NAVLE Practice Questions

1. E) Remove the feed; submit samples for mycotoxin testing: A commercial

swine operation in Iowa reports an outbreak in October among weanling and
grower-finisher pigs with 25 dead animals and 54 more exhibiting acute onset of
dyspnea and weakness. Twenty-four hours after the first pigs showed clinical
signs, some of the worst affected animals became recumbent and died.
Physical exam of affected pigs shows cyanosis of the mucous membranes and
weakness. Necropsy of a dead animal shows marked pulmonary edema and
hydrothorax.
The farm is a farrow to finish operation, with same-age animals penned and fed
together. The ration for the affected pens is a mixture of corn, rolled oats, dried
whey, soybean meal and a vitamin/mineral pack.
Weanlings get water from nipple waterers and older animals drink from stainless
steel finishing cup waterers, one per pen. The water supply comes from an
unchlorinated well that supplies the whole farm. Barns have concrete floors and
feature hybrid ventilation with wall-mounted variable speed fans and moveable
insulated sidewall curtains, roof-mounted ventilation chimneys, and fresh air
intakes in the ceilings.
What is the best action to take?
A) Report outbreak to state/provincial veterinarian; cull affected animals
B) Check feces for embryonated eggs; remove access to soil/earthworms; treat
survivors with ivermectin
C) Culture nasopharynx of dead pigs; isolate and Rx affected pigs with tylosin
pending culture/sensitivity results
D) Checked humidity, air exchange rates, and positive/negative pressure of
affected barns
E) Remove the feed; submit samples for mycotoxin testing
2. A) Infectious bursal disease: What is the presumptive diagnosis in a chicken
with the following necropsy finding?
A) Infectious bursal disease
B) Marek's disease
C) Renal dystrophy
D) Histomoniasis
E) Avian spirochetosis

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3. C) Neomycin: Which of these drugs has the greatest potential for causing acute
renal failure in the horse?
A) Xylazine
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Neomycin
D) Oxytetracycline
E) Dexamethasone
4. E) Full body lyme sulfur dip: A middle aged MN stray cat is left on the doorstep
of your clinic. The cat has a large dry crusted area of alopecia over his nose. A skin
scraping of the area is negative. The lesion fluoresces under Wood's
lamp examination. Which of the following would be the best
treatment?
A) Povidone-iodine scrub
B) Lufenuron
C) Doxycycline
D) Athlete's foot cream (clotrimazole)
E) Full body lyme sulfur dip, itraconazole
5. E) Administer Ivermectin twice annually, once in the early summer and
again in the fall: You are asked to perform a necropsy on a 17-year old
Standardbred mare on a large horse ranch. Although not related to the cause of
death, you notice the parasite shown in the image within the stomach. You tell the
owner that this parasite is also responsible for the eggs that he sees seasonally on
the hair of the front legs of his horses. The owner asks what should be done about
this. You discuss the importance of promptly cleaning up feces and transporting
feces away. In addition, which of the following is the most appropriate
recommendation for ongoing control of this parasite?
A) Administer Ivermectin twice annually, once in the early spring and again in the
winter
B) Administer fenbendazole twice annually, once in the early summer and again
in late summer
C) Administer fenbendazole twice annually, once in the early spring and again in
the fall

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D) There is no need to treat these parasites because they are not associated with
disease in horses
E) Administer Ivermectin twice annually, once in the early summer and again in
the fall
6. B) Topical cyclosporine and a topical steroid: A 6-year old West Highland
White Terrier comes in to see you for the mucopurulent ocular
discharge as seen in the photo below. A Schirmer tear test shows
no tear production. What is the treatment of choice for chronic
canine keratoconjunctivitis sicca?
A) Topical cyclosporine and systemic corticosteroids
B) Topical cyclosporine and a topical steroid
C) Systemic antibiotics and corticosteroids
D) Systemic cyclosporine and antibiotics
7. C) Serial Progesterone testing: A female show dog is approaching estrus and
the owner has consulted you about planning a breeding for this dog.
She is aware of the signs of proestrus and plans to contact you when those are
apparent in her dog.
In addition to vaginal cytology, which one of the following will be the most useful
to you in planning the timing of breeding? A) Determination of serum estrogen
levels
B) Timed administration of luteinizing hormone
C) Serial progesterone testing
D) Vaginoscopy
E) Ovarian ultrasonography
8. B) Cauda equina syndrome: A seven-year old male German Shepherd is
presented with a history of weakness in the hind limbs, urinary incontinence and
recent obsessive chewing around his tail area.
Dorsiflexion of the tail over the back and extension of the hind limbs elicits a painful
response.
He does not withdraw each hind leg when a toe is pinched, but bears weight on the
hindlimbs. Patellar reflexes are normal.
What is the clinical diagnosis?
A) Radiculoneuritis

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B) Cauda equina syndrome

C) Hip dysplasia
D) Diskospondylitis
E) Wobbler syndrome
9. C) Ivermectin in early fall: A client brings the one-half inch grub shown in the
image to you one spring day, telling you it emerged from a hole in the back of one
of his prize show cattle. He wants to know what to treat his cattle with and when.
A) Thiabendazole in early fall
B) Ivermectin in February
C) Ivermectin in early fall
D) Organophosphates in summer
E) Moxidectin now, in spring
10. E) Strong chance of lifelong FeLV infection: An adopted adult male cat from
a shelter with an unknown vaccination history is presented. The cat tests positive
for feline leukemia virus (FeLV) infection by IFA.
What should the owner be told?
A - Possible transient FeLV infection
B - Need an ELISA test in 12 weeks to confirm diagnosis
C - Cat may be vaccinated for FeLV
D - Need a Western blot test to confirm diagnosis
E - Strong chance of lifelong FeLV infection
11. D) Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopathy: A 1.5-year old Quarter Horse
gelding is presented to you for symmetric ataxia, weakness, and spasticity of all
limbs, but worse in the hind limbs. When walking, the horse frequently drags his
toes and the hind limbs frequently interfere with one another. Based on the
signalment, history and physical examination findings, which of the following is the
most likely cause of these clinical signs?
A) Equine Motor Neuron Disease (EMND)
B) Botulism
C) Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM)
D) Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopathy (EDM)
E) Cauda Equina Syndrome

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12. D) Equine Viral Arteritis (EVA): A four-year-old Quarter Horse gelding is

presented with a three-day history of poor appetite, and stiffness in the hind limbs.
Equine infectious anemia (EIA) is on the differential diagnostic list.
What other diagnosis should be considered for a horse with edema,
icterus, and fever?
A) African horse sickness
B) Equine influenza
C) Equine viral rhinopneumonitis (equine herpes-1)
D) Equine viral arteritis (EVA)
E) Purpura hemorrhagica
13. A) Tritrichomonas foetus, Ronidazole: Suzie-Q, a 6-month old female
spayed domestic short hair was recently adopted from the humane society. She
has had watery diarrhea since adoption. Her fecal float and Giardia ELISA tests
were negative. She was treated with metronidazole with no clinical improvement.
You soak a cotton tip swab with saline and swab the rectum. You see elongated
motile oval shaped protozoan organisms that do not look like Giardia lamblia.
What organism might this be and what is the appropriate therapy?
A) Tritrichomonas foetus, Ronidazole
B) Enterobius vermicularis, Fenbendazole
C) Paragonimus kellicotti, Praziquantel
D) Taenia taeniaformis, Praziquantel
E) Cryptosporidium, Clindamycin
F) Giardia intestinalis, Fenbendazole
14. D) Proton pump inhibitor: Which one of the following choices is the
mechanism of action of omeprazole? A) H2-receptor antagonist
B) Synthetic prostaglandin E1 analog
C) Cyclooxygenase blocker
D) Proton pump inhibitor
E) Beta-adrenergic receptor agonist
15. B) Administer oxytocin (IM or IV) and lavage the uterus to facilitate
removal: You are examining a 13-year old Standardbred brood mare 5 hours after
parturition. You note that the placenta is still present in the reproductive tract of the
mare. What is the most appropriate therapy?

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A) Place physical traction on the placenta and remove it manually

B) Administer oxytocin (IM or IV) and lavage the uterus to facilitate removal
C) Do nothing; the placenta is not considered retained until 12 hours post-parturition
and it will likely be expelled by this time
D) Administer penicillin (IM) until the placenta is expelled on its own
16. B) High-dose antibiotics for sick piglets: A pig farm reports a problem in
weaning-age piglets. The affected piglets are depressed and anorexic with slight
fevers.
A few of the more severely-affected piglets have an exudative epidermitis affecting
the face, limbs, and ventral abdomen.
What should be recommended?
A) Vaccinate herd with modified live vaccine
B) High-dose antibiotics for sick piglets
C) Report to state vet
D) Cull affected animals
E) Topical coumaphos/disinfectant combination dip
17. D) Clostridium tetani: You are called out to examine a 4-year old dromedary
who was castrated 10-days ago and is now not eating. The groin and prepucial area
and extremely swollen. The camel is unable to stand and is drooling. His neck is
extended and he appears to be unable to swallow. Which of the following is most
likely responsible for these symptoms?
A) Rabies virus
B) Trypanosoma evansi
C) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
D) Clostridium tetani
18. D) Clarithromycin an rifampin: A four-month-old filly is presented with a four-
day history of lethargy, heavy breathing, cough, and decreased appetite.
Temperature: 104.9 F (RR: 99.0-100.6 F); HR: 72 bpm (RR: 28-40 bpm); R: 44 bpm
(RR: 10-14 bpm).
On lung auscultation asymmetrically-distributed crackles and wheezes are audible.
Some areas have no breath sounds and dull resonance on thoracic percussion. A
lateral chest radiograph shows consolidated nodular lung lesions and mediastinal
lymphadenopathy.

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Pneumonia due to Rhodococcus equi infection is confirmed based on culture and

polymerase chain reaction results on a transtracheal wash.
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Chloramphenicol and aminophylline
B) Procaine penicillin G and gentamicin
C) Tilmicosin
D) Clarithromycin and rifampin
E) Vancomycin and atropine (if bronchospasm is observed)
19. C) Neorickettsia helminthoeca: A dog presents with acute onset vomiting,
hemorrhagic diarrhea, and fever. On fecal examination, you find many large fluke
eggs. You question the owner and discover that the dog was recently in Oregon
on a boating trip. What agent is most likely causing the clinical signs in this dog?
A) Oxytrema silicula
B) Nanophyetus salmincola
C) Neorickettsia helminthoeca D) Rickettsia rickettsii
20. C) 60% of treated horses improve, but less than 25% recover completely.:
In September, a 15-year-old Quarterhorse mare is presented with a five-day history
of left head tilt, facial paralysis, depression, and stumbling.
The horse is ataxic and knuckles on both forelegs, worse on the left.
There is muscle atrophy of the left pectorals and right hindquarters and strips of
localized spontaneous sweating over the left trunk.
A serum:CSF ratio is consistent with a diagnosis of Sarcocystis neurona. What
expectations for recovery should owner have if she elects to treat the horse?
A) Prognosis is good if the horse is medicated with doxycycline for 10-12 weeks
B) 50% of horses relapse within two years of initial diagnosis.
C) 60% of treated horses improve, but less than 25% recover completely.
D) Prognosis is grave, regardless of treatment.
E) 75% of treated horses recover full neurological function.
21. C) This will regress within a year, and symptomatic support is needed for
discomfort.: A 4-month-old terrier cross presents for inability to eat. The puppy is
bright, alert, and responsive on exam. Heart rate is 148, respiratory rate is
panting, and temperature is 101.8 F. The puppy is extremely painful when his
lower jaw is palpated, and cries and pulls away when you attempt to open his

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mouth. Sedated oral exam is unremarkable. Radiographs are available for review.
What do you tell the owner about prognosis?
A) Chemotherapy can prolong quality of life for a few of months, however
prognosis is grave.
B) This can be cured with antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity. NSAIDs
can be used for discomfort.
C) This will regress within a year, and symptomatic support is needed for
discomfort. D) Surgical removal of dentigerous cysts will likely be curative, however
long term dental disease is common.
22. B) Francisella tularensis: Which disease of rabbits is reportable?
A) Encephalitozoonosis
B) Francisella tularensis
C) Treponematosis
D) Clostridium spiroforme enterotoxemia
E) Rabbit (Shope) fibroma virus
23. D) VII, III: Closure of the eyes is mediated by cranial nerve ____ and opening
of the eyes is mediated by CN ____.
A) III, VII
B) V, VII
C) VII, V
D) VII, IIIE) V, III
24. C) Ruminal drinker: Two bucket-fed veal calves are depressed and stunted
and have sticky feces coating their hindquarters.
Fluid-splashing sounds are audible during auscultation over the left flank when calf
is drinking.
Passage of a stomach tube obtains a rancid-smelling liquid with a pH of 5.2 (RR:
5.9-6.2).
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate diagnosis?
A) Colibacillosis
B) Vitamin E/Selenium Deficiency
C) Ruminal drinker
D) Enterotoxemia E) Pica

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25. B) Esophagostomy tube feeding: A 4-year old domestic short haired cat
presents for anorexia and weight loss of 1 week. Physical exam reveals a body
condition score of 7/9, jaundice of the skin and sclera, and dehydration of 4%.
Temperature is normal. Bloodwork shows: ALT=303 (25-97 U/L); GGT=1.8 (0-6);
ALP=1170 (0-45 U/L); bilirubin=3.0 (0-0.1 mg/dL). Radiographs show an enlarged
liver. What is the most important treatment for the cat's likely diagnosis?
A) Oral clavulanic acid and amoxicillin for 4 weeks
B) Esophagostomy tube feeding
C) Parenteral vitamin K injections
D) Oral S-adenosylmethionine for at least 1 month
26. C) Mesenteric volvulus: A nine-year-old German Shepherd is presented for
non-productive retching. Physical examination reveals severe abdominal pain and
in shock.
After starting fluid therapy, a lateral abdominal radiograph is made.
The dog is taken to surgery and reveals what is in the second image.
Which one of the following choices is t he most likely diagnosis?
A) Linear foreign body
B) Intestinal lymphosarcoma
C) Mesenteric volvulus
D) Gastrointestinal ulceration
E) Intussussuption
27. B) Cyproheptadine: Which of the following drugs is known for stimulating
appetite in small animals?
A) Omeprazole
B) Cyproheptadine
C) Acyclovir
D) Tetracycline
28. C) Suspensory ligament: Fractures of the proximal sesamoid bones in horses
are often associated with damage to which structure?
A) Superficial digital flexor tendon
B) Impar ligament
C) Suspensory ligament
D) Superior check ligament

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E) Deep digital flexor tendon

29. B) Left cranial cruciate ligament rupture with meniscal cartilage tear.: A 5-
year old male castrated Mastiff presents for left pelvic limb lameness. The medial
aspects of both stifles are thickened. Manipulation of the left stifle reveals cranial
motion of the tibia relative to the femur and a clicking sound from the joint on flexion
and extension. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Left luxating patella
B) Left cranial cruciate ligament rupture with meniscal cartilage tear
C) Left caudal cruciate ligament rupture with no meniscal cartilage tear
D) Left cranial cruciate ligament rupture with no meniscal cartilage tear
30. B) Hypothyroidism: An obese 8-year old Labrador Retriever is presented for
annual vaccinations.
The owners claim that they have restricted his diet and try to exercise him but he
still keeps the weight on.
There is alopecia on the dorsum of his tail and he has an unusual
worried facial expression.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Hypoadrenocorticism
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Sarcoptic mange
D) Male pattern alopecia
E) Hyperadrenocorticism
31. A) Thelazia: You are doing a summer externship in South America and
performing physical exams on a variety of animals. You are performing a fundic
exam on the eye of a horse and note what appears to be a worm migrating through
the conjunctiva (see image). Because of the location and appearance of this
parasite, you suspect this is which of the following?
A) Thelazia
B) Dirofilaria
C) Toxocara D) Oxyuris
32. D) Treponematosis, hutch burn: A rabbit is presented with inflamed and
chapped membranes of the anus and genital region.

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The genital area is scalded and raw, with brownish crusts and purulent exudate.
What two conditions top the differential diagnosis list?
A) Pasteurellosis, ulcerative pododermatitis
B) Tularemia, cystitis
C) Glomerulonephritis, coccidiosis
D) Treponematosis, hutch burn
E) Myxomatosis, moist dermatitis
33. B) Demodex spp.: You diagnose a dog with mites. Which of the following mites
is not contagious to other dogs? A) Cheyletiella spp.
B) Demodex spp.
C) Psoroptes spp.
D) Sarcoptes spp.
34. D) Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid: Several younger
sheep in a large herd have died suddenly with a diagnosis of infectious necrotic
hepatitis secondary to fluke infestation.
Which choice is the most practical and effective control measure you can take next
to prevent future cases?
A) Treat ponds with copper sulfate molluscicide against lymnaeid snails
B) Clostridium hemolyticum bacterin for animals under 3 years
C) Clorsulon antihelmintic for whole herd
D) Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid
E) High-dose penicillin for clinical cases
35. D) Pyrrolizidine alkaloid: An 11-year old Peruvian Paso presents with a history
of progressive weight loss. Serum chemistry shows elevation in sorbitol
dehydrogenase, lactate, alkaline phosphatase, and a decrease in albumin. A vast
amount of Crotalaria spp. is seen in the pasture. What type of toxin does Crotalaria
spp. possess?
A) Nitrate
B) Cyanide
C) Organophosphate
D) Pyrrolizidine alkaloid

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36. C) Coagulopathy: A horse is presented in severe respiratory distress in

southern California after a suspected snake bite. There is significant nasal swelling,
flared nostrils, abdominal movement with each breath, stridor, and
tachypnea.
Aside from local tissue damage and associated upper airway obstruction,
what is another major complication of crotalid envenomation?
A) Chronic visual impairment
B) Immune suppression
C) Coagulopathy
D) Acute hepatic necrosis
E) Diarrhea
37. D) Mannheimia hemolytica: A 7-month old feedlot steer has died after
exhibiting severe fever, dyspnea, cough and respiratory distress. On post mortem
there is evidence of fibrinopurulent bronchopneumonia (see image). What
bacterium is most likely to be the cause of this syndrome?
A) Trueperella pyogenes
B) Pasteurella multocida
C) Mycoplasma bovis
D) Bovine herpes virus type-4
E) Mannheimia hemolytica
38. B) Lavender foal syndrome: A pale-colored Egyptian Arabian foal is presented
for evaluation within a few hours of a dystocia with assisted vaginal delivery. The
foal has opisthotonos, nystagmus, limb rigidity and paddling, and has
not yet stood and nursed.
What is the presumptive diagnosis based on the information
available?
A) Botulism
B) Lavender foal syndrome
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Portosystemic vascular anomaly
E) Overo lethal white condition

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39. C) Exploratory laparotomy to remove the ovarian remnant: A 1.5-year old

spayed female cat presents with a 7-day history of vocalizing, rolling, and allowing
a male neutered cat in the household to mount her. The cat has gone through one
similar episode 1 month ago. She otherwise has been behaving normally and has
no other health problems. You performed an ovariohysterectomy on the cat at 3
months of age. You perform vaginal cytology which shows some cornified epithelial
cells but is inconclusive. You measure serum luteinizing hormone of 0.2 ng/ml
(normal for an ovariectomized female is >1 ng/ml). Which of the following is the
most appropriate course of action?
A) Measure serum testosterone levels
B) Measure serum estrogen and progesterone levels
C) Exploratory laparotomy to remove the ovarian remnant
D) Order MRI of t he brain to rule out a pituitary tumor
40. D) Require original owner consent or court order to release information:
A person calls to say she adopted a friend's dog and she requests a copy of the
dog's medical record and radiographs. The former owner is a client at your clinic.
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate action to take?
A) Give a summarized record with personal identifiers (vet, owner names) blocked
out
B) Give caller a copy of medical record and radiographs
C) After physical exam, start a new medical record documenting previous issues
D) Require original owner consent or court order to release information
E) Give caller a copy of medical record only
41. A) C6-T2: A 2-year old male castrated mixed breed dog presents for an
altered gait after being hit by a car. On a physical exam, the thoracic limbs had
decreased biceps and triceps reflexes and decreased muscle tone. The pelvic
limbs had hyper-reflexive patellar and gastrocnemius reflexes and increased
muscle tone. Where is the spinal cord lesion?
A) C6-T2
B) C1-C5
C) L4-S3D) T3-L3
42. E) Skin scraping and microscopic exam: An alpaca is presented in poor body
condition with an unkempt coat, patchy alopecia, and severe pruritus and crusting

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of the extremities.. A photo of an affected limb is shown. What is the most

appropriate diagnostic step?
A) Test skin crusts for contagious ecthyma
parapoxviruses
B) Check thyroid status and bluetongue titers
C) Tell Yoda found his brother
D) Punch biopsy
E) Skin scraping and microscopic exam

43. C) Moraxella bovis: Which of the following is a causative agent of infectious

bovine keratoconjunctivitis as shown in this image?
A) Histophilus somni
B) Thelazia
C) Moraxella bovisD) E. coli
44. C) Bovine tuberculosis: An emaciated cow is presented. She appears weak
and anorexic, with enlarged superficial cervical lymph nodes. Temp: 102.9 F (RR:
100.4-102.8 F); HR: 60 bpm (RR: 48-84 bpm); BR: 30 brpm (RR: 26-50 brpm).
The cow dies the next day. On necropsy, the following lesions in the lungs are
evident. What is the diagnosis?
A) Actinobacillosis
B) Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
C) Bovine tuberculosis
D) Bovine lymphoma E) Johne's disease
45. A) Laminitis: A horse presents to you clinic after ingesting a large amount of
grain. What is your major concern?
A) Laminitis
B) Impaction
C) Torsion
D) Choke
E) Acidosis

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46. C) Antigen-antibody complex disease (Type III): Which type of

immune reaction is occurring in this picture of a horse with limb edema
secondary to a localized vasculitis?
A) Cell-mediated immune reactions (Type IV)
B) Immediate hypersensitivity and atopy (Type I)
C) Antigen-antibody complex disease (Type III)
D) Antibody-mediated cytotoxic reactions (Type II) E) None of these
47. A) Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia: In canine patients with primary
hyperparathyroidism, a chemistry panel would show:
A) Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia
B) Hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia
C) Hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia
D) Hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia
48. E) Inguinal hernia: A seven-week-old pot-bellied pig is presented with a
posterior swelling that looks like the picture. Which one of the
following is the most likely clinical diagnosis? A) Perineal hernia
B) Cryptorchidism
C) Intersex syndrome
D) Testicular torsionE) Inguinal hernia
49. B) Ivermectin: A 4-year old male Thoroughbred horse presents to you for
colic. During your work up, you note a painful enlargement at the root of the
mesentery on rectal palpation. You suspect that the cause of the horse's colic are
adults from the egg shown in the picture below. Which of the following drugs
effectively kills the adult organisms that can cause this condition?
A) Rifampin
B) Ivermectin
C) Piperonyl butoxide
D) Praziquantel
E) Metronidazole
50. D) Histoplasmosis: A three-year-old male neutered Labrador Retriever from
the Ohio River Valley basin is presented with chronic large bowel diarrhea and signs
of respiratory disease (cough, fever).

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A lymph node smear shows round to ovoid (1-4 micrometers) encapsulated

structures inside macrophages and giant cells. The organisms have thin cell walls,
with thin clear zone between cell wall and cytoplasm.
What is the diagnosis? A)
Cryptococcosis
B) Coccidioidomycosis
C) Blastomycosis
D) Histoplasmosis E) Aspergillosis
51. C) Fibrosarcoma: What tumor type is a cat predisposed to developing at
vaccination sites?
A) squamous cell carcinoma
B) Lymphoma
C) Fibrosarcoma
D) Melanoma
52. A) Supplement dietary zinc: A group of 2 1/2-month -old feeder pigs are
presented with non-pruritic keratinized skin lesions and mild lethargy. One
severely affected animal is depressed and anorexic. What treatment is most
appropriate for the presumptive diagnosis?
A) Supplement dietary zinc
B) Ivermectin SQ now, repeat in 2 weeks
C) High dose trimethoprim-sulfonamide 7-10 days
D) Copper sulfate bath or sprays
E) Spray with malathion (0.05%)
53. B) Acidifying diet: Tommy, a 4-year old male neutered domestic short hair,
presents to you for frequent urination. Urinalysis reveals 4+ struvite crystals. An
abdominal radiograph shows a 1 cm round calculus in the bladder. Tommy does
not have a urethral blockage and urine culture is negative. The owner says
surgery to remove this stone is not an option due to finances. Which of the
following would be the most important treatment for Tommy?
A) Metacam
B) Acidifying diet
C) Potassium citrate
D) Clavamox
E) Alkalinizing diet

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54. D) Pleural effusion: A 13-year-old male castrated Golden Retriever is

presented with respiratory distress. A lateral thoracic radiograph is
obtained. What is the primary abnormality visible in the radiograph?
A) Diaphragmatic hernia
B) Dilated cardiomyopathy
C) Vena caval syndrome
D) Pleural effusion
E) Pulmonary edema
55. B) A scotch tape test to confirm Oxyuris equi: A 2-year-old Quarter horse
filly presents with a history of intense pruritis and alopecia in the perineal area
(see image). The owners indicated that they noticed the filly rubbing her tail head
and perineal area along fences for a period of one week. What diagnostic test will
you use to confirm your top differential?
A) A scotch tape test to confirm Strongyloides vulgaris
B) A scotch tape test to confirm Oxyuris equi
C) A fecal flotation to confirm Cyathostomiasis
D) A fecal flotation to confirm Oxyuris equi
E) A superficial skin scrape to confirm Chorioptes spp.
56. E) Create transfaunation donors: What is the purpose of placing a permanent
rumen fistula in some cattle?
A) Treat traumatic reticuloperitonitis in the fistulated animal
B) Allow for direct administration of medications into rumen long-
term
C) Manage vagal indigestion in the fistulated animal
D) This procedure is not done on a permanent basis in cows
E) Create transfaunation donors
57. A) Feline infectious peritonitis is not contagious and because her other
cat died of FIP does not mean this cat will succumb to the disease.: You see
an
8-month old kitten with the effusive form of feline infectious peritonitis and perform
euthanasia. The kitten was having severe diarrhea around the house when it
became ill. The owner has a 2 year old cat at home and wants to know what this

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cat's prognosis is since it has been exposed to the sick kitten. Currently this cat is
clinically healthy. What do you tell her?
A) Feline infectious peritonitis is not contagious and because her other cat died
of FIP does not mean this cat will succumb to the disease.
B) Her other cat may develop symptoms within the next two weeks because FIP
is highly contagious.
C) You recommend a coronavirus titer to determine if the cat is actively infected
D) Place the cat on L-lysine to prevent or suppress any infection with FIP
E) Perform a PCR on the cat's feces to see if the virus is being shed.
58. B) Northern fowl mite: A backyard chicken is presented for laying less eggs
than normal and listless behavior. Examination reveals tiny blackish brown specks
moving around the hen's vent. Which one of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A) Sticktight flea
B) Northern fowl mite
C) Knemidocoptes mutans
D) Argas persicus E) Chicken mite
59. C) Doxycycline: Oral administration of which of these drugs has been
implicated as a cause of esophageal strictures in cats?
A) Diazepam
B) Potassium bromide
C) Doxycycline
D) Azithromycin
60. B) Ultrasonography: An intact male whippet presents with an acute onset of
swelling and pain in one of his testicles. (See attached post-op image). Which one
of the following tests is helpful to diagnose the cause of swelling before surgery?
A) Positive contrast cystography
B) Ultrasonography
C) Lateral radiography
D) Magnetic resonance imaging
E) Nuclear scrintigraphy scan
61. D) Perianal fistula: A 10-year old German Shepherd presents to you with the
complaint of licking the anal area and scooting. On examination, you find numerous

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ulcerated tracts in the perianal area that are draining purulent fluid. What is the
diagnosis?
A) Anal sac abscess
B) Anal sac impaction
C) Clostridial colitis D) Perianal fistula
62. E) Treat with potassium permanganate: A trout fishery reports that many of
the fish have gray-white, puffy growths on their fins, gills, and eyes. A
direct smear
from affected tissues shows the following findings (image attached) What
action should you take?
A) Supplement the fish with Vitamin C
B) Depopulation is the only approriate measure
C) Administer praziquantel to all the fish
D) Ask if there is any zinc in the housing
E) Treat with potassium permanganate
63. E) Treat all calves for lice: In January you examine a group of dairy calves
which range in age from 2 to 7 months, with a complaint of hair loss and pruritus.
The calves are thin and mucous membranes are pale. One has developed
bronchopneumonia, and is also febrile and depressed. You do a skin scraping and
find the parasite shown in the image, which your technician identifies as
Solenopotes sp. The CBC shows the calves to be severely anemic. What treatment
recommendation should you now make to the dairy owner?
A) Vaccinate all calves against Mannheima hemolytica
B) Treat all calves with hemantinics
C) Treat all calves with long acting tetracycline
D) Treat all calves for mange E) Treat all calves for lice
64. C) Report outbreak to regulatory authorities: Many hens in a large backyard
flock recently became ill after the owner purchased four new chickens. The sick
hens are gasping, coughing, and sneezing. They have poor appetite and act
depressed. Some affected birds have watery green diarrhea and swelling of the
head and neck. A few have paralyzed legs and wings, twisted necks, are circling,
and have tremors or clonic spasms. Birds are not laying well and some eggs are

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misshapen with watery albumen. Many of the sickest birds have died. Necropsy of
a dead chicken shows petechial hemorrhages on the mucosal surface of the
proventriculus and gizzard (left) . What should be done next to address this
problem?
A) Increase poultry house temperatures to reduce morbidity
B) Cull affected birds and vaccinate the remainder
C) Report outbreak to regulatory authorities
D) Treat all affected chickens with amprolium
E) Disinfect housing with phenolic compounds, barrier precautions for staff
65. D) Sulfadimethoxine (Albon): An 8-week old Abyssinian cat recently obtained
from a cattery presents to you for an examination and the owner reports that the cat
has had diarrhea. On fecal float, you find multiple structures like the
one shown in the image. What should you treat the cat with?
A) Selamectin (Revolution)
B) Pyrantel (Strongid)
C) Amoxicillin and clavulanate (Clavamox)
D) Sulfadimethoxine (Albon)
E) Praziquantel (Droncit) F) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
66. C) Joint neoplasia: A ten-year-old mix breed dog is presented with
left thoracic limb lameness of two month duration. Which one of the
following choices is the most likely diagnosis based on radiograph and
ultrasonography?
A) Septic arthritis
B) Degenerative joint disease
C) Joint neoplasia
D) Fragmented coronoid process
E) Rheumatoid arthritis
67. D) 85%: A 10-year old female spayed Siamese cat presents for a new lump
the owner found a month ago. She was spayed last year before she was adopted
from the shelter. The owner states the lump has grown over the last month, and
it doesn't seem to bother the cat. On exam, the 2 cm lump is located on the left
2nd mammary gland, and no other lumps are noted. The lump is freely moveable

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and chest radiographs are clear. What is the chance that this tumor is malignant?
A) 20%
B) 5%
C) 50% D) 85%
68. A) Good prognosis for survival with surgery: A ten-year-old male neutered
Irish Setter is presented with an acute onset of severe abdominal distension, non-
productive retching, and collapse. Physical exam reveals a tense, distended
abdomen. A right lateral abdominal radiograph is shown below. Bloodwork reveals
prerenal azotemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, increased serum ALT and
AST levels, and hyperlactatemia of 4.5 mmol/L (normal is < 2 mmol/L). Which is
the best message to communicate to the owner about next steps to take in light of
these findings.
A) Good prognosis for survival with surgery
B) Dog will need a splenectomy but not gastropexy
C) Gastric decompression via stomach tube will resolve abnormality
D) The prognosis is poor, and humane euthanasia may be the best course
E) Abdominocentesis is necessary to address hemoabdomen

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