𝐂𝐨𝐦𝐦𝐨𝐧

𝐔𝐧𝐢𝐯𝐞𝐫𝐬𝐢𝐭𝐲
𝐄𝐧𝐭𝐫𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝐓𝐞𝐬𝐭

𝐂𝐔𝐄𝐓 (𝐔𝐆)
𝟐𝟎𝟐𝟓

🌐 https://cuet.nta.nic.in/
🌐 https://www.nta.ac.in/
Vision
The right candidates joining best institutions will give India her demographic
dividend.

Mission
To improve equity and quality in education by administering research based
valid, reliable, efficient, transparent, fair and international level
assessments. The best subject matter experts, psychometricians and IT
delivery and security professionals will ensure that the current gaps in
existing assessment systems are properly identified and bridged.

NTA will create a system which will promote teaching (by teachers),
learning (by students) and assessment (by parents and institutions). NTA
strongly believes in quality, efficiency, effectiveness, equity and security of
assessments. To practice these values, NTA will constantly engage with its
stakeholders, viz. students, parents, teachers, experts and partner
institutions.

0
 CONTENT PAGE NO.
List of Abbreviations 4
Important Information and Dates at a Glance 5-10
Chapter-1 Introduction 11-12
1.1 About National Testing Agency (NTA) 11
1.2 About Central Universities 11
1.3 About CUET (UG) - 2025 11-12
1.4 Role of NTA 12
Chapter-2 Examination Scheme 13
2.1 Mode of Examination 13
2.2 Medium of Examination 13
2.3 Scheme of Examination 13
2.4 Pattern of Question Paper 13
2.5 Tests / Subjects covered under CUET (UG) – 2025 13
2.6 Duration of Test 13
Chapter-3 Eligibility 14-15
3.1 Eligibility 14
3.2 List of Qualifying Exam 14
3.3 Year of Appearance in Qualifying Examination 14-15
Chapter-4 Reservation 16-18
4.1 Reservations 16
4.2 Provisions relating to persons with disability 16-17
4.3 Scribe and Compensatory Time 17-18
Chapter-5 Choice Of Cities 19
Chapter-6 Admit Card 20
Chapter-7 Schedule Of Examination 21
Chapter-8 Important instructions for the candidates 22-23
Chapter-9 Unfair means practices and breach of examination rules 24
9.1 Definition 24
9.2 Punishment for Using Unfair Means practices 24
9.3 Cancellation of Result 24

1
Chapter-10 Barred Items And Dress Code 25
10.1 Barred Items 25
10.2 Dress Code 25
Chapter-11 Display Of Answer Keys Of Challenge 26
11.1 Display of Answer Key Challenge 26
11.2 Display of Recorded Responses 26
Chapter-12 CUET (UG) – 2025 Score And Admissions 27-28
12.1 Marking Scheme of Examination 27
12.2 CUET (UG) – 2025 NTA Score 27
12.3 Re-evaluation/ Re-checking of Result 27
12.4 Admissions 27-28
12.5 Use of Scores of CUET (UG) – 2025 by other Organizations 28
Chapter-13 Miscellaneous 29
13.1 Correspondence with NTA 29
13.2 Weeding Out Rules 29
13.3 Legal Jurisdiction 29
13.4 RTI 29

2
 APPENDIX

Appendix
S. No. Particulars Page No.
No.
1. I List of Central Universities 31-32
List of Languages/ Domain specific Subjects/ General Aptitude Test
2. II 33-34
offered under CUET (UG) – 2025
3. III List of Examination Cities for CUET (UG) - 2025 35-42
Procedure for Online Payment of Fees and Helpline for Payment-Related
4. IV 43-46
Queries
5. V Computer Based Test (CBT) Guidelines 47-53
Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA Score for Multi Shifts
6. VI 54-63
Papers
7. VII The Gazette of India notification related to PwD/PwBD candidates 64-66
Certificate for person with specified disability covered under the
8. VIII 67
definition of Section 2 (s) of the RPwD Act, 2016
9. IX Letter of Undertaking For Using Own Scribe for PwD/PwBD candidate 68
10. X Replica of the online Application Form of CUET (UG) – 2025 69-87

3
 LIST OF ABBREVIATIONS

CBT Computer Based Test

CU Central University

CUET Common University Entrance Test

EWS Economically Weaker Section

GOI Government of India

HEIs Higher Education Institutions

MCQ Multiple Choice Question

MoE Ministry of Education

NDA Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)

NEGP National e-Governance Plan (NeGP)

NTA National Testing Agency

OBC-
Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer
NCL
OCI Overseas Citizen of India

PwBD Persons with Benchmark Disabilities

RPwBD The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016

SC Scheduled Castes

ST Scheduled Tribes

TPC Test Practice Centre

UDID Unique Disability ID

UPI Unified Payment Interface (UPI)

UR Unreserved
UT Union Territory

4
 IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE

Important Dates and Fee Details for Common University Entrance Test (UG) - 2025:

1. Common University Entrance Test (CUET (UG) – 2025) will be conducted in 13 mediums
across India for admission into the Undergraduate Programmes for all the Central
Universities (CUs) and participating Universities in India for the academic year 2025-26.
01 March 2025 to 22 March 2025 (upto 11.50
Online Submission of Application Form
PM)

Last date of successful transaction of fee through

23 March 2025 (upto 11.50 PM)
Credit/Debit Card/Net-Banking/UPI

24 March 2025 to 26 March 2025 (upto 11.50

Correction in Particulars
PM)

Announcement of the City of Examination To be announced later on the website

Downloading Admit Cards from the NTA website To be announced later on the website

Between 08 May and 01 June 2025

Date of Examination
(Tentative)

Display of Recorded Responses and Answer Keys To be announced later on the website

Website(s) https://cuet.nta.nic.in

Declaration of Result on the NTA website To be announced later on the website

2. Candidates may choose upto a maximum of five (05) subjects including languages and General
Aptitude Test. Fees will be calculated based on the number of subjects chosen by the
candidates. The following fee structure is applicable for CUET (UG) - 2025:
CUET (UG) - 2025
Category
Up to 03 Subjects For each Additional Subject
General (UR) ₹ 1000/- ₹ 400/- (each)
OBC)- (NCL)* / EWS** ₹ 900/- ₹ 375/- (each)
SC/ST/PwD/PwBD/ Third gender ₹ 800/- ₹ 350/- (each)
Centres outside India ₹ 4500/- ₹ 1800/- (each)
*Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in. Only the
candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are
not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General/Unreserved.
**As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated 17 January 2019, issued by the Ministry of Social
Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 of MHRD Department of
Higher Education regarding t h e implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Section
(EWS) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.

5
3. Broad features of CUET (UG) - 2025 are as follows:
Registration Registration will be online at https://cuet.nta.nic.in

Total subjects 37 (13 languages + 23 domain-specific subjects + 01 General Aptitude Test).

13 Indian languages (Assamese, Bengali, English, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada,

Medium
Malayalam, Marathi, Punjabi, Odia, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Language Subjects: Language to be tested through Reading
Comprehension (based on different types of passages–Factual, Literary,
and Narrative), Literary Aptitude and Vocabulary
Domain Subjects: As per NCERT syllabus
Syllabus
General Aptitude Test: General Knowledge, Current Affairs, General
Mental Ability, Numerical Ability, Quantitative Reasoning (Simple
application of basic mathematical concepts arithmetic/algebra
geometry/mensuration/statistics), Logical and Analytical Reasoning
Candidates may choose upto a maximum of five (05) subjects including
Choice of Test
languages and General Aptitude Test irrespective of the subjects opted in
Paper
class XII.*
Correct Answer: 05 marks (Five)
Marking Scheme
There will be negative marking for each incorrect answer of 01 (one) mark.
Mode of the Exam Computer Based Test (CBT) mode

Total Questions 50 questions for each test papers. All Question are compulsory.

Duration Duration for each test paper would be 60 minutes

The examination will be conducted on multiple shifts, depending on the
Shift
number of Candidates and Subject choices.
*Candidates may select the subjects based on the eligibility criteria for a programme of a desired university

i. The candidates can see the list of Central Univerties at Appendix-I.

ii. The list of Languages/Subjects/General Aptitute Test offered under CUET (UG) 2025
examination is at Appendix-II.
iii. The list of examination cities where the examination will be held may be seen at
Appendix-III.
iv. The fee can be submitted only online through Net Banking/Credit Card/Debit
Card/UPI. Processing charges and GST as applicable are chargeable from the
candidate (in addition to the examination fee) by the concerned Bank/Payment
Gateway Integrator. For details/procedure, please see Appendix-IV.
v. In case the confirmation page is not generated, fees may have to be paid once again to
ensure the successful generation of the confirmation page.
vi. Candidates must carefully read the Instructions (including how to fill up the
Application Form online) given in the Information Bulletin available on the NTA
Website. Candidates not complying with the instructions shall be summarily
disqualified.
vii. Candidates should apply for CUET (UG) - 2025 through the “Online” mode only. The
Application Form in any other mode shall not be accepted.

6
 viii. Submission of the Application Form should be made by the candidate online through
the NTA website: https://cuet.nta.nic.in

4. Instructions for filling Online Application Form:

i. Before starting to fill the application form candidates are advised to read the Prospectus
displayed on the website of the University/ies where admission is sought and be clear
about the programmes offered by them, seats available, eligibility as regards age,
passing/appearing in qualifying exam, minimum marks in the qualifying exam,
relaxation there of, reservation, admission procedure, subject to be chosen from list of
UG Programmes available at https://cuet.nta.nic.in/ in CUET etc. before applying for
the CUET (UG) – 2025.

ii. NTA will not entertain the corrections sent by the candidate through
Post/Fax/WhatsApp/E-mail/by Hand.

iii. Download the Information Bulletin and read carefully to ensure your eligibility.

Step 1: Registration Form:

Register for the Online Application Form and note down the system- generated
Application Number. The candidate should supply the required details while filling
the Online Application Form and is also required to create a PASSWORD, choose
Security Question and enter Answer. After successful submission of the personal
details, an Application number will be generated and it will be used to complete the
remaining steps of the Application Form and will also be required for all future
reference/correspondence. For subsequent logins, the candidate will be able to login
directly with the respective system-generated Application Number and created
Password.

Step 2: Application Form:

The Candidates can log in with the system-generated Application Number and pre-
created Password for completing the Application Form including filling up personal
details, educational qualification,university/ programme selection, test paper details,
choosing the Examination Cities, and uploading the images and documents (if any).

Upload Scanned Images of the Candidate’s Photograph, Signature and PwD/PwBD certificate
1. Photograph:

i. The candidate will have to upload his/her recent photograph in JPG/JPEG format. The
recent photograph should be either in colour or black and white with 80% face (without
mask) visible including ears against a white background.
ii. The size of the scanned photograph should be between 10 kb to 200 kb (clearly
visible). Photograph should be named as ‘ _Photo' and in JPG/JPEG format.
2. Signature:
i. The candidate is required to upload his/her scanned copy of signature. The scanned
signature should be in JPG/JPEG format (clearly legible).
ii. Signature file should be named as <'first two characters of candidate name'> _Signature'
and in JPG/JPEG format between 10 kb to 50 kb.

7
3. PwD/PwBD Certificate:

The candidate has to upload the scanned copy of PwD/PwBD/UDID certificate. The
scanned copy of PwD/PwBD/UDID certificate (if applicable) should be named as '< first
two characters of candidate name>_PwDCertificate’ and in pdf format between 50 kb to 300
kb.

[Note: The Candidate has to upload only his/her own photograph, signature, and PwD and
PwBD Certificate wherever applicable, as mentioned above (and not of anybody else) in a
correct/proper manner. In case, it is found at any time in the future that the candidate has
used/uploaded the photograph, signature, and certificate(s) of someone else in his/her
Application Form, or he/she has tampered with his/her Admit Card/Result/Scorecard, these
acts of the candidate shall be treated under Unfair Means (UFM) Practices and actions
would be taken as per the provisions relating to Unfair Means Practices.

Please check your photograph and signature before submission of the Application Form. In
case the photograph or signature is blurred or not visible to identify the identity of the
candidate then, the application will be rejected and no option for correction or revision shall
be permitted.

Step 3: Fee Payment:

After completing Step 1 and Step 2, the candidates have to pay the requisite
examination fee. The fee can be submitted only online through Net Banking, Credit
Card, Debit Card, or UPI. Processing charges and GST as applicable are chargeable to
the candidate (in addition to the examination fee) by the concerned Bank/Payment
Gateway Integrator.
The Confirmation Page of the online Application Form will be generated only after
successful payment by the Candidate. In case the Confirmation Page is not generated
after payment of the fee, then the candidate may have to approach the concerned
Bank/Payment Gateway (in the helpline number and e-mail given in the Information
Bulletin) to ensure the successful payment or to obtain the refund of
duplicate/multiple payments].
Note: No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA
under any circumstances.

Step 4: Confirmation Page:

a. All 3 Steps can be done together or at separate timings. The submission of the
Application of a candidate could be considered as successful and his/her
candidature would be confirmed only on the successful transaction/receipt of the
prescribed application fee from him/her.
b. Download, save and print a copy of the Confirmation Page of the Application
Form (which would be downloadable only after the successful remittance of the
fee) for future reference.

8
General Instruction to the Candidate:
i. Candidate shall ensure that the information entered by them in their respective online
Application Form is correct.
ii. Information provided by the candidates in their respective online Application Forms,
like the Name of the Candidate, Contact Details, Address Details, Category, Gender,
PwBD Status, Educational Qualification Details, Date of Birth, Choice of Exam cities, etc.
will be treated as final. Any request for change in such particulars will not be considered
by NTA under any circumstances.
iii. All candidates must ensure that they have provided the correct e-mail address and
mobile number.
iv. Candidates must ensure that their email address and mobile number to be registered in
their online Application Form are their own, as relevant/important information/
communication will be sent by NTA through e-mail on the registered mail address
and/or through SMS on the registered mobile number only. NTA shall not be
responsible for any non-communication /miscommunication with a candidate in the
email address or mobile number given by him/her other than his/her own. All
Candidates shall ensure that the information (like his/her name, mother’s name, father’s
name, gender, date of birth, category, PwBD status, mobile number, e-mail address,
photograph and signature, choice of cities for exam Centre, etc.) provided by them in
their online Application Form is correct and is their own.
v. NTA does not edit/modify/alter any information entered by the candidates after
completion of the application process under any circumstances. Any request for change
in information thereafter will not be entertained. Therefore, candidates are advised to
exercise utmost caution before filling up the correct details in the Application Form.
vi. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information
provided by him/her in his/her online Application Form.
vii. Candidates are advised to visit the NTA Website (www.nta.ac.in) and check their e-
mails regularly for the latest updates.
viii. Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the date, shift,
and time indicated on their Admit Cards issued by the NTA in due course through its
Website.

ix. The entire application process for CUET (UG) - 2025 is online, including uploading of
scanned images/documents, payment of fees, and printing of Confirmation Page, Admit
Card, etc. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s)
including the Confirmation Page to NTA through Post/ Fax/WhatsApp/Email/by
Hand.

x. Usage of Data and Information:NTA/Government of India can use the data provided by
the End Users (test taker in this case) for training, research and development, analysis,
and other permissible purposes (s).

9
xi. Candidates are advised to fill out only one Application Form and to take utmost care
while filling out the mobile number and e-mail address. Candidates are also advised to
use the mobile number and email address that are accessible to them (may be parent/
guardian). One mobile number and email address can be used for one Application Form
only.

For any queries/ clarifications, candidates can also Email/call at the NTA Helpdesk:

Email ID [email protected]
Contact Number 011- 40759000 / 011-69227700

10
 CHAPTER – 1
INTRODUCTION
1.1. About the National Testing Agency (NTA)
The Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India (GoI) has established the National
Testing Agency (NTA) as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing
organization under the Societies Registration Act (1860) for conducting efficient,
transparent, and international standardized tests in order to assess the competency of
candidates for admission to higher education institutions with a mission to improve equity
and quality in education by developing and administering research-based valid, reliable,
efficient, transparent, fair and international level assessments.
NTA has created a system that promotes teaching (by teachers), learning (by students), and
assessment (by parents and institutions). NTA strongly believes in the quality, efficiency,
effectiveness, equity, and security of assessments. To practice these values, NTA is
constantly engaging with its stakeholders, viz. students, parents, teachers, experts, and
partner institutions.
The objectives of NTA, inter alia, include:
1. To conduct efficient, transparent, and international standardized tests in order to assess
the competency of candidates for admission.
2. To undertake research on educational, professional, and testing systems to identify gaps
in the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them.
3. To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional
development standards.
The National Testing Agency has been entrusted with the responsibility of conducting the
Common University Entrance Test (UG) for admission into the Undergraduate
programmes/ courses for all the Central Universities (CUs) for the Academic session 2025-
2026.

1.2. About Central Universities (CUs)

Central Universities or Union Universities in India are established by an Act of Parliament
and are under the purview of the Department of Higher Education in the Ministry of
Education. In general, Universities in India are recognized by the University Grants
Commission (UGC), which draws its power from the University Grants Commission Act,
1956. Central universities, in addition, are covered by the Central Universities Act, 2009,
which regulates their purpose, powers, governance, etc.
1.3. About Common University Entrane Test (CUET (UG)-2025)
The Common University Entrance Test (CUET) Scores will be used for admission into UG
Programmes in all Central Universities/ Participating Universities for Academic session
2025-26. The Common University Entrance Test (CUET) will provide a common platform
and equal opportunities to candidates across the country, especially those from rural and
other remote areas, and help establish better connections with the Universities. A single
Examination will enable the Candidates to cover a wide outreach and be part of the

11
 admissions process to various Central Universities. The list of Central
Universities/Participating Universities may be seen at https://cuet.nta.nic.in.

1.4. Role of NTA

The Role of NTA is confined to the registration of candidates, the conduct of the test,
hosting of answer keys, inviting challenges, finalizing answer keys, preparing and
declaring results, and hosting Score Card.

A merit list will be prepared by participating Universities/Institutes/organizations.

Universities may conduct their individual counselling based on the Scorecard of CUET
(UG) –2025 provided by NTA.

The letters/e-mails/grievances/queries/RTI applications/Court cases pertaining to

admission related matters/procedures will not be entertained by NTA. The same
may be addressed to the concerned University.

12
 CHAPTER – 2
EXAMINATION SCHEME
2.1. Mode of Examination:
CUET (UG) - 2025 will be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode only.

2.2. Medium of Examination:

Medium of the Question Papers: The CUET (UG)- 2025 will be conducted in 13 Indian
languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi,
Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu).

The option of language for Question Paper should be exercised while filling up the
Application Form online and it cannot be changed at a later stage.

2.3. Scheme of Examination

S. No. Parameters CUET (UG) - 2025
37 (13 Indian languages + 23 domain-specific subjects +
1. Total subjects
01 General Aptitude Test).
Candidates may choose upto a maximum of five (05)
2. Choice of Test Paper subjects including languages and General Aptitude
Test irrespective of the subjects opted in class XII.*s
3. Mode of the Exam Computer Based Test (CBT) mode
50 questions for each test papers. All Question are
4. Total Questions
compulsory.
5. Duration Duration for each test paper would be 60 minutes
The examination will be conducted in multiple shifts,
6. Shift depending on the number of Candidates and Subject
choices.
Correct Answer: 05 marks (Five)
7. Marking Scheme There will be negative marking for each incorrect
answer of 01 (one) mark.
*Candidates may select the subjects based on the eligibility criteria for a programme of a desired university

2.4. The pattern of Question Paper:

Objective type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).

2.5. Tests / Subject covered under CUET (UG) - 2025

The list of Languages, Domain Specific Subjects and General Aptitude Test covered in CUET
(UG) – 2025 is given in Appendix II.

2.6. Duration of Test:

Duration for each test paper would be 60 minutes The examination will be conducted in
multiple shifts depending on the number of candidates and their combinations. (Compensatory
time for PwBD Candidates of 20 minutes for each hour)

13
 CHAPTER – 3
ELIGIBILITY
3.1. Eligibility
For appearing in the CUET (UG) - 2025, there is no age limit for the candidates. The candidates
who have passed the class 12 /equivalent examination or are appearing in 2025 can appear in
the CUET (UG) - 2025 examination. However, the candidates will be required to fulfill the age
criteria (if any) of the University / Institution / Organization in which they are desirous of
taking admission.

3.2. List of Qualifying Examinations (QE)

i. The final examination of the 10+2 system, conducted by any recognized Central/ State
Board, such as the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi; Council for the Indian
School Certificate Examinations, New Delhi.
ii. Intermediate or two-year Pre-University examination conducted by a recognized Board/
University.
iii. Final examination of the two-year course of the Joint Services Wing of the National Defence
Academy
iv. Senior Secondary School Examination conducted by the National Institute of Open
Schooling with a minimum of five subjects.
v. Any Public School/ Board/ University examination in India or any foreign country is
recognized as equivalent to the 10+2 system by the Association of Indian Universities
(AIU).
vi. Higher Secondary Certificate Vocational Examination.
vii. A Diploma recognized by AICTE or a State board of technical education of at least 3 years
duration.
viii. General Certificate Education (GCE) examination (London/Cambridge/Sri Lanka) at the
Advanced (A) level.
ix. High School Certificate Examination of the Cambridge University or International
Baccalaureate Diploma of the International Baccalaureate Office, Geneva.
x. Candidates who have completed the Class 12 (or equivalent) examination outside India or
from a Board not specified above should produce a certificate from the Association of
Indian Universities (AIU) to the effect that the examination they have passed is equivalent
to the Class 12 Examination.
xi. In case the Class 12 Examination is not a public examination, the candidate must have
passed at least one public (Board or Pre-University) examination earlier.

3.3. Year of Appearance in Qualifying Examination

For the year of appearance in the Class 12 / equivalent examination, relevant conditions of
Universities / Institutions (as applicable) will be applied. The candidate must ensure his
eligibility from the website of respective Universities / Institutions.

14
Note:
1. For admission in Universities through CUET (UG) - 2025, the existing policies
regarding quota, category, relaxation, reservations, qualification, subject combinations,
preferences, etc. of the respective University / Institution / Organization shall be
applicable.

2. As the eligibility criteria for admission may be unique for every University, the
candidates are advised to visit the University website to which they are applying for
their respective programes.

3. Candidates are advised to satisfy themselves before applying that they possess the
eligibility criteria laid down by the University they are applying to.

4. Mere appearance in the Entrance Test does not entitle a candidate to be considered for
admission to the Programme unless he/she fulfills the Programme-wise eligibility
conditions of the University they are applying to.

15
 CHAPTER – 4
RESERVATIONS
4.1 Reservations
Indian nationals belonging to certain categories (OBC-NCL, Gen-EWS, SC, ST) are admitted
under the seats reserved for them in accordance with the rules prescribed by the Government
of India/State Governments.

4.2 Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)/ Persons with Benchmark
Disability (PwBD):
4.2.1 The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016:
The Gazette of India, Extraordinary Part-II Section 1, Ministry of Law And Justice (Legislative
Department) New Delhi dated 28 December 2016 on “The Rights of Persons With Disabilities
Act, 2016. The relevant paragraphs of the above Gazette Notification for consideration are as
under: -
Chapter -1.
Para 2(r), “persons with benchmark disabilities” means a person with not less than
forty percent (40%) of a specified disability where specified disability has not been
defined in measurable terms and includes a person with disability where specified
disability has been defined in measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority.

Para 2 (s) “Persons with Disability (PwD)” means a person with long term physical,
mental, intellectual, or sensory impairment which, in interaction with barriers, hinders
his full and effective participation in society equally with others.

Para 2 (zc) “specified disability” means the disabilities as specified in the schedule(Appendix-
VII)
4.2.2 Office Memorandum dated 29 August 2018:
Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India, Office Memorandum No. F.
No. 34- 02/2015-DD-III dated 29 August 2018 for conducting written examination for
persons with specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the
RPwD Act, 2016. The relevant paragraphs of the above Office Memorandum for
consideration are as under : -
Para IV. The facility of Scribe/Reader/Lab Assistant should be allowed to any person
with benchmark disability as defined under section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016 and has
limitation in writing including that of speed if so desired by him/her.
In case of persons with benchmark disabilities in the category of blindness, locomotor
disability (both arm affected-BA) and cerebral palsy, the facility of scribe/reader/lab
assistant shall be given, if so desired by the person.
In case of other category of persons with benchmark disabilities, the provision of
scribe/reader/lab assistant can be allowed on production of a certificate to the
effect that person concerned has physical limitation to write, and scribe is
essential to write examination on his behalf, from the Chief Medical Officer/Civil
Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a Government health care institution as per
proforma at Appendix - VIII.
In case the candidate is allowed to bring his own scribe, the qualification of the scribe
should be one step below the qualification of the candidate taking examination. The
person opting for own scribe should submit details of the own scribe as per proforma
at Appendix-IX.

16
 4.2.3 Office Memorandum dated 10 August 2022:
Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India, Office Memorandum No F.
No. 29-6/2019-DD-III dated 10 August 2022 for conducting written examination for
persons with specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(s) of the
RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e.
person having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing. The relevant
paragraphs of the above Office Memorandum for consideration are as under: -
Para 3 (b).The facility of scribe and/or compensatory time shall be granted solely to
those having difficulty in writing subject to production of a certificate to the effect that
person concerned has limitation to write and that scribe is essential to write examination
on his/her behalf from the competent medical authority of a Government healthcare
institution as per proforma at Appendix-VIII.
Para 3 (c).The medical authority for the purpose of certification as mentioned above
should be a multi-member authority comprising the following: -
i. Chief Medical officer/Civil Surgeon /Chief District Medical Officer, Chairperson
ii. Orthopaedic/PMR specialist
iii. Neurologist, if available*
iv. Clinical Psychologist/Rehabilitation Psychologist/ Psychiatrist/Special Educator
Occupational therapist, if available*
v. Any other expert based on the condition of the candidate as may be nominated by
the Chairperson.
The candidate should fill up the details of the scribe as per the undertaking proforma in
Annexure VI.
(* the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer may make
full efforts for inclusion of neurologists, occupational therapist from the nearest District
or the Medical College/Institute, if the same is not available in the District)”
The candidate should fill up the details of scribe as per undertaking proforma at
Appendix-IX.

4.3 Scribe and Compensatory Time

1. The candidate should have the discretion of opting for his own scribe / reader / lab assistant
or request the Examination Body for the same. The examining body may also identify the scribe
/ reader / lab assistant to make panels at the District / Division / State level as per the
requirements of the examination. In such instances the candidates should be allowed to meet
the scribe two days before the examinations so that the candidates get a chance to check and
verify whether the scribe is suitable or not.

2. The word “extra time or additional time” that is being currently used should be changed to
“compensatory time” and the same should not be less than 20 minutes per hour of examination
for persons who are allowed use of scribe / reader / lab assistant. All the candidates with
benchmark disabilities who are eligible for availing the facility of scribe in terms of guidelines
vide para IV of Para 2.2.2 above may be allowed additional time of minimum of one hour for
examination of 3 hours duration whether they use the facility of scribe or not. In case the
duration of the examination is less than an hour, then the duration of additional time should be
allowed on pro-rata basis. Additional time should not be less than 5 minutes and should be in
the multiple of 5”.

Note – Both the guidelines i.e. dated 29 August 2018 (for PwBDs) and dated 10 August 2022 (for
PwDs) have other important aspects such as allowing use of assistive devices, proper seating
arrangement, accessibility of examination centres etc. which will be followed.
17
The scribe will help the Candidate in reading the questions and / or keying in the answers as
per the directions of the Candidate. A scribe will NEITHER explain the questions NOR suggest
any solution to the Candidate.
It is to be noted that the Scribe will be provided by the National Testing Agency (NTA), if
requested by the Candidate.
If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed the services of a scribe and/or availed the
compensatory time but does not possess the extent of disability that warrants the use of a scribe
and/or grant of compensatory time, the candidate will be excluded from the process of
evaluation, ranking, counselling and admission. In case such a candidate has already been
admitted to any Institution, the admission of the candidate will be cancelled.
Disability certificate/Unique Disability Identification (UDID)) issued by the notified medical
authority needs to be uploaded in the Online Application Form of CUET (UG) 2025
Note:The NTA does not guarantee any change in the category or sub-category (PwD/PwBD
status) after the submission of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change will be
entertained by NTA after the declaration of NTA Score for CUET (UG) 2025. The category/sub-
category (PwD/PwBD status) entered in the CUET (UG) Database by the candidate will be used
as final. Therefore, the candidates are advised to fill in the category/sub-category column very
carefully.
Note: The extent of “specified disability” in a person shall be assessed in accordance with the
“Guidelines for the purpose of assessing the extent of specified disability in a person included
under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.
Note: Candidates must note that the benefit of reservation will be given to them subject to
verification of documents. If it is discovered at any stage that a candidate has used a
false/fake/incorrect document or has furnished false, incorrect or incomplete information, in
order to avail the benefit of reservation, then such a candidate shall be excluded from all
admission processes. In case such a candidate has already been given admission, the admission
shall stand cancelled.
In the case of the Institutes run/aided/recognized by State Governments, the reservation policy
of the respective State Governments shall be applicable

18
 CHAPTER – 5
CHOICE OF CITIES

5.1 The Cities where the CUET (UG) - 2025 will be conducted are given in Appendix III. While
applying, candidates have to select any four cities of their choice. Efforts will be made to allot
the city of examination to the candidates in the order of preference opted by them in their online
Application Forms. However, due to administrative/logistic reasons, a different city can be
allotted.

5.2 The decision to have a CBT examination in cities will lie with the NTA and will be dependent on
multiple factors. Though every effort will be made to allot a Centre in one of the cities selected by
the candidate, the NTA reserves the right to allot a city to the candidate which may fall out of the
options opted by the candidates due to administrative reasons.

5.3 In case, there are very few candidates from a City, the NTA reserves the right to merge one, two,
or more cities.

5.4 The decision of the NTA regarding the allotment of the City/Centre shall be final and binding.
No further correspondence or request shall be entertained in this regard.

5.5 For convenience, the candidates may select their own city or neighbouring cities in their State of
Residence only and not far away cities in other States. NTA will not be responsible for any
inconvenience due to the incorrect selection of cities by the candidates.

5.6 In case, the number of candidates opting for a city as the centre with a regional language is less
than a certain minimum, candidates may be allotted a Centre in another city irrespective of the
city opted by the candidates for appearing in the examination.

Note: All efforts will be made by NTA to consider the comfort and convenience of candidates, including
PwD/PwBD Candidates while allotting Centres.

19
 CHAPTER –6
ADMIT CARD

6.1 The Admit Card would be issued provisionally to the candidates through the NTA website:
https://cuet.nta.nic.in subject to the fulfillment of the eligibility conditions and receipt of the prescribed
application fee by NTA.

6.2 The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website. The candidate will appear in
the examination at the given Centre on the date and shift/timing as indicated in his/her Admit Card.

6.3 No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination Centre, on the date and shift/time other
than that allotted to him/her in his/her Admit Card.

6.4 In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and signature
shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach the NTA
Help Line between 10.00 A.M. and 5.00 P.M. In such a case, the candidate would appear in the
examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take necessary action to
make corrections in the record later.

6.5 The date of downloading the Admit Card for the exam will be announced on the NTA website
https://cuet.nta.nic.in
Note:
a. The Candidates may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.
b. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for Common University Entrance Test (UG) – 2025 be issued at the
Examination Centres.
c. The candidates must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.
d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future reference.
e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose applications are found to be incomplete for any reasons
(including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned Applications) or who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria
for the examination.
f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which shall be further
scrutinized at subsequent stages of the admission process.

6.6 Candidates are advised to carry only the following with them into the examination venue:

i. Admit card along with Self Declaration (Undertaking) downloaded from the NTA Website (a
clear printout on A4 size paper) duly filled in
ii. A simple transparent Ball Point Pen
iii. Additional photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) to be pasted on
the attendance sheet in the Examination Room/ Hall.
iv. Any one of the authorized photo IDs (must be original, valid, and non-expired) – School
Identity Card/ PAN card/ Passport/ Aadhaar Card (With photograph)/E-Aadhaar with
photograph/ Class 12 Board Admit Card with photograph/ Bank Passbook with Photograph.
v. PwD/PwBD certificate issued by the authorized medical officer, if claiming the relaxation
under the PwD/PwBD category
vi. Sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/apple/orange) in case the candidate is diabetic.

20
 CHAPTER – 7
SCHEDULE OF EXAMINATION

Date of Examination 08 May to 01 June 2025 (tentative)

Mode of Examination Computer Based Test (CBT) mode

Slot/shifts To be informed later

Timing of Examination To be notified later

Duration of Examination 60 minutes duration for each test paper.

Note: Compensatory time for PwBD Candidates, who are eligible for Scribe (whether such
candidate uses the facility of Scribe or not) 20 minutes for each hour examination will be
extended as per Govt. Guidelines. Such extra time will be extended test-wise and not in the
aggregate duration of the morning/afternoon slot.

7.1 The examination may be held on multiple shifts, depending on the number of candidates and
their combinations.

7.2 The duration of the each paper will be of 60 minutes.

7.3 Though the tests are scheduled in multiple shifts, as the case may be, each test within each shift
is distinct and independent of the other.

7.4 However, the allotment of candidates to the Shift will be based on the options exercised and
technical and administrative considerations.

7.5 Admit Cards will be issued for the course(s) opted by him/her. No request for a change of date
or /shift will be entertained.

7.6 Candidates have to report for the slot/s as per the time stated in their respective Admit Cards.

21
 CHAPTER – 8
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES

8.1 Candidates are advised to report at the Examination Center well in time i.e. 02 hours before the
commencement of the examination.
8.2 Candidates should take their seats immediately after the opening of the Examination Hall. If the
candidates do not report in time due to any reason i.e. traffic jam, train/bus delay, etc, they are
likely to miss some of the important instructions to be announced in the Examination
Rooms/Halls. The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay.
8.3 The candidate must show, on-demand, the Admit Card downloaded/printed from the NTA
website for admission in the examination room/hall. The Test Centre Staff on duty is authorized
to verify the identity of candidates and may take steps to verify and confirm the identity
credentials. A candidate who does not possess a valid Admit Card and authorized Photo ID shall
not be permitted to take the examination under any circumstances by the Centre Superintendent.
8.4 A seat indicating Roll Number will be allotted to each candidate. Candidates should find and sit
in their allocated seats only. In case a candidate ventures to change his/her seat and does not sit
on the seat allotted to him/her could face cancellation of candidature. No plea would be
entertained in this regard.
8.5 The candidate should ensure that the Question Paper available on the computer is as per his/her
opted subject indicated in the Admit Card. In case, the subject of the Question Paper is other than
his/her opted subject, the same may be brought to the notice of the Invigilator concerned
immediately.
8.6 The candidates may approach the Centre Superintendent/Invigilator in the room for any
technical assistance, first aid emergency, or any other information during the course of the
examination. For any queries or issues regarding the Test, the candidates may contact on Helpline
Numbers available on the NTA website.
8.7 For any queries or issues regarding the Computer Based Test, the candidates may contact on
Helpline Numbers available on the CUET (UG) website.
8.8 In case a candidate, by furnishing false information, his / her candidature will be cancelled and
his / her result will not be declared.
8.9 For those who are unable to appear on the scheduled date of the test for any reason, a re-test shall
not be held by the NTA under any circumstances.
8.10 All Candidates shall ensure that the information (like his/her name, mother’s name, father’s
name, gender, date of birth, category, PwD/PwBD status, mobile number, e-mail address,
photograph, and signature, choice of cities for examination Centre, etc.) provided by them in their
online Application Form is correct. Candidates are advised to exercise the utmost care in filling
up the correct details in the Online Application Form. Any request for change in the particulars
and uploaded scanned images at any stage will not be considered by NTA under any
circumstances. NTA will not entertain the corrections sent by the candidate through
Post/Fax/WhatsApp/E- mail/by Hand.
8.11 Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instruments, Geometry or Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, any kind of
Paper/ Stationery/ Textual material (printed or written material), Eatables and Water (loose or
packed), Mobile Phone/ Earphone/ Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, DocuPen, Slide Rules, Log
Tables, Camera, Tape Recorder, Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, any metallic item
or electronic gadgets/ devices in the Examination Hall/Room.

22
8.12 Candidates are requested to retain a copy of the Confirmation Page, Admit Card, and Scorecard
of the CUET (UG) 2025.

Note: Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Centre on the Date and Shift as indicated in
their Admit Card issued by the NTA. Under no circumstances the choice of cities for the Centre
and shift provided in the Admit Card shall be changed.

Candidates MUST carry the following documents on the day of examination at the test centre. In
the absence of these documents, candidates will not be allowed to sit for the examination.

a) Print copy of Admit Card along with Self Declaration (Undertaking) downloaded from the NTA
Website (a clear printout on A4 size paper) duly filled in.
b) One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) for pasting on
the specific space in the Attendance Sheet at Centre during the examination.
c) Any one of the authorized photo IDs (must be original, valid, and non-expired) – School
Identity Card/ PAN card/ Passport/ Aadhaar Card (With photograph)/E-Aadhaar with
photograph/ Class 12 Board Admit Card with photograph/ Bank Passbook with Photograph.
d) PwD/PwBD certificate issued by the authorized medical officer, if claiming the relaxation under
PwD/PwBD category or PwD/PwBD Certificate regarding physical limitation in an examination
to write as per Annexures given in Information Bulletin, if claiming the relaxation under
PwD/PwBD category.
e) A simple transparent Ball Point Pen.

Rough work
All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the Rough Sheet provided at the Test Centre in
the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test, candidates must hand over the Rough
Sheets to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

23
 CHAPTER – 9
UNFAIR MEANS PRACTICES AND BREACH OF EXAMINATION RULES

9.1 Defination
Unfair Means practice is an activity that allows a candidate to gain an unfair advantage over
other candidates. It includes, but is not limited to:
a) Being in possession of any item or article which has been prohibited or can be used for unfair
practices including any stationery item, communication device, accessories, eatable items,
ornaments or any other material or information relevant or not relevant to the examination
in the paper concerned;
b) Using someone to write an examination (impersonation) or preparing material for copying;
c) Breaching examination rules or any direction issued by NTA in connection with the CUET
(UG) 2025 examination from time to time;
d) Assisting other candidates to engage in malpractices, giving or receiving assistance of any
kind directly or indirectly or attempting to do so;
e) Contacting or communicating or trying to do so with any person, other than the Examination
Staff, during the examination time in the Examination Centre;
f) Threatening any of the officials connected with the conduct of the examination or threatening
any of the candidates;
g) Using or attempting to use any other undesirable method or means in connection with the
examination;
h) Manipulation and fabrication of online documents viz. Admit Card, Self- Declaration,
score card, certificates issued by any Government authority etc.;
i) Forceful entry in /exit from Examination Centre/Hall;
j) Use or attempted use of any electronic device after entering the Examination Centre;
k) Affixing/uploading of wrong/morphed photographs/signatures on the Application
Form/Admit Card/ Proforma;
l) Creating obstacles in the smooth and fair conduct of the examination;
m) Not attempting the question paper for long time intervals;
n) Fidgeting and looking here and there;
o) In possession of bits of paper;
p) Any other malpractices declared as Unfair Means by the NTA;
q) Any candidate with more than one Application Number (more than one SCORE CARDS)
will be treated as UFM, even if found at a later stage, and strict action will be taken against
that Candidate.
r) An offence punishable under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act,
2024.
9.2 Punishment for using unfair means practices
During the course of, before, or after the examination if a candidate indulges in any of the above or
similar practices, he/she shall be deemed to have used unfair practices and booked under the
UNFAIR MEANS (U.F.M.) case. The candidate may be debarred for 3 years in the future and shall
also be liable for criminal action and /or any other action as deemed fit.
9.3 Cancellation of Result
The result CUET (UG)- 2025 of the candidate(s) who indulge in Unfair means Practices will be
cancelled and will not be declared. Similarly, the result of those candidates who appear from the
Centre other than the one allotted to them or allow another candidate/person to write the
examination on his behalf will be cancelled. No plea will be entertained in this regard.

24
 CHAPTER 10
BARRED ITEMS AND DRESS CODE
10.1 Barred Items

10.1.1 The candidates will be subjected to extensive and compulsory frisking before entering the
Examination Centre with the help of highly sensitive metal detectors. The candidates are not allowed
to carry the following items inside the Examination Centre under any circumstances.
a) Any item like textual material (printed or written), bits of paper, Geometry/Pencil Box, Plastic
Pouch, Calculator, Pen, Scale, Writing Pad, Pen Drives, Eraser, Calculator, Log Table,
Electronic Pen/Scanner, etc.
b) Any communication device like Mobile Phone, Bluetooth, Earphones, Microphone, Pager,
Health Band, etc.
c) Other items like Wallet, Goggles, Handbags, Belt, Cap, etc.
d) Any Watch/Wristwatch, Bracelet, Camera, etc.
e) Any ornaments/metallic items.
f) Any food items opened or packed, water bottles, etc.
g) Any other item that could be used for unfair means, communication devices like a microchip,
camera, Bluetooth device, etc.
10.1.2 No arrangement will be made at the Centres for keeping any articles/items belonging to the
candidates.
10.1.3 The candidates wearing articles or objects of faith (customary/ cultural/ religious ) should
report at the examination centre atleast two hours before the last reporting time so that there is
enough time for proper frisking without any inconvenience to the candidate while maintaining the
sanctity of the examination. If upon screening, it is discovered that any candidate is actually carrying
a suspected device within such an item of faith, he/ she may be asked not to take it into the
examination hall.

10.2 Dress Code

10.2.1 The candidates are instructed to follow the following dress code while appearing for CUET
(UG) - 2025:
a. Heavy clothes with long sleeves are not permitted. However in case, candidates come in
cultural/ customary dress at the Examination Centre, they should report at least an hour
before the last reporting time so that there is enough time for proper frisking without any
inconvenience to the candidate while maintaining the sanctity of the examination.
b. Slippers, and sandals with low heels are permitted. Shoes are not permitted.
c. In case of any deviation required due to unavoidable (medical, etc.) circumstances, specific
approval of NTA must be taken before the Admit Cards are issued.
10.2.2 It is desired that the candidates shall strictly follow instructions issued by the NTA to ensure
fair conduct of the examination.
Note: The NTA believes in the sanctity and fairness of conducting the examination, however, it also believes in the
sensitivity involved in frisking (girl) candidates and will issue comprehensive instructions accordingly to the staff and
other officials at the Examination Centres. The frisking of the female candidates will be done inside a closed enclosure by
female staff only.

25
 CHAPTER – 11
DISPLAY OF ANSWER KEY FOR CHALLENGE

11.1 DISPLAY OF ANSWER KEY FOR CHALLENGES

1. The NTA will display the Provisional Answer Key of the questions on the NTA website:
https://cuet.nta.nic.in with a Public Notice, issued to this effect on the said website, to provide
an opportunity to the candidates to challenge the Provisional Answer Keys with a non-
refundable online payment of ₹ 200/- per question challenged as processing charges. The
provisional Answer Keys are likely to be displayed for two to three days.
2. Only paid challenges made during the stipulated time through the key challenge link will be
considered. Challenges without justification/evidence and those filed on any other medium
other than the prescribed link will not be considered.

3. The NTA decision on the challenges shall be final and no further communication will be
entertained. NTA will not inform the Candidates individually about the outcome of the
challenges made.

4. The subject experts will examine all the challenges received and then a final answer key will be
displayed and declared.

5. The result will be compiled based on the final answer key declared. No grievance with regard
to answer key(s) after the declaration of result/NTA Score of CUET (UG) - 2025 will be
entertained.

11.2 DISPLAY OF RECORDED RESPONSES

The NTA will display the recorded responses and Question Papers attempted by the candidates
on the NTA website https://cuet.nta.nic.in prior to the declaration of the result/NTA Score. The
recorded responses are likely to be displayed for two to three days.

26
 CHAPTER – 12
CUET (UG) - 2025 NTA SCORE FOR ADMISSIONS IN CENTRAL AND OTHER
PARTICIPATING UNIVERSITIES / INSTITUTIONS / ORGANIZATIONS

12.1 MARKING SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

For Multiple Choice Questions: To answer a question, the candidates need to choose
one correct answer. However, if any anomaly or discrepancy is found after the process
of challenges of the key verification, it shall be addressed in the following manner:
i. Correct answer: Five marks (+5)
ii. Incorrect answer marked will be given Minus one mark (-1).
iii. Unanswered/un-attepmted will be given no mark (0).

Every effort will be made to ensure that each question has one unique answer, in case,
it is found that a question has more than one option, it will be dealt in following manner:

iv. If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded
to only those who have marked any of the correct options.
v. If none of the options is found correct or a Question is found to be wrong or a
Question is dropped then all candidates appeared will be given five marks (+5)
irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not attempted.
12.2 CUET (UG) - 2025 NTA SCORE
a) For multi-shift papers (if conducted), raw (actual) marks obtained by the candidates in
different shifts/sessions will be converted to NTA Score.
b) The detailed procedure for the compilation of the NTA Score is available on the NTA
Website and also in Appendix VI of the Information Bulletin.
c) The NTA Score of CUET (UG) – 2025 is valid for admission to the academic year 2025- 26
only.

12.3 RE-EVALUATION / RE-CHECKING OF RESULT

a) The result for CUET (UG) - 2025 will be processed based on the Final Answer Keys. No
grievance with regard to Answer Key(s) after the Declaration of Result of CUET (UG) - 2025
will be entertained.
b) The marks obtained by a candidate will be considered further for computation of the result
of CUET (UG) - 2025.
c) There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking of the result. No correspondence in this regard
shall be entertained.
d) No Score Card will be dispatched to the candidates and the candidates are advised to
download their Score Cards for CUET (UG) - 2025 from the website: https://cuet.nta.nic.in

12.4 ADMISSIONS
a) Merely appearing in CUET (UG) - 2025 does not confer any right to the candidate for
admission to the desirous University.

27
 b) The selection and admission are subject to fulfilling the admission criteria, eligibility, rank
in the merit list, medical fitness, verification of original documents, and such other criteria
as may be prescribed by the University.
c) Admissions are handled at the level of each of the Central Universities (CUs) including the
participating Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) using CUET (UG) 2025 Score for
admission for their respective programme(s). After the declaration of the CUET (UG) - 2025
result by NTA, the respective CUs will declare the counselling/ admission schedule and
merit list based on the CUET (UG) - 2025 score and the other criteria of the respective
University.
For all admission-related procedures/queries, the candidates are advised to refer to the
website of the applied University.
d) NTA does not have any role in the preparation of the Merit List.

12.5 USE OF SCORES OF CUET (UG) - 2025 BY OTHER ORGANIZATIONS

The scores/results of CUET (UG) - 2025 may be utilized by other organizations as per
their eligibility criteria/norms/applicable regulations/guidelines/rules.

28
 CHAPTER – 13
MISCELLANEOUS

13.1. CORRESPONDENCE WITH NTA

All the correspondence should preferably be addressed by e-mail. The email query shall be addressed
only if it is not anonymous and contains the name, postal address, and contact number of the sender.
An email containing vague or general queries and other queries as contained in the Information
Bulletin shall not be entertained. Queries shall not be entertained from a person claiming to be
representatives, associates, or officiates of the applicant candidate. The following information shall not
be revealed by NTA:
a. Internal documentation/status.
b. The internal decision-making process of NTA. Any claim/counterclaim thereof.
c. Dates and venue of internal meetings or name of the staff/officers dealing with it.
d. Any information which cannot be revealed in the opinion of NTA.

13.2. WEEDING OUT RULES

The record of Common University Entrance Test CUET (UG) -2025. would be preserved up to 90 days
from the date of declaration of the result.

13.3. LEGAL JURISDICTION

All disputes pertaining to the conduct of the CUET (UG) -2025 Examination including Results shall fall
within the jurisdiction of Delhi/New Delhi only. Further, any grievance/representation arising out of
the Result shall be entertained only when raised within 30 days from the declaration of the result.
Further, the copy of the Legal Notice or Writ Petition/Petition/Appeal/Reply may be served to NTA
only through: [email protected]

13.4. RTI

Information uploaded on the website shall not be provided to the candidate or any other person under
R.T.I. Act, 2005. The information uploaded on the website shall remain for a specific period only.
Therefore, the candidates are advised to download the uploaded information and keep it with them
for the future. In due course of examination or the midway of process, neither any application under
the Right to Information Act, 2005 shall be entertained nor information will be provided.

29
APPENDICES

30
 Appendix - I
List of Central Universities

S. No. Name of Central Universities

1 Aligarh Muslim University

2 Assam University

3 Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar University

4 Banaras Hindu University

5 Central University of Andhra Pradesh

6 Central University of South Bihar

7 Central University of Gujarat
8 Central University of Haryana

9 Central University of Himachal Pradesh

10 Central University of Jammu

11 Central University of Jharkhand

12 Central University of Karnataka

13 Central University of Kashmir
14 Central University of Kerala

15 Central University of Odisha

16 Central University of Punjab

17 Central University of Rajasthan

18 Central University of Tamil Nadu

19 Dr. Harisingh Gaur Vishwa Vidyalaya

20 Guru Ghasidas Vishwavidyalaya

21 Hemvati Nandan Bahuguna Garhwal University

22 Indira Gandhi National Tribal University

23 Jamia Millia Islamia

24 Jawaharlal Nehru University

25 Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya

26 Manipur University

27 Maulana Azad National Urdu University

28 Mizoram University

31
 S. No. Name of Central Universities

29 Nagaland University

30 North Eastern Hill University

31 Pondicherry University
32 Rajiv Gandhi University

33 Sikkim University

34 Tezpur University

35 The English and Foreign Languages University

36 Tripura University

37 University of Allahabad

38 University of Delhi
39 University of Hyderabad

40 Visva Bharati University

41 Mahatma Gandhi Central University

42 Central Sanskrit University, Delhi

43 Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri National Sanskrit University

44 National Sanskrit University
45 Central Tribal University of Andhra Pradesh
46 Sammakka Sarakka Central Tribal University

Note:

• CUET (UG) - 2025 is meant for admission to UG Programmes offered by Central Universities and
other specified participating Institutions for the academic year 2025-26.

• Details of Programmes / Courses offered by Universities along with their Eligibility Criteria are
available on the respective University website.

• Apart from the Central Universities, there are other participating Universities also which
include State Government Universities, Autonomous Institutions, Private Universities and
Deemed Universities etc. The details are available at the CUET (UG) portal. The list of
participating universities is dynamic. Candidates are advised to regularly visit NTA website(s)
www.nta.ac.in, https://cuet.nta.nic.in for the latest updates regarding the examination and
participating universities.

• Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA and University website to which they are
applying, for the latest updates/public notices/notifications/ announcements to be issued from
time to time regarding the CUET (UG) – 2025.

32
 Appendix – II
List of Languages/ Subjects / General Aptitude Test offered under CUET(UG) - 2025
Subject Code Name
101 English
102 Hindi
103 Assamese
104 Bengali
105 Gujarati
106 Kannada
107 Malayalam
108 Marathi
109 Odia
110 Punjabi
111 Tamil
112 Telugu
113 Urdu
301 Accountancy / Book Keeping
302 Agriculture
303 Anthropology
Total Subjects: 37
i. Languages -13 304 Biology/ Biological Science/ Biotechnology /Biochemistry
ii.Domain-specific 305 Business Studies
subjects-23 306 Chemistry
iii.General Aptitude
307 Environmental Science
Test-01
308 Computer Science / Information Practices
A candidate may 309 Economics / Business Economics
choose any 312 Fine Arts/Visual Arts/Commercial Arts
subject/language as
desired by the 313 Geography / Geology
applicable University/ 314 History
Organization 315 Home Science
316 Knowledge Tradition - Practices in India
318 Mass Media / Mass Communication
319 Mathematics / Applied Mathematics
320 Performing Arts (Dance, Drama , Music)
321 Physical Education (Yoga, Sports)
322 Physics
323 Political Science
324 Psychology
325 Sanskrit
326 Sociology
General Aptitude Test:
1. For all the remaining languages including Foreign Languages (i.e.
(Arabic, Bodo, Chinese, Dogri, French, German, Italian, Japanese,
501
Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Manipuri , Nepali, Persian, Russian,
Santhali, Sindhi, Spanish, Tibetan and Sanskrit).

33
 Subject Code Name
2. For domain-specific subject/paper on Entreprenurship, Teaching
Aptitude, Fashion Studies, Tourism, Legal Studies and Engineering
Graphics.

Note :
For the three Central Universities of Sanskrit, the candidate studying any of the subjects in the field of
Shastric traditional subjects i.e. Sahitya, Vyakarana, Phalitha Jyotisha, Siddhanta Jyotisha, Nyaya, Advaita
Vedanta, Visistadvaita Vedanta, Dvaita Vedanta, Sankhya Yoga, Agama, Mimamsa, Puranetihasa,
Dharanasastra, Rigvedabhashyam, Krishna Yajurveda Bhashyam, Shukla Yajurveda Bhashyam,
Samaveda Bhashyam, Atharva Veda Bhashyam, Vastu, may select Sanskrit (325) in the online Application
Form of CUET (UG) – 2025. Also, candidates are advised to select the subjects as per the mapping of
Universities.

34
 Appendix - III
List of Examination Cities for CUET (UG) - 2025

CUET (UG) - 2025 will be conducted in the following Cities, provided there are sufficient
numbers of candidates in the City:
State-wise/UT-wise list of Cities in India and Abroad:
S. NO State City City Code
1 Arunachal Pradesh Naharlagun AL01
2 Arunachal Pradesh Papum Pare AL02
3 Assam Guwahati AM02
4 Assam Jorhat AM03
5 Assam Silchar AM04
6 Assam Tezpur AM05
7 Assam Dibrugarh AM06
8 Andaman & Nicobar Port Blair AN01
9 Andhra Pradesh Anantapur AP01
10 Andhra Pradesh Bhimavaram AP03
11 Andhra Pradesh Chittoor AP05
12 Andhra Pradesh Eluru AP06
13 Andhra Pradesh Guntur AP07
14 Andhra Pradesh Kadapa AP08
15 Andhra Pradesh Kakinada AP09
16 Andhra Pradesh Kurnool AP10
17 Andhra Pradesh Nellore AP11
18 Andhra Pradesh Ongole AP12
19 Andhra Pradesh Rajahmundry AP13
20 Andhra Pradesh Srikakulam AP14
21 Andhra Pradesh Tirupathi AP16
22 Andhra Pradesh Vijayawada AP17
23 Andhra Pradesh Visakhapatnam AP18
24 Andhra Pradesh Vizianagaram AP19
25 Andhra Pradesh Narasaraopet AP20
26 Andhra Pradesh Proddatur AP21
27 Andhra Pradesh Surampalem AP23
28 Andhra Pradesh Machilipatnam AP27
29 Andhra Pradesh Nandyal AP29
30 Andhra Pradesh Tadepalligudem AP30
31 Bihar Aurangabad(Bihar) BR01
32 Bihar Bhagalpur BR02
33 Bihar Darbhanga BR04
34 Bihar Gaya BR05
35 Bihar Muzaffarpur BR06

35
S. NO State City City Code
36 Bihar Patna BR07
37 Bihar Purnea BR08
38 Bihar Arrah BR09
39 Bihar Samastipur BR12
40 Bihar Bihar Sharif BR38
41 Bihar Rohtas BR41
42 Chhattisgarh Bilaspur(Chhattisgarh) CG02
43 Chhattisgarh Raipur CG03
44 Chhattisgarh Jagdalpur CG04
45 Chhattisgarh Bhilai Nagar CG11
46 Chhattisgarh Durg CG12
47 Chhattisgarh Ambikapur CG13
48 Chandigarh Chandigarh /Sahibzada Ajit CH01
Singh Nagar
49 Daman & Diu Diu DD02
50 Delhi Delhi/New Delhi DL01
51 Dadra & Nagar Haveli Silvassa DN01
52 Gujarat Ahmedabad GJ01
53 Gujarat Anand GJ02
54 Gujarat Jamnagar GJ06
55 Gujarat Junagadh GJ07
56 Gujarat Rajkot GJ10
57 Gujarat Surat GJ11
58 Gujarat Vadodara GJ12
59 Gujarat Himatnagar GJ14
60 Gujarat Mehsana GJ31
61 Gujarat Gandhinagar GJ32
62 Gujarat Bhuj GJ33
63 Gujarat Vapi GJ36
64 Goa Panaji / Mapusa GO01
65 Himachal Pradesh Hamirpur(Himachal Pradesh) HP03
66 Himachal Pradesh Shimla HP06
67 Himachal Pradesh Mandi HP08
68 Himachal Pradesh Una HP09
69 Himachal Pradesh Kullu HP10
70 Himachal Pradesh Bilaspur(Himachal Pradesh) HP13
71 Himachal Pradesh Kangra HP16
72 Haryana Ambala HR01
73 Haryana Gurugram HR02
74 Haryana Faridabad HR03
S. NO State City City Code

36
S. NO State City City Code
75 Haryana Hisar HR10
76 Jharkhand Bokaro JH01
77 Jharkhand Dhanbad JH02
78 Jharkhand Jamshedpur JH03
79 Jharkhand Ranchi JH04
80 Jharkhand Hazaribagh JH05
81 Jharkhand Ramgarh JH15
82 Jammu & Kashmir Jammu JK02
83 Jammu & Kashmir Srinagar(J & K) JK04
84 Jammu & Kashmir Pulwama JK06
85 Jammu & Kashmir Samba JK11
86 Karnataka Ballari(Bellary) KK01
87 Karnataka Belagavi(Belgaum) KK02
88 Karnataka Bengaluru KK04
89 Karnataka Davanagere KK06
90 Karnataka Kalaburagi(Gulbarga) KK08
91 Karnataka Hassan KK09
92 Karnataka Dharwad KK10
93 Karnataka Mangaluru(Mangalore) KK12
94 Karnataka Mysuru(Mysore) KK14
95 Karnataka Shivamogga(Shimoga) KK15
96 Karnataka Tumakuru KK16
97 Karnataka Chikkamagaluru KK23
98 Karnataka Hubballi(Hubli) KK27
99 Karnataka Udupi KK38
100 Kerala Idukki KL05
101 Kerala Kannur KL07
102 Kerala Kasaragod KL08
103 Kerala Kollam KL09
104 Kerala Kottayam KL11
105 Kerala Kozhikode KL12
106 Kerala Malappuram KL13
107 Kerala Palakkad KL15
108 Kerala Pathanamthitta KL16
109 Kerala Thiruvananthapuram KL17
110 Kerala Thrissur KL18
111 Kerala Wayanad KL19
112 Kerala Piyyannur KL21
113 Kerala Alappuzha KL22
114 Kerala Chengannur KL23
115 Kerala Ernakulam KL24

37
S. NO State City City Code
S. NO State City City Code
116 Kerala Moovattupuzha KL25
117 Lakshadweep Kavaratti LD01
118 Leh Ladhak Leh LL01
119 Leh Ladakh Kargil LL02
120 Meghalaya Shillong MG01
121 Meghalaya Tura MG02
122 Manipur Imphal MN01
123 Madhya Pradesh Balaghat MP01
124 Madhya Pradesh Bhopal MP03
125 Madhya Pradesh Gwalior MP06
126 Madhya Pradesh Indore MP07
127 Madhya Pradesh Jabalpur MP08
128 Madhya Pradesh Sagar MP12
129 Madhya Pradesh Satna MP13
130 Madhya Pradesh Ujjain MP15
131 Madhya Pradesh Khandwa MP29
132 Maharashtra Ahmednagar MR01
133 Maharashtra Akola MR02
134 Maharashtra Amravati MR03
135 Maharashtra Chhatrapati Sambhaji Nagar MR04
136 Maharashtra Chandrapur MR09
137 Maharashtra Dhule MR10
138 Maharashtra Jalgaon MR13
139 Maharashtra Kolhapur MR14
140 Maharashtra Latur MR15
141 Maharashtra Nagpur MR17
142 Maharashtra Nanded MR18
143 Maharashtra Nashik MR19
144 Maharashtra Pune MR22
145 Maharashtra Sangli MR25
146 Maharashtra Satara MR26
147 Maharashtra Solapur MR27
148 Maharashtra Thane MR28
149 Maharashtra Wardha MR29
150 Maharashtra Beed MR30
151 Maharashtra Bhandara MR31
152 Maharashtra Buldhana MR32
153 Maharashtra Ratnagiri MR33
154 Maharashtra Yavatmal MR34
155 Maharashtra Parbhani MR38

38
S. NO State City City Code
156 Maharashtra Gadchiroli MR40
S. NO State City City Code
157 Maharashtra Jalna MR42
158 Maharashtra Mumbai/ Navi Mumbai MR43
159 Mizoram Aizawl MZ01
160 Nagaland Dimapur NL01
161 Nagaland Kohima NL02
162 Odisha Balasore(Baleswar) OR01
163 Odisha Berhampur-Ganjam OR03
164 Odisha Bhubaneswar OR04
165 Odisha Cuttack OR05
166 Odisha Dhenkanal OR06
167 Odisha Rourkela OR08
168 Odisha Sambalpur OR09
169 Odisha Angul OR10
170 Odisha Bhadrak OR11
171 Odisha Baripada/Mayurbanj OR12
172 Odisha Jajpur OR13
173 Odisha Kendrapara OR14
174 Odisha Kendujhar(Keonjhar) OR15
175 Odisha Puri OR16
176 Odisha Jagatsinghpur OR17
177 Odisha Jeypore(Odisha) OR19
178 Odisha Balangir OR20
179 Odisha Baragarh OR21
180 Odisha Rayagada OR26
181 Punjab Amritsar PB01
182 Punjab Bhatinda PB02
183 Punjab Jalandhar/Phagwara PB04
184 Punjab Ludhiana PB05
185 Punjab Pathankot PB07
186 Punjab Patiala/Fatehgarh Sahib PB08
187 Puducherry Puducherry PO01
188 Rajasthan Ajmer RJ01
189 Rajasthan Alwar RJ02
190 Rajasthan Bikaner RJ05
191 Rajasthan Jaipur RJ06
192 Rajasthan Jodhpur RJ07
193 Rajasthan Kota RJ08
194 Rajasthan Sikar RJ09
195 Rajasthan Sriganganagar RJ10

39
S. NO State City City Code
196 Rajasthan Udaipur RJ11
197 Rajasthan Bhilwara RJ12
S. NO State City City Code
198 Rajasthan Bharatpur RJ16
199 Rajasthan Dausa RJ17
200 Rajasthan Hanumangarh RJ23
201 Sikkim Gangtok SM01
202 Tripura Agartala TA01
203 Telangana Karimnagar TL02
204 Telangana Khammam TL03
205 Telangana Mahabubnagar TL04
206 Telangana Nalgonda TL05
207 Telangana Warangal TL07
208 Telangana Nizamabad TL08
209 Telangana Suryapet TL09
210 Telangana Siddipet TL11
211 Telangana Jagtial TL15
212 Telangana Kothagudem TL17
213 Telangana Hyderabad TL22
214 Tamil Nadu Chennai TN01
215 Tamil Nadu Coimbatore TN02
216 Tamil Nadu Cuddalore TN03
217 Tamil Nadu Kanchipuram TN05
218 Tamil Nadu Kanyakumari TN06
219 Tamil Nadu Madurai TN08
220 Tamil Nadu Namakkal TN10
221 Tamil Nadu Salem TN11
222 Tamil Nadu Thanjavur TN12
223 Tamil Nadu Thoothukudi TN13
224 Tamil Nadu Tiruchirappalli TN14
225 Tamil Nadu Tirunelveli TN15
226 Tamil Nadu Vellore TN18
227 Tamil Nadu Virudhunagar TN20
228 Tamil Nadu Krishnagiri TN21
229 Tamil Nadu Tirupur TN22
230 Tamil Nadu Viluppuram TN23
231 Tamil Nadu Nagercoil TN24
232 Tamil Nadu Dharmapuri TN26
233 Tamil Nadu Dindigul TN27
234 Tamil Nadu Erode TN28
235 Tamil Nadu Karur TN29

40
S. NO State City City Code
236 Tamil Nadu Pudukkottai TN31
237 Tamil Nadu Ramanathapuram TN32
238 Tamil Nadu Sivaganga TN33
S. NO State City City Code
239 Tamil Nadu Tiruvallur TN34
240 Tamil Nadu Tiruvannamalai TN35
241 Uttarakhand Dehradun UK01
242 Uttarakhand Haldwani UK02
243 Uttarakhand Roorkee UK06
244 Uttarakhand Pauri Garhwal UK08
245 Uttarakhand Almora UK09
246 Uttar Pradesh Agra UP01
247 Uttar Pradesh Aligarh UP02
248 Uttar Pradesh Prayagraj/Allahabad UP03
249 Uttar Pradesh Bareilly UP04
250 Uttar Pradesh Ghaziabad UP07
251 Uttar Pradesh Gorakhpur UP08
252 Uttar Pradesh Noida / Greater Noida UP09
253 Uttar Pradesh Jhansi UP10
254 Uttar Pradesh Kanpur UP11
255 Uttar Pradesh Lucknow UP12
256 Uttar Pradesh Mathura UP13
257 Uttar Pradesh Meerut UP14
258 Uttar Pradesh Moradabad UP15
259 Uttar Pradesh Muzaffarnagar UP16
260 Uttar Pradesh Varanasi UP18
261 Uttar Pradesh Azamgarh UP19
262 Uttar Pradesh Ballia UP20
263 Uttar Pradesh Ayodhya UP21
264 Uttar Pradesh Firozabad UP22
265 Uttar Pradesh Ghazipur UP23
266 Uttar Pradesh Akbarpur(Ambedkar Nagar) UP25
267 Uttar Pradesh Bulandshahr UP29
268 Uttar Pradesh Mau UP35
269 Uttar Pradesh Rai Bareilly UP37
270 Uttar Pradesh Saharanpur UP38
271 Uttar Pradesh Chandauli UP41
272 Uttar Pradesh Pratapgarh UP43
273 West Bengal Asansol WB01
274 West Bengal Burdwan(Bardhaman) WB02
275 West Bengal Durgapur WB04

41
S. NO State City City Code
276 West Bengal Hooghly WB06
277 West Bengal Howrah WB07
278 West Bengal Kalyani WB08
279 West Bengal Kolkata WB10
S. NO State City City Code
280 West Bengal Siliguri WB11
281 West Bengal Paschim Medinipur WB13
282 West Bengal Purba Medinipur WB14
283 West Bengal Bankura WB16
284 West Bengal Murshidabad/Baharampur WB21

285 West Bengal Suri WB22

Examination Cities Outside India

286 Baharain Manama ZZ01
287 Indonesia West Java ZZ02
288 Kuwait Kuwait ZZ03
289 Malaysia Kuala Lumpur ZZ04
290 Germany Munich ZZ05
291 Nepal Kathmandu ZZ06
292 Nigeria Lagos ZZ07
293 Oman Muscat ZZ08
294 Qatar Doha ZZ09
295 Saudi Arabia Riyadh ZZ10
296 Singapore Singapore ZZ11
297 UAE Dubai ZZ12
298 UAE - Abu Dhabi Abu Dhabi ZZ13
299 UAE - Sharjah Sharjah ZZ14
300 Washington DC Washington ZZ15

Note:
i. The candidate can provide up to a maximum of 04 cities as options. The decision
to run a CBT examination in those cities will lie with the NTA and will be
dependent on multiple factors.
ii.
Though every effort will be made to allot a Centre in one of the cities selected by
the candidate, the NTA reserves the right to allot a city to the candidate which
may, in extreme circumstances fall out of the options opted by the candidates due
to administrative reasons.

42
 Appendix –IV

Procedure for Online Payment of Fees and Helpline for Payment-Related Queries
After completing Step 2 of the Online Application Form, the candidate may remit the
examination fee (Step 3) in the following manner:

▪ Check the validity of the Debit/ Credit Card and keep it ready with you while logging
on to the website for submitting the Application Form. The candidates should enter the
information asked for and make payment through a Debit/ Credit Card.
▪ Through Net Banking, check the balance in your account and keep all credentials ready
with you while logging on to the website to make payments. The candidates should log
in with his/her credentials of net banking and make payments accordingly.
▪ For payment through a UPI Service, check whether there is a requisite balance in the
Bank Account / Wallet to which the concerned UPI is linked.
The prescribed Examination Fee (please see the Information at a Glance) can be paid
through any Bank/Payment Gateway in any Payment Mode [service/processing charges
per transaction and GST (if applicable) are to be borne by the candidate:

HDFC Bank Ltd

S. No Mode of Payment HDFC BANK
HDFC NIL Charge
1 Net Banking
Other Banks NIL Charge
Transaction up to
HDFC or Rs 2000/- 0%
2 Debit Cards
Other Banks Transaction above
0%
Rs 2000/-
Domestic Nil Charge
3 Credit Cards
International Nil Charge

Unified Payment Interface

4 Nil Charge
(UPI)

If Paying through HDFC Bank:

Level Name Email ID Contact Number

1 Ecom Support [email protected]
2. Pradeep Yadav [email protected] 9625622301
3 Vikram Singh [email protected] 9799810080

43
SBI

S. No Mode of Payment STATE BANK OF INDIA

SBI
1 Net Banking
Other Banks Rs 5.00+GST

2 Debit Cards
Nil

Domestic 0.80% + GST

3 Credit Cards
3.50% of Fee+ GST
International (Minimum Rs 11/-)

Unified Payment Interface NIL Charge

4
(UPI)

If Paying through State Bank of India (SBI):

Level Name Email ID Contact Number

1 Helpdesk3 [email protected] 08026599990
2 Customer Care [email protected] 1800112211
4 Through SMS UNHAPPY (add text) 8008202020

CANARA BANK
Sr. No Mode of Payment CANARA BANK
Other Banks (Including Canara
Rs.13 + GST
1 Net Banking Bank)
HDFC, ICICI, SBI, AXIS Rs.17 + GST
Transaction up to
Rs.2000/-
0.40% + GST
Visa/Master
2 Debit Cards Transaction above
Rs.2000/-
0.85% + GST
Rupay NIL Charge
3 Credit Cards Domestic 1.10% + GST
Unified Payment
4 NIL Charge
Interface (UPI)

If paying through Canara Bank:

Level Name Email ID
1 HelpDesk [email protected]; [email protected];
[email protected]; [email protected];
2 Complaint Management [email protected] [email protected];
Services [email protected]; [email protected]
3 Customer Care [email protected] [email protected];
[email protected]; [email protected]
4 ThroughSMS ---

44
ICICI BANK

S.No Mode of Payment ICICI BANK

ICICI NIL Charge
1 Net Banking
Other Banks 4.00 + GST
Transaction upto
ICICI or Rs 2000/- 0%
2 Debit Cards
Other Banks Transaction above 0.5 % + GST
Rs 2000/-
Domestic 0.40%of Transaction value
3 Credit Cards
International 2.35%of Transaction value
Transaction upto
Unified Payment
ICICI or other Rs 2000/- 0%
4 Interface
banks Transaction above 0%
(UPI)
Rs 2000/- + GST

If Paying through ICICI Bank:

Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1 Customer support Helpline [email protected] 1800222884
number (Pls select option 3)
(9AM to 6PM)

Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’, or the Confirmation Page of the Online
Application is not generated after fee payment (completion of Step 3) the candidate is
advised to contact the helpline number/email of the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway
Integrator, as mentioned below:-

(a) NTA Helpdesk Contact details (in case the payment-related issues are not
resolved through the above-mentioned Helplines of the concerned Bank/Payment
Gateway Integrator):

Email: [email protected]
Phone No.: 011-40759000

Procedure to raise payment-related Grievance:

After (successful completion of Step 3, the Confirmation Page of the Application Form,
should be downloaded and a printout of the same may be retained for future reference.
The Confirmation Page of the online Application Form could be generated only after
successful payment by the Candidate.
In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of the prescribed fee, then
the candidate should approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway integrator (in the
helpline number and email given above in the Information Bulletin), to ensure the
successful payment.

45
In spite of the above, if a successful transaction is not reflected on the Portal, the
candidate may contact the NTA Helpline. If the payment issue is still not resolved, the
candidate may pay a second time.
However, any duplicate payment received from the candidate by NTA in the course of
said transactions will be refunded through the same payment mode through which the
duplicate payment is received, after fee reconciliation by NTA

Information to be provided by the Candidate while raising any payment-related

query/grievance through QRS/email/Helplines: -

a. Name of the Bank and /or Payment Gateway.

b. Date and time of the transaction
c. Transaction Number
d. Bank Reference Number
e. Proof of transaction
f. Screenshot from the payment portal (in case of payment failure).

46
 Appendix-V
Computer Based Test (CBT) Guidelines
The major examinations being conducted by NTA are Computer-Based Tests (CBT). A CBT
requires candidates to sit in front of a computer terminal (node) allocated to them against
their Roll number and Admit card. After logging the candidate will get detailed instructions
for the examinations. At the designated time of the start of the examination, the candidates
will be able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen using the computer
mouse. Candidates will have the option to change/modify/edit/answers already entered
at any time during the examination.

Procedure for appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT):

(Sample/mock test will be available on the NTA website: www.nta.ac.in for hands-on
practice)
(a) A computer terminal (node) indicating the Roll Number will be allocated to each
candidate. Candidates should find and sit on their allocated computers only. Any
candidate found to have changed room/hall or the computer on their own other
than the one allotted would lead to cancellation of candidature and no plea in this
regard would be entertained.
(b) For login, the candidate will have to enter a login ID and password. The computer
terminal allotted to the candidate will display the WELCOME login screen, the
Candidate’s photograph, and the subject opted by the candidate.

Candidate Login Page

Candidate Welcome Screen

47
 (c) After login, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the
examination. Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully
regarding the type of questions and marking scheme. At the designated time of the
start of the examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the questions
on the computer screen.

Please read the instructions carefully

General Instructions:

1. The clock will be set on the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of the
screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.
When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be
required to end or submit your examination.
2. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of the screen will show the status of
each question using one of the following symbols:

4. The ‘Marked for Review’ status for a question simply indicates that you would like
to look at that question again.

5. You can click on the ">" arrow which appears to the left of the question palette to
collapse the question palette thereby maximizing the question window. To view the
question palette again, you can click on "< " which appears on the right side of the
question window.
6. You can click on your "Profile" image on the top right corner of your screen to change
the language during the exam for the entire question paper. On clicking on the Profile
image, you will get a drop-down to change the question content to the desired
language.

7. You can click on to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the
question area, without scrolling.

48
Navigating to a Question:

8. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of your screen
to go to that question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your
answer to the current question.
b. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go
to the next question.
c. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current
question, mark it for review, and then go to the next question.

Answering a Question :

9. Procedure for answering a Multiple Choice Type question:

a. To select your answer, click on the button of one of the options.

b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again
or click on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option.
d. To save your answer, you must click on the Save & Next button
e. To mark the question for review, click on the ‘Mark for Review & Next' button.

10. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that
question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of
question.

Navigating through sections:

11. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions
in a section can be viewed by clicking on the Section name. The section you are
currently viewing is highlighted.
12. After clicking the Save and Next button on the last question for a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.
13. You can shuffle between sections and questions anytime during the examination as
per your convenience only during the time stipulated.
14. The candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend
that appears in every section above the question palette.

Instruction for Question:

15. For the correctness of the translation for a particular language, only the English
version will be considered as the final version for evaluation purposes.

49
The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration
of the examination. Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can either
be entered by clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the
computer mouse or by clicking the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse. Candidates
will have the option to change/modify answers already entered at any time during the
entire duration of the examination.
In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions during the test, he/she
will be immediately allotted another computer system and the time lost due to this will be
adjusted in the server so as to give the candidate the full allotted time.
The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set on the server. The
countdown timer on the top right side of the computer screen will display the time
remaining (in minutes) available for the candidate to complete the examination. When the
timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. The candidates will not be required
to end or submit the examination.

The Question Palette displayed on the screen will show the status of each question using
one of the following symbols:

The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that
the candidates would like to have a relook at that question again. A candidate has the
option of answering a question and simultaneously “Marked for Review”, these answers
will be considered for evaluation. However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked for
Review” for a question without answering it, the corresponding question marked for
review without an answer will not be considered for evaluation. It may be noted that a
candidate can return to any “Marked for Review” question at any time during the
examination by clicking on the corresponding question number icon displayed on the
Question Palette of the corresponding section.
(d) The candidates can click on the “>” arrow which appears to the left of the question
palette to collapse the question palette thereby maximizing the question viewing
window. To view the question palette again, the candidate can click on “<” which
appears on the right side of the question window.

50
(e) Candidates can click to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the
question area, without scrolling. Using the computer mouse the candidate can scroll
up and down the question viewing area for viewing the entire question.
(f) The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right
corner of the screen.
(g) Blank Sheets for doing Rough Work/calculations shall be provided to the candidates.
The blank sheets would have a Header page for the candidates to write down his/her
Name and Roll Number. All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the
Blank Sheets provided at the Centre in the Examination Room/Hall and on
completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator
on duty in the Room/Hall.
(h) Navigating to a Question To navigate between questions within a Paper, the
candidate needs to do the following:
(a) Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of the
screen to go to that numbered question directly. Note that using this option
does NOT save the answer to the currently displayed question.
(b) Click on “Save and Next” to save the answer to any question. Clicking on
“Save and Next” will save the answer for the current question and the next
question will be displayed on the candidate’s computer screen.
(c) Click on “Mark for Review and Next” to mark a question for review (without
answering it) and proceed to the next question.

(i) Answering a Question

To navigate between questions within a Paper, the candidate needs to do the following:
Procedure for answering a Multiple-Choice type question:
(a) To select the option(s), click on the corresponding button(s) of the
option(s).
(b) To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option
again or click on the “Clear Response” button.

51
 (c) To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save and Next”
button.
(d) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark
for Review and Next” button.

(j) Navigating through sections:

(i) Sections in the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen.
Questions in a section can be viewed by clicking on the section name. The
section in which the candidate is currently viewing will be highlighted.
(ii) After clicking the “Save and Next” button on the last question for a
section, the candidate will automatically be taken to the first question of
the next section.
(iii) Candidates can shuffle between sections and questions within sections
anytime during the examination as per convenience only during the time
stipulated.
(iv) The candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the
legend that appears in every section above the question palette.

(k) Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from the on-screen
virtual keyboard (numeric or otherwise):

(a) The candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would
be displayed just below the question statement of these types of questions)
and the attached computer mouse to enter his/her answer in the space
provided for the answer.

On-Screen Virtual Keyboard

(b) The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save
the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save and Next” button.

52
 (c) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the
“Mark for Review and Next” button.

The candidates will have the option to change previously saved

answers to any question, anytime during the entire duration of the test.
To change the answer to a question that has already been answered, first
select the corresponding question from the Question Palette, then click
on “Clear Response” to clear the previously entered answer and
subsequently follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

(l) ROUGH WORK:

All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the
Centre in the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates
must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

53
 Appendix - VI

Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for multiple shifts in CUET (UG) 2025
(Normalization procedure based on Percentile and Equi percentile method)
Need for Normalisation

For several subjects, the CUET (UG)-2022 and CUET (UG) – 2023 were conducted in different
shifts. Since the question papers for any subject in different shifts are different and it is quite
possible that despite all the best possible efforts of maintaining equivalence among various
question papers, the difficulty level of these question papers administered in different sessions
may not be the same or similar. Some of the candidates might have ended up attempting a
relatively tougher set of questions when compared to other sets. The candidates who attempted
the comparatively tougher examination are likely to get lower marks as compared to those who
attempted the easier one; the scores of the students across shifts are not directly comparable.
There is a need for normalizing the marks across shifts to make them amenable to such
comparisons.

A Committee headed by a Senior Professor from the Indian Statistical Institution Delhi and
comprising of Senior Professors from the Indian Institute of Technology Delhi and the
University of Delhi had detailed deliberations to arrive at the methodology.

As already intimated in the Information Bulletin of CUET (UG) – 2022 CUET (UG) - 2023 and
CUET (UG) – 2024, the raw score of each candidate in each subject will be normalized using the
Equi-percentile method. This is done separately for each subject for which the examination is
held in multiple shifts.

For each subject for which the examination is held in multiple shifts, the raw score for each
candidate appearing for the subject will be converted into NTA Score (Percentile Score &
Normalized Score) in the following three steps:

Step 1: Convert Raw Scores into Percentile Scores.

The percentiles are calculated separately for each shift.

1. Record the number of candidates who have appeared in a shift. Denote this
number by N.

2. Sort all the candidates in one shift in decreasing order of their marks.
3. Note the raw marks for each candidate. Suppose this is denoted by T. Count the
number of candidates in that shift whose raw scores are less than or equal to T.
Denote this number by m.

4. The percentile score for this candidate is then calculated as:

𝑚
P= ∗ 100
𝑁

54
 Illustration:

Suppose that the examination in a certain subject is held in two different shifts, S1
and S2, say. Consider six candidates A, B, C, D, E, and F out of which A, B,
and C are from shift S1 and the other three are from shift S2.
Let the raw marks of the six candidates be 𝑥𝐴, 𝑥𝐵, 𝑥𝐶 (shift S1 marks) and
𝑦𝐷, 𝑦E , 𝑦𝐹 (shift S2 marks).

For candidates A, B, and C, the percentiles are calculated using the total marks
obtained by candidates appearing in shift S1 (in the same subject) as explained
above.

Similarly, for candidates D, E, and F, the percentiles are calculated using the
total marks obtained by candidates appearing in shift S2 (in the same subject)
as explained above.

Let the respective percentiles be denoted by PA, PB, PC, PD, PE, and PF.

The above data is summarised in the following table. The terms in red colour
indicate that these are the output of this step.

Shift S1 Shift S2
Candidate Raw score Percentile Candidat Raw score Percentile
e
A PA D PD
B PB E PE
C PC F PF

Since the calculation for percentiles in any shift depends only on the data
from that shift alone, there is a separate table for each shift.

Step 2: Pull the percentiles to the marks scale for each session to get Normalised
Score.

• The data across all sessions tabulated at the end of step 1 is

collated into a single table.
• The columns for the shift-wise raw score should be kept separate.
• All the records are then sorted in decreasing order of the percentiles.

Illustration (Continued):

In the illustrative example given above, suppose that the

percentiles of the six candidates satisfy

PE>PA>PC =PF>PB>PD

55
Then the collated table would look as given below:

Candidate Percentile RawscoreS1 RawScoreS2

E PE –
A PA –
C&F PC=P
F
B PB –
D PD –

Candidate C from shift S1 and candidate F from shift S2 have the same
percentile. The relevant entries under “Raw Score S1” and “Raw Score S2”
are the actual raw scores 𝑥𝐶 and 𝑦F respectively. This has the obvious
interpretation that marks 𝑥𝐶 of shift S1 are equivalent to marks 𝑦𝐹 of shift
S2.
Candidates A and B, appearing in shift S1, have a blank entry in column
“Raw Score S2”, as there is no corresponding candidate having exactly the
same percentile from shift S2. Similarly, Candidates D and E, appearing in
shift S2, have a blank entry in column “Raw Score S1”, as there is no
corresponding candidate having exactly the same percentile from shift S1.
• In the remaining part of this Step 2, the blank entries in the two “Raw
Score” columns are filled up using linear interpolation.

• Consider a record (row) whose entry in the column “Raw Score S1” is
blank. The blank will be replaced by the interpolated score X which
is calculated as:

Where:
- P is the corresponding entry in t h e “Percentile” column

- x1 is the first non-blank entry BELOW X. i.e., x1<X and

there is no other non-blank entry in the column between x1
and X.

- x2 is the first non-blank entry ABOVE X. i.e., x2> X and

there is no other non-blank entry in the column between
x2 and X.

- p1 is the entry in the “Percentile” column corresponding to x1 from

the column “Raw Score S1”.

- p2 is the entry in the “Percentile” column corresponding to x2 from

the column “Raw Score S1”.

Note that there may be several blank entries between x1 and x2.
• All the blank entries in column “Raw Score S1” can now be
replaced by the interpolated values.

• The blank entries in column “Raw Score S2” are also replaced
using a similar procedure.

56
 Illustration (Continued):
The table in the illustrative example would look like the following,
where the entries in red indicate the additional output at the end of
this step.
Candidate Percentile Raw Score S1 Raw Score S2
E PE XE 𝑦𝐸
A PA YA
C&F PC=PF 𝑦𝐹
B PB YB
D P XD 𝑦𝐷
D

Step3: Calculation of the Normalised Score

Now for each subject, there is a score assigned to each percentile value for each
session. The Normalised score, Z, corresponding to a percentile value P, is
calculated as:

Where 𝑢𝐴, 𝑢𝐵, … … … . . 𝑢𝑡 denote the raw scores corresponding to the percentile P in
each of the different sessions

Illustration (Continued):

The final table in the illustrative example would be as follows:

Raw Raw Normalized

Candidate Percentile ScoreS1 ScoreS2 Score

E PE XE 𝑦𝐸 (XE + 𝑦𝐸)/2
A PA YA (𝑥𝐴 +YA)/2
C&F PC=PF 𝑦𝐹 (𝑥𝐶 + 𝑦𝐹)/2
B PB YB (𝑥𝐵 +YB)/2
D PD XD 𝑦𝐷 (XD + 𝑦𝐷)/2

57
Step-by-Step Procedure for Converting from Raw Score to
Normalized Score: -
Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 phases of examinees as per details
given below: -

(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)

No of Candidates Raw Score

Session Day Shift
Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest
Session-1 Day-1 Shift-1 3974 28012 31986 200 -40
Session-2 Day-1 Shift-2 6189 32541 38730 194 -36
Session-3 Day-2 Shift-1 6036 41326 47362 188 -36
Session-4 Day-2 Shift-2 9074 40603 49677 200 -40
Total (Session-1 to Session-4) 25273 142482 167755 200 -40

58
i. Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: -

Session Total Highest Candidates Percentile Score Remarks

Candidates Raw who scored
Appeared Score EQUAL OR
LESS THAN
Highest Raw
Score
100.0000000 i.e., All the
Session-1 28012 200 28012 [(28012/28012) *100] highest raw
100.0000000 scores would
Session-2 32541 194 32541 [(32541/32541) *100] be
100.0000000 normalized to
Session-3 41326 188 41326 [(41326/41326) *100] 100 Percentile
Score for
100.0000000
their
Session-4 40603 200 40603 [(40603/40603) *100]
respective
session.

ii. Lowest Score and Percentile Score: -

Session Total Lowest Candidates Percentile Remarks

Candidates Raw who scored Score
Appeared Score EQUAL OR
LESS THAN
Highest Raw
Score
0.0035699
[(1/28012)
Session-1 28012 -40 1 *100] i.e., the Percentile
0.0030730 Score of all the lowest
[(1/32541) raw scores are
Session-2 32541 -36 1 *100] different i.e., Percentile
0.0024198 Score depends on the
[(1/41326) total number of
Session-3 41326 -36 1 *100] candidates who have
0.0024629 taken the examination
[(1/40603) for their respective
Session-4 40603 -40 1 *100] session.

Step1: Convert Raw Score into Percentile Score

The percentile score for this candidate is then calculated as:
𝑁𝑜. 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑑𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑜𝑛
𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑟𝑎𝑤 𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑒 𝐸𝑄𝑈𝐴𝐿 𝑇𝑂 𝑂𝑅 𝐿𝐸𝑆𝑆 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑛 𝑇 𝑆𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑒
𝑃𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑙𝑒 𝑆𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑒 = 100 x
Total No. of Candidates w h o appeared in the session

59
 Raw Percentile Raw Percentil
Candidate Score S1 Score Candidate Score e Score
S2
A20020720 200 100 B20123935 194 100
A20411664 192 99.969144 B20012622 192 99.9990405
A20018569 190 99.831255 B20656224 100 96.9671093
A20339879 184 99.732901 B20410215 42 69.2904047
A20074407 180 99.432054 B20236444 26 67.7672549
A20751862 88 88.654575 B20128586 14 46.3751151
A20922992 48 74.137715 B20001667 4 27.0887703
A21004667 40 69.290405 B20042147 2 23.9100399
A21141123 22 52.135343 B20051256 0 12.225608
A25465232 8 30.675846 B20481968 -2 11.6211621
A26545946 6 27.584445 B20091701 -12 10.4982563
A25656543 2 24.886459 B20549576 -14 10.3947421
A26625216 1 22.351432 B20098269 -30 10.2430506
A26174451 0 19.997686 B20071356 -36 0.053034
A25463225 -1 15.23523
A26598636 -6 11.104361
A26596462 -40 0.053034

Raw Percentil Raw Score S4 Percentile

Candidate Score e Score Candidate Score
S3
C20150694 188 100 D20479616 200 100
C20087997 186 99.969144 D20040337 194 99.9990405
C20121991 184 99.831255 D20467385 98 88.6545749
C20058572 180 99.732901 D20398094 44 68.9660903
C20060310 172 99.432054 D20428934 40 49.5097099
C20008597 56 78.338974 D20032939 32 46.3751151
C20430859 36 69.00182 D20690279 30 27.0887703
C20518247 20 52.135343 D20840699 28 23.9100399
C20045510 14 38.091932 D20084751 26 20.8800276
C20860609 9 30.675846 D21237483 24 12.1887008
C20861476 5 27.584445 D21077463 1 11.5349248
C20512680 3 24.886459 D20348188 -2 11.0243302
C20069270 2 22.351432 D25463225 -40 0.053034
C20355550 0 12.188701
C20549576 -3 11.23523
C26598636 -22 0.0539983
C26596462 -36 0.053034

60
Step 2: Pull Back the percentiles to the scale of the marks for each session to get Normalized
marks.
Percentile Raw Raw Raw Raw
Candidate Score Score S1 Score S2 Score S3 Score S4
A20020720=B20123935=C20150694=D204 100 200 194 188 200
79616
B20012622=D20040337 99.99904053 - 192 - 194
A20411664=C20087997 99.9691438 192 - 186 -
A20018569=C20121991 99.8312554 190 - 184 -
A20339879=C20058572 99.7329013 184 - 180 -
A20074407=C20060310 99.4320538 180 - 172 -
B20656224 96.9671093 - 100 - -
A20751862=D20467385 88.6545749 88 - - 98
C20008597 78.3389742 - - 56 -
A20922992 74.1377149 48 - - -
A21004667=B20410215 69.2904047 40 42 -
C20430859 69.0018201 - - 36 -
D20398094 68.9660903 - - - 44
B20236444 67.7672549 - 26 - -
A21141123=C20518247 52.1353428 22 - 20 -
D20428934 49.50970986 - - - 40
B20128586=D20032939 46.37511514 - 14 - 32
C20045510 38.0919321 - - 14 -
A25465232=C20860609 30.6758464 8 - 9 -
A26545946=C20861476 27.5844446 6 - 5 -
B20001667=D20690279 27.08877034 - 4 - 30
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 - 3 -
B20042147=D20840699 23.91003991 - 2 - 28
A26625216=C20069270 22.3514324 1 - 2 -
D20084751 20.88002763 - - - 26
A26174451 19.9976858 0 - - -
A25463225 15.23523 -1 - - -
B20051256 12.225608 - 0 - -
C20355550=D21237483 12.1887008 - - 0 24
B20481968 11.62116211 - -2 - -
D21077463 11.53492478 - - - 1
C20549576 11.23523 - - -3 -
A26598636 11.1043613 -6 - - -
D20348188 11.0243302 - - - -2
B20091701 10.49825625 - -12 - -
B20549576 10.39474209 - -14 - -
B20098269 10.2430506 - -30 - -
C26598636 0.0539983 - - -22 -
A26596462=B20071356=C26596462=D254 0.053034 40 -36 -36 -40
63225

61
In the remaining part of Step 2, the blank entries in the Raw Score Columns are filled up
using following linear interpolation Formulae:

Raw Score
Candidate Percentile Score Raw Score S1 Raw Score S3 Raw Score S4
S2
A20020720=B20123935=C20150694=D20479616 100 200 194 188 200
B20012622=D20040337 99.9990405 199.7512409 192 187.93781 194
A20411664=C20087997 99.9691438 192 171.96504 186 171.96504
A20018569=C20121991 99.8312554 190 167.63275 184 167.63275
A20339879=C20058572 99.7329013 184 164.54257 180 164.54257
A20074407=C20060310 99.4320538 180 155.09028 172 155.09028
B20656224 96.9671093 158.958447 100 158.4442 101.91063
A20751862=D20467385 88.6545749 88 82.580043 112.72997 98
C20008597 78.3389742 56.7810489 60.96241 56 69.707196
A20922992 74.1377149 48 52.158146 47.207694 58.184318
A21004667=B20410215 69.2904047 40 42 36.629757 44.889504
C20430859 69.0018201 39.6972017 38.968549 36 44.097997
D20398094 68.9660903 39.6597121 38.593224 35.966106 44
B20236444 67.7672549 38.4018305 26 34.828858 43.753534
A21141123=C20518247 52.1353428 22 17.231221 20 40.539799
D20428934 49.5097099 20.1081761 15.758363 18.878207 40
B20128586=D20032939 46.3751151 17.8496346 14 17.538962 32
C20045510 38.0919321 11.8814266 9.7051566 14 31.141031
A25465232=C20860609 30.6758464 8 5.8599046 9 30.371981
A26545946=C20861476 27.5844446 6 4.2570079 5 30.051402
B20001667=D20690279 27.0887703 5.2651195 4 4.6325597 30
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 2.6143453 3 28.614345
B20042147=D20840699 23.9100399 1.6148289 2 2.6148289 28
A26625216=C20069270 22.3514324 1 1.7332164 2 26.97122
D20084751 20.8800276 0.374867 1.4813591 1.7104312 26
A26174451 19.9976858 0 1.3303305 1.5367886 25.79696
A25463225 15.23523 -1 0.5151508 0.5995493 24.70105
B20051256 12.225608 -4.6428439 0 0.0072632 24.008493
C20355550=D21237483 12.1887008 -4.6875164 -0.122119 0 24
B20481968 11.6211621 -5.3744647 -2 -1.785703 4.0338503
D21077463 11.5349248 -5.4788463 -2.767984 -2.057041 1
C20549576 11.23523 -5.8415966 -5.436905 -3 -0.760858
A26598636 11.1043613 -6 -6.602352 -3.222382 -1.529777
D20348188 11.0243302 -6.24622 -7.315066 -3.358377 -2
B20091701 10.4982563 -7.8647146 -12 -4.252322 -3.822101
B20549576 10.3947421 -8.1831815 -14 -4.428221 -4.180631
B20098269 10.2430506 -8.6498685 -30 -4.685987 -4.706027
C26598636 0.0539983 -39.9970333 -35.99943 -22 -39.99666
A26596462=B20071356=C26596462=D25463225 0.053034 -40 -36 -36 -40

62
Step 3: Calculation of Normalized Score: Now for each subject there is a score assigned to each
percentile value for each session. The Normalised score, Z, corresponding to a percentile value P,
is calculated as Z= Average of (𝑢𝐴, 𝑢𝐶,………..𝑢𝑡)= 𝑢𝐴 + 𝑢𝐵 + 𝑢𝐶 +,…..+ 𝑢𝑡/ t
Where 𝑢𝐴, 𝑢𝐶,………..𝑢𝑡 denote the raw scores corresponding to the percentile P in each of the different
sessions
Percentile Raw Score Raw Score Raw Score Normalised
Raw Score S1
Candidate Score S2 S3 S4 Marks
A20020720=B20123935=C20150694=D20479616 100 200 194 188 200 195.5
B20012622=D20040337 99.999041 199.7512409 192 187.9378 194 193.4223
A20411664=C20087997 99.969144 192 171.965 186 171.965 180.4825
A20018569=C20121991 99.831255 190 167.6327 184 167.6327 177.3164
A20339879=C20058572 99.732901 184 164.5426 180 164.5426 173.2713
A20074407=C20060310 99.432054 180 155.0903 172 155.0903 165.5451
B20656224 96.967109 158.958447 100 158.4442 101.9106 129.8283
A20751862=D20467385 88.654575 88 82.58004 112.73 98 95.3275
C20008597 78.338974 56.7810489 60.96241 56 69.7072 60.86266
A20922992 74.137715 48 52.15815 47.20769 58.18432 51.38754
A21004667=B20410215 69.290405 40 42 36.62976 44.8895 40.87982
C20430859 69.00182 39.6972017 38.96855 36 44.098 39.69094
D20398094 68.96609 39.6597121 38.59322 35.96611 44 39.55476
B20236444 67.767255 38.4018305 26 34.82886 43.75353 35.74606
A21141123=C20518247 52.135343 22 17.23122 20 40.5398 24.94276
D20428934 49.50971 20.1081761 15.75836 18.87821 40 23.68619
B20128586=D20032939 46.375115 17.8496346 14 17.53896 32 20.34715
C20045510 38.091932 11.8814266 9.705157 14 31.14103 16.6819
A25465232=C20860609 30.675846 8 5.859905 9 30.37198 13.30797
A26545946=C20861476 27.584445 6 4.257008 5 30.0514 11.3271
B20001667=D20690279 27.08877 5.2651195 4 4.63256 30 10.97442
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 2.614345 3 28.61435 9.057173
B20042147=D20840699 23.91004 1.6148289 2 2.614829 28 8.557414
A26625216=C20069270 22.351432 1 1.733216 2 26.97122 7.926109
D20084751 20.880028 0.374867 1.481359 1.710431 26 7.391664
A26174451 19.997686 0 1.330331 1.536789 25.79696 7.16602
A25463225 15.23523 -1 0.515151 0.599549 24.70105 6.203938
B20051256 12.225608 -4.6428439 0 0.007263 24.00849 4.843228
C20355550=D21237483 12.188701 -4.6875164 -0.12212 0 24 4.797591
B20481968 11.621162 -5.3744647 -2 -1.7857 4.03385 -1.28158
D21077463 11.534925 -5.4788463 -2.76798 -2.05704 1 -2.32597
C20549576 11.23523 -5.8415966 -5.43691 -3 -0.76086 -3.75984
A26598636 11.104361 -6 -6.60235 -3.22238 -1.52978 -4.33863
D20348188 11.02433 -6.24622 -7.31507 -3.35838 -2 -4.72992
B20091701 10.498256 -7.8647146 -12 -4.25232 -3.8221 -6.98478
B20549576 10.394742 -8.1831815 -14 -4.42822 -4.18063 -7.69801
B20098269 10.243051 -8.6498685 -30 -4.68599 -4.70603 -12.0105
C26598636 0.0539983 -39.9970333 -35.9994 -22 -39.9967 -34.4983
A26596462=B20071356=C26596462=D25463225 0.053034 -40 -36 -36 -40 -38

The above method is based on the work: “Normalization of marks in multi-session

examinations”, Abhay G. Bhatt et al, CURRENT SCIENCE, Vol. 118, No. 1, 10
January 2020.

63
 Appendix VII

64
65
66
 Appendix VIII

(Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India F. No. 29-6/2019-DD-III dated
10 August 2022)
Certificate for person with specified disability covered under the definition of Section 2 (s)
of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act,
i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing
This is to certify that, we have examined Mr/Ms/Mrs …………. (Name of the candidate),
S/o /D/o ……………………, a resident of ……………… (Vill/PO/ PS/ District/ State),
aged …………….. yrs, a person with ……………………. (nature of disability/condition), and
to state that he/ she has limitation which hampers his/her writing capability owing to
his/her above condition. He/she requires support of scribe for writing the examination.

2. The above candidate uses aids and assistive device such as prosthetics & orthotics,
hearing aid (name to be specified) which is /are essential for the candidate to appear at the
examination with the assistance of scribe.

3. This certificate is issued only for the purpose of appearing in written examinations
conducted by recruitment agencies as well as academic institutions and is valid upto
__________ (it is valid for maximum period of six months or less as may be certified by the
medical authority)

Signature of medical authority

(Signature (Signature & Name) (Signature (Signature & (Signature &
& Name) & Name) Name) Name)
Orthopedic Clinical Psychologist/ Neurologist Occupational Other Expert,
/ Rehabilitation (if therapist (if as
PMR Psychologist/Psychiatrist available) available) nominated by
specialist / Special Educator the
Chairperson (if
any)
(Signature & Name)
Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical
Officer………Chairperson

Name of Government Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal

Place:

Date:

67
 Appendix IX

LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING OWN SCRIBE

I ____________________, a candidate with __________________ (nature of the disability)

appearing for ______________________________________(name of the examination) bearing
Roll No. ___________________________ at _______________________ (name of the centre) in
the District ____________________, ____________________________ (name of the State). My
educational qualification is _____________________.

2. I do hereby state that __________________________ (name of the scribe) will provide

the service of scribe /reader / lab assistant for the undersigned for taking the
aforementioned examination.

3. I do hereby undertake that his qualification is ______________________. In case,

subsequently it is found that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is
beyond my qualification. I shall forfeit my right to the post and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate)

(counter signature by the parent/guardian, if the candidate is minor)

Place:

Date:

68
 Appendix X

Common University Entrance Test

CUET (UG) - 2025
Replica of the Online Application Form

69
Step 1: Login page for new candidates and already existing candidates.

Step 2: Instruction page for filling the application form.

70
71
Step 3: Personal details page of the application form

72
Step 4: Review page of the online registration form

73
Step 5: SMS authentication page of the online application form

74
Step 6: Generation of the application number and proceeding further for the completing
the application form.

Step 7: Application status page with the summary of completed and pending parts of the
application form.

75
Step 8: Personal credentials page in the application form

76
Step 9: Mode of Identity verification page of the candidate application form

Step 10: Entering the APAAR ID of the candidate

77
Step 11: Examination center and question paper medium details page of the
application form.

78
Step 12: Entering the qualification details of the candidate

79
Step 13: Entering Additional Details pertaining to twin status and previous CUET (UG) 2025
examinations

Step 14: Entering the Emergency Contact Details of the parents or guardians

80
Step 15: Authentication of the emergency details (Mobile Number and Email)

Step 16: Uploading of the necessary documents by the candidate

81
Step 17: Review page of the online application form

82
83
Step 18: Current Status of the application form

Step 19: Authentication of the registered e-mail ID

84
Step 20: Current Status of the application form

Step 21: Fee payment by the candidate.

85
Step 22: Confirmation Page

86
87
 𝐀𝐝𝐝𝐫𝐞𝐬𝐬 𝐟𝐨𝐫 𝐂𝐨𝐫𝐫𝐞𝐬𝐩𝐨𝐧𝐝𝐞𝐧𝐜𝐞

𝐅𝐢𝐫𝐬𝐭 𝐅𝐥𝐨𝐨𝐫, 𝐍𝐒𝐈𝐂 -𝐌𝐃𝐁𝐏 𝐁𝐮𝐢𝐥𝐝𝐢𝐧𝐠,

𝐎𝐤𝐡𝐥𝐚 𝐈𝐧𝐝𝐮𝐬𝐭𝐫𝐢𝐚𝐥 𝐄𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐭𝐞,
𝐍𝐞𝐰 𝐃𝐞𝐥𝐡𝐢 – 𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟐𝟎

𝐇𝐞𝐥𝐩 𝐋𝐢𝐧𝐞: 011-40759000

𝐅𝐨𝐫 𝐓𝐞𝐜𝐡𝐧𝐢𝐜𝐚𝐥 𝐬𝐮𝐩𝐩𝐨𝐫𝐭, 𝐜𝐨𝐧𝐭𝐚𝐜𝐭 𝐟𝐨𝐥𝐥𝐨𝐰𝐢𝐧𝐠
𝐝𝐮𝐫𝐢𝐧𝐠 𝐰𝐨𝐫𝐤𝐢𝐧𝐠 𝐝𝐚𝐲𝐬 𝐛𝐞𝐭𝐰𝐞𝐞𝐧
𝟏𝟎.𝟎𝟎 𝐚.𝐦. 𝐭𝐨 𝟓.𝟎𝟎 𝐩.𝐦