RAS PRE.

Test Series : 2024-25

INDIAN POLITY (Till Article 123)

( 123 )
PAPER ID : SBA-061

Answer Key
Date : 27 October, 2024

HINDI & ENGLISH MEDIUM

JAIPUR
A-1, Keshav Vihar, Riddhi Siddhi Chouraha, Gopalpura By Pass,
Jaipur, Rajasthan - 302018 | Mob. : 0141-3597948, 9636977490

JODHPUR
P. No 145 Samrathal Tower Manji Ka Hattha, Paota,
Page No.{1}
Jodhpur (Rajasthan) 342006 | Mob. : 7726944080
1. 1. Consider the following statements-
A. A. India being a sovereign state can acquire foreign
territories.
B. India has not acquired any foreign territory after
B.
independence.
Choose the correct statement from the above-
[1] A only [2] B only
[1] A [2] B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[3] A B [4] A B [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] • Acquisition of foreign territories : (i) Through
international laws (by transfer of power), (ii)
• (i)
Occupation through war.
(ii)
• The foreign territories acquired by India after the
commencement of the Constitution are- Dadra and
• Nagar Haveli, Goa, Daman-Diu, Puducherry,
Sikkim.
2. 2. Consider the following main words/ideals of the
Preamble of the Indian Constitution-
A. Equality B. Liberty
A. B.
C. Fraternity D. Justice
C. D.
The correct order of these words in the Preamble is-
[1] B - D - A - C [2] D - B - A - C
[1] B - D - A - C [2] D - B - A - C [3] D - A - B - C [4] B - A - D - C
[3] D - A - B - C [4] B - A - D - C [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [2]
Sol. [2] Correct sequence of key words/ideals of the Preamble
of the Constitution :
• • Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic.
• • Justice : Social, Economic, Political
• Freedom : Thought, Expression, Belief, Faith,
•
Worship.
•
• Equality : Status and Opportunity
• • Fraternity : Assuring the dignity of the individual
and the unity and integrity of the nation.
3. 3. Which member of the Drafting Committee was called
by Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar as the ‘real architect of
the Indian Constitution and the Chairman of the
Drafting Committee’?
[1]
[1] Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer
[2]
[2] K. M. Munshi
[3] [3] N. Gopalaswami Iyengar
[4] [4] Syed Mohammed Saadulla
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
4. 4. Apart from the major (big) committees of the
Constituent Assembly, the number of smaller
[1] 10 [2] 11 committees set up was?
[1] 10 [2] 11
[3] 8 [4] 13
[3] 8 [4] 13
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
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Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
The Constituent Assembly constituted several big
and small committees for the framing of the
Constitution-
• =8 • Big Committees = 8
• = 13 • Small Committees = 13
5. 5. Choose from the following pairs of members who
later became members of the Drafting Committee of
the Constitution-
[1]
[1] N. Madhava Rao and D.P. Khaitan
[2] [2] T.T. Krishnamachari and B.L. Mitra
[3] [3] D.P. Khaitan and B.L. Mitra
[4] [4] N. Madhava Rao and T.T. Krishnamachari
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4] • N. Madhava Rao : Became a member of the Drafting
• Committee when B. L. Mitra resigned due to health
issues.
• • T.T. Krishnamachari : Became a member of the
Drafting Committee after the death of D.P. Khaitan.
6. When was the Drafting Committee of the
6. Constitution formed ?
[1] 29 1947 [2] 29 1948 [1] 29 August, 1947 [2] 29 August, 1948
[3] 9 1946 [4] 16 1947 [3] 9 December, 1946 [4] 16 January, 1947
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
The task of the Drafting Committee constituted under
the chairmanship of Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar was to
prepare the draft of the Constitution.
7. Drafting 7. Which member of the Constituent Assembly called
Committee Drifting Committee the Drafting Committee a Drifting Committee?
[1] Kailash Nath Katju
[2] Shyamaprasad Mukherjee
[1] [2] [3] Ramnath Goenka
[3] [4] [4] Naziruddin Ahmed
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
Naziruddin Ahmed, a member of the Constituent
Assembly from Bengal province, was a critic of the
drafting of the Constitution and the excessive time
taken by the Drafting Committee in preparing it. Hence,
to express his disagreement, he called the ‘Drafting
Committee’ a ‘Drifting Committee’.
8. Assertion (A) : The day on which, the Constitution was
8. (A) : completely enacted is celebrated as ‘Republic Day’.
Reason (R) : On the basis of the resolution of the
(R) : 1929 Karachi session of the Indian National Congress, 1929,
this day was celebrated for the first time in 1930 as
1930
‘Purna Swaraj Day’.
[1] Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
[1] A R R,A explanation of A.
[2] A R R, A [2] Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
[3] A R
[3] A is incorrect, R is correct.
[4] A R [4] A is correct, R is incorrect.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
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Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
1929 Lahore session of Congress On the basis of the
resolution passed in the session, 1929, 26 January, 1930
26 1930 was celebrated as ‘Purna Swaraj Day’. Hence, this
historic day was chosen to fully implement the
Constitution.
9. 9. Consider the following statements-
A. There was no provision in the original Constitution
A. regarding the authorized text of the Constitution
in Hindi language.
B. 58 1987 B. Provision was made regarding the authorized text
of the Constitution in Hindi language by the 58th
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987.
Choose the correct statement from the above-
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A nor B
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
By adding Article 394A (Authoritative text in Hindi
58 1987 language) in Part XII of the Constitution, by the 58th
XXII 394 Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987, a provision was
made for the Authoritative Hindi text of the
Constitution. Accordingly, provisions were made for
the translation done by the President, translation of
amendments and meaning of Hindi text.
10. 10. Choose the mismatched pair from the following with
reference to women members of the Constituent
Assembly-
Member Province
[1] [1] Ammu Swaminathan - Madras
[2] [2] Begum Aizaz Rasul - Kerala
[3] [3] Vijayalakshmi Pandit - United Province
[4] [4] Rajkumari Amrit Kaur - Central Province and Berar
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [2]
Sol. [2] Begum Aizaz Rasul was elected a member of the
Constituent Assembly from the United Province and
was the only Muslim woman member of the
Constituent Assembly.
11. 11. The maximum number of members were elected to
[1] [2] the Constituent Assembly from which province?
[3] [4] [1] Bihar [2] Bengal
[5] [3] Madras [4] United Province
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
• 55 • United Provinces - 55 members
• 49 • Madras - 49 members
• 36 • Bihar - 36 members
• West Bengal - 19 members
• 19
• Bombay - 21 members
• 21 12. Regarding cooperative society-
12. A. Forming a cooperative society is a fundamental
right of an individual.
A.
B. It is the duty of the State to promote cooperative
B. societies.
C. C. At present, cooperative societies enjoy
constitutional status and protection.
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 [1] A B [1] A and B are correct
[2] A C [2] A and C are correct
[3] A, B C [3] A, B and C are correct
[4] B and C are correct
[4] B C
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011
97 2011 provided constitutional status and protection to
cooperative societies and made the following changes
in the Constitution:
• 19(1) • Article 19(1)(C): The right to form a cooperative
society was made a fundamental right.
• Article 43B : The State shall promote voluntary
• 43
formation, autonomous functioning, democratic
control and professional management of
cooperative societies.
• -IX • Provisions relating to cooperative societies were
made by introducing Part-IX(B) to the Constitution.
13. VI 13. Choose the mismatched pair in the context of Part-
VI of the Constitution:
Chapter Subject Matter
[1] II -
[1] XI - Executive
[2] III [2] III - Legislative powers of the Governor
[3] V [3] V - High Courts of States
[4] VI [4] VI - Subordinate Courts
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
VI : The States Part-VI : The States
• I: • Chapter-I : General
• Chapter-III : The Executive
• II :
• Chapter-III : The State Legislature
• III :
• Chapter-IV : Legislative powers of the Governor
• IV :
• Chapter-V : The High Courts in the States
• V: • Chapter-VI : Subordinate Courts
• VI : 14. Choose the mismatched pair from the following-
14. Part of the Constitution Contents
[1] IVA - Fundamental Duties
[1] IV [2] XV - Elections
[2] XV [3] XVIII - Official Language
[3] XVIII [4] XX - Amendment of the
Constitution
[4] XX
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] • Part XVII : Official Language (Articles 343 to 351)
• XVII : 343 351 • Part XVIII : Emergency Provisions (Articles 352 to
• XVIII : 352 360 360)
15. 15. Right to property, which was earlier a fundamental
right, is now a legal right under which of the
following?
[1] XI, II
[1] Part-XI, Chapter-III
[2] XII, II
[2] Part-XII, Chapter-II
[3] XII, IV [3] Part-XII, Chapter-IV
[4] XIV, II [4] Part-XII, Chapter-II
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
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Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
• XII IV • The right to property has been enshrined in
Chapter-IV of Part XII of the Constitution it has been
300
made a legal right under Article 300A.
• 300
• Article 300A : Persons not to be deprived of
property save by authority of law.
16. 16. In the Second Schedule of the Constitution, there is
no provision regarding which of the following?
A. A. Deputy Chairman of the State Legislative Council
B. B. Judges of High Courts
C. C. Attorney General of India
D. D. Governors of States
[1] D [2] C [1] D [2] C
[3] B [4] A
[3] B [4] A
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [2]
Sol. [2]
The Second Schedule of the Constitution mentions the
emoluments, allowances and privileges of the following
authorities:
• • President of India.
• • Governors of States.
• • Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and
Legislative Assembly.
•
• Chairm and Deputy Chairm of the Rajya Sabha and
•
Legislative Council.
• • Judges of the Supreme Court.
• • Judges of the High Courts.
17. • Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
17. The Third Schedule of the Constitution, which deals
A. with oath and affirmation, does not contain
B. provisions for which of the following?
C. A. Candidates for election to Parliament
D. B. Members of Parliament
[1] B [2] C C. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
D. President of India
[3] D [4] A
[1] B [2] C
[5]
[3] D [4] A
Sol. [3]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
The Third Schedule to the Constitution provides for
• oath and affirmation for the following:
• • Ministers for the Union
• • Candidates for election to Parliament
• • Members of Parliament
• • Judges of the Supreme Court
• • Comptroller and Auditor General of India
• • Candidates for election to State Legislature
• • Members of State Legislature
• • Ministers for a State
• Judges of High Courts
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18. 75(4), 84 (a) 99, 124 (b), 148 (2), 164 (3), 173 18.Articles 75(4), 84 (a), 99, 124 (b), 148 (2), 164 (3), 173
(a), 188 219 (a), 188 and 219 relate to which of the following
Schedules?
[1] Third Schedule [2] Seventh Schedule
[1] [2] [3] Second Schedule [4] Tenth Schedule
[3] [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] The Third Schedule to the Constitution contains the
forms of oath or affirmation and the articles given in
the question relate to oath/affirmation.
19. Which of the following languages were included in
19. 92 2003 the Eighth Schedule by the 92 nd Constitutional
Amendment, 2003?
A. B. A. Bodo B. Konkani
C. D. C. Manipuri D. Santhali
[1] A and B [2] B and C
[1] A B [2] B C
[3] C and D [4] A and D
[3] C D [4] A D [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [4]
Sol. [4] • In the original Constitution, there were 14
• 14 recognized languages in the Eighth Schedule, which
did not include English.
The Eighth Schedule was expanded through various
constitutional amendments-
Constitution Languages
Amendment Included
• 21st - Sindhi
• 21 • 71st - Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali
• 92nd - Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali
• 71
20. Choose the incorrect statement from the following
• 92
with reference to ‘Preamble’-
20. [1] Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and
[1] has binding effect.
[2] Eminent constitutional expert Nanabhoy Ardeshir
[2] Palkhivala has called the Preamble as the ‘Identity
Card of the Constitution’.
[3] Preamble is based on the ‘Objective Resolution’
[3] adopted by the Constitution.
[4] In the LIC of India case, 1995, the Supreme Court
[4] 1995 considered the Preamble as a part of the Constitution.
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
[5] • In the Berubari case, 1960, the Supreme Court did
Sol. [1] not consider the Preamble as a part of the
• 1960 Constitution but in the Kesavananda Bharati case,
1973 1973 and LIC of India case, 1995, the Preamble was
considered as an integral part of the Constitution.
1995
• The Preamble does not have binding effect, it is
unenforceable.
• • The Preamble is neither the source of power of the
• legislation nor does it curtail on the powers of the
legislation.
• The Preamble can be amended and has been
• 42
amended only once by the 42 nd Constitutional
1976 Amendment Act, 1976. But the fundamental
features of the Constitution contained in the
Preamble cannot be amended.
Page No.{7}
21. 21. Consider the following statements with reference to
the India-Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement:
A. Under this, India handed over 111 enclaves to
A. 111
Bangladesh.
B. Bangladesh handed over 51 enclaves to India.
B. 51 Which Constitutional Amendment was made to
implement the above provisions?
[1] 99th [2] 102nd
[3] 101 st
[4] 100th
[5] Question Not Attempted
[1] 99 [2] 102
Sol. [4]
[3] 101 [4] 100 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015 was passed
[5] for the land boundary agreement between India and
Sol. [4] Bangladesh.
100 22. Which of the following is the incorrect pair-
2015 Constitution Subject
Amendment Matter
22.
[1] Seventh - Abolition of four classes of state
[2] Ninth - Ceding of territory by India to
Pakistan
[1] [3] Eleventh - Change in the election system of
[2] President
[4] Twenty-first - Sindhi language included in the
[3]
Eighth Schedule
[4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] • The 11th Constitutional Amendment changed the
• 11 election system of Vice President. Earlier the Vice
President was elected by a joint meeting of both
the Houses of Parliament but this amendment
provided for an electoral college for the election of
Vice President.
• This amendment also provided that the election of
• President or Vice President cannot be challenged
on the basis of vacancy in the appropriate electoral
college.
23. (A) : 2006 23. Assertion (A) : In the year 2006, after the then President
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam returned the 'Office of Profit
2006
(Amendment) Bill, 2006' once, the President was forced
to approve it when it was sent back to the President in
the same form by the Parliament.
(R) : 42 1976 Reason (R) : The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act,
1976 empowered the President to return a bill passed
by the Parliament only once.
[1] Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
[1] A R R, A
explanation of A.
[2] A R R, A [2] Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
[3] A R [3] A is correct, R is incorrect.
[4] A R [4] A is incorrect, R is correct.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 made
42 1976
the President bound to follow the advice of the Cabinet
44 but the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act made a
provision that the President can return the advice of
the Cabinet only once for reconsideration.
Page No.{8}
24. 24. Consider the following with reference to reasonable
restrictions imposed on the right to freedom of speech
and expression-
A.
A. Public order
B. B. Sovereignty and integrity of India
C. C. Friendly relations with foreign States
D. D. Incitement to an offence
Which of the above restrictions were imposed by the
Sixteenth Constitutional Amendment Act?
[1] A, B and D [2] B only
[1] A, B D [2] B [3] A, C and D [4] C and D
[3] A, C D [4] C D [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [2]
Sol. [2] The reasonable restrictions imposed under Article 19(2)
on the right to freedom of speech and expression are
as follow :
19(2)
• Restrictions imposed by the original Constitution :
• , Security of the State, Decency or morality,
, , Contempt of court, Defamation.
• 1951 • Restrictions imposed by the First Constitutional
, , Amendment Act, 1951 : Public order, Friendly
relations with foreign States, Incitement to crime.
• Restrictions imposed by the Sixteenth
• 1963 Constitutional Amendment Act 1963 : Sovereignty
and integrity of India.
25. 25. Consider the following-
A. A. Parliament was empowered to amend any part of
the Constitution.
B. It was made compulsory for the President to give
B. assent to the Constitutional Amendment Bill.
By which Constitutional Amendment Act the above
provisions were introduced?
[1] 24th [2] 25th
[1] 24 [2] 25 [3] 42nd [4] 44th
[5] Question Not Attempted
[3] 42 [4] 44 Sol. [1]
[5] The 24 th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971
Sol. [1] empowered Parliament to amend any part of the
24 1971 Constitution including the Fundamental Rights.
26. Which of the following provisions were made by the
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?
A. Excluding constitutional amendment from of the
26. 42 purview of judicial review.
1976 B. Obligation of the President to follow the advice of
A. the Cabinet.
B. C. Insertion of three new Directive Principles in the
C. Constitution.
D. Insertion of Fundamental Duties in the
D. Constitution.
[1] A, B C [2] B, C D [1] A, B and C [2] B, C and D
[3] A, C D [4] A, B, C D [3] A, C and D [4] A, B, C and D
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
42 1976 42nd Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 :
• New Part IVA (Fundamental Duties) added to the
• IV Constitution.
Three new Directive Principles added to the Constitution:
• 39 • Equal justice and free legal aid (Article 39A).
• 43 • Participation of workers in the management of
• industries (Article 43A).
• Protection and promotion of environment and
48 safeguarding of forests and wild life (Article 48A).
Page No.{9}
27. 27. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Rajya
[1] 225 Sabha-
8 [1] At present, Rajya Sabha has 225 members from
states and 8 from union territories.
[2]
[2] The distribution of seats of states for Rajya Sabha is
done on the basis of their population.
[3]
[3] There are seven states in India from which only one
seat is reserved for Rajya Sabha.
[4] [4] The allocation of seats for Rajya Sabha is described
in the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
There are eight states in India from which only one seat
is reserved for Rajya Sabha. These states are Sikkim,
Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh,
28. Tripura, Meghalaya and Goa.
A. 28. The President of India the session of the Parliament-
A. Summons
B.
B. Adjourns it.
C.
C. Adjourns Sine Die
D.
D. Prorogates it.
Choose the correct statement from the above-
[1] A [2] B, C D
[1] A only [2] B, C and D
[3] A C [4] A D
[3] A and C only [4] A and D only
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
The Speaker or Chairman has the right to adjourn and
adjourns Sine Die any Houseof the Parliament.
29. 29. Choose the correct statement from the following
A. 6 statements-
1951 A. The term of members of the Rajya Sabha was fixed
B. as 6 years by the Representation of People Act, 1951.
B. The members nominated to Rajya Sabha are related
[1] A [2] B to the field of literature, science, art and social
service.
[3] A B [4] A, B
[1] A only [2] B only
[5]
Sol. [3] [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
80 [5] Question Not Attempted
12 Sol. [3]
Article 80 of the Constitution provides that the
President may nominate 12 persons related to literature,
30.
science, art and social service to the Rajya Sabha.
30. Choose the correct statement from the following
A. 103 statements in the context of Lok Sabha-
A. By the 103rd Constitutional Amendment, the seats
of two Anglo-Indian members nominated by the
B. 19 President in the Lok Sabha were abolished.
B. At present, 19 members are elected from Union
[1] A [2] B Territories in the Lok Sabha.
[3] A B [4] A, B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Page No.{10}
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
• 103 2019 • The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
provided reservation to economically weaker
sections in education and employment.
• The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
• 104 2019
abolished the special representation of the Anglo-
Indian community in the Lok Sabha and State
Legislative Assemblies.
• 543 524 • At present, there are 543 members in the Lok Sabha,
19 out of which 524 members are elected from the
states and 19 members are elected from Union
31.
Territories.
31. Select the group of states from the following from
A. B. where only one Lok Sabha member is elected?
C. D. A. Goa B. Nagaland
E. C. Sikkim D. Mizoram
[1] A, C, D, E [2] B, D, E E. Meghalaya
[3] B, C, D [4] [1] A, C, D, E [2] B, D, E
[3] B, C, D [4] All of the above
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
Nagaland, Mizoram, Sikkim are the states from where
only one Lok Sabha member is elected. Two members
are elected to Lok Sabha from the states of Goa,
Meghalaya, Manipur, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh.
32. 32. Consider the following Prime Ministers of India, after
whose death during their tenure Gulzari Lal Nanda
became the acting Prime Minister-
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
A. B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
B. C. Indira Gandhi
C. D. Morarji Desai
D. Choose the correct option-
[1] A and D [2] B and D
[1] A D [2] B D [3] A and B [4] C and D
[5] Question Not Attempted
[3] A B [4] C D
Sol. [3]
[5]
• The tenure of India's first Prime Minister Pandit
Sol. [3] Jawaharlal Nehru was from 15 August, 1947 to his
• death on 27 May, 1964.
15 1947 27 1964 • After his death Gulzari Lal Nanda was the acting
• 27 Prime Minister for the first time from 27 May, 1964
1964 9 1964 to 9 June, 1964.
• Lal Bahadur Shastri was the Prime Minister of India
• 9 1964 11 1966
from 9 June, 1964 to 11 January, 1966. After his
death Gulzari Lal Nanda was the acting Prime
11 1966 24 1966 Minister of India for the second time from 11
January, 1966 to 24 January, 1966.
33. 33. Consider the following statements-
A. A. A bill passed by Lok Sabha, if pending in Rajya
Sabha, will lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha.
B. A bill pending in Rajya Sabha, which has not been
B.
passed by Lok Sabha, will lapse on dissolution of
Lok Sabha.
Page No.{11}
 Choose the correct option-
[1] Only statement A is correct.
[1] A
[2] Both statements A and B are incorrect.
[2] A B [3] Both statements A and B are correct.
[3] A B [4] Only statement B is correct.
[4] B [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
[5]
If a bill which is pending in Rajya Sabha but has not
Sol. [1] been passed by Lok Sabha, will not lapse on dissolution
of Lok Sabha.
34. Choose the correct statement from the following
34. statements-
A. The longest serving Lok Sabha Speaker was G.V.
A. Mavalankar.
B. B. Sumitra Mahajan was the first woman Lok Sabha
C. 1935 Speaker.
C. The post of Lok Sabha Speaker was created in India
by the Government of India Act, 1935.
[1] A B [2] B C [1] A and B [2] B and C
[3] A [4] [3] A only [4] None of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
• Dr. Balram Jakhar was the longest serving Lok
• Sabha Speaker. His tenure was 9 years 330 days.
9 330 • Meera Kumar was the first woman Lok Sabha
• 4 Speaker of the country (4 June, 2009 to 4 June, 2014).
Sumitra Mahajan is the second woman who held
2009 4 2014
the post of Lok Sabha Speaker (6 June, 2014 to 17
6 2014 17 2019 June, 2019).
• The post of Lok Sabha Speaker was created in India
• 1919 by the Government of India Act, 1919.
35. Choose the wrong pair from the following-
[1] Simple majority - Majority of members present
35. [2] Effective majority - Majority of effective strength of
[1] the House
[2] [3] Absolute majority - Majority of total strength of the
House
[3] [4] None of the above
[4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] • Simple majority is the majority of members present
and voting in the House.
•
• Effective majority means majority of the total
membership of the House excluding vacant seats.
• • Absolute majority means majority of the total
membership of the House even if seats are vacant
or absent.
•
36. Which of the following Prime Ministers of India has
not been a Chief Minister in the past?
36. [1] H.D. Devegowda
[2] Narendra Modi
[3] Inder Kumar Gujral
[1] [2] [4] Morarji Desai
[3] [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] H.D. Devegowda was the Chief Minister of Karnataka.
Morarji Desai was the Chief Minister of Bombay
Province. Narendra Modi was the Chief Minister of
Gujarat.
Page No.{12}
37. 37. Choose the correct statement from the following statements-
A. A. A joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament can
be summoned only in the case of an ordinary bill
or a Constitution Amendment Bill.
B. The joint sitting is presided over by the Lok Sabha
B. Speaker and is conducted by the rules and
procedures of the Lok Sabha.
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [2]
Sol. [2]
Article 108 of the Constitution provides for a joint sitting
108 of both the Houses. A joint sitting can be summoned
only in the case of an ordinary bill or a Finance Bill. A
joint sitting cannot be summoned in the context of a
Money Bill or a Constitution Amendment Bill.
38. 38. Which of the following is an incorrect statement ?
[1] Starred questions are answered orally and can
[1]
follow supplementary questions.
[2] Unstarred questions are answered in writing and
[2] supplementary questions cannot follow.
[3] Short notice questions are those questions which
[3] are asked during zero hour.
[4] The first hour of the Parliament is for Question Hour.
[5] Question Not Attempted
[4] Sol. [3]
[5] Short notice questions are those questions which are
Sol. [3] asked by giving a notice of at least 10 days and their
10 answers are given orally.
39. Choose the correct statement from the following
statements-
A. If the Prime Minister is a member of Lok Sabha, he
39.
is the leader of the House in Lok Sabha.
A. B. The Prime Minister can nominate any member of
Rajya Sabha as the leader of the House.
B. [1] A only [2] B only
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[1] A [2] B [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
[3] A B [4] A, B
• The Prime Minister is the leader of the House of
[5] which he is a member. If the Prime Minister is a
Sol. [1] member of Lok Sabha, he will be the leader of the
• House in Lok Sabha. If the Prime Minister is a
member of Rajya Sabha, he will be the leader of the
House in Rajya Sabha.
• Apart from the above situation, he can nominate
any minister in the other House who is a member
• of that House as the leader of the House.
40. Which of the following expenditure is not charged
on the Consolidated Fund of India ?
40. [1] Salary, Allowances of the Chairman and Deputy
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
[2] Salary, Allowances and Pension of the Comptroller
[1]
and Auditor General of India
[2] [3] Salary & Allowances of the Attorney General of India
[3] [4] Salary, Allowances and Pension of the Judges of
[4] the Supreme Court
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No.{13}
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
The remuneration of the Attorney General of India has
not been fixed in the Indian Constitution. He is given
remuneration determined by the President.
41.
41. Choose the correct statement from the following
A. 50 statements-
A. No-confidence motion can be presented in Lok
B. Sabha only with the signatures of 50 members.
[1] A [2] B B. It is mandatory to give reasons for no-confidence
[3] A B [4] A, B motion.
[1] A only [2] B only
[5]
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
Sol. [1] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
There is no need to give reasons for no-confidence
motion. It can be brought not against any particular
42. minister but against the entire council of ministers.
42. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the power
of the President with respect to the Money Bill-
[1] [1] He can give assent to the Bill.
[2] [2] He can withhold it for consideration.
[3] [3] He can return it for reconsideration.
[4] [4] None of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
Article 111 of the Constitution provides that if a Bill is
111
passed by the House and sent to the President, he has
three options : He can give assent to it, withhold assent
or return it to the Parliament for reconsideration. But
the President cannot return the Money Bill for
reconsideration.
43. 43. Which of the following motions can be brought in
both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
[1] No-confidence motion
[1] [2] Censure motion
[2] [3] Adjournment motion
[3] [4] Calling attention motion
[4] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
[5]
• No-confidence motion is brought by the opposition
Sol. [4]
only in Lok Sabha. Censure motion is also brought
• by the opposition only in Lok Sabha. Adjournment
motion contains the element of condemnation of
the government, hence it can be brought only in
Lok Sabha.
• • Calling attention motion is brought to attract the
attention of the House and the minister when a
major accident occurs. Since it does not contain
condemnation of the government, it can be
introduced in both the Houses of the Parliament.
44. 44. Choose the correct statement from the following
statements in the context of censure motion-
A. 50 A. This motion can be brought in Lok Sabha by the
signatures of 50 members.
B. On the passing of this motion, the government has
B. to resign.
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No.{14}
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
Censure motion can be brought only in Lok Sabha. It is
brought by the opposition. In this, the reason for
censure has to be given. This motion can be brought
against a particular minister, council of ministers or
ministers. On the passing of this motion, Government
(Council of Minister) does not have to resign.
45. 45. Grant which is presented to the government in case
of sudden need of money without mentioning the
reasons is called-
[1] Vote on Account [2] Vote of Credit
[1] [2] [3] Exceptional Grant [4] Supplementary Grant
[3] [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [2]
Sol. [2] If the government needs money suddenly then Vote of
Credit is presented with the prior permission of the
President without mentioning the reasons.
46. The number of correctly matched pairs in the
following is/are-
46. Article Provisions
A. Article 83 - Duration of the Houses of Parliament.
B. Article 84 - Qualification for membership of
A. 83
Parliament.
B. 84 C. Article 85 - Special address by the President.
C. 85 D. Article 87 - Sessions of Parliament, Prorogation
D. 87 and Dissolution.
[1] One pair [2] Two pair
[1] [2]
[3] Three pair [4] All four pairs
[3] [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [2]
Sol. [2] Article 85 of the Constitution makes provision
85 regarding the session of the Parliament, prorogation
and dissolution. Article 87 of the Constitution makes
87
provision regarding the special address by the
President.
47. 47. Select the incorrect statement from the following
statements regarding the Lok Sabha Speaker-
[1] [1] The date of election of the Lok Sabha Speaker is
decided by the President.
[2] The power of the Lok Sabha Speaker to certify a
[2] bill as a money bill is final.
[3] Under the Tenth Schedule, the decision of the Lok
[3] Sabha Speaker in case of defection cannot be
judicially reviewed.
[4] Its decision is final in the proceedings and conduct
[4] of the House.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
Under the Tenth Schedule, the decision of the Lok
1992 Sabha Speaker in anti-defection matters is final. But
after the decision of the Supreme Court in the Kihoto
Holohan case 1992, its decision can be judicially
reviewed.

Page No.{15}
48. 48.Which of the following vice-president got Bharat
Ratan award after being President?
[1] Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
[1] [2]
[2] Dr. Zakir Hussain
[3] [4] [3] V.V. Giri
[5] [4] B.S. Shekhawat
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
• : 1954  1962 - 67 Vice Presidents Bharat Presidential
• : 1963  1967 - 69 Ratan Tenure
• Dr. S. Radhakrishnan : 1954  1962 - 67
• : 1975  1969 - 74
• Dr. Zakir Hussain : 1963  1967 - 69
49. • V.V. Giri : 1975  1969 - 74
49. Consider the following statements about current Vice
A. 15 President of India-
B. A. He has sworn in as 15th Vice President of the country.
528 B. He secured 528 votes against his opposition
candidate Mr.Venkaiah Naidu
C.
C. He has served as Governor of Assam
D. D. He was elected to Rajasthan legislative assembly
from Kishangarh constituency of Ajmer district .
Identify the correct statement from above-
[1] A B [2] B C [1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[3] C D [4] D [3] C and D only [4] D only
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
• Mr. Jagdeep Dhankar has sworn in as 14th Vice
• 14 President.
• 528 • He secured 528 votes against his Opposition
candidate Margaret Alva
• 2022 • He has served as Governor of West Bengal till July
2022
• Also Elected to 9th Lok Sabha from Jhunjhunu in
• 1989 9 1990
1989.
• Union Minister of states for Parliamentary affairs
50. -I ( ) -II ( ) in 1990.
50. Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution) with List-II
(Subject matter) and select the correct answer using
-I -II the code given below:
List-I List-II
A. 40 i.
A. Article 40 i. Organization of Village
B. 41 ii. Panchayat
C. 44 iii. B. Article 41 ii. Right to Work
D. 48 iv. C. Article 44 iii. Uniform Civil Code
D. Article 48 iv. Organisation of Agriculture
A B C D A B C D and Animal Husbandry
Code:
[1] i ii iii iv [2] ii iii i iv
A B C D A B C D
[3] i iii iv ii [4] iii ii iv i [1] i ii iii iv [2] ii iii i iv
[5] [3] i iii iv ii [4] iii ii iv i
Sol. [1] [5] Question Not Attempted
51. Sol. [1]
51. Which of the following Vice President had not been
[1] elected to the post of President?
[1] K.R Narayanan
[2]
[2] Krishan Kant
[3] [3] Shankar Dayal sharma
[4] [4] Dr. Zakir Hussain
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No.{16}
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
• : • Krishan Kant : Died working as Vice-President.
• : 10 • K.R Narayan : 10th President of India.
• : 9 • Shankar Dayal Sharma : 9th President of India.
• Dr. Zakir Hussain : 3rd President of India.
• :
52. Assertion (A) : Dr. S. Radhakrishnan in 1962 and Dr.
52. (A) : 1962 1967 Zakir Hussain in 1967 contested Presidential elections
but didn't resign from post of vice president.
Reason (R) : The Constitution of India clarifies that
(R) : holding the office of president or Vice President would
not be deemed to be holding an office of profit.
[1] A and R both are correct and R is correct
explanation of A.
[1] A R R, A [2] A and R both are correct but R is not correct
[2] A R R, A explanation of A.
[3] A R [3] A is correct, R is incorrect.
[4] A R [4] A is incorrect, R is correct.
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
53. Consider the following statements-
53.
A. Election for president post can be postponed on the
A. grounds if election are yet to take place in any State
legislative assembly in order to complete electoral
college of the President.
B. B. When election of president is declared void all acts
done by him in performance of his duties also
become invalid.
C. Presidential election is regulated under the
C. Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections act,
1952 1952.
Select the correct statement from above-
[1] A B [2] B C [1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[3] A only [4] C only
[3] A [4] C
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [4]
Sol. [4] • Election for president post cannot be postponed on
• the grounds if election are yet to take place in any
State legislative assembly or dissolution of
assembly.
• • When election of president is declared void all acts
done by him in performance of his duties of his
office before the date of the decision do not become
invalid.
54. 54. In context of Presidents of India identify the incorrect
[1] statement-
[1] Dr. Rajendra Prasad is the only president to get
[2] elected twice to the post.
[2] Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed became the first
minority president of country.
[3]
[3] Droupadi Murmu is youngest and first president
to be born after independence.
[4] [4] R. Venkatraman is the only president who has
worked with four Prime Ministers.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No.{17}
Sol. [*] Sol. [*]
• • Dr. Zakir Hussain was first minority (Muslim)
13 1967 03 1969 president. (Tenure : 13 May, 1967 to 3 May, 1969).
• Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was second minority
(Muslim) to be elected to the post; both Presidents
died while in office.
• 25
• R. Venkatraman had worked with four Prime
1987 25 1992
ministers (Tenure : 25 July, 1987 to 25 July, 1992);
Rajiv Gandhi, VP Singh, Chandrashekhar, P.V
Narshima Rao ; advent of coalition politics in India.
• 25 • Shankar Dayal Sharma had worked with four Prime
1992 25 1997 ministers (Tenure : 25 July, 1992 to 25 July, 1997);
P.V Narshima Rao, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, H.D.
Devegowda, I.K. Gujral.
55. 72 55. Observe the following statements regarding
constitutional obligation vested in President under
Article 72-
A. A. Pardon completely absolves offender from all
punishments and convictions, he comes in pre-
B. offence situation.
B. Court cannot lay guidelines for exercise of
C. pardoning power but can interfere when decision
is Mala fide.
C. In Kehar Singh case Supreme Court laid down that
D. president is not bound to give reason for his order.
D. President Mrs. Pratibha Patil has granted the
maximum number of pardons during her tenure.
[1] A, B C [2] B, C D Choose the correct statements from above -
[3] A B [4] [1] A, B and C [2] B, C and D
[5] [3] A and B only [4] All of the above
Sol. [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
•
• President Mrs. Pratibha Patil has granted the more
than 30 pardons during her tenure.
•
• Dr. Abdul Kalam reduced the punishment of about
35 people who were sentenced to death. (not fully
• pardon)
• Kehar singh vs Union of India Case (1988)case laid
down that the exercise of power by the President is
not subject to judicial review except where the
presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala
• fide or discriminatory.
EpuruSudhakar Case(2006) :- Pardoning power of
president and governor can be reviewed if the
56. decision taken was mala fide.
56. In order of their incumbency arrange following
Presidents in chronologically-
A. B.
A. M. Hidayatullah B. B.D. Jatti
C. D.
C. V.V. Giri D. K.R. Narayanan
E. E. Giani Zail Singh
[1] A-B-C-D-E [2] C-A-B-E-D [1] A-B-C-D-E [2] C-A-B-E-D
[3] E-D-A-B-C [4] D-A-B-C-E [3] E-D-A-B-C [4] D-A-B-C-E
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No.{18}
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
• ( ) • V.V. Giri (Acting)
:3 , 1969 20 , 1969 Tenure : 3 May, 1969 to 20 July, 1969
• ( ) • M. Hidayatullah (Acting)
Tenure : 20 July, 1969 to 24 August, 1969
: 20 , 1969 24 , 1969
• B.D. Jatti (Acting)
• ( )
Tenure : 11 February, 1977 to 25 July, 1977
: 11 , 1977 25 , 1977 • Gaini Jail Singh
• Tenure : 25 July, 1982 to 25 July, 1987
: 25 , 1982 25 , 1987 • K.R. Narayanan
• Tenure : 25 July, 1997 to 25 July, 2002
: 25 , 1997 25 , 2002 57. Who among the following is the first President of the
country to exercise the right to vote while holding
57.
office?
[1] Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
[1] [2] Pranab Mukherjee
[2] [3] K.R Narayanan
[3] [4] Pratibha Patil
[4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] • Lok Sabha Elections -1998: K. R. Narayanan was
the first President to exercise the right to vote while
• -1998 :
holding office.
• Dr. Kalam was the first president to vote in
• 2003 legislative elections (Delhi, 2003) while holding
office.
58. 58. Which of the following option is listed under
legislative power of president-
[1] Power to make appointments to certain offices like
[1]
finance commission, attorney general etc.
[2] To formally receive diplomatic representative of
[2] other countries.
[3] Giving prior sanction to bill for formation of new
[3] state .
[4] [4] To promulgate emergency.
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
Option [1], [2] and [4] are under administrative,
[1], [2] [4] diplomatic and emergency powers of president of India
respectively.
59. 59. Choose the mismatched pair among the following-
[1] 57 [1] Article 57 - Term of office of president
[2] 62 [2] Article 62 - Time of holding election to fill
vacancy in president office.
[3] Article 65 - Vice president to act as president.
[3] 65
[4] Article 71 - Matters relating to election of
[4] 71 president.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
• 57 • Article 57 : Eligibility for re-election.
• 56 • Article 56 : Term of office of president.

Page No.{19}
60. 60. Match the following
Classification Features
of Ministers
A. i.
A. Cabinet Ministers i. Who does not work under
Cabinet Minister
B. ii. B. Minister of State ii. Does not have independent
(Independent charge of department
C. iii. Charge)
C. Minister of state iii. Written advice on
D. iv. proclamation of emergency
D. Deputy Minister iv. Work can be alloted by any
ministers
Code:
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
[1] iii ii i iv [2] iii iv i ii [1] iii ii i iv [2] iii iv i ii
[3] iii iv ii i [4] iii i ii iv [3] iii iv ii i [4] iii i ii iv
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
61. 61. Choose the mismatched pair-
Article Provision
[1] Article 75 1(A) - Council of Ministers shall not
[1] 75 1(A) exceed 15% of the total number
15 of members.
[2] 75(3) [2] Article 75(3) - Minister to hold office during
pleasure of president.
[3] 75(4) [3] Article 75(4) - Oath of office and secrecy.
[4] Article 75(6) - Salaries and allowances.
[4] 75(6)
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [2]
Sol. [2]
• Article 75(3) : Collective Responsibility of Council
• 75(3) : of Ministers.
• 75(2) : • Article 75(2) : Minister to hold office during
62. pleasure of president.
62. Which Article establishes Prime minister as a link
[1] 75 [2] 78 between the President and the Council of Ministers?
[1] Article 75 [2] Article 78
[3] 88 [4] 74
[3] Article 88 [4] Article 74
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
78 : Article 78 : Duty of prime minister to communicate to
President all decisions made by Council of Ministers
and to give President any information desired by him.
63. 63. Identify the incorrect statement from the following
facts regarding Prime ministers of India-
[1] 6 people have became Prime ministers after being
[1] 6 Chief Ministers.
[2] [2] Gulzari Lal Nanda has served nation as Prime
Minister for two times.
[3] [3] Atal Bihari Vajpayee served as Chief Minister of
Uttar Pradesh before becoming the Prime Minister.
[4] Manmohan Singh served as RBI Governor and
[4]
Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission before
becoming the Prime Minister.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No.{20}
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
• 6 • 6 people have became Prime ministers after being
Chief Ministers (Morarji Desai, Charan Singh, V.P.
Singh , P.V. Narasimha Rao, H.D. Devegowda and
Narendra Modi)
•
• Guljari Lal Nanda became acting Prime Minister
• twice.
64. 76 • Atal Bihari Vajpayee was never the Chief Minister
of any state.
A. 64. Consider the following statements regarding office
created by constitution under Article 76-
A. The person appointed to this post must be qualified
B.
to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court.
B. He is consulted by government of India through
C. Ministry of law.
C. He is the only officer who is allowed to participate
D. in meetings of Parliament.
D. K.K. Venugopal is currently holding this post.
[1] A, B C [2] B, C D Select the correct statement from above-
[1] A, B and C [2] B, C and D
[3] B D [4]
[3] B and D only [4] All of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
76 : Article 76 : Office of Attorney General
• • R.venkataramani is currently attorney general of
• India.
• • He is highest law officer of government of India.
• • He appears in the court on behalf of government of
India.
65. A.
• Tushar Mehta is solicitor general of India.
B. 65. A. To bear true faith and allegiance to Constitution.
C. B. To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
D. C. To faithfully discharge duties of his office
E. D. To do right to all manners of People in accordance
F. with Constitution
E. Preserve Protect and Defend the Constitution
F. To not directly or indirectly communicate any
matter brought under his consideration.
From the above ,which Oath a ministers swears when
[1] A, B, C, D E [2] B, C, D, E F he enters upon office?
[3] A, B, C, D F [4] [1] A, B, C, D and E [2] B, C, D, E and F
[5] [3] A, B, C, D and F [4] All of the above
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
60 Sol. [3]
President under Article 60 takes Oath to Preserve
Protect and Defend the Constitution.
66.
66. A situation may arise when office of President and
Vice president both fall vacant by reason of death,
resignation,removal or otherwise. Who and under
which article is empowered to make provisions for
[1] 142 such contingencies?
[2] 111 [1] Supreme Court under Article 142
[2] President under Article 111
[3] 70
[3] Parliament under Article 70
[4] 71
[4] Parliament under Article 71
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No.{21}
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
• 70 • Article 70 empowers Parliament to make provisions
for such contingencies. The Parliament has enacted
1969 President (Dicharge of function) act,1969.
• • Under this if both post are vacant, then Chief Justice
of India acts as President ( in absence of CJI senior
most judge of Supreme Court.)
67. 67. 'All the executive action of the government of India
shall be expressed to be taken in name of President ';
is provided under which of the following article?
[1] Article 78 [2] Article 52
[1] 78 [2] 52
[3] Article 77 [4] Article 53
[3] 77 [4] 53
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
• Article 78 : Duties of Prime Minister as respects the
• 78 :
furnishing of Information to the President.
• Article 52 : The President of India.
• 52 :
• Article 53 : Executive power of the Union.
• 53 :
68. Which is first state in independent India to give its
68. citizen equal rights without any discrimination in
matters like maintenance, adoption, inheritance and
divorce?
[1] [2] [1] Goa [2] Uttarakhand
[3] [4] [3] Assam [4] Gujarat
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
• 44 • Uttarakhand became the first state in Country to
Pass a law on uniform Civil Code ( Article- 44)
• • Goa is only state which practices UCC. It follows
1867 Portuguese civil Code, 1867.
69. 2024 69. Consider the following statements regarding
Citizenship (amendment) rules, 2024-
A. These rules have been notified by Ministry of
A. 2019
Home Affairs to enforce citizenship amendment
act(CAA), 2019.
B. Under this applicant must have adequate
B. 8 knowledge of one of the languages listed in 8th
Schedule.
C. C. This amendment provides citizenship to targeted
31 2019 migrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh or Pakistan
who entered india on or before December 31,2019.
Choose the incorrect statement(s) from above-
[1] A and C only [2] C only
[1] A C [2] C
[3] B and C only [4] None of the above
[3] B C [4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
This amendment Provides citizenship to Hindu,
Sikhs,Buddhist, Jains, Parsis and Christian migrants
from Afghanistan, Bangladesh or Pakistan who entered
31 2014 India on or before 31 December, 2014.
Page No.{22}
70. 70. What is objective of Jan Vishwas (Amendment of
2023 provision) Act, 2023 recently passed by parliament-
[1] [1] Addressing sedition law in India
[2] [2] Enhance Ease of living and Ease of doing business
[3] Uniform Civil Code
[3]
[4] Legal status to same sex marriage
[4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [2]
Sol. [2]
• The act aims at giving further boost to Ease of Living
• and Ease of Doing Business.
• The act has amended 183 provisions to be
• 19 42 decriminalized in 42 Central Acts administered by
183 19 Ministries/Departments.
71. 71. Select the incorrect statement regarding new
Parliament building of India-
[1] 384 [1] It includes Rajya Sabha hall having 384 seats based
on lotus theme and Lok Sabha hall of 888 seats
888
capacity on peacock theme
[2] It is an platinum rated green building
[2]
[3] It is designed under architect Bimal Patel and had
[3] been built by Tata Projects ltd.
[4] It is circular in shape believed to be inspired by
[4] Chausath Yogini Temple.
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [4]
Sol. [4] New building is triangular in shape. Old Parliament
building is circular in shape believed to be inspired by
Chausath Yogini Temple (Morena, M.P.).
72. 2023 72. Consider the provisions kept in Nari Shakti Vandan
Act, 2023-
A. It was passed by the 128 th Constitutional
A. 128 2023
Amendment Bill, 2023.
B. Amendments were made in Articles 339AA, 330A,
B. 339AA, 330A, 332A 332A and 334A through this bill.
334A C. Through Article 330A, two-thirds of the seats to be
C. 330A filled by direct election in the Lok Sabha will be
reserved for women.
Choose the incorrect statement from the above-
[1] A B [2] A [1] A and B [2] A only
[3] B and C [4] C only
[3] B C [4] C
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
• Through Article 330A, one-third of the seats to be
• 330A
filled by direct election in the Lok Sabha will be
reserved for women.
• Through Article 239AA, 33 percent seats will be
• 239AA 33 reserved for women in the National Capital
Territory of Delhi.
• 332A • Through Article 332A, one-third of the seats in the
state assembly will be reserved for women.
73. 73. Consider the following statements-
A. Parliament may by law empower subordinate
A. 32
courts to exercise the power to issue writs
mentioned in Article 32 within the local limits of
their jurisdiction.
Page No.{23}
 B. 32 B. Bhimrao Ambedkar has called Article 32 as soul
and heart of the Constitution.
Choose the incorrect statement from the above-
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] [3] Both A and B [4] None of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
Thakurdas Bhargava has called the Preamble the soul
of the Constitution.
74.
74. Consider the following statements-
A.
A. The Parliament under no circumstances can make
any ordinary law which can curtail or violates the
Fundamental Rights.
B. B. The power of the Supreme Court and the High
Courts to issue writs is a fundamental right.
Choose the incorrect statement-
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] [3] Both A and B [4] None of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
• • During national emergency (war or external
19 aggression), the Parliament can make a law by
ordinary law to curtail or repealve the Fundamental
Rights granted by Article 19.
•
• Only the power of the Supreme Court to issue writs
is a fundamental right.
75. 75. Consider the following statements-
A. A. Some fundamental rights can be enforced against
B. private individuals also.
B. The basis of the negative nature of fundamental
rights is that they can be abridged or altered by the
Parliament.
[1] A [2] B
Choose the correct statement from the above-
[3] A B [4]
[1] A only [2] B only
[5]
[3] Both A and B [4] None of the above
Sol. [1]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
Some fundamental rights are negative in character as
76. they place limitation on the authority of the state.
76. Which among the following doctrine explains that If
any legislature passes a law that violates any
provision of the constitution, then such law is
declared void by the court ''to extent of such
inconsistency''.
[1]
[1] Doctrine of Eclipse
[2]
[2] Doctrine of severability
[3]
[3] Doctrine of waiver
[4]
[4] Doctrine of prospective over ruling
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Page No.{24}
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
• • Doctrine of waiver means voluntary relinquishment
of a known right.
• • Doctrine of Prospective over ruling means the
Supreme court can over rule its earlier Judgement,
but the impact will apply from the prospective effect
and not retrospectively.
77. 77. Consider the following statements-
A. A. ‘Equal protection of laws’ and ‘equality before law’
14 both are mentioned in Article-14.
B. B. Untouchability has not been defined in the
constitution but it has been defined in the Schedule
1989 Caste and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989.
Choose the incorrect statement from the above-
[1] A [2] B
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4]
[3] Both A and B [4] None of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
Untouchability has not been defined.
78. 78. Consider the following statements regarding
formation of new state-
A. A. No bill for enacting such law shall be introduced in
the parliament unless it has been referred to the
legislature of the states, whose areas, boundaries
or name is affected.
B. In above statement 'State' does not include a Union
B.
territory.
Choose the incorrect statements from the above-
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] [3] Both A and B [4] None of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
79. 3 79. Which of the following is not possible by a law of
parliament under Article 3 of the constitution?
A. A. Admission of a new states.
B. B. Estabishment of new states.
C. Formation of new states.
C.
D. Alter the name of any states.
D.
[1] A and B only [2] A, B and C
[1] A B [2] A, B C
[3] A, C and D [4] B and C only
[3] A, C D [4] B C [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] • Article 2 : Admission or establishment of new
• 2: States.
• 3: • Article 3 : Formation of new states and alteration
of areas, boundaries or names of existing States.
80. 80. The_____shall take steps to seperate the judiciary
_____ from the executive in the Public services of the state.
[1] [2] [1] State [2] Parliament
[3] Executive [4] Supreme court
[3] [4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
Page No.{25}
81. 81. Consider the following statements regarding
A. Fundamental Duties-
A. Swaran Singh Committee suggested addition of
eight Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.
B. 1975 B. Sardar Swaran Singh Committee was constituted
in 1975 to give recommendations regarding
Fundamental Duties, their necessity etc. during the
C. 42 1976 National Emergency.
C. Fundamental duties were added by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act (1976).
Choose the incorrect statement from the above-
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] C [4] [3] C only [4] None of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
1976 Sardar Swaran Singh Committee was constituted in
82. 1976.
82. Consider the following statements regarding
Fundamental Duties-
A.
A. These have been amended twice so far.
B. B. The basis of composite culture mentioned in it is
Sanskrit language and literature and Sanskrit
should be chosen in the education system to
preserve the heritage of India.
Choose the correct statement from the above-
[1] A [2] B
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4]
[3] Both A and B [4] None of these
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
• • The Fundamental Duties have been amended once
• 6 14 so far.
• To provide opportunities for education to one's
• 86 2002. child between the age of 6 to 14 years.
• 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
83.
83. Consider the following statements in the context of
Directive Principles of State Policy-
A.
A. Constitution, has classified them into socialist,
Gandhian and liberal intellectual principles.
B. B. These are mass-centric while fundamental rights
are individual-centric.
C. C. The doctrine of harmonious construction is related
to Kesavananda Bharati case.
Choose the incorrect statement from the above-
[1] A B [2] A C [1] A and B [2] A and C
[3] A [4] C [3] A only [4] C only
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
•
• There is no such division in the Constitution.
•
• The doctrine of harmonious construction is related
to ‘Minerva Mills Case’.
Page No.{26}
84. 84. Consider the following statements-
A. A. Fundamental duties are not legally enforceable.
They extend to foreign as well as Indian citizens.
B. Verma committee related to fundamental duties of
B. 1999
citizens was constituted in 1999.
Identify the correct statement from the above-
[1] A only [2] B only
[1] A [2] B
[3] Both A and B [4] None of these
[3] A B [4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [2]
Sol. [2]
Fundamental duties extend only to Indian citizens.
85. Consider the following statements regarding the
85. Directive Principles of State Policy-
A. The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act,
A. 2002 2002 substituted the provision in Article 45, “The
45 14 State shall endeavour to provide free and
compulsory education for children till they attain
the age of 14 years” with “The State shall endeavour
to provide early childhood care and education for
all children untill they complete the age of six
years”.
B. B. Social, Economic and Political justice are mentioned
in the Preamble as well as in the Directive Principles
of State Policy.
Choose the correct statement from the above-
[1] A [2] B
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4]
[3] Both A and B [4] None of these
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
86. 1931 86. Which Congress Session passed the resolution of
fundamental rights in 1931?
[1] [2] [1] Allahabad [2] Karachi
[3] [4] [3] Mumbai [4] Gaya
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [2]
Sol. [2]
The congress at Karachi session passed two resolutions,
one on fundamental rights and the other on National
Economic Programme.
87. 87. The rights are called fundamental rights because-
A. A. They have been written seperately in the
constitution.
B. B. They are not violated by the government.
C. C. There is a special provision for their protection.
Choose the correct statement(s)-
[1] A B [2] B C [1] A and B [2] B and C
[3] A and C [4] All of the above
[3] A C [4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]

Page No.{27}
88. 88. To uphold and Protect the Sovereignty, unity and
integrity of India is a the provision made in the-
[1] Fundamental Rights
[2] Fundamental Duties
[1]
[3] Directive Principles of State Policy
[2]
[4] Preamble of the Constitution
[3]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[4]
Sol. [2]
[5] 89. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the
Sol. [2] following parts of the constitution of India reflect/
89. reflects the principles and provisions of Universal
peclaration of Human Rights (1948)?
(1948) A. Preamble
A. B. Directive Principle of State Policy
B. C. Fundamental Duties
C. Select the correct answer using the code given below-
[1] A and B [2] B only
[3] A and C [4] A, B and C
[1] A B [2] B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[3] A C [4] A, B C
Sol. [4]
[5]
90. Which of the following provisions was in the original
Sol. [4]
Constitution?
90.
[1] Children are be given opportunities and facilities
[1] to develop in a healthy manner in a condition of
freedom and dignity.
[2] [2] The State strive to reduce inequality in status,
facilities and opportunities.
[3] [3] The State will conduct its policy in such a manner
that the tender age of children are not abused.
[4] Equal justice and free legal aid.
[4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
• Children are be given opportunities and facilities
•
to develop in a healthy manner in a condition of
freedom and dignity.
39(F)/39 ( 42 (Article 39(F)/39(F): 42 nd Constitutional
• Amendment)
• The State strive to reduce inequality in status,
38 (2) : 44 facilities and opportunities.
• (Article 38 (2): 44th Constitutional Amendment)
• Equal justice and free legal aid.
39(A) : 42
(Article 39(A) : 42nd Constitutional Amendment)
91.
91. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a-
[1]
[1] Fundamental Right
[2]
[2] Natural Right
[3]
[3] Constitutional Right
[4]
[4] Legal Right
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
326 The right to vote in the constitution of India is
guaranteed under Article 326.
Page No.{28}
92. 1955 92. Recently, the Supreme Court has upheld the
constitutionality of which section of the Citizenship
Act, 1955?
[1] 2A [2] 5A
[1] Section 2A [2] Section 5A
[3] 6A [4] 11A
[3] Section 6A [4] Section 11A
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
• 1985
• It was enacted as part of the Citizenship
1985 (Amendment) Act, 1985, following the Assam
• 1 1966 Accord of 1985.
• This Bill grants Indian citizenship to migrants who
entered Assam from Bangladesh before 1 January,
• 1 1966 25 1971 1966.
• Those who came to India between 1 January, 1966
and 25 March, 1971 can be granted citizenship after
fulfilling certain prescribed procedures and
• 25 1971 conditions.
• However, this section does not grant citizenship to
93. migrants who came to Assam after 25 March, 1971.
93. Who among the following headed the nine-judge
constitutional bench that declared the right to privacy
[1] [2] as a fundamental right?
[3] [4] [1] K.S. Puttaswamy [2] J.S. Khehar
[3] H.L. Dattu [4] S.A. Bobde
[5]
Sol. [2] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]
94.
94. Which of the following provisions of the constitution
reveal the secular character of the Indian State ?
A.
A. Preamble
B. B. Directive Principles of state policy
C. C. Fundamental Duties
D. D. Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
[1] A, B D [2] B, C D [1] A, B and D [2] B, C and D
[3] A C [4] A, B, C D [3] A and C only [4] A, B, C and D
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
Fundamental duties does not provide for the secular
character of the Indian state rather then they are duties
of Indian citizens in their individual capacity to be
performed.
95.
95. Consider the following statements :
A. A. Only parliament shall have the power to make laws
restricting the application of fundamental rights to
members of armed forces.
B. B. Both parliament and state legislative shall have
powers to make laws for prescribing punishment
for offenses such as traffic in human beings and
forced labour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[1] A [2] B
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No.{29}
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
• • Parliament shall have powers to make laws for
prescribing punishment for those act that are
declared to be offenses under the fundamental
rights.
These include the following :
• ( 17)
• Untouchability (Article 17)
• ( 23) • Traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article
96. 23)
96. Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, the
A. Directive Principle of State Policy constitute
limitations upon
B.
A. Legislative function.
B. Executive function.
[1] A [2] B
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
[3] A B [4] A, B [1] A only [2] B only
[5] [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
Sol. [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
97. Sol. [4]
97. If India decides to cede territory to any of its
neighbours, which of the following would be used
A. 2 B. 3 C. 368 by the parliament-
A. Article 2 B. Article 3 C. Article 368
[1] A B [2] B C Select the correct answer using the code given below:
[1] A and B [2] B and C
[3] C [4] A, B C
[3] C only [4] A, B and C
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
98.
98. Consider the following statements-
A. 21
A. Article 21 of the constitution explicitly mentions the
'Procedure established by law.'
B.
B. 'Due Process of Law' provides for judicial scrutiny
against arbitary action of the executive only.
Choose the correct statements from above-
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] [3] Both A and B [4] None of these
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
Due process of law doctrine not only checks if there is
a law to deprive the life and personal liberty of a person
but also see if the law made is fair, just and not arbitrary.
99. Consider the following statements -
A. The difference between flexible and rigid
99.
constitution is not in the nature of unwritten and
A. written constitution but in the nature of amendment
process.
B. The difference between written and unwritten
B. constitution is organic.
Page No.{30}
 Choose the correct option -
[1] B [1] Only statement B is correct.
[2] A B [2] Both statements A and B are incorrect.
[3] Only statement A is correct.
[3] A
[4] Both statements A and B are correct.
[4] A B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
The difference between written and unwritten
Constitutions is not organic. A written Constitution has
written parts in majority. Along with these, it also has
some unwritten parts in the form of conventions. In an
unwritten Constitution, most of the parts are unwritten
and are not written in the form of a book. However
some of its parts are also found written in some charters
and other documents.
100. (93 ) 2005 100. Which of the following clause was inserted by the
Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005?
[1] 15 (2)( ) [2] 16 (4 ) [1] 15 (2)(B) [2] 16(4B)
[3] 15(5) [4] 16(5) [3] 15(5) [4] 16(5)
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
101. How many diagonals can be drawn by joining the ver-
101.
tices of an octagon?
[1] 20 [2] 24
[1] 20 [2] 24 [3] 28 [4] 64
[3] 28 [4] 64 [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] 102. Find the number of squares in the given figure.
102.

[1] 204 [2] 260

[3] 240 [4] 127 [1] 204 [2] 260
[3] 240 [4] 127
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
103. 103. How many rectangles are there in the given figure?

[1] 21 [2] 24 [1] 21 [2] 24

[3] 25 [4] 22 [3] 25 [4] 22
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
Page No.{31}
104. 104. How many pentagons are there in the given figure?

[1] 3 [2] 4 [1] 3 [2] 4

[3] 5 [4] 6 [3] 5 [4] 6
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
105. 105. Find the number of circles in the following figure.

[1] 40 [2] 45 [1] 40 [2] 45

[3] 50 [4] 42 [3] 50 [4] 42
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
106. 106. A square plot of land was divided into 16 equal parts
by drawing lines parallel to its sides. How many
16
rectangles (not square) were formed in the resulting
( ) figure ?
[1] 70 [2] 40 [1] 70 [2] 40
[3] 62 [4] 64 [3] 62 [4] 64
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
107. 107. Find the number of parallelogram in the following figure:

[1] 12 [2] 20 [1] 12 [2] 20

[3] 29 [4] 30 [3] 29 [4] 30
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
108. 108. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

[1] 10 [2] 16 [1] 10 [2] 16

[3] 19 [4] 20 [3] 19 [4] 20
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
109. 109. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

[1] 24 [2] 21 [1] 24 [2] 21

[3] 22 [4] 23 [3] 22 [4] 23
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
Page No.{32}
110. 110. There are eight equidistant points on a circle. How
many right-angled triangles can be drawn by using
these points as vertices and taking the diameter as
one side of the triangle?
[1] 24 [2] 16
[1] 24 [2] 16
[3] 12 [4] 8
[3] 12 [4] 8
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
111. 1, 2, 3, 4 5
111. How many three-digit even numbers can be formed
using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 if repetition of digits is
not allowed?
[1] 36 [2] 30
[1] 36 [2] 30
[3] 24 [4] 112
[3] 24 [4] 112
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
= 2 × 4 × 3 = 24
Number of three digit even numbers = 2 × 4 × 3 = 24
112. 5 6 8
112. There is a group of 5 men, 6 women and 8 children. 1
1 1 man, 1 woman and one child are being selected to
play a game. In how many ways can the selection be
[1] 480 [2] 240 done?
[3] 120 [4] 360 [1] 480 [2] 240

[5] [3] 120 [4] 360

Sol. [2] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]
= 5C1 × 6C1 × 8C1 Number of methods required
= 5 × 6 × 8 = 240 = 5C1 × 6C1 × 8C1
113. 52 = 5 × 6 × 8 = 240
2 1 113. Three cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52
cards. What is the probability that 2 cards are red and
1 card is black?
13 19
[1] [2]
34 52 13 19
[1] [2]
34 52
7 3
[3] [4]
39 43 7 3
[3] [4]
[5] 39 43
Sol. [1] [5] Question Not Attempted
26
C 2 26 C 1 13 Sol. [1]
= 
52
C3 34 26
C 2 26 C 1 13
Required probability = 
52
C3 34
114. MATHEMATICS
114. In how many ways can the letters of the word
MATHEMATICS be arranged so that all the vowels
always come together?
[1] 10080 [2] 120960
[1] 10080 [2] 120960
[3] 4989600 [4] 20160 [3] 4989600 [4] 20160
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted

Page No.{33}
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
(AEAI) MTHMTCS Putting vowels (AEAI) together, we have MTHMTCS
(AEAI) (AEAI).
8 2M, Now, we have to arrange 8 letters, out of which we
2T have 2M, 2T and rest all are different.
Number of ways to arrange these letters

8 8 7  6  5 4  3 2  1 8 8 7  6  5 4  3 2  1
    = 10080
2· 2 2  1 2  1 = 10080 2· 2 2  1 2  1

(AEAI) 4 2A, 1E 1I Now, (AEAI) has 4 letters, out of which we have 2A,
1E and 1I,
Number of ways to arrange these letters

4 4 32 1 4 4 32 1
    = 12
2 2 = 12 2 2

 = (10080 × 12) = 120960.  Number of ways required = (10080 × 12) = 120960.

115. 7 115. In how many ways can 7 tennis players be seated in
a circular order?
[1] 330 [2] 730
[1] 330 [2] 730
[3] 720 [4] 820
[3] 720 [4] 820
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
Number of arrangements in a circle = (n – 1)!
= (n – 1)!
 Required arrangements = (7 – 1)! = 6! = 720
 = (7 – 1)! = 6! = 720
116. Two dice are thrown. What is the probability that the
116.
total score is a prime number?
1 1
1 1 [1] [2]
[1] [2] 6 2
6 2
5 7
5 7 [3] [4]
[3] [4] 12 9
12 9
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] Clearly, n(S) = (6 × 6) = 36
n(S) = (6 × 6) = 36 Let E be the event that the sum is a prime number.
E Then, n(e) = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 3), (2, 5),
n(e) = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 3), (2, 5), (3, 2), (3, 4), (4, 1), (4, 3), (5, 2), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 5)}
(3, 2), (3, 4), (4, 1), (4, 3), (5, 2), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 5)}  n(E) = 15
 n(E) = 15 n(E) 15 5
 P(E) = n(S)  36  12
n(E) 15 5
 P(E) = n(S)  36  12
117. How many different words can be formed with
117. CUSTOM CUSTOM with the condition that the word must start
M with M?

[1] 720 [2] 120 [1] 720 [2] 120

[3] 540 [4] 180
[3] 540 [4] 180
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
= 5! = 120 Number of Arrangements = 5! = 120

Page No.{34}
118. 118. There are six teachers. Out of these two are primary
teachers and two are secondary teachers. They have
to stand in a row, so that primary teacher, middle
teacher and secondary teacher are always in a set.
What is the number of ways in which they can do so?
[1] 52 [2] 48 [1] 52 [2] 48
[3] 34 [4] 58 [3] 34 [4] 58
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
2 There are 2 primary teachers.
P(2, 2) = 2! They can stand in a row in P(2, 2) = 2!
=2×1 =2 = 2 × 1 ways = 2 ways
  Two middle teachers.
P(2, 2) = 2! ! They can stand in a row in P(2, 2) = 2!
=2×1=2 = 2 × 1 = 2 ways
There are two secondary teachers.
They can stand in a row in P(2, 2) = 2!

P(2, 2) = 2! = 2 × 1 = 2 = 2 × 1 = 2 ways
These three sets can be self arranged in 3!
3! !
Ways = 3 × 2 × 1 = 6 ways
=3×2×1=6
So, the required number of ways is
2 × 2 × 2 × 6 = 48 ways
2 × 2 × 2 × 6 = 48
119. A box contains 20 electric bulbs, 4 of which are
119. 20 4 defective. Two bulbs are chosen at random from this
box. What is the probability that at least one of them
is defective?

4 7 4 7
[1] [2] [1] [2]
19 19 19 19

12 21 12 21
[3] [4] [3] [4]
19 95 19 95
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
P( ) P (None is defective)
16
16
C 2  16  15 2  1  12 C 2  16  15 2  1  12
       
20
C 2  2  1 20  19  19
20
C 2  2  1 20  19  19
P( 1 ) P (At least 1 defective)

 12  7  12  7
=  1  19   19 =  1  19   19
   

120. 5 8 120. The number of ways of distributing 8 different caps

among 5 children is:
[1] 85 [2] 58
[1] 85 [2] 58
[3] 8P5 [4] 40
[3] 8P5 [4] 40
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [2]
Sol. [2]
Number of arrangements = 58
= 58
Page No.{35}
121. 121. Consider the following statements related to Jal
Jeevan Mission-
A. The objective of this scheme is to provide 55 liters
A.
of water per person per day to every rural family
2024
by the year 2024 through functional household tap
55 connection.
B. 50 : 50 B. The funding pattern between Center and the World
Bank in this scheme is in 50 : 50 ratio.
C. 2024-25 25 C. Under the scheme, a target has been set to provide
tap water to 25 lakh rural households in the state
for the year 2024-25.
Select the correct statement from the above-
[1] A B [2] B C
[1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[3] A C [4] [3] A and C only [4] All of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
50 : 50 The funding pattern between Center and the State in
122. 14 - 18 this scheme is in 50 : 50 ratio.
122. In which of the following districts, Kishori Balika
Yojana is not being operated with the aim of creating
a cooperative environment for the self-development
of adolescent girls in the age group 14-18 years?
[1] [2]
[1] Baran [2] Karauli
[3] [4]
[3] Sirohi [4] Banswara
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
With the aim of making adolescent girls educated,
5 empowered, self-dependant and aware citizens,
1 2022 Kishori Balika Yojana is being operated in 5 aspirational
districts of the state (Baran, Karauli, Jaisalmer, Dholpur
and Sirohi) Since 1 April, 2022.
123.
123. Consider the following statements regarding
Mukhya Mantri Hunar Vikas Yojana -
A.
A. Under the scheme, employment oriented training
15 will be provided to inmates of government/aided
children's homes who have completed maximum
B. 15 years of age.
B. Under this, beneficiaries under the Palanhar scheme
have also been included.
C.
C. The scheme is being implemented by the Social
Justice and Empowerment Department.
Choose the correct statement from the above-
[1] A B [2] B C [1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[3] A C [4] [3] A and C only [4] All of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
17 Under the scheme, employment oriented training will
be provided to inmates of government/aided children's
homes who have completed maximum 17 years of age.

Page No.{36}
124. 124. Which of the following is a mismatched pair (Social
Security Scheme- Eligibility) -
[1] Aastha Scheme - Families in which 2 or
[1] 2 2
more than 2 persons
40% with more than 40%
disability
[2] 18 [2] Indira Gandhi National - Age 18 years or above
Disability Pension
Scheme
[3] 50,000
[3] Mukhya Mantri Ekal - Annual income less
Nari Samman Pension than Rs.50,000
[4] 60,000 Yojana
[4] Mukhya Mantri Vishesh - Annual income less
Yogyajan Samman than Rs.60,000
[5]
Pension Yojana
Sol. [3]
[5] Question Not Attempted
48,000
Sol. [3]
Mukhyamantri Ekal Nari Samman Pension Yojana :
125. Annual income less than Rs.48,000. (Widows, Divorced
A. and Abandoned Women)
125. Consider the following statements -
2001 - 02
A. Swadhar Yojana was started from year 2001-02 by
B. the Ministry of Women and Child Development,
Government of India.
C. 2022 - 23 B. Objective of Swadhar Yojana is to provide shelter
to women living in adverse conditions.
C. From the year 2022-23, Swadhar Greh and Ujjwala
Scheme have been merged and named Shakti Sadan
[1] A B [2] B C Scheme.
[3] A C [4] Select the incorrect statement from the above-
[5] [1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[3] A and C only [4] None of the above
Sol. [4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
126.
Sol. [4]
126. At which of the following places Divyang
[1] Universities have been established in Rajasthan?
[2] [1] Jaipur and Jodhpur
[3] [2] Udaipur and Jaipur
[3] Kota and Jaipur
[4]
[4] Jodhpur and Udaipur
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
Baba Amte Divyang University in Jamdoli, Jaipur and
Mahatma Gandhi Divyang University in Jodhpur have
been established for education and research for the
disabled.
127.
127. Provision of how much amount has been done in
'Mahila Shakti Nidhi' which is focused on the all-
[1] 200 [2] 1000 round empowerment of women?
[3] 500 [4] 100 [1] Rs.200 Crores [2] Rs.1000 Crores
[3] Rs.500 Crores [4] Rs.100 Crores
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted

Page No.{37}
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
1000 18 The Rajasthan government has announced Mahila
2019 Shakti Nidhi on December 18, 2019 with a provision of
Rs.1000 Crores.
128.
128. Choose the correct statement from the statements
related to Silicosis Policy-
[1] 2 [1] On certification of silicosis disease, assistance of Rs.2
lakh is provided for rehabilitation.
[2] 3 [2] Rs.3 lakh is provided to the dependent family on
the death of the victim.
[3] 1500 [3] The victim is provided social security pension of
Rs.1500 per month.
[4] There is also a provision of financial assistance of
[4] 5,000
Rs.5000 to the victim's family for funeral .
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
Silicosis Policy : 3 October, 2019
:3 2019
• On certification of silicosis disease, assistance of Rs.3
• 3 lakh is provided for rehabilitation.
• On the death of the victim, Rs.2 lakh is provided to
• 2 the dependent family.
• There is also a provision of financial assistance of
Rs.10000 to the victim's family for funeral.
• 10,000
129. Which of the following schemes is not being run by
the Department of Minority Affairs?
129.
[1] Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram
[2] Navjivan Yojana
[1]
[3] Merit Cum Means Scholarship Scheme
[2] [4] Post Matric Scholarship Scheme
[3] [5] Question Not Attempted
[4] Sol. [2]
[5] Navjivan Yojana is being run by the Department of
Sol. [2] Social Justice and Empowerment with the purpose of
providing alternative opportunities of livelihood to the
communities engaged in the manufacture, storage and
sale of illegal liquor.
130. How much grant in aid per couple is sanctioned by
the state government under the Mukhya Mantri
130. Samuhik Vivah Evm Anudan Yojana?
[1] Rs.22,000 [2] Rs.20,000
[1] 22,000 [2] 20,000 [3] Rs.15,000 [4] Rs.25,000
[3] 15,000 [4] 25,000 [5] Question Not Attempted

[5] Sol. [4]

Sol. [4] Under the scheme, the state government is giving a
grant in aid at rate of Rs.25,000 per couple, in which
25,000 Rs.21000 is given to the bride and Rs.4000 is given to
21,000 the organization for the marriage arrangements.
4,000 131. Rajcomp Info Services Limited has signed MoU with
Page No.{38}
131. whom to set up Centre of Excellence in Blockchain
Technology in Rajasthan?
[1] IIT Delhi [2] IIT Madras
[1] [2] [3] IIT Kanpur [4] IIT Mumbai
[3] [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] 132. Where was the 'World Government Summit 2024'
132. 2024 2024 held in February 2024?
[1] Tokyo [2] New York
[1] [2] [3] Dubai [4] New Delhi
[3] [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] • The 11th Edition of the World Government Summit
• 11 was held in Dubai in February 2024.
2024 • India, Turkey and Qatar were declared guest
countries in this summit.
•
133. Who has been appointed as the Lokpal Chairperson
of India recently?
133.
[1] Justice Dr. Indrajit Prasad Gautam
[2] Justice Pradeep Kumar Mohanty
[1]
[3] Justice Ajay Manik Rao Khanwilkar
[2]
[4] Justice Dilip Babasaheb Bhosale
[3]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[4]
Sol. [3]
[5]
• The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and eight
Sol. [3]
members, out of which 50% are judicial members.
•
• At least 50 percent of the members should be from
50% SC/ST/OBC/Minority and Women category.
• 50% • Appointed : Chairperson and Members on the
recommendation of the Committee by the President
• • Selection Committee : Chairperson (Prime
Minister) Speaker of Lok Sabha, Leader of
• Opposition in Lok Sabha, Chief Justice of India or
any Judge nominated by him and Eminent jurist
nominated by the President on the recommendation
of the first four members.
• Tenure : For a term of five years from the date on
• which he assumes office or till he attains the age of
70 70 years, whichever is earlier.
• Salary, allowances and other terms of service:-
• Chairperson (Equal to Chief Justice of India),
Members (Equal to Judge of Supreme Court).
• Judicial Members : Justice Lingppa Narayana
Swamy, Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi, Justice Sanjay
• Yadav.
• Other Members : Sushil Chandra, Pankaj Kumar,
• Ajay Tirkey.

Page No.{39}
134. 134. Identify the correct statement about the ‘Kilkari’
programme from the following-
[1] It is a campaign to set up special wards dedicated
[1]
to child health in government hospitals in
Rajasthan.
[2] [2] It is a programme to provide food items to lactating
mothers and newborns at Anganwadi centres.
[3] [3] It is an IVR-based mobile health service providing
information in audio format about pregnancy,
delivery and child care.
[4] [4] This is a program related to the identification and
treatment of children suffering from jaundice.
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
'Kilkari' (meaning 'baby's gurgle'), is a centralised
Interactive Voice Response (IVR) based mobile health
service that delivers 72 audio messages, free, weekly
and time-appropriate, directly to the mobile phones of
families about pregnancy, delivery and child care, from
72 the second trimester of pregnancy to the child turning
one year old.
135. Identify the correctly matched pair/pairs from the
135. following-
A. A. Desert Festival - Jaisalmer
B. B. Mahi Festival - Dungarpur
C. C. Rajasthan Science Festival - Jaipur
D. D. Brassica Conference - Bharatpur
E. E. Jaipur Literature Festival - Jaipur
[1] A, C E [2] A, B D [1] A, C and E [2] A, B and D
[3] B, C D [4] C, D E [3] B, C and D [4] C, D and E
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
• • Desert Festival - Jaisalmer
• • Mahi Festival - Banswara
• • Rajasthan Science Festival - Jaipur
• • Brassica Conference - Jaipur
• • Shri Karan Narendra Krishi Vishwavidyalaya in
collaboration with Mustard Research Committee
organized the fifth Brassica Conference at Rajasthan
Agriculture Research Institute Durgapura.
• • Jaipur Literature Festival : Jaipur
• 17 1-5 2024 • The 17th Edition of JLF was organized in Jaipur from
1 - 5 February, 2024.
136. 136. Where is the first non-transplant organ retrieval
centre established in Rajasthan?
[1] [1] Dr. S.N. Medical College, Jodhpur
[2] [2] Government Medical College, Sikar
[3] [3] Government Medical College, Jhalawar
[4] [4] Government Medical College, Barmer
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
Page No.{40}
137. 2023 137. Who among the following has been awarded the
Ghanshyam Das Birla Award for the year 2023?
[1] Prof. Umesh Vasudev Waghmare
[1]
[2] Prof. Suman Chakraborty
[2] [3] Dr. Rajan Shankaranarayanan
[3] [4] Dr. Aditi Sen De
[4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [4]
Sol. [4] • Dr. Aditi Sen De has been awarded the Ghanshyam
• Das Birla Award for the year 2023 for his work in
the field of quantum information and computation.
2023
• This award is given by the KK Birla Foundation to
Indian scientists residing in India and under the
• age of 50 for outstanding research work in the last
50 five years.
138. Who among the following has been awarded the 58th
Jnanpith Award?
138. 58
[1] Neelmani Phukan, Damodar Mouzo
[2] Jagadguru Rambhadracharya, Gulzar
[1] [3] Satyavrat Shastri, G. Shankar Kurup
[2] [4] Amitav Ghosh, Gopinath Mohanty
[3] [5] Question Not Attempted
[4] Sol. [2]
• The Jnanpith Award is given for contribution to 22
[5]
Indian languages included in the Eighth Schedule
Sol. [2]
and English literature.
• 22 • Jagadguru Rambhadracharya is the founder of Tulsi
Peeth in Chitrakoot and a Sanskrit scholar and
• teacher.
• Gulzar is a great lyricist and writer of Hindi cinema.
• 139. Who among the following has been awarded Bharat
Ratna in the year 2024?
139. 2024
A. Chaudhary Charan Singh
B. P.V. Narasimha Rao
A. C. Morarji Desai
B. D. M.S. Swaminathan
C. E. Karpoori Thakur
D. F. Lal Krishna Advani
[1] A, B C and E [2] A, B, D, E and F
E.
[3] B, C, D, E and F [4] All of the above
F. [5] Question Not Attempted
[1] A, B, C E [2] A, B, D, E F Sol. [2]
[3] B, C, D, E F [4] • So far, a total of 53 persons from India and abroad
[5] have been awarded Bharat Ratna.
Sol. [2] Five persons have been awarded in the year 2024-
• 53 • Chaudhary Charan Singh (Posthumously): Former
Prime Minister
• P.V. Narasimha Rao (Posthumously): Former Prime
2024 Minister
• • M.S. Swaminathan (Posthumously): Father of
• Green Revolution
• • Karpoori Thakur (Posthumously): Former Chief
Minister of Bihar
•
• Lal Krishna Advani: Former Deputy Prime Minister
•
Page No.{41}
140. 66 140. Which of the following Indian musicians were
awarded the 66th Grammy Awards ?
A. B. A. Ustad Zakir Hussain B. Shankar Mahadevan
C. D. C. Rakesh Chaurasia D. Piyush Mishra
E. F. E. Ganesh Rajagopalan F. Sonu Nigam
[1] A, B, C E [2] B, D E [1] A, B, C and E [2] B, D and E
[3] A, B, D F [4] [3] A, B, D and F [4] All of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
66 2024 66th Grammy Awards 2024 were presented to five
musicians from India-
• ( ) • Ustad Zakir Hussain (Tabla)
• ( ) • Shankar Mahadevan (Vocal)
• ( ) • Rakesh Chaurasia (Flute)
• ( ) • Ganesh Rajagopalan (Violin)
• ( ) • Selvaganesh Vinayakram (Kanjira)
141. -19 2024 141. Identify the correct statement(s) regarding ICC
Under-19 World Cup 2024 from the following
A. It was organized in South Africa.
A.
B. India won the title by defeating Australia.
B.
[1] A only [2] B only
[1] A [2] B
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[3] A B [4] A, B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
-19 2024- ICC Under-19 World Cup 2024-
• • Organized in : South Africa
• • Winner : Australia
• • Runner-up : India
142. 2024 142. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following
regarding BWF Para Badminton World
Championship 2024-
A.
A. It was held in Bali, Indonesia.
B. 18
B. India won a total of 18 medals including three gold
medals in this competition.
[1] A [2] A B
[1] A only [2] Both A and B
[3] B [4] A, B
[3] B only [4] Neither A, nor B
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
2024
BWF Para Badminton World Championship 2024-
•
• Organized in : Pattaya, Thailand
• 18 3 4 11
• Indian players won 18 medals : 3 Gold, 4 Silver, 11
Bronze.
•
• Gold Medal : Suhas Yathiraj, Krishna Nagar,
Pramod Bhagat.
143. 143. Who has recently been appointed as India's First
Female Cricket Pitch Curator?
[1] [2] [1] Vanshika Vijay [2] Apurvi Chawla
[3] [4] [3] Ananya Subramaniam [4] Jacintha Kalyan
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
Page No.{42}
144. 144. Consider the following statements-
A. A. Military exercise 'Dosti' is a trilateral military
exercise between India, Maldives and Sri Lanka.
B. Military exercise 'Milan' was conducted between
B.
India and Vietnam.
C.
C. Exercise Vayu Shakti is conducted by the Indian
Air Force.
[1] A [2] B Identify the correct statement(s) from the above
[3] A C [4] B C [1] A only [2] B only
[5] [3] A and C [4] B and C
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
• 2024 -16 Sol. [3]
• Military exercise 'Dosti-16' was held in Male
(Maldives) between India, Maldives and Sri Lanka
•
in February 2024.
51
• Indian Navy's multilateral joint exercise 'Milan' was
• 2024 conducted off the coast of Visakhapatnam in which
145. navies of 51 countries participated.
• Exercise Vayu Shakti 2024 was held in Pokhran.
[1] [2] 145. Which is India's First Survey Vessel Large (SVL) ship
inducted into the Indian Navy?
[3] [4]
[1] INS Khoj [2] INS Anusandhan
[5]
[3] INS Sandhyak [4] INS Sarvekshan
Sol. [3]
[5] Question Not Attempted
•
Sol. [3]
• India's First Survey Vessel Large (SVL) ship INS
Sandhyak commissioned into Indian Navy.
• • This is the first of four ships of the Survey Vessel
(SVL) Large (SVL) ship project being built at Garden
Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers, Kolkata.
• • The project is being conducted by the War Parts
Design Bureau of the Indian Navy.
146. 146. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following
regarding ISRO's second spaceport, which was in
news recently-
A.
A. It is being developed at Kulasekarapattinam in
Thoothukudi district of Andhra Pradesh.
B. B. This spaceport will serve for Small Satellite Launch
(SLV) Vehicles (SLV) developed by the private sector.
C. RH-200 C. The first rocket launched from here is RH-200.
[1] C [2] B [1] C only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] B C [3] A and B [4] B and C
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
• • ISRO's second spaceport is being developed at
Kulasekarapattinam in Thoothukudi district of
Tamil Nadu.
•
• ISRO's first spaceport Satish Dhawan Space Centre
is located at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
Page No.{43}
147. 147. Recently, the American company Intuitive Machines
has become the first private commercial company to
land near the south pole of the moon. Which
spacecraft did it land near the south pole of the moon?
[1] Spot-Mini [2] Odysseus
[1] [2] [3] Spidernaut [4] Dextre
[3] [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [2]
Sol. [2] • Intuitive Machines has become the first private
• commercial company to land near the south pole
of the moon.
• • It landed the Odysseus spacecraft near the south
pole of the moon.
148. 2023
148. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following
regarding Logistics Performance Index 2023-
A. A. It is released by IMF.
B. 50 B. India is among the top 50 countries in this index.
[1] A B [2] A [1] Both A and B [2] A only
[3] B [4] A, B [3] B only [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
2023 Logistics Performance Index 2023
• • Released : World Bank
• 38 (139 ) • India's Rank : 38th (out of 139)
• • First Position : Singapore
149. 149. India's first private spy satellite built by Tata
Advanced System Limited has been launched by-
[1] ISRO [2] NASA
[1] [2]
[3] Space-X [4] JAXA
[3] - [4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] India's first private spy satellite built by Tata Advanced
System Limited has been launched by American
- company Space-X.
150. (GROW) 150. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following
regarding the portal 'GROW' launched by NITI
Aayog
A.
A. Its full name is Greening and Restoration of
Wasteland with Agroforestry.
B. B. It is hosted on Bhuvan website.
C. C. This system provides information on areas suitable
for agroforestry across India.
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A, B C [4] A C [3] A, B and C [4] A and C
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
• • Full Name : Greening and Restoration of Wetlands
with Agroforestry
•
• It is hosted on Bhuvan website.
•
• The system developed provides information on the
area suitable for agroforestry across India.
Page No.{44}
 ANSWER KEY
RAS PRE. 2024 (Indian Polity (Till Article 123)-061) DATE 27 Oct. 2024
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
1 2 1 4 4 1 4 4 3 2 4 3 2 3 3
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 3 1 4 1 4 3 3 2 1 4 3 4 3 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
3 3 1 4 1 3 2 3 1 3 1 3 4 1 2
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 3 3 4 1 2 1 4 * 4 2 3 3 1 4
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
2 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 2 2 4 3 4 3 1
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
2 2 4 1 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 4 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
3 3 2 1 1 4 3 1 3 3 1 3 3 4 2
106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
1 4 4 4 1 3 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 2 2
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
3 4 2 3 4 1 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 3 1
136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
3 4 2 2 1 1 3 4 3 3 4 2 3 3 3

Page No.{45}