0% found this document useful (0 votes)
13 views

Prelims Test 01 _ Questions (English)

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to Indian polity, law, and governance, aimed at preparing for the Prelims Test Series - 2025. It covers various topics such as the Supreme Court, the role of the President, the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, and the Representation of People’s Act. Each question presents statements for evaluation, requiring the reader to identify the correct or incorrect ones based on their knowledge of the Indian Constitution and legal framework.

Uploaded by

Aparupa Roy
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
13 views

Prelims Test 01 _ Questions (English)

The document contains a series of multiple-choice questions related to Indian polity, law, and governance, aimed at preparing for the Prelims Test Series - 2025. It covers various topics such as the Supreme Court, the role of the President, the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, and the Representation of People’s Act. Each question presents statements for evaluation, requiring the reader to identify the correct or incorrect ones based on their knowledge of the Indian Constitution and legal framework.

Uploaded by

Aparupa Roy
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 17

1

Prelims Test Series - 2025


Test 1 - POLITY
1. Consider the following statements with 4. With reference to the Supreme Court of
respect to the Supreme Court: India, consider the following statements:
1. It cannot refuse to entertain a petition
under Article 32. 1. The administrative expenses of the
2. It hears those who petition or appeal in Supreme Court have to be voted on by
English only. the Indian Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The Parliament is not authorised to
correct?
(a) 1 only curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the
(b) 2 only Supreme Court.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. The judges of the Supreme Court hold
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
their office at the pleasure of the
President.
2. With reference to the Dhar Commission,
consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are
1. It was appointed by the Indira Gandhi incorrect?
government.
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. It recommended the reorganisation of
states on the basis of administrative (b) 2 and 3 only
convenience.
(c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect? (d) All of the above
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
5. Regarding the National Commission for
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Scheduled Castes (NCSC) in India, consider
the following statements:
3. Consider the following statements with 1. The conditions of service and tenure of
respect to the official language:
office of its members are determined by
1. States can choose their respective
official languages beyond the languages the President.
enumerated in the Eighth Schedule of 2. The commission presents an annual
the Constitution.
report to the Parliament.
2. The President of India may direct a state
to recognise a language as an official 3. It is vested with the power to regulate its
language if he is satisfied that a procedure.
substantial proportion of the state's
population desires it. Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
correct? (a) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1 and 3 only
2

6. Consider the following statements with 9. Which of the following does not come under
respect to the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi: the original jurisdiction of the Supreme
1. He cannot promulgate an ordinance Court?
when the assembly is dissolved or
1. Inter-state water disputes
suspended.
2. He appoints the chief minister of the 2. Suits brought by individuals against the
Union Territory. Government of India
Which of the statements given above are 3. A dispute arising out of any pre-
correct? Constitution treaty
(a) 1 only 4. Matters referred to the Finance
(b) 2 only
Commission
(c) Both 1 and 2
5. Adjustment of certain expenses and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
pensions between the Centre and the
states.
7. Consider the following statements with
respect to Article 23 pertaining to the Select the correct answer using the codes
prohibition of traffic in human beings and given below:
forced labour: (a) 2, 4 and 5 only
1. The right is available only to citizens.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. It protects the individual against the
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
State as well as private persons.
3. The State can not impose compulsory (d) All of the above
social service on anyone.
How many of the statements given above are 10. Consider the following statements with
correct?
reference to the president’s rule:
(a) Only one
1. It can be extended for a maximum
(b) Only two
period of three years with the approval
(c) All three
of the Parliament every six months.
(d) None
2. The resolution for its approval can be

8. Which of the following are appointed by the passed by both houses of parliament by
President of India through a warrant under a simple majority.
his hand and seal? 3. When the state legislature is suspended
1. Governor or dissolved, Parliament can delegate
2. High Court Judges law-making powers for the state to the
3. Chief Minister President.
4. Advocate General
How many of the statements given above are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below:
(a) Only one
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (b) Only two
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) All three
(d) All of the above (d) None
3

11. Consider the following statements with 14. With respect to the Permanent Lok Adalats,
respect to the President’s rule: consider the following statements:
1. It was never imposed in the Union 1. The respective state governments may
Territory of Puducherry. increase the pecuniary jurisdiction of
2. The state of Manipur has undergone the these from time to time.
maximum number of presidential rule.
2. These shall not have jurisdiction in
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? respect of any matter relating to an
(a) 1 only offence not compoundable under any
(b) 2 only law.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. The verdict of these bodies can not be
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 appealed.
How many of the above statements are
12. Consider the following statements regarding incorrect?
the role and limitations of the Attorney (a) Only one
General of India: (b) Only two
1. He does not fall into the category of a
(c) All three
government servant.
2. He enjoys all the privileges and (d) None
immunities that are available to a
member of Parliament. 15. Consider the following statements with
3. He cannot advise government ministries respect to the High Courts:
and departments without any prior
1. All the High Courts of India have the
reference through the Ministry of Law
and Justice. provision for intra-court appeals.
How many of the statements given above are 2. Tribunals are subject to the writ
correct? jurisdiction of the high courts.
(a) Only one Which of the statements given above are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) All three (a) 1 only
(d) None (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
13. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
the National Human Rights Commission
(NHRC):
1. The chairman of the National 16. With reference to preventive detention,
Commission for Protection of Child consider the following statements:
Rights and the Chief Commissioner for 1. Both the Parliament and state
Persons with Disabilities are its ex-
legislatures can make laws on
officio members.
preventive detention.
2. After their tenure, the chairperson and
members are ineligible for further 2. Article 22 allows the central
employment with the central or state government to define cases where
government. preventive detention can exceed three
3. The conditions of service of the months without an advisory board's
chairperson or a member are determined opinion.
by the President. Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4

17. Consider the following statements regarding 20. With reference to the Preamble of the Indian
the Constituent Assembly of India: Constitution, consider the following
1. The idea of a Constituent Assembly for statements:
India was first put forward by Sardar 1. Liberty conceived by the Preamble is
Vallabhbhai Patel. not absolute but qualified.
2. The Indian National Congress (INC) 2. ‘Fraternity’ assures ‘unity and integrity
officially demanded a Constituent of the nation’.
Assembly to frame the Constitution of Which of the statements given above is/are
India in 1935. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 21. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Under the Vienna Convention,
18. The Representation of People’s Act of 1951 foreign diplomats living in India enjoy
deals with which of the following matters? immunity from both criminal and civil
1. Qualifications and disqualifications for proceedings.
membership of Parliament and State Statement II: Equality before the law is not
legislatures. an absolute right.
2. Delimitation of Parliamentary, Which one of the following is correct in
Assembly and Council Constituencies. respect of the above statements?
3. Corrupt practices and Electoral (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
offences. correct, and Statement-II is the correct
Select the correct answer using the code explanation for Statement-I
given below: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct and Statement-II is not the
(b) 1 and 3 only correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
(d) All of the above is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
is correct
19. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Indian Parliament is not a
sovereign body. 22. Consider the following statements with
reference to restrictions imposed on the
Statement-II: India parliament operates
Right to Freedom:
within the limits prescribed by the
constitution. 1. Protection of the interest of any
scheduled tribe is one of the grounds for
Which one of the following is correct in
restrictions under the Right to
respect of the above statements?
Movement.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
2. Morality is one of the grounds for
correct and Statement-II is the correct
restrictions under the Right to
explanation for Statement-I.
Assemble.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct and Statement-II is not the
not correct?
correct explanation for Statement-I.
(a) 1 only
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect. (b) 2 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (c) Both 1 and 2
is correct. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5

23. Consider the following pairs: 25. With reference to the ‘floor test’ in the
parliament, consider the following
Types of Bails Description
statements:
Interim Bail Accrues when the police 1. It is mentioned in the Constitution of
fail to complete the India.
2. The composite floor test is conducted
investigation within a
only when more than one person stakes
specified period. a claim to form the government.
Anticipatory Issued to release a 3. The governor calls for the floor test
whether the assembly is in or not in
Bail person on bail even
session.
before the person is How many of the statements given above are
arrested. correct?
(a) Only one
Statutory Bail Releases a person who is
(b) Only two
in judicial custody.
(c) All three
How many of the above pairs are correctly (d) None
matched?
(a) Only one 26. Consider the following positions:
1. The President of India
(b) Only two
2. The candidates for election to the state
(c) All three legislature.
(d) None 3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of
India
4. The judges of the High Courts
24. With reference to the safeguards provided to 5. The state ministers
civil servants under the Indian Constitution, The Third Schedule of the Indian
consider the following statements: Constitution does not outline the forms of
oaths and affirmations for which of the
1. A civil servant does not have the option positions given above?
to request an inquiry when facing (a) 1 only
dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank (b) 3 only
due to conduct resulting in a criminal (c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3 ,4 and 5 only
conviction.
2. Civil servants are not given the 27. Consider the following statements with
opportunity to be heard at the respect to the preamble:
punishment stage. 1. It has been amended only once so far.
2. It acts as a prohibition upon the powers
Which of the statements given above is/are
of the legislature.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
6

28. Consider the following statements with 31. Consider the following statements regarding
respect to Article 3 of the Indian the AI-enabled e-Tarang System launched by
Constitution: the Integrated Defence Staff:
1. Parliament can alter state boundaries 1. Its primary aim is to facilitate automated
without the consent of the concerned planning and management of the
states. defence spectrum.
2. The cession of Indian territory to a 2. The system exclusively supports the
development of technologies in low-
foreign country can be done by
frequency bands.
executive action.
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. All boundary disputes require approval correct?
from the concerned state legislature.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 32. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) 2 and 3 only the phenomenon of "gota fría" or "cold drop"
(DANA):
29. Consider the following statements with 1. The phenomenon occurs due to a
respect to the Directive Principles of State collision of cold air from the polar jet
Policy: stream with warmer air over the
Mediterranean Sea.
1. The idea was borrowed from the
2. Cold drops are a rare occurrence in
Japanese Constitution.
Spain, typically associated with the
2. A law to prevent the concentration of summer season.
wealth and means of production still 3. Climate change has increased the
prevails, even if it contravenes the intensity and frequency of DANA
fundamental rights under Article 19. events.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All of the above

30. Consider the following statements: 33. With reference to the Māori haka dance,
consider the following statements:
1. A Member of Parliament can be tried for
defamation during parliamentary 1. Haka is used solely during battles to
intimidate opponents.
proceedings.
2. It is exclusively performed by men.
2. Foreign diplomats enjoy immunity from
3. It involves vigorous movements,
civil proceedings only.
rhythmic chanting, and body-slapping.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2 and 3 only
7

34. Consider the following statements with 37. With reference to Mount Lewotobi Laki-laki,
respect to child marriage in India: recently in the news, consider the following
1. The goal of the Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat statements:
campaign is to eradicate child marriage
by the year 2025. 1. It is an active volcano located in the
2. As per Sustainable Development Goals Pacific Ring of Fire.
Report 2024 India has made significant 2. The volcano is situated on the island of
progress in reducing child marriage Flores in Indonesia.
rates.
3. Eruptions from the volcano have caused
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? the formation of cold lava flows, also
(a) 1 only known as lahars.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
35. Consider the following statements regarding (b) 2 and 3 only
Agrivoltaic Farming: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. It requires the installation of solar panels (d) All of the above
very close to the ground to maximise
energy output.
2. Certain crops thrive in agrivoltaic 38. Madhav Menon Committee is associated
systems, while others experience with which of the following subjects?
reduced growth.
(a) Privatization of Indian railways.
3. It is feasible only in arid and semi-arid
regions due to high sunlight (b) Reforms in banking sector.
requirements. (c) Revitalization of the Panchayati raj
Which of the statements given above are institution.
correct? (d) Reforms in India’s criminal justice
(a) 2 only
systems.
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only 39. Consider the following statements about the
PROBA-3 Mission:
36. Consider the following statements regarding
1. It is a collaboration between ISRO and
a sweetener called allulose:
1. It is naturally found in fruits like figs the European Space Agency (ESA).
and kiwis. 2. The mission is intended to demonstrate
2. Gastrointestinal distress, including precise formation flying technology.
diarrhoea and bloating, can be 3. The launch vehicle used for the mission
minimized by consuming allulose.
was the GSLV Mk III.
3. It has widespread approval by
regulatory authorities worldwide. How many of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Incorrect? (a) Only one
(a) 1and 2 only (b) Only two
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) All three
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above (d) None
8

40. With reference to recent advancements in 43. With reference to the Indian Copyright Act,
environmental research, consider the 1957, consider the following statements:
following statements about the Kenyan lesser
mealworm: 1. Copyright protection extends to
1. It can degrade polystyrene, a type of published work only.
plastic, using the help of specific gut 2. "Fair use" allows limited use of
bacteria.
copyrighted material for purposes like
2. This capability has potential
applications in biofuel production from teaching and research.
plastic waste. 3. The copyright for cinematograph films
3. The mealworm is primarily adapted to lasts for 60 years from the year of
marine ecosystems.
release.
Which of the statements given above are
correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
(d) 1 and 3 only
41. The amendment process for certain
provisions of the Constitution requires the 44. With reference to Notre-Dame Cathedral in
consent of half of the state legislatures.
Which of the following are such provisions? Paris, consider the following statements:
1. Goods and Services Tax Council 1. It is an example of French Gothic
2. Union list under schedule seven architecture with rib vaults and flying
3. Citizenship–acquisition and buttresses.
termination.
2. The coronation of Napoleon Bonaparte
4. Use of official language
took place in this cathedral.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Dicliptera polymorpha, a newly discovered
plant species in the Western Ghats, is
significant due to which of the following 45. With reference to India’s first Constitution
characteristics? Museum, consider the following statements:
1. It exhibits a fire-resilient trait. 1. The museum is located at the OP Jindal
2. It has a spicate inflorescence structure, Global University in Sonipat, Haryana.
which is rare among Indian species.
2. It features a photolithographic copy of
3. It blooms once annually, predominantly
in the post-monsoon season. the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the above statements is/are correct?
given below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) All of the above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
9

46. With reference to the New Moiré 49. Consider the following statements with
Superconductor, consider the following respect to the Oriental Pied Hornbill:
statements: 1. They are referred to as ‘forest engineers
for playing essential roles in forest
1. It exhibits superconductivity at room ecosystems as dispersers of seeds of
temperature due to weak electron- forest plants.
electron interactions. 2. They are classified as vulnerable by the
2. In moiré materials, electrons experience IUCN.
minimal energy variation across levels. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 50. In which of the following states/UTs is the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Panchachuli Mountain Range located, which
has recently been in the news due to
escalating environmental degradation?
47. Gelephu the city which is being developed as (a) Jammu and Kashmir
a 'Zero Carbon' city with the support of India (b) Ladakh
is located in which of the following (c) Himachal Pradesh
countries? (d) Uttarakhand
(a) Bhutan
51. Consider the following statements with
(b) Myanmar
respect to hypersonic missiles:
(c) Afghanistan 1. These are difficult to track due to flying
(d) Nepal at lower altitudes than ballistic missiles.
2. These follow a set trajectory similar to a
ballistic missile.
48. Consider the following statements regarding
3. These travel at speeds less than Mach 5
an antibiotic, Nafithromycin:
but greater than Mach 1.
1. It is developed to treat Community- Which of the statements given above are
Acquired Bacterial Pneumonia (CABP) correct?
caused by drug-resistant bacteria. (a) 1 only
2. It has been developed to be ten times (b) 2 only
more effective than the widely used (c) 1 and 3 only
azithromycin for treating pneumonia. (d) 2 and 3 only

3. It targets both typical and atypical


52. Which of the following organizations
pathogens causing pneumonia. primarily administers the Green World
How many of the questions given above are Environment Award?
correct? (a) United Nations Environment
(a) Only one Programme (UNEP)
(b) The Green Organisation
(b) Only two
(c) World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
(c) All three (d) International Union for Conservation of
(d) None Nature (IUCN)
10

53. With reference to Biofloc Technology (BFT) 56. Consider the following statements with
in aquaculture, consider the following respect to the Markhor, a wild goat species:
statements: 1. It is the largest wild goat in the world
1. It minimizes water exchange in 2. It is found exclusively in the Kazinag
aquaculture systems by enhancing water National Park and Hirpora Wildlife
quality. Sanctuary in Jammu and Kashmir.
2. It depends on heterotrophic bacteria to 3. It is listed as "Endangered" in the IUCN
convert organic waste into protein-rich Red List of Threatened Species.
microbial biomass. Which of the statements given above are
3. It is primarily suited for large-scale correct?
commercial fish farming in areas with (a) 1 only
abundant space. (b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are (c) 2 and 3 only
correct? (d) All of the above
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
57. Consider the following statements with
(c) 1 and 3 only respect to the Eco Sensitive Zones:
(d) All of the above 1. These are areas within 10 km of the
boundaries of national parks and
54. Consider the following statements with
wildlife sanctuaries.
respect to the LignoSat:
2. These are established under the Wildlife
1. It is the first wood-panelled satellite in
Protection Act, 1972.
the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. It is developed by NASA.
incorrect?
3. The panels are recyclable and can be
(a) 1 only
reused in space for future construction
(b) 2 only
projects.
(c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the statements given above are
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one
58. The Cosmic-ray Neutron Sensor (CRNS)
(b) Only two
technology is primarily used for:
(c) All three
(a) Controlling pests by sterilising insects.
(d) None
(b) Measuring soil moisture content over
55. With respect to environmental studies the large areas.
term ‘Blue-washing’ often involves: (c) Monitoring reproductive hormones in
(a) Exaggerating the positive animals.
environmental actions of a company (d) Measuring soil erosion rates.
without substantial proof.
(b) Using third-party certification to verify 59. Which of the following organizations is
environmental claims. primarily responsible for publishing the
(c) Implementing carbon-neutral policies Business-Ready (B-Ready) Index?
verified by environmental (a) World Bank
organisations. (b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(d) Measuring and reporting the carbon (c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
footprint of operations (d) Global Innovation Index (GII)
11

60. Which Indian authority is responsible for 63. Consider the following statements regarding
implementing the Chemical Weapons the powers of the State Legislature:
Convention (CWC) in India? 1. The State Legislature loses its authority
(a) Indian Chemical Council (ICC) to make laws on a subject if it
(b) National Authority Chemical Weapons voluntarily transfers that subject to the
Convention (NACWC) Parliament.
(c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and 2. If a law pertains to a subject in the State
Climate Change (MoEFCC) List, the Parliament must obtain prior
consent from the state legislature to
(d) Ministry of Science and Technology
implement an international treaty on
(MoS&T)
that subject.
3. The state legislature cannot make laws
61. Consider the following statements regarding on a subject for which the Rajya Sabha
Minke Whales: has passed a resolution.
1. They are widely distributed across Which of the statements given above are
tropical, temperate, and polar regions. correct?
2. They are highly sensitive to low- (a) 1 only
frequency sounds but not to high- (b) 1 and 2 only
frequency sounds. (c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) All of the above
correct?
(a) 1 only 64. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) 2 only the taxation powers of the Centre and the
(c) Both 1 and 2 States:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The property of municipalities and
panchayats is not immune from the
62. Consider the following pairs: central taxation.
2. Companies created by the Central
Doctrine Description
government are immune from the local
1. Doctrine of Applies to pre- taxation.
Severability constitutional laws that Which of the statements given above is/are
violate fundamental correct?
rights, rendering them (a) 1 only
dormant. (b) 2 only
2. Doctrine of Prevents the legislature (c) Both 1 and 2
Eclipse from doing something (d) Neither 1 nor 2
indirectly that it cannot
do directly.
65. Consider the following statements regarding
3. Doctrine of Ensures that the Advocate General of a state:
Colourable unconstitutional 1. The Advocate General must be a person
Legislation provisions of a law can who is eligible to be appointed as a
be separated, leaving judge of the High Court.
valid parts enforceable. 2. The state legislature determines the
4. Doctrine of Assumes legal remuneration and conditions of service
Constructive possession in certain of the Advocate General.
Possession cases, even if physical 3. The Advocate General holds office at
possession is indirect the pleasure of the Governor.
or absent. How many of the above statements are
Which of the pairs given above are correct? correct?
(a) 4 only (a) Only one
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) Only two
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) All three
(d) 1 and 4 only (d) None
12

66. Consider the following statements regarding 69. Consider the following statements regarding
the Delimitation Commission: the Flag Code of India:
1. It is constituted by the Election 1. The national flag can be made of
Commission of India from time to time. polyester.
2. The flag can be displayed on the house
2. The Commission determines its own
of a private citizen both during the day
procedure and possesses all the powers
and at night.
of a civil court while performing its
3. The Flag may be flown on any vehicle.
functions. 4. The flag can be of any size, but its
3. The orders of the Commission, once length-to-height ratio must always be
published in the Gazette of India, cannot 3:2.
be challenged. Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
(c) 2 only
(d) All of the above 70. Consider the following statements regarding
the impeachment of the President of India:
1. The President can be impeached for the
67. Consider the following statements with violation of the Constitution.
respect to the office of profit: 2. The nominated members of either
1. The concept is borrowed from the House of Parliament cannot participate
United States of America. in the process as they do not participate
2. The term "office of profit" is not defined in the election process.
in the Constitution of India or the 3. A resolution for impeachment must be
Representation of People Act, 1951. passed by a two-thirds majority of the
3. A person is not considered to hold an total membership of the House.
office of profit under the Government of How many of the above statements are
correct?
India or any state government merely by
(a) Only one
being a minister.
(b) Only two
How many of the statements given above are (c) All three
correct? (d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 71. With reference to the Speaker of the State
Legislature, consider the following
(c) All three statements:
(d) None 1. The salary and allowances of the
Speaker are not subject to the annual
68. Consider the following bodies: vote of the state legislature.
1. GST Council 2. The Speaker can be removed through a
resolution passed by a simple majority
2. NITI Aayog
of the legislative assembly.
3. Inter-State Council 3. When a resolution for the removal of the
4. National Development Council Speaker is under consideration he can
How many of the above are extra- not take part in the proceedings of the
constitutional bodies that promote House.
cooperative federalism in India? Which of the statements given above are
(a) Only one correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 3 only
(c) Only three (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) All four (d) None of the above
13

72. Under which condition can the salary, 76. Consider the following statements with
allowances, and conditions of service of a respect to the Union Public Service
High Court judge be changed?
Commission:
(a) At any time by the Parliament
1. As per constitution, the Commission
(b) During a financial emergency
consists of 10 members including the
(c) By the President of India
(d) With the consent of the Chief Justice of chairman.
India 2. Parliament determines the conditions of
service for the chairman and members.
73. Which of the following writs can a High 3. The President can remove the members
Court issue under Article 226 for the
after a unanimous decision by the
enforcement of an ordinary legal right?
Parliament.
(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas corpus How many of the statements given above are
(c) Certiorari correct?
(d) All of the above (a) Only one
(b) Only two
74. Consider the following statements with
(c) All three
respect to the Central Administrative
Tribunal (CAT): (d) None
1. Its members are appointed by the Chief
Justice of India. 77. Consider the following statements with
2. Members of the Defence Forces do not
respect to the Indian Councils Act of 1861:
come under its jurisdiction.
3. It is bound by the Civil Procedure Code 1. Raja of Benaras was one of the first
1908. Indians to be nominated to the Viceroy’s
How many of the statements given above are Council.
correct? 2. It introduced the portfolio system.
(a) Only one
3. The Act introduced the system of
(b) Only two
separate electorates for different
(c) All three
communities.
(d) None
Which of the statements given above are
75. Consider the following statements with correct?
respect to the Autonomous District Council (a) 2 only
under schedule six of the Indian Constitution:
(b) 1 and 2 only
1. The maximum number of members is
45. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. The members are selected by the state (d) All of the above
legislature.
3. Approval of the State Legislature is
78. Which of the following is excluded from the
required for the laws made by the
Autonomous District and Regional “Full Faith and Credit” clause of the Indian
Councils to be valid. Constitution?
Which of the statements are incorrect? (a) Public acts of the government
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Judicial proceedings
(b) 3 only
(c) Criminal judgments
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above (d) Civil judgments
14

79. Consider the following statements with 82. Consider the following statements with
respect to the zonal councils: respect to the Notified Area Committee:
1. These are advisory bodies created under 1. It functions under the framework of the
the States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
State Municipal Act.
2. The Home Minister of the Central
Government serves as the Chairman of 2. It has largely similar powers to that of a
these councils. municipality.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
80. Consider the following statements with
respect to the national emergency under 83. Consider the following statements with
Article 352 of the Indian constitution:
respect to the Union Territories:
1. The Right to Equality is automatically
suspended. 1. Jammu and Kashmir, since its
2. The legislative power of a state reorganisation, has its own legislative
legislature is suspended. assembly, which can legislate on
3. This type of Emergency has been subjects of the State List except for
proclaimed three times so far. public order and police.
How many of the statements given above are 2. Puducherry's legislative assembly can
correct?
legislate on all subjects of the State List,
(a) Only one
unlike Jammu and Kashmir.
(b) Only two
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) All three
correct?
(d) None
(a) 1 only
81. Consider the following statements with (b) 2 only
respect to the Panchayats (Extension to the (c) Both 1 and 2
Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA), 1996:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Act applies to the Sixth Schedule
areas.
2. The reservation of seats for Scheduled 84. Consider the following statements with
Tribes in Panchayats must be not less respect to the River Board Act, 1956:
than 50% at all levels. 1. It provides for establishment of
3. Prior consent of the Gram Sabha is
permanent tribunals for adjudicating
required for granting mining leases and
exploitation of major minerals. inter-state water disputes.
4. Gram Sabhas in the Scheduled Areas are 2. Till date, no river board has been created
empowered to regulate or prohibit the under the Act.
sale and consumption of intoxicants. Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the statements given above are correct?
incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) 2 only
(c) Only three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) All four (d) Neither 1 nor 2
15

85. Consider the following statements: 87. Which of the following steps is part of the
impeachment process for the removal of a
1. The provision of joint sitting is Supreme Court judge?
applicable to ordinary bills or 1. A motion signed by 100 members in the
Lok Sabha or 50 members in the Rajya
Constitutional amendment bills. Sabha.
2. Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over 2. A three-member committee to
investigate the charges.
the meeting in the absence of the 3. The impeachment motion must be
speaker of the Lok Sabha. approved by a simple majority in both
Houses.
3. The quorum to constitute a joint sitting 4. The Prime Minister orders the removal
is one-tenth of the total number of of the judge based on the impeachment
motion.
members of the two Houses. Select the correct answer using the code
How many of the statements given above are below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 3 and 4 only
(a) Only one (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
(b) Only two
88. Consider the following statements with
(c) All three respect to the Chief Minister:
(d) None 1. The Constitution mandates that a person
must prove his majority in the
legislative assembly before being
appointed as Chief Minister.
86. Consider the following statements:
2. His salary and allowances are
1. A resolution for the discontinuance of determined by the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are
the national emergency correct?
2. Selection of ministers including the (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Prime Minister
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Consideration of the reports of the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
comptroller and auditor general 89. Consider the following statements regarding
the process of electing the President of India:
4. Removal of the council of ministers by
1. The vote cast by each MP or MLA
passing a no-confidence motion. carries equal value.
2. The Presidential candidate is declared
5. Vote on the demands for grants.
elected by securing the highest number
In which of the above situations does the of votes among those polled.
3. In the 2022 Presidential election, only
Rajya Sabha have equal status as that of Lok the Union Territories of Delhi and
Sabha? Puducherry participated in the voting.
Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) All of the above
16

90. Consider the following statements regarding 92. Consider the following statements with
the ‘Anti-Defection Law’ in India: respect to the Protection of Personality
Rights in India:
1. The law applies only to the elected 1. The Copyrights Act of 1957 broadly
members of Parliament and Legislative governs the right not to have one’s
personality represented publicly without
Assemblies.
permission.
2. The decision of the Speaker/Chairman 2. Indian Penal Code has provisions to
on disqualification proceedings is protect posthumous personality rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are
subject to judicial review.
correct?
3. The law provides a three-month (a) 1 only
timeframe for the presiding officer to (b) 2 only
decide on disqualification proceedings. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
How many of the statements given above are
93. Consider the following statements:
incorrect?
Statement-I: When a new panchayat is
(a) Only one elected to replace the dissolved one, it will
serve for the remaining term of the original
(b) Only two
Panchayat.
(c) All three Statement-II: The Constitution (Seventy-
(d) None third Amendment) Act, 1992, provides for a
five-year term of office for the panchayat at
every level.
91. Consider the following statements regarding Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
the Supreme Court of India: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. It does not have original jurisdiction correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
over disputes arising from any pre-
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
constitutional treaty. correct and Statement-II is not the
2. The Constitution authorises the Prime correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
minister to seek its opinion on disputes
is incorrect
arising out of any pre-Constitutional (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
treaty. is correct
3. It can grant special leave in case of 94. Consider the following statements:
court-martial. 1. Article 21 of the Constitution protects
citizens against the arbitrary action of
4. Its jurisdiction with respect to any the executive only.
matter can be enlarged by the 2. The Supreme Court introduced the
concept of the ‘due process of law’ in
Parliament alone.
the Menaka Gandhi case.
Which of the statements given above are 3. The right to privacy is a part of the right
correct? to life and personal liberty.
How many of the statements given above are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(c) 3 and 4 only (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) 2 and 4 only (d) None
17

95. Consider the following statements regarding 98. Consider the following statements:
the electoral system in India: 1. An exit poll queries voters about their
1. Parliament has the sole authority to support for a political party after they
legislate on matters related to have cast their votes in an election,
Parliamentary and state elections. whereas an opinion poll is conducted as
2. The validity of any law related to the a pre-election survey.
delimitation of constituencies or 2. In India, results of exit polls for a
allotment of seats can be questioned in a particular election are not allowed to be
court. published till the last vote has been cast.
3. There is a provision in the constitution Which of the statements given above is/are
for the establishment of election correct?
tribunals. (a) 1 only
How many of the above statements are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two 99. Consider the following statements with
(c) All three reference to contempt of court:
(d) None 1. The Constitution of India empowers the
Supreme Court and the High Courts to
96. Consider the following statements regarding punish for contempt of themselves.
the specification of certain classes in India:
2. The prior consent of the Attorney
1. The Constitution enumerates the General (AG) of India is required to suo
specific castes or tribes designated as motu initiate the inherent contempt
SCs or STs. powers of the Supreme Court.
2. Parliament has the authority to include 3. As per the constitution, it can either be
or exclude any caste or tribe from the civil contempt or criminal contempt.
lists specified by Presidential How many of the statements given above are
notifications. correct?
3. The Constitution has defined the (a) Only one
persons who belong to the Anglo-Indian (b) Only two
community.
(c) All three
How many of the above statements are
(d) None
correct?
(a) Only one 100. Consider the following statements:
(b) Only two Statement I: Like the president, the
(c) All three Governor of a state has the power of qualified
(d) None veto over a bill passed by the State
Legislature.
97. Consider the following statements regarding Statement II: The Constitution of India does
cooperative society: not provide any time limit for the Governor
1. The board cannot be superseded if there to act on a bill passed by the State
is no financial assistance from the Legislature.
government. Which one of the following is correct in
2. Elections to cooperative society must be respect of the above statements?
arranged within 3 months after the (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
supersession. correct, and Statement II is the correct
Which of the statements given above is/are explanation of Statement I
correct? (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(a) 1 only correct, but Statement II is not the
correct explanation of Statement I
(b) 2 only
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II
(c) Both 1 and 2 is incorrect
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
is correct


You might also like