SPOT TEST SERIES (TEST - 08) NEET : 12.03.

2025
[Time : 3 Hours] Full Marks : 720

07. Match the following Column and select the

BIOLOGY
correct option.
01. A biomolecules which perform dynamic functions
Column-I Column-II
of messenger and is also found in some viruses
as main genetic material has : A. Exogenously I. Trichoderma,
(1) Ribose sugar basidiospore Alternaria
B. Endogenously II. Albugo, Rhizopus
(2) Uracil
ascospore
(3) 2 OH group in their sugar
C. Imperfect fungi III. Claviceps, Neurospora
(4) All of these
D. Aseptate mycelium IV. Ustilago, Puccinia
02. Excretion is performed by malpighian tubules in
(1) (A-II), (B-I), (C-III), (D-IV)
cockroach and each tubule is lined by :
(2) (A-IV), (B-III), (C-I), (D-II)
(1) hard chitinous exoskeleton (black in colour).
(3) (A-IV), (B-III), (C-II), (D-I)
(2) glandular and ciliated cells.
(4) (A-II), (B-III), (C-I), (D-IV)
(3) arthrodial membrane.
08. Neural system consists of paired ganglia
(4) glandular and flagellated cells. connected by lateral nerves to a double ventral
03. Transgenic models exist for all of the following nerve cord in :
disease except : (1) Ancylostoma (2) Roundworm
(1) Cancer and Alzheimer’s. (3) Leeches (4) Tapeworm
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis. 09. Which of the following traits are present in wild-
(3) Cystic fibrosis. type Drosophila ?
(4) Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. (1) Red eyes & Brown-body.
04. Read the following statement from (A-E). (2) White eye & Brown-body.
A. The viruses are non-cellular. (3) Miniature wings.
(4) White eye & yellow body.
B. Viruses are inert crystalline structure
outside the living cell. 10. Select the option excluding sexually transmitted
diseases.
C. Cuscuta is an insectivorous plant.
(1) Chlamydiasis, Trichomoniasis, Gonorrhoea
D. Viruses are facultative anaerobic parasites.
(2) Syphilis, Genital worts, Genital herpes
E. Viruses have both RNA and DNA.
(3) Hepatitis-B, HIV infections, Chlamydiasis
How many statement are not incorrect ?
(4) Typhoid, Malaria, Dengue
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five 11. George Gamow, a Physicist, who argued that :
05. The floral formula of cotton is : (1) th e ge neti c co de shoul d co nsti tute a
(1) Epi3–7  O K C A G combination of bases.
+ (5) 5 () (5)
(2) a single codon can code for more than one
(2) % O K(5) C1+2+(2) A(9)+1G1 amino acid.
+
(3) % O P2 A3–6 G1 (3) some amino acid are coded by more than one
+ codon.
(4) Ebr  O K2+2 C4 A2+4 G2 (4) information of the amino acid sequence in
+
06. How many of the following excrete nitrogenous proteins is present in DNA.
waste as uric acid in the form of pellet or paste 12. Which of the following hormones plays a major
in the given box ? role in the differentiation of T-lymphocytes ?
Reptiles, Amphibians, Marine fishes, Birds, Land (1) TSH
snails, Insects, Aquatic insects, Aquatic (2) Thymosins
amphibians. (3) PTH
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 4 (4) More than one option is correct.
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13. Match List I with List II. 17. Opinion of how many registered medical
List I List II practitioner are required for terminate a
pregnancy, if it is lasted more than 12 weeks,
A. Lipases I. used in clearing the but fewer than 24 weeks ?
bottled juices
(1) Two (2) Three
B. Proteases II. used as a ‘clot buster’
(3) One (4) One or Two
C. Streptokinase III. helpful in removing oily
18. Select the incorrect match.
stains from the laundry
(1) G2 phase — Metabolically active state.
D. Cyclosporin A IV. produced by Trichoderma
polysporum (2) S-phase — Chromosome number remain
constant.
V. use d in deterge nt
formulations (3) Diplotene — Formation of synaptonemal
complex.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below. (4) Zygotene — Homologous chromosomes
start pairing together.
(1) (A-I), (B-V), (C-II), (D-IV)
19. How many spermatids are formed from four
(2) (A-III), (B-I), (C-II), (D-V)
secondary spermatocytes and two primary
(3) (A-III), (B-I), (C-II), (D-IV) spermatocytes ?
(4) (A-V), (B-IV), (C-II), (D-I) (1) 8, 8 (2) 2, 4
14. What is common to the techniques ? (3) 4, 4 (4) 4, 8
I. Tissue culture. 20. Mark the mismatch pair.
II. Cryopreservation. (1) Hominiade — Family
III. In vitro fertilization. (2) Sapindales — Order
IV. Seed bank. (3) Muscidae — Order
(1) All are in-situ conservation methods. (4) Triticum — Genus
(2) All are ex-situ conservation methods. 21. Theory of panspermia was proposed to explain
(3) All require ultra modern equipment. the :
(4) All are method of conservation of extinct (1) origin of Earth
organisms. (2) origin of Universe
15. Which of the following is correct regarding (3) origin of first non-cellular forms of life.
nicotine found in tobacco ? (4) origin of Life
(1) Decreases blood pressure. 22. Assertion (A) : Haemophilia is more commonly
(2) Decreases heart rate. seen in human males than in human females.
(3) Stimul ates adrenal gl and to release Reason (R) : Haemophilia is due to an X-linked
adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. recessive mutation.
(4) All of these. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct
16. Match the following Column and select the explanation of (A).
correct option. (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
Column I Column II correct explanation of (A).

A. Date Palm I. for a month (3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

B. Lupine II. 2000 yr (4) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect.

C. Solanaceae III. 30 minute 23. Which of the following statement are true with
respect to gynoecium of ray florets in Asteraceae
D. Wheat Iv. 10,000 yr family.
(1) (A-II), (B-I), (C-IV), (D-III) (1) Hypogynous flower.
(2) (A-II), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-III) (2) Bicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium.
(3) (A-III), (B-II), (C-I), (D-IV) (3) Basal placentation and unilocular ovary.
(4) (A-IV), (B-I), (C-II), (D-III) (4) Both ‘2’ and ‘3’.

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24. Which of the following is incorrect for animals 28. A type of agranulocytes which constitute 6–8
‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the given figure ? percent of leucocytes are :

(1) associated with allergic reactions.

(2) involved in inflammatory reactions.

'X'
(3) phagocytic cells which destroy foreign
organisms entering the body.

(4) responsible for immune responses of the

'Y' body.
(1) Notochord is persist throughout life in ‘X’ and
29. An E.coli having heavy DNA is transferred from
‘Y’.
N15 to N14 medium and is allowed to multiply in
(2) ‘X’ an d ‘Y’ are marin e an imal s wi th N14 medium for 100 minute. What will be the
streamlined body. fraction of light DNA from the DNA extracted from
(3) Mouth is located ventrally in ‘X’ and ‘Y’. the E.coli culture (bacteri a di vide in
(4) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ have four pairs of gills which are 20 min.) ?
covered by an operculum. (1) 93.75% (2) 6.25%
25. Polyembryony/Adeventitive polyembryony occurs
in : (3) 87.50% (4) 12.5%
(1) citrus (2) orobanche 30. Statement I : Genetic modification has been
(3) asteraceae (4) orchid used to create tailor-made plants to supply
alternative resources to industries, in the form
26. Match List I with List II.
of fuels and pharmaceuticals.
List I List II
A. Total lung capacity I. RV + ERV + TV + IRV Statement II : At represent, about 900
recombinant therapeutics have been approved
B. Functional Residual II. TV + IRV for human-use all over the world and In India,
Capacity 230 of these are presently being marketed.
C. Inspiratory capacity III. IRV + ERV + TV
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
D. Vital capacity IV. ERV + RV correct.
V. Vi tal capacity +
Residual volume (2) Only Statement II is correct.
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) Only Statement I is correct.
given below :
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) (A-V), (B-III), (C-I), (D-II)
incorrect.
(2) (A-I), (B-III), (C-II), (D-V)
(3) (A-V), (B-II), (C-IV), (D-I) 31. Select the correct sequence of catalytic cycle of
an enzyme action.
(4) (A-I), (B-IV), (C-II), (D-III)
27. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select I. Enzyme release the product of the reaction.
the correct option.
II. The binding of the substrate induces the
Column I Column II enzyme to alter its shape, fitting more tightly
A. UTRs I. Usually do not code for around the substrate.
any protein
III. The active site of the enzyme, now in close
B. SNPs II. Expressed as RNA proximity of the substrate breaks the
C. Repetitive DNA III. 5 end before AUG chemical bond of the substrate and new
D. ESTs IV. Pronounced as Snips enzyme product complex is formed.
(1) (A-I), (B-II), (C-IV), (D-III) IV. Substrate bind to the active site of the
(2) (A-IV), (B-III), (C-II), (D-I) enzyme, fitting into the active site.
(3) (A-III), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-II) (1) I III  II  IV (2) IV  II  III  I
(4) (A-III), (B-IV), (C-II), (D-I)
(3) IV  II  I  III (4) III  I  II  IV
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32. Which of the following is incorrect match ? NaCl Nutrients
HCO3 H2O +
NaCl
H2 O HCO
Hormone Source Functions K 3

(1) Parathyroid Parathyroid Increases

A B
gland the blood Ca2+ H
+
NH 3 K
+
H
+

levels Cortex

(2) Aldosterone Adrenal Helps in the

cortex mainte nance
of osmotic D
C E
pressure
Thin segment of
(3) Glucagon Pancreas Stimulates Medulla
ascending limb

glycogenolysis
NaCl
(4) Progesterone Ovary Regulate female Urea
H 2O
sexual behaviour
33. Assertion (A) : Mendel conducted artificial
pollination experiment using several true-
breeding pea lines. (1) 70–80% of electrol ytes and water are
reabsorbed by segment ‘A’.
Reason (R) : Mendel never supported blending
inheritance. (2) Segment ‘C’ is permeable to water but
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is correct segment ‘D’ is impermeable to water.
explanation of (A). (3) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not takes place in the segment ‘B’.
correct explanation of (A). (4) Segment ‘E’ concentrates the filtrate as it
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. moves down and in segment ‘C’ concentrated
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false. filtrate is diluted as it moves upwards.
34. The protein products of the following Bt toxin 38. Which of the following amino acid coded by
genes CryIAc and CryIIAb are responsible for six-type of codon ?
controlling : (1) Threonine (2) Proline
(1) Cotton bollworms (2) Armyworm (3) Methionine (4) Arginine
(3) Corn borer (4) Tobacco budworm 39. Which one of the following will not help in the
35. Which of the following group is absolutely creation of proton gradient for the ATP formation?
essential functional component of the ecosystem ? (1) Photolysis of water in thylakoid lumen.
(1) Producer, consumer and decomposer
(2) Decrease in acidic level in thylakoid lumen.
(2) Herbivores and producer
(3) Activation of NADP reductase.
(3) Producer
(4) Accumulation of proton in thylakoid lumen.
(4) Detrivores
36. How many of following statements is/are 40. Which is the correct set of hormones which work
incorrect ? through the following pathway given below ?
A. Ti plasmid is obtained from the Escherichia
coli.
B. The first artificial recombinant DNA was
Hormone
constructed by Boyer and Cohen in 1972.
C. In animals, retroviruses can transform the
normal cells into cancerous cells.
Nucleus
D. Recognition site for BamHI is present in tetR
Genome
region of pBR322.
E. Bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for mRNA

obtaining the desired product. Proteins

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4
Physiological responses
37. Which of the following statement is incorrect (Tissue growth and
regarding reabsorption and secretion of major differentiation)

substances at different parts of the nephron (1) Progesterone, FSH (2) Cortisol, Testosterone
marked A, B, C, D and E given below ? (3) Insulin, Glucagon (4) FSH, Estrogen
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41. Which of the following is not true about 47. A molecule that can act as genetic material must
secondary metabolites ? fulfill the following criteria.
(1) Organic compound of diverse nature. A. It should be able to express itself in the form
(2) They may have direct role in photosynthesis, of Mendelian characters.
reproduction & respiration.
B. It should be able to generate its replica.
(3) They may act as toxin or pigment or drugs or
lectins or alkaloids. C. It should be chemically and structurally
stable.
(4) Distribution is limited and restricted to
special taxonomic group. D. It should provide the scope for rapid mutation
42. Match List I with List II. that are required for evolution.
List I List II (1) A & B (2) All except B
A. Pineal gland I. Located between lungs (3) All except C (4) All except D
behind sternum on the
48. Which of the given bicontrol agents is a target
ventral side of aorta.
agent and attack insects and arthropods harmful
B. Thymus gland II. Located on either side to plants ?
of the trachea.
(1) Trichoderma (2) Baculovirus
C. Pituitary gland III. Located in a bo ny
cavity cal led sel la (3) Mycorrhiza (4) Oscillatoria
tursica.
49. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select
D. Thyroid gland IV. Located on the dorsal the correct option.
side of forebrain.
Column I Column II
Choose the correct option from the options given
below : A. Coralloid root I. Sequoia
(1) (A-I), (B-III), (C-IV), (D-II) B. Branched stem II. Cycas
(2) (A-IV), (B-II), (C-III), (D-I) C. Sunken stomata III. Cedrus
(3) (A-I), (B-III), (C-II), (D-IV) D. Tallest free IV. Conifers
(4) (A-IV), (B-I), (C-III), (D-II)
(1) (A-I), (B-III), (C-IV), (D-II)
43. A disorder caused by non-disjunction in sex
chromosome is/are : (2) (A-II), (B-III), (C-IV), (D-I)
(1) Turner syndrome & Klinefelter syndrome. (3) (A-II), (B-III), (C-I), (D-IV)
(2) Down’s syndrome & Turner syndrome. (4) (A-I), (B-III), (C-II), (D-IV)
(3) Haemophilia & Colour blindness. 50. A part of brain which is located between the
(4) More than one thalamus/hypothalamus of the forebrain and
44. The infective stage of malaria causing pathogen pons of the hindbrain :
in humans and its site of storage in mosquito (1) is involved in the regulation of sexual
respectively are : behaviour.
(1) Sporozoites, Salivary glands.
(2) integrates information received from the
(2) Sporozoites, Gut. semicircular canal of the ear.
(3) Gametocytes, RBCs (3) receives and integrates visual and auditory
(4) Sporozoites, Liver inputs.
45. The immediate next lower category to kingdom (4) control cardiovascular reflexes and gastric
in taxonomical hierarchy plants is : secretions.
(1) Division (2) Order
51. The component of the ecosystem are seen to
(3) Class (4) Family function as a unit when you consider which of
46. How many in the box are possible ill-effects of the following aspects.
using contraceptives ?
(1) Productivity
Breast cancer, Abdominal pain, Breakthrough
(2) Decomposition
bleeding, Irregular menstrual bleeding, Nausea,
(3) Energy flow & Nutrient cycle
Still births, Ectopic pregnancies, Abortions
(4) All of these.
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 4
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52. Choose the incorrect match with respect to 58. Assertion (A) : Fibrous joints do not allow any
malvaceae family. movement.
(1) Habit — Herb or shrub. Reason (R) : Flat skull bones fuse end-to-end
(2) Stems — Branched. with the help of loose fibrous connective tissues
in the form of sutures, to form the cranium.
(3) Roots — Fibrous root system.
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Leaves — Reticulate venation.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
53. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of CO 2 in correct explanation of (A).
alveoli, atmo spheric air an d tissues are
respectively : (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(1) 45, 40, 45 (2) 45, 159, 40
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) 40, 0.3, 40 (4) 40, 0.3, 45
59. In the following human pedigree, the filled
54. Select odd one regarding basal placentation. symbols represent the affected individual.
(1) Lettuce (2) Sunflower Identify the type of given pedigree. ( symbol is
(3) Marigold (4) Tomato carrier female).
55. How many of the following statements are not
incorrect ?
A. Life appeared four billion years back.
B. The first non-cellular forms of life could have
originated 3 billion years back.
C. Thorn of Cucurbita and tendrils of Bougainvillae
represent homology.
(1) Autosomal recessive
D. Tiger cat and sugar glider are Australin
marsupials. (2) X-linked dominant

E. Ginkgos evolved from Psilophyton. (3) X-linked recessive

(1) 3 (2) 5 (4) Autosomal dominat

(3) 4 (4) 2 60. Wh ich of the follo wing phe nome na may
accentuate variations leading to appearance of
56. Which of the following statement is not correct new species and evolution ?
regarding generation and conduction of nerve
impulse ? (1) Single generation changes.

(1) When a neuron is not conducting any (2) Acquired traits.

impulse, the axon al membrane is (3) Individual adaptation.
comparatively more permeable to K+ (4) Habitat fragmentation and genetic drift.
(2) When a neuron is in resting state, the axonal 61. Statement I : In lac operon a polycistronic
membrane is nearly impermeable to Na+ structural gene is regulated by a common
(3) The resting potential difference across the promoter & regulatory genes.
resting plasma membrane is called as the Statement II : BAC & YAC are the common
electrical potential. vectors used in HGP.
(4) Neurons are excitable cells because their (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
membranes are in a polarised state.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
57. Select the mismatched pair.
(3) Only Statement I is true.
(1) Pyramid of biomass — usually upright
(4) Only Statement II is true.
ecosystem terrestrial
62. In Rana tigrina, midbrain is characterised by :
(2) Pyramid of energy — upright in grassland
ecosystem (1) Corpura quadrigemina.
(3) Pyramid of number — inverted in grassland (2) a pair of optic lobes.
ecosystem (3) a pair of olfactory diencephalon.
(4) Pyramid energy — upright in aquatic (4) a pair of olfactory lobes.
ecosystem
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63. Which of the following is not true about meiosis? 70. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option
(1) Four haploid cell are formed after meiosis-II given below.
In human, the deoxygenated blood pumped into
(2) Meiosis involved replication of DNA
(3) It also involves recombination between the A is passed on to the lungs from where
homologous chromosome. B
the oxygenated blood is carried by the into
(4) Decreases the genetic variability in the
population of organism from one generation the C .
to the next. A B C
64. High concentration of LH and estrogen lead to : (1) Pulmonary artery Pulmonar veins Left atrium
(1) release of ovum from the primary follicle. (2) Pulmonary veins Pulmonary artery Left atrium
(2) rupture of secondary follicle and release of (3) Pulmonary artery Pulmonary veins Right atrium
ovum. (4) Pulmonary veins Pulmonary artery Left ventricle
(3) release of ovum from the tertiary follicle.
71. Increase in CO2 concentration upto (i) can
(4) release of ovum from the Graafian follicle.
cause an increase in CO2 fixation rate, beyond
65. Mark the mismatch pair. this the level can become damaging over long
(1) Axoneme — Cilia & flagella. periods identify is :
(2) Cytoskeleton — Me chan ical su pport, (1) 0.04% (2) 0.05% (3) 0.03% (4) 0.045%
motility. 72. Statement I : Cells are bombarded with high
(3) Centrosome — 9 + 0 arrangement of velocity micro-particles of tungsten coated with
microtubule. DNA in a method known as gene gun.
(4) Acrocentric — Centromere slightly away Statement II : The role of DNA ligase in the
from the middle of the construction of a recombinant DNA molecule is
chromosome. formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky
66. Tunica media is : ends of DNA fragments.
(1) middle lining of squamous endothelium with (1) Only Statement II is incorrect.
collagen fibres. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) middle layer of smooth muscle and elastic correct.
fibres (3) Only Statement I is incorrect.
(3) comparatively thin in the artery. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
(4) Both ‘2’ and ‘3’
73. Which of the following enzymes catalyse the
67. Select the symbol which is not correct regarding
removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA ?
floral formula of Hibiscus.
(1) Endonucleases (2) BamH I
(1) A() G (2) C5 A( )
(3) Exonucleases (4) DNA ligases
(3) K(5) C5 (4) K(s) C5 74. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
68. Select the mismatch pair. (1) SnRNA — RNA Polymerase Type III
(1) False ribs — 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of (2) Nucleoid — DNA and histone.
ribs. (3) Dinucleotide — 5–3 phosphodiester bond.
(2) Floating ribs — Last 2 pairs of ribs. (4) HIV — Follow central dogma.
(3) Arthritis — Inflammation of joints. 75. Choose incorrect about the experiment of
(4) Sternum — Flat bone on the dorsal Van Niel.
midline of thorax. (1) He used CO2 and H2S as substrate.
69. Which of the following is an autosomal dominant (2) In photosynthesis CO2 splits to produce free
trait ? O2.
(1) Sickle cell-anaemia & Thalassemia. (3) Sulphur compound is used by bacteria as
source of H+ and e–.
(2) Colour-blind & Haemophilia.
(4) Experimental organisms were purple sulphur
(3) Myotonic dystrophy
and green sulphur bacteria.
(4) Phenylketonuria & Cystic fibrosis.
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76. How many of the following statements are correct 82. Lymphoid tissue located within the lining of the
with respect to salient features of chordates ? major tracts ( respiratory, dig esti ve and
urogenital tracts) constitutes about :
A. Central nervous system is dorsal, hollow and
single. (1) 90 per cent of the lymphoid tissue in human
body.
B. Pharynx perforated by gill slits.
(2) 50 per cent of the lymphoid tissue in human
C. Notochord is absent. body.
D. Heart is dorsal (if present). (3) 40 per cent of the lymphoid tissue in human
E. Post-anal tail is absent. body.
(4) 60 per cent of the lymphoid tissue in human
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2 body.
77. Identify the correct statement about population 83. From among the situations given below, choose
attributes from the following. the one that prevents both autogamy and
(1) Sex ratio is an population attribute. geitonogamy.
(2) Age pyramid generally show age distribution (1) Dioecious plant with bisexual flower.
of individual in a separate diagram for same (2) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female
place. flowers.
(3) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flower.
(3) An expanding population pyramid has a
narrow base. (4) None of these.
84. Given below are two statements :
(4) Both ‘2’ and ‘3’.
Assertion (A) : A decrease in blood flow to the
78. Compound epithelium is multi-layered which atria of the heart can cause the release of ANF.
covers the :
Reason (R) : ANF can cause vasodilation (dilation
(1) inner lining of ducts of salivary glands. of blood vessels) and thereby increases the blood
(2) inner surface of fallopian tubes. pressure.
(1) Both (A) are (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(3) inner surface of bronchioles.
explanation of (A).
(4) walls of blood vessels. (2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
79. Which level does natural selection operate to (3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
evolve desired traits ? (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(1) Tissue level (2) Population level correct explanation of (A).
(3) Cellular level (4) Organism level 85. In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell (MMC)
forms megaspores without undergoing meiosis
80. How many of the following statement is/are not and if one of the megaspores develops into an
correct with respect to muscle ? embryo sac, its nuclei would be :
A. Visceral muscles are known as involuntary (1) Diploid
muscles. (2) Triploid
B. Each sarcolemma is lined by the plasma (3) Haploid
membrane called muscle fibre. (4) A few haploid and a few diploid
C. Skeletal muscles are primarily involved in 86. Compare fermentation and aerobic respiration.
the transportation of food through the A. In fermentation only a partial breakdown of
digestive tract. glucose where as in aerobic it is completely
D. Each fascicle contains a number of muscle degraded to CO2 and H2O.
fibres. B. NADH is oxidised to NAD+ rather slowly in
E. Based on appearance, cardiac muscles are fermentation, however the reacton is very
vigorous in case of aerobic.
straited and voluntary.
C. In fermentatio n ne t gain o f on ly two
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2 molecules of ATP whereas many more
81. Which of the following plants are used during molecules of ATP are generated under
discovery of auxin by Charles Darwin & Francis aerobic condition for each molecule of
Darwin and F.W. Went  glucose.
(1) Canary grass & Rice plant Select the correct option.
(1) ‘A’ and ‘B’ are incorrect.
(2) Oat & Conifers
(2) ‘A’ and ‘C’ are incorrect.
(3) Canary grass & Oat Seedling
(3) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are incorrect.
(4) Rice plants & Conifers. (4) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct.
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87. In human females, meiosis-I starts : 93. Statement I : When a Si sample is doped with
(1) between menarche and menopause. Boron, it becomes P-type and when doped by
Arsenic it becomes N-type semiconductor such
(2) before birth during foetal stage of life.
that P-type has excess holes and N-type has
(3) at puberty. excess electrons.
(4) after puberty but before menopause. Statement II : When such P-type and N-type
88. Statement I : Some amino acids are coded by semiconductors, are fused to make a junction,
more than one codon. a current will automatically flow which can be
Statement II : Genetic codes are unambiguous detected with an externally connected ammeter.
& specific. In the light of above statements, choose the most
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. appropriate answer from the options given below.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct.
(3) Only Statement I is true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) Only Statement II is true. incorrect.
89. The plant hormone used to hastens the maturity
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
period and early seed production in conifers.
incorrect.
(1) Auxin (2) GA
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) ABA (4) Cytokinin correct.
90. Inflorescence of asteraceae family is : 94. A planet revolves about the sun in elliptical orbit.
(1) Spike of spikelets  dA 
(2) Solitary, axillary The areal velocity   of the plane t is
 dt 
(3) Capitulum or Head of recemose 8 × 1020 m2/s. The least distance between
(4) Terminal racemose planet and the sun is 2 × 1016 m. Then the
maximum speed of the planet in km/s is
(1) 80 km/sec. (2) 40 km/sec.
PHYSICS (3) 20 km/sec. (4) 160 km/sec.
91. A rigid rod is placed against the wall as shown 95. Steam at 100°C is passed into 109 g of water at
in figure. When its velocity of lower end is 5 m/s 15°C. When water acquires a temperature of
and its base makes an angle  = 30° with 95°C, the mass of water present will be :
horizontal, then the vertical velocity of its B will
be : [Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g–1 °C–1 and
latent heat of stem = 540 cal g–1]
B (1) 120 g (2) 116 g (3) 135 g (4) 125 g
vB = ? 96. Assertion : In the given circuit if lamp B or C
fuses then light emitted by lamp A decreases.
Lamps A, B and C are identical.
 A A
vA = 5 m/sec

5 5
(1) m/s (2) m/s
3 2 3 V
B C
(3) 10 3 m/s (4) 5 3 m/s
92. Two metal wires of identical dimensions are Reason : Voltage of A decreases.
connected in parallel. If 1 and 2 are the (1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
conductivities of the metal wires respectively, Reason i s th e co rre ct e xpl anation of
the effective conductivity of the combination is: Assertion.
1  2 (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(1) (2) 1 + 2 the Reason is not correct explanation of
2
Assertion.
212 (3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) 2(1 + 2) (4)    (4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
1 2
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97. Light with an energy flux of 36 W cm–2 falls on a 102. Identify the correct statement about a stationary
non-reflecting surface at normal incidence. If wave.
the surface has an area of 30 cm2, then find the
average force exerted on the surface during a (1) Amplitude at the anitnodel is the same as
span of 45 min. that at the node.

(1) 3.6 × 10–6 N (2) 5.4 × 10–5 N (2) Stationary wave is formed by superposition
of two waves of different frequencies.
(3) 2.4 × 10–7 N (4) 9.6 × 10–8 N
(3) The pressure change is least at the antinode.
98. The logic performed by the circuit shown in
figure is equivalent to : (4) The energy of oscillation is minimum at the
antinode.

A 103. Two equal point charges q are fixed at x = –a and

x = +a on x-axis. Another point charge Q is placed
Y
at the origin. The change in electrical potential
B energy of Q, when it is displaced by a small
amount x along x-axis, is approximately
(1) AND gate (2) OR gate proportional to :

(3) NAND gate (4) NOR gate (1) x (2) x2

99. A gas is compressed adiabatically, which one of
1 1
the following statement is NOT true. (3) 2 (4)
x x
(1) The change in the internal energy is equal
104. Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.4 mm
to the work done on the gas.
and illuminated with light of wavelength
(2) The temperature of the gas increases. = 5000 Å. If the screen is placed at 1.2 m from
the slits. The distance of the fourth bright image
(3) There is no heat supplied to the system. from the centre will be :
(4) There is no change in the internal energy. (1) 12 mm (2) 6 mm
100. For a periodic motion represented by the equation (3) 9 mm (4) 18 mm
y = 2(sin t + cos t), the amplitude of the motion
is : 105. Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of
light because :
(1) 4 (2) 3 2
(1) there is minimum frequency of light below
which no photoelectrons are emitted
(3) 2 2 (4) 2 3
(2) the maximum energy of photoelectron
101. Match List I with List II. depends only one the frequency of light and
not on its intensity
List I List II
(3) photoelectric effect is an instantaneous
A. Surface tension I. kg m–1 s–1 process
B. Energy density II. kg m s–1 (4) all the above choices are correct
C. Coefficient of viscosity III. kg m–1 s–2 106. In the circuit shown in figure, what will be the
D. Impulse IV. kg s–2 reading of the voltmeter ?

Choose the correct answer from the options V 440 V 440 V

given below :
(1) (A-IV), (B-III), (C-I), (D-II) R L C
220 V, 50 Hz
(2) (A-II), (B-I), (C-III), (D-IV)
(3) (A-IV), (B-III), (C-II), (D-I)
(1) 220 V (2) 110 V
(4) (A-III), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-II)
(3) 55 V (4) 880 V
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107. A Carnot engine has the same efficiency 114. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at
between 1000 K to 640 K and x K to 800 K. The one end and open at other end are 260 Hz and
value of x is (x > 800 K) 300 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of
the system ?
(1) 1425 K (2) 1250 K
(1) 40 Hz (2) 20 Hz
(3) 1150 K (4) 1080 K
(3) 80 Hz (4) 130 Hz
108. A gaseous mixture consists of 24 g of helium 115. Formation of real image using a biconvex lens
and 64 g of oxygen. The ratio C P/CV of the is shown here.
mixture is :
(1) 1.68 (2) 1.57 µg = 1.5
(3) 1.49 (4) 1.74 screen
^ 2f
109. A proton is projected with velocity v  4 i in a
^ ^ ^ 2f f f
region where magnetic field, B  (8 i  2 j  k )T
^
and electric field, E  8 i  Vm–1. Then, find out
the net acceleration of proton.
(1) 1150 m/s2 (2) 575 m/s2  4
If the whole set up is immersed in water  
(3) 2125 m/s2 (4) 275 m/s2 3
without disturbing the object and the screen
110. Which of the following fusion reactions will not
positions, what will one observe on the screen?
result in the net release of energy ?
(1) No change (2) Image disappears
(1) 35Cl + 35Cl (2) 4He + 4He
(3) Diminished image (4) Erect real image
(3) 1H + 1H (4) 6Li + 6Li 116. A galvanometer of resistance G can measure
111. Following figures show the arrangement of bar 0.5A current. If a shunt S is used to convert it
magnets in different configurations. Each into an ammeter to measure 20 A current. The
 G
magnet has magnetic dipole moment M . Which ratio of is :
configuration has highest net magnetic dipole S
moment ?
(1) 39 (2) 41
N 19 117
(3) (4)
N S 2 2
(1) S N (2)
S S N 117. Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and
4I respectively about their axis of rotation. If
their kinetic energies of rotation are equal, their
S S angular momenta will be in the ratio
30° 60° (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(3) S N N (4) S N N
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 1
112. An iceberg floats in sea water and the densities 118. Which one of the following is m – T graph for
of ice and sea water are 920 kg m–3 and 1040 kg perfectly black body ? m is the frequency of
m–3 respectively. What fraction of iceberg is radiation with maximum intensity. T is the
outside the water surface ? absolute temperature.
(1) 9.5% (2) 8.5%
m (Hz)

(3) 88.5% (4) 11.5% A B

D
113. A body moves in a circle covers equal distance C
in equal intervals of time. Which of the following
remains constant ? T(K)
(1) Displacement (2) Velocity
(1) D (2) C
(3) Speed (4) Acceleration
(3) B (4) A

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119. 16 identical cells, each of emf E and internal 125. Unpolarised light of intensity 128 Wm–2 passes
resistance r, are connected in series. If polarity through three polarisers su ch that the
of four cells is reversed then the total internal transmission axis of the last polariser is crossed
resistance in the circuit will be : with the first. If the intensity of the emerging
light is 4 Wm–2. What is the angle between the
(1) 16 r (2) 12 r transmission axes of the first two polarisers ?
(3) 20 r (4) 8 r (1) 30° (2) 75°
120. The magnetic field at a perpendicular distance (3) 45° (4) 60°
of 3 cm from an infinite straight current carrying 126. The electric potential at a point (x, y) in the x – y
conductor is 8 × 10–6 T. The current in the wire plane is given by V = –kxy. The field intensity at
is : a distance r from the origin varies as
(1) 1.2 A (2) 0.6 A 1 1
(1) (2) r2 (3) r (4)
(3) 2.4 A (4) 1.8 A r r2

121. An equilateral prism deviates a ray through 40° 127. Figure shows (x, t), (y, t) diagram of a particle
for the two anlges of incidence differing by 30°. moving in two-dimensions.
The angle of incidence is :
x (m) y (m)
(1) 35° (2) 65° 8 8
6 6
(3) 60° (4) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’
4 4
122. Assertion : Value of radius of gyration of a body 2 2
depends on axis of rotation.
1s 2s 3s 4s t(s) 1s 2s 3s t(s)
Reason : Radius of gyration is root mean square (i) (ii)
distance of particles of the body from the axis of
rotation. If the particle has a mass 1500 g, find the force
(direction and magnitude) acting on the particle.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason i s th e co rre ct e xpl anation of (1) 6.3 N along a line which makes 30° with
Assertion. +x-axis
(2) 9.6 N along a line which makes 60° with
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
+x-axis
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion. (3) 3 N along +x-axis
(4) 6 N along +y-axis
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
128. A long solenoid has 1500 turns. When a current
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true. of 3 A flows through it, then the magnetic flux linked
123. Six identical bulbs are connected in series and with each turn of the solenoid is 2 × 10–3 Wb. The
these together dissipate a power P. Now, if the self-inductance of the solenoid is :
bulbs are connected in parallel, then the power (1) 0.5 H (2) 1 H
dissipated will be : (3) 0.25 H (4) 2 H
(1) 6 P (2) 18 P 129. A galvanometer having resistance of 75 
requires a current of 200 µA to give full scale
P deflection. How much resistance is required to
(3) (4) 36 P convert it into an ammeter of range of 5 A ?
36
(1) 4.5 × 10–4  (2) 1.5 × 10–4 
124. Potential energy of electron in nth orbit of
(3) 9 × 10–3  (4) 3 ×10–3 
hydrogen atom, is given by :
130. The wavelength of a photon and the de-Broglie
hRc Rhc wavelength of an electron have the same value.
(1)  2 (2)  Find the ratio of energy of photon to the kinetic
2n n2 energy of electron in terms of mass m, speed of
light c and Planck’s constant (h).
2Rhc 2Rh2c
(3)  2 (4)  2hmc mc 2mc hmc
n n2 (1) (2) (3) (4)
 2h h 2
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131. Two blocks A and B of masses 5m and m 138. Choose from the given species in which d2sp3
respectively are connected by a massless and hybridisation is :
inextensible string. The whole system is
suspended by a massless spring as shown in (1) SF6 (2) [PtCl4]2–
figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) BrF5
B immediately after the string is cut, are
respectively 139. The correct stability order of resonating
structure is :

–   –
NH==C==O H N— C  O : H N  C — O
A 5m (A) (B) (C)

B m (1) A > C > B (2) A > B > C

g g g g g (3) B > C > A (4) B > A > C
(1) ,g (2) , g (3) , g (4) ,
5 4 6 3 2
140. Ortho-xylene on ozonolysis (O3/Zn–H2O) gives.
132. Two bodies of masses m and 3m are separated
by a distance R. The distance of the centre of O
CHO
mass of the bodies from the mass m is : (1) , CH3—C—CHO
CHO
2 3 3 3
(1) R (2) R (3) R (4) R O
3 5 4 8
CH3—C
133. If T is the surface tension of the liquid, the (2) , CH3—C—CHO
change in surface energy by splitting a liquid CH3—C O
O
drop of radius R into 216 droplets of radius r is :
(1) 40R2T (2) 12R2T (3) 24R2T (4) 20R2T CH3—C==O CHO
(3) , CHO
134. If a planet has thrice the mass of earth and two CH3—C==O
times the radius (R) of earth, then the escape
velocity of the planet is (ve = escape velocity of CH3 O
C O CHO
earth)
(4) C , ,
CH3—C—CHO CHO
CH3 O
2 3 5 1
(1) ve (2) ve (3) ve (4) ve
3 2 3 2 141. In H-spectrum, calculate the ratio of the
minimum frequency of Lyman and Balmer
135. A particle is move d from a po siti on
 ^ ^ ^  ^ ^ ^ series.
r1  4 i  3 j  2 k m to a position r2  (6 i  4 j  k)m
 ^ ^ ^ 5 27
under the action of a force F  (5 i  2 j  2 k)N .
(1) (2)
The work done is equal to : 27 5

(1) 18 J (2) 24 J (3) 27 J (4) 15 J (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4

142. Which of the following graph is correct for a first
order reaction R P ?
CHEMISTRY
136. The correct order of melting point is : Y Y
(1) Tl > Al > B > Ga (2) Ga > B > Tl > Al
[R] [P]
(3) B > Al > Tl > Ga (4) Al > Ga > Tl > B (1) (2)
137. 2 moles of AB3 was introduced in an evacuated
vessel of 1 L capacity. At high temperature, the X X
time time
gas undergoes partial dissociation according to
the equation
Y Y
2AB3 (g)  A 2 (g)  3B2 (g)
At equilibrium, the concentration of AB3 was [R] [P]
found to be 1 M. What is the value of KC ? (3) (4)
(1) 1.7 mol2 L–2 (2) 6.75 mol2 L–2
X X
(3) 0.42 mol2 L–2 (4) 27 mol2 L–2 time time

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143. Assertion (A) : Fluorine has most negative 148. The correct stability order of the following
electron gain enthalpy in its group. species/molecules is :
Reason (R) : Oxygen has least negative electron
gain enthalpy in its group.
(1) Both (A) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A). P Q R

(2) Both (A) and (R) ddare true and (R) is not the (1) Q > R > P (2) R > Q > P
correct explanation of (A). (3) Q > P > R (4) P > Q > R
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. 149. Assertion (A) : In H-atom the energy of 3d-orbital
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true. is greater than 4s orbital.
144. Fe(CO)5 is tri gonal bipy ramidal wh ereas Reason (R) : For multielectronic species an
[CO2(CO)8] displays. orbital with lower value of (n + l) has energy
smaller than the orbital with larger value of
(1) One CO—CO bond, two bridging CO and six (n + l).
terminal CO.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
(2) One CO—CO bond, two bridging CO and four Reason is not the correct explanation of
terminal CO. Assertion.
(3) Three CO—CO bond, two bridging CO and four (2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
terminal CO. (3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Four CO—CO bond, three bridging CO and six (4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
terminal CO. Reason i s th e co rre ct e xpl anation of
145. 1.5 Ampere current is passed through molten Assertion.
copper sulfate solution for 10 minutes. What 150. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing
mass of copper will get deposited ? (Cu = 63.5) order of unimolecular nucleophilic substitution
(F = 96500 C) reaction rate.
(1) 0.29 g (2) 0.14 g
(3) 0.46 g (4) 0.50 g A. Cl
B.
146. Match the Column-I with Column-II. Cl
Column I Column II
Cl
A. TiO I. Photography Br
C. D.
B. MnO2 II. Sul phuric acid
manufature
(1) C > A > D > B (2) A > B > C > D
C. V2O5 III. Dry battery cell
(3) D > C > A > B (4) B > D > A > C
D. AgBr IV. Pigment industry
151. The rate law for the reaction A + B C is :
(1) (A-I), (B-IV), (C-III), (D-II) Rate = k[A] [B]1/3. If the concentration of B is
(2) (A-II), (B-I), (C-IV), (D-III) increased by eight times while that of A is reduce
to half then the rate of reaction becomes:
(3) (A-III), (B-II), (C-I), (D-IV)
(1) Twice (2) Thrice
(4) (A-IV), (B-III), (C-II), (D-I)
(3) No change (4) Half
147. In the given reaction sequence :
152. Lanthanoid ions with 4f7 configuration are :
Br A. Eu2+ B. Gd3+ C. Eu3+ D. Tb3+
Br2 + H2O NaNO 2 + H Cl C2 H5 OH
Select the correct answer from the options given
X Y Z below :
Br Br
(A) A, B (2) A, D (3) B, D (4) B, C
‘X’ will be : 153. Which one gives only one monosubstitution
product on monochlorination is ?
(1) Benzoic acid (2) Salicylic acid
(1) n-Pentane (2) Neopentane
(3) Phenol (4) Aniline
(3) Isopentane (4) n-butane
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154. When 5% solution of sucrose is isotonic with 1% 160. When 81.0 g of aluminium is allowed to react
solution of compound ‘A’, then the molecular with 128.0 g of oxygen gas, the mass of
weight of compound A is : aluminium oxide produced in grams is :
(1) 32.4 (2) 68.4 Given :
(3) 129.6 (4) 32.2 Molar mass of Al is 27.0 g mol–1
155. Assertion : The pH of a buffer solution does not
change significantly with the addition of a small Molar mass of O2 is 32.0 g mol–1
amount of acid or base. (1) 102 g (2) 129 g (3) 153 g (4) 43 g
Reason : A buffer solution consists of a mixture
of a weak acid and its conjugate base or a weak HI
161. CH 2 O  A +B
base and its conjugate acid, which work together
to neutralize added acids or bases, maintaining
the pH. the product ‘A’ and ‘B’ is respectively
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and
the Reason is the correct explanation of the (1) CH2 I + OH
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but I
the Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion (2)
(3) Assertion is correct, but the Reason is
incorrect. OH
(4) Assertion is incorrect, but the Reason is
correct. I
156. The number of molecules/ions that show linear
(3) CH
geometry among the following is :

SO2, BeCl2, CO2, N3 , NO2, F2O, XeF2, N O2 , I3 , O3
OH
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 7
(4) I+ CH2 OH
157. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing
order of their dipole moment is :
162. The maximum covalency of a nonmetallic, group-
HBr, H2S, NF3, CHCl3
15 element ‘E’ with weakest E—E bond is :
(1) CHCl3 > H2S > HBr > NF3
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 4
(2) H2S > HBr > NF3 > CHCl3
(3) HBr > H2S > CHCl3 > NF3 163. Match the List-I with List-II.
(4) NF3 > H2S > CHCl3 > HBr List-I List-II
158. In the following sequence of reaction, the product (Redox Reaction) (Type of Reaction)
‘Z’ is : A. CH4(g) + 2O2(g) I. Disproportionation
HNO2 Oxidation (1) CH3MgBr 
NH2 X Y Z   CO2 (g)  reaction
(2) H3O
2H2O(l)
(1) Butan–1–ol

(2) Butan–2–ol B. 2NaH(s)   II. Combustion reaction
(3) 2–methyl–2–propanol 2Na(s) + H2(g)
(4) 2–methyl–1–propanol C. V2O5(s) + 5Ca(s) III. Decomposition reaction
159. The molar solubility(s) of zirconium phosphate 

 2V(s) + 5CaO(s)
with molecular formula (Zr 4

)3 PO34 4  is given 
D. 2H2O2 (g)   IV. Displacement reaction
by relation :
2H2O(l) + O2(g)
1 1
Choose the correct answer from the options
 K 7  K 6
(1)  sp  (2)  sp  given below :
 6912   5348  (1) (A-II), (B-III), (C-IV), (D-I)
1 1 (2) (A-II), (B-III), (C-I), (D-IV)
 Ksp  7  Ksp  3
(3)   (4)   (3) (A-III), (B-IV), (C-I), (D-II)
 8435   9612  (4) (A-IV), (B-I), (C-II), (D-III)
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164. The correct order of the following complexes in Fehling solution
term of their crystal field stabilization energies (3) Ph – CHO 
is :
K2Cr2O7 /H
(1) [Co(NH3)4]2+ < [Co(NH3)6]2+ < [Co(en)3]3+ < (4) Ph – CH2 – OH  
[Co(NH3)6]3+
169. Which of the following mixing of 1M base and
(2) [Co(NH3)4]2+ < [Co(NH3)6]2+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+ < 1M acid leads to the largest increase in
[Co(en)3]3+ temperature ?
(3) [Co(en)3]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]2+ < [Co(NH3)4]2+ < (1) 30 mL HCl and 30 mL NaOH
[Co(NH3)6]3+
(2) 30 mL CH3COOH and 30 mL NaOH
(4) [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(NH3)4]2+ < [Co(NH3)6]2+ <
[Co(en)3]3+ (3) 50 mL HCl and 20 mL NaOH
(4) 45 mL CH3COOH and 25 mL NaOH
NaNH2
165. CH CH X Y 170. C(diamond) C(graphite) + X kJ mol–1
Br C(diamond) + O2(g) CO2(g) + Y kJ mol–1
2+
Hg /H2SO4 C(graphite) + O2(g)  CO2(g) + Z kJ mol–1
Z
At constant temperature. Then :
I2+NaOH
(1) X = Y + Z (2) –X = Y + Z
(3) X = –Y + Z (4) X = Y – Z
A+B
171. Whi ch o f th e fo llow ing can give aldol
Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ for the given reaction : condensation?

(1) CHI3, O
COONa (1) (2) CH2 = O
(2) CH3CH2COONa, CH3–I
O

(3) I, (3) CHO (4)

COONa

(4) 172. How many alkenes are formed by Bimolecular

I , COONa
elimination of 3–Bromo–3, 4–dimethylhexane
166. Cellulose on hydrolysis with dilute H2SO4 gives: using a strong base sodium ethoxide. [including
stereoisomers]
(1) –D glucose (2) –D glucose
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) D–fructose (4) None
(3) 4 (4) 8
167. When as non-volatile solute is added to the
solvent, the vapour pressure of the solvent 173. Assertion : When ammonium chloride (NH4Cl)
decreases by 10 mm of Hg. The mole fraction of is dissolved in water, the solution becomes
the solute in the solution is 0.2. What would be slightly acidic.
the mole fraction of the solvent if decrease in Reason : Ammonium chloride is a salt formed
vapour pressure is 20 mm of Hg ? from a strong acid (HCl) and a weak base (NH3),
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.4 which leads to the hydrolysis of NH4 ions,
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.8 producing H+ ions in the solution.

168. In which of the following reaction the final (1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
product is neither an acid or an acid salt : Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but
Tollen's reagent
(1) Ph – CHO   Reason i s no t co rre ct e xpl anation of
Assertion.
KMnO4 /OH (3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(2) CH3CH2 – OH  
(4) Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct.
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174. Match the Column-I with Column-II : 176. Standard entropies of X2, Y2 and XY5 are 70, 50
and 110 J K –1 mo l –1 respe cti vel y. The
Column - I Column - II
temperature in Kelvin at which the reaction
(A) Zn–Hg/HCl (I) Friedel Craft's
O 1 5
reaction X2  Y2  XY5 H   35 kJ mol 1
2 2
CHO
(B) NaOH (II) Ko lb e's Will be at equilibrium is :
reaction (1) 300 K (2) 700 K (3) 1000 K (4) 400 K
OH COONa 177. Propene can be converted into 1-propanol by
which set of reagent amongst the following is
ideal.
+
(1) Alkaline KMnO4 (2) OSO4/CH2Cl2
O —
(C) (III) Clemmensen (3) B H , H O /OH (4) O3/Zn—H2O
2 6 2 2
+ reduction
Cl 178. The correct set of ions (aqueous solution) with
O same colour from the following is :
(1) V2+, Cr3+ Mn3+ (2) Zn2+, V3+, Fe3+
(3) Ti4+, V4+, Mn2+ (4) Sc3+, Ti3+, Cr2+
Anhy
AlCl3 179. The incorrect statement among the following is:
(1) PH3 shows lower proton affinity than NH3
(D) OH (IV) Cannizzaro
reaction (2) PF5 exist but NF5 does not.
CO2 + NaOH (3) NO2 can dimerise easily.
(4) SO2 can act as oxidising agent but not as a
reducing agent.
(1) (A–I, B–IV, C–III, D–II) 180. Assertion (A) : In Gabriel pthalimide reaction
(2) (A–II, B–III, C–I, D–II) alkyl halide is converted into amine.
(3) (A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II) Reason (R) : This reaction is used for preparation
(4) (A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I) of primary aliphatic and aromatic amine.
175. Which of the following carbonyl compound donot (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
form crystalline addition product with NaH SO3? explanation of (A).
(1) HCHO (2) CH3HO (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) H5C2COC2H5
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is true but (R) is true.

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 SPOT TEST SERIES
for

NEET 2025
Test - 08th
Date : 12.03.2025

PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
BIOLOGY

Contact. Office: B-58, Buddha Colony, Patna - 800 001, Tel. : 0612-3508700, Website : www.goalinstitute.org
 SOLUTION SPOT TEST SERIES - 08, NEET - 12.03.2025
44. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 132]
BIOLOGY 46. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 46,47]
01. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 87] 47. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 87]
02. [Old NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 114]
48. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 157]
03. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 183]
49. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 32]
04. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 20] 50. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 236,237]
05. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 18] 51. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 206]
06. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 205]
52. [NCERT (Class-11th)]
07. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 18] 53. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 187]
08. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 43]
54. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 65]
09. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 68]
55. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 122,111,115,118]
10. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 47] 56. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 232,233]
12. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 243] 57. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 212]
13. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 153]
58. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 227]
14. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 225] 59. (Practical portion)
15. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 144]
60. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 126]
16. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 22,8] 61. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 100,103]
17. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 46]
62. [New NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 83]
18. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 126]
63. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 128]
19. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 31,33]
64. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 35]
20. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 8]
66. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 201]
21. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 111] 68. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 225,227]
22. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 74] 69. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 73,74]
24. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 47,48]
70. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 201]
25. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 23]
71. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg.150]
26. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 187] 72. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 171,167]
27. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 105,104,103]
73. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 166]
28. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 194] 74. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 95]
29. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 89] 75. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg.135]
30. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 179,181] 76. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 46]
31. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 115]
77. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg.191]
32. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 247,245,243] 78. [Old NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 101]
33. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 54]
79. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg.191]
34. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 180] 80. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 218,219]
35. [NCERT (Pg. 206)]
82. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 138]
36. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 170,169,164]
84. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 212]
37. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 210] 85. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg.9]
38. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 46]
86. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg.162]
39. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 141] 87. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 32]
40. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 249] 88. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 96]
41. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 108] 89. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg.176]
42. NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 243,242,241]
43. [NCERT (Class-12th) Pg. 76]
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 = ML–1 T–2 = kg m–1 sec–2
PHYSICS
 (B III)
dx dy
91. x2 + y2 = l2  2x  2y 0,
dt dt dv 
F MLT 2
F  A , 1  = ML–1T–1
dx L  LT L2 T 1
dy x dx
 = kg m–1 sec–1
dt y dt
 (C I)
dy
  cot 30 x  v x  3  5 = 5 3 m/s Impulse = mv = kg m sec–1

dt  (A IV), (B  III), (C  I), (D  II)

l l 1 1 1 KqQ 2KqQ
92. R  ,   103. PE i  2  ,
A A R R1 R 2 a a

  2A 1A 2 A KqQ KqQ KqQ(a  x  a  x)

   PEf   
l l l ax ax a 2  x2

(1  2 )
   2  1  2 ,  KqQ  2a 2KqQ  a 2KqQ
2   
2
a x 2  x 2  x2 
a 2 1  2  a 1  2 
1 dA  a   a 
94. v max rmin  = 8 × 1020,
2 dt
2KqQ  1 
PEf – PEi = PE   1
a 
20 2
2  8  10 x
vmax  = 8 × 104 m/s 1  
2  1016  a2 

 vmax = 80 × 103 m/s = 80 km/sec.

2KqQ  x2  2KqQ x 2 2KqQ 2
 1  2  1   2  x
95. m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 95) = 109 × 1 × (95 – 15) a  a  a a a3

109  80  PE x2

 540m + 5m = 109 × 80, m  =16g
545
D  4 1.2
104. y  4  3
 5  10 7
Total water = 109 + 16 = 125 g d 0.4  10
97. E = 36 × 104 × 30 × 10–4 × 45 × 60 = 29.16 × 105 J
= 4 × 3 × 5 × 10–4 = 60 × 10–4
E  29.16  10
5  y = 6 × 10–3 m = 6 mm
p = 9.72 × 10–3 kg m/s,
c 3  108
106. V  VR2  (VL  VC )2  VR2  (440  440)2
3
p 9.72  10 = 220
F  = 3.6 × 10–6 N.
t 45  60  VR = 220

98. Y  A · B  A  B = A + B  OR gate T2
107.   1  T
1
100. A  22  22  8  2 2
640 800
F MLT 2  1 1 
101. Surface tension   1000 x
L L
–2
= MT = kg sec –2 640 800
 
1000 x
 (A IV),
800  1000
E Fd F MLT 2  x = 1250 K
Energy density     640
V V A L2

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 24 64 v v v
108. n1  = 6, n2  = 2, 114.  (2n  1)  (2n  1)  2
4 32 4l 4l 4l

3R 5R v 40
6  2 = 300 – 260 = 40 Hz,  = 20 Hz.
(CV )mix  2 2  9R  5R 4l 2
62 8
1  g  1 1 
14R 115. f     1  R  R 
(C V )mix  , w  w  1 2
8
116. IgG = (I – Ig)s,
5R 7R
6  2 G
(CP )m ix  2 2  15R  7R  22R 0.5  G  = (20 – 0.5)s = 19.5 s
62 8 8 2

G
 CP  22R /8 22R 8 11  19.5  2 = 39
      = 1.57 s
 C V mix 14R /8 8 14R 7
L2 L1 I 1
       117. K.E   L  I ,  
109. F  qE  q v  B  q[ E  v  B ] 2I L2 4I 2
119. Req = 16 r
6 ^ 6 ^ ^
 q[8  10 i  10 (0  8k  4 j)]
0 2I 8  10 6  10 7  2  I
120. B   ,
^ ^ ^ 4 r 3  10 2
 1.6  1019  106 [8 i  8 k  4 j]

^ ^ ^ 8  106  3  102
 1.6  10 25
[8 i  4 j  8 k] ,  I = 1.2 A
2  107
 121. = i1 + i2 – A, 40° = i1 + i2 – 60°,
| F |  1.6  1025 82  42  82 = 12 × 1.6 × 10–25,
i1 + i2 = 100°, i1 – i2 = 30°
25
F  1.6  10  12 12  1.6
a 27   102 i1  i2  100 i1  65
m 1.67  10 1.67
i1  i2  30 i2  100  65  35
= 11.5 × 102 = 1150 m/s2

111. (1) MR = M – M = 0,
2i1  130
(2) MR  M2  M2 = 2 M

V2 V2 R
(3) MR  M2  M2  2M2 cos 150 123. Req = 6R, P ,  6P , R 'eq 
6R R 6

3 V2 V2
 2M2  2M2   M 2 3 P'  6 = 6 × 6P = 36 P
2 R /6 R
(4) MR  M2  M2  2M2 cos120 = M I0
125. I  cos 2  sin2  ,
2
V' d
112. Vdg = Vg, 
V  1
4  128   sin2  cos 2  = 64 sin2 cos2
2
V  V' V' d 920
 1 1  1
V V  1040 4 1
 4 sin2  cos 2   sin2 2 ,  sin2 2 ,
16 4
23 3
1   ,
26 26 1
sin 2  , 2 = 30° or 150°
V  V' 3 2
 100   100 = 11.538%
V 26  = 15° or 75°.
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 V   
126. E x  
V
    ky  , E y      kx  135.  r  r  r  (6 ^i  4 ^j  k)
^ ^ ^ ^
 (4 i  3 j  2 k)
2 1
x y

  
^ ^ ^
 
 2 i  j  3k
 E  E x i  E y j  ky i  kx j ,

 
  ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
 |E| k x 2  y 2  kr  |E|  r W  F ·  r  (5 i  2 j  2 k) · (2 i  j  3 k)
= 10 + 2 + 6 = 18 J
1 2 1 2
127. ax = 0, uy = 0, y  u y t  a y t , 8  0   a y  2
2 2
 ay = 4 m/s2, Fy = may = 1.5 × 4 = 6 N.
CHEMISTRY
136. [NCERT (Pg. 318)]
3
N 1500  2  10
128. N = LI, L  =1H 137. 2AB3 (g)  A 2 (g)  3B2 (g)
I 3
Initial 2 mol 0 0
129. IgG = (I – Ig)s, 2 × 10–4 × 75 = (5 – 2 × 10–4)s m
At eq 2  2x x 3x
150  104 A/q, 2 – 2x = 1
 s = 3 × 10–3 
5
1
x  0.5
h h hc 2
130.   , v , Ep  ,
mv m 
 at eqm, [A2] = 0.5 M, [B2] = 1.5 M
Ep hc/  hc / 
  0.5  (1.5)3
Ee 1 2 2 KC  = 1.68 M2  1.7 mol2 L–2
mv 1  h 
m (1)2
2 
2  m 
138. [NCERT (Class-11th) Pg. 124]
139. A neutral so most stable.
hc 2m2  2 2mc
   B  positive on more electronegative atom.
 mh2 h
C  negative on more electronegative atom.
131. T = 6 mg, T –5mg = 5ma 140. [NCERT (Pg. (405)]
g Do ozonolysis of both isomers of ortho-xylene.
6mg – 5mg = 5ma, g = 5a, a
5 CH3 CH3
CH 3 CH3
g
 aA  , aB = g
5

m  0  3m  R 3mR 3 141. For minimum frequency in Lyman series :

132. rcm    R
m  3m 4m 4 n1 = 1, n2 = 2

4 3 4 C 1 1  3
133. 216  r  R 3 L   RZ 2C     RZ 2C 
3 3 L 1 4  4

R for minimum frequency in Balmer series :

 R = 6r, r n1 = 2, n2 = 3
6
2 C
R 1 1 5
S = 4r2 × 216 – 4R2  4     216  4R
2 B   RZ 2C     RZ 2C 
6 B 4 9 36
= 4R2 × 6 – 4R2 = 4R2(6 – 1) = 20R2
3
change in surface energy = T × S = 20R2T L 3 36
9
27
 4   
B 5 4 5 5
2GM 2G  3M 3
134. ve  , v 'e   ve 36
R 2R 2
143. [NCERT (Pg. 90)]
144. [NCERT (Pg. 262)]
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145. I = 1.5 A, t = 10 min = 600 sec.
No. of equivalent of Cu deposited = No. of faraday – + 
I—I—I
BeCl2 CO2 (N=N=N–) XeF2 O==N==O
156. sp sp sp
3
(sp d) sp ,
m 1.5  600 sp 3d
2
63.5 96500
157. [NCERT (Pg. 112)]
1.5  600  63.5
 m 96500  2
= 0.29 g.
HNO 2 [O]
158. NH2 OH
146. NCERT (Pg. 239/240)]
147. [NCERT (Pg. 272/274/276)] –
+ – +
O CH 3 MgBr
150. SN1 rate stability of carbocation.
1
151. r1  K[A] [B]3
CH3 H 3O CH3
1 1 1
A 1 1
r2  K   [8B]3   (8)3  K[A] [B]3   2  r1
2 2 2 OH O H O H
(2-methyl-2-propanol)
H
or, r2  r1

152. [NCERT (Pg. 236)]

159. (Zr 4 )3 (PO34 )4 (s) 
 4 3
 3Zr (aq.)  4PO4 (aq)
C So lub ility  S 0 0
153. C—C—C  All four 1° carbon gives similar 0 3s 4s
C
4°C K sp  [Zr4 ]3 [PO34 ]4
monosubstituted product.
= (3s)3 × (4s)4 = 27s3 × 256s4
154. 5% solution of sucrose (solution 1) i.e. 5 g sucrose
in 100 ml solution 1
 Ksp 7
or, s   
1% solution of compound ‘A’ (solution 2) i.e. 1 g  6912 
compound ‘A’ in 100 ml solution. For solution 1
and solution 2 to be isotonic,
1 = 2 3
160. 2Al + O2 Al2O3
2
81 128
5 1000 1 1000 nA1  nO 
or,   RT    RT 27 2 32
342 100 M 100
= 3 mol = 4 mol
5 1 3 4 2
   1.5  2.67
342 M 2 3
L.R
342
 M = 68.4
5 2 mol Al produces 1 mol Al2O3
155. Assertion : The pH of a buffer solution remains
1
relatively stable when small amounts of acid or  3 mol Al will produce  3 mol Al O
2 2 3
base are added.
This is because the buffer system resists changes 3
in pH.  mol Al2O3
2
Reason : The reason behind this is that a buffer
contains a weak acid and its conjugate base (or a 3
weak base and its conjugate acid), which can Mass of Al2O3 produced   102 g
2
neutralize small amounts of added acid (H+) or base
= 153 g
(OH–), preventing drastic changes in pH.
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161. [NCERT (Pg. 219)] 171.  – H containing carbonyl compound gives aldol
condensation.
162. N—N < P—P single () bond strength due to lone
pair-lone pair repulsion and maximum possible –
EtoNa+ *
covalency of nitrogen is 4. 172. +
E2
164. Order of CFSE Br
X S.I = 4
2+ 2+ 3+ 3+
[Co(NH3) 4] < [Co(NH3 )6 ] < [Co(NH)
3 6] < [Co(en)3]
charge  on increasing strength
of ligand CFSE increases *
CFSE  +

strong field ligand (S.F.L.)  NH3 < en. Y Z

  S.I = 2
2(cis+trans) Z
+
–
NaNH2 – + Br 173. Assertion : True. When ammonium chloride
165. CH CH HC C Na
(NH 4Cl) dissolves in water, it dissociates into
HC C
ammoniu m ion s and ch lori de io ns ( Cl – ) .
2+ Ammonium ion (NH4 ) , being the conjugate acid
Hg /H2SO4
of ammonia (NH3), undergoes hydrolysis in water,
releasing H + ions, thus making the solution
acidic.
I2 + NaOH
+– CH3 C Reason : True. Ammonium chloride is a salt
CHI3 + NaOOC
formed from the neutralization of a strong acid
O
(HCl) and a weak base (NH3). The ammonium ion
166. [NCERT - P- 283]
(NH4 ) hydrolyzes in water according to the
P
167.  Xsolute reaction :
Po
NH
4  H2O  NH4OH  H

10
 0.2 _____ (1)
Po This results in the production of H + ions (or
hydronium ions, H 3O +), making the solution
20
X _____ (2) acidic.
Po 174. [NCERT (A) Pg. 239, (B) (Pg.12th), (C) Pg.
Applying (2) (1) 234, (D) Pg. 213 (Pg.12th)]
X 175. [NCERT - P- 237]
2
0.2 1 5
176. X2  Y2  XY5 ; Hr = –35 kJ mol–1
2 2
X  0.4
Sr  S(P)  S(R)
 Xsolvent = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6.
169. Largest increase in temperature when heat 1 5 
 110    70   50 
released during neutralisation is maximum and 2 2 
amount of substance whose temperature is raised = 110 – (35 + 125)
is minimum.
= –50 J mol–1 K–1
170. C(diamond)  C(graphite) ; H1 = –X ...... (1)
Hr 35000
C(diamond) + O2(g)  CO2(g); H2 = –Y ...... (2) Teq   = 700 K
Sr 50
CO2(g)  C(graphite) + O2(g); H3 = Z ...... (3) 177. NCERT (Pg. 200)]
Adding (2) and (3) we get (1) 178. [NCERT (Pg. 229)]
–X = –Y + Z 180. [NCERT - P- 264]

 XYZ

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 SPOT TEST - 08 - 12-03-2025 - ANS. KEY
01. (4) 24. (4) 47. (4) 70. (1) 93. (3) 115. (2) 137. (1) 159. (1)
02. (2) 25. (1) 48. (2) 71. (2) 94. (1) 116. (1) 138. (3) 160. (3)
03. (4) 26. (4) 49. (2) 72. (1) 95. (4) 117. (3) 139. (1) 161. (1)
04. (1) 27. (3) 50. (3) 73. (3) 96. (1) 118. (2) 140. (4) 162. (4)
05. (1) 28. (3) 51. (4) 74. (1) 97. (1) 119. (1) 141. (2) 163. (1)
06. (4) 29. (1) 52. (3) 75. (2) 98. (2) 120. (1) 142. (4) 164. (2)
07. (2) 30. (3) 53. (4) 76. (4) 99. (4) 121. (4) 143. (4) 165. (1)
08. (3) 31. (2) 54. (4) 77. (1) 100. (3) 122. (1) 144. (1) 166. (2)
09. (1) 32. (4) 55. (3) 78. (1) 101. (1) 123. (4) 145. (1) 167. (1)
10. (4) 33. (2) 56. (3) 79. (2) 102. (3) 124. (3) 146. (4) 168. (3)
11. (1) 34. (1) 57. (3) 80. (2) 103. (2) 125. (2) 147. (4) 169. (1)
12. (2) 35. (1) 58. (1) 81. (3) 104. (2) 126. (3) 148. (4) 170. (4)
13. (3) 36. (3) 59. (3) 82. (2) 105. (4) 127. (4) 149. (3) 171. (1)
14. (2) 37. (4) 60. (4) 83. (2) 106. (1) 128. (2) 150. (1) 172. (4)
15. (3) 38. (4) 61. (1) 84. (3) 107. (2) 129. (4) 151. (3) 173. (1)
16. (2) 39. (2) 62. (2) 85. (1) 108. (2) 130. (3) 152. (1) 174. (3)
17. (1) 40. (2) 63. (4) 86. (4) 109. (1) 131. (1) 153. (2) 175. (4)
18. (3) 41. (2) 64. (4) 87. (2) 110. (1) 132. (3) 154. (2) 176. (2)
19. (1) 42. (4) 65. (4) 88. (1) 111. (2) 133. (4) 155. (1) 177. (3)
20. (3) 43. (1) 66. (2) 89. (2) 112. (4) 134. (2) 156. (2) 178. (1)
21. (4) 44. (1) 67. (2) 90. (3) 113. (3) 135. (1) 157. (1) 179. (4)
22. (1) 45. (1) 68. (4) 91. (4) 114. (2) 136. (3) 158. (3) 180. (3)
23. (4) 46. (3) 69. (3) 92. (1)

Spot Test - 07 - 05.03.25

Errata
30-Bonus
89-Bonus
167-1

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