Examination Question Examination Answer

Sl No.
1 Choose the correct sequence for basic life support in adults. Airway, breathing, circulation(Y)
Circulation, airway, breathing(N)
Breathing, circulation, airway(N)
Airway, circulation, breathing(N)
2 Name the mixture of gases used in Anesthesia. O2 and N2O(Y)
O2 and CO2(N)
CO2 and N2O(N)
O2, CO2 and N2O(N)
3 Read the question and select the appropriate answer.The oxygen flush system provides a higher flow of oxygen of ________ L/min when the patient’s need for oxygen is greater than the amount the breathing circuit can provide. 25-50(N)
35-75(Y)
55-95(N)
65-105(N)

4
Name the method to measure changes in the levels of consciousness during anesthesia is ________ Auditory Evoked Potential(Y)

Visual Evoked Potential(N)

Tactile Evoked Potential(N)

Speech Evoked Potential(N)

5
Generalize the function of a nebulizer To supply moisture in the form of droplets(Y)

To maintain temperature(N)

To maintain the gas levels of individual gases(N)

To check the safety of valves(N)

6
Name the material by which vaporizers are made of steel(N)

cast iron(N)

copper(Y)

brass(N)

7
Recall and select which of the following is also called as laughing gas? CO2(N)

N2O(Y)

NO2(N)

B2O(N)

8
Justify the statement, Sodalime is contraindicated with trielene because it causes the formation of neuro toxic components(N)

nephro toxic components(N)

Both(Y)

None(N)

9
Choose the first sensation lost following administration of local anesthetic is Proprioception(N)

Pain(Y)

Touch(N)

Temperature(N)

10
Name the inventor of first anaesthesia machine W T G Morton(N)

Humphry Devi(N)

Edmund Gaskin Boyle(Y)

None(N)

11
All of the following are characteristics of an ideal general anesthetic except they should require uncomplicated equipment to administer(N)

They should have a wide range of safety(N)

they should rapidly metabolize to avoid cumulative toxicity(Y)

They shoukd provide rapid and uncomplicated induction and emergence(N)

12
Name the fastest acting inhalational agent Sevoflurane(N)

enflurane(N)

Both 1,2(N)

Desflurane(Y)

13
Write the dose of Thiopentone in G.A 5mg/kg(Y)

2mg/kg(N)

0.5mg/kg(N)

7mg/kg(N)

14
Choose for which methohexital is a drug of choice Laproscopic surgery(N)

ortho surgery(N)

ECT(Y)

LSCS(N)

15
Name the General anesthetic which most likely causes bronchodilation is Thiopentone(N)

propofol(N)

Fentanyl(N)

ketamine(Y)

16
Identify the agent which causes dissociative anesthesia ketamine(Y)

Fentanyl(N)

propofol(N)
 Thiopentone(N)

17
Select in which of the following stage general anesthesia surgery is done Stage I(N)

Stage II(N)

Stage III plane 2(N)

Stage III plane 3(Y)

18
Choose among the following which inhalational agent is induction agent of choice in children Methoxyflurane(N)

Sevoflurane(Y)

Desflurane(N)

Isoflurane(N)

19
Name the naturally occurring local anaesthetic Cocaine(Y)

Etomidate(N)

Cyclopropane(N)

Procaine(N)

20
Select the dentist who first used Nitrous oxide for the abolition of pain due to dental extraction was Harpes David(N)

Harvey William(N)

Horace Wells(Y)

Hunter John(N)

21
Identify Hyponatermia low concentration of mg(N)

low concentration of ca(N)

low concentration of Na(Y)

none(N)

22
Write pin index of oxygen 1,5(N)

2,5,(Y)

3,5(N)

5,2(N)

23
Write 1 ml of liquid oxygen gives 940 ml of gas(N)

1040 ml of gas(N)

480 ml of gas(N)

840 ml of gas(Y)

24
Name the reversal drug for opioids Entonox(N)

morphine(N)

Nalaxone(Y)

Nitrous oxide(N)

25
Select the pressure of oxygen cylinder 200psi(N)

450psi(N)

2000 psi(Y)

none(N)

26
Choose in which conditions laryngeal mask airway is contraindicated In a difficult intubation(N)

In cardiopulmonary resuscitation(N)

In a child undergoing an elective/routine eye surgery(N)

ln a patient with a large tumour in the oral cavity(Y)

27
Choose the another name for Aerosol generator O2 generator(N)

sodalime(N)

Humidifier(N)

nebulizer(Y)

28
Choose among the following in which "Bobbin" is found(Probable duplicate) ET Tube(N)

LMA(N)

Ventilator(N)

Anesthesia machine(Y)

29
Write if a patient has taken steroid for man than 3 weeks in last 1 year he/she must receive intraoperative supplementation of Hydrocortisone(Y)

NSAID\'s(N)

Neostigmine(N)

ALL(N)

30
Identify in which category according of ASA Type II diabetes (well controlled) comes in ASA 1(N)

ASA 2(Y)

ASA 3(N)

ASA 4(N)
31
Choose among the following the correct maximum safe dose of bupivacaine (plain) 1mg/kg(N)

5mg/kg(N)

2mg/kg(Y)

7mg/kg(N)

32
The immediate goals of emergence include all but one of the following Indicate the exception The ability of the patient to protect their airway(N)

Stable CVS status(N)

Effective analgesia(N)

Normal mental status examination(Y)

33
Select the narrowest portion of the neonate's airway Glottis(N)

Trachea(N)

Pharynx(N)

Cricoid(Y)

34
Choose which among the following opioids are most commonly administered into the intrathecal (spinal) space? Morphine and fentanyl(Y)

Fentanyl and remifentanil(N)

Morphine and sufentanil(N)

Fentanyl and sufentanil(N)

35
Select how many classes of grades are there in mallampati grading. 5(N)

3(N)

1(N)

4(Y)

36
Choose the correct ansawer .All but one of the following interfere with accurate pulse oximetry measurements, except Nail polish(N)

Severe anemia(Y)

Carbon monoxide(N)

methemoglobenemia(N)

37
choose the appropriate size endotracheal tube for a 4 year old child is 4(N)

6(N)

5(Y)

4.5(N)

38
Choose an appropriate answer. A 60-year old man for minor surgery has a BP of 170/100 mmHg in the pre-operative clinic. In retrospect, he admits that his blood pressure has been consistently high when he checks it at the drugstore. Assign an ASA class. ASA 3(N)

ASA 2(N)

ASA 4(Y)

ASA 1(N)

39
Choose the correct answer. All but one of the following is a disadvantage of general anesthesia for Caesarian section, except Increased anesthetic requirement(Y)

Increased risk of awareness under anesthesia(N)

Exacerbation of uterine atony(N)

Increased risk of aspiration in the pregnant patient(N)

40
Order the correct sequence of steps in performing CPR on an adult victim? Airway, Breathing, Compression(N)

Breathing, Compression, Airway(N)

Compression, Airway, Breathing(N)

Airway, Compression, Breathing(Y)

41
Name the type of IV fluid used to treat dehydration Normal saline(N)

5% Dextrose(N)

0.9% Sodium Chloride(Y)

Ringer\'s Lactate(N)

42
Choose the odd one out Succinylcholine(N)

Rocuronium(N)

Pancuronium(N)

Aspirin(Y)

43
Tell the most important factor to consider before blood transfusion Blood type(Y)

Volume of blood(N)

Rate of transfusion(N)

Route of transfusion(N)

44
Select he recommended method for verifying the identity of a patient prior to a medical procedure Asking for the patient\'s date of birth(N)

Checking the patient\'s identification wristband(N)

Referring to the patient\'s medical record(N)

Both B and C(Y)

Spinal anesthesia(Y)

Peripheral nerve block(N)

Intravenous regional anesthesia(N)

46
Choose among the following which drug is NOT commonly used as an induction agent for general anesthesia Propofol(N)

Etomidate(N)

Ketamine(N)

Fentanyl(Y)

47
Select the recommended flow rate for administering oxygen to an adult with shortness of breath 2-4 L/min via nasal cannula(N)

6-8 L/min via face mask(N)

10-12 L/min via non-rebreather mask(Y)

15-20 L/min via mechanical ventilator(N)

48
Identify which among the following positions is commonly used for abdominal surgery. Supine(Y)

Trendelenburg(N)

Lithotomy(N)

Left lateral decubitus(N)

49
State the primary function of an anesthesia machine To deliver oxygen and anesthetic gases to the patient.(Y)

To monitor the patient\'s vital signs.(N)

To control the amount of anesthesia delivered to the patient.(N)

All of these(N)

50
Name the component of an anesthesia machine which regulates the flow of anesthetic gases Vaporizer(N)

Absorber(N)

Flow meter(Y)

Ventilator(N)

51
Name the type of anesthesia machine which is used for patients undergoing major surgery Portable anesthesia machine(N)

Stationary anesthesia machine(Y)

Both A and B(N)

Only A(N)

52
choose which type of anesthesia is epidural anesthesia Regional anesthesia(Y)

General anesthesia(N)

Local anesthesia(N)

None of these(N)

53
Select the type of anesthesia which is typically used for women during labor and delivery Epidural anesthesia(Y)

Spinal anesthesia(N)

General anesthesia(N)

Local anesthesia(N)

54
Choose the primary function of induction agents in general anesthesia? To provide amnesia(N)

To produce unconsciousness(Y)

To provide muscle relaxation(N)

To provide pain relief(N)

55
write the onset time for propofol as an induction agent in general anesthesia 5-10 minutes(N)

30-60 minutes(N)

2-5 minutes(Y)

10-15minutes(N)

56
Choose among the following and select the main purpose of intubation in anesthesia To deliver oxygen to the patient(N)

To monitor the patient\'s vital signs(N)

To administer anesthesia(N)

To provide a secure airway for mechanical ventilation(Y)

57
Namer the main complication of intubation in anesthesia Airway obstruction(N)

Hypoxia(N)

Bronchospasm(N)

Laryngospasm(Y)

58
Choose among the following and select which type of drug is commonly used to treat ventricular fibrillation (VF) during CPR. Atropine(N)

Amiodarone(Y)

Adenosine(N)

Lidocaine(N)

59
 Write the typical dose of atropine used during CPR 0.5 mg(N)

1 mg(N)

2 mg(Y)

3 mg(N)

60
Name the three components of general anesthesia Analgesia, amnesia, and unconsciousness(N)

Analgesia, unconsciousness, and muscle relaxation(N)

Amnesia, unconsciousness, and muscle relaxation(Y)

Analgesia, unconsciousness, and ventilation support(N)

61
Name the device which is attached to the suction machine to remove secretions from the airway Catheter(Y)

Nebulizer(N)

Oxygen mask(N)

Blood pressure cuff(N)

62
Choose the normal range for an adult\'s body temperature 97°F to 99°F(N)

95°F to 97°F(N)

100°F to 102°F(N)

98.6°F to 100.4°F(Y)

63
Identify the range for an adult\'s pulse rate 60 to 100 beats per minute (bpm)(Y)

40 to 60 bpm(N)

80 to 120 bpm(N)

100 to 140 bpm(N)

64
Select the correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths in adult basic life support. 30 compressions to 2 breaths(Y)

15 compressions to 2 breaths(N)

30 compressions to 1 breath(N)

15 compressions to 1 breath(N)

65
Select the drug commonly used during advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) to treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. Epinephrine(Y)

Atropine(N)

Adenosine(N)

Lidocaine(N)

66
Identify the drug that can be used during BLS to treat symptomatic bradycardia with hypotension. Epinephrine(N)

Atropine(Y)

Adenosine(N)

Lidocaine(N)

67
Select the drug used during ACLS to treat hyperkalemia-induced cardiac arrest. Epinephrine(N)

Calcium chloride(Y)

Atropine(N)

Sodium bicarbonate(N)

68
Identify the correct hand placement for chest compressions in adult basic life support. Over the lower half of the sternum(Y)

Over the upper half of the sternum(N)

Over the left lower ribcage(N)

Over the right lower ribcage(N)

69
Select the drug used during ACLS to treat stable narrow complex tachycardia. Epinephrine(N)

Atropine(N)

Adenosine(Y)

Lidocaine(N)

70
Identify the drug that can be used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose during cardiac arrest. Flumazenil(N)

Dextrose(N)

Naloxone(Y)

Sodium bicarbonate(N)

71
Select the appropriate depth of chest compressions in adult basic life support. 1 inch(N)

2 inches(Y)

3 inches(N)

4 inches(N)

72
Choose the AED placement that is recommended for infants and young children. Anterior-lateral placement(N)

Anterior-posterior placement(N)

Posterior-lateral placement(Y)

Posterior-anterior placement(N)

73
Choose the drug used during ACLS to treat stable wide complex tachycardia. Epinephrine(N)
 Atropine(N)

Adenosine(N)

Amiodarone(Y)

74
Choose the correct age range for pediatric basic life support. 0 to 8 years(N)

0 to 12 years(Y)

0 to 16 years(N)

0 to 18 years(N)

75
Infer the drug that may be used during ACLS in the management of acute coronary syndrome Epinephrine(N)

Atropine(N)

Nitroglycerin(Y)

Amiodarone(N)

76
Select the primary treatment delivered by an automated external defibrillator (AED). Chest compressions(N)

Rescue breaths(N)

Electric shock(Y)

Intravenous medication(N)

77
Choose the correct technique for opening the airway in basic life support. Jaw thrust(N)

Head tilt-chin lift(Y)

Neck extension(N)

Chest thrust(N)

78
Identify the AED pad placement recommended for adult patients. Upper right and lower left(N)

Upper left and lower right(Y)

Upper right and lower right(N)

Upper left and lower left(N)

79
Select the correct location for checking the pulse in an adult during basic life support. Carotid artery(Y)

Radial artery(N)

Femoral artery(N)

Popliteal artery(N)

80
Identify the principle of anesthesia that involves the administration of drugs to produce a loss of sensation and consciousness. Analgesia(N)

Amnesia(N)

Hypnosis(Y)

Muscle relaxation(N)

81
Select the principle of anesthesia that involves the reduction of pain perception. Analgesia(Y)

Amnesia(N)

Hypnosis(N)

Muscle relaxation(N)

82
Choose the feature of an AED that analyzes the patient\'s heart rhythm. Shock button(N)

ECG display(Y)

Voice prompts(N)

Battery indicator(N)

83
Infer the principle of anesthesia that involves the maintenance of an appropriate level of blood pressure and heart rate during surgery. Autonomic stability(Y)

Respiratory depression(N)

Sensory blockade(N)

Sympathetic blockade(N)

84
Identify the AED prompt that instructs rescuers to stand clear before delivering a shock. Analyzing heart rhythm(N)

Charging defibrillator(Y)

Delivering shock(N)

None of these(N)

85
Choose the type of anesthesia that involves the injection of local anesthetic agents around nerves or nerve plexuses to block sensation to a specific area of the body. General anesthesia(N)

Regional anesthesia(Y)

Sedation(N)

Topical anesthesia(N)

86
Infer the AED response to a shockable rhythm in the patient. Deliver a shock(Y)

Administer medication(N)

Start chest compressions(N)

None of these(N)

87
Identify the principle of anesthesia that involves the blockade of sensory nerve impulses. Autonomic stability(N)
 Respiratory depression(N)

Sensory blockade(Y)

Sympathetic blockade(N)

88
Choose the recommended action if the AED indicates that no shock is advised. Administer medication(N)

Check for a pulse(N)

Start chest compressions(Y)

Continue rescue breaths(N)

89
Choose the method that is commonly used to monitor the depth of general anesthesia. Blood pressure monitoring(N)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)(N)

Pulse oximetry(N)

Electroencephalogram (EEG)(Y)

90
Select the type of defibrillator that requires the use of paddles to deliver a shock. Automated external defibrillator (AED)(N)

Implantable cardioverter -defibrillator (ICD)(N)

Manual defibrillator(Y)

Wearable cardioverter -defibrillator (WCD)(N)

91
Select the depth of anesthesia that is considered to be the appropriate level for most surgical procedures. Stage 1(N)

Stage 2(N)

Stage 3(Y)

Stage 4(N)

92
Infer the appropriate action after delivering a shock with a manual defibrillator. Begin chest compressions(N)

Administer medication(N)

Check the patient\'s airway(N)

Reassess the patient\'s rhythm(Y)

93
Infer the stage of anesthesia where the patient is drowsy, has slow and regular breathing, and may experience involuntary movements. Stage 1(Y)

Stage 2(N)

Stage 3(N)

Stage 4(N)

94
Choose the recommended defibrillator energy setting for an adult patient. 50 J(N)

100 J(N)

200 J(N)

360 J(Y)

95
Identify the stage of anesthesia where the patient has respiratory depression, decreased blood pressure, and a weak pulse. Stage 1(N)

Stage 2(N)

Stage 3(N)

Stage 4(Y)

96
Infer the appropriate action after delivering a shock with an AED. Begin chest compressions(Y)

Administer medication(N)

Check the patient\'s airway(N)

Reassess the patient\'s rhythm(N)

97
Identify the parameter that is used to measure the depth of general anesthesia. Blood pressure(N)

Heart rate(N)

Respiratory rate(N)

Brain activity(Y)

98
Choose the device used for direct laryngoscopy during intubation. Laryngoscope(Y)

Ventilator(N)

Endotracheal tube(N)

Oxygen mask(N)

99
Infer the main purpose of intubation during general anesthesia. To facilitate oxygenation of the patient(N)

To prevent aspiration of gastric contents(N)

To maintain an open airway(Y)

To monitor the patient\'s breathing(N)

100
Choose the size of endotracheal tube that is appropriate for adult males. 6-7 mm(N)

7-8 mm(Y)

8-9 mm(N)

9-10 mm(N)

101
Identify the anatomical structure where the endotracheal tube is inserted during intubation. Esophagus(N)
 Pharynx(N)

Trachea(Y)

Larynx(N)

102
Identify the potential complication that can occur during intubation due to trauma or inflammation of the airway. Hypoxemia(N)

Hypercapnia(N)

Laryngospasm(Y)

Bronchospasm(N)

103
Choose the device used to confirm proper placement of the endotracheal tube during intubation. Pulse oximeter(N)

Blood pressure cuff(N)

Capnograph(Y)

Electrocardiogram (ECG)(N)

104
Infer the potential complication that can occur due to prolonged intubation. Vocal cord paralysis(N)

Tracheal stenosis(Y)

Hypertension(N)

Pulmonary embolism(N)

105
Identify the medication commonly used to induce paralysis during intubation. Propofol(N)

Ketamine(N)

Fentanyl(N)

Succinylcholine(Y)

106
Choose the most appropriate monitoring parameter during general anesthesia: Blood pressure(N)

Oxygen saturation(Y)

Body temperature(N)

Heart rate(N)

107
Infer the potential risks associated with the use of inhalational anesthetics: Respiratory depression and airway obstruction(Y)

Nausea and vomiting(N)

Bradycardia and hypotension(N)

Thrombosis and embolism(N)

108
Identify the most appropriate technique for administering regional anesthesia to the lower extremity: Epidural anesthesia(N)

Spinal anesthesia(N)

Femoral nerve block(N)

Sciatic nerve block(Y)

109
Choose the most appropriate indication for the use of ketamine: Sedation in mechanically ventilated patients(N)

Rapid sequence induction in trauma patients(Y)

Maintenance of anesthesia during surgery(N)

Postoperative pain management(N)

110
Select the intravenous agent that has a rapid onset of action and short duration of action Thiopental(N)

Etomidate(N)

Ketamine(N)

Propofol(Y)

111
Infer the potential side effect associated with the use of opioids as part of general anesthesia: Respiratory depression(Y)

Hypertension(N)

Tachycardia(N)

Bronchodilation(N)

112
Identify the intravenous agent that is commonly used for procedural sedation and analgesia outside of the operating room: Midazolam(Y)

Fentanyl(N)

Propofol(N)

Ketamine(N)

113
Select the intravenous agent that is often used for procedural sedation and analgesia in the emergency department: Propofol(N)

Midazolam(N)

Ketamine(Y)

Fentanyl(N)

114
Infer the potential side effect associated with the use of midazolam: Respiratory depression(N)

Hypotension(Y)

Hypertension(N)

Bradycardia(N)

115
Choose the intravenous agent that is often used for induction of anesthesia in patients with compromised cardiac function: Propofol(N)

Etomidate(Y)
 Ketamine(N)

Thiopental(N)

116
Select the intravenous agent that has potent analgesic effects in addition to sedation: Fentanyl(Y)

Propofol(N)

Midazolam(N)

Ketamine(N)

117
Identify the inhalational agent that is commonly used for maintenance of anesthesia: Nitrous oxide(N)

Sevoflurane(Y)

Desflurane(N)

Isoflurane(N)

118
Choose the inhalational agent that has the most potent respiratory depressant effects: Nitrous oxide(N)

Sevoflurane(N)

Desflurane(Y)

Isoflurane(N)

119
Infer the potential side effect associated with the use of inhalational agents: Bradycardia(Y)

Hypertension(N)

Seizures(N)

Bronchodilation(N)

120
Choose the inhalational agent that is contraindicated in patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia: Nitrous oxide(N)

Sevoflurane(N)

Desflurane(N)

Isoflurane(Y)

121
Identify the inhalational agent that is commonly used for induction of anesthesia in pediatric patients: Nitrous oxide(N)

Isoflurane(N)

Sevoflurane(Y)

Desflurane(N)

122
Infer the potential side effect associated with the use of nitrous oxide: Respiratory depression(N)

Hypotension(N)

Nausea and vomiting(Y)

Muscle rigidity(N)

123
Choose the inhalational agent that is associated with the most rapid emergence from anesthesia: Nitrous oxide(N)

Sevoflurane(N)

Desflurane(Y)

Isoflurane(N)

124
Choose the type of anesthesia that involves injection of local anesthetic into the subarachnoid space: Spinal anesthesia(Y)

Epidural anesthesia(N)

General anesthesia(N)

Regional anesthesia(N)

125
Identify the nerve fibers that are typically affected first by epidural anesthesia: Motor fibers(N)

Sympathetic fibers(Y)

Sensory fibers(N)

Parasympathetic fibers(N)

126
Infer the potential complication associated with accidental injection of local anesthetic into the subarachnoid space during epidural anesthesia: Epidural hematoma(N)

Respiratory depression(N)

Spinal cord injury(N)

Total spinal anesthesia(Y)

127
Identify the type of needle that is commonly used for epidural anesthesia: Quincke needle(N)

Whitacre needle(N)

Tuohy needle(Y)

Sprotte needle(N)

128
Select the type of anesthesia that can be used for postoperative pain control: Spinal anesthesia(N)

General anesthesia(N)

Epidural anesthesia(Y)

Regional anesthesia(N)

129
Choose the type of anesthesia that may require the patient to remain in a lateral or sitting position during administration: Spinal anesthesia(Y)

General anesthesia(N)
 Epidural anesthesia(N)

Regional anesthesia(N)

130
Choose the mechanism of action of local anesthetic agents: Stimulation of nerve impulses(N)

Inhibition of nerve impulses(Y)

Stimulation of muscle contraction(N)

Inhibition of muscle contraction(N)

131
Identify the class of local anesthetic agents that is typically used for topical anesthesia: Esters(Y)

Amides(N)

Phenols(N)

Alcohols(N)

132
Infer the potential complication associated with systemic absorption of excessive amounts of local anesthetic agents: Hypotension(N)

Hypertension(N)

Bradycardia(N)

Tachycardia(Y)

133
Identify the muscle blocking agent that is classified as a depolarizing agent: Rocuronium(N)

Vecuronium(N)

Atracurium(N)

Succinylcholine(Y)

134
Choose the local anesthetic agent that is commonly used for epidural anesthesia: Bupivacaine(Y)

Lidocaine(N)

Procaine(N)

Ropivacaine(N)

135
Infer the potential complication associated with administration of muscle blocking agents: Hypertension(N)

Hypotension(N)

Respiratory depression(Y)

Tachycardia(N)

136
Infer the importance of verifying patient identification information To protect patient privacy(N)

To prevent fraud(N)

To ensure patient safety(Y)

All of the these(N)

137
Choose the appropriate mode of transportation for a patient who is unable to walk or be transferred by wheelchair: Gurney(Y)

Crutches(N)

Walker(N)

Cane(N)

138
Choose the muscle blocking agent that has a rapid onset of action and short duration of action: Rocuronium(N)

Vecuronium(N)

Atracurium(N)

Succinylcholine(Y)

139
Identify the appropriate time for patient transfer to the operating room: Immediately after the patient is admitted to the hospital(N)

Just before the surgical procedure begins(Y)

The day before the surgical procedure(N)

None of the these(N)

140
Select the muscle blocking agent that is commonly used for long surgical procedures: Rocuronium(Y)

Vecuronium(N)

Atracurium(N)

Succinylcholine(N)

141
Identify the type of fluid therapy that is typically used for patients with severe hypovolemia: Crystalloid solutions(N)

Colloid solutions(Y)

Blood products(N)

None of the these(N)

142
Select the local anesthetic agent that is commonly used for regional anesthesia, such as nerve blocks: Bupivacaine(N)

Lidocaine(N)

Procaine(N)

Ropivacaine(Y)

143
Identify the type of fluid therapy that is used to prevent shock in patients with severe infections: Crystalloid solutions(Y)

Colloid solutions(N)
 Blood products(N)

None of the these(N)

144
Choose the type of fluid therapy that is used to maintain fluid balance and prevent dehydration: Crystalloid solutions(Y)

Colloid solutions(N)

Blood products(N)

None of the these(N)

145
Infer the potential complication associated with administration of excessive amounts of muscle blocking agents: Hyperthermia(Y)

Hypotension(N)

Hypothermia(N)

Hypertension(N)

146
Identify the potential risk associated with incorrect patient identification: Delay in treatment(N)

Administration of wrong medication(N)

Surgical error(N)

All of these(Y)

147
Infer the reason why patient identification should occur at every point of care: To ensure correct billing(N)

To ensure correct treatment(Y)

To ensure correct discharge planning(N)

To ensure patient comfort(N)

148
Choose the local anesthetic agent that is commonly used for spinal anesthesia: Bupivacaine(N)

Lidocaine(N)

Procaine(Y)

Ropivacaine(N)

149
Choose among the following in which "Bobbin" is found(Probable duplicate) ET Tube(N)

LMA(N)

Ventilator(N)

Anesthesia machine(Y)

150
Select the narrowest portion of the neonate\'s airway Glottis(N)

Trachea(N)

Pharynx(N)

Cricoid(Y)

151
Choose the normal range for an adult\'s body temperature 97°F to 99°F(N)

95°F to 97°F(N)

100°F to 102°F(N)

98.6°F to 100.4°F(Y)

152
Identify the range for an adult\'s pulse rate 60 to 100 beats per minute (bpm)(Y)

40 to 60 bpm(N)

80 to 120 bpm(N)

100 to 140 bpm(N)

153
Choose the feature of an AED that analyzes the patient\'s heart rhythm. Shock button(N)

ECG display(Y)

Voice prompts(N)

Battery indicator(N)

154
Select the recommended age range for using pediatric pads with an AED. 0 to 1 year(N)

1 to 8 years(Y)

8 to 12 years(N)

12 to 18 years(N)

155
Choose the type of anesthesia that is typically used for cesarean section deliveries: Spinal anesthesia(N)

General anesthesia(N)

Epidural anesthesia(Y)

Regional anesthesia(N)