RPSC PHYSICS PAPER-II 2020

(IFAS SOLVED PAPER)

1. The necessary and sufficient condition for 𝑓(𝑧) = 𝑢(𝑥, 𝑦) + 𝑖𝑣 (𝑥, 𝑦) to be analytic are
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑣 𝜕𝑣 𝜕𝑢
(1) 𝜕𝑥 = 𝜕𝑦 ; 𝜕𝑥
= − 𝜕𝑦
𝜕𝑢 −𝜕𝑣 𝜕𝑣 𝜕𝑢
(2) 𝜕𝑥 = ;
𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑥
= − 𝜕𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑣 𝜕𝑣 𝜕𝑢
(3) = ; =
𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑣 𝜕𝑣 𝜕𝑢
(4) ≠ ; ≠
𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦

𝑧
2. The residue of (𝑧−𝑎)(𝑧−𝑏) at infinity is
(1) 0 (zero)
(2) 1
(3) −1
(4) −4⁄3

3. The direct product of two tensors results in a new tensor of rank equal to
(1) the sum of ranks of these tensors.
(2) the product of ranks of these tensors.
(3) the HCF (highest common factor) of rank of these tensors.
(4) the LCM (least common multiple) of ranks of these tensors.

4. At the most, the number of independent component of an anti symmetric tensor of rank r in n-
dimensional space will be
(1) 𝑛 − 𝑟
(2) 𝑛 + 𝑟
(3) 𝑛𝑝𝑟
(4) 𝑛𝑐𝑟

5. Which of the following statements is NOT true, in reference to subgroup H?

(1) 𝐼𝑓 𝑎 ∈ 𝐻 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑎−1 ∈ 𝐻
(2) Every subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic.
(3) If 𝑎, 𝑏 ∈ 𝐻 then 𝑎𝑏 −1 ∈ 𝐻
(4) The order of a subgroup of a finite group is an integral multiple of the order of the group.

6. Choose wrong relation between forward difference operator (∆), backward difference operator
(∇), central difference operator (𝛿), shift operator E and averaging operator (𝜇).
(1) ∇= 1 − 𝐸 −1
3
(2) 𝜇2 = 1 + 4 𝛿 2
1
(3) 𝜇𝛿 = 2 (𝐸 − 𝐸 −1 )
(4) ∆= 𝛿𝐸 1⁄2

7. Calculate the value of f(2.8) from the following tables (to the nearest integer):
 x 0 1 2 3
𝑓(𝑥) 1 2 11 34
(1) 17
(2) 24
(3) 28
(4) 32

8. If the range of integration is divided into n equal sub-intervals by the points 𝑥0 , 𝑥0 + ℎ, 𝑥0 +

2ℎ. . . 𝑥0 + 2ℎ. Then according to Trapezoidal rule, integration of the function over the range will be
(1) ℎ[𝑓(𝑥0 ) + 𝑓(𝑥0 + 𝑛ℎ)]
ℎ
(2) 2 [{𝑓(𝑥0 ) + 𝑓(𝑥0 + 𝑛ℎ)} + 2{𝑓(𝑥0 + ℎ) + 𝑓(𝑥0 + 2ℎ) + . . . +𝑓(𝑥0 + (𝑛 − 1)ℎ)}]
ℎ
(3) [{𝑓(𝑥0 ) + 𝑓(𝑥0 + 𝑛ℎ)} + 2{𝑓(𝑥0 + ℎ) + 𝑓(𝑥0 + 2ℎ) + . . . +𝑓(𝑥0 + (𝑛 − 1)ℎ)}]
3
ℎ
(4) [𝑓(𝑥0 ) + 𝑓(𝑥0 + 𝑛ℎ)]
3

9. Compute 𝑦(0.4) by Runge – Kutta method from the given equation (correct upto three decimal
place)
𝑑𝑦
= 𝑥𝑦; 𝑦(0) = 2 taking ℎ = 0.2
𝑑𝑥
(1) 2.1445
(2) 2.1741
(3) 2.1666
(4) 2.2711

10. The value of ∆2 03 is (where ∆ is difference operator and '0' read zero)
(1) zero
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12

4
11. Find the value of integral ∫0 𝑒 𝑥 . 𝑑𝑥 using Simpson's 1⁄3 rule. [Given 𝑒 = 2.72]
(1) 52.6
(2) 51.6
(3) 53.6
(4) 55.8

12. If a pair of dice is thrown, the probability that a sum of 8 appears, is

1
(1) 6
5
(2)
36
7
(3) 36
2
(4) 9

13. If random variable X assumes values 𝑢1 < 𝑢2 … < 𝑢𝑛 and no others, then the sum of the values of
frequency 𝑃𝑥 (𝑡) at the points 𝑡 = 𝑢1 , 𝑢2 . . . 𝑢𝑛 will be equal to
(1) zero
1
(2) 2
1
(3) greater than 2 but less than 1
(4) 1

14. The most probable number of successes of n independent trials in binomial distribution is (here
[y] denotes the integral part of y and other variables have their usual meanings)
(1) [𝑁𝑃]
(2) [(𝑁 + 1)𝑝]
1
(3) 2 [(𝑁 − 1)𝑝]
3
(4) [(𝑁 + 1)𝑝]
4

15. For two normal distributions having the same total frequency the standard deviation of first is k
times that of the other. If the maximum frequency of the first is n times that of other. Here 'n' is
(1) 𝑘 2
1
(2) 𝑘 2
1
(3) 𝑘
1
(4)
√𝑘

16. When forces 𝐹⃗1 , 𝐹⃗2 , 𝐹⃗3 are acting on a particle of mass m such that system is under equilibrium.
Hence 𝐹⃗2 and 𝐹⃗3 are mutually perpendicular. If the force F, is now removed then the magnitude of the
acceleration of the particle is
(1) zero
𝐹2 𝐹3
(2) 𝑚
𝐹1
(3) 𝑚
𝐹22 +𝐹22
(4) 𝑚

17. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding central forces?
(1) A central force is always directed towards or away from a fixed point.
(2) In the motion under the central force, the angular momentum is always conserved.
(3) The motion of a particle under the central force is always confined to a plane.
(4) The position vector of the particle with respect to centre of the force may or may not have constant
areal velocity.

18. If trajectory of a moving body under inverse central force is parabolic. Then eccentricity (𝜀) and
total energy (E) will be
(1) 𝜀 = 0, 𝐸 = 0
(2) 𝜀 = 1, 𝐸 = 0
(3) 𝜀 = 1, 𝐸 < 0
(4) 𝜀 < 0, 𝐸 = 0
19. Three planets are moving in circular orbits around a star at distance 9, 49 and 99 respectively. At
time 𝑡 = 𝑡0 the star and three planets are in straight line. The period of revolution of the closest planet
is T. How long after 𝑡0 will they again be in the same straight line?
(1) 8 T
(2) 27 T
(3) 512 T
(4) 216 T

20. A particle of mass M is placed at the centre of a uniform spherical shell of equal mass and radius
𝑎
a. The Gravitation potential at a point at a distance 2 from the centre is
(1) zero
𝐺𝑀
(2) − 𝑎
2𝐺𝑀
(3) − 𝑎
3𝐺𝑀
(4) − 𝑎

21. A particle of mass m, moving with velocity 𝑣1 collides perfectly inelastically with another particle
of mass 𝑚2 moving with velocity 𝑣2 . The loss of kinetic energy in the collision will be
1 𝑚2
(1) 2 𝑚 𝑣12
1 +𝑚2
1 𝑚1 𝑚2
(2) (𝑣1 − 𝑣2 )2
2 𝑚1 +𝑚2
1 𝑚1 𝑚2
(3) (𝑣1 + 𝑣2 )2
2 𝑚1 +𝑚2
1
(4) 2
(𝑚1 + 𝑚2 ) (𝑣1 − 𝑣2 )2

22. A particle of mass m, moving with a velocity 𝑣⃗ = 𝑣0 (𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂), collides elastically with another particle
of mass 2 m, which is at rest initially. Here 𝑣0 is a constant. Which of the following statement is true?
𝑖̂+𝑗̂
(1) The direction along which centre of mass moves before collision is − ( )
√2
(2) The speed of particle of mass m before collision in centre of mass frame is √2 𝑣0
√2
(3) After collision the speed of particle of mass 2 m in the centre of mass frame is 3 0
𝑣
(4) Speed of particle of mass 2 m before collision in the centre of mass frame is √2 𝑣0

23. A particle is whirled in a circular path with a constant angular velocity and its angular momentum
is L. If the length of the string is now halved keeping the angular velocity same, the angular momentum
will become
𝐿
(1)
4
𝐿
(2) 2
(3) L
(4) 2L

24. The moment of inertia of a sphere about its diameter is I. The moment of inertia of the system
(shown in figure) about the axis XX' will be (consider all spheres to be identical in figure)
(1) 4 I
(2) 6 I
(3) 9 I
(4)14 I

25. Inertial coefficient of a rigid body are the component of a symmetric tensor of rank___
(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

𝑘
26. Lagrangian for a particle moving under the influence of a central force 𝐹 = − is (symbols have
𝑟2
their usual meanings)
1 𝑘
(1) 𝑚 (𝑟̇ 2 + 𝑟 2 𝜃̇ 2 ) +
2 𝑟
1 𝑘
(2) 2
𝑚 (𝑟̇ + 𝑟𝜃̇ 2 ) − 𝑟
1 𝑘
(3) 2
𝑚 (𝑟̇ + 𝑟 2 𝜃̇ ) − 𝑟
1 𝑘
(4)
2
𝑚 (𝑟̇ 2 + 𝑟 𝜃̇ 2 ) + 𝑟

1+𝑞̇
27. A particle is moving under the action of a generalized potential 𝑣(𝑞, 𝑞̇ ) = 𝑞2
The magnitude of generalized force is
(1+𝑞̇ )
(1) 2
𝑞3
2
(2)
𝑞3
(1−𝑞̇ )
(3) 2 𝑞3
𝑞̇
(4) 𝑞3

28. The motion of one projectile as seen from another projectile motion will always be
(1) Parabolic motion
(2) Circular motion T
(3) Straight line motion
(4) Arbitrary directional motion

29. A circular platform is rotating with a uniform angular speed 𝜔 counter clockwise about an axis
passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane as shown in figure. A boy of mass m walk
radially inwards with a uniform velocity v on platform. The magnitude and the direction of the coriolis
force (with respect to the direction along which the boy walks) is :
(1) 2 𝑚𝜔 𝑣 towards his left
(2) 2 𝑚𝜔 𝑣 towards his right
(3) 2 𝑚𝜔 𝑣 towards his front
(4) 2 𝑚𝜔 𝑣 towards his back

30. The mathematical statement for Hamilton's principle is represent by (symbols have usual meaning)
𝑡
(1) 𝛿 ∫𝑡 2 𝐿2 𝑑𝑡 = 0
1
𝑡
(2) 𝛿 ∫𝑡 2 𝐿 𝑑𝑡 = 0
1
𝑡
(3) ∆ ∫𝑡 2 2𝑇 𝑑𝑡 =0
1
𝑡2 2
(4) ∆ ∫𝑡 𝑇 𝑑𝑡 =0
1

31. Consider the following two transformations given below:

I. 𝑄 = √2𝑞 𝑒 3 cos 𝑝 ; 𝑃 = √2𝑞 𝑒 −𝑎 sin 𝑝
1
II. 𝑄 = 𝑃 ; 𝑃 = 𝑎𝑝2
Choose correct statement for these transformation.
(1) Both I and II transformations are canonical.
(2) Only I transformation is canonical.
(3) Only II transformation is canonical.
(4) Neither I nor II transformation are canonical.

32. Choose wrong property (relation) for Poisson bracket.

(1) (𝜙, 𝜓) = −(𝜓, 𝜙)
(2) (𝜙, 𝜓 + 𝜒) = (𝜙, 𝜓) + (𝜙, 𝜒)
(3) (𝜙, 𝜒𝜓) = 𝜒(𝜙, 𝜓) + (𝜙, 𝜒)𝜓
(4) ((𝜙, 𝜓), 𝜒) + ((𝜒, 𝜙), 𝜓) + ((𝜓, 𝜒), 𝜙) = 1

33. Choose correct relation between. Column I and II.

Column - I Column - II
A. Homogeneity of space P. Conservation of Energy
B. Isotropy of space Q. Conservation of Linear Momentum
C. Homogeneity of time R. Conservation of Angular Momentum
(A) (a)-(P), (b)-(Q), (c)-(R)
(B) (a)-(Q), (b)-(R), (c)-(P)
(C) (a)-(R), (b)-(P), (c)-(Q)
(D) (a)-(R), (b)-(Q), (c)-(P)

34. The ratio of maximum acceleration to maximum velocity in a SHM is 10 𝑠 −1. At 𝑡 = 0 the
displacement is 5 m. If initial phase is, then the maximum acceleration is
(1) 500 𝑚⁄𝑠 2
(2) 500√2 𝑚⁄𝑠 2
(3) 750 𝑚⁄𝑠 2
(4) 250√2 𝑚⁄𝑠 2

𝑑2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
35. The differential equation of an oscillating system is 𝑑𝑡 2
+ 2𝑟 𝑑𝑡 + 𝑤02 𝑥 = 0 If 𝑤𝑜 >> 𝑟, the time
1
in which energy becomes 𝑒 4 times of its initial value is
2
(1) 𝑠
𝑟
1
(2) 𝑟
𝑠
1
(3) 𝑠
2𝑟
1
(4) 4𝑟
𝑠

36. The phase difference between displacement and driving force in forced harmonic oscillator at low
driving frequency and at high driving frequency will be respectively
𝜋 𝜋
(1) 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2
𝜋
(2) 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2
𝜋
(3) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜋
2
(4) 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜋

37. A transverse wave described by 𝑦 = (0.02 𝑚) sin[(1.0 𝑚−1 )𝑥 + (30 𝑠 −1 )𝑡] propagates on a
stretched string having a linear mass density of 1.2 × 10−4 𝑘𝑔⁄𝑚. The tension in the string is
(1) 0.059 N
(2) 0.108 N
(3) 0.158 N
(4) 0.216 N

38. Two waves of equal amplitude A and equal frequency travel in the 25 same direction in a medium.
The amplitude of the resultant wave will be
(1) zero
(2) A
(3) 2A
(4) between zero and 2A

39. A string fixed at both ends has consecutive standing wave modes for which the distance between
adjacent nodes are 18 cm and 16 cm respectively. What is the possible length of the string?
(1) 36 cm
(2) 72 cm
(3) 96 cm
(4) 144 cm

40. A thin rod of proper length L is moving with velocity 0.6 𝐶 in a direction at 30° to its own length.
Its length is (In a stationary reference frame)
(1) 0.6 L
(2) 0.7 L
(3) 0.8 L
(4) 0.85 L

41. A reference frame 𝑆 ′ is moving with a constant relativistic speed with respect to another stationary
reference frame S. If path of particle in 𝑆 ′ frame is circle, then in frame S it will appears as
(1) straight line
(2) circle
(3) parabola
(4) ellipse

42. A particle of rest mass 𝑚0 is moving with a velocity 0.9 𝑐. Its kinetic energy is
(1) 𝑚0 𝑐 2
(2) 1.3 𝑚0 𝑐 2
(3) 2.3 𝑚0 𝑐 2
(4) 5.3 𝑚0 𝑐 2

43. A fixed cylindrical tank having e large cross-section area is filled with two liquids of densities 𝜌 and
ℎ
2𝜌 upto equal height h as shown in figure. If a small hole is h made at height 2 from the bottom. The
speed of efflux will be

(1) √4𝑔ℎ
(2) √3𝑔ℎ
(3) √2𝑔ℎ
(4) √𝑔ℎ

44. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 19.5 𝑘𝑔⁄𝑚3 ) is 0.2 𝑚/𝑠 in a viscous liquid
(density 1.5 𝑘𝑔⁄𝑚3 ), then the terminal speed of silver sphere (density 10.5 𝑘𝑔⁄𝑚3 ) of the same size
in the same liquid will be
(1) 0.1 𝑚⁄𝑠
(2) 0.133 𝑚⁄𝑠
(3) 0.2 𝑚⁄𝑠
(4) 0.4 𝑚⁄𝑠

45. If work required to blow a soap bubble of radius r is W, then the additional work required to be
done to blow it to a radius 3r is
(1) 4 W
(2) 8 W
(3) 27 W
(4) 36 W

46. The energy of a photon is equal to the kinetic energy of a proton. The energy of photon is E. If 𝜆1
𝜆
be the de-Broglie wave length of the proton and 𝜆2 be the wave length of the photon. The ratio 𝜆1 is
2
proportional to
(1) 𝐸 0
(2) 𝐸 1⁄2
(3) 𝐸 −1
(4) 𝐸 −2

47. The velocity of an electron is 300 𝑚/𝑠. If uncertainity in the velocity of electron is 0.001%, then
minimum uncertainity in its position will be
(1) ≈ 0.019 𝑚
(2) ≈ 0.190 𝑚
(3) ≈ 0.380 𝑚
(4) ≈ 1.900 𝑚

48. Choose wrong combinations among the following:

Observable Co-ordinate Representation
A. Position <𝑥>
B. Momentum 𝜕
< 𝑖ℏ >
𝜕𝑡
C. Energy 𝜕
< −𝑖ℏ >
𝜕𝑥
D. Velocity 𝜕<𝑥>
𝜕𝑡
(1) only A
(2) only B
(3) B & C
(4) A, B, C, and D

49. The operator equivalent of velocity in momentum representation is

(symbols have their usual meanings)
2<𝑘>
(1) 𝛼
2
(2) < ℏ 𝑘 >
(3) < ℏ𝑘 >
(4) < ℏ2 𝑊 >

50. Choose wrong identity for commutator among the following:

(1) [𝐴, 𝐵] = −[𝐵, 𝐴]
(2) [𝐴, 𝐵𝐶] = [𝐴, 𝐵] 𝐶 + 𝐵 [𝐴, 𝐶]
(3) [𝐴𝐵, 𝐶] = [𝐴, 𝐶] 𝐵 + 𝐴 [𝐵, 𝐶]
(4) [𝐴, [𝐵, 𝐶]] = 𝐵[𝐶, 𝐴] + 𝐶[𝐴, 𝐵]
51. Choose correct statement for Dirac Bra-ket notation.
(1) All the ket vectors of system together form a non-linear vector space.
(2) The Hermitian conjugate of each ket is a bra-vector.
(3) The bras comprise a space having different dimensionality as the ket space.
(4) There is no correspondence between the bra and ket spaces.

52. The expectation value of square of all observable quantities are

(1) negative and imaginary ever.
(2) positive and real ever.
(3) may be positive or negative but real ever.
(4) may be real or imaginary but positive ever.

53. The degeneracy of a free particle system is

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

54. When a particle with energy 𝐸 (> 𝑣) is incident on a potential barrier of height V, the reflection
co- efficient will be (symbols have their usual meanings)
(1) zero
(2) 1
𝑘1 −𝑘2 2
(3) ( )
𝑘1 +𝑘2
2𝑘1 𝑘2
(4) (𝑘1 +𝑘2 )2

55. If a particle is bound in a one dimensional box with boundaries at 𝑥 = 0 and 𝑥 = 𝐿, the most
probable positions for 𝑛 = 3 are at
𝐿 2𝐿
(1) 𝑥 = 3 ; 𝑥 = 3
; 𝑥=𝐿
𝐿 𝐿 3
(2) 𝑥 = 4 ; 𝑥 = 2
; 𝑥 = 4𝐿
𝐿
(3) 𝑥 = 0; 𝑥 = 2
; 𝑥=𝐿
𝐿 3𝐿 5𝐿
(4) 𝑥 = ; 𝑥 = ;𝑥=
6 6 6

56. For a particle in a box, the fractional difference in the energy between adjacent eigen value is
∆𝐸
[ 𝐸 𝑛 =]
𝑛
(1) zero
2𝑛+1
(2)
𝑛2
1
(3) 𝑛2
𝑛+1
(4) 𝑛−1

57. The energy of a linear harmonic oscillator in its third excited state is 0.1𝑒𝑉. Its frequency of
vibration is
(1) 6.89 × 1012 𝐻𝑧
(2) 6.89 × 109 𝐻𝑧
(3) 6.89 × 107 𝐻𝑧
(4) 6.89 × 106 𝐻𝑧

58. An electron beam of 100 eV energy is incident on 1 mm wide and 110 eV high one dimension
rectangular potential well. The transmitting percentage probability of electron will be
(1) 73%
(2) 37%
(3) 27%
(4) 63%

59. The eigen values (𝜆) of 𝐿2 (L orbital angular momentum) for 𝑙 = 0, 1, 2, . . . 𝑙 are given by
(1) ℏ2 𝑙
(2) ℏ2 𝑙 2
(3) ℏ2 𝑙(𝑙 + 1)
𝑙
(4) ℏ 𝑙+1

60. Choose correct commutation relation between components of orbital angular momentum, linear
momentum and position.
(1) [𝐿𝑥 , 𝐿𝑦 ] = −𝑖ℏ𝐿𝑧
(2) [𝐿𝑥 , 𝑦] = −𝑖ℏ𝑧
(3) [𝐿𝑥 , 𝑃𝑦 ] = −𝑖ℏ𝑃𝑧
(4) [𝐿𝑥 , 𝑃𝑥 ] = 0

61. If |𝛼, 𝑚 > is normalized ket such that 𝐽2 |𝛼, 𝑚 >= 𝛼|𝛼 , 𝑚 > 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐽𝑍 |𝛼, 𝑚 >= 𝑚|𝛼, 𝑚 > then
(1) 𝑎 < 𝑚2
(2) 𝑎 = 𝑚2
(3) 𝑎 ≥ 𝑚2
(4) 𝑎 = 𝑚

1
62. The Clebsch-Gordon (𝐶. 𝐺. ) coefficient when 𝐽1 = 𝐽2 = + 2 are
1 1
(1) 𝐶1 = ; 𝐶2 = − ; 𝐶3 = 1; 𝐶4 = 1
√2 √2
1 1
(2) 𝐶1 = 𝐶2 = 𝐶3 = ; 𝐶4 = −
√2 √2
1
(3) 𝐶1 = 𝐶2 = 1 ; 𝐶3 = 𝐶4 = − 2
√
1
(4) 𝐶1 = 𝐶3 = − ; 𝐶2 = 𝐶4 = 1
√2

63. The average distance of the electron from the nucleus of H atom in the 2s state is [𝑎0 - Bohr radius]
(1) 6 𝑎0
(2) 4 𝑎0
(3) 2 𝑎0
3
(4) 2 𝑎0
64. For a quantum state 𝑙 = 0; the expectation value of change in electron energy due to spin-orbit
coupling will be
(1) zero
ℏ2
(2) 2
< 𝑓(𝑟) >
(3) ℏ < 𝑓(𝑟) >
ℏ2
(4) <𝑓(𝑟)>

1
65. A particle of mass m moves in a one diemensional simple harmonic potential 𝑉0 = 2 𝑘𝑥 2 with
1
angular frequency 𝜔 = √𝑘⁄𝑚. If small perturbing term 𝑉 (1) = 𝛿𝑘𝑥 2 is added, then first order
2
perturbation in the energy of ground state is
1 𝛿𝑘 2
(1) 𝐸 (1) = 2 ( 𝑘 ) ℏ𝜔
1 𝛿𝑘
(2) 𝐸 (1) = ( ) ℏ𝜔
4 𝑘
1 𝛿𝑘 2
(3) 𝐸 (1) = 16 ( 𝑘 ) ℏ𝜔
1 𝛿𝑘
(4) 𝐸 (1) = 16 ( 𝑘 ) ℏ2 𝜔

66. The ground state energy of He atom obtained by variation method is smaller than the value
obtained by first order stationary perturbation method by the quantity
(1) 0.65 eV
(2) 1.32 eV
(3) 2.64 eV
(4) 5.28 eV

67. If 𝛿𝑖 , is the phase shift in the 𝑙 𝑡ℎ partial wave, then the total scattering cross section is represented
by
4𝜋
(1) 𝜎𝑇𝑜𝑡 = ∑ (2𝑙 + 1) sin2 𝛿𝑙
𝑘2 𝑙
4𝜋
(2) 𝜎𝑇𝑜𝑡 = ∑ 𝑙 sin2 𝛿𝑙
𝑘2 𝑙
4𝜋
(3) 𝜎𝑇𝑜𝑡 = ∑ (2𝑙 + 1) sin 𝛿𝑙
𝑘2 𝑙
4𝜋
(4) 𝜎𝑇𝑜𝑡 = ∑ sin 𝛿𝑙
𝑘2 𝑙

68. According to Fermi-Golden rule, the transition rate is proportional to 𝑛𝑡ℎ power of the matrix
element of perturbation connecting these states and proportional to 𝑚𝑡ℎ power of the density of final
states. Here n and m are respectively
(1) 1 and 3
(2) 2 and 2
(3) 1 and 4
(4) 2 and 1

69. The validity condition for WKB approximation in terms of the wavelength of the particle is (in a
one dimensional case)
 𝑑2 𝜆
(1) 𝑑𝑥 2 (2𝜋) ≤ 1
𝑑 𝜆
(2) |𝑑𝑥 (2𝜋)| ≤ 1
𝑑𝑝
(3) |𝜆
𝑑𝑥
| ≥ |2𝜋𝑝|
2
𝑑 𝑝
(4) |𝜆 𝑑𝑥 2 | = 0

70. Find the ratio of intensities of the two lines corresponding to the transitions 3𝑃 → 1𝑆 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑃 →
1𝑆 in the hydrogen atom spectrum. It is assumed that equal number of atoms are excited to the 3P
and 2P states.
(1) 1:1
(2) 4:3
(3) 16:9
(4) 256: 81

𝑘 𝑉0 𝑒 −𝛼𝑟
71. The condition of validity of first Born approximation ( ≪ 1) for the potential 𝑉(𝑟) = 𝑖𝑠
𝑎 𝛼𝑟
(here length 1⁄𝛼 is the range of potential)
2𝑚𝑉
(1) ℏ2 𝛼20 ≫ 1
2𝑚𝑉
(2) ℏ2 𝛼20 ≪ 1
ℏ2 𝛼
(3) 𝑣0
≫1
𝛼2
(4) ≪1
ℏ𝑉0

72. For a system of two identical particles, each of which can be in one of n quantum states, the
number of anti symmetric states of the system are
(1) n
(2) 𝑛(𝑛 + 1)
𝑛(𝑛 + 1)
(3) 2
𝑛(𝑛− 1)
(4) 2

73. The exchange splitting of the energy levels of a two electron system in term of exchange operator
is
(1) 𝑉̂𝑒𝑥𝑐ℎ = 𝐴[𝑆̂1 . 𝑆̂2 ]
1
(2) 𝑉̂𝑒𝑥𝑐ℎ = − 𝐴[1 + 4𝑆̂1 . 𝑆̂2 ]
2
1
(3) 𝑉̂𝑒𝑥𝑐ℎ = 4 𝐴[1 − 2𝑆̂1 . 𝑆̂2 ]
1
(4) 𝑉̂𝑒𝑥𝑐ℎ = 𝐴 [2 + 𝑆̂1 . 𝑆̂2 ]

74. Which of the following option is a correct representation of the Klein-Gordon equation?
𝜕2 𝑚2 𝑐 4
(1) [∇2 − 2 + 02 ] 𝜓 = 0
𝜕𝑡 ℏ
2 1 𝜕2 𝑚2 𝑐 4
(2) [∇ − 𝑐 2 𝜕𝑡 2 − ℏ02 ] 𝜓 = 0
 1 𝜕 𝑚0 𝑐 2
(3) [∇ − 𝑐 𝜕𝑡 + ℏ
]𝜓 = 0
1 𝜕2 𝑚 𝑐4
(4) [∇2 + 𝑐 2 𝜕𝑡 2 + 0ℏ ] 𝜓 = 0

75. Choose wrong property of 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 matrices in Dirac equation

(1) Eigen values of the matrices must be ± 1.
(2) Trace 𝛼𝑖 = 0
(3) 𝛼𝑗 𝛽 + 𝛽𝛼𝑗 = 𝐼
(4) 𝛼𝑗 𝛼𝑘 + 𝛼𝑘 𝛼𝑗 = 0 (𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑗 ≠ 𝑘)

76. p-v diagram of an ideal gas is shown in figure. Work done by the gas in the process ABCD is

(1) 𝑝0 𝑣0
(2) 2𝑝0 𝑣0
(3) 3𝑝0 𝑣0
(4) 4𝑝0 𝑣0

77. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its
temperature. The value of 𝛾 for the gas is
(1) 11⁄9
(2) 7⁄5
(3) 5⁄3
(4) 3⁄2

78. Gibb's potential is defined as

(1) 𝐺 = 𝑈 − 𝑃𝑉 + 𝑇𝑆
(2) 𝐺 = 𝑈 + 𝑃𝑉 + 𝑇𝑆
(3) 𝐺 = 𝑈 − 𝑃𝑉 − 𝑇𝑆
(4) 𝐺 = 𝑈 + 𝑃𝑉 − 𝑇𝑆

79. The enthalpies of certain gas before and after Joule-Thomson expansion are 77.2 cal and 106.8 cal
respectively. If enthalpy of emerging liquid is 55.4 cal then fraction of gas liquefied will be
(1) 0.52
(2) 0.58
(3) 0.62
(4) 0.68

80. The relation between temperature of inversion (𝑇𝑖 ), Boyle temperature (𝑇𝐵 ) and critical
temperature (𝑇𝐶 ) is
(1) 𝑇𝐵 = 2𝑇𝑖 = 6.75 𝑇𝐶
(2) 𝑇𝐶 = 𝑇𝐵 = 6.75 𝑇𝑖
(3) 𝑇𝑖 = 2𝑇𝐵 = 6.75 𝑇𝐶
(4) 𝑇𝐶 = 𝑇𝑖 = 𝑇𝐵

81. Choose correct Maxwell relation among the following:

𝜕𝑇 𝜕𝑃
(1) ( ) = − ( )
𝜕𝑉 𝑆 𝜕𝑆 𝑉
𝜕𝑆 𝜕𝑃
(2) (𝜕𝑉) = − (𝜕𝑇 )
𝑇 𝑉
𝜕𝑇 𝜕𝑉
(3) (𝜕𝑃) = − ( 𝜕𝑆 )
𝑆 𝑃
𝜕𝑉 𝜕𝑆
(4) (𝜕𝑇 ) = − (𝜕𝑃)
𝑃 𝑇

82. For reaction 2𝐶𝑂2 → 2𝐶𝑂 + 𝑂2 , if 𝜇1 𝜇2 and 𝜇3 are chemical potential per atom of CO₂ CO and
O2 respectively. Then condition for equilibrium of the reaction is
(1) 2µ1 = 2µ2 + µ3
(2) µ1 = µ2 + µ3
(3) µ1 = µ2 + 2µ3
𝜇2 +𝜇3
(4) 𝜇1 = 2

83. Helmholtz free energy in terms of partition function is represented by

ln 𝑍
(1) 𝐹 = 𝑁𝑘𝑇
(2) 𝐹 = −𝑁𝑘𝑇 ln 𝑍
𝜕
(3) 𝐹 = 𝑁𝑘 [ln 𝑧 + 𝜕𝑇 ln 𝑧]
𝜕
(4) 𝐹 = 𝑁𝐾𝑇 ( ln 𝑍)
𝜕𝑛

84. The energy of some macro system is increased by 10−3 𝑒𝑉 at room temperature 300 K. The
percentage increase in accessible states of the system will be (given 𝑒 0.0385 = 1.039)
(1) 1.3%
(2) 2.6%
(3) 3.9%
(4) 5.2%

85. In second order phase transition, the first derivatives of Gibb's function with respect to
temperature and pressure are
(1) discontinuous at transition point.
(2) continuous at transition point.
(3) may be continuous or discontinuous at transition point.
(4) discontinuous when state change from liquid to gas.

86. If 1 gm of ice at absolute temperature 𝑇1 converts into steam at absolute temperature 𝑇2 ,then
the change in entropy is (𝐿𝑖 -Latent heat of ice; 𝐿𝑠 = Latent heat of steam and C-specific heat of water)
𝐿 𝑇 𝐿
(1) ∆𝑆 = 𝑇𝑖 + 𝑇2 + 𝑇𝑠
𝑖 1 2
 𝐿 𝑇 𝐿
(2) ∆𝑆 = 𝑇𝑖 + 𝐶 𝑇2 + 𝑇𝑠
𝑖 1 2
𝑇1 +𝑇2 𝑇
(3) ∆𝑆 = (𝐿𝑖 + 𝐿𝑠 ) ( 2
)+ 𝐶 ln (𝑇2 )
1
𝐿𝑖 𝐿𝑠 𝑇2
(4) ∆𝑆 = 𝑇1
+ 𝑇2
+ 𝐶 ln(𝑇 )
1

87. A system of fixed volume is in contact with a heat reservoir. Which of the following quantity must
be minimum under equilibrium?
(1) Internal energy
(2) Helmholtz energy
(3) Entropy
(4) Enthalpy

88. The order of low temperature could be obtained by helium dilution refrigerator is
(1) 100 K
(2) 10 K
(3) 1 K
(4) 10-2 K

89. A system consists of three identical particles localized in space. Each particle has two states of
energy 0 and 𝜀. When this system is in the thermal equilibrium with a heat bath at temperature T, its
partition function is
(1) 𝑧 = 1 + 𝑒 −𝛽𝜀 + 𝑒 −2𝛽𝜀 + 𝑒 −3𝛽𝜀
(2) 𝑧 = 1 + 2𝑒 −𝛽𝜀 + 2𝑒 −2𝛽𝜀 + 𝑒 −3𝛽𝜀
(3) 𝑧 = 1 + 3𝑒 −𝛽𝜀 + 3𝑒 −2𝛽𝜀 + 𝑒 −3𝛽𝜀
(4) 𝑧 = 1 + 2𝑒 −𝛽𝜀 + 3𝑒 −2𝛽𝜀 + 𝑒 −3𝛽𝜀

90. For a diatomic ideal gas near room temperature, what fraction of the heat supplied is available for
external work if the gas is expanded at constant pressure?
(1) 1
(2) 2⁄3
(3) 3⁄5
(4) 2⁄7

91. A solid object has a density 𝜌, mass M and coefficient of linear expansion 𝛼. At pressure P the heat
capacities 𝐶𝑝 and 𝐶𝑣 are related as
𝛼𝑀𝑃
(1) 𝐶𝑝 − 𝐶𝑣 = 𝜌
𝛼𝑀𝑃
(2) 𝐶𝑝 − 𝐶𝑣 = 3𝜌
3𝑀𝑃
(3) 𝐶𝑝 − 𝐶𝑣 = 𝜌𝛼
3𝛼𝑀𝑃
(4) 𝐶𝑝 − 𝐶𝑣 = 𝜌

92. The ratio of the adiabatic to the isobaric coefficient of volume expansion is
(1) 𝛾
(2) 𝛾 − 1
1
(3) 𝛾−1
𝛾
(4) 𝛾−1

93. The energy density of the black body radiation is proportional to 𝑛𝑡ℎ power of absolute
temperature. Here n is
(1) 1/2
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

94. The Fermi momentum for an electron gas at 0 K is given by

1 𝑁 2⁄3
(1) 𝑃𝐹 = ( ) ℎ
2 𝜋2 𝑉
3𝑁 1⁄3
(2) 𝑃𝐹 = ( ) ℎ
8𝜋𝑉
3 𝑁 1⁄3
(3) 𝑃𝐹 = (2 𝜋2 𝑉) ℎ2
4 𝑁 2⁄3
(4) 𝑃𝐹 = (9 𝜋𝑉) ℎ

95. The fraction of the time spent by a system in a macro state is proportional to 𝑛𝑡ℎ power of the
thermodynamic probability of the state. Here 'n' is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) −2
(4) −8

96. The density of quantum states in the energy range between E and 𝐸 + 𝑑𝐸 in three dimension is
proportional to (m - mass of particle)
(1) 𝑚1⁄2 𝐸 1⁄2
(2) 𝑚3⁄2 𝐸 1⁄2
(3) 𝑚1⁄2 𝐸 3⁄2
(4) 𝑚3⁄2 𝐸 3⁄2

97. Consider 100 molecules and 10. cells of equal energy. log Ω for least probable distribution is
(1) zero
(2) 23
(3) 145
(4) 230

98. In Bose-Einstein statistics, the chemical potential

(1) is always positive.
(2) may be positive or negative.
(3) is always negative.
(4) is always zero.

99. Condition for a fermion gas to be strongly degenerate at temperature T is (𝑇𝐹 -Fermi Temperature)
(1) 𝑇 = 𝑇𝐹
(2) 𝑇 ≪ 𝑇𝐹
(3) 𝑇 ≥ 𝑇𝐹
(4) 𝑇 >>> 𝑇𝐹

𝑇 3⁄2
100. For a Boson gas at a temperature 𝑇 < 𝑇𝐵 , 𝐶𝑣 = 𝐴𝑁𝑘 (𝑇 ) here value of A is
𝐵
(1) 9.32
(2) 6.21
(3) 3.74
(4) 1.93

101. A gas has only two particles. If these particles can be arranged in three phase cell according to
Maxwell Boltzmann Statistics in X ways and in Y ways according to Bose-Einstein Statistics. The ratio
X/Y is
(1) 1⁄3
(2) 3⁄2
(3) 3⁄1
(4) 2⁄3

102. If radiation energy density is 7.54 × 10−16 𝑇 4 𝐽/𝑚3 then pressure of black body radiation.
temperature 300 K will be
(1) 6.09 × 10−6 𝑁⁄𝑚2
(2) 3.05 × 10−6 𝑁⁄𝑚2
(3) 2.03 × 10−6 𝑁⁄𝑚2
(4) 1.52 × 10−6 𝑁⁄𝑚2

103. For a gas consisting of a large number of molecules the probability that a molecule does not suffer
a collision upto time t is (𝜏-relaxation time)
(1) 𝑒 −𝑡⁄𝜏
(2) 𝑒 −2𝑡⁄𝜏
(3) 𝑒 −𝑡⁄2𝜏
(4) 𝑒 −𝑡⁄4𝜏

104. Which of the following statement is NOT true for Brownian motion?
(1) The law of kinetic theory of gases are applicable to it.
(2) The motion is more conspicuous in a liquid of lower viscosity.
(3) The Brownian motion cannot be observed with particle of large size.
(4) The motion is modified due to the shaking of colloidal solution.

105. Coefficient of self diffusion for a gas is directly proportional to (T-Temperature; P-Pressure)
(1) 𝑇𝑃1⁄2
(2) 𝑇 3⁄2 𝑃1⁄2
(3) 𝑇 3⁄2 𝑃−1
(4) 𝑇𝑃−1

106. A nucleus at rest disintegrates into two nuclei X and Y having velocities in the ratio 2: 1, the ratio
of the nuclear radii of X and Y is
(1) 31⁄2 : 1
(2) 1: 21⁄3
(3) 21⁄2 : 1
(4) 1: 31⁄3

107. The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron and an 𝛼-particle are 𝑋1 and 𝑋2 respectively.
What will be the energy Q released in the reaction?
2 2 2
1𝐻 + 1𝐻 → 1𝐻𝑒 + 𝑄
(1) 4(𝑋1 + 𝑋2 )
(2) 4(𝑋2 − 𝑋1 )
(3) 2(𝑋1 + 𝑋2 )
(4) 2(𝑋2 − 𝑋1 )

108. The binding energies of the nuclei A and B are 𝐸𝑎 and 𝐸𝑏 respectively. Three nuclei of B fuse to
give one nucleus of A. This fusion process is accompanied by release of energy E. Then E, E are related
to each other as
(1) 𝐸𝑎 + 𝐸 = 3𝐸𝑏
(2) 𝐸𝑎 = 3𝐸𝑏
(3) 𝐸𝑎 − 𝐸 = 3𝐸𝑏
(4) 𝐸𝑎 + 3𝐸𝑏 + 𝐸 = 0

226
109. The number of 𝛼 and 𝛽 particles emitted during the radioactive decay chain starting from 88𝑅𝑎
and ending at 206
82𝑝𝑏 is
(1) 3𝛼 and 6 𝛽
(2) 4 𝛼 and 5 𝛽
(3) 5 𝛼 and 4 𝛽
(4) 6 𝛼 and 6 𝛽

110. Which of the following forms a pair of isotones?

(1) 31𝐻 and 32𝐻𝑒
(2) 30 30
15𝑃 and 14𝑆𝑖
(3) 238 232
92𝑈 and 90𝑇ℎ
(4) 198 197
80𝐻𝑔 and 79𝐴𝑢

111. Which one of the following nuclei does NOT have zero spin?
(1) 178𝑂
(2) 40
20𝐶𝑎
(3) 88
38𝑆𝑟
(4) 208
82𝑃𝑏

112. If a nucleus with mass number A emit a a particle of energy E, the kinetic energy of the product
nucleus is approximately
𝐴
(1) 𝐾 = (𝐴−4) 𝐸
𝐴−4
(2) 𝐾 = ( 𝐴
)𝐸
4𝐸
(3) 𝐾 = 𝐴
𝐴𝐸
(4) 𝐾 = 4

113. Choose codes for correct conditions.

Decay Condition
− 𝐴 𝐴
P. 𝛽 𝑑𝑒𝑐𝑎𝑦 𝑍𝑀 > 𝑍+1𝑀
Q. 𝛽 + 𝑑𝑒𝑐𝑎𝑦 𝐴 𝐴
𝑍𝑀 > 𝑍−1𝑀 + 3𝑚𝑒
R. Electron Captured 𝐴𝑍𝑀 > 𝑍−1𝐴𝑀
(1) only P
(2) P and Q
(3) Q and R
(4) All three P, Q and R

114. Internal conversion coefficient of 𝛾 rays is proportional to

(1) 𝑍 3
(2) 𝑍 2
(3) 𝑍1
(4) 𝑧 0

115. The probability of finding the neutron and proton within the range of nuclear force in deuteron
is about
(1) 70%
(2) 60%
(3) 50%
(4) 30%

116. Yukawa potential is given by (symbols have their usual meaning)

−𝑟
(1) 𝑉 = −𝑉0 exp ( 𝑅 )
−𝑟
exp( )
𝑅
(2) 𝑉 = −𝑉0 𝑟
𝑅
𝑅
(3) 𝑉 = −𝑉0 𝑟
𝑟
(4) 𝑉 = −𝑉0 𝑅 exp (+ )
𝑅

117. The dependence of surface energy on mass number in semi- empirical mass formula is shown as
(1) 𝐸𝑠 ∝ 𝐴−2⁄3
(2) 𝐸𝑠 ∝ 𝐴−1⁄3
(3) 𝐸𝑠 ∝ 𝐴1⁄3
(4) 𝐸𝑠 ∝ 𝐴2⁄3

118. The observed level-spacing ∆𝐸𝑙𝑠 due to spin-orbit interaction in shell model is proportional to
(1) (2𝑙 + 1)
(2) (2𝑙 − 1)
(3) (2𝑠 + 1)
(4) (2𝑠 − 1)

119. Condition for symmetric spontaneous fission is

𝑍
(1) 𝐴 ≥ 10
𝑍
(2) ≥ 12
𝐴2
𝑍 2
(3) 𝐴
≥ 15
𝑍 3
(4) ≥ 15
𝐴

120. The quadrupole moment of a system in which a proton is circling a spherical nucleus having equal
number of proton and neutron is
(1) positive
(2) negative
(3) zero
(4) may be positive or negative

121. As one moves along the line of stability from 56𝐹𝑒 to 235𝑈 nucleus, the nuclear binding energy
per nucleon decreases from about 8.8 𝑀𝑒𝑉 to 7.6 𝑀𝑒𝑉. This trend is mainly due to the
(1) Short range nature of nuclear forces.
(2) Tensor nature of nuclear forces.
(3) Spin dependence of the nuclear forces.
(4) Long range nature of coulomb forces.

122. Beside 𝛾-ray emission, electromagnetic decay of an excited nuclear state can be accomplished
through internal conversion. If 𝜆𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜆𝛾 are the probabilities of emission of an electron and emission
of a photon respectively in such a decay. Then total probability (𝜆) of the decay of the excited state is
(a-internal conversion coefficient).
(1) 𝜆 = 𝜆𝛾 (1 + 𝛼)
(2) 𝜆 = 𝜆𝑒 (1 + 𝛼)
(3) 𝜆 = 𝜆𝛾 (1 − 𝛼)
𝜆
(4) 𝜆 = 𝜆𝑒 + 𝛼
𝛾

123. Assuming that the deuteron-inter-nucleon potential is of rectangular well type with depth 𝑉0 and
range 𝑟0 , the radius of deuteron is proportional to
(1) 𝑟0 𝑣0
1⁄
(2) 𝑟0 2 𝑣0
 1⁄
2
(3) 𝑟0 𝑣0
(4) 𝑟0 𝑣02

124. The order of life time of compound nucleus is

(1) 10−2 𝑠
(2) 10−8 𝑠
(3) 10−15 𝑠
(4) 10−30 𝑠

235
125. A thermal neutron having speed V impinges on a 𝑈 nucleus. The reaction cross section is
proportional to
(1) 𝑉 −1
(2) 𝑉 1
(3) 𝑉 1⁄2
(4) 𝑉 −1⁄2

126. 49𝐵𝑒 nucleus consists of

(1) 13 upquarks and 13 downquarks.
(2) 13 upquarks and 14 downquarks.
(3) 14 upquarks and 13 downquarks.
(4) 14 upquarks and 14 downquarks.

127. Which of the following is a correct representation of the Gell-Mann- Nishijima relation?
(Symbols have their usual meaning) SI,+B+S
𝐼3 +𝐵+𝑆
(1) 𝜙 =
3
𝐼3 +𝐵
(2) 𝜙 = 3
+𝑆
𝐵+𝑆
(3) 𝜙 = 𝐼3 + 2
𝐼3 +𝑆
(4) 𝜙 = 2
+𝐵

128. In reaction 𝜋 + + 𝑛 → 𝑋 + Σ° , the Baryon number, strangeness and fisthird component of

isospin of X are respectively
1
(1) 1, 1, 2
(2) 0, 0, 1
1
(3) 1, 0,
2
1
(4) 0, 1, 2

129. Weak interaction take place due to exchange of

(1) Gauge Bosons
(2) Graviton
(3) Meson
(4) Lepton
130. If C operator represents charge symmetric transformation, then which one of following quantum
number will not change sign under the action of C?
(1) Charge
(2) Spin
(3) Strangeness
(4) Lepton number

131. An ionisation chamber is charged to a potential of 1000 V. By what percentage its charge would
reduce in passing an a particle producing 2 × 105 ion pairs? (Its capacity be 50 pfc)
(1) 3.2 × 10−5 %
(2) 4.8 × 10−5 %
(3) 6.4 × 10−5 %
(4) 12.8 × 10−5 %

132. If 𝜏 is paralysis time of a GM counter, then efficiency of counter is (N - No. of ions enter persecond
in counter, n-counts per second)
(1) 𝜂 = 𝜏⁄𝑁
𝑛𝜏
(2) 𝜂 = 𝑁
−1
(3) 𝜂 = 𝑛𝜏 + 1
(4) 𝜂 = 1 − 𝑛𝜏

133. The electric field strength E in a proportional counter, at a point distant r from the axis of cylinder
is given by
(𝑉0 is the applied potential difference and a and b are radii of inner and outer electrodes)
𝑏
(1) 𝐸𝑟 = 𝑉0 log e (𝑎)
𝑉 𝑏
(2) 𝐸𝑟 = 𝑟 log0 (𝑎)
e
𝑉0 𝑟
(3) 𝐸𝑟 = log
e (𝑏 ⁄𝑎)
𝑉0 𝑏
(4) 𝐸𝑟 = ( )
𝑟 𝑎

134. The length of 𝑛𝑡ℎ tube in linear accelerator is proportional to 𝑋 𝑡ℎ power of n. Here X is
(1) 1⁄2
(2) − 1⁄2
(3) 2
(4) −2

135. In a scintillation counter a 𝛾-ray peak of 20 𝑘𝑒𝑉 energy is observed at a pulse height of 32 V. The
full width at half maxima (FWHM) is 4 keV. The percentage resolution of counter is
(1) 5%
(2) 10%
(3) 20%
(4) 30%
136. In terms of the basic units of mass M, length L, time T and charge Q, the dimensions of magnetic
permeability of free space 𝜇0 will be
(1) 𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 −1 𝑄 −2
(2) 𝐿𝑇𝑄 −1
(3) 𝑀𝐿𝑄 −2
(4) 𝐿𝑇 −1 𝑄−1

137. For vectors

𝑎⃗ = 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ , 𝑏⃗⃗ = 2î + 3𝑗̂ − 5𝑘̂ and 𝑐⃗ = 𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂ the vector product 𝑎⃗ × (𝑏⃗⃗ × 𝑐⃗) is
(1) in the same direction as 𝑐⃗
(2) in direction opposite to 𝑐⃗
(3) in the same direction as 𝑏⃗⃗
(4) in direction opposite to 𝑏⃗⃗

138. Two vectors lie with their tails at the same point. When the angle between them is increased by
20° their scalar product has the same magnitude but change from positive to negative. The original
angle between them was
(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 70°
(4) 80°

139. The derivative of the function 𝜙 = 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥𝑦 + 𝑧 2 at the point (2, −1,1) in the direction of vector
𝐴⃗ = 𝑖̂ − 2𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂ is
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

1 2 3
140. The rank of matrix (1 2 5) is
2 4 8
(1) 1 (one)
(2) 2 (two)
(3) 3 (three)
(4) 4 (four)

𝑎 3 0
141. Two of the eigen values of the matrix 𝐴 = [3 2 0] are 1 and −1. What is the third eigen value?
0 0 1
(1) 2
(2) −2
(3) 5
(4) −5
142. The differential equation 𝑦 ′′ + 3𝑦 ′ + 2𝑦 = 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 is
(1) First order homogeneous equation.
(2) First order inhomogeneous equation.
(3) Second order homogeneous equation.
(4) Second order inhomogeneous equation.

143. Choose wrong relation for Legendre polynomial 𝑃𝑛 [𝑥]

(1) 𝑃𝑛 (−1) = (−1)𝑛 𝑃𝑛 (1)
′
(2) 𝑛𝑃𝑛−1 (𝑥) = 𝑃𝑛′ (𝑥) + 𝑥 𝑃𝑛−1 (𝑥)
(3) 𝑃−𝑛 (𝑥) = 𝑃𝑛−1 (𝑥)
(4) 𝑃𝑛 (1) = 1

144. The value of 𝐽1⁄ (𝜋⁄2) is (𝐽1⁄ half order Bessel function)
2 2
(1) Zero
(2) 1 (one)
(3) 2/𝜋
𝜋2
(4) 2

145. Rodrigue's formula for Hermite Polynomial is given by

𝐴 𝑑𝑛 𝐵
𝐻𝑛 (𝑥) = (−1)𝑛 𝑒 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 𝑛
(𝑒 −𝑥 ). Here values of A & B are respectively
(1) 𝐴 = 2, 𝐵 =2
(2) 𝐴 = 2, 𝐵 =3
(3) 𝐴 = 2, 𝐵 =1
(4) 𝐴 = 3, 𝐵 =2

146. The differential equation

𝑥𝑦 ′′ + (1 − 𝑥)𝑦 ′ + 𝜆𝑦 = 0
(𝜆 = constant) is called as
(1) Bessel differential equation
(2) Hermite differential equation
(3) Laguerre's differential equation
(4) Legendre differential equation

147. Let 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 , −𝜋 < 𝑥 < 𝜋, then coefficient 𝑎0 in Fourier series of the function is
(1) 0 (zero)
(2) 𝜋 2
𝜋2
(3) 3
𝜋3
(4) 3

148. The Laplace transform of 𝑓(𝑡) = 𝑡 sin 𝑏𝑡

2𝑏𝑠
(1) 𝑠2 +𝑏2
2𝑏𝑠
(2) 𝑠2 −𝑏2
 𝑏+𝑠
(3) 2
(4) (𝑏 − 𝑠)2

149. Find the Fourier transform of exponentially decaying function

𝑓(𝑡) = 0 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑡 < 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑓(𝑡) = 𝐴𝑒 −𝜆𝑡 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑡 ≥ 0. (𝜆 > 0)
𝐴(𝜆+ 𝑖𝑤)
(1) 2
𝐴(𝜆− 𝑖𝑤)
(2) 2
𝐴 1
(3) 𝜋 (𝜆+𝑖𝑤)
𝐴
(4) (𝜆 + 𝑖𝑤)
√2𝜋

150. Choose correct relation for two complex numbers 𝑧1 and 𝑧2 .

(1) |𝑧1 + 𝑧2 | < |𝑧1 | − |𝑧2 |
(2) |𝑧1 + 𝑧2 | ≤ |𝑧1 | + |𝑧2 |
(3) |𝑧1 + 𝑧2 | = |𝑧1 | + |𝑧2 |
(4) |𝑧1 + 𝑧2 | ≥ |𝑧1 | + |𝑧2 |