Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region 02 (Cagayan Valley)
Schools Division Office of Isabela
District of Santo Tomas
501323-SAN VICENTE INTEGRATED SCHOOL
San Vicente, Santo Tomas, Isabela
QUARTER 3 SUMMATIVE TEST 3 IN SCIENCE 10
S.Y. 2024-2025

Direction: Choose the correct answer from the options given below. Write the letter that best corresponds to
your answer in ½ lengthwise.

1. What is the primary function of the endocrine system?

A. To transmit electrical signals B. To produce hormones that regulate bodily functions
C. To protect the body from pathogens D. To provide physical support for the body
2. Which gland is referred to as the "master gland"?
A. Adrenal gland B. Thyroid gland C. Pituitary gland D. Pancreas
3. Which gland regulates blood sugar levels?
A. Thyroid B. Pancreas C. Adrenal D. Pituitary
4. Why is the thyroid gland important for metabolism?
A. It secretes adrenaline to increase heart rate.
B. It produces insulin to regulate blood sugar.
C. It releases thyroxine, which regulates metabolic rates.
D. It controls calcium levels in the bones.
5. How do estrogen and progesterone contribute to the female reproductive system?
A. They increase calcium levels in bones.
B. They regulate the menstrual cycle and prepare the uterus for pregnancy.
C. They produce testosterone to facilitate muscle growth.
D. They stimulate adrenaline production for emergencies.
6. Which hormone is responsible for the "fight or flight" response?
A. Melatonin B. Testosterone C. Adrenaline D. Insulin
7. During an emergency, which gland increases its activity to release stress hormones?
A. Thyroid B. Pancreas C. Adrenal D. Parathyroid
8. What is the best explanation for why gigantism occurs?
A. Overproduction of growth hormones during childhood
B. Overproduction of adrenaline in adults
C. Lack of insulin production in childhood
D. An imbalance in calcium-regulating hormones
9. What organ produces ova?
A. Fallopian Tube B. Ovary C. Uterus D. Vagina
10. What is the average length of a regular menstrual cycle?
A. 14 days B. 21 days C. 28 days D. 31 days
11. What happens during ovulation?
A. The uterine lining is shed. B. An egg is released from the ovary.
C. The corpus luteum forms. D. Fertilization occurs.
12. Why is progesterone important during the luteal phase?
A. It triggers ovulation. B. It thickens the uterine lining.
C. It inhibits estrogen production. D. It causes the egg to mature.
13. Why does the corpus luteum degenerate if the egg is not fertilized?
A. Hormonal support ceases. B. Progesterone inhibits its function.
C. Estrogen peaks during menstruation. D. LH levels remain high.
14. What happens if there is a hormonal imbalance during the menstrual cycle?
A. Menstruation becomes regular. B. Ovulation may not occur.
C. Fertilization increases significantly. D. All phases remain unaffected.
15. What is the main function of the nervous system?
A. To regulate body hormones B. To control and coordinate body functions
C. To transport blood throughout the body D. To distribute oxygen to tissues
16. What are the two major divisions of the nervous system?
A. Sympathetic and Parasympathetic B. Brain and Spinal Cord
C. Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems D. Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems
17. How does the nervous system contribute to maintaining homeostasis?
A. By producing antibodies to fight infections
B. By generating electrical impulses to regulate body functions
C. By storing excess nutrients for future use
D. By replacing damaged cells in organs
18. If the hypothalamus malfunctions, what bodily functions might be disrupted?
A. Memory and reasoning B. Hormone regulation and temperature control
C. Muscle strength and endurance D. Bone growth and development
19. What are the building blocks of proteins?
A. Fatty acids B. Amino acids C. Glucose D. Nucleotides
20. Where does transcription take place in a cell?
A. Ribosome B. Nucleus C. Cytoplasm D. Mitochondria
21. Why does the DNA uncoil during transcription?
A. To allow the RNA polymerase to copy the template strand
B. To release ribosomes for translation
C. To bond amino acids to form proteins
D. To allow tRNA to bind directly to the nucleus
22. If the DNA sequence is TAC-GGC-AAT, what will be the corresponding mRNA sequence?
A. ATG-CCG-TTA B. AUG-CCG-UUA C. TGC-GGT-AAG D. UAC-GGC-AAU
23. What would happen if mRNA codons were read two bases at a time instead of three?
A. Proteins would be shorter and nonfunctional.
B. The genetic code would still produce the same amino acids.
C. Translation would occur faster.
D. Transcription would not start.
24. Why is transcription important in protein synthesis?
A. It converts DNA into an mRNA template. B. It creates amino acids directly.
C. It prevents mutations in the DNA sequence. D. It ensures tRNA binds to ribosomes.
25. What is a mutation?
A. A change in the DNA sequence B. A type of cell division
C. A method of genetic cloning D. A process of protein synthesis
 Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
Region 02 (Cagayan Valley)
Schools Division Office of Isabela
District of Santo Tomas
501323-SAN VICENTE INTEGRATED SCHOOL
San Vicente, Santo Tomas, Isabela
QUARTER 3 SUMMATIVE TEST 4 IN SCIENCE 10
S.Y. 2024-2025
1. What type of mutation results in the formation of a stop codon?
A. Silent mutation B. Nonsense mutation C. Missense mutation D. Frameshift mutation
2. Why do mutations affect protein synthesis?
A. They change the amino acid sequence of proteins.
B. They help speed up DNA replication.
C. They remove unnecessary codons from mRNA.
D. They prevent cells from undergoing mitosis.
3. What is the significance of a silent mutation?
A. It results in the same amino acid being produced despite a base change.
B. It completely stops protein synthesis.
C. It changes an entire chromosome’s structure.
D. It causes the loss of a protein’s function.
4. What is the main difference between point mutation and frameshift mutation?
A. Point mutation affects only one nucleotide, while frameshift mutation alters the reading frame.
B. Frameshift mutation only occurs in animals, while point mutation occurs in plants.
C. Point mutation removes a whole gene, while frameshift mutation only affects one base pair.
D. Frameshift mutation is beneficial, while point mutation is harmful.
5. If a mutation in a gene does not change the protein’s function, what can you infer?
A. The mutation likely occurred in a non-coding region.
B. The mutation changed the protein’s structure.
C. The mutation resulted in sickle cell anemia.
D. The mutation completely stopped protein synthesis.
6. Which scientist proposed the theory of natural selection?
A. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck B. James Hutton C. Georges Cuvier D. Charles Darwin
7. What do homologous structures indicate about two species?
A. They share a common ancestor B. They perform the same function
C. They are identical in form D. They have no evolutionary relationship
8. Why are fossils considered direct evidence of evolution?
A. They are found in volcanic rock B. They visually show changes over time
C. They are always complete skeletons D. They are only found in caves
9. How do analogous structures support evolution?
A. They have the same origin but different functions
B. They serve the same function but have different origins
C. They show no relationship between species
D. They prove that all species are unrelated
10. What does the presence of gill slits in human embryos suggest?
A. Humans are related to fish B. Humans will develop gills
C. Humans live in water D. Humans have no evolutionary history
11. What is evolution?
A. The rapid change of a species in one generation
B. The gradual change in the traits of a population over generations
 C. The immediate adaptation of an organism to new environments
D. The elimination of all species that cannot adapt
12. Who proposed the Theory of Natural Selection?
A. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck B. Charles Darwin C. Gregor Mendel D. Alfred Wallace
13. Which mechanism of evolution involves random changes in gene frequencies due to chance?
A. Mutation B. Genetic Drift C. Natural Selection D. Gene Flow
14. How does natural selection lead to evolution?
A. All organisms survive regardless of their traits.
B. Organisms with advantageous traits survive and reproduce more.
C. Evolution happens randomly with no pattern.
D. Species change their traits in one generation.
15. Why is genetic variation important in evolution?
A. It allows a population to adapt to changing environments.
B. It makes organisms identical to their ancestors.
C. It stops mutations from occurring.
D. It prevents species from evolving.
16. Why is the Amish population an example of genetic drift?
A. They practice random mating.
B. They experience a limited gene pool due to isolation.
C. They always adapt to environmental changes.
D. They prevent mutations from occurring.

17. What does biodiversity refer to?

A. The number of trees in a forest B. The variety of living organisms in an area
C. The amount of rainfall in a region D. The air quality in an ecosystem
18. What is the main cause of deforestation?
A. Natural disasters B. Overpopulation and illegal logging
C. High rainfall D. Presence of large rivers
19. How does biodiversity contribute to ecosystem stability?
A. By decreasing competition among species
B. By increasing the resilience of the ecosystem to environmental changes
C. By reducing food availability
D. By ensuring one species dominates the ecosystem

20. Which situation best demonstrates ecosystem stability?

A. A forest ecosystem recovers after a wildfire B. A river dries up permanently
C. Coral reefs are destroyed due to pollution D. A species goes extinct due to habitat destruction
21. What is the best solution to deforestation?
A. Reforestation and afforestation B. Expanding cities into forests
C. Ignoring the issue D. Cutting more trees for timber production
22. What is population growth?
A. The number of individuals in a community
B. The increase or decrease in the number of individuals in a population over time
C. The movement of organisms from one place to another
D. The interaction of species in an ecosystem
23. What does carrying capacity refer to?
A. The minimum number of organisms an ecosystem can support
B. The maximum number of organisms an environment can sustain indefinitely
C. The total number of species in an area
D. The amount of space available in a habitat
24. How does an increase in human population affect biodiversity?
A. It leads to habitat destruction and resource depletion
 B. It increases the number of plants and animals
C. It decreases environmental pollution
D. It has no impact on biodiversity
25. Which action would most effectively help protect an endangered species?
A. Destroying its natural habitat
B. Enforcing hunting bans and habitat conservation
C. Introducing non-native predators into its environment
D. Expanding urban areas into its territory