promoting exclusive breastfeeding only

Answer: b) Supporting the mother's choice of feeding method

115. What does antenatal care aim to reduce?

a) Maternal and perinatal mortality
b) Neonatal mortality only
c) Maternal mortality only
d) Fetal mortality only

Answer: a) Maternal and perinatal mortality

116. When is it recommended for women to start antenatal visits?

a) After the first trimester
b) After six weeks of pregnancy
c) As soon as pregnancy is suspected or after missing two menstrual
cycles
d) Only after the fetus starts moving

Answer: c) As soon as pregnancy is suspected or after missing two

menstrual cycles

117. What is the purpose of taking baseline data during antenatal care?
a) To monitor the progress of pregnancy
b) To predict the gender of the baby
c) To determine the exact date of delivery
d) To plan for cesarean section

Answer: a) To monitor the progress of pregnancy

118. Where can a pregnant woman attend antenatal clinic?

a) Only at a health center
b) Only at a hospital
c) Only at a maternity home
d) At a health center, hospital, or maternity home

Answer: d) At a health center, hospital, or maternity home

119. What is the purpose of history taking during antenatal care?

 a) To determine the baby's gender
b) To provide entertainment for the pregnant woman
c) To assess the woman's health and guide her management
d) To predict the exact date of delivery

Answer: c) To assess the woman's health and guide her management

120. Which of the following areas is NOT covered during history taking?
a) Social History
b) Family History
c) Medical History
d) Dental History

Answer: d) Dental History

121. What should be encouraged to promote personal and environmental

hygiene during pregnancy?
a) Bathing regularly and keeping clothing clean
b) Using vaginal deodorants
c) Wearing tight clothing to support the abdomen
d) Consuming excessive amounts of alcohol

Answer: a) Bathing regularly and keeping clothing clean

122. Why is fresh air and sunshine important for pregnant women?
a) To help them lose weight
b) To prevent vitamin deficiency
c) To improve their mood
d) To promote the development of bones and provide vitamin D

Answer: d) To promote the development of bones and provide

vitamin D

123. What kind of exercise is encouraged for pregnant women?

a) Strenuous exercise and heavy weightlifting
b) Climbing high objects and extreme sports
c) Mild exercise
d) No exercise at all

Answer: c) Mild exercise

124. When should long-distance travel be discouraged during pregnancy?

a) At any stage of pregnancy
b) Only in the first trimester
c) Only in the second trimester
d) Only in the third trimester

Answer: d) Only in the third trimester

125. What is the recommended duration of rest during the day for a
pregnant woman?
a) 30 minutes
b) 1-2 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 12 hours

Answer: b) 1-2 hours

126. What type of clothing is advised for pregnant women?

a) Tight-fitting clothes
b) Heavy and uncomfortable clothing
c) Loose, cool, and washable clothing
d) Brightly colored clothing

Answer: c) Loose, cool, and washable clothing

127. What should a pregnant woman avoid to prevent constipation?

a) Drinking plenty of fluids and consuming roughages
b) Eating a high-protein diet
c) Avoiding all carbohydrates
d) Consuming only processed foods

Answer: a) Drinking plenty of fluids and consuming roughages

128. How should a pregnant woman care for her teeth?

a) Avoid brushing her teeth during pregnancy
b) Eat a lot of calcium-rich foods to protect her teeth
c) Maintain regular dental hygiene and eat foods with fluoride
d) Use alcohol-based mouthwash frequently

Answer: c) Maintain regular dental hygiene and eat foods with

fluoride

129. Why is alcohol consumption discouraged during pregnancy?

a) It may cause a baby to grow too large
b) It can lead to excessive weight gain
c) It is associated with vitamin deficiency
d) It can lead to major health issues for both the mother and baby

Answer: d) It can lead to major health issues for both the mother and
baby

130. What is the recommended approach to smoking during pregnancy?

a) Continue smoking as usual
b) Quit smoking completely
c) Smoke only in well-ventilated areas
d) Reduce smoking to a minimal level
 Answer: b) Quit smoking completely

131. When should a pregnant woman begin her antenatal visits?

a) After the first trimester
b) After six months of pregnancy
c) As soon as pregnancy is suspected or after missing two menstrual
cycles
d) Only in the third trimester

Answer: c) As soon as pregnancy is suspected or after missing two

menstrual cycles

132. Which of the following is NOT included in the routine examinations

of an antenatal patient?
a) Blood pressure check
b) Weight estimation
c) Height measurement
d) Fetal development assessment

Answer: d) Fetal development assessment

133. What is the purpose of preparing the patient for a general

examination?
a) To make the patient anxious
b) To save time during the examination
c) To ensure accurate and comfortable examination
d) To demonstrate the procedure to the patient

Answer: c) To ensure accurate and comfortable examination

134. During the general examination, what area of the patient is

observed first?
a) Lower limbs
b) Breasts
c) Head
d) Abdomen

Answer: c) Head

135. Which part of the body is checked for inflammation, discharge,

pallor, and infection?
a) Ears
b) Nose
c) Eyes
d) Mouth

Answer: c) Eyes

136. What is NOT observed during the examination of the neck?

 a) Presence of previous scar
b) Growth or swelling
c) Distended jugular veins
d) Enlarged tonsils

Answer: d) Enlarged tonsils

137. What is the purpose of expressing breast fluid during examination?

a) To clean the nipples
b) To detect pregnancy
c) To test for allergies
d) To test for duct patency

Answer: d) To test for duct patency

138. Why is patency of breast ducts important during pregnancy?

a) To prevent breast engorgement
b) To detect breast cancer
c) To ensure proper lactation
d) To maintain breast shape

Answer: a) To prevent breast engorgement

139. During examination, what should be reported if felt in the breast?

a) Uneven tan lines
b) Undue lump or irregular mass
c) Discharge of milk
d) Presence of stretch marks

Answer: b) Undue lump or irregular mass

140. What dietary advice is given to pregnant women regarding breast

milk quality?
a) Consume sugary foods for better milk taste
b) Eat a variety of foods rich in protein, minerals, and vitamins
c) Limit fluid intake to increase milk production
d) Avoid fruits and vegetables

Answer: b) Eat a variety of foods rich in protein, minerals, and

vitamins

141. Why is expressing colostrums recommended during pregnancy?

a) To induce labor
b) To prevent breast cancer
c) To maintain duct potency and prevent engorgement
d) To increase breast size

Answer: c) To maintain duct potency and prevent engorgement

142. How should breasts be supported during pregnancy?
a) With tight and restrictive bras
b) With any type of bra, regardless of size
c) With good, adjustable, firm, cotton material, wide-strapped bras
d) Without wearing a bra

Answer: c) With good, adjustable, firm, cotton material, wide-

strapped bras

143. What is the purpose of examining the back of the pregnant woman?
a) To check for tattoo markings
b) To assess her posture and spine curvature
c) To evaluate her hair condition
d) To measure her height accurately

Answer: b) To assess her posture and spine curvature

144. Which part of the body is checked for athlete's foot and foot drop?
a) Hands
b) Head
c) Abdomen
d) Lower limbs

Answer: d) Lower limbs

145. How is varicosity checked in the lower limbs?

a) By using a ruler to measure leg length
b) By pressing the calf muscles
c) By running fingers under the posterior aspect of the leg and thigh
d) By observing the color of the toenails

Answer: c) By running fingers under the posterior aspect of the leg

and thigh

146. What is NOT part of the preparation for the general examination?
a) Emptying the bladder
b) Covering the patient with a blanket
c) Explaining the procedure to the patient
d) Asking the patient to remove all clothes and underwears

Answer: b) Covering the patient with a blanket

147. During the general examination, what is checked first on the

patient's face?
a) Puffiness
b) Dental hygiene
c) Presence of scars
d) Hair condition
 Answer: a) Puffiness

148. What is the purpose of expressing breast fluid during examination?

a) To test for allergies
b) To detect pregnancy
c) To ensure proper lactation
d) To test for duct patency

Answer: d) To test for duct patency

149. Why is patency of breast ducts important during pregnancy?

a) To prevent breast engorgement
b) To detect breast cancer
c) To ensure proper lactation
d) To maintain breast shape

Answer: a) To prevent breast engorgement

150. During examination, what should be reported if felt in the breast?

a) Uneven tan lines
b) Undue lump or irregular mass
c) Discharge of milk
d) Presence of stretch marks

Answer: b) Undue lump or irregular mass

151. What are the aims of abdominal examination during pregnancy?

a) To assess maternal health only
b) To detect any deviation from normal in the fetus
c) To confirm pregnancy
d) To observe signs of pregnancy, assess fetal growth, and detect
deviations from normal

Answer: d) To observe signs of pregnancy, assess fetal growth, and

detect deviations from normal

152. How should the patient lie during the abdominal examination?
a) Prone position
b) Lateral position
c) Supine position with one pillow under her head
d) Sitting position

Answer: c) Supine position with one pillow under her head

153. What should be done to ensure privacy during the abdominal

examination?
a) Draw a screen
b) Turn off the lights
c) Ask the patient to leave the room
 d) Wear a mask

Answer: a) Draw a screen

154. Which of the following is NOT one of the three ways to obtain
information during the abdominal examination?
a) Inspection
b) Auscultation
c) Palpation
d) X-ray

Answer: d) X-ray

155. How can the size of the abdomen be assessed during the
inspection?
a) By feeling the abdomen with hands
b) By measuring the abdominal girth
c) By observing the shape of the face
d) By asking the patient about her weight gain

Answer: b) By measuring the abdominal girth

156. What does a round-shaped abdomen during pregnancy indicate?

a) Multiple pregnancy
b) Normal pregnancy
c) Malnutrition
d) Uterine fibroid

Answer: a) Multiple pregnancy

157. What does a pendulous abdomen in a pregnant woman suggest?

a) Breech presentation
b) Normal presentation
c) Multiple pregnancy
d) Primigravida status

Answer: d) Primigravida status

158. Why is fetal movement observed during the abdominal

examination?
a) To assess the mother's comfort level
b) To determine the position of the placenta
c) To assess fetal viability
d) To check for abdominal muscle contractions

Answer: c) To assess fetal viability

159. How is fundal height estimated during the abdominal examination?

 a) By measuring from the symphysis pubis to the xiphisternum with
fingers
b) By measuring from the umbilicus to the xiphisternum with fingers
c) By using a measuring tape from the umbilicus to the xiphisternum
d) By measuring from the umbilicus to the symphysis pubis with
fingers

Answer: c) By using a measuring tape from the umbilicus to the

xiphisternum

160. What does fundal palpation help determine?

a) Fetal heart rate
b) Fetal size and growth
c) Fetal presentation and lie
d) Maternal blood pressure

Answer: c) Fetal presentation and lie

161. How is lateral palpation performed during the abdominal

examination?
a) By pressing the back of the fetus
b) By pressing on both sides of the uterus at umbilical level
c) By pressing on the fundus of the uterus
d) By pressing the lower limbs of the fetus

Answer: b) By pressing on both sides of the uterus at umbilical level

162. What is the purpose of pelvic palpation during the abdominal

examination?
a) To determine fundal height
b) To assess fetal movements
c) To diagnose the location of fetal parts
d) To check for abdominal muscle contractions

Answer: c) To diagnose the location of fetal parts

163. Which maneuver is most effective in palpating the lower pole of the
uterus when the head is not engaged?
a) Lateral palpation
b) Fundal palpation
c) Pawlik's grip
d) Pelvic palpation

Answer: c) Pawlik's grip

164. What is the definition of engagement in pregnancy?

a) When the baby is born
b) When the baby's head is engaged in the pelvis
c) When the baby's feet are engaged in the pelvis
 d) When the baby starts moving in the womb

Answer: b) When the baby's head is engaged in the pelvis

165. How are fetal heart sounds auscultated during the abdominal
examination?
a) Using a stethoscope on the back of the fetus
b) Using a stethoscope on the mother's chest
c) Using a stethoscope on the baby's chest
d) Using a pinard stethoscope on the baby's back

Answer: a) Using a stethoscope on the back of the fetus

166. What is the normal fetal heart rate observed during auscultation?
a) About 60 beats per minute
b) About 100 beats per minute
c) About 140 beats per minute
d) About 180 beats per minute

Answer: c) About 140 beats per minute

167. What is the main purpose of abdominal examination during

pregnancy?
a) To detect maternal health problems
b) To determine fetal sex
c) To assess fetal growth and position
d) To measure the baby's head circumference

Answer: c) To assess fetal growth and position

168. What should be considered when any information obtained during

the examination does not correspond?
a) Repeat the examination and report it to the doctor
b) Disregard the findings and continue with the examination
c) Record the findings as they are without questioning
d) Report the discrepancy to the patient and seek her opinion

Answer: a) Repeat the examination and report it to the doctor

169. From which week onwards is it essential to assess the pelvic

capacity in pregnant women?
a) 20 weeks
b) 28 weeks
c) 36 weeks
d) 40 weeks

Answer: c) 36 weeks
170. In some African women with pelvic inclination of over 80, when does
the head typically engage?
a) Before 36 weeks
b) At 36 weeks
c) After 36 weeks
d) It doesn't engage until labor starts

Answer: c) After 36 weeks

171. Which method can be used to assess pelvic capacity by having the
patient sit up?
a) Pawlik's grip
b) Calculating Expected Date of Delivery (EDD)
c) Sitting the patient up and feeling the fetal head
d) On-going antenatal care

Answer: c) Sitting the patient up and feeling the fetal head

172. How is the Expected Date of Delivery (EDD) calculated?

a) Subtracting nine months from the last menstrual period
b) Adding seven days to the last menstrual period and counting three
months backwards
c) Counting three months forward from the last menstrual period
d) Adding seven days and nine months to the last menstrual period

Answer: b) Adding seven days to the last menstrual period and

counting three months backwards

173. If the calculated EDD is 20th April, what would be the correct EDD
considering the extra date?
a) 20th May
b) 20th March
c) 20th February
d) 20th June

Answer: a) 20th May

174. How often should a pregnant woman visit for antenatal care until 36
weeks?
a) Every week
b) Every 2 weeks
c) Every 4 weeks
d) Every 6 weeks

Answer: b) Every 2 weeks

175. What is the aim of prenatal screening for hospital delivery?

a) To reduce perinatal mortality rate
b) To ensure normal increase in weight during pregnancy
 c) To detect the fetal position
d) To monitor fetal heart rate

Answer: a) To reduce perinatal mortality rate

176. Which of the following is NOT a condition that puts the fetus and
mother at high risk and may require hospital delivery?
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Pregnancy-induced hypertension
c) Normal healthy pregnancy
d) Cardiac diseases

Answer: c) Normal healthy pregnancy

177. What is the frequency of antenatal visits after 36 weeks until the
onset of labor?
a) Every 2 weeks
b) Every 4 weeks
c) Every week
d) Every 6 weeks

Answer: c) Every week

178. What is the main purpose of sitting the patient up during the
abdominal examination?
a) To assess the fetal heart rate
b) To determine fetal growth and position
c) To feel the fetal head through the pelvis
d) To measure the abdominal girth

Answer: c) To feel the fetal head through the pelvis

179. What can be felt by the fingers on the symphysis pubis during the
sitting up maneuver if there is cephalo-pelvic disproportion?
a) Fetal movement
b) Overlapping of the fetal head
c) Engagement of the head
d) Softness of the fetal head

Answer: b) Overlapping of the fetal head

180. Which maneuver involves pushing the fetal head backward and
downward while the patient stands with her feet slightly apart and
leans forward?
a) Pawlik's grip
b) Sitting the patient up
c) Calculating Expected Date of Delivery (EDD)
d) Grasping the fetal head during pelvic palpation
 Answer: b) Sitting the patient up

181. Which condition would require hospital delivery or special

management during pregnancy?
a) Normal healthy pregnancy
b) Intrauterine fetal death during the last trimester
c) Routine pregnancy with no complications
d) First-time pregnant women

Answer: b) Intrauterine fetal death during the last trimester

182. Why is prenatal screening for hospital delivery important?

a) To assess maternal health
b) To detect the fetal position
c) To reduce perinatal mortality rate
d) To monitor fetal heart rate

Answer: c) To reduce perinatal mortality rate

183. How does the frequency of antenatal visits change as the pregnancy
progresses?
a) Visits become less frequent after 36 weeks
b) Visits become more frequent after 36 weeks
c) Visits are the same throughout pregnancy
d) There are no specific guidelines for antenatal visits

Answer: b) Visits become more frequent after 36 weeks

184. At what gestational age is labor described to occur?

a) After 24 weeks
b) After 28 weeks
c) After 32 weeks
d) After 37 weeks

Answer: d) After 37 weeks

185. What is the definition of normal labor?

a) Spontaneous onset of labor after 24 weeks
b) Vertex presentation with 18 hours of labor
c) Onset of labor after 37 weeks, vertex presentation, and
spontaneous effort
d) Onset of labor after 24 weeks, breech presentation, and assisted
delivery

Answer: c) Onset of labor after 37 weeks, vertex presentation, and

spontaneous effort

186. Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences labor?

a) The contractions (powers)
 b) The birth canal (passages)
c) The fetus (passenger)
d) The placenta

Answer: d) The placenta

187. How many stages are there in labor?

a) 2 stages
b) 3 stages
c) 4 stages
d) 5 stages

Answer: c) 4 stages

188. Which stage of labor is described as the period from the onset of
regular contractions until full dilatation of the cervical Os?
a) First stage
b) Second stage
c) Third stage
d) Fourth stage

Answer: a) First stage

189. During which phase of the first stage does the cervix dilate from 3-
4cm to 10cm?
a) Latent phase
b) Active phase
c) Transition phase
d) Expulsion phase

Answer: b) Active phase

190. At what rate does the cervix dilate during the active phase of the
first stage in primigravid women?
a) 1 cm per hour
b) 2 cm per hour
c) 3 cm per hour
d) 4 cm per hour

Answer: a) 1 cm per hour

191. What defines the second stage of labor?

a) Full dilatation of the cervix
b) Expulsion of the fetus
c) Separation of the placenta
d) Control of bleeding

Answer: b) Expulsion of the fetus

192. Which stage of labor involves the separation and expulsion of the
placenta and membranes?
a) First stage
b) Second stage
c) Third stage
d) Fourth stage

Answer: c) Third stage

193. How long is the fourth stage of labor?

a) 30 minutes
b) 1 hour
c) 2 hours
d) 6 hours

Answer: b) 1 hour

194. What factors influence the duration of labor?

a) Parity, type of pelvis, and size of the fetus
b) Gestational age, type of pelvis, and placenta position
c) Baby's weight, placenta size, and mother's age
d) Parity, baby's gender, and maternal height

Answer: a) Parity, type of pelvis, and size of the fetus

195. How is the duration of labor calculated?

a) Subtracting the onset time from the delivery time
b) Adding the first stage, second stage, and third stage durations
c) Adding the first stage and second stage durations
d) Dividing the duration of the third stage by the number of
contractions

Answer: b) Adding the first stage, second stage, and third stage
durations

196. If labor begins at 12:30 a.m., the cervix is fully dilated at 7:15 a.m.,
and the baby is delivered at 7:25 a.m., how long is the second stage of
labor?
a) 8 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 20 minutes

Answer: b) 10 minutes

197. What is the total duration of labor if the first stage lasts 6 hours and
45 minutes, the second stage lasts 10 minutes, and the third stage
lasts 8 minutes?
a) 7 hours and 3 minutes
 b) 7 hours and 53 minutes
c) 6 hours and 53 minutes
d) 8 hours and 10 minutes

Answer: a) 7 hours and 3 minutes

198. During which stage of labor does the baby typically engage into the
pelvis?
a) First stage
b) Second stage
c) Third stage
d) Fourth stage

Answer: a) First stage

199. What is the purpose of uterine contractions during labor?

a) To relax the uterine muscles
b) To shorten the muscle fibers
c) To push the fetus downward
d) To compress the gestational sac

Answer: c) To push the fetus downward

200. During the immediate care phase of puerperium, which stage is

considered the most critical?
a) 1st stage of labor
b) 2nd stage of labor
c) 3rd stage of labor
d) 4th stage of labor

Answer: d) 4th stage of labor

201. What is the main focus of promoting physical well-being during

puerperium?
a) Enhancing emotional well-being
b) Providing adequate sleep
c) Correcting anemia and promoting physical activity
d) Preventing postpartum infections

Answer: c) Correcting anemia and promoting physical activity

202. What is the recommended timeframe for encouraging ambulation

after delivery?
a) Immediately after delivery
b) 24 hours after delivery
c) 6-12 hours after delivery
d) 48 hours after delivery

Answer: c) 6-12 hours after delivery

203. What dietary recommendation is given to promote good lactation
during puerperium?
a) Low-protein diet
b) High-carbohydrate diet
c) Vitamin and mineral supplements
d) Protein-rich diet

Answer: d) Protein-rich diet

204. Why is regular bladder emptying important during puerperium?

a) To prevent constipation
b) To prevent Urinary Tract Infections
c) To promote early ambulation
d) To prevent postpartum eclampsia

Answer: b) To prevent Urinary Tract Infections

205. What is the purpose of postnatal exercises during puerperium?

a) To promote bladder emptying
b) To prevent constipation
c) To encourage early ambulation
d) To promote involution and good health

Answer: d) To promote involution and good health

206. What is a key aspect of promoting breastfeeding during

puerperium?
a) Using formula milk
b) Regularly discarding used sanitary towels
c) Encouraging emptying of breasts at each feed
d) Limiting fluid intake

Answer: c) Encouraging emptying of breasts at each feed

207. How can infection prevention be promoted during puerperium?

a) Encourage a large number of visitors
b) Minimize the use of antiseptics
c) Use barrier nursing if infection is suspected
d) Avoid hand hygiene

Answer: c) Use barrier nursing if infection is suspected

208. What is a recommended method for measuring fundal height during

puerperium?
a) Use different instruments for each measurement
b) Measure fundal height only when the bladder is full
c) Palpate the symphysis pubis and estimate distance using a flat
graduated rule
 d) Measure fundal height at different times of the day

Answer: c) Palpate the symphysis pubis and estimate distance using

a flat graduated rule

209. During subsequent care of the puerperal woman, what is

emphasized to the mother?
a) The need for strenuous activities
b) Regular intake of caffeine
c) Importance of skipping meals
d) Care of the baby and postnatal visits

Answer: d) Care of the baby and postnatal visits

210. What is the primary purpose of immediate care during puerperium?

a) Promote emotional well-being
b) Prevent postpartum hemorrhage
c) Establish breast feeding
d) Encourage early ambulation

Answer: b) Prevent postpartum hemorrhage

211. What should be observed and documented during the immediate

care phase of puerperium?
a) Emotional state only
b) Vital signs, abdominal tenderness, and involution
c) Breastfeeding technique only
d) Psychological approach only

Answer: b) Vital signs, abdominal tenderness, and involution

212. The purpose of the postnatal examination conducted six weeks later
is to:
a) Assess the baby's general condition
b) Promote emotional well-being
c) Ensure lactation is established
d) Ensure organs affected by pregnancy return to their pregravid
state

Answer: d) Ensure organs affected by pregnancy return to their

pregravid state

213. What is assessed during the vaginal examination in the postnatal

examination?
a) Cervical dilation
b) Uterine contractions
c) Cervix closure or openness
d) Uterine size and position
 Answer: c) Cervix closure or openness

214. What is the main focus of postnatal care during the immediate
phase?
a) Assessing lactation
b) Monitoring vital signs
c) Providing education on family planning
d) Preventing postpartum hemorrhage

Answer: d) Preventing postpartum hemorrhage

215. Which aspect of the baby is assessed during the postnatal

examination?
a) Vital signs
b) Sleep patterns
c) Circumcision status
d) Lactation

Answer: c) Circumcision status

216. Common complications during the postnatal period may include:

a) Headache and prolapse
b) Backache and poor feeding
c) Vaginal discharge and infection
d) Inadequate lactation and work-related stress

Answer: c) Vaginal discharge and infection

Birth Control/Family Planning Methods:

217. Which of the following is NOT a barrier method of contraception?
a) Diaphragms
b) Condoms
c) Intrauterine devices (IUDs)
d) Cervical caps

Answer: c) Intrauterine devices (IUDs)

218. Which chemical method of contraception prevents spermatozoa

from entering the womb?
a) Diaphragms
b) Condoms
c) Spermicides
d) Cervical caps

Answer: c) Spermicides

219. The primary mode of action for diaphragms as a contraceptive

method is to:
a) Prevent fertilization
 b) Suppress ovulation
c) Block sperm production
d) Inhibit sperm motility

Answer: a) Prevent fertilization

220. The female condom is designed to prevent:

a) Pregnancy only
b) Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) only
c) Both pregnancy and STDs
d) None of the above

Answer: c) Both pregnancy and STDs

221. Which barrier method of contraception is worn over the erect penis
before intercourse?
a) Diaphragms
b) Female condom
c) Male condom
d) Cervical cap

Answer: c) Male condom

222. The female condom is made of:

a) Latex
b) Polyurethane
c) Rubber
d) Plastic

Answer: b) Polyurethane

223. Which barrier method is designed to provide effective barrier and

contains a spermicide to kill sperm?
a) Diaphragms
b) Cervical caps
c) Sponges
d) Female condom

Answer: c) Sponges

224. What is the primary benefit of barrier methods of contraception?

a) They have fewer side effects.
b) They are highly effective.
c) They do not require medical intervention.
d) They allow for active involvement of the male partner.

Answer: a) They have fewer side effects.

225. Which of the following is NOT a common barrier method of
contraception?
a) Diaphragms
b) Condoms
c) Intrauterine devices (IUDs)
d) Sponges

Answer: c) Intrauterine devices (IUDs)

226. The primary purpose of family planning according to WHO is to:

a) Delay childbearing to a later age
b) Promote the health and welfare of individuals or couples
c) Prevent all pregnancies
d) Control population growth

Answer: b) Promote the health and welfare of individuals or couples

227. Hormonal contraceptives contain two main female hormones:

a) Progesterone and Testosterone
b) Estrogen and Progesterone
c) Progesterone and FSH
d) Estrogen and LH

Answer: b) Estrogen and Progesterone

228. The most effective reversible method of hormonal contraception is:

a) Progestin-only pills
b) Injectable progestogen
c) Combined pills
d) Norplant implant

Answer: c) Combined pills

229. The main mechanism of action of combined oral contraceptives is

to:
a) Inhibit ovulation
b) Thicken cervical mucus
c) Block sperm production
d) Disrupt the endometrial lining

Answer: a) Inhibit ovulation

230. Which form of hormonal contraceptive is suitable for women over 35

years and breastfeeding mothers?
a) Combined pills
b) Injectable progestogen
c) Mini-pills
d) Norplant implant
 Answer: c) Mini-pills

231. Norplant implant consists of plastic-like tubes containing which

hormone?
a) Estrogen
b) LH
c) Progesterone
d) FSH

Answer: c) Progesterone

232. Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices (IUCDs)

233. IUCDs are inserted in the uterine cavity to prevent pregnancy. What
are the two main types of IUCDs?
a) Barrier and Hormonal
b) Medicated and Non-medicated
c) Copper and Levonorgestrel
d) Injectable and Oral

Answer: b) Medicated and Non-medicated

234. Which type of IUCD contains copper and is known as Copper T?

a) Copper 7
b) Multiload
c) Copper 250
d) Copper T220c

Answer: d) Copper T220c

235. The mechanism of action of IUCDs involves:

a) Blocking sperm production
b) Inhibiting ovulation
c) Thickening cervical mucus
d) Creating a hostile environment for implantation

Answer: d) Creating a hostile environment for implantation

236. Which IUCD is inserted under the skin of the upper arm and contains
progestin?
a) Copper T
b) Copper 7
c) Norplant implant
d) Progestasert

Answer: c) Norplant implant

237. Voluntary surgical contraception is a minor surgical operation

performed on a male or female to:
 a) Increase fertility
b) Prevent STDs
c) Enhance sexual pleasure
d) Stop their ability to have more children

Answer: d) Stop their ability to have more children

238. Vasectomy is a surgical procedure for male sterilization that

involves cutting:
a) The vas deferens
b) The fallopian tubes
c) The urethra
d) The prostate gland

Answer: a) The vas deferens

239. Tubal ligation is a surgical procedure for female sterilization that

involves ligation of the:
a) Uterus
b) Ovaries
c) Fallopian tubes
d) Cervix

Answer: c) Fallopian tubes

240. What is the main advantage of voluntary surgical contraception?

a) It protects against STDs
b) It is reversible
c) It is cost-effective
d) It requires no surgery

Answer: c) It is cost-effective