1.

Choose the correct option in terms of Issues related to professional responsibility

a) Confidentiality
b) Intellectual property rights
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights
d) Managing Client Relationships

Answer: c
Explanation: Engineers should normally respect the confidentiality of their employers or clients
irrespective of whether or not a formal confidentiality agreement has been signed.
They should be aware of local laws governing the use of intellectual property such as patents,
copyright, etc.

2. “Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”Here
the term misuse refers to:
a) Unauthorized access to computer material
b) Unauthorized modification of computer material
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

3. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per the
ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
a) The product should be easy to use
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest
professional standards possible
c) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications satisfy the client
d) It means that the product designed /created should be easily available

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

4. Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below:

a) Your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the system
b) Refusing to undertake a project
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of senior management
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

5. Identify the correct statement: “Software engineers shall

a) act in a manner that is in the best interests of his expertise and favour.”
b) act consistently with the public interest.”
c) ensure that their products only meet the SRS.”
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Software engineers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their client and
employer consistent with the public interest and shall ensure that their products and related
modifications meet the highest professional standards possible.Thus options a & c are ruled out.

6. Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should

a) not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence.”
b) not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”
c) be dependent on their colleagues.”
d) maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment.”

Answer: c
Explanation:None.

7. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________

a) responsiveness
b) licensing
c) memory utilization
d) processing time

Answer: b
Explanation: Licensing of a software product comes under corporate part of the software company.

8. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get cancelled before they are completed, 53% overrun
their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 restarts”.What is
the reason for these statistics ?
a) Lack of adequate training in software engineering
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding
c) Management issues in the company
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject,hence option a covers them
both.

9. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to

a) Software companies
b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and Developers
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Software companies are responsible for making policies and providing working
atmosphere for the software development, so in turn these companies become a part of software
development process.Bugs from developers side is no new thing. Thus option c answers the
question.

10. Company has latest computers and state-of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry about
the quality of the product.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The infrastructure is only one of the several factors that determine the quality of the
product.

“Software Life Cycle Models”

1. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
a) 100-200
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000

Answer: a
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for small projects & programming exercises of 100 or 200
lines.

2. RAD stands for

a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

3. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model

Answer: d
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model proposes.

4. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?

a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype

Answer: c
Explanation: Their is no such thing as Diagonal Prototype whereas other options have their
respective definitions.

5. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?

a) Quick Design
b) Coding
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product

Answer: b
Explanation: A prototyping model generates only a working model of a system.
6. Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible
d) It scales up well to large projects

Answer: d
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for 100-200 LOC

7. RAD Model has

a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases

Answer: c
Explanation: RAD Model consists of five phases namely:Business modeling,Data modeling,Process
modeling,Application generation and Testing & Turnover.

8. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?

a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
b) Increases reusability of components
c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are
required

Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision leading a team to over or under-
develop functionality.Also, the specialized & skilled developers are not easily available.

9. SDLC stands for

a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model

Answer: c
Explanation: None

“Evolutionary Software Process Models”

1. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?

a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Incremental Model
c) Concurrent Development Model
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

2. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?

a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model

Answer: c
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a deliverable “increment” of the software and
particularly when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.

3. What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?

a) Customer can respond to each increment
b) Easier to test and debug
c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
d) Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early

Answer: d
Explanation: Incremental Model is generally easier to test and debug than other methods of software
development because relatively smaller changes are made during each iteration and is popular
particularly when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.However, option “a” can
be seen in other models as well like RAD model,hence option “d” answers the question.

4. The spiral model was originally proposed by

a) IBM
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman
d) Royce

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

5. The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular

Answer: c
Explanation: The radial dimension of the model represents the cumulative costs and the angular
dimension represents the progress made in completing each cycle. Each loop of the spiral from X-axis
clockwise through 360o represents one phase.

6. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model?

a) It defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project related information
b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral
c) It defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks
d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support

Answer: b
Explanation: Except option “b” all other tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model as well.

7. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.

a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
b) High amount of risk analysis
c) Strong approval and documentation control
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date

Answer: a
Explanation: All other options are the advantages of Spiral Model.

8. Spiral Model has user involvement in all its phases.

a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

9. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?

a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
c) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
d) Incremental Model

Answer: c
Explanation: When applied to client/server applications, the concurrent process model defines
activities in two dimensions: a system dimension and a component dimension.Thus Concurrency is
achieved by system and component activities occurring simultaneously and can be modeled using
the state-oriented approach.

“Using CASE Tools”

1. CASE stands for

a) Cost Aided Software Engineering
b) Computer Aided Software Engineering
c) Control Aided Software Engineering
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: CASE tools purpose is to make the work of software development and maintenance
easier and more reliable.

2. CASE tools are used only during the software testing phase.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b

Explanation: CASE tools support the developer when performing one or more phases of the software
life cycle and/or support software maintenance.

3. Which of the following is not a type of CASE tool?

a) Lower
b) Classic
c) Real
d) Middle

Answer: d
Explanation: Lower and Upper CASE tools support analysis and design.

4. What stores all changes and info related to the project from development through maintenance in
CASE tools?
a) Database
b) Repository
c) Registers
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: The main component of real CASE tools is the repository which stores all changes.

5. What kind of support is provided by the Repository Query CASE tool?

a) Editing text and diagrams
b) Display of parts of the design texts
c) Cross referencing queries and requirements tracing
d) Display of parts of the design texts AND Cross referencing queries and requirements tracing

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

6. What kind of support is provided by the Code Generation CASE tool?

a) Cross referencing queries and requirements tracing
b) Transformation of design records into application software
c) Compiling, interpreting or applying interactive debugging code
d) Transformation of design records into application software AND Compiling, interpreting or
applying interactive debugging code

Answer: b
Explanation: Code Generation tool aids in transformation of design records into prototypes or
application software compatible with a given software development language.
7. Logical design errors can be resolved using both classic and real CASE tools.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Classic CASE tools include interactive debuggers and compilers which do not serve the
required purpose.

8. CASE-generated updated documentation enables easier and more reliable identification of

software failure causes.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. What kind of support is provided by the Code Editing CASE tool?

a) Management of design documents and software code versions
b) Transformation of design records into application software
c) Compiling, interpreting or applying interactive debugging code
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Code editing tool serves the purpose of compiling, interpreting or applying interactive
debugging code specific coding language or development tool.

10. Use of the repository assures automated coding and documentation of corrections.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Use of the repository assures consistency of new applications and improvements with
existing software systems.

“Software Testing Techniques ”

1. Which of the following term describes testing?

a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Software testing is the process of evaluation a software item to detect differences
between given input and expected output.

2. What is Cyclomatic complexity?

a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing
Answer: b
Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity measures the amount of decision logic in the program
module.Cyclomatic complexity gives the minimum number of paths that can generate all possible
paths through the module.

3. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?

a) Run chart
b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: A run chart is used to monitor the behavior of a variable over time for a process or
system. Run charts graphically display cycles, trends, shifts, or non-random patterns in behavior over
time. It contains lower and upper limits.

4. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?

a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing

Answer: c
Explanation: Maintenance Testing is done on the already deployed software. The deployed software
needs to be enhanced, changed or migrated to other hardware. The Testing done during this
enhancement, change and migration cycle is known as maintenance testing.

5. White Box techniques are also classified as

a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: The structural testing is the testing of the structure of the system or component.
Structural testing is often referred to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass box’ or ‘clear-box testing’ because in
structural testing we are interested in what is happening ‘inside the system/application’.

6. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible

Answer: c
Explanation: Exhaustive testing is the testing where we execute single test case for multiple test
data.It means if we are using single test case for different product or module under manual testing.
testing .
7. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Statement testing, decision testing, condition coverage all of them uses white box
technique.

8. What are the various Testing Levels?

a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Unit, system, integration testing all of them are levels in testing.

9. Boundary value analysis belong to?

a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is based on testing at the boundaries between partitions and
checks the output with expected output.

10. Alpha testing is done at

a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
c) Developer’s & User’s end
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Alpha testing takes place at the developer’s end. Developers observe the users and note
problems. Alpha testing is testing of an application when development is about to complete. Minor
design changes can still be made as a result of alpha testing.