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MCQ 25.2.25

The document consists of a series of chemistry questions covering various topics such as oxidation states, reaction products, electrolysis, and properties of compounds. It includes multiple-choice questions related to transition metals, lanthanides, reaction kinetics, and organic chemistry. The questions test knowledge on chemical reactions, properties of substances, and the behavior of different compounds in various conditions.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
16 views5 pages

MCQ 25.2.25

The document consists of a series of chemistry questions covering various topics such as oxidation states, reaction products, electrolysis, and properties of compounds. It includes multiple-choice questions related to transition metals, lanthanides, reaction kinetics, and organic chemistry. The questions test knowledge on chemical reactions, properties of substances, and the behavior of different compounds in various conditions.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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VELAMMAL VIDYALAYA, PARUTHIPATTU

1. Orange solution of K2Cr2O7 turns yellow on adding NaOH due to formation of


(a)chromate ion (b) Chromite ion (c) Cr(III) ion (d) Cr(VI) ion

2. One of the products formed due to the reaction between KMnO4 and HCl is
(a) red liquid (b) MnO2 (c) greenish yellow gas d) HClO4

3. Which one of the following compounds does not decolourise an acidified aqueous solution of KMnO4?
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Ferric chloride (c) Hydrogen peroxide (d) Ferrous sulphate

4. When a small amount of KMnO4 is added to concentrated H2SO4, a green oily compound is obtained
which is highly explosive in nature. Compound may be
(a) MnSO4 (b) Mn2O7 (c) MnO2 (d) Mn2O3

5. Cerium (Z = 58) is an important member of the lanthanides. Which of the following statements about
cerium is incorrect?
(a) The common oxidation states of cerium are + 3 and +4
(b) The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than + 4 oxidation state
(c) The +4 oxidation state of cerium is not known in solutions (d) Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidising agent
6. In context of the lanthanoids, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with increasing atomic number in the series
(b) All the members exhibit + 3 oxidation state
(c) Because of similar properties the separation of lanthanoids is not easy
(d) Availability of 4f-electrons results in the formation of compounds in + 4 state for all the members of the
series.
7. Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with their catalytic
activity? (a) Colour of hydrated ions (b) Variable oxidation states
(c) High enthalpy of atomization (d) Paramagnetic behavior
8. Out of first 3d series the element with highest density is
(a) Fe (b) Co (c) Ni (d) Cu

9. Which one of the following doesnot correctly represent the order correct of the property indicated?
(a) Ti < V < Cr < Mn (increasing number of oxidation states)
(b) Ti < V < Mn < Cr (increasing second ionization enthalpy)
(c)Ti < V <Cr < Mn (increasing order of melting point)
(d) Ti 3+< V3+ <Cr3+ < Mn3+ (increasing magnetic moment)
10. Consider the compounds. (i) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Br2 (ii) [Pt(NH3)4Br2]Cl2 (iii) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2. Which of the
following observations is correct?
(a) (i) will give a pale yellow and (ii) will give a white precipitate with AgNO 3 solution.
(b) (iii) will give a white precipitate with AgNO 3 solution.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) will give white precipitate with AgNO3 solution.
(d) None of the above coordination compounds will give white precipitate with AgNO 3
11. The potential of an electrode change with change in
(a) concentration of ions in solution (b) position of electrodes (c) voltage of the cell
(d) all of these.
12. Of the following metals that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of the aqueous solution of their salts are
(a) Ag and Mg (b) Ag and Al (c) Mg and Al (d) Cu and Cr
13. . The molecular weight of benzoic acid in benzene is determined by depression in freezing point method
corresponds to
(a) ionisation of benzoic acid (b) dimerisation of benzoic acid
(c) trimerisation of benzoic acid (d) solvation of benzoic acid
14. [Fe(CN)6]4– and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ show different colours in dilute solution because
(a) CN– is a strong field ligand and H2O is a weak field ligand hence magnitude of CFSE is different
(b) both CN– and H2O absorb same wavelength of energy
(c) complexes of weak field ligands are generally colourless
(d) the sizes of CN– and H2O are different hence their colours are also different
15. A compound X gives pale yellow colour with AgNO 3 solution while its isomer Y gives white precipitate
with BaCl2. Two compounds are isomers of CoBrSO4⋅5NH3. What could be the possible formula of X and Y?
(a) X = [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br, Y = [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 (b) X = [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4, Y = [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br
(c) X = [Co(NH3)5Br(SO4)], Y = [CoBr(SO4)(NH3)5] (d) X = [Co(Br)5NH3]SO4, Y = [CoBr(SO4)]NH3
16. . When excess of NH3 is added to CuSO4 solution, the deep blue coloured complex is formed. The
complex is
(a) tetrahedral and paramagnetic (b) tetrahedral and diamagnetic
(c) square planar and diamagnetic (d) square planar and paramagnetic.
17. When an aqueous solution of AgNO3 is electrolysed between platinum electrodes, the substances
liberated at anode and cathode are
(a) silver is deposited at cathode and O 2 is liberated at anode
(b) silver is deposited at cathode and H2 is liberated at anode
(c) hydrogen is liberated at cathode and O2 is liberated at anode
(d) silver is deposited at cathode and Pt is dissolved in electrolyte.
18. What will be the rate equation for the reaction 2X + Y → Z, if the order of the reaction is zero?
(a) Rate = k[X][Y] (b) Rate = k (c) Rate = k[X]0[Y] (d) Rate = k[X][Y]0

19. A first order reaction is 20% complete in 10 minutes. What is the specific rate constant for the reaction?
(a) 0.0970 min–1 (b) 0.009 min–1 (c) 0.0223 min–1 (d) 2.223 min–1

20. The overall rate of a reaction is governed by


(a) the rate of fastest intermediate step (b) the sum total of the rates of all intermediate steps
(c) the average of the rates of all the intermediate steps (d) the rate of slowest intermediate step.
21. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 7.0 × 10–4 s–1. If initial concentration of reactant is 0.080
M, what is the half life of reaction?
(a) 990 s (b) 79.2 s (c) 12375 s (d) 10.10 × 10–4 s
22. 50% of a first order reaction is complete in 23 minutes. Calculate the time required to complete 90% of
the reaction.
(a) 70.4 minutes (b) 76.4 minutes (c) 38.7 minutes (d) 35.2 minutes
23. If ethanol and chloroform are present in a molar ratio of 2:3 then what is the vapor pressure at 20° C
if vapor pressures of pure liquids are 5.95 kPa and 21.17 kPa, respectively?
a) 16.692 kPa b) 15.082 kPa c) 8.731 kPa d) 12.038 kPa
24. The mass of (COOH)2.2H2O needed to prepare 500 ml of 0.1 molar solution is
(a) 12.6 gm (b) 6.3 gm (c) 4.5 gm (d) 9.0 gm
25. For a dilute solution containing 2.5 g of non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute in 100 g of water, the
elevation in boiling point at 1 atm pressure is 2°C. Assuming concentration of solute is much lower than the
concentration of solvent, the vapour pressure of solution is (K ) b = − 0.76 K kg mol1
(a) 724 (b) 740 (c) 736 (d) 718
26. Mole fraction of glycerine C3H5(OH)3 in solution containing 36 g of water and 46 g of glycerine is
(a) 0.46 (b) 0.40 (c) 0.20 (d) 0.36
27. The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 10-3 M KCl solution at 25 °C is 1500 ohm. What is the cell
constant if conductivity of 10-3 M KCl solution at 25 °C is 1.5 X 10-4 S cm-1?
(a) 0.225 cm-1 (b) 22.5 cm-1 (c) 0.0225 cm-1 (d) 25 cm-1
28. An aqueous solution of copper sulphate, CuS04 was electrolyzed between platinum electrodes using a
current of 0.1287 ampere for 50 minutes. Calculate Mass of copper deposited at the cathode [Given: 1F = 96,500
C mol-1]
(a) 0.45 g (b) 0.47 g (c) 0.127 g (d) 0.36 g
29. The major organic compound formed by 1,1,1-trichloroethane with silver powder is
(a) acetylene (b) ethane (c) 2-butyne (d) 2-butene

30. Aryl halides are less reactive than alkyl halides towards nucleophile due to
(a) resonance (b) stability of carbonium ion (c) high boiling point (d) None of
these

31. CCl4 is a well known fire extinguisher. However, after using it to extinguish fire, the room
should be well ventilated. This is because
(a) it is flammable at higher temperature (b) it is toxic (d) It is corrosive
(c) it produces phosgene by reaction with water vapour at higher temperature
32. Oxidation of cyclohexene using acidified KMnO4 gives:
a) adipic acid b) hexane 1,6-diol c) cyclohexane carboxylic acid d) Cyclopentane carboxylic
acid
33. . Which of the following gives positive iodoform test?

33. Find the product of the given reaction:

35. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives –


(a) L – glucose (b) D-Fructose (c) D-ribose (d) D-glucose

36. The Pyrimidine bases presenting DNA are –


(a) cytosine and adenine (b) cytosine and guanine (c) cytosine and thymine
(d) cytosine and uracil
37. The strongest base among the following is
(a) C6H5NH2 (b) p-NO2 – C6H4NH2 (c) m-NO2 – C6H4NH2 (d) C6H5CH2NH2

38. . Propanone can be prepared from ethyne by


(a) passing a mixture of ethyne and steam over a catalyst, magnesium at 420°C
(b) passing a mixture of ethyne and ethanol over a catalyst zinc chromite
(c) boiling ethyne with water and H2SO4 (d) treating ethyne with iodine and NaOH.
39. Direct iodination of benzene is not possible because
a) I2 is a oxidizing agent b) HI is unstable c) product is reduced to C6H6 by HI d) ring
gets deactivated
40. The electrophile involved in Riemer-Tiemann reaction of phenol with CHCl3 in presence
of NaOH

41. . KH value for Ar(g), CO2(g), HCHO (g) and CH4(g) are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 × 10–5 and 0.413 respectively.
Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing solubility.

(a) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar (b) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar (c) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO (d) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO

42. The presence or absence of hydroxyl group on which C atom of sugar differentiate RNA
and DNA
a) 2nd b) 3rd c) 4th d) 1st

43. Which of the following will not give aldol condensation?

(a) Phenyl acetaldehyde (b) 2-Methylpentanal (c) Benzaldehyde (d) 1-Phenylpropanone

44. Assertion: Phosphorus chlorides (tri and penta) are preferred over thionyl chloride for
the preparation of alkyl chloride from alcohols.
Reason: Phosphorus chlorides give pure alkyl halides.

45. Assertion: Tert-butyl bromide undergoes Wurtz reaction to give 2, 2, 3, 3-


tetramethylbutane.
Reason: In Wurtz reaction, alkyl halides react with sodium in dry sodium in dry ether to give
hydrocarbon containing double the number of carbon atoms present in the halide.

46. Assertion: Alkyl halides are not soluble in water.


Reason:Although polar in nature, yet alkyl halides are not able to form H-bonds with water
molecules.
47. Assertion: CH3- adds to –CO-group irreversibly but CN- ion adds reversibly.
Reason: CH3- is much stronger nucleophile than CN- ion

48. . Assertion : Specific conductance decreases with dilution whereas equivalent conductance
increases.

Reason : On dilution, number of ions per millilitre decreases but total number of ions increases
considerably

49. Assertion (A): When methyl alcohol is added to water, boiling point of water increases.
Reason (R): When a volatile solute is added to a volatile solvent, elevation in boiling point is
observed.
50. Assertion: In strongly acidic solutions, aniline becomes more reactive towards
electrophilic reagents.
Reason: The amino group being completely protonated in strongly acidic solution, the lone
pair of electrons on the nitrogen is no longer available for resonance.

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