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The document is a test booklet containing instructions and questions for a unit test in physics, focusing on topics such as heat transfer, fluid mechanics, and thermodynamics. It outlines the structure of the test, including sections with mandatory and optional questions, as well as rules for answering and submitting the test. Candidates are instructed to use specific writing instruments and to follow guidelines for rough work and answer sheet submission.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
7 viewsselfstudys_com_file (7)
The document is a test booklet containing instructions and questions for a unit test in physics, focusing on topics such as heat transfer, fluid mechanics, and thermodynamics. It outlines the structure of the test, including sections with mandatory and optional questions, as well as rules for answering and submitting the test. Candidates are instructed to use specific writing instruments and to follow guidelines for rough work and answer sheet submission.
Uploaded by
sajiyabano9414Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF or read online on Scribd
/ 59
Unit Test - 03
sauder yfttar a) sa ca Tale aa aa we sTEL
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Fa tien ghee & fred sere n fee et at Ta Te
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
oR Tmpartant natructions +
ara SPs GH TS2 wh ers Sara A/a | 1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and
ate age 85 & faarm uth Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
crt a1 sai asf 29 fire tet wher yawn 200.72 | 2 The tet iso 3 hours 20 minutes duration and this Test
& ieee ae imawah are Rto s | Te prance teopancy, Ge cones wll get
4 si fog amit ete en sre fore GTI A | ants Poreachinornectrecjonse,onemark willbe dedudel
Ue oie vem oTeT| afeaTy sis 720% 1 from the total seores. The maximum marks are 720.
wrvea wad ute Pea ewe we A Has se | & In this Test Paper each eubjece will consist of
two sections. Section A will consist of 36 questions|
tai ae aferd t ares His werk etek ai questions are mandators) and Section B will have
Wis waa A aE ot 10 wea AeTE aa ttard | 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any
10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if|
Ac tele sever ects, | SANRIO TET | SL statloupte mote thas 10 quetcus; ket
tara at 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking
cafe fat wen wes a caer fica wat @, @ wad afar | 4, In case of more than one option correct in any question,
feesen a i see Wr STAT the best correct option will be ennsidered as answer.
eye u faa sifas eA a ae WaT fra em | 5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing
# feu dae Heard ate wee 4 ar yan sty particulars on this page/marking responses.
am are ea wit eran free ea we at 6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this
purpose in the Test Booklet ons
wilar wae OA a, Whenel wevete Bea a gt arm | 7. On completion of the test, the eandidate must
i hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
a feces wi oraed at TEI witenel siete FHT efore Tenving che Room/Hall. The candidates are
wth gforer at Gon amt allowed to takeaway this Test Booklet with them.
cwitanel gfater wE fr ee ane ya stg Tame yi | & The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet
Bee fem TIM he SSH NTET | bead aot re yy ere canyon
fermion wa H faites ears & afafeea samt | LNT in the epucified syncs in the Test Booklet!
teri ‘Answer Sheet.
THe oe ret Tew aT Bq TEE HERS wT | 9, Use of white uid for orrection is mot permissible on
afar tt the Answer Sheet,
wea # argc 4 fd arena feat, aah demcrat @ site rere
(_ incaseof any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
vedere rm (a iH
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals).
ahd re aaa
Form Number "in figures
rai i
in words
wh Fa GE sat:
Centre of Examination (in Capitals)
veel & weer Prt: & eer
Candidate's Signature Invigilator’s Signature Heat Transfer conduction, KTG & Thermodynamics)
"Topic : Properties of matier and Fluid Mechanics, Thermal Physics (Temperature and Thermal Expansion, Calorimetry,
saat ote)
1. Sema vard 98 8 wars ore Ma
Sivea ae A omen Gare A ott git me
Fy argon are a1 aE OA EAR ae F STATS
aa ved ae At cea A( Bag ore baa at
meat 2A Bead & fee Par er ae?
()9F Q)36F GRF WF
2, WaT 1 mm ta a Par ata 23 8, HE
ree 3 ey A Broan a ah ete 3, eee TE
BY mm & ethan eral aera
qd) 14 Qa 3) 8 (4) 16
3, sera) amare Fre rd a for
var Pate neva 72 8 a xa ae Zo
faire Fah ard at Pre eer 1207 8 sat a
fafreqeae
(1d) 1ar6 (2) 27476
(@) 2004 ) 376
4. sar argsctn a 105 arent, dh ait Sie
Hat een Fh Shang h 8) sefia Ferwa feg x
aae
() 10° Pa (2) 08 «10° Pa
(3) 0.2« 105 Pa (4) 120 10° Pa
5 et, faethe 1 (1.< HL Jaen sree
sare Oa 28, 2 afteten at seater et
fe erga fee ett Lara ae zat
ayer eres ad aw arya &, Pra Tera Py?
ater a er
|
H
74
mia @ 4a wae we
5 3
SECTION - A (PHYSICS)
‘Two wires are made of same material and have the
same volume, The first wire has cross-sectional
area A-and the second wire has cross-sectional
area 6A. If on applying & force F, length of first
wire inereases by AC, how much foree is required
to stretch the second wire by 2A € ?
() 9F Q)36F @) 2F WF
If work done in stretching a wire by 1 mm is 25,
the work necessary for stretching another wire of
same material, but with double the radius and
half the length by 1 mm in joule is :=
M4 @4 @8 @ 16
When equal volumes of two liquids are mixed,
the specific gravity of mixture is 7/2. When
equal masses of the same two liguids are mixed
the specific gravity is 12/7. The specific gravis
of two liquids are
() Land6 (2) 2and 6
@) 2and4 @) Band 6
The height of mercury barometer is h when the
atmospheric pressure is 10° Pa. The pressure at
point x in the shown diagram is
(10% Pa (2) 0.8% 108 Pa
(3) 0.2 « 10° Pa (4) 120 « 10° Pa
‘A homogeneous solid eylinder of length u( Lé< 4)
cro sein re * is nme such hat it fas
wih as veal eu igil iris wih
lngh inthe domi ho he fig
‘The lower density liquid is open to atomosphere having
pressure Pp, Then density D of solid is given by 1.
eared ae 3 Wea i rr aaa Ra: a, OH
aM HAT aT a)
(i) soar a, afi ag 3 Ha oat Pra
ener
(i) Sea, Git aga HTH Pica
(iy Seer ae er ae eine ac, Ferra
paet aT
(iv) Breer ae, ag Et ee aH lt EL Ye
a aracnerd a Aric ear
watt:
(1) ater (i), (ii) eM (iv) wea
(2) Fae (i) FAA
3) Fae iii) PH (iv) FTL
4) @, Gi) FAT ivy RETA
far a fee fremes 9 aor sare, ore vais sate
eat ala 2
(0) a Rarer arte ste el sae ft af
stad oar A aati vate
(@) a Fea afte, sara aT aT A
feast
@) aaa A A Be
arena
(4) ser St zara aa, ware vere we aeft A
fava siftree et
eT: ae Pach ere ar saath ae Sasa (TS) BST
Bah a Boh are Sea ara ate, eT eet
arse gor eer’
sane ret wine fe sear, sect are th cane are
of eer ora, pe ral Pe ee, ae
‘et
(1) ara ert gen apron wer & se sre, wer A
wet TTT EAT BL
1
P+ peh++ pv
peh+> PI
(2) Spat are war er Ber 8 Te aT, Fa A
edt aren aa ae
(3) ar ea 8 aa a AT BI
) we arent eq TEE
te
(i) Buoyant force depends upon orientation of the
concemed body inside the liquid.
(ii) Buoyant force depends upon the density of the
body immersed.
(ii) Buoyant force depends on the fact whether the
system is on moon or on the earth,
(iv) Buoyant force depends upon the depth at which
the body (fully immersed in the liquid) is placed
inside the liquid.
Of these statements (Assuming liquid is of uniform
density)
(1) Only (i), Gi) and (iv) are correct.
(2) Only Gi) is correct.
(3) Only (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv) are incorrect.
In which of the following eases, will the liquid
flow in a pipe be closest to the laminar flow.
(1) liquid of high viscosity and high density,
flowing through a pipe of small radius.
(2) liquid of high viseosity and low density
flowing through a pipe of small radius
(3) liquid of low viscosity and low density
flowing through a pipe of large radius
(4) Tiquid of low viscosity and high density
flowing through a pipe of large radius.
Assertion : A gypsy car has canvas top. When
the gypsy runs at high speed, the top bulges out.
Reason : According to Bemouli’s theorem total
energy per unit volume of an ideal fluid, in
steady flow is constant i.
Pepah+! psoas
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.
2). Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason
is not correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but the Reason is true. aaa (A) ste gE ster Ho aa A
wer (R) - afd Fo aAw AEF (lubricant)
vara fret ay ech
(1) @Hi (A) eR) wel @ Pr (R), (A) A ee
sare Tee
(2) (Ay ae 8 ates (R) we aT A
(3) (A) setae 2 afer (Ry ae A
(4) Sat (A) wa (R) aet eae RB), (A) A aT
area
‘feet za A arma fetch 1 Paar (4 cm = 2 em)
& (5 em x dom) Fe fear aren al ae ge aT H Fae
waver «10 ‘Va ata ange ara aa eT.
(1) 0.2.Nim 2) 8.0N/m
(3) 0.250 Nim (4) 0.125 Nim
ver ee ae ara, er a Beye ea Ba
wre age Baw A Sik, ca fat ZI a we)
ait rave after ar 16 NB ae xa aE
rer + Nim tear fort
(im
A ores ere, wea H ad wen) eh eae
fait oe arr wa A an en eS A
art qaqa arb oma
() oe ad & Set aw am os 8 ore: Ty
fare fee i ah ato
2) aa % san aaa a8 we, ser GeAAT
Ferpgan 8 en Star rae fear
(3) Bhar gorge Riggs aoe ware at star 8 ae aT
Sea oT we aTAT tL
(4) eae ae ae
cata car wet & or erat aor a= BI oot 6 at
Sexract H ge 8, sr sear Ye Tare 70 sTearat
21 GF oer a aE aa 140 en ot
eof air 60° satire aaa 2 2) ae za a
earache me ga
(2) 12em Q) 24em (3) 3em
Q) 2m @) O5Sm @) 0.1m
(4) 6cm
10.
lL
12,
1B.
Assertion (A) : Machine pars are jammed in winter.
Reason (R) : The viscosity of lubricant used in
‘machine part decrease at low temperature,
(1) Both (A) and (R) are corte
the correct explanation of (A)
but (R) is not
(2) A)is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
‘A. rectangular film of liquid is extended
from (4 em * 2 em) to (5 em * 4em). If the
work done is 3 x 10 “J, the value of surface
tension of the liquid is.
(1) 0.2. Nin (2) 8.0N/m
3) 0.250 Nim 4) 0.125 Nim
A thin wire ring is floating on the surface of @
liquid. If the excess force required to lift it
upwards, (before the liquid film breaks) from the
liquid-surface is 16 N and surface tension of the
liquid is + Nim, then the radius of the ring is :-
(@) Im Q) 2m @) 05m (@) 01m
Two unequal soap bubbles are formed one on
cach side of a tube closed in the middle by a tap.
What happens when the tap is opened to put the
two bubbles in communication ?
(1) No air passes in any direction as the
pressure are the same on two sides of the tap
(2) Larger bubble shrinks and smaller bubble
increases in size tll they become equal in size
(3) Smaller bubble gradually collapses and the
bigger one increases in size
(4) None of the above
The angle of contact between glass and water is
(0° and it rises in a capillary upto 6 em when its
surface tension is 70 dynesiem. Another liquid of
surface tension 140 dynesiem, angle of contact
60° and relative density 2 will rise in the same
capillary by:
(2) 12am Q) 24em @) 3em (4) Gem 14,
15,
16.
uw.
18.
vari & ara it rer afters & fra, are are yw | 14. The graph that comretly represent the variation
are # afters a een wet wefti a9 are Var of surface tension with temperature over small
fart temperature change for water, will b
wm" a @" \ o | @' \
Tr 7 ad TE
>| 1 |—— r
@ @ \ @ a
reftett (TART 1.3 gem) At arraT ara ahifsa.AAS | 15. Find the viscosity of glycerine (having density 1.3 gem)
2 mm for are wet CATT 8 g em) oA Fe, ia tee bal of rm radius (density 8 gem) acquires a
vee 3 asap 6 8 Fe gE 4 om TT vex vb of em ain ling ein he wk
aT Ra elycerine
(1) 146 poise (2) 12.2 poise (1) 146 poise Q) 12.2 poise
@) 104 poise (4) 98 poise @) 104 poise (4) 9.8 poise
a fear A uw Semch & aa eretata ffs & | 16. Water flows in a streamline manner through a
capillary tube of radius a, The pressure difference
ear 1 ar PRUE Uae are being P and the rate of flow is Q. If the radius is
Wea al2 FS AMT AAT 2P we 4, aA WaT A aT reduced to w2 and the pressure difference is increased.
ante 02P, then the rate of flow becomes:-
() 4222) 20 QB OB 49-22 QQ
aga AaB a fem arene gare H mer are | 17, Length v/s Temperature graph of two bodies A & B
aefarrar ti aa a4 7 oy Fata zee ia given’ belbw. Fit die radon Herwous oy Set
Lena Lena
a
ep Ten
() ay>ag @) ay=ay () 04> 6 2) ay= ap
@) aaFi=Fe
ab
H
;
| :
feta faa %, a for a sit B aA Se Fe
21 Proferttad # & act ae ster a?
() afta Aare A sit Be aa ert |
(4) Foe Fy> Fy
©) era AS Re saera Ba
(3) THB S ft sar at A a
G4) A ore are x sifiee eit B ata |
waa aarti an a 3.5 « 10° Pa, BIA,
wea aah atta 3 «10° Pa, Sant, Arar
wanted oft ar an eer:
@) loms
() Sms
@) 20ms! (4) 40ms!
37.
38.
39.
‘The density of water is 1.0 giem’, The density of the
cil in the let column ofthe U-tube shown below is =
(2) 0.20 giem® (2) 0.80 giem*
@) 1.0 giem* (4) 1.3 glem*
Rank inorder, fom lagest to smallest the magnitudes
ofthe forces F », F's. and F required to belance the
masses. The masses ain kilograms.
(ui Lil Liu
Q) Fy=Fy=F @) F>Fy=F,
©) F>F,
(4) FL>F,> Fy
H
8,
| :
In given figure, two small holes A and B of same
area are given, Which of the following is correct ?
(1) Speed of efflux is same for both A & B.
(2) Time of fight is more for A than B.
(3). Range is more for B than A.
(4) Volume flow rate is more at A than B.
In close tap water pressure is 3.5 = 10° Pa, When.
tap open then water pressure becomes 3 * 10° Pa.
Then velocity of flow of water from tap is =
() Sms! @Q) 10mst
@) 40ms!
@) 20ms! al.
42.
43.
45.
safe arr a ara ort ae
SH qa a, a ates Ht Teg z - om
() 8H Q) 7H) 2H @)
alg um ata & oa F fae ca & fed dee oer,
wea ACT eT STL A:
aaa
Sen,
) oe ae aaa ag 8 a ne
Saga araereaem
one
() Fae (B)
(3) FAA) (4) FAA), (©), (D)
wef (p-V) iter sa a - 3 fore eae
2 &B.C,@p4
ve
(a) Sera aren eT eT
(b) he ar ary etapa et sa
(0) Re Al areas sat 4 pre ah
(@) (-V) sites -farg 8 set aren eT
Q) abe Q) abd G) aed @ abed
Xa y aeqalt rare are ee Rega ae Bi
af x ay aeQoit A Garda cy A ey Far
SraRHTT BT Ay AT Ay, & CHAT SAAT fore eet
saree ea 8) TT
y
t
() ey> ey Ay> Ay @) ey Sey, Ay ey, Ay Ax
ve pir ae ft ren ara & ara a
R wat’? A Tae ate 3 fe gna ag &
faafte oft afiaan efi, aft ett Paaia o
sites Praia b 8
@2 (3)"
ae (z)"
("ew aen(g)"
4.
42,
43,
When a large bubble rises from the bottom of a
lake to its surface, its radius doubles, The
atmospheric pressure is equal to that ofthe columns
of water of height H. The depth of the lake is-
Q) 8H = Q) 7H @) 2H @
1 fora Tigi in a glas vessel fore of cohesion
is twice of force of adhesion then :
(A) The meniscus will be convex
(B) The liquid will wet the glass
(C) The angle of contact will be obtuse
(D), There will be capillary descent in a glass
capillary dipped in liquid
Correct options is/are
(2) Only (8) 2) AIA), @B).©,0)
(3) Only (A), (©) (4) Only (A), (€), (D)
In the (P-V) diagram shown in figure, choose the
correct statement forthe process a-b
%
(@ density of gas has reduced to hatf,
(b) Temperature of gs has increased to two times.
(6) Intemal energy of ens has increas to four times.
(0)T-V graph is a parabola passing through origin
() abc @) abd G) acd @ abad
The temperature of bodies X and Y vary with
time as shown in the figure. If emissivity of
bodies X and Y are ex & ey and absorptive
powers are Ax and Ay, (assume other conditions
are identical for both) then:
t
(1) ey> ex Ay>Ax Q) ey
‘The power emitted per unit area of a black body
is R wattim’. At what wavelength, will the power
radiated by the black body be maximum, if the
Stefan's constant is 6 and Wein’s constant is b =~
Ma (2)" Or (ty
wy = (MY @ a-o( 8)"
ex Ay AX 46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
R, dtd R, wae BEA Brom, a amerst ata | 46, Rd and R, are the radius of sun, distance
é : 3 a between sun and earth and radius of earth
eats Preah aft eeororc Te, ge ee respectively. If temperature of sun is T, then
corr fren ai at eer ear amount of radiation power incident on earth i,
Ry ort Ra \ or (ak? (4): 4 (&) ee
y (4%) ot 2) (=) ortenr? 1 or 2) (®) orsaar?
w (Ser @ (Aorta | a (A) er* a (SH) trea
BY ortar’) (3B) ort) (®) oT aR?) (4 (B) eres
(&) THAR!) 4) (Qe) oT » (4 er) @) (Qt
ua arrest te a4 Wr & HK 20 atm ara TaTI7°C | 47, A vessel is filled with an ideal gas at a pressure of
care oe By a ere saver er Fare fra aT 20 atm and itis ata temperature of 27°C. One half
" of the mass is removed from the vessel and
‘war ard gf ara a ae 87°C at fear se, at ge temperature of remaining pas is increased to 87°C.
amas ara di At this temperature find the pressure of the gas :-
Q) 10.aim (2) 12atm () 10atm (2) 12 aim
(3) Sam. 4) Sia aie act @) Sam (4) none
eee fhe i some Pr = fier & ire she gu | 48. A gas has molar heat capacity C = 4.5 R in the
afta C = 4.5 R @l ta & spit at career Ft process PT = constant. The number of degrees of
aR dem? freedom of molecules inthe gas is +
M4 @3 @6 ws O4 @3 @e ws
4 tire, atest farcaropr tre 3 ferg ake aTG THK | 49, Match the following two column for 4 moles of an
‘Snare ait {deal diatomic gas at room temperature T.
werL wer (Cotuman-I (Cofumn-I
(@) | Para a wat | (P) [ART (@ | Translational Kinetic energy [(P) [4RT
(&) | pats sat (Q|-s8RT (b) | Rotational kinetic energy | (Q)| — SRT
(© | Rates Sat (R) [RT (©) | Potential energy ® ORT
(@) yaaa sat |S) [ae tae (@)| Total intemal energy (S) | None
() @PbQeRAS 2) aR bPcS.dS () @P,b-QeRES Q) aR bPLeS,bS
(3) aR, b-P,c-S,d-Q (4) aR, bQ,e-P,d-S B) @R, b-P,e-S,d-Q (4) aR, b-Q, c-P,d-S
am orca er argc are Sarre sraaTaiT He | 59, An ideal gas after going through a series of four
one oretiven aera Hy amet age
feos samy em re (Q) ver Sere
fafa rd (wy Frere
Q, = 6000 J; Q, = $500 J;
Qs ~ 3000 5; Q, = 3500 J;
W, = 2500 J; W3 = ~1000 J;
Ws =-1200J; Wy=xJ
ft are grt fed aed et ar seat eT
Bena STATA Bx GT eT
(1) SOO FR: 7.5% — (2) 7005; 10.5%
(3) 1000 |; 21% (4): 18003; 15%
thermodynamic states in order, reaches the initial
state again (cyclic process). The amounts of heat
(Q) and work (W) involved in the states are,
Q) = 6000 1; Qy = ~5500 5
= ~3000 J; Qu = 3500 J;
W, = 2500 J; W, = -1000 J;
Ws ~~ 1200 J; Ws=xJ
The ratio of net work done by the gas to the total
heat absorbed by the gas is 1). The value of x and
1 are nearly
(1) 5004; 7.5%
(2) 7005; 10.5%
(3) 10004; 21% A) 13003; 15% [Topic Chanel Thamodynanis Besosionine, Perea Table
() A>P,B3Q, CR, DS.
Q) AQ, BP, CS, DOR
(3) AVS, BOR, C0, D>P
(4) ADR, BOS, C>P,D>Q
SINT A. (CRP) SECTION - A (CHEMISTRY)
Si. era aainen freer? S1, ‘Which of the following is theorrect option =
() ce < KY CL> Br>1: EN (faga ara (3) F>Cl>Br> 1: EN (Electroncgativity)
(4) LiS
2) AQ, BOP, CS, DR
@) AGS, BOR, C30, D>P
(4) ADR, BOS, CP, DQ pared are —
(1) B>Tl>Ga>Al>In
(2) B>Ga>Al>TI>In
(@) B>Tl>Ga>In> Al
(4) B> Ga>In> TI> TI
Pert a fat orci aaa e 2
ZnO, BOs, BeO, Cr,03, V0s, PbO», AbOs, TeO>,
aa
@ 5
3 6
7
cetera rer ae
wie A aie
mT Rag Fae) wie)
@ J@—dd ns’? (@) | series
Gi) | @— 2) 8 @— ye () | p=
Gi | ne? np! ~* (© | excite
(iv) } ns! ~? np” (a) | eae
Q) @ = @. Gi) — ©), Gi) — ©, Gv) - @)
2) @- ©. Gi) — @. Gi) — @.Gv) — 0)
(3) D— @, Gi) ~ (©, Gi) ~ (b), iv) — (a)
(4) @~ ©, ii) ~ @), Gi) ~ (), Gv) — (a)
‘ae aati care al aH BM (6s, 6p, Af, Sd)
(1) 6s<5d<4f< 6p
(2) 4f< Sd <6s< 6p
(3) 6s<4f< Sd< 6p
(4) Sd<4P< 6s 6p
55.
56.
57.
58,
Correct order of IP is ~
() B>Tl>Ga>Al>in
Q) B>Ga>Al>Tl> In
@) B>Tl>Ga>in> Al
(4) B>Ga>In>Tl> TI
How many of the following are amphoteric oxides ?
Z10, BOs, BeO, C0, V205, PbOs, AL:Os, Tes,
ma
@s
@) 6
a7
Match the column
Coburn. A Columa
(General loctronic B
configuration) Block)
@ | em at Pn? (a) sock
Gi) | (2-288 (a= 1d?” 'ns* | (b)] p-blocke
ii) ns? np! ~° (©) | e-block
@) (@)| Flock
() @~@). Gi) ~ ©), Git) — (©), Gv) - (@)
@ @-©, Gi) - @), Gi) - @), Gv) -
@) @H~(@), Gi) ~ ©, Gil) — ©), (iv) — @)
@ @-O.@
@), (ii) ~ ©), (iv) — @)
What is the correct energy order of given sub-
shells (6s, 6p, 4f, Sd)
() 6s NaCOy, + COs/9) + H30\p) C.2NAHCOy) > NCO + COyy,HHLOy
D.Chygy 2Chg, D.C 2Chy
fre ae Pret 8 aa ae BPE: Choose the comet answer fom te options given below:
a) Aaikc Q) A,BatD (1) Aandc @) A,BandD
@) A.csieD @ caieD (@) A,CandD (4) Cand D
6. Warps ara tro Aa 63, Match List with Listl:
List-T :
Seer qh (Process Leis
afer (arava) PProperty) (Characteristics)
eae veank eT aT ae ‘Adiabatic Independent
A I A 1. Jofamount of
aH finfeath ara th Process sean
Wa ace ay are wa Both way
[ert | | safer d sere atte p, [Reversible |, | process reactant to
4 process product and vice-
ia ote ahaa No transfer of
wea i Intensive heat between
lin, [ata ate set c, intense |, [at betes
mm RUT ae sntroundings.
arta werd Aaa Extensive —
D. WV i p, [Extensive liv. Jon amount
yore av rie ara 8) pupety of substance
— Choose the correct answer from the options
em Aa att om gf given below:
() Ad, BAL, Cy, DAIL ()) Ad, Bal, CAV, DAL
(2) AAI, BAL, CA, DIV (2) Ad, BAL, CA, DAV
(3) Ad, Ball, C1, DIV (3) Ad, Bal, C-, DY
(4) Ad, BAI, CAV, D-L (@ Adi, Ba, Cav, DA
64. fer ai ae Pere APE aa aA fee a1 | 64. Consider the following statement and select the
correct option :
(1) Thermodynamics is concemed about the
rate at which a reaction proceeds.
(2) AG is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction
(3) Enthalpy of sublimation of a substance is
equal to enthalpy of vaporisation
(4) There is an exchange of energy as well as
matter between the system and the
surroundings in a closed system, 65,
67.
68.
‘Satire BH (CyH1JCOOH) 27TH 3OOKK | 65. The valucof AH — AU when 2 moles of solid benzoic acid
erderbah AH — AU era ret aer arate? (CiHECOOH) undersres combsion 300K isgivenby?
(@) 1.24745 (2) -2.494K) Q) 1.247 ks Q) 2.494 KI
@) +2494 (4) +1247 Ks (@) 2.494 KI (@) +1247
va vers at wee Fifa, oA Pe fet TA aT | 66. Choose the substance which has higher possible
rece ra eg caf Tara &, cetfopy’ (per ole) at given tenperatue
(1) Sra sisters (1) Solid carbon dioxide
(2) atm eateghore her 2) Nitrogen gas at | atm
G) 0.01 am aR te (3) Nitrogen gas at 0.01 atm
(4) 0.0001 atm ae angio te (4) Nitrogen gas at 0.0001 atm
“aE 1O0ACACST 1000 Lar RaRARTaATET, ASB? | 67. —1£1000.Ng ofheat is absorb at 100°C by water, then ASis?
(1) 48.255! mole ()) 48.25 K7! mole!
2) 15.1. K7! mole 2) 15.13 K' mote
(3) 302K mole! (3) 3025 K mole!
(4) 60.75 3K"! mole (4) 60.75 1K mole!
aa anita fon fe. 68, Match the following columns
eH Seer Column-T ‘Column-IT
CHa) > Ce) cathalpy of
Meee aiey [P [Reretet (ay | CHAE) > OCW) py | Eatin of
4H(g) solution
oCame + “
[3H >| Q) |zer wet oCKgrmphite) +) enthalpy of
CHa) (B) | 3H¢e) |] combuction
COGS + CHG)
602) > TE Oae
O]fcke) a | @ |store San Z
eet 0] Sa, ] 09 J tat entay
aC) 6H
(D)] Na"(aq) + CF | (8) | eet HO
(aq) NaCl” —> Ne Enthalpy of
D) 5 s
Nach) —> (aq =crtag || atomization
8) |Nevtg) + CI) (1) | Peer eche ip [NaCl Ne], | Bathalpy oF
() ©) @+cr@) (| formation
Ce + . -
(F) | Hoe) | (U) | erste tet & | HA * Ha] Gy] Enthalpy of
er) > CHle) hydrogenation
‘el fire de
() AR,B-S, C-P,D-Q, E-U, FT
(2) A-U, BT, C-S, D-R, E-P, F-Q
(@) AS, BAT, C-Q, D-P, ER, F-U
(4) AS, BT, C-U, D-R, E-P, F-Q
Correct mateh will be :=
(1) AR, B-S, C-P, D-Q, E-U, F-T
(2) AU, BAT, C-S, D-R, E-P,F-Q
(3) AS, B-T, C-Q, D-P, E-R, F-U
(4) A'S, BAT, C-U, D-R, E-P, FQ 0.
1.
2B.
Hyg) Xo TT HX ARTA 1:25 TT
HAAR HX, % Pl eft 50K mol Bat
yftarotet ert —
(1) 200 kJ mol! (2) 400 ki mol
(3) 100 kJ mol”! (4) 300 kJ mol!
cards 8 abs sresitveres i ara A we —390.0
kd mot! 81 star tie restate CO, 3
35.0 e248 & aaa a A a & TEM)
() 40K @) 245k
(3) 700 ks (4) 310k)
sfiriran i: s + 2.0, + $0, + 2x keal td
80) + + 0; > 80; + y keal, SO, # wat
At sar anit >
@ @+y) @ «-y
(@) @x+y) (4) -@x-y)
CO, 3 an tar sree weet aa et 2
Oe
(2) 3 RN cer Ft ae Aten wae
(3) CO ait 0, 4 Fat A are ate eH
marr
(4) ara Gage cer A are Hien ee
am areaha oafitarar
Ax) + BY(s) = 2AB(a)
2 fe A,G° war A,S° % 200 K FCAT AN: 20
facitggiitr war — 20 eK her! a
a A.C, = 20.9 Ko! ster) ea 400 KE
Awe ar are
(1) 20 fareitgeriter
(2) 7.98 Preitagtiter
(3) 28 Prater
4) siesta
70.
n.
72.
‘The bond enthalpies of Hap, Xa) and HX, are in
the ratio of 2: | :2. Ifthe enthalpy for formation of
HX, is 50 kJ mot, the bond enthalpy of Hy is
(1) 200k mot!) 400 kJ mot!
(3) 100 kJ mol! (4) 300kJ mol!
Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to carbon
dioxide is ~390.0 KI mot” '. The amount of heat
released, when 35.0 g of COp is formed from the
reaction of carbon and dioxygen gas, is (Approx) :
Q) 490k (2) 2451
(3) 700d 4) 310K
Jab seaons 8-2! Gy—.803 +n tel md
1, — 80, + y keal, heat of formation
wy) @) &-y)
@) @x+y) @ -@x-y)
‘Standard molar enthalpy of formation of CO, is equal 10
(1) zero
(2) the standrad molar enthalpy of combustion
of earbon (diamond)
(3) the sum of standard molar enthalpies of
formation of CO and O,
(4) the standard molar enthalpy of combustion
of earbon (graphite)
For the hypothetical reaction
Axe) + Bye) = 2AB(e)
A,G? and A,S° are 20 ki/mol and — 20 JK~' mol
* respectively at 200 K. If A.C, is 20 JK ‘mol!
then A, at 400 K is =
(Q) 20kimol
Q) 7.98 ki/mol
B) 28 ki/mol
(4) None of these "4.
1.
76.
B.
frafefiad # @ saat war Fifam at dar ar
Saree ee
(1) ae A ag Br sir era
(2) ser Rep. ormen & media er sere
(@) faeacar afer ar
(4) aie sit ater & ange we ei oat A
faaret
He am % IN Por ar sia 50 O @ ate a
vattan greta fara dag 4.2 cm? @ at
2tem & eh ae var aa & at Paes A exit
“area 1 ToraT aN
(1) 10 ohm! em? eq”!
(2) 0.1 ohm”! em* eq!
(3) 10 ohm! a? eq!
(4) 03 ohm-!m? eq!
‘aiae acts facta aret fret ateerhiex & 100 BS
3 ere 9.0487 a Paegacare santa aa oe Rata
cata a ame Hf zerara &: (fear aT: Cu a Ate
‘FAA: 63 g mol |, IF = 96487 C)
() 3.15¢ 2) 0315¢
(3) 315g (4) 0.0315 ¢
‘enfant AS AVC, Sef sett & arerer
wh 8, free form arte?
(1) Nac 2) CaCl;
(3) MgSOx (4) sae nt
anise atti a age
Fe%(aq.) > Fe™(aq.) + 5 Ey
SEP saga 7-O.77V
21° (aq.) + I,(6) + 26 ; Ee, =-0.54V
denatetea ofr ree are
d) 131V
Q) -023V
(G) 0.23V
@ iv
1.
15.
16.
T.
8.
From the following select the one which is not
an example of corrosion.
(1) Rusting of iron object
2) Production of hycrogen by electrolysis of water
(3) Tarnishing of silver
(4) Development of green coating on copper
and bronze omaments
The resistance of a IN solution of salt is 50 Q.
Calculate the equivalent conductance of the
solution, if the wvo platinum electrodes in
solution are 2.1 em apart and each having an
area of 4.2 em’,
(1) 10 ohm! em? eq!
(2) 0.1 ohm | cm’ eq!
2 eg!
(3) 10 ohm™! ms? og
(4) 03 ohm! m? eq!
‘Mass in grams of copper deposited by passing 9.6487 A
current through a voltmeter containing copper sulphate
solution for 100 saconds is
(Given : Molar mass of Cu : 63 g mol” ', 1F=96487C)
() 3.158 @) 03152
@) 3158 (4) 0.0315 ¢
‘The equation AS, = AS,— AVG, where symbols
have their usual meaning, is valid for -
(1) Nach 2) CaCl,
(3) MgSO, (4) All of the above
‘Two half cell reactions are given below
Fe"¥(aq.) > Fe"(ag) +e" 5 By.
Foe
21 (aqg.) 13) + 27 Ee, = -.54V
-0.77V
then B°,. of cell with feasible redox reaction is
a) 131¥
2) 023
@) 0.23.V
@iv 2.
80.
81.
82,
‘a Cu(s) | Cu'7(0.001 M) || Ag” (0.01 M)| Ag(s) | 79. For a cell Cu(s) | Cu"?(0.001 M) || Ag’ (0.01 M) |
% fara Get fava wr AA 298 K ATT 0.43 VAT Ag(s), cell potential is found to 0.43 V at 298 K
£2, #09 then Boy is:
arma’ 23087 — 9.06) (Give ZEEE ~ 0.06)
(1) OAV Q) 046 G) 037V @) 049V () 04V @) 046V @) 037V (4) 049Vv
‘fren i a ala waltzes ater arctan arta Bh 80, Which of the following show maximum molar
conductivity ?
(1) 0.1 M NaCl 2) 0.01 M Nac (1) 0.1 MNact @) 0.01 MNaCt
(3) 0.5 MNaCl (4) 0.001 M Nac (3) 0.5 MNaCl (4) 0.001 M NaCl
2og.1sk HERE A, Bate CALaeaAT MAS | BL. The values of conductivity of material A, B and C
. at 298,15 K in Sm! are 2.1 = 10° 1.0 « 107" and
FAR: 2.1 101.0% 10 341 x 10 ate Far 1 10-7, Choose the correct answer from the
facttitiadonaren i: options given below
(1) Ais conductor, B and C are insulator
() Awremé, B tec Garett
2) A jis conductor, B is insulator and C is
2) A Wee, B Eas 8 aT C HEATH aL semiconductor
©) AgaRHe, parE Rac ontaraa a ©) Ais insulin, B is conductor and is
oO” RB AC STEN (4) Ais semiconductor, B and C are insulator
eae | aT oT ATE 82, Match the column-l with column-IL
Column-I
SH SET Column
z Product of
(Prev (Gap arrears) (olution) clectolysis)
i; aq. NaCl ‘Anode = Cl,
py [ENaC acy ma (© | cathode = Sodium
©) oegaagte) |O [ts = Siem electrode) amalgam
aeren Gilute
5 HS0, jy | Anode => Cl;
(@| FHS | gy [PERCE Ole © | Cathode = Na
Pe gerazis) ‘Sure = Na electrode)
Nacl
arta Nach a Anode = Ox
2 ®)| le ii)
| ae Gi a 2 titwode) Cathode = Hy
rag) oh Molten
|S (ivy | Anode = Cla
i aiafera NaCl en its = Ch mr y(t Cathode = Hy
(pe setagig) eis = etectridd)
(1) P96); Qi); R—HGivy; SC)
2) PH); QUI, RVG; SW)
8) Pliv)s QE); RAL); SLi)
(4) Pi): Qi): RG: SG)
(1) PH; QC; R—MGiv}; SHC)
2) PHL; QU); RVG, Sv)
8) PAivy; QU); RAG); SE)
(4) Pi): Qi); Ri); SD 83.
85.
86.
87.
CaCly, NaCl WaT CHyCOONa 3 fare Ag, HE
WA: 270, 125 TT 91 S cm mol! @
(CH3COO).Ca¥ FETE Af TTA FE:
(1) 1208S em? mot! (2) 420 $ cm? mol!
(3) 238 Sem? mol"! (4) 202 Sem? mol!
Aeafte Get % aro fear wer sora ard erat
‘eae
(yet Hah
(2) BA fos sat tat
(3) Sea Te ant
» 2
© Tar
‘fren a aire ert eT?
() eats fea arama offer A
Taeaienoniafa oe Fk aan 2 aie ae
fred pre
(0) figs srezt fa Haste am afi
waist wef ieee da F Sate
errata seaets tart
3) Get sififeen ean: eit # af AG = +e
ATE gg =—ve Bl
(4) ste oat der fava ar ae fe oe
a
ST -B (CHITA)
ge ard at 8 fore ae seer eat aT wet
agar
(1) NaCr>Ti>V Q) Ti>V>Cr>Mn
(3) Cr>Mn>V>Ti (4) V>Mn>Cr> Ti
83,
85.
86.
87.
‘Ag for CaCl, NaCl and CH;COONa are 270,
125 and 91 S cm? mol * respectively. Calculate
Nin for (CHjCOO);Ca =
(Q) 1208 em? mol! @) 420 Sem? mol!
(3) 238Scm? mol! (4) 202 Sem? mol!
The reversible work done by a galvanic cell is
equal to:
(1) Decrease in enthalpy
(2) Decrease in it's Gibb's energy
(3) Decrease in it's entropy
ne
o-
© Fa
Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) The value of electrode potential depend on
stoichiometry of half reaction os it is an
extensive property.
(2) ta ‘electrolytic: well, ccatfinds: is negative
electrode whereas in Galvanic cell cathode
is positive electrode
(3) Cell reaction is spontaneous, if AG =
or Egy = Ve.
(4) The potential of individual half-cell can be
measured.
SECTION -B (CHEMISTRY)
For the third period elements the correct
increasing order of first ionisation energy is :=
(1) NaCr>Ti> VQ) Ti> V>Cr>Mn
(3) Cr>Mn>V>Ti (4) V>Mn>Cr>Ti 88,
89.
ol.
Farafertera 3 ater er ecrt-
(o) Waar org aides B12 at ona aL
(b) IB aH 32 Tea
(o) arb og et ora 4 fear 81
(@) Sita Ge BraIg z
() abe @) bed
@ ab @) aed
fre a alee an vena fea ar ae ®
(1) Li> Be> Na> Mg
(2) Na>Mg> Li> Be
(3) Na>Li> Mg> Be
(4) Li> Na> Mg> Be
aes wut ah ofa:
(A) @ = 103) at aries am rarer &
‘aati sea ame aati
(By "Tt paateaca Bt
(C) Na, Mg, Te, Uxfafater a @
(D) ew Sr a ser AM, B sara Hater
‘Ba 8 aii ae an ead wae 8 wae euT
satire onder Fae weet Bh
ar Rae ett a ered ert AT eee er
M2 @3 1 M4
we fae samreratia efit, P= Q 3 fem 300
K AGRH ] AH? FT BH 50 kJ mol | aT AS? =
20 IK! 8 at dt saan 3 fee fain
ara em
(1) 24 «107 @) 22 10%
@) 46x 10°
2 ait areet thr sora cer area BFS 10 die?
100 dm? aa senfer At act & at after ar zie
aheada Aer aifare
() 382. YK
(4) 16x 108
(2) 382. 0K
() 16.69K 4) 16.6 97K
88,
89,
gi.
Which of the following statement is/are correct
(a) Transition metal are present in 3 to 12 group
(b) IIL B group contain 32 elements
(©) Alkali metal are present in all period
(@) Si and Ge are metalloid
Correct answer is =
() abe @) bed
@) db @ acd
Which of the following is comect order of stomic rai
(1) Li> Be>Na>Mg
(2) Na>Mg>Li> Be
(3) Na>Li>Mg>Be
(4) Li> Na> Mg > Be
Read the following statement
(A) Americans named of atomie number (Z = 103)
is Rutherfordium whereas soviets named it
kurchatovium,
(B) THis p-block clement
(C)Na, Mg, Te, are representative element
(D) A cation is smaller than its parent atom
because it has fewer electrons while its nuclear
charge remains the same.
How many total no, of above statements are
comrect
M2 @3 @1 wa
For a certain thermochemical reaction, P + Q at
T = 300 K the value of AH® = 50 kJ mol! and
AS® = 20 JK then the value of equilibrium
constant for the reaction will be =~
(1) 2.4 «107 Q) 2.2%10°%
@) 46= 107% @) 1.6 = 10"
2 moles of an ideal gas expands reversibly and
isothermally from 10 dm’ to 100 dm’ then
calculate entropy change of surrounding-
() 382 0K (2) -38.29/K
GB) 16.69 4) -16.60K 93,
95.
areca an are uted afd 57.3 kd
mol! ®
HC},,) + NaOH.)
waa Se saa) ane
AH =-57.3k) mol!
HCI % 0.25 mol % NaOH % 0.25 mol % aa
ware Al ee
= NaChag) +H30(0)
() 283ml! 2) -14,32 ki mol!
(3) +873) mol"! (4) -$7.3 kT mot!
NaCl(s) At sera Gee 788 kI/mol 2 APE Na(e)
BAe CL (g) 3 fee Serer A Steet AT AT:
=300 Ki/mol 3% —484 ki/mol @ A NaCls) #
rere A He (AH) eT eH
(1) -4kJ/mol Q) 12 ki/mol
@) 4kJ/mol 0
frac ofittaarisnné.
Fe,0\6)+3CO() + 2Fe(6) +3COKQ);
AH=—268kI
FeO(8)+CO(a) > Fels) +COxe);
AH=—165kI
‘rr caffe Ferm,
Fe,O4s)+ CO(g) > 2FeOs) +COAg), AHHTARE:
(1) -43.3 kd (2) -10.3 kJ
(3) +62kd (4) + 10.3kF
‘rsferfird tat % ferg rae Set fa
0.32 V a1 sifitfiear 3 fore are fites att ata
‘feerfera tfc:
Zo(s) + Fe (aq) > Zn" (aq) + Fets)
(Rarrré : 1 F = 964870)
(1) -61.75 kd mol!
(2) 45.006 ki mol!
(3) 5.006 kJ mol!
(4) #61.75 kI mot
95.
‘The standard enthalpy of neutralization is —$7.3
KI mol! as
HClaq) + NAOH aq) * NaChag) + H2O (6)
The enthalpy of neutralization of 0.25 mole of
HCI by 0.25 mol of NaOH is :
() -28.3kF mol — 2) -14.32 kT mol!
(3) +87.3k)mol"! (4) ~$7.3 kT mol |
Lattice enthalpy of NaCl(s) is 788 ki/mol. Enthalpy
of hydration of Ne"(g) and CI-(g) is ~300 ki/mol
and ~484 Klimol respectively . Then heat of
solution (4 iH) of NaC) is
(Q) ~4k/mol (2) 12.0/mol
@) 4ki/mol ao
The following two reactions are known
Fey) + 3CO(e) > 2Fe(s) + 3COYE) 5
AH = -26.8kI
FeO(s) + CO(g) + Fe(s) + COr(e) 5
AH=—16.5kI
then for following reaction
Fe,0,(s) + CO(g) > 2FeO(s) + COX), AH =?
() 43.3 ko @) -10.3k5
3) +62kd 4) + 103k)
The standard cell potential of the following
cell
Zn\Zn"*(aq)|| Fe™'(aq)|Fe
is 0,32 V. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy
change for the reaction :
Zn(s) + Fe™ (ag) > Zn™* (aq) + Fe(s)
(Given : 1 F = 964870)
(1) -61.75 kJ mol!
(2) +5.006 kJ mol”!
(3) -5.006 kJ mol!
(4) +61.75 kJ mol 98
100.
Fra a fre ota 8 ap ara A are
(a afr Cac, 8 Ca 1.5 tet
(B) nf ALO; ® AL O.S Het
(C) 1548 FeO 7 Fe,0,
(D) Mn0, & 0.6 Het @ Mn’?
es fee. Pape wa a aaa.
() A,B sie
@) AgRD
@) ABA
(4) BsitD
fre are ectagts farmer faa 2
K*1K = -2.93 V, A
Mg"/Mg 0.74
gs argail A srrares: emer at wel agar got
arg.
(1) K.Mg, Cr, Ag
(2) Ag, Cr, Mg, K
(3) K.Ag. Cr Mg
(@) Ch Ag. Me. K
afifBeaT A(s) + 2B°(aq.) = A™%(aq.) + 2B(s)
fae K, THT 108 RITA BY TH Ea
() 036V
@) 018Vv
(3) 0.708 v
(4) 0.0098 v
Pt His{e)/E"LO'M) || H*UM) / H(g), Pt
(atm) (late)
fat dea FU Ey ATA TT HAT.
(1) 0.0295 V
(2) 0.0591 V
(3) -0.0295 V
(4) -0.0591 V
97.
100.
In which of the following conversion 3F charge
is required-
(A) LS mol of Ca from molten CaCly
(B) 0.5 mol of Al from molten Al,O,
(©) 1 mol of FeO to Fes0,
(D) 0.6 mol of MnO; to Mn"?
Choose the correct answer from options given
below =
() A,BandD
(2) AandD
(3) A, Band
(4) Band D
Given below ar standard electrode potentials
(K = -2.93 V, Ag*/Ag=0.8 V
Mg"21Mg = 2.37 V, CP"ICr=-0.74 V
then sclect the correct increasing order of,
reducing power of these metals-
(DK. Mg, Cr, Ag
(2) Ag, Cr, Mg, K
(@) K, Ag, Cr, Me
(4) Cr, Ag, Mg, K
Fora reaction A(s) + 2B"(ag.) & A"%(aq,) + 2866)
K. has been found to be 10°, Then E°.au is :
(1) 036V
2) o18Vv
(3) 0.708 V
(4) 0.0098.
Pt, Hcg) (110M) || H7(1M) / Ha(g), Pt
(atm) (atm)
find the Ey for given cell,
() 0.0295 v
2) 0.0591 V
(3) 0.0295 v
(4) 0.0591 V ‘Topic : Diversity In The
ing World :The Living World, Biological Classi
101,
102.
103.
104.
apr. A areata fears)
safer are aeffco & fore aeperraws B
(A) Fifer aor
(B) Aaa ainer
(© Seo sabe
(D) RA
(&) safe aie
() WHA, BeED
(0) WHABWE
@) AHA,C HD
(4) ABCDWE
feet Sat ar aia sere aeffaeor Hang secre aah
fear?
(1) arg a eT
(2) areata Bist
(3) aT, argTgs, ores ar faite
4) sang, arate rer ort
‘Baer aera eat i nears A
(A) starsit aie sre are fing a sxe
Herein afer ga
(By sr ged Steg sateen Fara ea a
(©) sitesi Stary eet we & we Bae gw
‘farenin aia
(D) aera At Gera, Seay area eRe B oe
“ar ara apt
() Fa AaB (2) FaacaD
G) #47 AaD (4) Fa BaC
aia asia dia fara arr age ame at caret
wae er & fora severe €?
(1) yetar
(2) aPeeieger
3) Miftatcaer
(4) eater
101,
102.
103.
104.
SECTION - A (BOTANY)
‘The main ritera for five Kingsdom classification are =
(A) Call structure
(B) Thallus organization
(©) Mode of nutrition
(D) Reproduction
(©) Phylogenetic relationships
() A,B& Donly
2) AB&Eonly
(3) A,C&Donly
4) ABCD&E
Which organisms are not mentioned in the five
kingdom classification ?
(1) Vieus and lichens.
(2) Virus and prions
(3). Virus, viroids, lichens and prions
(4) Bacteria, virus and lichens
Find the ineorrect statements from the following:~
(A) Bacterial structure is very simple but very
complex in behaviour
®)
diversity
icteria show the most extensive metaboli
(©) The vast majority of bacteria are autotrophs
and a few are heterotrophs
(D) Bacterial cell wall is made up of lipoprotein
() OnlyA&B 2) OnlyC&D
(3) OnlyA&D 4) OnlyB&C
Which organism are
appearance of sea by their rapid multiplication?
responsible for red
(1) Bugtena
2) Noctituca
@) Gonyautax
(4) Trypanosoma 106.
107.
108,
109.
(E) Stetson - waaifiretta sretinarrcht
wear ae a
(1) F47A,B,C,D (2) FAAB,C,D.E
@) Faw A,c,D (4) FAB,
Faeyr eri (A-D) ETA Afar
(A) sea saat & staal oe aA oe at
arr)
(B) retin ear & are Fae a zaheT a
(©) sreptfaae A sfgserra ativan fhe aiet &
‘fare Feeraer % aro eet aa A
(D) sen Hf aanfravrerry ae eter 2 Sat
et rae faftara Sua saa A
‘aati 48 ah’ are wel wei a?
() atic Q) A.cwD
@) BRC @) BwD
frafefam 8 fe corset & gin are
“aefcarina act & 2
(ly yar (2) venir
(3) siftecint (4) Weta
case aera ae Peg a ae ft ar are 8
(1) srrecictt we tifa
(2) afta en one
(3) aftafar wen Biter
(4) snfechit aa viata
fa 8 reer gar a gaa HR
(1) eee restora
(2) Bitar terete
G3) Beater Ataf
(@) sreceitar- sagt
105.
106.
107.
108,
109.
Read the following pair :-
(A) Desmid-Golden algae
(B) Dinoflagellates-Chrysophyte
(© Slime mould -Saprophytic
(D) Euglenoi
(E) Protozoa-Unicellular prokaryotes.
Choose the correct pair ==
ellicle present
(1) Only A,B,C,D— Q) Only B,C, D, E
(3) OnlyA,C,D (4) Only B,C,
Consider the following four (A-D) statements,
(A) Spores of slime moulds do not have any walls
(B) Euglena shows autotrophic as well as
heterotrophic nutrition
(©) Dinoflagellates have plated cell wall in which
silica particles embedded
(D) Diatoms lack Magellacilia but they float
passively on water surface
Which of the above statement() isare not correct 2
(1) Aand & @) A,CandD
@) Banc (4) BandD
In which of the following plasmogamy is
followed by karyogamy immediately?
() Mucor (2) Aspergitfus
(3) Ustilago (4) Puceinia
Which fungi causes rust and smut diseases
respectively?
(1) Ustilago and Agaricus
(2) Puccinia and Ustitago
(3) Puceinia and Agaricus
(4) Ustitago and Puceinia
Choose the incorrect match from following ==
(1) Albugo - Phycomycetes
(2) Agaricus - Ascomycetes
(3) Puff balls - Basidiomycetes
(4) Altemaria - Deuteromeycetes 110,
4.
12,
13.
14,
1s.
erat A ofa oH tua whe wea fea hard & aro
aaa
() saveeiter (2) begit
3) agate (4) Free
‘rer a steht oor ussite aaa 22
(1) Afar (2) ager
3) vente (4) Sexist
at gaa ere a afar at
(1) atte # geen seat aaa ant
(2) Sater ser at arc ea
(3) Rete aga eat ara
GG) Rigi Hae ret aero ata
ETE, Tae, ells IT IT a
(1) Stray a fererey
@) fama aaa
3) Frey,
4) Sta, are atest
igererront & tial # frafertiad seri a1 ofan;
() Fare age sia & fare sera Rafe aT
sara BIT a
(1) argercerromT ware weer Shae sis era 2
(un atta 3 arora 8 fa veh ee a aL
(uy) apg agers iq wa re Here ate 8
oui 1S aad arg wel 82
() Qieanin 2) 1 I vaTTV
(@) Lueariv
freferfiad 4 & etre va steer sera ar sareTT
wee
() efrer
@) Ee are
(4) Luiaariv
(2) ifrarctrr
(4) aiewrger
110.
ul.
112,
113.
114.
115,
White spots seen on mustard leaves are due to
which fungus?
(1) Alternaria (2) Albugo
(3) Rhizopus (4) Mucor
Which of the following is an unicellular fungi ?
(1) Peniciltiam (2) Neurospora
(3) Aspergillus (4) Saccharomyces
Which information is not related with lichen :-
(1) Show mutually useful association between
two organisms,
(2) Algal component is known as phycobiont.
(3) They always grow in polluted areas.
(4) Fungi provide water in lichen,
‘Mumps, small pox, herpes disease caused by :-
(1) Bacteria and virus
(2) Virus and fungi
@) Virus
(4) Bacteria, fungi and protozoa
Consider the following statements about
Mycoplasma
(1) They completely lack a cell wall
(1) Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism
(Il) They ean not survive without oxygen
(IV) Many mycoplasma are pathogenic in
‘animals and plants,
Which of the statements given above are correct?
() 1, Mand tt 2) I, Mand Iv
(3) 1, Mand IV (4) [land tv
Which of the following is not an example of
Protista Kingdom ?
(1) Paramoecium — 2) Gonyautax
(3) Golden algae (4). Porphyra 116.
17.
1s.
119,
ea ft antrar fifa at atB -
() wrefer a teaete t
0) depia a tices A
(3) wera itches a
(4) watts, diearege ores At
116.
The cell wall of fungi are composed of =
(1) Chitin and cellulose
(2). Cellulose and polysaccharides
(3) Chitin and polysaccharides
(4) Chitin, polysaccharides and glycogen
eae LT AE 1B frees HL AS FA TA AE | 117, Match Column-1 with Column-ll and select the
Soman na faaeT ga correct option from the codes given below :-
wer wet Column -T (Column - It
wee Te Chief producers in
A i | aethitgge AY cocans i | Euglenoids
B | erasan ii [armen B| Red tides ii | Diatoms
aus goa wet Pigments identical
c iii | orate ae cc iii | Slime moulds
aa to higher plants
D |rrsifsar iv | sree D| Plasmodium iv | Dinoflagellates:
(1) A-Gi),B-(iv), C-(), D-(ii)
(2) A-Gi),B-(iv), C-Gii), D-G)
G) AAG), B-Gii), C-@), D-iv)
(4) AW).BAiv), C-Gii), D-Gii)
ire fear fers 8 stat a eens
@o <>
(1) fcr ate Petra
(3) serinearctes site aeresintaer
(4) sradea Races sit seater ake
stam, Sates Stet arom aa fst site
aar®
(1) 70s gee & ar
(2), Sestsvergtar ape ara fife are
(3) fixeqe gare 44 DNA aRT
(4) sim a
18.
119,
Q) AG), Biv), C+), Dili)
2) Ai), BAiv), C-Gi), DW),
@) AGi),B-Gii), C40, D-iv)
(4) A-G).B+iv), C-Gii), D-Gi)
{Identity the organism given in the below figure
<>
(1) Euglena and Paramoeeium
(2) Slime mould and Amoeba
(3) Dinoflagetlates and Chlamydomonas
(4) Dinoflagetlates and Slime mould
Bacteria is a group of prokaryotic organisms
which is characterized by :=
(1) 70s ribosomes
(2) Peptidoglycan cell wall
(3) ds circular naked DNA
(4) Allofthese 120.
1a.
122.
123.
res am A aE
(1) Rehfiee - sreret canter at
(2) eniieferatfiee er ga mi ae
G) Birtsrd aes a
(4) ater - fame rete
feat a ate a ate oR Aare A oe ara? 2
(1) aera, ae a
2) Ate a, whieh
(3) ation a, ahr, BRET
(4) Fates a, Feito, oes
120.
121.
122,
Choose the incorrect pair :~
(1) Hatophites - extreme salty areas
(2) Thermoacidophiles - hot sulphur springs
(3) Methanogens - marshy areas
(4) Vicuses facultative parasite
Which of the following pigments are found in
brown algae?
(1) Chlorophyll 2, Chlorophyll d
(2) Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll b
(3). Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll e, fucoxanthin
(4) Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll d, Phycobilins
Match the following column correctly
frrafefad area a aa Frere Fifa
HT a
(a) |eeatarer |i) | vetoes eer
(| satarer | ip | Reerger ser ae
(©) J erer Serer | (iiiy| eA a Arete
(D) | gear (iv) | part war ae rae
() A-iv, Beli, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-i, Bil, C-iii, D-iv
(4) Adv, BA,
frafaferr oer wag a qaatcfie sre
one ere ead fi serie a a xara afi
a, wrarereeT
b. dtetereer
©. anita
a. seers
() abed
Cai, Dili
Q) beda
Q) abde
@) bdea
123.
‘Column I (Column It
(A)] Green Algae [G) | Floridean Starch
(8) [Brown Algae | (ii) | Paramylum and fat
(©)|Red Algae | git] 2"
and Mannitol
(D)| Eugiene [Gv] Starch andi oil droptets
() Adv, Bai, Ci, Di
Q) Aili, Biv, Ci, Di
@) Ad, Bai, Coli, D-iv
@ Aiv, Bi, Ci, Dei
Arrange the following plant groups in ascending
order with respect to the gradual reduction of
gametophytic stage :-
a. Bryophyta
b. Pieridophytes
¢. Angiosperm
4. Gymnosperm
( abed
@ bede
@ abde
(4) bea 124,
125.
126.
127.
fre 8 ater Sidhe pha A Reis
arnt?
(1) Rectisrten sit afeshar
(2) efeqven site sateen
(3) angen she caeinifever
() eeren sit angen
Berar at ag aur wel Peper a era aL.
wert: Sitar Hi aire oer snfeae TUT
are
wera: wie i gmaitcfire At cert sraear were ag
eet a
(1) Baer 37 Fer aA
(2) Fae @ Berra a
(3) ai Fer (a1 aa a wea
(4) Sit are (37 eT (a TET
er (A) = dame wedi #, storie ger,
sear, gered ree ec dtr
arr (R) = daetia wed # camera ag, aa
‘site afer # fanife eter @
(1) 398 we are ata wer & ver ere aes aT
wet sete
(2) ee are ai wer @, afer ar, eT
are enc eT AL
(3) Sarat, afar are srs ah
(4) ara aR art sre
are rea at aera aga et meer amet ot
28, St Pa ao pitt cha att?
() a frator
(2) rare famaior
(3) Present
(4) daet sae frat
124,
125.
126.
127.
Which of the following pteridophytes are
heterosporou:
nature?
(1) Selaginetla and Salvinia
2) Adiantum and Equisetum
(3) Psilotum and Lycopodium
(4) Adiantum and Psilotum
Read the following Statements and select the
correct option =~
Statement-A : Funaria have multi-cellular and
branched thizoids
StatementB In
gametophyte is the protonema,
moss, second
(1) Only statement A is correct.
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct.
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
Assertion (A) :- In vascular plants, sporophyte is
main, dominant, fre
living plant body.
Reason (R) :- Sporophyte differentiated in roots,
stem and leaves in vascular plants.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are Truc & the
Reason is a correet explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
Which event is a precursor to the seed habit
considered as an important step in evolution ?
(1)_ Embryo formation
(2) Endosperm formation
(3), Heterosporous
(4) Vascular tissue development
stage of 128,
129,
130,
131.
132.
‘fee ran fara aereltsht ore aT 1
we faa dee 8 rere famed I Tea -
(a)
(1) aeamt ever aa ei
(2) Bee ear a ater write eter 2)
(3) ae ferret araieitar 124 &
(4) eee fare strep atcha sree Bh
frafafen # a ae tart fared at a
veraifiner 8 2
(1) stotengettren, Reveaier
(2) afectien, afertear
(3) Waetarta, arene
(4) aifraten, arr
faa 1a weed F fee steven at Ff gary
sxe fam tb
(1) Far
Q) sreivafrage
(3) 3a
(4) afrergetfear
careaifearar af & aeifite sha ar seas Ata
() eer 2) Riri
(3) sedition (4) agctier
Feary at start at atafiee at 8, Hh a=
Arar
() tetagtaren diary,
Q) wad are sme,
G) Grad aren ag
(4) det ad aren sree,
128,
129,
130.
131.
132,
Given figure belongs to gymnosperms
Find out incorrect option regarding th
@
(1) Itisa one of the tallest wee
2) thas long and dwarf shoots
3) is Ginkgo bioloba plant.
(4) It is a heterosporous spermatophyt.
Which of the following algae belong to the class
phacophyceae ?
(1). Polysiphonia, Dietyora
2). Gracilaria, Gelidium
(3) Eetocarpus, Sargassum
(4) Laminaria, Chara
The following given members shows zygotic
meiosis except
(Q) Chloretta
(2) Dinoflagetletes
@) Funaria
(4) Acetabularia
Select the organism which belong to the class
Lycopsida
(1) Adiantum (2) Selaginetia
3) Equiseeum (4) Psifomum
Viruses that infect bacteria are usually have :
(1) Double stranded DNA
(2) Single s
randed RNA
(3) Single stranded DNA.
(4) Double stranded RNA 133,
134,
135.
arate ear 8 a ar aes ore:
(1) farstene a at ott aren gating a eat
ete aifeaca dar
(2) Fairer tat qaratefing exer Ht & sa
sare gig sa Bt E
(2) faetrener tte rer gona eat
Ste safeara wet trot
() 1ahe2 aa
‘were: arate cnet area Had aa 8 ote
erage ay en de fire aA
we) ener fare Aes ae, Promqet t
& oft ge wear ter rie are He
(1) wee steamer 2 aa
(2) were share 2 dT erat
(@) BH we eee wat
(4) Baa-1 Seer 8 tar 4-2 wet A
wie met Stara A mare ove, gh
Bet, Bret & sere eet A 3 ao sre
133,
134,
135,
Which of the following statement is incorrect:
(1) In gymnosperms the male and female
gametophytes have an independent free-
living existence
(2) In gymnosperms the male gametophyte has
an independent life where as female
gametophyte is dependent
@) In male & female
gametophyte don't have an independent
gymnosperms the
free
ing existence
(4) Both 1 and 2
Statement-1 : Majority of the Red algae are
marine with greater concentrations found in the
warmer areas.
Statement-2 : Sexual reproduction in Red algae
is oogamous and accompanied by complex post
fertilization Developments.
(2) Statement-1 and Statement-2 both are
correct.
(2) Statement-I and Statement-2 both are
incorrect,
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-2 is
incorrect.
(4) Statement-1 is incorrect and Statement-2 is
correct
‘The predominant stage of the life eyele of a moss
is the gametophyte which consists of two stages.
‘These stages respectively are :=
(1) Primary stage - leafy stage
Secondary stage - protonema
(2) Primary stage - prothallus
‘Secondary stage - protonema
(3) Primary stage - protonema
Secondary stage - leafy stage
(4) Primary stage - leafty stage
Secondary stage - prothallus sag B Care fear)
136, farafefaa # @ ataer siftea a aa
wee?
() faestas strait
Q) Bina as
3) safer era ache
(4) efi atfeeer stat a ager At siren Fite
ara
137, fear wes aver ger ar aera a
(1) eater - a7
(2) aster - eae
(3) Ser ataret - weer
(4) arte stare - adage
138, stamp, qoraeig ef aa, cer
() eeatarar
(2) Rfeien ar
(3) sifeagreay ar
(4) engage ar
139, ergdrrers aa are go wa
(1) sanfite am var aera ary ate
(2), seenfig fd ae rear ee
(3) anfieg aon orem are are
(4), enfig fd ar ara are Tet
140, fret ta ate arate ae
() Ether
(2) Wergreer
(3) ew
(4) We Rerar
136.
137,
138,
139,
140,
SECTION -B (BOTANY)
Which of the following is not a feature of
Protista kingdom ?
(1) Membrane bound organelles
2) Well defined nucleus
(3) Primarly aquatic
(4) All protistian have cellulosic cell wall
Select the mismatch in given pair
(1) Green algae - Chara
(2). Brown algae - Fucus
(3) Red algae - Porphyra
(4) BGA - Chlamydomonas
Sporophyte depend on gametophyte is
character of -
(1) Salvinia
2) Adiantum
(3) Polytrichum
(4) Lycopodium
Gametes formed in Spirogyra are :-
(1) Flagellated and similar in size
(2) Non-flagellated and dissimilar in size
(3) Flagellated and dissimilar in size
(4) Non-flagellated and similar in size
Which of the following is not a moss ?
(1) Punaria
(2) Polytrichum
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Marchantia 141,
142,
143.
144.
frafefan saat at Tet
(Ay Piftta oft af wart & afar et wae ot oeRt
Bua aH aren ett 2)
(B) fatsta & saree feet ere 2)
(C) BTA Ae BAT
(D) as Tar afore Seat a et sere Ae eT
5 es a wea ae AT BL
wel pert aT aT HT
Q) (ayaa (By
2 OTD)
3) ATAC
@ GAD)
fear tate art aaah ait a aT
ar
(1) saat A sree war are eat ag
fran arta
(2) Arstamph sera 8 gery awd a
(3) wees stare sitar at 8 at aor
eraser aaa
(4) Mater tay atin nate eat
a
aati ochre aes Pee ard aT -
() set atsin, Pirate car eatery
(2) Srey stare, Cesare aT AT
(3) set ats, atte ats ae aafafsAT
(4) sraet rary, gary cen afesfeaitataey
‘Facaferfiaa 8 & are din fiisita & sare era ze?
(1) Seer ferent
Q) at
@) Reartr
4) BRRSTOT
141.
142,
143.
144,
Read the following statements :
(A) Growth exhibited by non living is by
accumulation of material on surface,
(B) Non-living object exhibits metabolism,
(©) Male do not reproduce.
(D) Photoperiod not affects reproduetion in
seasonal breeders both plants and animals.
Choose the correct statements
Q) (Ayand (B)
2) (©)and (D)
(3) (A)and (©)
() (and (0)
Which of the following statement is not comect
about
(1) Fungi show a great diversity in morphology
and habitat
(2) Azygospore is formed by fusion of two spores.
(3) The asexual spores are conidia produced
exogenously
(4) The basidiospores are exogenously produced
on the basidium.
‘The asexual reproduction of fungi may occur by
means of -
(1) Zoospores, oospores and ascospores
(2) Aplanospores, ascospores and zygospores
(3) Zoospores, aplanospores and conidia
(4) Aplanospores, zygospores and basidiospores
Which of the followi
g disease is caused by prions
(1) Potato spindle tuber disease
(2) Herpes disease
B) Mad cow disease
(4) Influenza disease 145. qe: Aadifer mS eT g afisrmy fanior arr ws | 145. Statement I: Bacteria reproduce mainly by spore
_" formation
aati es Statement II : Chemosynthetic bacteria play a
great role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen,
corer wal wee SH svat placa A aecanpt phosphorous, iron and sulphur.
aftar Fart a a
(1) Far eet 8 eg a I Tae
Statement T is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement I is
(2) Ferree eg ae ae comet
renee ) Both statement I and statement 1 are
comect
@ solaeRnttnent (4) Both statement I and statement IT are
incorrect
146. gen after eae 11 PAL 146. Match the column I with columa IL
— ean Column I Column It
(A)| Pyrenoids (| Marchantia
(A) Jager (i)_ | sresferar
(B)| Horsetails Gi) | Coniters
(B) | aide (ii) | Fer
(©)| Gemma cups Chlamydomonas
(©) | Saray (ii) | aetargehatar
Needle like
© Gv) | Equisetum
(0) | eer ace often (ivy | pear leaves
1) (A) iv), (B)- Gi), ©)~ G4), (D) -() ) A)=-Gv), B)-Gii), ©) -G), )-()
(2) (A)- Gil), B)- (0. ©) =. D) - iv) 2 (A)- Gi), B)-@, (©) - Gi), D) - Gv
3) A)- Git), (B)- Gv), )-, (D) - Gi) @) (A)- Gi), B)- Gv), © -@,(D)- Gd
(4) (A) Gd, (B) - Gi), (C) -, (D) - GW) (4) (A)- i), B)- (iii), ()-@, D) - ivy
147, srargaattsit H oferat St faratser eat 8 - 147. Characteristic features of gymnosperm leaves is -
(1) ofat sift ag, vit war arg at wer ae (1) leaves are well adapted to withstand
we & ‘extremes of temperature, humidity and wind.
(2) afral sift ary, srl ae arg wy eee al aR (2) Leaves are not adapted to withstand
weit cetremes of temperature, humidity and wind
(3) ofa fark acer wee oft or sae (3) Only simple type of leaves are found.
(4) oftat saratta stare fara a Fator acct (4) Leaves are modified into stamens. 148,
149,
150.
et at a fer
at
waa [a
ato
sretemr
(B) | arava | (in [Tere
(C) | aietizrecse| (ii) | area
(D)| srarefee | (iv) | arate eT
ofa feat a farmed 8 eet soe Fr gh -
() (A) -=fiv), (B)~ Gili), (© - Gi), (D) - ()
(2) (A)- Gi), (B) - iv), © - Gi), (D)- @)
(3) (A)- Gli), (B)- (iv), (©) - @.(D)- Gi)
(4) (A)- iv), (B)-
fe fea a faa as at oe an ae fee ee
Bahra 22
1 (C) = (, (D) - Gi)
(1) Brewers area - areca fetta,
(2) Beaifaree - regia Reader,
(3) Bethe - ae a sereg
(4) gtietigs - dare err
‘Faraferfera 8 aren are ae 8 2
(1) Barre aac erat / aT ae ey SHOT A
sera fran Frat 1
2) Bre tare age # aire eregistaige ear
RT SCT A BI
(3) Sedhergee weet ve ay are web ah
‘Fant arora Ser STRETCH TAS
(4) Factret ferctorope ea 81
148,
149,
150,
‘Mateh fst with List
List
(A) Pinus @
(i | Prothatlus
Mycontiza|
(D)] Drvopeeris | (iv) | Coralloid rooss
(8)| Gee
(Q| Polyaictura| Giiy
(Choose the corect answer fiom the options given below
() (A= iv), (B) - Gi), © - G, D)-@)
2) (A) iii), B)- (iv), © = G, (D-H)
3) (A)- Gil), B) (iv), (©) - @.(D) - Gi)
@) (A)- Gv), B)- Gi), © -@, ) - Gi)
Identify ‘A’ in the figure given below and to
which process it is related ?
(1) Holdfast - Nitrogen fixation
(2). Heterocyst - Nitrogen fixation
(3), Heterocyst - Production of methane
(4) Pyrenoids - Storage bodies
Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) Bryophytes play an important role in plant
succession on bare rocks/soil.
(2) Red lage produced large amount of
hydrocolloids algin.
(3) Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to
posses vasecular tissue -xylem and phloem,
(4) The gymnosperms are heterosporous. ‘Topic : Animal Kingdom, Evolution : Origin And Evolution
151,
152.
153.
154,
apr A. cafe)
‘ae AEEa a 10,000 % 40,000 a4 ee faq gam Se
ve afte nea car salaafiea ot a att a ter
Br ret & we hte er RT a SI erTAT
1400 ec
(hee afar
(Q) Rasa
(3) eer eT
(4) eenfehtanar
Padi sta den 8 dears mora Bt ae
(1) Faas At argh & aero
(2) sain aware arr
(3) Sree At seat art
(4) sarees aor sagafiaé & re
fire ow fg @ ae ae ore shite ae or
refs er aret fares monte & ferare waa aT
arate?
() sare
(2) srventi rere
@) agg aR
4) refers at
ste eenait are sficare # aafira &:
(1) past er tesa er Pe
(2) zarsit fore srt ssa
(3) aia aa & ere ate to,
4) Sera ae
151,
152.
153.
154,
SECTION - A (ZOOLOGY)
‘The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000
years ago in East and Central Asia, used hides to
protect their bodies and had brain capacity of
1400 ec. were:
(1) Home habilis
(2) Neanderthal man
(3) Cro-magnon man
(4) Ramapithecus
Founder effect can be seen in population
because of
(1) Constant allele frequeney
2) Genetie drift
(3). Absence of gene flow
(4) Absence of natural Selection
Evolution of different species in a given area
starting from a point and spreading to other
geographical areas is known as :-
Q) Migration
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Natural sclection
Evolution by anthropogenic action includes
(1) Herbicide and pesticide resistant varities
(2) Drug resistant microorganisms
(3) Antibiotic resistant microbes,
(4) All of the above 155, serra & fd Paste ae & rarer ats | 155, There are three connotations of theory of special
saftey 81 ga Sat aT safes wel ae a creation. Which of the following is not correct ?
(1) eee & sare fra of sta ee wont Prem (1)
