06/03/2025 Code-B

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13,
Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122018, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered :
Physics:
Electromagnetic Waves
Electromagnetic induction
Alternating Current
Moving Charges and Magnetism
Magnetism and Matter
Chemistry:
Coordination Compounds
Amines
The d and f-Block Elements
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Botany:
Microbes in Human Welfare
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Zoology:
Human Health and Disease
Evolution

Physics

1. A : In a step-up transformer, number of turn 2. A : Electromagnetic waves have momentum

in secondary coil is less than primary coil. and energy.
R : DC current can also be stepped up by R : Electromagnetic waves does not need
the transformer. any material medium for its propagation.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements statements

3. For a plane electromagnetic wave, average

of which among the following is zero?
(1) Electric field
(2) Magnetic energy
(3) Electric energy
(4) All of these
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

4. In the circuit shown, the reading of ammeter 8. Current in the long straight wire is
is 5 A and that of voltmeter across capacitor decreasing with time. The induced current in
VC = 200 V. The reading of voltmeter across loop 1 and 2 are
inductor VL is

(1) Clockwise in loop 1 as well as in loop 2

(2) Clockwise in loop 1 and anticlockwise
in loop 2
(3) Anticlockwise in loop 1 and
anticlockwise in loop 2
(4) Anticlockwise in loop 1 and clockwise
(1) 178.6 volt in loop 2
(2) 378.6 volt
(3) 21.4 volt 9. A : An inductor provides inertia, which
opposes the change in current.
(4) Both (B) and (C) R : For DC, inductor behaves as a short
circuit after long time switch is closed.
5. The magnetic susceptibility of a substance at (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
500 K is –0.00004. Its susceptibility at 600 K the reason is the correct explanation of
is the assertion
(1) –0.00004 (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(2) –0.00002 the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) –0.00003
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(4) –0.00001
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
6. The number of turns, cross-sectional area statements
and length for four solenoids are given in the
following table.
10. The power supplied by the magnetic force
acting on a moving charged particle
(1) Is never zero
(2) Is always zero
(3) →
Is zero only when v⃗ is parallel to B

(4) Is zero only when v⃗ is antiparallel to

The solenoid with maximum self inductance →

is B

(1) 1
(2) 2 11. An alternating source of emf is connected to
(3) 3 parallel plate capacitor then
(4) 4 (1) No magnetic field will induce
(2) Sinusoidal magnetic field will induce
and amplitude of magnetic field will be
7. In electromagnetic wave, the phase proportional to frequency of the source
difference between electric and magnetic
→ →
(3) Sinusoidal magnetic field will induce
field vector E and B is and amplitude of field will be constant
(1) 0 (4) A constant magnetic field will induce
(2) π
2

(3) π 12. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A

and plate separation d is charged by a
(4) π current of 5 mA. The displacement current
4
2A
through a plane surface of area 3 parallel
to the plates and drawn symmetrically
between the plates, is
(1) 5 mA
(2) 2.5 mA
(3) 10 mA
3

(4) 5
mA
3
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

–
13. A current of 3√3 A is flowing in an 18. Direction of induced current in the coil
– shown in figure is (Magnetic field is
equilateral triangle of side 3√3 m, made of
perpendicular to the plane of the loop and
uniform wire. The net magnetic field at the uniform)
centroid of the triangle is
(1) 1. 8 μT
(2) 1. 5 μT

(3) 0. 9 μT

(4) 3. 6 μT

14. All the inductors have same inductance of 6 (1) Zero

H. The equivalent inductance (2) BωR2
(3) 2BωR2
(4) BωR
2

2
(1) 1 H
(2) 3 H
19. Magnetic intensity for an axial point due to a
(3) 2 H short bar magnet of magnetic moment M is
(4) 4 H (symbol have their usual meaning)
(1) μ M
0

2
4πd
15. An electric lamp is connected to 220 V, 50
Hz AC supply. Then the peak value of (2) μ M
0

voltage is
3
2πd

(1) 210 V (3) μ M

0

2
2πd
(2) 220 V
(4) μ M
0

(3) 311 V 4πd

3

(4) 120 V
20. A magnet is suspended in such a way that it
16. The magnetic flux linked with a coil, in weber oscillates in the horizontal plane. It makes
is given by the equation ϕ = 4t2 − t + 7 . 30 oscillations per minute at a place where
Then the magnitude of induced emf at 2 dip angle is 30° and 20 oscillations per
second will be minute at a place where dip angle is 60°.
(1) 15 V The ratio of earth’s total magnetic field at the
two places, is
(2) 17 V
(1) 3 : 4
(3) 19 V –
(2) 6√3 : 4
(4) 21 V –
(3) 9 : 4√2
–
(4) 3√3 : 4
17. The magnetic flux ϕ linked with a conducting
coil depends on time t as ϕ = 3tn – 2n , where
n is a positive constant. If the emf induced in 21. Dimension of [
E
] is (where E is electric
the coil is e, then which of the following is B

incorrect about e? field and B is magnetic field)

(1) If 0 < n < 1, e ≠ 0 and |e| decrease with (1) [M0 L T]
time (2) [M0 L T–1 ]
(2) If n = 1, e is constant (3) [M L0 T–1 ]
(3) If n> 1, |e| increases with time
(4) [M0 L–1 T–1 ]
(4) If n> 1, |e| decreases with time

22. Two beams of electrons moving parallel to

each in same direction. Choose the correct
option.
(1) Beam will repel each other
(2) As current is in same direction there
will be magnetic force of attraction
between the beams
(3) Beams will neither attract nor repel
each other
(4) Both (1) and (2)
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

23. Which of the following is correct for visible 27. A closed loop carrying current i is placed so
light when it travels in a glass medium? that its plane is perpendicular to the long
(where symbols have their usual meaning) current carrying straight conductor as shown
(1) λGreen > λRed in the figure. The net force acting on the loop
is [where WZ and XY are circular arcs]
(2) VGreen = VViolet
(3) VGreen > VViolet
(4) νViolet < νGreen

24. An irregular loop is moving with constant

velocity 10 ms–1 in a direction perpendicular
to magnetic field of magnitude 3 T and all
other parameters are as arranged in figure.
Induced emf across AB is [AB = 6 m as
shown in figure]

(1) Zero
(2) μ0 ji0
(b − a)
π(a+b)

(1) 70 V (3) μ0 i i0
(b − a)
(2) 90 V 2π(a+b)

(3) 45 V (4) μ0 i i0 (b−a)

(4) 75 V 2π√ab

25. A current carrying coil is placed in a uniform 28. Four current carrying loops, having same
magnetic field. The coil will tend to orient so dipole moment is placed in a uniform
that its plane becomes magnetic field in four different orientations a,
(1) Inclined at 45º to the magnetic field b, c and d. Arrange them in the decreasing
order of potential energy
(2) Inclined at any arbitrary angle to the
magnetic field
(3) Parallel to the magnetic field
(4) Perpendicular to magnetic field

26. The magnetic pole pieces in a moving coil

galvanometer has
(1) Circular shape
(2) Cylindrical shape
(3) Rectangular shape
(4) Square shape

(1) a=c>b>d
(2) b>d>c=a
(3) a>b>d>c
(4) d>b>c>a

29. The material of permanent magnet has

(1) High retentivity, low coercivity
(2) High retentivity, high coercivity
(3) Low retentivity, low coercivity
(4) Low retentivity, high coercivity
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

30. In tangent galvanometer generally for more 34. A thin bar magnet oscillates in horizontal
accuracy deflection of galvanometer should plane with time period T. It is broken in
be within range of length in n equal parts and one part is
(1) 5° to 20° oscillated in the similar manner. The new
time period will be
(2) 25° to 30°
(1) T
(3) 30° to 60°
(2) nT
(4) 70° to 80°
(3) T
2
n

31. A : Torque experienced by a bar magnet is (4) T

n
maximum when field is applied
perpendicular to magnetic moment.
R : Torque on a bar magnet in magnetic field 35. Which of the following graphs correctly
is MBsinθ. shows the variation of magnetic field
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and intensity (B) with perpendicular distance (r)
the reason is the correct explanation of from a thin long wire, carrying a current (i)?
the assertion (1)
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
(2)
32. The Maxwell's four equations are written as
→
q
(i) ∮ E⃗ ⋅ ds =
0

ε0

→
(ii) ∮ B⃗ ⋅ ds = 0
→ → (3)
dϕB
(iii) ​
∮ E ⋅ dl = −
dt
→ →
dϕE
(iv) ∮ ​B ⋅ dl = μ0 ic + μ0 ε0 dt
Out of the above four equations, which
equation shows magnetic monopoles do not (4)
exist
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (ii) only
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(4) (iii) only

33. An electron is travelling along the positive x-

direction along the line y = 0. It encounters a
magnetic field directed along the negative y
direction. Its subsequent motion will be
(1) A circle in xz plane with its centre on
positive y-axis
(2) A circle in xz plane with its centre on
positive z-axis
(3) A circle in yz plane with its centre on
negative z-axis
(4) A circle in yz plane with its centre on
negative y-axis
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

36. The graph representing the variation of 39. A magnet is cut in three equal parts by
induced magnetic field (B) in the gap of cutting it parallel to its length. If M and T0
parallel plate condenser with circular plates represent the magnetic moment and time
during its charging with the distance (r) from period of original magnet in uniform
the axis of the gap is magnetic field B. Then, the magnetic
(1) moment and time period of each part in the
same magnetic field is
(1) M, T0
(2) M
, T0
3

(3) M
,
T0

3 3

(2) (4) M,
T0

40. Which (among the following) has the longest

wavelength?
(1) Ultraviolet
(2) Visible
(3) Infrared
(3) (4) Microwave

41. A : Magnetic field can change the speed of a

charged particle.
R : Electric field can never change the speed
of a charged particle.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(4) the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

37. An AC circuit has an inductive reactance 42. The magnetic flux through a coil
equal to 10 Ω and a resistance of 10 Ω. The perpendicular to the plane is varying
effective impedance of the circuit is
according to the relation ɸ = (5t3 + 4t2 + 2t –
(1) 20 Ω 5) Wb. Calculate the induced current
–
(2) 10√2 Ω through the coil at t = 2 s, if the resistance of
the coil is 5 Ω.
(3) – (1) 10 A
10√3 Ω
(2) 15.6 A
(4) Zero (3) 2 A
(4) 61 A
38. Velocity of light in a medium with permittivity
ε and permeability μ is given by
−−
(1) μ
√
ε

−−
(2) √με

(3) 1

√με

−
−
(4) ε
√ μ
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

43. An inductor and a capacitor is connected 45. The value of i so that magnetic field at R is
across a source for long time as shown in zero.
the figure. If key k is shifted from position 1 to
position 2 at t = 0, then differential equation,
that correctly describes the variation of
charge (q) with time (t) can be expressed as

(1) 1 A
(1) dq q (2) 2 A
+ = 0
dt LC
(3) 3 A
(2) d
2
q
(4) 4 A
+ LCq = 0
2
dt

(3) d
2
q q
+ = 0
2
dt LC

(4) dq
+
L
q = 0
dt C

44. A : Positron can be accelerated by cyclotron.

R : All positive charges can be accelerated
by cyclotron.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(3) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(4) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false

Chemistry

46. Identify the product D in the following 47. Magnetic moment of a trivalent metal ion is
reaction sequence 5.916 BM. The atomic number of the metal is
(1) 26
(2) 27
(1)
(3) 28
(4) 29

48. Among the following which can behave as

an oxidising agent?
(2)
(1) Ni(CO)4
(2) Cr(CO)6
(3) V(CO)6
(4) Fe(CO)5
(3)

(4)
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

49. In the given set of reactions 53. Which compound will not react with
Hinsberg's reagent?
(1)

(2)

D is
(1) CH3 NH2
(2) CH3 CH2 NH2 (3)
(3) CH3 CH2 NHCH3
(4) (CH3 )2 NH

50. Which amine cannot be synthesised by

(4)
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis?
(1)

(2)
54. When propanamide is treated with Br2 /KOH
(3) then the product obtained is
(1) Propylamine
(2) Ethanamine
(4)
(3) Ethanol
(4) Ethanoic acid

55. Number of mole(s) of KMnO4 required to

oxidize 1 mole of KI in acidic medium is
51. Homoleptic complex among the following is
(1) 5
(1) [Cr(NH ) (NO ) Cl ]–
3 2 2 2 2 (2) 2
(2) [Pt Cl2 (NH3 )2 ] (3) 2

5
2
(3) [Pt Cl3 η (C2 H4 )]
(4) 1

(4) K4 [Fe(CN)6 ] 5

56. Element which has one electron in ‘5s’

52. CFSE of [FeF6 ]4– orbital is
(1) – 0.4 Δ0 (1) Cd
(2) + 0.4 Δ0 (2) Y
(3) – 1.6 Δ0 (3) Ag
(4) + 1.2 Δ0 (4) Zr

57. Which of the following complex can show

linkage as well as ionisation isomerism?
(1) [Cr(H2 O)6 ]Cl3
(2) [Cr(H2 O)3 (CN)3 ]Cl3
(3) [Cr(NH3 )3 Br3 ]Cl3
(4) [Cr(NH3 )6 Br3 ]

58. Which of the following statements is/are

correct?
(1) Actinoid contraction is lesser than
lanthanoid contraction
(2) Basic nature of hydroxides decrease
from Ce(OH)3 to Lu(OH)3
(3) Cerium exhibit +4 oxidation state and it
is reducing agent in +4 state
(4) All of these
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

59. Ligand having highest field strength among 65. Most volatile substance among the following
the following is is
(1) Br– (1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2
(2) S2– (2) (CH3 )3 N
(3) OH– (3) (C2 H5 )2 NH
(4) EDTA4– (4) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH

60. The compound showing maximum number 66. The correct order of pKb values of the
of geometrical isomers is following amines in aqueous solution is
(1) Ma3 b3 (1) C2 H5 NH2 > (C2 H5 )3 N > (C2 H5 )2 NH
(2) Ma2 b2 c2 (2) (C2 H5 )2 NH > C2 H5 NH2 > (C2 H5 )3 N
(3) M(AB)(CD) (3) (C2 H5 )3 N > (C2 H5 )2 NH > C2 H5 NH2
(4) M(AB)c2 d2 (4) (C2 H5 )2 NH > (C2 H5 )3 N > C2 H5 NH2

61. Select the species which is paramagnetic. 67. Which of the following are called as coinage
(1) C2 metals?
(2) 2−
(1) Cu, Ag, Au
C
2
(2) Ru, Rh, Pd
(3) O2
(3) Fe, Co, Ni
(4) O
2−
(4) Os, Ir, Pt
2

62. Incorrect reduction product, among the 68.

following reactions is
(1)

(2)

(3) The reagent A is

(1) Cu + HCl
(2) H3 PO2 and H2 O
(4) (3) Sn + HCl
(4) Hg+2 , H2 SO4

63. A : Na2 Cr2 O7 is orange in colour. 69.

R : Colour of Cr2 O
2–
7
is due to d-d
transition.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of The product formed in the above reaction is
the assertion (1) Aniline
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (2) Azobenzene
the reason is not the correct
(3) Hydrazobenzene
explanation of the assertion
(4) Azoxybenzene
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false 70. The species which is tetrahedral in shape is
statements
(1) [NiCl ]2–
4
64. Vitamin B12 , the antipernicious anemia (2) [PtCl4 ]2–
factor, is a coordination compound of
(3) [Ni(CN)4 ]2–
(1) Iron
(2) Nickel (4) [Cu(NH ) ]2+
3 4
(3) Cobalt
(4) Zinc
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

71. Ziegler-Natta catalyst contains 77. MnO

−
has an intense purple colour in
4
(1) Iron solution due to
(2) Titanium (1) Intermolecular vibration
(3) Nickel (2) Defects in crystal lattice
(4) Copper (3) Excitation of electrons from d → d
(4) L → M charge transfer transition
72. Which of the following oxide/hydroxide is
amphoteric? 78. Maximum number of coordination sites in
(1) Mn2 O7 EDTA is
(2) Cr2 O3 (1) 3
(3) MnO (2) 4
(4) CrO (3) 5
(4) 6
73. Which of the following is most stable
oxidation state of manganese? 79. Which of the following is formed when an
(1) +2 aqueous solution of CuSO4 is added to
(2) +3 excess of KCN?
(3) +4 (1) K2 [Cu (CN)4 ]
(4) +6 (2) K3 [Cu (CN) ]
4

(3) K[Cu (CN) ]

2

74. Most common oxidation state for lanthanoids (4) [Cu (CN) ]
2
is
(1) +1
(2) +2 80. Aniline when treated with acetyl chloride in
presence of alkali produces
(3) +3
(1) Acetophenone
(4) +4
(2) Acetanilide
(3) Benzoyl chloride
75. A : The geometry of complex ion, [NiCl4 ]2– is (4) Anilinium hydrochloride
tetrahedral.
R : [NiCl4 ]2– forms a low spin complex.
81. CH3 NHCH3 and (CH3 )3 N can be chemically
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and distinguished by
the reason is the correct explanation of
(1) Carbylamine test
the assertion
(2) Benedict test
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct (3) Hinsberg’s reagent
explanation of the assertion (4) Lucas test
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
82. Which compound is paramagnetic with
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false respect to four electrons?
statements (1) [Mn(CN6 ]3–
(2) [Fe(CN)6 ]3–
76. A : Fe(CO)5 is homoleptic carbonyl.
R : Oxidation state of Fe in Fe(CO)5 is zero. (3) [FeF ]3–
6
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (4) [MnCl6 ]3–
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but 83. A : Permanganate oxidises iodide ion to
the reason is not the correct iodate ion in alkaline medium.
explanation of the assertion R : Permanganate ion is diamagnetic in
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason nature.
is false (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
the assertion
statements
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

84. Spin only magnetic moment of which 88. Acidified K2 Cr2 O7 will oxidise sulphides
complex is highest? into
(1) [CoF6 ]3– (1) Sulphates
(2) [MnCl6 ]3– (2) Sulphur
(3) Thiosulphates
(3) [Fe F6 ]3–
(4) Sulphur dioxide
(4) [Ni(CN)4 ]2–

89. Amine that on reaction with arylsulphonyl

85. Which of the following is an incorrect chloride forms sulphonamide which is
statement regarding physical properties of insoluble in KOH, is
amines? (1) CH3 CH2 NH2
(1) Lower aliphatic amines are soluble in (2) CH3 CH2 NHCH3
water because H-bonding.
(3)
(2) Among isomeric amines, primary
amine has the highest boiling point.
(3) Aniline and other arylamines are
usually colourless. (4) (CH3 )2 NC2 H5
(4) Amines form stronger intermolecular H-
bonds than alcohols.
90. Low spin complex of d6 – cation in an
octahedral field will have the total energy (P
86. Total number of stereoisomers in is the pairing energy)
+
[Co(en)2 Br2 ] complex are (1) −14 Δ0 + 3P
5
(1) 4
(2) −2
Δ0 + P
(2) 3 5

(3) 2 (3) −2
Δ0 + 2P
5
(4) 6
(4) −12
Δ0 + 2P
5

87. A : CO is a π acid ligand.

R : CO binds with haemoglobin.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

Botany

91. Select the odd one w.r.t. cyanobacteria used 93. The greater the BOD of waste water,
as biofertilisers (1) Lesser is the amount of organic matter
(1) Anabaena present in it
(2) Nostoc (2) More is its polluting potential
(3) Glomus (3) More the number of anaerobic bacteria
(4) Oscillatoria are required to reduce BOD
(4) More it is suitable for drinking
92. Euchromatin is
(1) Densely packed 94. Select the correctly matched pair.
(2) Darkly stained region (1) Streptococcus – Statins
(3) Transcriptionally inactive (2) Monascus purpureus – Cyclosporin A
(4) Transcriptionally active (3) Trichoderma polysporum –
Streptokinase
(4) Aspergillus niger – Pectinases
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

95. BOD is the measure of 101. During sewage treatment, inflammable

(1) Rate of uptake of oxygen by micro- gases are produced by the action of
organisms microbes in
(2) Organic matter present in water (1) Primary settling tank
(3) Amount of oxygen released by micro- (2) Aeration tank
organisms (3) Anaerobic sludge digester
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Filtration tank

96. Genetic codes are 102. Choose the correct option w.r.t. RNA.
(a) Triplet (b) Degenerate (1) It cannot be catalytic
(c) With punctuation (d) Nearly universal
(2) Absence of free 2' OH in sugar
(1) Only (a)
(3) Presence of thymine in place of uracil
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(4) Mutates at faster rate
(3) Only (a) and (d)
(4) All except (c)
103. Select the incorrect match from the
following.
97. How many of the following structures/terms (1) Baculoviruses – Attack insects and
are related to the formation of m-RNA in other arthropods
eukaryotes?
(2) Nucleopolyhedrovirus – Have narrow
Polycistronic transcription unit, Sigma spectrum insecticidal applications
factor, Splicing, Rho factor, Heterogeneous
nuclear RNA, Polyadenylation of mRNA (3) Bacillus thuringiensis – Control
butterfly caterpillars
(1) Two (4) Cochineal insect – Bioinsecticide
(2) Three
(3) Four
104. Mark the incorrect statement.
(4) Five (1) RNA is better material for the transfer of
genetic information
98. Curd formation is done by (2) DNA is chemically more reactive but
(1) Leuconostoc structurally less-stable than RNA
(2) Streptococcus (3) RNA being unstable, mutates at faster
(3) Yeast rate
(4) Lactobacillus (4) Free 2 OH of RNA makes it more labile
'

99. How many of the following alcoholic 105. Match the items in column-I with column-II
beverages are produced without distillation? and select the most suitable option.
Whisky, Column-I Column-II
Brandy, Check disease
a. Baculoviruses (i)
Rum, causing microbes
Wine, Found in anaerobic
Gin, b. Flocs (ii)
sludge
Vodka,
Beer c. Methanogens (iii) Aerobic microbes
Lactic acid Attack insects and
(1) 3 d. (iv)
bacteria other arthropods
(2) 5
(1) a(iv); b(iii); c(ii); d(i)
(3) 2
(2) a(iv); b(ii); c(iii); d(i)
(4) 4
(3) a(i); b(iv); c(ii); d(iii)
(4) a(ii); b(i); c(iii); d(iv)
100. DNA fingerprinting
(1) Was developed by Jacob and Monod
106. Which of the following is not a constituent of
(2) Involves identifying the differences in biogas?
repetitive DNA
(1) CH4
(3) Includes lactose or allolactose as an
inducer (2) CO2
(4) Is closely associated with development (3) SO2
of a new area of biology, bioinformatics (4) H2
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

107. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. microbes 112. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase I transcribes
and their commercial products. all, except
Clostridium Gluconic (1) 28 S rRNA
(1) –
butylicum acid (2) 5 S rRNA
Aspergillus Citric (3) 5.8 S rRNA
(2) – (4) 18 S rRNA
niger acid
Acetobacter Acetic
(3) – 113. Commercially produced blood – cholesterol
aceti acid
lowering agents are
Lactic (1) Cyclosporin A produced by fungus
(4) Lactobacillus –
acid Trichoderma polysporum
(1) (1) (2) Statins produced by yeast Monascus
(2) (2) purpureus
(3) (3) (3) Streptokinase produced by bacterium
Streptococcus
(4) (4)
(4) Amylase produced by fungus Rhizopus

108.
114. Pomato has been produced by the process
of
Number of peptide bonds in the polypeptide (1) Genetic engineering
translated by the mRNA depicted above is (2) Meristem culturing
(1) Four (3) Mutation breeding
(2) Three (4) Somatic hybridisation
(3) Five
(4) Six 115. A : RNA was the first genetic material.
R : RNA has evolved from DNA with
109. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase is found in chemical modifications.
(a) Nucleus (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(b) Mitochondria the reason is the correct explanation of
(c) Chloroplast the assertion
(d) Golgi apparatus (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
Choose the correct one(s) the reason is not the correct
(1) a only explanation of the assertion
(2) b & c only (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(3) d only is false
(4) a, b and c (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

110. Biogas produced by anaerobic fermentation

of waste biomass consist of 116. In eukaryotes, peptidyl transferase which
(a) Methane catalyses the synthesis of peptide bond
(b) CO2 between amino acids during translation is
(c) H2 (1) 16S rRNA
(d) H2 S (2) 5S rRNA
(1) Only (a) and (b) (3) 28S rRNA
(2) Only (a) and (c) (4) 5.8S rRNA
(3) Only (b) and (d)
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) 117. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. lPM
(1) It is integration of tactics for control of
single pest on one or more crops
111. In prokaryotes, enzyme which has
topoisomerase activity is (2) Maintain situation in which insects are
prevented from causing significant
(1) DNA ligase
damage to crops
(2) DNA helicase
(3) It includes use of pest resistant or
(3) DNA polymerase tolerant varieties
(4) DNA gyrase (4) It does not includes predators and
pathogens
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

118. Which among the following is used as 124. Which of the given rRNAs plays dual role as
immunosuppressive agent in organ- structural RNA as well as catalyst in
transplant patients? bacteria?
(1) Cyclosporin (1) 18S rRNA
(2) Streptokinase (2) 5S rRNA
(3) Statins (3) 5.8S rRNA
(4) Chloromycetin (4) 23S rRNA

119. In the experiment of M. Meselson and F. 125. Select the incorrect statement regarding the
Stahl, the heavy DNA (15 N-DNA) is allowed salient features of the double-helix structure
of DNA
to undergo two successive replication in 14 N
medium. The isolated DNA will show how (1) It is made of two polynucleotide chains
many type(s) of band(s) in CsCl density (2) The two chains have anti-parallel
based centrifugation? polarity
(1) One (3) Guanine is bonded with thymine by
(2) Two three H-bonds
(3) Three (4) The two chains are coiled in a right-
(4) Four handed fashion

120. What is/are true about BOD? 126. Match the column-I and column-II w.r.t
a. BOD is directly proportional to polluting microbes and their uses and select the
potential. correct option
b. The BOD test measures the rate of uptake Column-I Column-II
of oxygen by microorganisms. Aspergillus Used in preparation of
c. BOD is the indirect measure of inorganic a. (i)
niger vinegar
matter present in water. b. Lactobacillus (ii) Preservation of food
(1) Only a Acetobacter
(2) Only a and b c. (iii) Curd
aceti
(3) Only b and c (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(4) All a, b and c (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
121. Biocontrol agents are preferred over (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
chemical methods of pests and disease
control because
a. They are non toxic for non targeted 127. Select the pair which is mismatched?
organisms Microbe Product
b. They do not kill useful organisms (1) Aspergillus niger – Citric acid
c. They keep pests at manageable levels
(2) Candida lipolytica – Lipases
(1) Only a
(3) Monascus purpureus – Statins
(2) Only b
(4) Streptococcus – Cyclosporin A
(3) Only b and c
(4) All a, b and c (1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
122. Which antibiotic was extensively used to
(4) (4)
treat American soldiers in 2nd world war?
(1) Penicillin
(2) Streptomycin 128. Biogas is a mixture of gases which
predominantly contains
(3) Erythromycin
(1) CO2
(4) Neomycin
(2) CH4

123. Find the incorrect statement. (3) H2 S

(1) DNA polymorphism arises due to (4) H2
mutations
(2) The sensitivity of the DNA fingerprinting
technique has increased by the use of
PCR
(3) DNA polymorphisms are not inheritable
from parents to offsprings
(4) Satellite DNA sequences that show
very high degree of polymorphism is
called VNTR
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

129. By performing a series of experiments that 132. The incorrect statement regarding biogas is
showed the effect of R and S strains of (1) It predominantly contains methane
Streptococcus pneumoniae on mice, Griffith
(2) Production involves anaerobic
concluded that
digestion of organic wastes
(1) Protein digesting enzyme does not
affect transformation (3) Dung can be used for generation of
biogas
(2) DNA is more stable genetic material
than RNA (4) It does not contain hydrogen sulphide
(3) DNA can be sysnthesised from RNA
(4) Non-virulent bacteria were transformed 133. In eukaryotes, rRNAs are transcribed by
by heat killed virulent bacteria (1) RNA polymerase I and III
(2) RNA polymerase III only
130. Assertion (A) : hnRNA is smaller than (3) RNA polymerase I and II
mRNA. (4) RNA polymerase I only
Reason (R): hnRNA has non-translating
introns and has less exons that required for
translation. 134. During DNA replication,
deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct
dual purposes which are
explanation of A
(1) Acting as template and as substrate
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not
correct explanation of A (2) Acting as promoter and as adapter
(3) A is true and R is false (3) Functioning as structural molecule and
as template
(4) Both A and R are false
(4) Acting as substrate and providing
energy
131. Identify the wrong statement for human
genome project.
135. Choose the correct sequence w.r.t. the
(1) Less than 2% of human genome codes
percentage of different RNAs in a cell.
for proteins
(1) rRNA > tRNA > mRNA
(2) The average gene consists of 3000
bases (2) rRNA > mRNA > tRNA
(3) Repetitive sequences make up very (3) mRNA > tRNA > rRNA
large portion of human genome (4) mRNA = tRNA > rRNA
(4) Smallest gene is present on an
autosome

Zoology
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

136. Identify the compound given below and 141. Which of the following is true for the HIV
select the option with only incorrect genome after entering into the human body?
statements. (1) RNA genome reverse transcripts to
form RNA
(2) RNA genome reverse transcripts to
form DNA
(3) DNA genome transcripts to form RNA
(4) DNA genome transcripts to form DNA

142. Read the statements given below w.r.t.

A. It is extracted from poppy plant. allergy and select the option that correctly
B. They are known for their effects on central identify them as True (T) or False (F).
nervous system and GIT. (A) The exaggerated response of the
C. Obtained from inflorescences of the plant. immune system to certain immunoglobulins
D. Generally taken only by inhalation and present in the environment.
ingestion. (B) IgE type of antibodies are produced.
(C) Allergy is due to release of histamine
(1) A and C and serotonin from PMNL.
(2) A and B (D) Modern day lifestyle has resulted in
(3) C and D lowering of immunity and more sensitivity to
(4) A, C and D allergens.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

137. Each antibody molecule comprises (1) T T T T

(1) One small light chain and two long (2) F T F T
heavy chains (3) T F T T
(2) Two small light chains and one long (4) F T F F
heavy chain (1) (1)
(3) Two small light chains and two long (2) (2)
heavy chains
(3) (3)
(4) Four small light chains
(4) (4)

138. Assertion (A): Thymus is called the training

school of T-lymphocytes. 143. Which of the given option correctly
Reason (R) : Thymus is responsible for the represents convergent evolution with lemur,
maturation of T-lymphocytes. anteater and flying squirrel respectively?
In the light of above statements choose the (1) Spotted cuscus, Bandicoot, Flying
correct answer. phalanger
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (2) Spotted cuscus, Numbat, Sugar glider
the reason is the correct explanation of (3) Sugar glider, Wombat, Spotted cuscus
the assertion
(4) Bandicoot, Numbat, Flying phalanger
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion 144. What is the primary nature of the drug that is
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason obtained from the plant Atropa belladona?
is false (1) Painkiller
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (2) Antipyretic
statements (3) Depressant
(4) Hallucinogenic
139. Human health is not badly affected by
(1) Genetic disorders 145. Alfred Wallace came to similar conclusions
(2) Infections like Darwin when he was working in
(3) Life style with bad habits (1) Australia
(4) Balanced diet (2) Galapagos Islands
(3) Africa
140. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. mutation (4) Malay Archipelago
theory.
(1) Mutations are heritable
(2) It can cause saltation
(3) Hugo de Vries proposed the mutation
theory
(4) Mutation is directional
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

146. Fill the blanks with appropriate option. 151. Which of the following interferes with the
"About X mya Australopithecus transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine
¯
¯¯¯¯¯¯ and its excess dosage can cause
probably lived in Y ." hallucinations?
¯¯¯¯¯¯
(1) X – 2, Y – East and central Asia (1) Nicotine
(2) X – 1.5, Y – Ethiopia and Tanzania (2) Caffine
(3) X – 2, Y – East African grassland (3) Cocaine
(4) X – 1.5, Y – Australia (4) Ethanol

147. Assertion (A) : Malaria caused by 152. Elephantiasis is caused by a worm, known
Plasmodium falciparum is serious and can as
be fatal. (1) Ancylostoma duodenale
Reason (R) : Infective stage of Plasmodium (2) Entamoeba histolytica
for humans is sporozoite form, which is
produced in the gut of female Anopheles (3) Wuchereria bancrofti
mosquito. (4) Treponema pallidum
In the light of above statements choose the
correct answer.
153. The process by which organisms with
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and different evolutionary history evolve similar
the reason is the correct explanation of phenotypic adaptations in response to a
the assertion common environmental challenge is called
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (1) Adaptive radiation
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (3) Coevolution
is false (4) Natural selection
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements 154. The immunoglobulin which is found in
colostrum is
148. How many are the vestigial organs in the (1) lgG
given box? (2) lgM
Wisdom tooth, plica semilunaris, tail (3) IgA
vertebra, vermiform appendix, additional
(4) IgD
nipple in humans, hair on body
(1) Two
155. Which is the largest diverse group/unit that
(2) Four
can show gene flow?
(3) Three (1) Population
(4) Five (2) Kingdom
(3) Phylum
149. A : Vertebrate hearts are considered as (4) Genus
homologous organs.
R : Hearts of fishes, amphibians, reptiles and
birds show a similar basic structure with 156. Which of the following acts like HIV factory?
varied degree of functional specialization. (1) T-lymphocyte
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (2) Macrophages
the reason is the correct explanation of
(3) B-lymphocyte
the assertion.
(4) Neutrophils and NK cells
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion. 157. Cranial capacity of Homo habilis was about
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (1) 650 – 800 cc
is false. (2) 900 cc
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (3) 1400 cc
statements.
(4) 1650 cc

150. In patients suffering from AIDS, the virus

destroys majorly
(1) B-lymphocytes
(2) Helper T-cells
(3) Macrophages
(4) NK cells
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

158. A : Flipper of Penguin and flipper of whale 164. Agriculture was developed how many years
are analogous organ. ago?
R : They have different anatomical structure (1) 75,000
but have same function.
(2) 2000
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of (3) 10,000
the assertion (4) 40,000
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct 165. The most serious and possibly fatal
explanation of the assertion malignant malaria causing species of
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason Plasmodium is
is false (1) P. vivax
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (2) P. malaria
statements
(3) P. falciparum
(4) P. ovale
159. Match the disease in Column-I with the
appropriate pathogen in Column-II.
166. Genetic drift is not observed in
Column-I Column-II
(1) Small population
Haemophilus
a. Typhoid (i) (2) Interbreeding large sized population
influenzae
b. Pneumonia (ii) Rhino virus (3) Inbreeding population
Common (4) Isolated population
c. (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti
cold
d. Elephantiasis (iv) Salmonella typhi 167. Immunoglobin found in abundant amount in
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) colostrum is
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (1) IgG
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) IgA
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (3) IgM
(4) IgE

160. False statement w.r.t. secondary immune

response is 168. A : Microevolution introduces changes at
(1) Mediated through IgG smallest scale and modifies the genetic
equilibrium in the gene pool.
(2) Slow and short lived response R: Microevolution forms the basis for all
(3) Immune response triggered by memory large scale evolutionary changes or
cells macroevolution.
(4) Also termed as anamnestic response (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
161. In which mechanism of prereproductive
isolation, is the male of one animal species (2) Both Assertion and Reason are false
unable to recognise the female of another statements
species as a potential mate? (3) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(1) Behavioural isolation the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Mechanical isolation
(4) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(3) Hybrid inviability is false
(4) Hybrid breakdown

169. Which category of drug finds its application

162. A drug that adversely affects the (most suitable) if a person is suffering from
cardiovascular system of the body is narcolepsy?
obtained from (1) Narcotics
(1) Cannabis sativa (2) Hallucinogens
(2) Erythroxylum coca (3) Sedatives
(3) Atropa belladona (4) Stimulants
(4) Papaver somniferum

170. Receptors for which of the following drugs

163. ‘They’ used hides to protect their body and are present in our CNS and gastrointestinal
buried their dead. ‘They’ refers to tract?
(1) Dryopithecus (1) Smack
(2) Ramapithecus (2) Cocaine
(3) Australopithecus (3) Atropine
(4) Neanderthal man (4) Ganja
Practice Paper for AIATS-06 (RM) Code-B

171. Which of these had the orthognathous face? 176. Choose odd one w.r.t autoimmune disorders.
(1) Java man (1) Grave's disease
(2) Peking man (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Neanderthal man (3) Pernicious anemia
(4) Cro-Magnon man (4) Multiple myeloma

172. Which of the following diseases spread 177. Assertion (A) : Vertebrate hearts are
through mosquitoes? considered as homologous organs.
(1) Typhoid Reason (R) : Hearts of fishes, amphibians,
reptiles and birds show a similar basic
(2) Bubonic plague
structure with varied degree of functional
(3) Elephantiasis specialization.
(4) Rabies In the light of above statements select the
correct option.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
173. Which of the following larvicidal fish controls
the reason is the correct explanation of
mosquito?
the assertion.
(1) Hilsa
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(2) Scoliodon the reason is not the correct
(3) Gambusia explanation of the assertion.
(4) Common carp (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false.
174. Given below are statements related to (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
ringworm infection. statements.
(A) One of the most common non-infectious
diseases in man. 178. Which type of natural selection is illustrated
(B) Dry, scaly lesions accompanied by by industrial melanism?
intense itching.
(1) Directional selection
(C) Heat and moisture helps the fungus to
stop its growth. (2) Balancing selection
(D) Generally acquired from soil, using (3) Disruptive selection
towels, clothes etc. (4) Stabilising selection
Choose the option which contains correct
statements only.
(1) (A) and (B) 179. Transmission of HIV generally does not
occur by
(2) (B) and (C)
(1) Sexual contact with infected person
(3) (B) and (D)
(2) Sharing clothes and utensils
(4) (C) and (D)
(3) Sharing infected needles as in the case
of intravenous drug abusers
175. Sweet potato is a modification of (4) Transfusion of contaminated blood
A whereas potato is a modification of
¯¯¯¯¯¯
B yet both of them are known for storage 180. Big Bang theory attempts to explain the
¯¯¯¯¯¯
of food, hence are considered among the origin of __(a)__, which occurred around
examples of analogous structures. __(b)__.
Select the correct option which fills the Select the option which fills the blanks (a)
blanks A and B respectively. and (b) correctly.
(1) A = Root, B = Stem (1) a = Life; b = 20 billion years ago
(2) A = Stem, B = Root (2) a = Earth; b = 4.5 billion years ago
(3) A = Leaf, B = Node (3) a = Universe; b = 20 billion years ago
(4) A = Node, B = Leaf (4) a = Life; b = 4.5 billion years ago