7d1b7b51-78e5-45a1-944e-c9de28b74534 Grade IX Revision Worksheets 2
7d1b7b51-78e5-45a1-944e-c9de28b74534 Grade IX Revision Worksheets 2
Reading Skills
I.A Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
1. The conquest of happiness has meant different facts to different generations. Our forefathers took pride in
scholarship, a spirit of sacrifice and solicitude for the welfare of others. Gone are those days. Today we live only for
ourselves. We are jealous of the advancement of our neighbours. We end up tense and unhappy.
2. The term ‘happy’ has a variety of meanings. It stands for the lucky, fortunate, content, glad or apt. Happiness lies
within the mind of the individual. No amount of external wealth may be helpful in making him happy.
3. Our forefathers had lifestyles, very much different from those we have today. Their life was
based mainly on the concept of ‘Simple living and high thinking.’ People were satisfied with whatever they obtained
after working hard. Excessive material wealth did not mean much for them. They aimed at deriving mental
satisfaction and enrichment from whatever they did.
4. The structural framework of our forefathers’ families was different from those of ours. They lived in a cohesive
joint family structure where they were happier than we. They cared for each other. The siblings grew up with their
cousins. The bond of love which they shared cannot be easily found in the nuclear family of the day. The family
provided an emotional cushioning effect against tension and stress. However, in the nuclear family, we are detached
from the feelings towards our kith and kin. At times even the cousins do not recognise one another, when they
happen to be self-centred. Disputes in the family may lead to divisions. This may finally destroy the family psyche.
5. The joint family system provided a proper environment for the child to grow up. The value of respect, tolerance,
responsibility, integrity, etc. were internalised in the child. In the long run, they became better human beings,
compared to those in the present generation. Our forefathers felt happiest if their children became ‘honest’ human
beings. But today we are happy only if we attain our coveted material ends. We are ready to resort to any means to
attain that end. Our philosophy of life has turned out totally Machiavellian.
6. Our forefathers had a vision to make India the best. To attain their ambitions, they were ready to make all sorts of
personal sacrifices. Their happiness lay in that of the millions of Indian brothers and sisters. On the other hand, today
people are ready to migrate to the West, to enjoy a comfortable life. They run away from the evils of the Indian
society without trying to remedy them. Often, they become successful in foreign lands. But in the process, they
become alienated from their motherland. The nostalgic feeling of their childhood and the relationship they left
lingered on which cannot make them happy. Distance from their ailing parents is a worrying factor and keeps them
perturbed. It is not easy for them to return, as their children will not be able to adjust to the Indian environment and
the way of life. Thus, in our generation, tradition and modernity have intermingled to form our special system.
(ii) According to the passage, state two aspects which bring out the difference between lives of our forefathers and
today’s generation. Answer in about 40 words.
(iv) Which of the following words is an antonym of ‘perturbed’ as used in the passage?
(a) Distressed (b) Unnerved (c) Reassured (d) Flustered
1
(v)Complete the sentence appropriately.
People who migrate to foreign lands are ……………… which makes them feel anxious and concerned.
(vi) Supply one point to justify the following. The conquest of happiness has meant different facts to different
generations. Answer in about 40 words.
(viii) How does the joint family system make a child a good human being?
I.B. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions carefully:
1. The Arctic is warming more than twice as fast as the rest of the world, and some scientists believe that thawing
permafrost ground – frozen since the last Ice Age – is about to release enormous amounts of climate-warming
emissions. In the coldest regions of planet Earth, ice binds together soil, rock, sand, and organic matter. This layer of
permafrost can begin just centimetres below the Earth’s surface. Places anywhere cold enough to keep the ground
frozen year-round for at least two years count as permafrost. About a quarter of the Northern Hemisphere contains
permafrost.
2. Warmer temperatures in the Arctic are causing snow and ice to disappear. As ice covering the sea shrinks back, it
exposes darker waters that absorb solar radiation rather than reflecting it back out in the atmosphere. This is called
the albedo effect, and it helps explain why the Arctic region is warming so much faster than the rest of the world.
This chart shows how much average surface air temperatures have changed at different latitudes since 1960.
3. The Siberian Arctic town of Verkhoyansk in June registered a record-high temperature of 38 degrees Celsius (100.4
Fahrenheit) during a prolonged heat wave. Record fires have also engulfed vast swathes of Siberian Russia, emitting
more carbon dioxide than Switzerland or Norway in a year.
4. The boreal forests of the Arctic have evolved to survive and thrive from occasional fires that would naturally occur
every few decades or centuries in the region. But the more recent fires are different, scientists say. They are starting
months earlier than they ever have before, and are smouldering through the winter as underground ‘zombie fires.’
5. The more intense fires are also burning up peat hogs. A forest might grow back in a few decades and reabsorb the
carbon it released when it burned; a peat bog is the accumulation of thousands of years of partial decomposition.
6. The best way to prevent permafrost from thawing is to limit climate change by reducing fossil fuel emissions and
protecting forests, scientists say. But once permafrost thaws, there’s nothing that can be done to stop the carbon
from being released. (Source: The true picture)
(i) Complete the following analogy appropriately, based on your understanding of paragraphs 1 & 2. We can say that
with increasing global temperature the permafrost thaws to release climate-warming emissions which is causing
snow and ice to disappear in the Arctic. This is leading to ……………………….
2
(ii) Fill in the blanks with the appropriate option from those given in brackets, based on your understanding of
paragraph 2.
The statement that, ‘warmer temperatures in the Arctic are causing snow and ice to disappear’ is a (fact/opinion)
because it is exposing the darker waters to …………………… (reflection/ absorption of heat).
(iv) Infer one reason for the following, based on information in the given passage. The Arctic region is warming so
much faster than the rest of the world.
(v) In the given figure there has been a considerable rise in temperature due to ‘thawing of permafrost’ in the
Northern Hemisphere, while the Antarctic region is comparatively much better in keeping the temperature well
under the freezing point of water. State one reason for this.
(vi) Select the chart that appropriately represents the correct surface air temperature variations between the Artic
region and Antarctic region.
(viii) Which one is the ‘point of no return’ statement mentioned in the passage?
A. Warmer temperatures in the Arctic are causing snow and ice to disappear.
B. In the coldest regions of Earth, ice binds together soil, rock, sand, and organic matter.
C. Some scientists believe that thawing permafrost is about to release enormous amounts of climate warming
emissions.
D. Once permafrost thaws, there’s nothing that can be done to stop the carbon from being released.
Error Correction
(iv) My father had to ________ the whole thing from the beginning.
(A) explain (B) explained (C) been explained (D) explaining
3
(vi) Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction. Behind every
success film there is a lengthy creative process.
Error Correction
(vii) Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following line.
We have been under a lot of pressure to open fifty new stores by the ending of the year.
(viii) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the following sentence.
As he ………………….. he noticed a young girl sitting on the curb sobbing.
(a) gets out from his car (b) get out of his car (c) got out of his car (d) got out from his car
(ix) Report the dialogue between Kavya and Aayan by completing the sentence.
Kavya: Where can we meet tomorrow?
Aayan: I may not be able to meet you tomorrow.
Kavya asked Aayan where they could meet the following day. Aayan replied ………………. .
(x) Complete the given sentence from a report, by filling in the blank with the correct option.
Many people reported ………………. the noise in the night.
(a) to hear (b) having hear (c) to have heard (d) been hearing
(xi) Complete the line from a poem by filling the blank with the correct option.
Beyond this place of wrath and tears
Looms but the Horror of the shade,
And yet the menace of the years
Finds, and …………….. find, me unafraid.
(a) shall (b) had (c) have (d) was
Error Correction
(xiii) Bela shared some information about her visit to her grandmother with Malini. Report Malini’s question.
Is your grandmother feeling better now?
(xiv) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the slogan.
…………. educated mind can teach many. (The/ A/ An)
(xv) Ritu met Anita and saw her crying. Report Ritu’s question.
Ritu: “Anita, what is the matter?”
(xvi) Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket.
The students, with the help of their teacher _________ (create) a beautiful poster.
(xvii) One of ________ books that I borrowed is missing. (Fill in the blank with a Determiner)
(xviii) Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket.
He has been ___________ the plants for two hours. (water)
4
III.A. ‘You had been living in the same house for 15 years. Now you are shifting to another house. Describe the
old house in 100-120 words. You can also add your own points with the cues given below.
Inputs: Place-special room-neighbourhood-favourite corner- house to home
B. You spent an entire day without electricity. Describe the experience in about 100-120 words based on the
following inputs. You can also add your own points.
Inputs: full of excitement – amusing – noisy – stream of passengers –tea and book stalls – vendors and hawkers –
variety of activities – never dull.
C. Given below are the hints of the famous athlete Jesse Owens. Write a description of him, taking help from the
given clues:
1913: Birth, Alabama, USA
1934: After I World War – goes to school, teachers recognise and develop his athletic talent
1935: Six World records
1936: Berlin Olympics, four gold medals
1950: Sports experts vote him Greatest Track Athlete of the half century 1960 : Another athlete breaks Owens last
Olympic record
1980: Dies of lung cancer
IV.A. Develop an interesting story in about 100-120 words with the help of the following outline given below.
Also give a suitable title. Your story should begin with this sentence –
The celebrated archer Guru Dronacharya taught the royal princes the finer points of archery. One day he wanted to
test………
Outline: Selected a tree in forest……. placed a wooden bird on a bare branch……. were to hit the bird in the
eye…… Yudhishthira stepped forward… ...................... “Can you see me?” asked Dronacharya. “Yes”, replied
Yudhishthira…… asked him to put down the bow ......... each prince replied the same……. asked to retire from the
competition…… finally came Arjuna
……. “Arjuna, do you see me?” asked Dronacharya. “I see only my target,” said Arjuna Arjuna hit the bird’s eye.
IV.B. Complete the story based on the outline given below in 100 - 120 words:
Late for examination – very tense – taxi driver drove fast – reached 35 minutes late – the invigilator ……….
V A. Your friend has behaved very selfishly in the canteen today, so you are very upset. Write a diary entry in i 100-
120 words expressing your feelings.
V B. You feel that speaking in English is the need of tire hour. As your parents are unable to do so, you feel a keen
desire to teach them. Write in about 100-120 words a page in your diary expressing how you will execute your plan.
Literature
VI.A. Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow:
I’m glad you ’re pleased to see me. I don’t think you ’ll be pleased for long. Put those paws up!
(a) Who is speaking these lines and to whom? Where is the conversation taking place?
(b) Why is ‘the speaker’ so sure that ‘his listener’ won’t be pleased for long?
(c) What does ‘paws’ mean here?
(d) Why is the speaker asking the listener ‘to put those paws up’?
VIII.B. Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow:
When the humid shadows hover
Over all the starry spheres
And the melancholy darkness
Gently weeps in rainy tears,
What a bliss to press the pillow
Of a cottage-chamber bed
And lie listening to the patter of the soft rain overhead!
1.Comment on the poet's use of language in the above poem in about 40 words.
2.Which of the following best describes the theme of the poem?
a. The exhilaration of a stormy night.
b. The solitude and peace found in nature.
c. The longing for escape from daily life.
d. The power and intensity of natural forces.
3. The poet's attitude towards the rain can be best described as:
a. Indifferent b. Appreciative c. Fearful d. Angry
4.What do the following phrase ‘humid shadows’ mean to you.
5.Which poetic device has been used in the last two lines?
6
New Horizon Public School, Airoli
Grade IX : Hindi : January 2025
Name: Roll No: ____
Date: Revision Worksheet
प्र.1) नीचे दिए गए गद्यांश को ध््यनपूर्क
व पढ़कर पछ
ू े गए प्रश्न कय उत्तर लिखिए।
लशर्यजी के बढ़ते प्रतयप से आतांककत बीजयपुर के शयसक आदििशयह जब लशर्यजी को
पकड़ न पयए, तो इनके पपतय शयहजी को ही गगरफ्तयर कर लि्य। पतय चिने पर लशर्यजी
आग बबि
ू य हो उठे । नीतत और सयहस से कयम िे छयपयमयरी कय सहयरय िेकर जल्िी ही पपतय
जी को मक्
ु त करय लि्य। तब बीजयपरु के शयसक ने इन्हें जीपर्त अथर्य मत
ृ पकड़कर ियने
कय आिे श िे कर अपने चस्
ु त और मक्कयर सेनयपतत अफजिियाँ को भेजय।उसने सि
ु ह और
भयईचयरे कय नयटक रचकर लशर्यजी को बयाँहों के घेरे में िेकर मयरनय चयहय, पर नीततज्ञ और
समझियर लशर्यजी के हयथ में तछपे बयघनिों कय लशकयर होकर स्र््ां मयरय ग्य । उसकी
सेनयएाँ लशर्यजी की सेनयओां के सयमने िम
ु िबयकर भयगने में पर्र्श हो गई। िक्षिण के रयज््ों
पर अपनय िबिबय बैठय िेने के बयि छत्रपतत लशर्यजी कय ध््यन उधर स्स्थत मुगिों के
अधीनस्थ रयज््ों की ओर ग्य। एक के बयि एक ककिय लशर्यजी के अधीन होते िे ि औरां गजेब
ने ज्पुर के महयरयजय ज्लसांह को लशर्यजी पर आक्रमण करने भेजय। र्े लशर्यजी को समझय-
बझ
ु य कर अपने सयथ आगरय िे गए िेककन लशर्यजी को उनकय ्ोग्् स्थयन िे ने के स्थयन
पर जब िस-बीस हजयर िरबयरर्ों के सयथ बैठयनय चयहय, तो इसे अपनय अपमयन समझकर
लशर्यजी िरबयर से चिे गए। औरां गजेब ने आगरय ककिे में इन्हें नजरबांि करर्य दि्य, िेककन
लशर्यजी भी कम नीततर्यन नहीां थे। ्े लमठयई के टोकरे में बैठ ककिे से बयहर आ गए, जहयाँ
घोड़े इनकी प्रतीिय कर रहे थे। उन पर सर्यर होकर चयियकी से मुगि रयज्् की सीमयएाँ पयर
करते हुए सुरक्षित अपने स्थयन पर आ पहुाँचे ।
1) बीजयपुर कय शयसक कौन थय ?
क) लशर्यजी ि) आदििशयह ग) शयहजी घ) अफ़जिियाँ
2) लशर्यजी ने अपने पपतयजी को कैसे छुड़र्य्य ?
क) धोिे से ि) िड़यई से ग) नीतत और सयहस घ) सभी सही है
3) बीजयपुर कय सेनयपतत कौन थय ?
क) लशर्यजी ि) आदििशयह ग) शयहजी घ) अफ़जिियाँ
4) औरां गजेब ने लशर्यजी को कहयाँ नज़र बांि कक्य?
क) िक्षिण ि) आगरय ग) बीजयपुर घ) इनमें से कोई नहीां
5) नीचे दिए गए कथन और कयरण को पढ़कर सही पर्कल्प चुनकर लिखिए।
कथन (A) – औरां गजेब ने ज्पुर के महयरयजय ज्लसांह को लशर्यजी पर आक्रमण करने
भेजय।
कयरण (R) – औरां गजेब लशर्यजी के बढ़ते प्रतयप से आतांककत थय और र्ह लशर्यजी को
सबक सीियनय चयहतय थय ।
क) कथन (A) और कयरण (R) िोनों सही है ।
ि) कथन (A) और कयरण (R) िोनों गित है।
ग) कथन (A) सही है परां तु कयरण (R) गित है ।
घ) कथन (A) और कयरण (R) िोनों सही है और कयरण (R) कथन (A) की सही
व््यख््य करतय है ।
ग) नीचे दिए गए शब्िों में उगचत स्थयन पर िगे अनुस्र्यर और अनुनयलसकय कय शब्ि कय
सही पर्कल्प चनकर लिखिए।
1) आिोिन - क) आन्िोिन ि) आन्िोिन ग) आिोिन घ) आिोिन
2) ढूढ़नय - क) ढूाँढनय ि) ढूनढ़नय ग) ढूहुाँनय घ) सभी सही है
3) सोपनय - क) सौपनय ि) सौनपनय ग) सौंपनय घ) सौंपयनय
4) शोधन - क) सनशोधन ि) सांशोधन ग) सशोधन घ) सम्शोधन
ङ्) नीचे दिए गए शब्िों में उगचत उपसगवर्यिय पर्कल्प चुनकर लिखिए।
1) आिोिन - क) आन्िोिन ि) आन्िोिन ग) आिोिन घ) आिोिन
2) ढूढ़नय - क) ढूाँढनय ि) ढूनढ़नय ग) ढूहुाँनय घ) सभी सही है
3) सोपनय - क) सौपनय ि) सौनपनय ग) सौंपनय घ) सौंपयनय
4) शोधन - क) सनशोधन ि) सांशोधन ग) सशोधन घ) सम्शोधन
ज) सांगध कीस्जए ।
1. महय + और्गध = ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ 5. मुतन +इांद्र = ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
2. रपर् + इांद्र = ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ 6. नै + इकय = ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
3. भयरत + इांि ु = ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ 7. पो + अन = ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
4. अभी + आगत = ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ 8. भयनु + उि् =¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
प्र.6) पत्रिेिन ।
1) भपर्ष्् में िसर्ीां के बयि क््य करनय चयहते हैं। इससे अर्गत करयते हुए अपने
मयमय जी को पत्र लिखिए।
2) अपने पपतय जी को पत्र लििकर बतयइए कक ग्रीष्मयर्कयश में आपने क््य-क््य
कय्वक्रम बनय्य है ?
3) आप िांबी िौड़ प्रतत्ोगगतय में रयज्् स्तर पर प्रथम आए हैं। रयज्् सरकयर
दर्यरय आ्ोस्जत कय्वक्रम में आपको मुख््मांत्री के हयथों पुरस्कृत कक्य जयनय है।
इस कय्वक्रम में शयलमि होने के लिए अपने ियिय जी को पत्र लिखिए।
3) 4)
New Horizon Public School, Airoli
Grade IX : Marathi : January 2025
Name: Roll No:
Date: Practice Work
p`.1´KalaIla ]tara kaLjaIpUva-k vaacaa va %yaavar AaQaairt ivacaarlaolyaa p`SnaaMcaI ]%tro ilaha.
jaga ha Kulaa ga`Mqa Aaho.jagaat jaovaZo AapNa ihMDala¹ifrala¸Ba`maNa krala¸p`vaasa krala va
jaovaZo jaga AapNa DaoLyaaMnaI pahala¸ vaacaala¸AnauBavaala va %yaabaabat kanaaMnaI eokala¸ tovaZI tumacyaa
&anaat¸laaOikkat Bar pDola.&anaacaI kxaa $Mdavaola¸vaOcaairk patLI vaaZola¸ mana ivaSaala haoNyaasa madt
hao[-la AaiNa sava- jagaakDo pahNyaacaa navaa dRiYTkaona tyaar hao[-la AaiNa mhNaUnaca jagaBar Ba`maNa krNao¸
p`vaasa krNao¸ ho &anaaja-naasaazI¸&anaavaRQdIsaazI¸&anaacaI kxaa $MdavaNyaasaazI A%yaMt AavaSyak Aaho.
p`vaasaanao AnauBavaivaSva samaRQd haoto.doSaaTna kolyaanao ina%ya naUtna AnauBava GaoNyaacaI duima-L saMQaI Aaplyaalaa
imaLto.Aaplyaa &anaoMid`yaaMcaa ]pyaaoga jaaNaIvapUva-k kolaa¸ tr Aaplyaa &anaat Bar pDto.ivacaaraMcaI
dovaaNa¹GaovaaNa¸laaoksaMga`h¸ laaokjaagaRtI¸&anasaMcaya yaa gaaoYTI Aaplyaalaa doSaaTnaanao laaBatat.
1´Kulaa ga`Mqa koaNaalaa mhTlao AahoÆ
2´&anaat va laaOikkat kovha Bar pDtoÆ
3´jagaBar Ba`maNa ka AavaSyak AahoÆ
4´doSaaTna kolyaanao Aaplyaalaa kaya imaLtoÆ
5´doSaaTnaanao Aaplyaalaa kaya kaya laaBatoÆ
6´p`vaasaanao AnauBavaivaSva samaRQd haoto.Æ
A´laaokjaagaRtI ba´AnauBavaivaSva k´vaOcaairk patLI D´laaoksaMga`h
7´samaanaaqaI- Sabd ilaha. A´dula-Ba¹ ba´saMpnna¹
8´iva$d\QaaqaI- Sabd. A´Aina%ya¹ ba´jaunaa ¹
9´vacana badlaa. A´gaaoYT¹ ba´ga`Mqa¹
10´]tayaatUna daona ivaSaoYaNa AaiNa SabdyaaogaI Avyaya SaaoQaUna ilaha.
p`.2´KalaIla Apizt pdya kaLjaIpUva-k vaacaa va %yaavar AaQaairt ivacaarlaolyaa p`SnaaMcaI ]%tro ilaha.
Aalao Aalao maoGa¸ kaLo Jaalao naBa
kuNaI klaMDlao saaMgaa¸ maoGaa 'AmaRtacao kuMBa²
caatko iTplaI¸ maOi@tko caaocaI
qaya qaya naacao Aaja¸ mana¹mayaur KuSaIt
ivarlao ]saasao¸ gaLlyaa sarIt
maRi%%akosaI gaMQa fuTo¸ ravaa Gaumatao ZaolaIt
vaahto AmaRt¸ KLKLtI AaoGa
Aalao Aalao tOsao gaolao¸ saaro ]Daoinayaa maoGa
1´kvaInao'AmaRtacao kuMBa'kaoNaalaa mhTlao AahoÆ
2´kivatot kSaacao vaNa-na kolaolaoo AahoÆ
3´caatkaMnaI caaocaIt kaya iTplaI Aahot Æ
4´kivatot kaoNa%yaa pxyaaMcaa ]llaoK kolaolaa AahoÆ
5´ iva$d\QaaqaI- Sabd ilaha. 1.ivaYa× ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ 2.duga-MQa × ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
p`. 2´kMsaat idlaolyaa saUcanaop`maaNao kra.
1´maaJao mana xaNaBar baQaIr Jaalao.³iËyaaivaSaoYaNa AaoLKa´
2´itsarI GaMTa GaNaNalaI ³saamaanyanaama AaoLKa´
3´maaNasaacyaa manaacaa kmakuvatpNaa %yaacyaa p`gatIlaa baaQak Asatao.³Baavavaacaknaama AaoLKa´
4´%yaacyaa caohyaavar samaaQaana idsat haoto. ³AQaaoroiKt SabdacaI jaat AaoLKa´
5´rmaoSa nadIt paohtao. ³BaUtkaL kra.´
6´SahaNapNa Aqavaa vaoDopNa ho zrvaayacao kaoNaIÆ ³]BayaanvayaI Avyaya AaoLKa´
7´vaahvaa²Ap`itma ica~ Aahot hI²³AQaaoroiKt SabdacaI jaat AaoLKa´
8´'ÌYNaajau-na' yaa saamaaisak Sabdacaa ivaga`h k$na samaasa AaoLKa.
9´'pasanaapasa' yaa saamaaisak Sabdacaa samaasa AaoLKa.
10´'gallaaogallaI' yaa saamaaisak Sabdacaa ivaga`h k$na samaasa AaoLKa.
11´'caaOGaDI' yaa saamaaisak Sabdacaa samaasa AaoLKa.
12´barovaa[-T p`saMga sagaLyaaMcyaa jaIvanaat yaotat.³vaa@yaatIla saamaaisak Sabd AaoLKa´
13´dova tuJao Balao krao²³vaa@yaacaa p`kar AaoLKa´
14´doSa ha dova maaJaa Asao maanaNaaro laaok Aahot.³vaa@yaacaa p`kar AaoLKa´
15´tulaa ho vaagaNao SaaoBat naahI.³p`SnaaqaI- vaa@ya kra´
16´tU iSastInao vaagaayalaa nakaosaƳivaQaanaaqaI- vaa@ya kra´
16´jaovha eKadyaa gaaoYTI ivaYayaI ivaQaana kolao jaato %yaa vaa@ya p`karasa ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ mhNatat.
p`.3A´AQaaoroiKt SabdaMcaI jaat AaoLKa.
1´maulao fulao gauMft haotI.
2´SaaMta pustk vaacat haotI.
3´Aro² ha kaya p`kar Aaho
4´tuJyaasaarKI s~I ivarLa…..
5´p`vaasaI baMgalaa javaLca haota.
6´AaMQaLa saurdasa ha ]%%ama kvaI haota.
ba´yaaogya pyaa-ya inavaDa.
1´'baOla'yaa Sabdacaa samaanaaqaI- Sabd kaoNataÆ
A´$YaBa ba´?Ya k´vaRYaBa D´rIYaBa
2´KalaIlapOkI gaTat na basaNaara Sabd kaoNataÆ
A´AitSaya ba´nama`ta k´jalad D´naohmaI
3´KalaIlapOkI AnaokvacanaI Sabd AaoLKUna ilahaÆ
A´kaTa ba´laakUD k´ pxaI D´icaMQaI
4´KalaIlapOkI iBannailaMgaI Sabd AaoLKUna ilahaÆ
A´idSaa ba´vasaMt k´caunarI D´kLI
5´KalaIlapOkI gaTat na basaNaar ekvacanaI Sabd kaoNataÆ
A´baaMbaU ba´rMga k´tukDa D´kivata
k´kMsaat idlaolyaa yaaogya vaa@p`caaraMcaa vaa@yaat ]pyaaoga kra va vaa@ya punha ilaha.
³]kLyaa fuTNao ¸maayaocaI paKr GaalaNao¸samaupdoSa krNao KUp AanaMd haoNao´
1´puZIla iSaxaNaasaazI maaJyaa Aa[-vaiDlaaMnaI malaa yaaogya sallaa idlaa.
2´prIxaot malaa caaMgalao gauNa imaLalao mhNaUna malaa KUp AanaMd Jaalaa.
3´Aa[- naohmaI Aaplyaa maulaaMvar p`oma krto.
p`.4A´irkamyaa jaagaI yaaogya pyaa-ya inavaDUna vaa@ya punha ilaha.
1´p`%yaok ivaYayaacyaa naaoMdIcaI ¯¯¯¯¯¯ inaiScat kolaI jaatat.
2´ iSaxaNaalaa sau$vaat haoNyaaAaQaI maaJaI Avasqaa %yaa Qau@yaat saapDlaolyaa ¯¯¯¯¯¯ haotI.
3´EaI.gaaoLIvaDokr Kro ¯¯¯¯¯¯ iSaxak.
4´ijavaalaa BaUla paDNaara ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
5´kakrat ibajavaa[- jasaM hasarM ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯.
6´vhoinasa mhNajao AfaT ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ .
7´Annaacao ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ hIca sqalaaMtracaImaUL p`orNaa Aaho.
8´ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ AQyaxaaMnaI eiDnasacaa sanmaana kolaa.
ba´eka vaa@yaat ]%%aro ilaha.
1´AaQauinak kaLat pxyaaMcyaa sqalaaMtracaI kaoNa%yaa yaM~NaomauL maaihtI imaLtoÆ
2´naanaaMsamaaor vaajavaNyaat iSarIYalaa maaokLopNaa ka vaaTt navhtaÆ
3´AajaIcyaa gaaoYTIcaI kaoNatI vaOiSaYTyao haotIÆ
4´gaavaatIla ja~ocao naava kaya haotoÆ
5´ilaMbaaoNaInao kaoNa%yaa rMgaacaI vas~o GaatlaI AahotÆ
6´AaMvyaacyaa maaohratUna kaoNaacaI saurola tana eokU yaotoÆ
7´Baartat jama-naItUna yaoNaar pxaI kaoNataÆ
8´igayaa-raohkaMcyaa maagao jaaNaara pxaI kaoNataÆ
9´vaIja r@tat iBanaavaI yaacaa Aqa- kaya haotaoÆo
10´ivasaravaI ASaI kaya AahoÆ
11´AaoTI kuzo baaMQalaI AahoÆ
12´paNyaat iBajalaolao ZokUL ksao vaaTtoÆ
13´[Mga`jaI tK-DkarMcao BaaYaaMtr iSakvaNaaro kaoNato daona iSaxak haotoÆ
14´kaoNato maastr iSastIcao Baao@to haotoÆ
15´holar kolar yaaMnaa iSakvaNayaa baa[-Mcao naava kaya haotoÆ
p`.1A´ idlaolaa ]tara kaLjaIpUva-a-k vaacaUna %yaaKalaI idlaolyaa p`SnaaMcaI ]%%aro ilaha.
tM~&ana AaiNa maaNasaacao jaIvana yaa eka naaNyaacyaa daona baajaU Aahot.p`gatIcyaa naSaot maaNaUsa
tM~&anaacaa gaulaama kQaI Jaalaa kLlaoca naahI.Aaja sakaLIca ]ztaca hatat yaoNaa¹yaa ba`SapasaUna to
svayaMpakGaratIla Saas~Iya ]pkrNao¸hatat maaobaa[-la¸[maartItUna KalaI yaayalaa ilaFT ¸gaaDIt e.saI.¸
Aa^fIsamaQyao vaaprNyaat yaoNaaro ivaivaQa AaQauinak tM~&ana ¹vastU ¸]pkrNao¹ASaa p`%yaok xaNaalaa AamhI
tM~&anaavar AvalaMbaUna Aahaot.pNa satt saMgaNakasamaaor ¸maaobaa[-lamaQyao rmalaolaI AajacaI ipZI paihlao kI¸
vaaTto kaoNaI kaoNaalaa janmaalaa Gaatlao Aaho.ba¹yaaca gaaoYTI tM~&anaanao haot naahIt .]da.naatI japNao¸
kuTuMvaatlyaa maaNasaaMcaa ekmaokaMSaI snaoh¸saMvaad¸baMQa yaa gaaoYTI vaaZ%yaa tM~&anaacyaa vaapranao maagao pDt
Aahot.iktI Aa[-vaiDlaaMnaa Aaplaa maulagaa maaobaa[-lavar kaya krtao ho maahIt AsatoÆkuzohI jaa¸
kaoNa%yaahI vayaacaI maaNasao baGaa satt maaobaa[-la AaiNa vaa^T\saA^pvar.barocada naatovaa[-kaMcyaa BaoTI
GaoNyaapoxaa AapNa faonavar baaolaUna tI BaoT qaaMbavatao.yaamauLo tM~&anaacao duYpirNaama AapNa Baaogatao
Aahaot.pravalaMbaI jaIvana¸ vaacana kmaI Jaalaolao Aaho.maaNaUsa svatÁca ek yaM~ Jaalaolaa Aaho.
.1´´ ]ta¹yaacyaa AaQaaro KalaIla p`SnaaMcaI eka vaa@yaat ]%%aro ilaha.
P`a.1
1´ekaca naaNyaacyaa daona baajaU kaoNa%yaa AahotÆ
2´AajacaI ipZI kSaat rmalaI Aaho Æ
3´tM~&anaacyaa AitvaapramauLo maaNasaat kaya badla Jaalaa Aaho Æ
4´']nnatI' yaa Sabdacaa samaanaaqaI- Sabd ilaha.
5´'gaaDI' yaa Sabdacaa ilaMga AaoLKa.
6´'svaavalaMbaI' yaa Sabdacaa iva$QdaqaI- Sabd ilaha.
P`a.2A
.2A´KalaIla p`SnaaMcaI eka vaa@yaat ]%%aro ilaha.
1´prIxaocyaa inakalaacyaa dRYTInao kaoNaI SaaLocaI caaMgalaI p`gatI kolaI Æ
2´SaaLocaI dusarI GaMTa haotaca hoDmaastr EaI.naa[-k sar kaya krt Asat Æ
3´pxyaaMcyaa baabatIt savaa-t istimat krNaarI gaaoYT kaoNatIÆ
4´rayagaavakr maastr laoKkaMnaa paahUna kaya mhNaalao Æ
5´Baartat AsaM#ya jaatIcao pxaI kaoNa%yaa ?tUcyaa AarMBaI yao} laagatatÆ
P`a.2ba´ P`a 2ba´yaaogya pyaa-
pyaa-yaya SaaoQaUna vaa@ya pUNa-a- kra.³kaO
kra.³kaOSalya ¸p`orNaa ¸ivakaranao ¸ihvaaLI ¸tra$na ´
1´Anna na imaLNao hIca sqalaaMtramaagacaI maUL ………………… Aaho.
2´dmyaacyaa ……………………… %yaaMnaa kQaI¹kQaI ~asa vhayacaa.
3´KoLat¹maOdanaat jaat na paahta ………………………pahavao .
4´fulaJaaDM¹fLJaaDM …………………………… ]BaI rahat haotI.
5´yauraopat ihvaaLyaamaQyao pxaI kparIMmaQyao …………………… Jaaop kaZt Asatat.
P`a.2k´
.2k´yaaogya pyaa-
pyaa-yaya inavaDUna ivaQaanao pUNa-a- kra.
1´AamhI maulaM vayaanaM tsaMca ………………………
A´AaDdaMD maaozaD. ba´majabaUt kNaKr. k´haDa¹ipMDanao maaozaD. D´baaMQaa maaozaD.
2´laoKkaMnaa yaSa imaLNaar yaacaI …………………
A´Ka~I haotI. ba´maaihtI haotI k´samaja haotI D´klpnaa haotI.
P`a.3A´samaanaaqaI
.3A´samaanaaqaI-
A´samaanaaqaI- Sabd ilaha.
1´maaga-dSa-na ¹ 2´dRYTI ¹ 3´ksaba ¹ 4´kYTaLU ¹ 5´Qaak¹ 6´AakYa-Na ¹
Aa´iva$QdaqaI
Aa´iva$QdaqaI-
´iva$QdaqaI- Sabd ilaha.
1´saulaT × 2´qaMD × 3´KUp × 4´baarIk × 5´maagaIla × 6´p`gatI×
[´ilaM
[´ilaMga AaoLKa.
Ka.
1´foTa ¹ 2´k^maora ¹ 3´yaa~a ¹ 4´Anna ¹ 5´baf- ¹ 6´pqak¹
[-´ vacana badlaa.
1´maula ¹ 2´maOdana ¹ 3´idvasa ¹ 4´ima~ ¹ 5´JaaD ¹ 6´pMK ¹
P`a.4´
.4´KalaIla vaa@yaatIla kaL AaoLKa.
1´jao doSaasaazI laZlao to Amar huta%mao Jaalao.
2´tanaajaI isaMhasaarKa laZlaa.
3´caaMgalao gauNa imaLvaNyaasaazI maI AByaasa krIna.
4´caaorIcyaa saMSayaamauLo rajaanao nat-kaMnaa kOdot zovalao haoto.
5´AajaInao baagaot forfTka maarlaa haota.
P`a.5´KalaIla
.5´KalaIla vaa@yaatIla ivaSaoYaNa AaoLKa.
1´kMpaasa Gyaayalaa Aa[-nao malaa SaMBar $pyao idlao.
2´ta[-nao malaa navaa sadra idlaa.
3´baagaot TvaTvaIt fulao Aahot.
4´Aamha maulaaMsaazI vaogaLI talaIma haotI.
5´iSavaajaI maharaja praËmaI rajao haoto.
P`a.6´
.6´KaalaIla vaa@yaatIla iËyaapd
iËyaapd AaoLKa.
1´ho gaaNao lata maMgaoSakr yaaMnaI gaayalao.
2´GarapasaUna iSaxaNaalaa sau$vaat haoto.
3´Aa[- malaa pa^ikTmanaIcao pOsao doto to maI saazvaUna zovato.
4´rmaa SaaLocyaa maOdanaat KoLto.
5´Baartanao saamanaa ijaMklaa .
New Horizon Public School, Airoli
Grade IX : Sanskrit : January 2025
Name: Roll No:
Date: Practice Work
1 AQaaoilaiKtma\
laiKtma\ AnaucCodM piz%vaa p`Snaana\
naana\ ]<art.
pSya.t~ ekma\ ]Vanama\ Aist.]VanaM na kovalaM saundrma\ Aip tu ivaSaalama\ Aip Aist.janaa:
na kovalaM manaaorHjanaaya Aip tu ivaEaamaaya ica<asya Aah\laadaya Sauwpvanaaya ca ]VanaoYau
Ba`maint.t~ ]nnata: vaRxaa: manaaohraiNa puYpaiNa KgaanaaM ca maQaurQvaina: savao-Bya: jaIvaoBya: sadOva
sauKma\ eva yacCint. Qanyaaina etadRSaaina ]Vanaaina.
A ekpdona ]%trt ¹
³i´ ]Vanao kIdRSaa: vaRxaa: saintÆ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
2 rmaoSasya Anauja: Atula: Ambaalaanagaro Ca~avaasao inavasait. rmaoSaona samayasya sadupyaaogaaya Atulaaya ilaiKtma\
ilaiKtma\
[dM p~M maHjaUYaayaaM p`d<aO: SabdO: pUriya%vaa ]<arpuistkayaaM ilaKt.
maHjaUYaa − ³ inarqa-
inarqa-k:¸
k:¸ Aga`ja:¸ SauBaaSaIYa:¸ idllaInagart:¸ mah<vapUNa-a-ma\mama\¸ samayasya¸ pScaa<aapma\
pScaa<aapma\¸
Ixaama\¸ t~astu´
Bavaint¸ p`tIxaama\
³ i´¯¯¯¯¯
itiqa: ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
ip`ya Atula¸
³ ii´¯¯¯¯¯.
A~ kuSalaM ³iii´¯¯¯¯¯ .AtulaÑ maanavajaIvanasya p`itplaM ³ iv´¯¯¯¯¯ Aist.ivaSvao p`kRto:
sampUNaa-ina kayaa-iNa inayaimatsamayao ³v´¯¯¯¯¯.]icatsamayao yaid vaRiYT: na Bavaot\ tda sava-M xao~M SauYyaot\.
tqaOva baalyakalao yaid Ca~: na pzit tda eYa: samastjaIvanao³vi´¯¯¯¯¯ kraoit.samaya: tsya eva
janasya kayao-Yau sahBaaigataM kraoit ya: ³vii´¯¯¯¯¯ sadupyaaogaM kraoit. gato kalao
Saaok:³viii´¯¯¯¯¯. samaya: kdaip ksyaicadip ³ ix´¯¯¯¯¯ na kraoit.At: sada samayasya
sadupyaaoga: krNaIya:.
Bavat: ³x´¯¯¯¯¯
rmaoSa:.
3º maHjaUYaayaaM p`d<apdanaaM sahayatyaa ica~vaNa-
ica~vaNa-naMnaM ku$t.
maHjaUYaa − nar:¸ ]Vanama\¸ baailaka¸ baalak:¸ vaRxaa:¸ gaRhma\¸ p~aiNa¸ sammaaija-naI¸ Avakr:¸ maoGa:¸
vaYa-it¸ Kga:.
maHjaUYaa − nadI¸ tDaga:¸ vaYaa-¸ vaRxaa:¸ jalama\ eva jaIvanama\¸ sadupyaaoga: ¸ duÉpyaaoga: na krNaIya:¸
jalacara:¸ p`itxaNama\ AavaSyakma\¸ Apvyayaat\ duiBa-xa:¸AvakrxaopNaM¸ kRiYakRto AavaSyak:.
6º ]ccaarNasqaanama\
]ccaarNasqaanama\
³ i´ ‘Qa\’ vaNa-sya ]ccaarNasqaanama\ ikmaist Æ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
³ ii´ ‘smaRit:’ [it pdo maUQa-nyavaNa-: k: Aist Æ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
³ iii´ ]icatM vaNa-ma\ ica%vaa vaNa-ivacCodo ir@tsqaanapUit-M kuÉt.
Pa`itYza Ä p\ + ÖÖÖ + A + t\ + [ + Ya\ + z\ + Aa ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
³ iv´ vaNa-saMyaaojanama\ kuÉt. Sa\ + A + k\ + t\ + [ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
³ v´ ‘z\’ vaNa-sya ]ccaarNasqaanama\ ikmaist Æ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
³ vi´ ‘e’ vaNa-sya ]ccaarNasqaanama\ ikmaist Æ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
³ vii´ ‘ga\’ vaNa-sya ]ccaarNasqaanama\ ikmaist Æ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
³ viii´ ‘Anant:’ [it pdo kNz\yavaNa-: k: Aist Æ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
³ ix´ ‘vaja`:’ [it pdo dntaoYzvaNa-: k: Aist Æ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
³ x´ vaNa-saMyaaojanama\ kuÉt.p\ + r\ + [ + Sa\ + r\ + A + ma\ + e + Na\ + A ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
12 ]icatSabd
]icatSabd$pO
Sabd$pO: ir@tsqaanaaina pUryat.
³ i´ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯³iSaSau´ gaRho Kolaint.
³ ii´ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ³calaica~pTgaRho´ kit janaa: Aasana\Æ
³ iii´ maaga-sya ]pir Wo ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯³maihlaa´ vaata-laapM kuÉt:.
³ iv´ to ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ kumBaM rcayaint.³hst´
³v´ ica~kar: ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ ³Ambaa´ ica~M rcayait.
13 ]icatavyayapdO
]icatavyayapdO: ir@tsqaanaaina pUryat.
³pura¸ vaRqaa¸ Sva: ¸ kda´
³ i´ maUKa-: janaa: saMsaaro ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ jalpint.
³ ii´ AhM ivaValayaM ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ gacCaimaÆ
³ iii´ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ Kolanaaya gaimaYyaaima.
³ iv´ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯ rama: naama raja ABavat\.
14 AQaaoilaiKtma\
laiKtma\ gaVaMSaM piz%vaa p`Snaana\
naana\ ]<art.
]<art.
ikntu baalasya A~ rxak: naaist. tt\ ikM kraoimaÆ Bavatu icarkalapailatma\ [maM pu~inaiva-SaoYaM nakulaM
baalarxaayaaM vyavasqaaPya gacCaima. tqaa kR%vaa gat:. ttstona nakulaona baalasamaIpma\ ]psap-na\ kRYNasap-:
dRYT:.sa tM vyaapaV KNDSa: kRtvaana\. A~antro ba`a*maNaao|ip EaawM gaRih%vaa gaRhma\ ]pavaR<a:. ba`a*maNaM
dRYT\vaa nakula: r@tivailaPtmauKpad: tsya carNayaao: Alauzt\.
A ekpdona ]%trt ¹
³i´ nakulaona baalasamaIpma\ ]psap-na\ k: dRYT:Æ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
³ii´ ksya A~ rxak: naaistÆ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
Aa pUNa-a-vaa@yao
vaa@yaona]%trt ¹
³i´ ba`a*maNa: ikM gaRih%vaa gaRhma\ ]pavaR<a:Æ
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
[ BaaiYakkaya-
BaaiYakkaya-ma\mama\ ¹
³i´ ‘pu~inaiva-SaoYaM nakulaM’ A~ ivaSaoYyapdM ikma\Æ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
³ii´ ‘]psap-na\’ [it pdo k: p`%yaya: A~ p`yau@t:Æ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
15 AQaaoilaiKtma\
laiKtma\ pVaMSaM piz%vaa p`Snaana\
naana\ ]<art.
]<art.
gaaOrvaM p``aPyato danaat\ na tu iva<asya saHcayaat\.
isqaitÉccaO: pyaaodanaaM pyaaoQaInaamaQa: isqait:..
A ekpdona ]%trt ¹
³i´ gaaOrvaM ksmaat\ p`aPyatoÆ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
³ii´ ksya saHcayaat\ gaaOrvama\ na p`aPyato Æ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
Aa pUNa-a-vaa@yao
vaa@yaona]%trt ¹
³i´ koYaaM isqait: AQa: AistÆ
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
[ BaaiYakkaya-
BaaiYakkaya-ma\mama\ ¹
³i´ ‘pyaaodanaama\’ [it pdo ka ivaBai@t p`yau@taÆ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
³ii´ ‘gaaOrvaM p``aPyato danaat\ na tuººº’ A~ AvyayapdM ikma\Æ ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
16 roKa=\
a=\iktpdanaaM
iktpdanaaM p`sa=\
a=\gaanau
gaanausaarma\
aarma\ ]icatma\
]icatma\ Aqa-
Aqa-ma\mama\ ivaklpoBya: icanaut.
³ i´ yaid sa%varM na gacCaima tda Anya: kiScat\ Eaawaqa-M vaRt: Bavaot\.
³A´ saai%vakma\ ³ba´ SaIGa`ma\ ³k´ sada
³ ii´ pyaaodanaaM isqait: ]ccaO: Bavait.
³A´ ]pir ³ba´ AQa: ³k´ vaamat:
³ iii´ sa: BaUpit: SlaaokWyaM Eautvaana\.
³A´ Bata- ³ba´ raGava: ³k´ rajaa
³ iv´ nyaga`aoQaflama\ Aahr.
Aahr
³A´ Aanaya ³ba´ naya ³k´ hr
A) 0 B) ¼ C) ½ D) 1/√2
18. A point (x + 2, x + 4) lies in the first quadrant, the mirror image for which for x-axis is (5, –7). What is the
value of x?
A) (–5, –7) B) (–5, 7) C) (5, –7) D) (5, 7)
19. The perpendicular distance of a point P (5, 8) from the y-axis is:
A) 5 B) 8 C) 3 D) 13
20. The distance of the points (5, 0) and (–3, 0) from x-axis is:
A) -3 B) 5 C) 0 D) 2
21. The mirror of a point (3, 4) on y-axis is:
A) (3, 4) B) (–3, 4) C) (3, –4) D) (–3, –4)
22. Abscissa of a point is positive in:
A) I and II quadrants B) I and IV quadrants C) I quadrant only D) II quadrant only
23. If a linear equation has solutions (–3, 3), (0, 0) and (3, –3), then it is of the form:
A) y – x = 0 B) x + y = 0 C) –2x + y = 0 D) –x + 2y = 0
24. The equation y = 5, in two variables, can be written as:
A) 1 .x + 1 .y = 5 B) 0 .x + 0 .y = 5 C) 1 .x + 0 .y = 5 D) 0 .x + 1 .y = 5
25. Find the number of solutions of the following pair of linear equations. x + 2y – 8 = 0 and 2x + 4y = 16:
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) infinite
26. Proved statements based on deductive reasoning, by using postulates and axioms are known as:
A) Statement only B) A Proposition only C) A Theorem only D) Both Proposition and Theorem
27. The number of Euclid’s postulates is (are):
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
28. The number of interwoven isosceles triangles in Sriyantra (in the Atharvaveda) is:
A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10
29. In ancient India, the shapes of altars used for household rituals were:
A) Squares and circles B) Triangles and rectangles C) Trapeziums and pyramids D) Rectangles and
squares
30. If x + y =10 then x + y + z = 10 + z. Then the Euclid’s axiom that illustrates this statement
is:
A) First axiom B) Second axiom C) Third axiom D) Fourth axiom
31. A solid has __________dimensions.
A) one B) two C) three D) zero
32. The first known proof that ‘the circle is bisected by its diameter’ was given by:
A) Pythagoras B) Thales C) Euclid D) Hypatia
33. In the given figure, if AOB is a line then the measure of ∠BOC, ∠COD and ∠DOA respectively are:
A) 36o, 54o, 90o B) 36o, 90o, 54o C) 90o, 36o, 54o D) 90o, 54o, 36o
37. In triangles ABC and DEF, AB = FD and ∠A = ∠D. The two triangles will be congruent by SAS axiom if:
A) BC = EF B) AC = DE C) AC = EF D) BC = DE
38. In triangles ABC and PQR, AB = AC, ∠C = ∠P and ∠B = ∠Q. The two triangles are:
A) Isosceles but not congruent B) Isosceles and congruent C) Congruent but not isosceles D) Neither
congruent nor isosceles
39. ABC is an isosceles triangle in which altitudes BE and CF are drawn to equal sides AC and AB respectively.
Then:
A) BE>CF B) BE<CF C) BE=CF D) None of the above
40. If ABC and DBC are two isosceles triangles on the same base BC. Then:
A) ∠ABD = ∠ACD B) ∠ABD > ∠ACD C) ∠ABD > ∠ACD D) None of the above
41. Two sides of a triangle are of length 5 cm and 1.5 cm. The length of the third side of the triangle cannot
be:
A) 3.6 cm B) 4.1 cm C) 3.8 cm D) 6.9
42. In the given figure, PS is the median then ∠QPS?
A) 40o B) 50o C) 80o D) 90o
43. In triangle PQR if ∠Q = 90°, then:
A) PQ is the longest side B) QR is the longest side C) PR is the longest side D) None of these
44. If ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD and AD = BC, then:
A) ∠A = ∠B B) ∠A > ∠B C) ∠A < ∠B D) None of the above
45. The angles of quadrilateral are in the ratio 4:5:10:11. The angles are:
A) 36°, 60°, 108°, 156° B) 48°, 60°, 120°, 132° C) 52°, 60°, 122°, 126° D) 60°, 60°, 120°, 120°
46. The quadrilateral whose all its sides are equal and angles are equal to 90 degrees, it is called:
A) Rectangle B) Square C) Kite D) Parallelogram
47. Equal _____ of the congruent circles subtend equal angles at the centers.
A) Segments B) Radii C) Arcs D) Chords
48. If AB and CD are two chords of a circle intersecting at point E, as per the given figure. Then:
A) BEQ > ∠CEQ B) ∠BEQ = ∠CEQ C) ∠BEQ < ∠CEQ D) None of the above
49. If there are two separate circles drawn apart from each other, then the maximum number of common
points they have:
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
50. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 and its perimeter is 300 cm. Its area will be:
A) 1000√3 sq.cm B) 1500√3 sq.cm C) 1700√3 sq.cm D) 1900√3 sq.cm
51. The equal sides of isosceles triangle are 12 cm and perimeter is 30 cm. The area of this triangle is:
A) 9√15 sq.cm B) . 6√15 sq.cm C) . 3√15 sq.cm D) √15 sq.cm.
52. The Curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 4.4 sq.cm. The radius of the base is 0.7 cm. The height
of cylinder will be:
A) 2 cm B) 3 cm C) 1 cm D) 1.5 cm
53. The radius of a sphere is 2r, then its volume will be
A) (4/3) πr3 B) 4πr3 C) (8/3) πr3 D) (32/3) πr3
54. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class is 10 and the width of the class is 6. The upper limit of
the class is:
A) 6 B) 7 c) 10 D) 13
55. Let m be the mid-point and 1 be the lower-class limit of a class in a continuous frequency distribution. The
upper class limit of the class is:
A) 2m + l B) 2m – l C) m – l D) m – 2l
56. Write the following number in decimal form
3
a) 3 8
2
b) 13
327
c) 500
11
d) 17
2 1
57. Find three rational numbers between − 5 , − 5
58. Represent √(9.3) on the number line.
59. Rationalise the denominator of 1/[7+3√3].
60. Simplify :(10+√3)(6+√2)
𝑝
61. Express 23.43434343…. in form, where p and q are integers q≠0
𝑞
62. Factorise :125x3 64y3
–
63. If p(x)= x2 – 2√2x+1, then find the value of p(2√2)
64. Show that p – 1 is a factor of p10 + p8 + p6 – p4 – p2 – 1.
65. If 3x + 2y = 12 and xy = 6, find the value of 27x3 + 8y3
66. Prove that (a + b + c)3 – a3 – b3 – c3 = 3(a + b) (b + c) (c + a).
67. If x – 3 is a factor of x2 – 6x + 12, then find the value of k. Also, find the other factor of the – polynomial for
this value of k.
68. Find a and b so that the polynomial x3– 10x2 + ax + b is exactly divisible by the polynomials (x – 1) and
(x – 2).
69. If (x – a) is a factor of the polynomials x2 + px – q and x2 + rx – t, then prove that a = t−qr−p
70. If a teacher divides a material of volume 27x3 + 54x2 + 36x + 8 cubic units among three students. Is it possible
to find the quantity of material? Can you name the shape of the figure teacher obtained? Which value is
depicted by the teacher?
71. Plot the following points and write the name of the figure obtained by joining them in order: P (- 3, 2),
Q (- 7, – 3), R (6, – 3), S (2,2).
72. According to given question, we have to plot the points (2, 4), (4, 2), (-3, 0), (-2, 5), (3, – 3) and (0, 0) on
graph, which is shown as follows:
73. Plot the following points and check whether they are collinear or not:
i) (1, 3), (-1, -1), (-2, -3)
ii) (1, 1), (2, -3), (-1, -2)
iii) (0, 0), (2, 2), (5, 5)
74. Points A (5, 3), B (-2, 3) and O (5, – 4) are three vertices of a square ABCD. Plot these points on a graph paper
and hence find the coordinates of the vertex C.
75. Express x/4 – 3y = – 7 in the form of ax + by + c = 0.
76. Find the value of k for which x = 0, y — 8 is a solution of 3x – 6y = k.
77. Express x in term of y: x/7 + 2y = 6
78. Find the two solutions of the linear equation 2x – 3y = 12.
79. If we multiply or divide both sides of a linear equation with a non-zero number, then what will happen to
the solution of the linear equation?
80. In an one day international cricket match, Raina and Dhoni together scored 198 runs. Express the
statement as a linear equation in two variables.
81. Find the value of m, if (5,8) is a solution of the equation 11 x-2y = 3m, then find one more solution of this
equation.
82. Find four solutions of 2x-y = 4.
83. Let y varies directly as x. If y = 12 when x = 4, then write a linear equation. What is the value of when x
= 5?
84. Write four solutions for each of the following equations:
i) 2x + y = 7
ii) πx + y = 9
iii) x = 4y
85. Solve the equation a – 15 =25 and state which axiom use here.
86.Ram and Ravi have the same weight have the same weight. If they each gain weight by 2 kg,
how will the new weights be compared?
87. In figure, if lines PQ and RS intersect at point T, such that ∠ PRT = 40°, ∠ RPT = 95°
and ∠TSQ = 75°, find ∠SQT .
88. In figure, if PQ ⊥ PS, PQ||SR, ∠SQR = 2S° and ∠QRT = 65°, then find the values of x
and y.
.
89. In figure, the side QR of ∆PQR is produced to a point S. If the bisectors of ∠PQR
and ∠PRS meet at point, then prove that
90. In figure, PQ and RS are two mirrors placed parallel to each other. An incident ray AB
strikes the mirror PQ at B, the reflected ray moves along the path BC and strikes
the mirror RS at C and again reflects back along CD. Prove that AB || CD.
91. ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AD = BC and ∠DAB = ∠CBA. Prove that
i) ΔABD ≅ ΔBAC
ii) BD = AC
iii) ∠ABD = ∠BAC.
93. l and m are two parallel lines that are intersected by another pair of parallel lines, p and q. show that
△ABC ≅ △CDA.
94. AB is a line segment and P is its mid-point. D and E are points on the same
side of AB such that ∠BAD = ∠ABE and ∠EPA = ∠DPB. Show that
(i) ΔDAP ≅ ΔEBP
(ii) AD = BE
95. Show that in a right-angled triangle, the hypotenuse is the longest side.
96. In an isosceles triangle ABC, where AB = AC, the bisectors of B and C are intersecting each other at O. Join A to O.
Show that: OB = OC.
97. AD and BC are equal perpendiculars to line segment AB. Show that CD bisects AB.
98. Find all the angles of a parallelogram if one angle is 80°.
99. In a given rectangle, one diagonal is inclined to one of its sides at 25°. Calculate the acute angle between
the two diagonals.
100. Prove that the angle bisectors of a parallelogram form a rectangle.
101. In a given trapezium ABCD, AB∥CD. Measure ∠C and ∠D if ∠A = 55° and ∠B = 70°.
102. Show that the diagonals of a square are equal and bisect each other at right angles.
103. Quadrilateral ABCD is the required rhombus. Express that diagonal AC bisects ∠A as well as ∠C, and
diagonal BD bisects ∠B as well as ∠D.
104. Quadrilateral ABCD is the required rectangle in which diagonal AC bisects ∠A as well as ∠C. Express
That i) ABCD is the required square ii) The required diagonal BD bisects ∠B as well as ∠D.
105. P is the required mid-point of the given side CD of a parallelogram ABCD. A necessary line through C
parallel to PA intersects AB at Q and DA produced at R. Verify that DA = AR and CQ = QR.
106. D, E and F are, respectively, the mid-points of the sides AB, BC and CA of ABC. Verify
that by joining these required mid-points D, E and F, the triangles ABC is divided
into four given congruent triangles.
107. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle with chords AP and BP being
produced to R and Q respectively. If ∠QPR = 35°, find the measure of ∠AOB.
108. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. PQ is a chord of the circle
and R is any point on the circle. If ∠PRQ = l and ∠OPQ = m, then find l + m.
109. In the given figure, if O is the centre of circle and ∠POQ = 110°, then find ∠PRQ
110. Equal chords of a circle subtend equal angles at the centre.
111. If the angles subtended by the chords of a circle at the centre are equal,
then chords are equal.
112. O is the centre of the circle and ∠ABC= 45°. Show that OA⊥OC
113. In the given figure, P is the centre of the circle. Prove that : ∠ XPZ = 2(∠ XZY +∠ YXZ)
114. A circular park of radius 10 m is situated in a colony. Three students Ashok,
Raman and Kanaihya are standing at equal distances on its circumference each having
a toy telephone in his hands to talk each other about Honesty, Peace and Discipline.
(i) Find the length of the string of each phone.
(ii) Write the role of discipline in students’ life.
115. Three scouts Rajat, Rohit and Ramit in the cultural show holded three stringed balloons with a message
‘Stop Child Labour’. Keeping themselves on the boundary of a circle of radius 25 cm, each scout holded
the string tightly. Find the distance between Rajat and Ramit, when distance between Rajat and Rohit
and Rohit and Ramit is 30 cm. What message was given by scouts and why ?
116. The perimeter of any equilateral triangle is 60 m. Find the area.
117. The area of the equilateral triangle with sides 2√3 cm.
118. An isosceles right triangle has an estimated area 8cm2. Find the length of its hypotenuse.
119. Find the total cost of levelling the ground in the form of a triangle with sides of 16m, 12m and 20m at
Rs. 4 per sq. meter.
120. A rhombus-shaped sheet with a perimeter of 40 cm and one diagonal of 12 cm is painted on both sides
at the rate of 5 per m2. Find the cost of painting.
121. The sides of a given quadrilateral ABCD are 6cm,8cm,12cm, and 14cm (taken in order), respectively,
and the angle between the first two sides is a right angle. Find its area.
122. An umbrella was made by stitching 10 triangular pieces of cloth of 5 different colours, each piece
measuring 20cm, 50cm and 50cm. How much cloth is required for each colour of one umbrella?
123. The area of an equilateral triangle is 20√3 cm2, and each side is 8 cm.
124. The triangular side walls of a given flyover have been used for advertisements. The measurements of
the sides of the walls are 13 m, 14 m, and 15 m. The advertisements bring in Rs 2000 per m2 per
year. A company hired one of the walls for a term of 6 months. How much rent did it pay for it?
125. A rhombus-shaped field has green grass for 18 cows to graze. If each of the sides of the rhombus is 30 m
and the longer diagonal is 48 m, how much area of the grass field will each cow get to graze?
126. The perimeter of a given isosceles triangle is 32 cm. Given the ratio of the equal side to its base is 3: 2.
Find the area of the given triangle.
127. The sides of a quadrangular field are 29m,36m,7m, and 24m, respectively. The angle, as contained by
the last two sides, is a right angle. Find its area.
128. A particular right circular cylinder encloses a sphere of radius r. Find out
i) surface area of the given sphere,
ii) curved surface area of the given cylinder
iii) ratio of the given areas obtained in (i) and (ii)
129. Find out the volume of the given right circular cone with (Assume π = 22/7)
(i) the radius is 6cm, height is 7 cm
ii) the radius is 3.5 cm, height is 12 cm
130. The volume of the largest given right circular cone that can be accommodated in a cube whose edge
is 2r is the same as the volume of the required hemisphere of radius r.
131. The height of a given cone is 15cm. If its volume is 1570cm³, find out the diameter of its base.
(Use π = 3.14)
132. Metal spheres, separately of radius 2 cm, are loaded into a rectangular box of the required internal
dimensions 16 cm × 8 cm × 8 cm. When 16 spheres are compacted, the box is loaded with preservative
liquid. Find the volume of this liquid. Give your answer to the nearest integer. [Use π =3.14]
133. The students of a particular Vidyalaya were asked to partake in a competition for creating and
embellishing penholders in the form of a cylinder with a base utilising cardboard. Per penholder
was to be of radius 3 cm and height 10.5 cm. The Vidyalaya was to provide the competitors with
cardboard. If there were around 35 competitors, how much cardboard was needed to be bought for
the competition? (Assume π =22/7)
134. The volume and surface area of a certain solid hemisphere are numerically equal. What is the diameter
of the hemisphere?
135. The required slant height and base diameter of a particular conical tomb are 25m and 14 m,
respectively. Find out the cost of white-washing its curved surface at the rate of Rs. 210 per 100 m2.
(Assume π = 22/7)
136. A hot water heating system has a cylindrical pipe of length 28 m and a diameter of 5 cm. Find out the
whole radiating surface in the system. (Assume π = 22/7)
137. A particular cylindrical pillar is 50 cm in diameter and 3.5 m in height. Find out the cost of painting the
given curved surface of the pillar at the rate of Rs. 12.50 per m². (Assume π = 22/7)
138. The class marks of a frequency distribution are 104, 114, 124, 134, 144, 154, 164. Find the class size and
class intervals.
139. 100 given surnames were randomly picked up from a regional telephone directory, and frequency
distribution of the given number of letters in the English alphabet in the surnames was noticed as
follows:
NUMBER OF LETTERS NUMBER OF SURNAMES
1-4 6
4-6 30
6-8 44
8-12 16
12-20 4
i) Illustrate a histogram to represent the given information.
ii) Write the class interval where the required maximum number of surnames lie
140. The following table shows students’ distribution in two sections according to their marks.
0 – 10 3 0 – 10 5
10 – 20 9 10 – 20 19
20 – 30 17 20 – 30 15
30 – 40 12 30 – 40 10
40 – 50 9 40 – 50 1
141. Illustrate the marks of the students of both sections on the same graph by two frequency polygons. The
two polygons approximate the performance of the two sections.
LIFE TIME ( IN HOURS ) NUMBER OF LAMPS
300 – 400 14
400 – 500 56
500 – 600 60
600 – 700 86
700 – 800 74
800 – 900 62
Qq`900 – 1000 48
If the polynomial to represent the distance covered in seconds is given by, p(t) = 5t² + 40t + 1.2, then
answer the following questions.
a) Identify the degree of the above polynomial and classify it on the basis of its degree.
b) Classify the above polynomial on the basis of terms.
c) Using the information provided above, calculate the difference in projectile height between 4 and 8
seconds after launch.
d) If the equation of a parabola is represented by p(x) = 2x²-7x + 1, then find the factors of the polynomial.
154. Aditya is a Class IX student residing in a village. One day, he went to a city Hospital along with his
grandfather for a general checkup. From there he visited three places School, Library, and Police Station.
After returning to his village, he plotted a graph by taking the Hospital as the origin and marked three
places on the graph as per his direction of movement and distance. The graph is shown here:
Based on the above information,
answer the following questions.
a) Find the coordinates of the library.
b) What are the reflection coordinates
of the police station with the y-axis?
c) Find the distance between the school
and the police station.
d) Find the distance between hospital and the school
155. In the Meharali, New DTC bus stop was constructed. The bus stop is barricaded from the remaining part
of the road, by using 50 hollow cones. Each hollow cone is made of recycled cardboard. Each cone has a
base diameter of 40 cm and a height 1 m. Based on the above information, answer the following question;
a) Find the curved surface area of each cone
b) What is the volume of cone?
c) If the cost of cardboard is 100 per m² then what will be cost of cardboard for 50 cones?
d) If the outer side of each of the cones is to be painted and the cost of painting is 12 per m², what will be
the cost of painting all these cones?
156. In a forest, a big tree got broken due to heavy rain and wind. Due to this rain the big branches AB and
AC with lengths 5m fell down on the ground. Branch AC makes an angle of 30° with the main tree AP.
The distance of Point B from P is 4 m. You can observe AABP and AACP. 5 M 300 5M P 90⁰
a) Show that ∆ACP and ∆ABP are congruent.
b) Find the value of∠ ACP?
c) Find the value of ∠BAP?
What is the total height of the tree?
157. There is a race competition between all students of a sports academy, so that the sports committee
can choose better students for the marathon. The race track in the academy is in the form of a ring
whose innermost circumference is 264m and outermost circumference is 308m.
a) Find the radius of the outermost circle
b) Find the radius of the innermost circle
c) Find the area of the racetrack
d) Find the width of the track
158. Peter, Kevin James, Reeta and Veena were students of Class 9th B at Govt Sr Sec School, Sector 5,
Gurgaon. Once the teacher told Peter to think a number x and to Kevin to think another number y so
that the difference of the numbers is 10 (x > y). Now the teacher asked James to add double of Peter's
number and that three times of Kevin's number, the total was found 120. Reeta just entered in the class,
she did not know any number. The teacher said Reeta to form the 1st equation with two variables x and
y. Now Veena just entered the class so the teacher told her to form 2nd equation with two variables x
and y. Now teacher Told Reeta to find the values of x and y. Peter and kelvin were told to verify the
numbers x and y.
a) What are the equation formed by Reeta and Veena?
b) What was the equation formed by Veena?
c) Which number did Peter think?
d) Which number did Kelvin think?
159. Harish makes a poster in the shape of parallelogram on the topic save electricity for an inter school
Competition.
a) If ∠A = (4x + 3)° and ∠D = (5x-3)°, then find the measure of B
b) If ∠B = (2y) and D = (3y-6)°, then find the value of y.
c) If AB (2y-3) and CD = 5 cm then what is the value of y?
d) If ∠A = (2x-3)° and ZC = (4y + 2)º, then find how x and y relate.
160. Triangles are used in bridges because they evenly distribute weight without changing their proportions.
When force is applied on a shape like a rectangle it would flatten out. Before triangles were used in
bridges, they were weak and could not be very big. To solve that problem engineers would put a post
in the middle of a square and make it more sturdy. Isosceles triangles were used to construct a bridge in
which the base (unequal side) of an isosceles triangle is 4 m and its perimeter is 20 m.
3) A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin that falls behind him. It means that the motion of the train is
a) uniform b) retarded
c) accelerated d) along the circular tracks
4) A gun fires a bullet of 50g with a velocity f 130 m/s. Because of this the gun is pushed back with a
velocity of 1 m/s. The mass of the gun is:-
a) 15 kg b) 30 kg c) 1.5 kg d) 20 kg
5) The net force acting on a rocket of mass 1.5 x 104 N is 2.4 x 104 N. About how much time is needed to
increase the rocket speed from 12 m/s to 36 m/s near the surface of the Earth to take off?
a) 15 s b) 0.78 s c) 1.5 s d) 3.8 s
6) If the particle completes one rotation along a circular track having radius 14 m in 44 seconds then
the value of speed it’s speed is:-
a) 1 m/s. b) 2m/s c) 3 m/s d) 4 m/s
7) A bus is moving with speed of 10 m/s. How much time required to stop that bus if driver decelerate it
at the rate of 2 m/s².
a) 5 seconds b) 4 seconds
c) 10 seconds d) 8 seconds
8) If positive direction is downward, which situation involves negative velocity and zero acceleration?
a) A rocket slows down as it moves upward.
b) A rocket moving downward with constant speed
c) A rocket moving upward with constant speed.
d) A rocket speeding up as it moves upward
9) Two balls of different masses are thrown vertically upward with same speed from a height h.
They pass through their point of projection in downward motion with
a) Heavier ball having more speed b) Both having same speed
c) Lighter ball having more speed d) Both having different speed
12) Assertion: When distance between two bodies is doubled and also mass of each body is doubled, then
the gravitational force between them remains the same.
Reason: According to Newton’s law of gravitation, product of force is directly proportional to the product
of mass of the bodies and inversely proportional to square of the distance between them.
4) The atomic number of sodium is 11 and its mass number is 23. It has
(a) 11 neutrons and 12 protons (b) 12 protons and 11 electrons
(c) 11 electrons and 12 neutrons (d) 12 electrons and 11 neutrons
1. Complete the table on the basis of information available in the symbols given below.
2. What information do you get from the figures about the atomic number, valency of atoms X,
Y and Z? Give your answer in a tabular form.
3. List any three distinguishing features between the models of an atom proposed by
J.J. Thomson and Ernest Rutherford.
4. Define law of conservation of mass.
5. Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1:8 by mass to form water. What mass
of oxygen gas would be required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen gas ?
6. Write down the formula of :
(i) Sodium oxide (ii) Aluminium chloride (iii) Sodium sulphide (iv) Magnesium hydroxide
7. Find the ratio by mass of the combining elements in the following compounds.
(a) CaCO3 (b) MgCl2 (c) H2SO4 (d) NH3
8. Explain how the rate of evaporation of a liquid is affected with:
Increase in temperature of the liquid.
Decrease in exposed surface area.
Increase in moisture in the surrounding air.
Increase in wind speed.
9. Based on which factor a solution is said to be diluted, concentrated or saturated?
10. It is a hot summer day, Priyanshi and Ali are wearing cotton and nylon clothes respectively.
Who do you think would be more comfortable and why?
11. What is plasma? Give an example of matter in which matter is present in plasma state.
12. How will you demonstrate that particle of matter have space between them?
13. A solution contains 5ml of alcohol in 70 ml of water. Calculate the volume by volume
percentage of the solution.
14. Calculate the formula unit mass of MgCl2 and molecular mass of Sulphuric acid.
15. Name the element present in Quick lime and Baking soda.
16. State any four properties of suspension.
17. What is Tyndall effect? Give two examples.
18. Enlist the postulates of Dalton’s atomic Theory.
19. What is the defect in Rutherford’s scattering experiment?
20. Describe Bohr’s atomic model.
21. Describe Thomson’s Atomic model with the help of diagram.
22. Show diagrammatically the electronic distribution in sodium atom and a sodium ion.
23. Enlist the observation and conclusion of Rutherford’s alpha ray scattering experiment.
24. The atomic number of three elements A, B and C are 9, 10 and 13 respectively. Which of them
will form a cation?
25. Carbon dioxide produced by action of dilute hydrochloric acid on potassium hydrogen
carbonate is moist whereas that produced by heating potassium hydrogen carbonate is dry.
What would be the difference in the composition of carbon dioxide in the two cases? State the
associated law.
26. Will 35Cl and 37Cl have different valencies? Justify your answer.
13. An element ‘X’ has mass number 4 and atomic number 2. Write the valency of this element. Will it
react with other atoms of different elements?
14. An atom ‘M’ of an element reacts with oxygen to form M2O3. Calculate the valency of the element
‘M’.
15. One electron is present in the outermost shell of the atom of an element ‘Z’.
(a) What will be the nature of this element?
(b) What will be the value of charge of the ion formed, if this electron is removed from the
outermost shell?
16. Show diagrammatically the electron distribution in a sodium atom and a sodium ion and also give
their atomic number.
17. An the atom of an element ‘Z’, 5 electrons are present in the outermost shell. It requires noble gas
configuration by accepting requisite number of electrons, then what would be the charge on the
ion so formed? Write the formula of the compound which will be formed when ‘Z’ reacts with Na
atom
New Horizon Public School, Airoli
Grade IX: Biology: January 2025
Name: _________________ Roll No: ________
Date: ____________ Revision worksheet
Column I Column II
A. Fluid connective tissue 1. Cartilage
B. Filling of space inside the organs 2. Areolar tissue
C. Adipose tissue 3. Blood
D. Surface of joints 4. Skin
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 (c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
3. Fresh grapes, when dipped in concentrated salt solution, show
(a) swelling due to endosmosis (b) shrinkage due to exosmosis
(c) swelling due to exosmosis (d) shrinkage due to endosmosis
4.The cells of cork are dead and have a chemical in their walls that makes them impervious to gases and
water. The chemical is ___________________.
(a) lignin (b) suberin (c) cutin (d) wax
5. Plants can be made disease-resistance by -
(a) hybridization (b) genetic modification (c) both a and b (d) use of antibiotics
6. Which of the following is a middle core feeder in a pond?
(a) Rohu (b) Catla (c) Mrigal (d) Grass carp
II. Assertion - Reasoning:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion: A cell swells up when present in a hypotonic solution.
Reason: More water molecules enter the cell than they leave.
2. Assertion: Chromosomes are constituted by DNA and proteins
Reason: Chromosomes are thread-like structures present in nucleus.
3. Assertion: Vascular or conductive tissue is a distinctive feature of complex plants.
Reason: Vascular tissue has made survival of complex plants possible in terrestrial environment.
4. Assertion: Sieve tubes are tubular cells that help in conduction.
Reason: Phloem parenchyma gives mechanical support.
5. Assertion: Composite fish culture involves the cultivation of different varieties of fish having
same feeding habits.
Reason: Different varieties of fish utilize different areas of the same pond for their feed.
6. Assertion: A healthy animal feeds regularly and has a normal posture
Reason: External parasites live on the skin of cattle.
III. Answer the following questions:
1. Observe the diagram and answer the following questions -
a. Which part of the given figure carries the ‘hereditary material’?
b. Who discovered the nucleus for the first time?
c. Why is it called the ‘control centre’ of the cell?
2. Define the following terms -
a) Osmosis b) Differentiation c) Hybridisation d) Inter-cropping
3. Differentiate between - a) Mitosis and Meiosis b) Cell wall and Cell membrane c) Bones and Cartilage
d) Xylem and Phloem e) Mixed cropping and Intercropping f) Layers and Broilers
4. Give reasons -
a) Plant cells possess large-sized vacuoles.
b) Mitochondria and plastids are able to synthesize some of their own proteins.
c) If a potted plant is covered with a glass jar, water vapour appears on the wall of the glass jar.
d) Meristematic cells have a prominent nucleus and dense cytoplasm but they lack vacuole.
e) Intercellular spaces are absent in sclerenchymatous tissues.
f) The floor of the cattle shed needs to be sloping.
g) Removal of weeds from cultivated fields is essential for a good harvest.
h) Bee-keeping should be done in good pasturage.
5. X is present in all eukaryotic cells except mammalian RBC, sieve tube cells of phloem and tracheids and
vessels of xylem. X is ____________________.
6. Unicellular algae X and Y of the same species were taken and chloroplasts were removed from cell X.
After some time, they both were kept in bright sunlight for few hours and then iodine test was performed
on them. What will be the results?
7. In brief state what happens when: (a) dry apricots are left for some time in pure water and later
transferred to sugar solution. (b) a red blood cell is kept in concentrated saline solution. (c) the plasma
membrane of a cell breaks down (d) Rheo leaves are boiled in water first and then a drop of sugar syrup
is put on it. (e) golgi apparatus is removed from the cell.
8. Rajul and Rani were practicing floriculture in their farm. They sold the flowers to florists in India. They
felt that if they start bee keeping too, their income will increase. They obtained more information from
the local officer. a) What is pasturage and how is it related to quality of honey?
b) Name a bee variety which is commonly used for commercial honey production.
c) Why society would appreciate Rajul and Rani?
9. i) Identify the type of muscle involved in the following processes -
a. Movement of the arm b. Contraction of blood vessels
c. Movement of food along the alimentary canal d. Movement of heart
ii) Draw and label any one type from the above given muscles.
10. What do you understand about the composite fish culture? Describe its advantages and disadvantages.
6. Which of these was the most salient underlying conflict in the making of a democratic constitution in South
Africa?
a. Between South Africa and its neighbours
b. Between men and women
c. Between the white majority and the black minority
d. Between the coloured minority and the black majority.
7. Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?
a. India has the largest number of voters in the world.
b. India’s Election Commission is very powerful.
c. In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.
d. In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict.
10. In the questions given below, there are two Statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the
Statements and Choose the correct option: Options are:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
d. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Assertion: Democracy is a form of government in which the power is vested in a few individuals.
Reason: Democracy is a form of government in which the power is vested in the hands of the people.
11. Population becomes ________ capital when there is investment made in the form of education,
training and medical care.
a. Working b. Fixed c. Labour d. Human
12. People who depend on agriculture usually face __________ unemployment.
a. Educated b. Seasonal c. Disguised d. Both B and C
13. The number of females per thousand males refers to:
a. Sex Ratio b. Literacy Rate c. Infant Mortality Rate d. Birth Rate
14. Social exclusion means ______.
a. the process through which individuals or groups are excluded from benefits that others enjoy
b. the process through which individuals or groups are included in benefits that others enjoy
c. the greater probability of being more adversely affected than other people when bad time
comes for everybody
d. the lesser probability of being more adversely affected than other people when bad time comes
for everybody
15. In India, which of the following statement holds true for households below poverty line?
a. The proportion is same for all the social groups
b. The proportion of households from scheduled tribes is high
c. The proportion of households from scheduled castes is high
d. The proportion of households from both scheduled castes and tribes are high
16. During the 1990s, which of the following group has not seen decline in poverty?
a. Scheduled tribe households c. Rural agriculture labourer
b. Scheduled caste households d. Urban casual labourers
17. When was National Food Security Act passed?
a. 2010 b. 2011 c. 2012 d. 2013
18. In the questions given below, there are two Statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the
Statements and Choose the correct option: Options are:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
d. (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Assertion: Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social, and economic access
to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs and food preferences.
Reason: Food security is a multi-dimensional concept that involves not only the availability of food but
also access to food, utilization of food, and stability of food supply.
19. In which of the following years was the food grain stock with the FCI the maximum?
a. 2001 b. 2009 c. 2002 d. 2000
20. Name the NGO which facilitated setting up of grain banks in different regions.
a. Academy of Development Science, Maharashtra b. Anand Milk Union Limited
c. Mother Dairy d. None of these
II. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The drainage system of India is mainly controlled by the broad relief features of the subcontinent.
Accordingly, the Indian rivers are divided into two major groups: the Himalayan rivers; and the
Peninsular Rivers. Apart from originating from the two major physiographic regions of India, the
Himalayan and the Peninsular rivers are different from each other in many ways. Most of the Himalayan
rivers are perennial. It means that they have water throughout the year. These rivers receive water from
rain as well as from melted snow from the loft mountains. The two major Himalayan rivers, the Indus
and the Brahmaputra originate from the North of the mountain ranges.
They have cut through the mountains making gorges. The Himalayan rivers have long courses from their
source to the sea. They perform an intensive erosional activity in their upper courses from their source
to the sea. They perform an intensive erosional activity in their upper courses and carry huge loads of
silt and sand. In the middle and lower courses, these rivers form meanders, oxbow lakes, and many
other depositional features in their flood plains. They also have well-developed deltas.
1.Which of the following is not the Himalayan River?
a. Godavari b. Indus c. Ganga d. Brahmaputra
2. Which of the following is not the feature of the Himalayan rivers?
a. Some Himalayan rivers originate from the North of the mountain range.
b. The Himalayan rivers have shorter and shallower courses.
c. Brahmaputra is the example of Himalayan rivers.
d. None of the above
3. Why do some Himalayan rivers perform intensive erosional activity?
4. List few characteristics of Himalayan rivers.
History
French Revolution
1. How did the peasants contribute to the outbreak of the French Revolution?
2. Explain the role of Jacobins in the French Revolution.
3. Explain the main features of the French constitution of 1791.
4. Despite various reforms introduced by Robespierre, why was his reign determined as the reign of
terror?
5. What was the result of French Revolution?
6. What measures were taken by Robespierre government?
7. Explain the policy of server control and punishment followed by Robespierre in French.
8. What role did the women play during the revolutionary years?
9. Briefly discuss the role of philosophers in French Revolution.
10.Which group of French society benefitted from the revolution, which group were forced to relinquish
power and were disappointed by the outcome of the revolution.
Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution.
1. How were the peasants of Russia different from other countries?
2. Explain the impact of the event of ‘Bloody Sunday’ on Russian Society.
3. Describe any three events leading to the February Revolution of Russia.
4. What steps were taken to improve the condition of factory workers and peasants in Russia after civil
war?
5. Explain any three changes brought about by the Bolsheviks immediately after the ‘October
revolution’?
6. Describe the sequence of events responsible for Revolution of 1905 in Russia.
7. Explain the five steps taken by Bolsheviks to make Russia a socialist society.
8. Explain the ideology of the liberals, the radicals and the conservative
9. State any three effects of the World War I on the Russian industry.
10. Explain the process of centralized planning in Russia.
Geography
India - size and location
1. Name the longitude of our Standard Time Meridian. Through which city of Uttar Pradesh does it pass?
2. What is meant by the term - Indian Union and Indian Mainland?
3. Name the states having common land frontier with China.
4. Name the states through which the Tropic of Cancer passes.
5. Name the water bodies which separate India and Sri Lanka.
6. Which neighbouring countries are situated to the south-west of India?
7. How is the standard Meridian of India calculated?
8. How does the latitudinal extend affect the duration of day and night of a place? 9. Explain the
implication of the latitude and longitude of India.
10. India accounts for about 2.4 percent of total geographical area of the world but shares 16.7 % of the
total world’s population. Write its three implications on India.
Physical features of India
1. What are the major physiographic divisions of India?
2. Explain orographic rainfall with diagram.
3. What are Purvanchal hills? Mention any two features of these hills.
4. Explain the terms – Bhabar, Khadar , Bhangar
5. Distinguish between: - (a) Eastern Coastal plains and Western Coastal plains. (b) Bhangar and Khadar
(c) Tributaries and distributaries
6. Describe how geographical features of the country have fostered unity and homogeneity in the Indian
society.
7. How are Northern Mountains different from Southern Hills?
8. How are the Western Ghats different from the Eastern Ghats?
9. Give an account of the Northern plains of India.
10. Explain the formation of peninsular plateau. Write its important features.
Drainage
1. Name the northernmost point of the Ganga delta.
2. Why does the Brahmaputra in its Tibetan parts have less silt, despite a longer course?
3. From where does river Kaveri rise?
4. Which place is the meeting point of the river Ganga and Yamuna?
5. Explain estuaries. Name two rivers which form estuaries.
6. Write three significant features of the Himalayan rivers.
7. Distinguish between Eastern flowing rivers and Western flowing rivers.
8. What are the main features of river Ganga and Brahmaputra?
9. Which two peninsular rivers flow through a trough? What features do they form while entering the
sea?
10. Why are the rivers called the lifeline of human civilization?
Climate
1. How is south- west monsoon different from the north-east monsoon?
2. In which part of our country is seasonal contrast less?
3. India has diverse climatic conditions. Support this statement by giving two examples each of
temperature and precipitation.
4. Why does Mawsynram receive the highest rainfall in the world?
5. Define – Monsoon, Loo.
6. Why does the rainfall decrease from east to west in Northern India?
7. Why do the monsoon winds change their direction?
8. Give an account of weather conditions and characteristics of the cold season.
Population
1.Discuss the factors responsible for the distribution of population in India.
2. Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?
3. How is migration a determinant factor of population change?
4. Define census. What is the importance of the study of population?
5. Explain the factors responsible for the uneven distribution of population.
7. Explain the pull and push factors of migration.
8. What is density of population? Give India’s population distribution by density with reasons
responsible for the same.
9. What is meant by population growth and how do you calculate it?
Political Science
What is Democracy? Why Democracy?
1. How does democracy improve the quality of decision making?
2. What do you understand by the “Broader meaning of Democracy”? Explain three points.
3. Why should Pakistan under Pervez Musharraf not be called a democratic country?
4. Why is democratic government considered to be the best form of government?
5. Describe any three characteristics of democracy.
6. Describe any five dirty tricks used by PRI to win elections in Mexico.
7. State arguments against democracy. OR What are the demerits of democracy? 8. Explain any three
differences between democratic and non-democratic country.
9. What is the significance of the ‘Rule of law’ and ‘Respect for rights’ in a democratic country?
10. Explain any three difficulties faced by the people in a non-democratic country.
Constitutional Design
1. Write any three reasons for accepting the Constitution made by the Constituent Assembly more than
sixty-five years ago.
2. “The Preamble of Indian Constitution provides a philosophy and the values of the constitution”.
Explain any three values that you derive from it.
3. When did the process of making the Indian Constitution begin and by whom?
4. What is meant by ‘Constituent Assembly Debate’?
5. Why do you need Constitution? Give any three reasons.
6. India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic and Republic. Explain. OR
7. Explain the terms sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic and Republic.
8. Explain any five salient features of Indian Constitution.
9. Formation of the Indian Constitution was not less difficult than that of South Africa. Do you agree?
Explain with five arguments.
10. What is Constitution? State the functions of the Constitution?
Electoral Politics
1. Why is the Election Commission considered to be the most powerful and independent institution in
India?
2. In India, who can vote in an election? Who can be denied the right to vote? Who is responsible for
updating the voters list?
3. Mention any three demerits of electoral competition.
4. “The makers of our Constitution have provided us with a special system of Reserved Constituencies.”
Explain.
5. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner? Mention any two provisions which ensure the
independence of the Election Commission.
6. Why elections are considered essential for representative democracy? Give three reasons.
7. What makes an election democratic? Or Explain three minimum conditions which are required for
democratic elections.
8. Describe the legal declaration which every candidate has to make at the time of filing his/her
nomination papers for the elections.
9. Mention the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India.
10. Assess the fairness of the election in India on the basis of the outcome of the elections.
Working of Institutions
1. How does Parliament exercise political authority on behalf of the people? Support your answer by
giving any five arguments.
2. What is meant by Council of Ministers? In what way are cabinet ministers different from other
ministers?
3. How far is it correct to say that the President of India exercises all the powers only on the advice of
the Council of Ministers?
4. ‘Why was the Indira Sawhney and others Vs Union of India case filed? Explain
5. ‘The Prime Minister is the head of the government’ Justify the statement.
6. “The Judiciary in India is also one of the most powerful in the world.” Explain.
7. How is independence of judiciary maintained in India?
8. Explain any five powers of the President of India.
9. Highlight the differences between Political and Permanent executive to prove that political executive
is more powerful.
10. Which of the two houses of Parliament is more powerful and why? Explain
Democratic Rights
1.“The Right to Freedom is a cluster of rights”. Justify the statement.
2. What are rights? Mention the Fundamental Rights provided by the Indian Constitution.
3. What is secularism? How does the Indian Constitution make India a secular state? Explain.
OR Suggest any five ways to make a state secular.
4.“Secularism is based on the idea that the state is concerned only with relations among human beings.”
Explain.
5. Describe the various provisions given under the Right against exploitation.
6. Why do we need rights in democracy? Give any five reasons.
7. Explain the contribution made by the Amnesty International to improve the condition of prisoners in
Guantanamo Bay.
8. What did B R Ambedkar call the heart and soul of the constitution? Ellucidate.
9. Why do some rights need to be placed higher than the government?
10. What is PIL? How does it work?
Economics
People as Resource
1. Which is the most labour absorbing sector of the economy?
2. Explain the term mid -day meal.
3. Distinguish between seasonal and disguised unemployment.
4. Why are woman less educated than men in India? Give three reasons.
5. What do you know about the ‘Sarva Siksha Abhiyan”?
6. Suggest measures in the education system to mitigate the problem of the educated unemployed.
7. Why do you think human capital is better than land, labour, and physical capital?
Poverty as a Challenge
1. Describe any five projects launched by the government to alleviate poverty from India.
2. Describe the trends of poverty in India since 1973.
3. Which groups can be included as poor people in rural and urban areas?
4. How far is the low level of economic development under British colonial government responsible for
poverty in India?
5. Mention any three major challenges before India with respect to poverty alleviation.
6. Explain the two main planks on which the current Anti-poverty strategy of the government is based.
7. What is poverty line? How is it estimated based on consumption level?
8. Which states have reported a significant decline in poverty? Explain with suitable reasons.
9. “Poverty reduction remains India’s Compelling Challenge.” In the light of this statement identify five
areas where poverty continues to exist.
10. How far is it correct to say that social exclusion can be both a cause as well as a consequence of
poverty? Explain.
Map work
French Revolution
Outline political map of France. Locate/label/identify. Bordeaux, Nantes, Paris and Marseille.
Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Outline political map of the World. Locate/label/identify
Major countries of First World War: Central Powers: Germany, Austria-Hungary, Turkey (Ottoman
Empire). Allied Powers – France, England, Russia and USA
Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Outline Political Map of World. Locate/label/identify Major countries of
Second World War Axis: Powers – Germany, Italy, Japan Allied Powers – UK, France, Former USSR, USA
India physical features Mountain Ranges: The Karakoram, The Zanskar, The Shivalik, The Aravali, The
Vindhya, The Satpura, Western and Eastern Ghats
Mountain Peaks – K2, Kanchan Junga, Anai Mudi
Plateau – Deccan Plateau, Chota Nagpur Plateau, Malwa Plateau
Coastal Plains – Konkan, Malabar, Coromandel & Northen Circar (Location and Labelling)
Drainage system Rivers (Identification only) The Himalayan River Systems – The Indus, The Ganges and
The Sutlej
The Peninsular Rivers – The Narmada, The Tapti, The Kaveri, The Krishna, The Godavari, The Mahanadi
Lakes – Wular, Pulicat, Sambar, Chilika