CUCET MBA 2025

Mock Test
A Note to The Student 3
About The eBook  4
Quantitative Aptitude  5
Logical Reasoning  11
English  18
General Knowledge  22
Answer Key  26
Solutions  27

Other Useful Resources 51

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A Note to The Student

We have designed this CUCET MBA Mock Test ebook to help you sharpen your problem-solving
abilities, improve your speed, and enhance your overall preparation. The questions are a reflec-
tion of the actual exam pattern, with a mix of Quantitative Ability, Logical Reasoning, and General
Knowledge. As you go through each section, try to focus on the explanations provided in the
solutions to understand the logic behind the answers. This will not only help you for CUCET but
also build a solid foundation for other MBA entrance exams.

Stay consistent with your practice, and approach every question with patience and clarity.
Remember, it’s not just about solving the questions but also about solving them with accuracy
and speed. Review your mistakes, analyze your weak areas, and keep pushing forward. Best of
luck with your preparation!

Team Careers360

3
About The eBook

This ebook is structured to provide a comprehensive mock test experience for aspirants of the
CUCET MBA program. It includes a variety of sections:

1. Quantitative Ability – Questions that test your mathematical aptitude and analytical skills,
covering topics like averages, percentages, and time-speed-distance problems.
2. Logical Reasoning – A collection of puzzles and logical sequences that assess your critical
thinking and problem-solving abilities.
3. General Knowledge – This section includes a broad range of questions, testing your aware-
ness of current affairs, historical events, and important facts.

Each question is followed by detailed solutions to help you understand the concepts behind
them. Whether you’re at the beginning of your preparation or nearing the end, this mock test will
give you a realistic feel of the actual exam and highlight the areas where you need improvement.

Happy studying!
Team Careers360

4
Quantitative Analysis

1. The average weight of 100 students is 32 kg. The average weight of the first 49 students is 30
kg and that of the last 50 students is 34 kg. What is the weight (in kg) of the 50th student?

A. 25
B. 30
C. 32
D. 33

2. A motorcycle gives an average of 45 km per litre. If the cost of petrol is Rs. 20 per litre, the
amount required to complete a journey of 540 km is (in Rupees).

A. 120
B. 360
C. 200
D. 240

3. Simplify the following expression.

2 + (30 – 26)2 ÷ 8{3 – 2} × 0.5

A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 0

4. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 8?

A. 18718
B. 18716
C. 18712
D. 18714

5. Which of the following statements is true?

A. 1 1/2 + 17 3/4 - 5 1/5 - 2 1/10 = 239/20

B. 9/1078 > 11/1127 > 12/1219
C. 149/151 > 153/155 > 157/159
D. None

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6. The least six-digit number, which is a perfect square, is:

A. 100489
B. 10000
C. 100256
D. 100255

7. The product of two positive integers is 2048, and one of them is twice the other. The smaller
number is:

A. 32
B. 64
C. 16
D. 1024

8. What is the least number subtracted from 3401, so it is completely divisible by 11?

A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0

9. When n is divided by 4, the remainder is 3. The remainder when 2n is divided by 4 is:

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6

10. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient 'q' and five times the remainder 'r '. If
r = 46, the dividend will be:

A. 5042
B. 5328
C. 5336
D. 4276

11. Ranu carries water to school in a cylindrical flask with a diameter of 12 cm and a height of 21
cm. Determine the amount of water that she can carry in the flask. (Use PI = 22/7)

A. 2372 cm3
B. 2370 cm3
C. 2376 cm3
D. 2374 cm3

12. What is the whole surface area of a cone with a base radius of 6 cm and height of 8 cm?

A. 354.50 cm²

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 B. 350.51 cm²
C. 301.71 cm²
D. 364.61 cm²

13. In an election between two candidates, 10% of the voters in the voter list did not cast their vote,
whereas 10% of the votes cast were found to be invalid. The winning candidate got 56% of the
valid votes and won the election by a margin of 1458 votes. What is the total number of voters
enrolled in the voter list?

A. 14000
B. 15000
C. 16000
D. 13000

14. The pie chart given below shows the number of cars sold by 8 different companies.The total
number of car sold by all these 8 companies are 10,000. Number of cars sold by a particular
company is shown as a percent of total number of cars sold by all these 8 companies.

Which of the following statements is correct?

I. The average number of cars sold by company B, F, and H are 100.
II. The ratio of the number of cars sold by A to the number of cars sold by E is 4 : 5.

A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Neither I nor IIII
D. Both I and II

15. The interest earned on INR 21,000 in 3 years at Simple Interest is INR 6,400. What is the Rate
of interest per annum?

A. 10 5/63 %
B. 10 2/63 %
C. 10 13/63 %
D. 10 10/63 %

7
16. In a company, a piece of work can be completed in 4, 6 and 18 days alone by R, S and T,
respectively. In how many days will the work be completed if they work together? (Rounded off to
2 decimal places)

A. 3.32
B. 2.12
C. 2.42
D. 3.21

17. If a number is increased by 84, it becomes 107% of itself. What is the number?

A. 600
B. 900
C. 1500
D. 1200

18. As part of his journey, a person travels 120 km at 80 km/h, the next 100 km at 40 km/h, and
comes back to the starting point at 75 km/h. The average speed of the person throughout the
journey is:

A. 63.46 km/h
B. 58.74 km/h
C. 68.15 km/h
D. 49.58 km/h

19. The area of triangle with vertices A(0, 8) , O(0, 0) and B(5, 0) is:

A. 8 sq. units
B. 13 sq. units
C. 20 sq. units
D. 40 sq. units

20. If the inner radius of a hemispherical bowl is 5 cm and its thickness is 0.25 cm, find the volume
of the material required to make the bowl. (Use pi = 22/7)
(Rounded up to two decimal places).

A. 34 cm3
B. 44 cm3
C. 45.34 cm3
D. 41.28 cm3

21. There are 3 taps A, B, and C in a tank. These can fill the tank in 10 hours, 20 hours, and 25
hours, respectively. At first, all three taps are opened simultaneously. After 2 hours, tap C is closed
and A and B keep running. After 4 hours from the beginning, tap B is also closed. The remaining
tank is filled by tap A alone. Find the percentage of work done by tap A itself.

A. 32%
B. 75%
C. 52%
D. 72%

8
22. R jogs at twice the speed of walking and runs at twice the speed of jogging. From his home to
office, he covers half of the distance by walking and the rest by jogging. From his office to home,
he covers half the distance jogging and the rest by running. What is his average speed (in km/h) in
a complete round from his home to office and back home if the distance between his office and
home is 10 km and he walks at the speed of 5 km/h ?

A. 90/8
B. 60/8
C. 60/9
D. 80/9

23. Ruchi, Khushi and Teju can do a piece of work in 30, 40 and 60 days respectively. In how many
days can Ruchi do the work, if she is assisted by both Khushi and Teju on every third day?

A. 550/12,
B. 85/4
C. 71/2
D. 360/17

24. What is the total surface area of a cone, if the slant height and radius of a cone is 30 cm and
14 cm , respectively?

A. 1980 cm³
B. 1963 cm³
C. 1908 cm³
D. 1936 cm³

25. A number when divided by 221, leaves a remainder 30. If the same number is divided by 13,
the remainder will be:

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

26. Two tourist buses start from the same point and move along two roads at right angles at
speeds of 48 km/h and 36 km/h, respectively. The distance between the buses after 15 seconds
is ________.

A. 175m
B. 350m
C. 250m
D. 150m

27. At what time will INR 3,720 amount to INR 5,282.4 at 12% simple interest per annum?

A. 3 years
B. 3 1/2 years
C. 5 1/2 years
D. 5 years

9
28. Find the LCM of 186.6 and 373.2.

A. 373.2
B. 398.2
C. 186.6
D. 276.6

29. 9435 is added to 7593 , then 2607 is subtracted from the sum. The result is divisible by:

A. 4
B. 10
C. 3
D. 5

30. If a number K = 42 × 25 × 54 × 135 is divisible by 3a, then find the maximum value of a.

A. 6
B. 7
C. 4
D. 5

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 Logical Reasoning
31. Directions: Select the odd group of numbers. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the
whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g.13 -
Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking
down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

A. 18-329
B. 16 – 263
C. 14 – 201
D. 12 – 149

32. Directions: Three of the following letter clusters are alike in some manner and hence form a
group. Which letter cluster does not belong to that group?

A. SXHP
B. UZFR
C. XCCU
D. VCDR

33. Directions: Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second
word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and
must not be related to each other based on the number of letters / number of consonants / vowels
in the word.)
Panel : Jurors :: Portfolio :?

A. Trustees
B. Securities
C. Administration
D. Companies

34. Directions: Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as the numbers of
the given set.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(5, 98, 9)
(10, 168, 14)

A. (1, 28, 3)
B. (7, 108, 23)
C. (15, 248, 19)
D. (3, 88, 17)

11
35. Directions: Which of the following diagrams represents the relationship among staff, manager,
and worker?

A.

B.

C.

D.

36. Directions: A – B means A is the mother of B; A \% B means A is the brother of B; A \ B means

A is the sister of B; A @ B means A is the son of B. If L @ M – N \ O \% P, then how is L related to
P?

A. Brother-in-law
B. Father
C. Son
D. Brother

37. Directions: A # B means A is the brother of B;

A @ B means A is the son of B;
A & B means A is the father of B;
A % B means A is the mother of B.
If W # Q @ T & Y @ M % K % L, then how is K related to W?

A. Sister
B. Sister-in-law
C. Mother
D. Daughter

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38. Directions: Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
CBOM, FCQN, ?, LEUP, OFWQ

A. HDSO
B. IDSO
C. IDSP
D. IDTO

39. Directions: In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.
69, 70, 73, 78, 85, ?

A. 94
B. 90
C. 85
D. 76

40. Directions: A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the
given ones that will complete the series.
NTSM, QNBA, THKO, WBTC, ?

A. NMOP
B. ZVCQ
C. RMNO
D. ZYQR

41. Directions: If the third day of the month is Tuesday, which of the following would be the 25th
day of that month?

A. Tuesday
B. Monday
C. Wednesday
D. Sunday

42. Directions: Ashok went 8 km south turned west and walked 3 km. Again he turned north and
walked 5 km. He took a final turn to the east and walked 3 km. In which direction was Ashok from
the starting point?

A. East
B. North
C. West
D. South

43. Directions: Ramesh starts his journey by walking 2 kilometres towards the north. Then he takes
a right turn and walks 1 kilometre. Again takes a right turn and walks 2 kilometres. Now, which
direction is he facing?

A. East
B. West
C. South
D. North

13
44. Directions: Gopal is older than Mohan but younger than Ram. Mohan is older than Sohan but
younger than Ram. Who is the oldest?

A. Gopal
B. Mohan
C. Ram
D. Sohan

45. Directions: If Usha is taller than Nisha, Nisha is taller than Asha, and Alka is taller than Usha,
then who among them is the tallest?

A. Usha
B. Alka
C. Nisha
D. Asha

46. Directions: In a certain code language, if PDFJARS is written as OCELZQR and MHCXBTU is
written as LGBZAST, how will ZVDGENQ be written in the same code language?

A. XUYCIMP
B. YUCIDMP
C. XUCDEMQ
D. XVDEDNO

47. Directions: In a certain code language, APRIL is coded as CSTLN, and MARCH is coded as
ODTFJ. How will JUNE be coded in that language?

A. KWPH
B. KXPH
C. LXPH
D. LWPI

48. Directions: Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is
different. Pick the odd one out.

A. ADZV
B. MPNK
C. FIUR
D. TWGD

49. Directions: The second number in the given number pairs is obtained by performing certain
mathematical operation(s) on the first number. The same operation(s) is/are followed in all the
number pairs except one. Find that odd number pair.

A. 20 : 11
B. 6:4
C. 15 : 9
D. 12 : 7

14
50. Directions: Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II, and III.
Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
Some boats are ships.
All ships are yachts.
All yachts are barges.
Conclusions:
I. Some barges are ships.
II. Some barges are boats.
III. Some yachts are boats.

A. Only conclusions II and III follow

B. Only conclusions I and III follow
C. All conclusions follow
D. Only conclusions I and II follow

51. Directions: Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) and
complete the following letter-cluster series?
IR, BY, UF, NM, GT, ?

A. ZA
B. ZB
C. YA
D. YB

52. Directions: A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the
given ones that will complete the series.
ABCD, CUKA, ENSX, GGAU, ?

A. IQRT
B. MNOQ
C. IRQT
D. IZIR

53. Directions: Which of the following is a leap year?

A. 1076
B. 1675
C. 1354
D. 1998

54. Directions: In a certain code language, BRIGHT is written as TTKIJB, and ROAST is written as
TQCUR. How will AROUND be written in that language?

A. DTQWPA
B. RTQWPF
C. TTQWRD
D. CTQWPF

15
55. Directions: In a certain code language, CAP is coded as 262413 and LOG is coded as 171022.
How will BED be coded in that language?

A. 11825
B. 12027
C. 12025
D. 12225

56. Directions: In a certain code language, FLOAT is written as WONZI and TRIBE is written as
DUHEW. How will GARDEN be written in that language?

A. QZQGDJ
B. QZUHDJ
C. QZUGDJ
D. QDUGHJ

57. Directions: In a certain code language, PRESIDENT is written as RPESDINTE, and KNOWLEDGE
is written as NKOWELGED. How will EDUCATION be written in that language?

A. DEUCTAONI
B. DEUCTOANI
C. DUECTAONI
D. DECUTAONI

58. Directions: Which of the following diagrams represents the relationship between Brother,
Husband, and Men?

A.

B.

C.

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 D.

59. Directions: Which of the following diagrams represents the relationship between a singer, a
musician, and a businessman?

A.

B.

C.

D.

60 Directions: Three of the following letter clusters are alike in some manner and hence form a
group. Which letter cluster does not belong to that group?

A. PRKI
B. JFOQ
C. UWFD
D. XZCA

17
English

61. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘STRANGE’ from the given sentence.

The intriguing journal took a back place once more to the more mundane events at the Ouray inn.

A. Events
B. Intriguing
C. Mundane
D. Place

62. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Care

A. Concern
B. Disregard
C. Worry
D. Attention

63. Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom that can be substituted in the
following sentence.

I begged him to reconsider my application, but he put his foot down.

A. stamped his foot down

B. agreed to reconsider
C. refused to yield
D. did not run

64. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He is diligent, therefore he will ______________.

A. Remain
B. Succeed
C. Fail
D. Loose

65. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence.

Computers and mobile phones have become a necessary and important part of our lives.

18
 A. a requisite
B. an essential
C. a required
D. a needed

66. Directions: In the following question, some parts of the sentence may have some errors. Find
out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If the sentence is
free from error, select "No Error".

He was (1) / very kind enough (2) / to invite me. (3) / No Error (4)

A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)

67. Directions: In the following question, some parts of the sentence have errors, and some are
correct. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. The number of that part is the answer. If
a sentence is error-free, your answer is "No Error."

I do not know where could he have gone (1) / so early (2) / in the morning. (3) / No Error (4)

A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)

68. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select 'No substitution'.

The company decided to sell their stake in their subsidiary, because it was under massive debts.

A. sell their stake in its subsidiary

B. No substitution
C. sell its stake in their subsidiary
D. sell its stake in its subsidiary

69. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select
the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don't find any error, mark 'No error'
as your answer

She rarely approached nobody / to talk about the problems / that she was facing.

A. No error
B. that she was facing
C. She rarely approached nobody
D. to talk about the problems

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70. Directions: In the following question, some parts of the sentence have errors, and some are
correct. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. The number of that part is the answer. If
a sentence is error-free, your answer is "No Error".

There was a (1) / comparison between (2) / you and he. (3) / No Error (4)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

71. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. We often make all things around us the way we want them.

B. Even during our pilgrimages, we have begun to look for whatever makes our heart happy, gives
comfort to our body and peace to the mind.
C. Our mind is resourceful enough to find shortcuts in simple and easy ways.
D. It is as if external solutions will fulfil our needs, and we do not want to make any special efforts
even in our spiritual search.

A. CABD
B. ADBC
C. ABDC
D. DABC

72. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order.Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. According to Homer, Achilles was brought up by his mother at Phthia with his inseparable
companion Patroclus.
B. Achilles was the bravest, handsomest and greatest warrior of the army of Agamemnon in
the Trojan War.
C. Later non-Homeric tales suggest that Patroclus was Achilles' kinsman or lover.
D. Achilles, in Greek mythology, is the son of the mortal Peleus, king of the Myrmidons, and
the Nereid Thetis.

A. ABCD
B. DBAC
C. DABC
D. CABD

73. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the
correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.

A. But she has no idea an aunt and uncle are waiting for her.
B. 'The Strange Child' is the story of a young girl who believes she is the only one on the planet.
C. Her parents simply vanished into thin air one day.
D. She travels the world in search of Nevada because she aspires to reside in the Mojave Desert.

20
 A. DABC
B. BDAC
C. BACD
D. BCDA

74. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The French had regarded the scholar as a usurper.

A. The scholar was being regarded as a usurper by the French.

B. The scholar has been regarded as a usurper by the French.
C. The scholar was regarded as a usurper by the French.
D. The scholar had been regarded as a usurper by the French.

75. Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.

Raveena asked me if I had her maid’s number.

A. Raveena asked me, "Do you have my maid's number?"

B. Raveena asked me, “Are you having my maid’s number.”
C. Raveena said to me, “Does you have my maid’s number.”
D. Raveena asked to me, " Have you have my maid's number,"

21
General Knowledge
76. Who was the first Odissi dancer from Odisha to receive Padma Vibhushan?

A. Sonal Mansingh
B. Sanjukta Panigrahi
C. Kelucharan Mohapatra
D. Madhvi Mudgal

77. Which of the following sitar players was awarded the Bharat Ratna in the year 1999?

A. Pandit Bhimsen Joshi

B. Pandit Ravishankar
C. Hariprasad Chourasia
D. Bhupen Hazarika

78. For which discovery did William Bradford Shockley, John Bardeen and Walter Houser Brattain
jointly receive the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1956?

A. Discovery of transistor effect

B. Discovery of thermionic emission
C. Discovery of electromagnetic induction
D. Discovery of receptors for temperature and touch

79. Why does a cannon recoil after firing?

A. Conservation of energy
B. Backward thrust of gases produced
C. Newton's third law of motion
D. Newton's first law of motion

80. Which country hosted the FIFA World Cup 2022?

A. Japan
B. Qatar
C. France
D. USA

81. The length of the pitch in cricket is_______.

A. 20 yards
B. 24 yards
C. 22 yards
D. 18 yards

22
82. The first modern Olympic Games was held in the year

A. 1894
B. 1892
C. 1896
D. 1900

83. Which mechanism is used by the computer virus 'worm' to duplicate itself?

A. Swap
B. Increment
C. Spawn
D. Swarm

84. Which of the following dynasties was not part of the "tripartite struggle," which fought for
centuries to control one prized area, Kanauj?

A. Kadamba
B. Rashtrakuta
C. Pala
D. Gurjara-Pratihara

85. Rajaraja I and Rajendra I belonged to the ____________ dynasty.

A. Chola
B. Pallava
C. Pandya
D. Chalukya

86. Who among the following rulers ruled before Prithviraj Chauhan over Delhi?

A. Ghiyasuddin Balban
B. Anangpal II
C. Jalaluddin Khalji
D. Qutb ud-Din Aibak

87. In 1600, the East India Company acquired a charter from which ruler?

A. King George-I
B. Queen Elizabeth I
C. Queen victoria
D. King James-I

88. 'The World Outside My Window' is written by which author?

A. Emily Bronte
B. Ruskin Bond
C. I. Jane Austen
D. Henry Fielding

23
89. Who is the author of the book titled 'Numbers Do Lie'?

A. Anil Menon
B. Akash Chopra
C. Ian Chapell
D. Kunal Basu

90. Which is the largest container port in India?

A. Kandla Port
B. Jawaharlal Nehru Port
C. Kolkata Port
D. Hazira Port

91. Identify the odd one out.

A. Modern agricultural technology

B. White revolution
C. Green revolution
D. Seed-fertilizer-water technology

92. Who holds the authority of transferring judges from one High Court to another High Court?

A. The senior most judge of Supreme Court

B. The chief justice of India
C. The President of India
D. The law minister of India

93. KA Najeeb Vs Union of India case deals with violation of rights under_____.

A. Article 16
B. Article 21
C. Article 14
D. Article 19

94. The Supreme Court held that persons with disabilities have a right to reservation in promotion
under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India, 1950, in the case of:

A. Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

B. Rajeev Kumar Gupta v. Rangachari
C. State of Kerala v. Leesamma Joseph
D. State of Kerala v. N. M. Thomas

95. Which form of leucoplast specialises in oil synthesis and storage and is mainly found in the
layer of cells in pollen grains that develop pollen grains?

A. Gerontoplasts
B. Proteinoplasts
C. Chloroplasts
D. Elaioplasts

24
96. Who among the following ruled in India between 1266 and 1287?

A. Qutub-ud-din-Aybak
B. Aram Shah
C. Shams-ud-din-Iltutmish
D. Ghiyasuddin Balban

97. Wearing away of the landscape by different agents like water, wind and ice is called___________.

A. Weathering
B. Erosion
C. Metamorphosis
D. Sedimentation

98. Which force is responsible for the motion of the moon around the Earth?

A. Van der Waals

B. Centrifugal
C. Frictional
D. Centripetal

99. ______ is a group of cells similar in structure and function.

A. Organ system
B. Organ
C. Tissue
D. Molecule

100. Buckminsterfullerene is a nanoparticle characterised by spherical geometry and a hollow

interior which contains how many carbon atoms?

A. 60
B. 50
C. 40
D. 70

25
Answer Key
==============================================================================
==============================================================================

1 - B, 2 - D, 3 - C, 4 - C, 5 - A, 6 - A, 7 - A, 8 - C, 9 - B, 10 - C, 11 - C, 12 - C, 13 - B, 14 - C,

15 - D, 16 - B, 17 - D, 18 - A, 19 - C, 20 - D, 21 - D, 22 - D, 23 - B, 24 - D, 25 - A, 26 - C,

27 - B, 28 - A, 29 - C, 30 - B, 31 - B, 32 - D, 33 - B, 34 - A, 35 - B, 36 - D, 37 - A, 38 - B,

39 - A, 40 - B, 41 - C, 42 - D, 43 - C, 44 - C, 45 - B, 46 - B, 47 - C, 48 - A, 49 - C, 50 - C,

51 - A, 52 - D, 53 - A, 54 - A, 55 - C, 56 - C, 57 - A, 58 - B, 59 - B, 60 - B, 61 - C, 62 - B,

63 - C, 64 - B, 65 - B, 66 - B, 67 - A, 68 - D, 69 - C, 70 - C, 71 - A, 72 - B, 73 - D, 74 - D,

75 - A, 76 - C, 77 - B, 78 - A, 79 - C, 80 - B, 81 - C, 82 - C, 83 - C, 84 - A, 85 - A, 86 - B,

87 - B, 88 - B, 89 - B, 90 - B, 91 - B, 92 - C, 93 - B, 94 - C, 95 - D, 96 - D, 97 - B, 98 - D,

99 - C, 100 - A

==============================================================================
==============================================================================

26
Solutions

1. Given:
The average weight of 100 students is 32 kg. The average weight of the first 49 students is 30 kg
and that of the last 50 students is 34 kg.
The average weight of 100 students is 32 kg.
So, the total weight of the 100 students is = (32 × 100) = 3200 kg.
Now, the average weight of the first 49 students is 30 kg and that of the last 50 students is 34 kg.
So, the total weight of the first 49 students is = (49 × 30) = 1470 kg,
and the total weight of the last 50 students is = (34 × 50) = 1700 kg.
Therefore, the weight of the 50th student is = 3200 – (1470 + 1700) = 30 kg.
Hence, the correct answer is 30 kg.

2. Given:
A motorcycle gives an average of 45 km per litre. Cost of petrol per litre = Rs. 20
Formula used: Petrol needed = Distance to be covered / Distance covered by 1 litre
Calculation: Petrol needed for a distance of 540 km = 540 / 45 = 12 litres
Cost of petrol for covering 540 km = 12 × 20 = Rs. 240
Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 240.

3. Given:
2 + (30 – 26)2 ÷ 8{3 – 2} × 0.5
= 2 + 42 ÷ 81 × 0.5
= 2 + 16 ÷ 8 × 0.5
= 2 + 2 × 0.5
=2+1
=3
Hence, the correct answer is 3.

4.
If the last three digits of a number are divisible by 8, the number is divisible by 8.
Option 1: 18718. 718 cannot be divided by 8.
Option 2: 18716. 716 cannot be divided by 8.
Option 3: 18712. 712 is divisible by 8. Therefore, 18712 is also divisible by 8.
Option 4: 18714. 714 cannot be divided by 8.
Hence, the correct answer is 18712.

5.
1 1/2 + 17 3/4 - 5 1/5 - 2 1/10 = 239/20
Simplifying the left side, we get: 239/20 = 239/20
This is true.
9/1078 > 11/1127 > 12/1219
For this, we can cross-multiply to compare the fractions: 9 × 1127 > 11 × 1078

27
10143 > 11858
This is false.
149/151 > 153/155 > 157/159
Again, we can cross-multiply to compare the fractions: 149 × 155 > 153 × 151
23095 > 23103
This is false.
Hence, the correct statement is option 1.

6.
The least six-digit number is 100000.
Using the long division method to find its square root, we see that it is not a perfect square.

⇒ (316)2 = (100000 – 144) = 99856, a 5-digit number.

But (317)2 = 100489, a 6-digit number.
Therefore, the smallest six-digit number which is also a perfect square is 100489.
Hence, the correct answer is 100489.

7. Given:
1st number is twice of the 2nd number.
Let the two numbers be x and 2x respectively.
According to the question, x × 2x = 2048
⇒ 2x² = 2048
⇒ x² = 2048/2 = 1024
⇒ x = √1024 = 32
So, the smaller number is 32.
Hence, the correct answer is 32.

8.
Given number: 3401
If we divide 3401 by 11,
The quotient will be 309 and the remainder will be 2.
Thus, 3401 – 2 = 3399, which is completely divisible by 11.
Hence, the correct answer is 2.

9. Given:
Divisor = 4, remainder = 3
Let quotient = q and dividend = n
Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder

28
⇒ n = (4 × q) + 3
Multiplying both sides by 2
⇒ 2n = 8q + 6
⇒ 2n = 4 × 2q + 6
When 2n is divided by 4, the first part 4 × 2q gives the remainder 0, and the second part 6 gives
the remainder 2.
Required Remainder = 0 + 2 = 2
Hence, the correct answer is 2.

10.
According to the question, Divisor = (5 × 46) = 230
10 × Quotient = 230
⇒ Quotient = 230 / 10 = 23
Dividend = (Divisor × Quotient) + Remainder
⇒ Dividend = (230 × 23) + 46
⇒ Dividend = 5290 + 46
Therefore, Dividend = 5336
Hence, the correct answer is 5336.

11. Given:
Diameter of a cylindrical flask = 12 cm, radius = 6 cm, Height = 21 cm
Volume of the cylinder = πr²h
Volume of the cylinder = (22/7) × 6 × 6 × 21
Volume of the cylinder = 2376 cm³
Hence, the correct answer is 2376 cm³.

12. Given:
Base, r = 6 cm, Height = 8 cm
So, slant height, l = √(6² + 8²) = 10
The surface area of a cone = πr(r + l) = (22/7) × 6 × (6 + 10) = 2112/7 = 301.71 cm²
Hence, the correct answer is 301.71 cm².

13.
Let the number of voters be x.
As 10% of the voters did not cast their vote,
The votes polled = 90% of x
As 10% of the votes polled were found to be invalid,
Valid votes = 90% of (90% of x)
If the winning candidate got 56% of the valid votes, then the other candidate got 44% of the valid
votes.
56% of [90% of (90% of x)] − 44% of [90% of (90% of x)] = 1458
⇒ 12% of [90% of (90% of x)] = 1458
⇒ (12/100) × (90/100) × (90/100) × x = 1458
⇒ x = (1458 × 100 × 100 × 100) / (12 × 90 × 90)
⇒ x = 15000
Hence, the correct answer is 15000.

29
14.
Given, Total = 10000
Statement I: The average number of cars sold by companies B, F and H are 100.
Number of cars sold by B = 8% of 10,000 = 800
Number of cars sold by F = 12% of 10,000 = 1200
Number of cars sold by H = 10% of 10,000 = 1000
Average = (800 + 1200 + 1000) / 3 = 3000 / 3 = 1000
⇒ Statement I is incorrect
Statement II. The ratio of the number of cars sold by A to the number of cars sold by E is 4 : 5.
Number of cars sold by A = 20% of 10,000 = 2000
Number of cars sold by E = 16% of 10,000 = 1600
Ratio = 2000 : 1600 = 5 : 4
⇒ Statement II is incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is Neither I nor II.

15.
Interest amount = INR 6,400
Time of investment, T = 3 years
Principal amount, P = INR 21,000
Simple Interest (SI) = (P × T × R) / 100
⇒ 6,400 = (21,000 × 3 × R) / 100
⇒ R = 10 10/63

16.
In a company, the time taken by R, S, and T to complete the work is 4, 6, and 8 days.
Efficiency of R = 1/4
Efficiency of S = 1/6
Efficiency of T = 1/18
Total efficiency = 1/4 + 1/6 + 1/18
= (9 + 6 + 2) / 36
= 17/36
So, time taken = 36/17 = 2.12
Hence, the correct answer is 2.12 days.

17. Given:
If a number is increased by 84, it becomes 107% of itself.
Let the number be y.
⇒ y + 84 = 107% of y
⇒ y + 84 = 1.07y
⇒ 84 = 1.07y – y
⇒ 84 = 0.07y
⇒ y = 1200
Hence, the correct answer is 1200.

18.
Time taken for the first journey = 120/80 = 3/2 hr
Time taken for the second journey = 100/40 = 5/2 hr
Distance covered in the first and second journeys = 120 + 100 = 220 km

30
While returning, the time taken = 220/75 = 44/15 hr
Total distance = 120 + 100 + 220 = 440 km
Total time taken = 3/2 + 5/2 + 44/15 = 104/15 hr
The average speed = 440 / (104/15) = 63.46 km/h

19.
Let (x1, y1) = (0, 8)
(x2, y2) = (0, 0)
(x3, y3) = (5, 0)
Area of a triangle = 1/2 [x1 (y2 – y3) + x2 (y3 – y1) + x3 (y1 – y2)]
= 1/2 [0(0–0) + 0(0–8) + 5(8–0)]
= 1/2 [40]
= 20 sq. units
Hence, the correct answer is 20 sq. units.

20.
Volume of hemispherical bowl = (2/3) × π × (R³ - r³)
Where, r is the inner radius of the bowl = 5 cm
And, R is the outer radius of the bowl = (5 + 0.25) = 5.25 cm
= (2/3) × (22/7) × [(5.25³) - 5³]
= (44/21) × 19.70
= 41.28 cm³
Hence, the correct answer is 41.28 cm³.

21.
The capacity of the tank = LCM(10, 20 and 25) = 100
Efficiency of A = 100 / 10 = 10
Efficiency of B = 100 / 20 = 5
Efficiency of C = 100 / 25 = 4
Quantity of tank filled in 2 hours by A, B, and C = (10 + 5 + 4) × 2 = 38 units
After 4 hours from the beginning, tap B is also closed
Quantity of tank filled in 2 hours by A & B = (10 + 5) × 2 = 30 units
Now, tap B is also closed
The remaining capacity of the tank = 100 – 38 – 30 = 32 units
These 32 units are filled by A alone.
So, the total quantity of tank filled by A = Work done in (1st 2 hr + next 2 hr + 32 units)
= 10 × 2 + 10 × 2 + 32 = 72 units
Percentage of a tank filled by A = (72 / 100) × 100 = 72%
Hence, the required value is 72%.

22.
R's jogging speed = 5 × 2 = 10 km/h
R's running speed = 10 × 2 = 20 km/h
Now, at the time of going to his office, time taken = 5/5 + 5/10
⇒ 1 + 0.5
⇒ 1.5 hours
At the time of returning to his home, time taken = 5/10 + 5/20
⇒ 0.5 + 0.25
⇒ 0.75 hour

31
⇒ total time = 1.5 + 0.75
⇒ 2.25 hours or 9/4 hours
Total distance covered by R = 20 km
⇒ average speed = 20 / (9/4)
⇒ (20 × 4) / 9 = 80/9 km/h
Hence, the correct answer is 80/9 km/h.

23.
Let the total work be 120 units.
As LCM of 30, 40, and 60 is 120 units.
The efficiency of Ruchi, Khushi, and Teju = 4, 3, 2
In 3 days, the total work complete = 4 + 4 + 9 = 17 units of work
In 21 days, the total work completed = 17 × 7 = 119 units of work
The remaining 1 unit will be completed by Ruchi in 1/4 days.
The total time = 21 + 1/4 = 85/4 days
Hence, the answer is 85/4.

24.
The formula for the total surface area of a cone is given by πr(r + l), where r is the radius and l is
the slant height.
Given: Slant height l = 30 cm, Radius r = 14 cm
Total surface area = (22/7) × 14 × (14 + 30)
= (22/7) × 14 × 44
= 44 × 44
= 1936 cm²
Therefore, the correct answer is 1936 cm².

25.
Let the number be x
x = 221 × q + 30
x = 13 × 17 × q + 30
x = 13 × (17 × q) + 26 + 4
Hence, the answer is 4.

26.
Speed of Bus A = 48 km/h = 40/3 m/s
Speed of Bus B = 36 km/h = 10 m/s
Distance covered by Bus A in 15 seconds:
Distance = (40/3) * 15 = 200 meters
Distance covered by Bus B in 15 seconds:
Distance = 10 * 15 = 150 meters
As the two roads are at a right angle:
Let height = 200 meters and base = 150 meters
By the Pythagorean theorem:
Hypotenuse² = Base² + Height²
Distance between two buses = √(200² + 150²) = √(40000 + 22500) = √62500 = 250 meters
Hence, the distance between the two buses is 250 meters.

32
27. Given:
Principal = INR 3,720, Rate = 12%, Simple Interest = (5,282.4 – 3,720) = 1,562.4
Let the required time be x years.
Using the formula for Simple Interest:
1562.4 = (3720 × 12 × x) / 100
So, the required time is 3 1/2 years.
Hence, the answer is 3 1/2.

28.
LCM (186.6,373.2)
= LCM (186.6, 2×186.6)
= 2×186.6
= 373.2
Hence the answer is 373.2.

29.
Resultant = 7593+9435-2607 = 14421
Divisibility check:
⇒ Since the unit digit is not 0, it is not divisible by 10.
⇒ Since the last two digits, 21, is not divisible by 4, it is also not divisible by 4.
⇒ Since the unit digit is not 0 or 5, it is not divisible by 5.
⇒ Since the sum of digits = 1+4+4+2+1 = 12 is a multpile of 3, it is divisible by 3.
Hence, the answer is 3.

30.
Given number, K = 42 × 25 × 54 × 135 = 7654500
Here we go by options
For option (i), a = 6
⇒ 36 = 729
On dividing 7654500 by 729, we get 10500
Which is completely divisible
For option (ii), a = 7
⇒ 37 = 2187
On dividing 7654500 by 2187, we get 3500
Which is also completely divisible
The other two options are less than 7
Hence, the correct answer is 7.

31.
Let's check the options –
First option: 18 – 329; 182 + 5 = 324 + 5 = 329
Second option: 16 – 263; 162 + 5 = 256 + 5= 261 ≠ 263
Third option: 14 – 201; 142 + 5 = 196 + 5 = 201
Fourth option:12 – 149; 122 + 5 = 144 + 5 = 149
So, only the second option does not follow the pattern. Hence, the second option is correct.

33
32.
Let's check the options –
First option: SXHP; S and H are the opposite letters of each other; X – 8 = P
Second option: UZFR; U and F are the opposite letters of each other; Z – 8 = R
Third option: XCCU; X and C are the opposite letters of each other; C – 8 = U
Fourth option: VCDR; V and D are not the opposite letters of each other; C – 11 = R
So, only the fourth option is different from the three options. Hence, the fourth option is
correct.

33. Given:
Panel : Jurors :: Portfolio :?
A Panel is a whole group of Jurors.
Similarly, A Portfolio is the entire group of Securities a person holds for the investment.
So, Securities is the correct answer and the series is as follows –
Panel : Jurors :: Portfolio : Securities
Hence, the second option is correct.

34. Given:
(5, 98, 9); (10, 168, 14)
Add the first and third numbers and then divide the second number by the resultant number
to obtain 7 in the given set of numbers –
⇒ (5, 98, 9) → 5 + 9 = 14 and 98 ÷ 14 = 7
⇒ (10, 168, 14) → 10 + 14 = 24 and 168 ÷ 24 = 7
Let's check the options –
First option: (1, 28, 3) → 1 + 3 = 4 and 28 ÷ 4 = 7
Second option: (7, 108, 23) → 7 + 23 = 30 and 108 ÷ 30 = 3.6 ≠ 7
Third option: (15, 248, 19) → 15 + 19 = 34 and 248 ÷ 34 = 7.2 ≠ 7
Fourth option: (3, 88, 17) → 3 + 17 = 20 and 88 ÷ 20 = 4.4 ≠ 7
So, only the first option follows the same pattern as followed by the given set of numbers.
Hence, the first option is correct.

35.
Anyone who works in an organisation, whether it is a worker or a manager, is a staff. So,
their circles will be inside that of the staff.
Also, some of the managers can be workers and some of the workers can be managers.
They will have some areas in common.
The Venn diagram is –

Hence, the second option is correct.

34
36. Given:
A – B ⇒ A is the mother of B
A \% B ⇒ A is the brother of B
A B ⇒ A is the sister of B
A @ B ⇒ A is the son of B.

36.
As per the given information, the family tree will be as follows –

Here, the quadrilateral represents the male and the circular figure represents the female in the
figure.
So, L is the brother of P. Hence, the fourth option is correct.

37. Given:
A # B ⇒ A is the brother of B
A @ B ⇒ A is the son of B
A & B ⇒ A is the father of B
A % B ⇒ A is the mother of B
As per the given information, the family tree will be as follows –

Here, the quadrilateral represents the male and the circular figure represents the female in the
figure.
So, K is the sister of W. Hence, the first option is correct.

38. Given:
CBOM, FCQN, ?, LEUP, OFWQ
Add 3 to the first letter, 1 to second, 2 to the third, and again 1 to fourth letter of the previous
term to get the next term of the series –
CBOM → C + 3 = F; B + 1 = C; O + 2 = Q; M + 1 = N → FCQN
FCQN → F + 3 = I; C + 1 = D; Q + 2 = S; N + 1 = O → IDSO
IDSO → I + 3 = L; D + 1 = E; S + 2 = U; O + 1 = P → LEUP
LEUP → L + 3 = O; E + 1 = F; U + 2 = W; P + 1 = Q → OFWQ
So, IDSO is the missing term in the series. Hence, the second option is correct.

39. Given:
69, 70, 73, 78, 85, ?

35
Add consecutive odd numbers to the previous term to find the next term of the series.
69 + 1 = 70
70 + 3 = 73
73 + 5 = 78
78 + 7 = 85
85 + 9 = 94
So, the next term of the series is 94. Hence, the first option is correct.

40. Given:
NTSM, QNBA, THKO, WBTC, ?
Add 3 and 9 to the first and the third letter and subtract 6 and 12 from the second and the fourth
letter.
NTSM → N + 3 = Q; T – 6 = N; S + 9 = B; M – 12 = A
QNBA → Q + 3 = T; N – 6 = H; B + 9 = K; A – 12 = O
THKO → T + 3 = W; H – 6 = B; K+ 9 = T; O – 12 = C
WBTC → W + 3 = Z; B – 6 = V; T + 9 = C; C – 12 = Q
So, the next term of the series is ZVCQ. Hence, the second option is correct.

41. Given:
The third day of the month = Tuesday
Total number of days of that month = 25 – 3 = 22
On dividing 22 by 7, we get 1 as the remainder.
The 25th of that month will be Tuesday + 1 day = Wednesday
So, the 25th day of that month is Wednesday. Hence, the third option is correct.

42.
Firstly, we will draw the diagram as per the given instructions –

So, Ashok is in the south direction from the starting point. Hence, the fourth option is correct.

36
43.
Firstly we will draw the direction and distance diagram according to the instructions –

So, Ramesh is facing the South direction. Hence, the third option is correct.

44. Given:
Gopal is older than Mohan but younger than Ram; Ram > Gopal > Mohan
Mohan is older than Sohan but younger than Ram; Ram > Mohan > Sohan
By concluding all the given information, we have –
Sohan < Mohan < Gopal < Ram
So, Ram is the oldest. Hence, the third option is correct.

45. Given:
Usha is taller than Nisha; Usha > Nisha
Nisha is taller than Asha; Nisha > Asha
Alka is taller then Usha; Alka > Usha
By concluding all the given information, we have –
Asha < Nisha < Usha < Alka
So, Alka is the tallest. Hence, the second option is correct.

46. Given:
PDFJARS is written as OCELZQR.
MHCXBTU is written as LGBZAST.
Like, for PDFJARS → Subtract 1 from the letters except the middle one; add 2 to the letter in the
middle of the given word,
P – 1 = O; D – 1 = C; F – 1 = E; J + 2 = L; A – 1 = Z; R – 1 = Q; S – 1 = R
For MHCXBTU → Subtract 1 from the letters except the middle one; add 2 to the letter in the
middle of the given word,
M – 1 = L; H – 1 = G; C – 1 = B; X + 2 = Z; B – 1 = A; T – 1 = S; U – 1 = T
Similarly, for ZVDGENQ → Subtract 1 from the letters except the middle one; add 2 to the letter in
the middle of the given word,
Z – 1 = Y; V – 1 = U; D – 1 = C; G + 2 = I; E – 1 = D; N – 1 = M; Q – 1 = P
So, from the above, ZVDGENQ can be written as YUCIDMP in the code language. Hence, the
second option is correct.

47. Given:
APRIL is coded as CSTLN, and MARCH is coded as ODTFJ.
Add 2 and 3 alternatively to the letters of APRIL and MARCH to obtain the required code —
A + 2 = C; P + 3 = S; R + 2 = T; I + 3 = L; L + 2 = N
Thus APRIL is coded as CSTLN.
M + 2 = O; A + 3 = D; R + 2 = T; C + 3 = F; H + 2 = J

37
Thus MARCH is coded as ODTFJ.
Similarly, follow the same pattern for JUNE; J + 2 = L; U + 3 = X; N + 2 = P; E + 3 = H
So, JUNE is coded as LXPH. Hence, the third option is correct.

48.
Let's check the options –
First option: ADZV; the First and the third letters are opposite letters but the second and the fourth
letters are not opposite letters.
Second option: MPNK; the first and the third letters are opposite letters similarly the second and
the fourth letters are opposite letters.
Third option: FIUR; the first and the third letters are opposite letters similarly the second and the
fourth letters are opposite letters.
Fourth option: TWGD; the first and the third letters are opposite letters similarly the second and
the fourth letters are opposite letters.
So, only the first option is different from the other three options. Hence, the first option is correct.

49.
Let's check the options –
First option: 20 : 11; (11 × 2) – 2 = 22 – 2 = 20
Second option: 6 : 4; (4 × 2) – 2 = 8 – 2 = 6
Third option: 15 : 9; (9 × 2) – 2 = 18 – 2 = 16 ≠ 15
Fourth option: 12 : 7; (7 × 2) – 2 = 14 – 2 = 12
So, only the third option is different from the other three. Hence, the third option is correct.

50.
According to the statements, the following Venn diagram can be drawn –

Conclusion I: Some barges are ships – From the above diagram, it can be clearly seen that there
exists a direct relation between barges and ships. So, from this, it can be concluded that some
barges are ships.
Conclusion II: Some barges are boats – From the above diagram, it can be clearly seen that there
exists a direct relation between barges and boats. So, from this, it can be concluded that some
barges are boats.
Conclusion III: Some yachts are boats – From the above diagram, it can be clearly seen that there
exists a direct relation between yachts and boats. So, from this, it can be concluded that some
yachts are boats.
All conclusions follow according to the statements. Hence, the third option is correct.

38
51. Given:
IR, BY, UF, NM, GT, ?
Subtract 7 from the first letter and add 7 to the second letter of the previous term of the first
term in the series –
IR → I – 7 = B; R + 7 = Y
BY → B – 7 = U; Y + 7 = F
UF → U – 7 = N; F + 7 = M
NM → N – 7 = G; M + 7 = T
GT → G – 7 = Z; T + 7 = A
So, ZA is the missing term in the series. Hence, the first option is correct.

52. Given:
ABCD, CUKA, ENSX, GGAU, ?
Add 2 and 8 to the first and third letters and subtract 7 and 3 from the second and fourth letters
of the previous term to obtain the next term in the series –
ABCD → A + 2 = C; B – 7 = U; C + 8 = K; D – 3 = A
CUKA → C + 2 = E; U – 7 = N; K + 8 = S; A – 3 = X
ENSX → E + 2 = G; N – 7 = G; S + 8 = A; X – 3 = U
GGAU → G + 2 = I; G – 7 = Z; A + 8 = I; U – 3 = R
So, IZIR is the missing term in the series. Hence, the fourth option is correct.

53.
A year is a leap year if it is divisible by 4 and a century year is a leap year if it is divisible by 400.
Let's check the options –
First option: 1076; 1076 ÷ 4 = 269. 1076 is divisible by 4.
Second option: 1675; 1675 is not divisible by 4.
Third option: 1354; 1354 is not divisible by 4.
Fourth option: 1998; 1998 is not divisible by 4.
So, only the first option is a leap year as it is divisible by 4. Hence, the first option is correct.

54. Given:
BRIGHT is written as TTKIJB –
Interchange the place of the first and last letter and add 2 in the remaining middle letters to
obtain the required code –

Thus, BRIGHT is coded as TTKIJB.

And, ROAST is written as TQCUR –

39
Thus, ROAST is coded as TQCUR.
Similarly, follow the same pattern for AROUND –

So, AROUND is coded as DTQWPA. Hence, the first option is correct.

55. Given:
In a certain code language, CAP is coded as 262413 and LOG is coded as 171022. How will BED
be coded in that language?
Add 2 in the opposite of the positional value of the first and third alphabet and subtract 2 in the
opposite of the positional value of the second letter to obtain the code for CAP –

Thus CAP is coded as 262413.

And in, LOG is coded as 171022 –

Thus LOG is coded as 171022.

Similarly, follow the same pattern for BED –

40
Thus, BED is coded as 12025. Hence, the third option is correct.

56. Given:
FLOAT is written as WONZI and TRIBE is written as DUHEW. How will GARDEN be written in that
language?
Add 3 in all the consonants, subtract 1 from vowels, and interchange the first and last letters of
FLOAT to get the required code –

Thus, FLOAT is coded as WONZI.

And in, TRIBE is written as DUHEW –

Thus, TRIBE is coded as DUHEW.

Similarly, follow the same pattern for GARDEN –

41
Thus, GARDEN is coded as QZUGDJ. Hence, the third option is correct.

57. Given:
PRESIDENT is written as RPESDINTE, and KNOWLEDGE is written as NKOWELGED.
Here, the position of the letters are being shuffled following a certain pattern as shown below –
PRESIDENT is written as RPESDINTE→

KNOWLEDGE is written as NKOWELGED→

Similarly, follow the same pattern for EDUCATION→

So, EDUCATION is written as DEUCTAONI in the code language. Hence, the first option is correct.

58.
Brother and Husband have to be men. They cannot be women. So, their circles will lie inside that
of men.
Also, a brother can be a husband and a husband can be a brother. So, they will have some areas
in common in the Venn diagram.
The Venn diagram is as follows –

42
Hence, the second option is correct.

59.
Every possibility that we can think of can be valid in this case. Someone can be all three, any two,
or anyone among a singer, a musician, and a businessman.
The Venn diagram will be a 3-set overlapping Venn diagram as shown below –

Hence, the second option is correct.

60.
Let's check the options –
First option: PRKI → P, K and R, I are opposite pairs.
Second option: JFOQ → J, O and F, Q are not opposite pairs.
Third option: UWFD → U, F and W, D are opposite pairs.
Fourth option: XZCA → X, C and Z, A are opposite pairs.
The second option is different from the other three options because here alternate letters are not
opposite pairs. Hence, the second option is correct.

61.
The right option is the third option.
We know that intriguing means fascinating, captivating, or unusual, and "mundane" means
ordinary, commonplace, or lacking interest or excitement.
Explanation: The word "intriguing" is synonymous with "strange" in the context of being interesting
or out of the ordinary. Therefore, the antonym or opposite word in this sentence for "strange" or
"intriguing" is "mundane," as it represents the commonplace or ordinary events that are not unusual
or remarkable.
Hence, the right answer is mundane.

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62.
The most appropriate antonym is the second option.
Explanation: The word "care" implies a sense of concern, attention, or consideration for something
or someone. Its opposite would be a lack of concern or attention. "Disregard" is the correct
antonym in this context. It means to pay no attention to or ignore, which is opposite to the idea of
caring.
Therefore, the correct antonym is "disregard."
The meaning of the other options is as follows:
• Concern: It means consideration for something or someone.
• Worry: It means anxiety or concern about something.
• Attention: It means focusing on or giving consideration to something.

63.
The most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom "put his foot down" is the third option:
refused to yield.
Explanation: The idiom "put his foot down" is a figurative expression that means to assert oneself
firmly, especially in making a decision or taking a stance. In the context of the sentence, the
speaker begged for reconsideration, but the use of the idiom suggests that the other person firmly
refused to yield or change their decision.
So, the correct sentence would be: "I begged him to reconsider my application, but he refused to
yield."

64.
The most appropriate option to fill in the blank is the second option: "Succeed."
Explanation: The word "therefore" indicates a logical consequence or result based on the
preceding statement. In this case, the statement "He is diligent" implies that the person is
hardworking and committed. The logical consequence of diligence is often success. Therefore,
the word that best fits the context is "succeed."
So, the correct sentence would be: "He is diligent; therefore, he will succeed."
The meaning of the other options is as follows:
• remain: This means to stay in the same state or condition. In the context of the sentence.
• fail: This means to be unsuccessful or not achieve a desired goal.
• fall: It implies a decline, failure, or negative outcome.

65.
The most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment is the second option: "an
essential."
Explanation: The word "important" is used to describe the significance of computers and mobile
phones in our lives. The synonym "essential" aligns well with the meaning, emphasising that
computers and mobile phones are indispensable or crucial components of our lives.
So, the correct sentence would be: "Computers and mobile phones have become a necessary and
essential part of our lives."

66.
The error lies in the second part of the sentence.
The phrase very kind enough is redundant as kind enough already implies a high level of kindness.
Therefore, the correct sentence is, "He was kind enough to invite me".

44
67.
The error in this sentence is in part one.
In this sentence, "where could he have gone" must be replaced with "where he could have gone"
because the given sentence is assertive. To change the interrogative form into an assertive form,
the interrogative word will be followed by the subject and then the verb.
Therefore, the correct sentence is, "I do not know where he could have gone so early in the
morning."

68.
The correct choice is the fourth option, i.e., sell its stake in its subsidiary.
The correct possessive pronoun should be used in accordance with the singularity or plurality of
the subject. This change maintains consistency in possessive pronouns by using "its" to refer to
the company and "its subsidiary" because the company is a singular noun and thus will be
followed by the singular possessive pronoun.
Therefore, the correct sentence should be "The company decided to sell its stake in its subsidiary
because it was under massive debts."

69.
The correct option is the third option.
The error is in the first part of the sentence, as it should be "She rarely approached anybody." The
use of "nobody" is a double negative, which makes the sentence confusing.
Hence, the correct sentence will be "She rarely approached anybody to talk about the problems
that she was facing."

70.
The error lies in the third part of the sentence.
In this sentence, "he" should be replaced with "him". This is because "him" is the correct objective
form of the pronoun when it follows a preposition such as "between".
The correct sentence: "There was a comparison between you and him."

71.
The correct choice is the first option, i.e., CABD.
Sentence C introduces the idea that the mind looks for shortcuts and easy solutions. Sentence A
expands on the notion that we shape our environment according to our desires and needs,
reinforcing the idea of seeking comfort and ease. Sentence B introduces the concept of seeking
happiness, comfort, and peace even during pilgrimages, which is an example of the behaviour
discussed in the previous sentences. Lastly, sentence D concludes the paragraph by stating that
people often seek external solutions and avoid making special efforts, even in spiritual matters,
which ties back to the theme of seeking comfort and shortcuts introduced earlier in the paragraph.

72.
The correct choice is the second option, i.e., DBAC.
The paragraph starts with sentence D, which introduces Achilles and establishes his parentage,
providing essential background information, followed by sentence B, which follows the
introduction of Achilles by highlighting his exceptional qualities and his pivotal role as a warrior in
the Trojan War, followed by sentence A, which adds details about Achilles' upbringing and his close
relationship with Patroclus, an important figure in his life, and lastly sentence C, which further
explores the relationship between Achilles and Patroclus, mentioning the different interpretations
and nuances found in non-Homeric stories.

45
73.
The correct choice is the fourth option, i.e., BCDA.
This order presents the information in a logical sequence. Sentence B introduces the story and the
central character, a young girl who thinks she's alone in the world. Sentence C provides crucial
information about the girl's situation, explaining that her parents disappeared mysteriously.
Sentence D provides context about the girl's journey and her motivation to find Nevada. Sentence
A comes last, revealing that the girl is unaware of her aunt and uncle's presence, bringing a sense
of anticipation and potential resolution to the story.

74.
The correct sentence in passive voice is the fourth option, i.e., "The scholar had been regarded as
a usurper by the French."
Passive voice is the voice in which the object experiences an action rather than the person who
performs the action. Hence, the object in the active voice sentence becomes the subject in the
passive voice. In this sentence, the object (the scholar) comes first, followed by the verb, which
when converted, becomes "has been regarded" followed by the phrase "as a usurper", and finally
followed by the agent of the action "The French".

75.
The right option is the first option.
The transformation from indirect to direct speech involves adjusting the tense, pronouns, and
question structure to reflect the original question being asked by Raveena in a direct manner.
In the construction of direct speech:
• The introductory phrase ("Raveena asked me") remains the same.
• The reported question changes to a direct question using the word "do," adjusting
pronouns ("I" becomes "you" and "her" becomes "my"), and modifying the verb tense from
"had" to "have."
So, the direct form of the statement would be, "Raveena asked me, "Do you have my maid's
number?".

76.
The correct option is Kelucharan Mohapatra.
Kelucharan Mohapatra, a renowned Indian classical dancer, master, and exponent of Odissi dance,
lived from 8 January 1926 to 7 April 2004. He is credited with bringing back and making famous
this ancient dance style in the 20th century. He is the first recipient of Padma Vibhushan from the
state of Odisha.

77.
The correct answer is Pandit Ravishankar
The sitar player who was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honour, in the year 1999
was Ravi Shankar. Ravi Shankar was a legendary Indian musician and one of the most famous
sitar players in the world. He was honoured for his significant contributions to the field of music
and for popularizing Indian classical music internationally.

78.
The correct answer is the Discovery of transistor effect
The Nobel Prize for Physics in 1956 was jointly awarded to William Bradford, John Bardeen and
Walter Houser Brattain for their discovery of the transistor effect. They were awarded jointly for

46
their research on semiconductors. John Bardeen is the only person who has been awarded the
Nobel Prize in physics twice. He received the Nobel Prize in 1956 and again in 1972.

79.
The correct option is Newton's third law of motion
Newton's third rule of motion, which states that there is an equal and opposite reaction to every
action, causes a cannon to recoil when it fires. A projectile is fired from a cannon by firing a high-
velocity stream of gas created by the ignition of gunpowder or another propellant. This motion
also generates an equal and opposite reaction force, driving the cannon backwards by Newton's
third law.

80.
Correct answer is Qatar
The FIFA World Cup took place in Qatar from 20 November to 18 December 2022. And 32 teams
participated in this world cup. It was the first world cup which was held in the Arab world. Brazil is
the most successful team in the FIFA World Cup tournaments; it has won five times. Argentina
won the 2022 FIFA World Cup held at Qatar. FIFA World Cup 2026 will be hosted by the United
States, Canada and Mexico.

81.
The correct option is 22 yards.
The standard length of a cricket pitch is 22 yards or 20.12 meters. This measurement is taken
from the centre of the popping crease at one end to the centre of the popping crease at the other
end. The popping creases are marked on either side of the pitch and are used to define the
batsmen's safe area when they are batting.

82.
The correct answer is 1896
The first modern Olympics were held on April 6, 1896, in Athens, Greece. Twelve countries
participated in this event, with approximately 280 athletes taking part in various games. During the
1894 congress organized by Coubertin in Paris, it was decided that the first Olympic Games would
be held in Athens and the Olympic Games would be organized once every four years. The 2024
Summer Olympics are scheduled to be held in Paris, France. In 2021, the Summer Olympics were
held in Tokyo, Japan.

83.
The correct answer is Spawn
Spawning is the process by which a program makes a duplicate of itself. The new process may
now operate independently of the previous process. Worms use spawning to multiply and spread
to other computers. When a worm infects a computer, it usually creates several copies of itself.
These newly created copies will then infect additional machines on the same network or the
internet.

84.
The correct answer is Kadamba.
The ninth-century Tripartite Struggle, also called the Kannauj Triangle Wars, involved the Pratihara,
Pala, and Rashtrakuta empires vying for dominance over northern India.
The "tripartite struggle" lasted for decades to gain control over a single, valuable region and did
not include the Kadamba dynasty.

47
85.
The correct answer is Chola.
Rajendra Chola I, also known as Gangaikonda Chola or the Bringer of the Ganges, was a formidable
Chola Emperor who reigned from 1014 to 1044 CE. In 1014 CE, he ascended to the throne,
succeeding his father, Rajaraja I.
Revered as the 'King of Kings,' this legendary figure held the title of the most influential emperor in
India during his entire rule. Rajendra Chola I is acclaimed for the restoration and consolidation of
the Chola dynasty, ensuring its dominance over the Indian Ocean. His reign witnessed the
unification of the southern region of India, marking a historic first in its history.

86.
The correct option is Anangpal II
Before Prithviraj Chauhan, the ruler who ruled Delhi was Tomara Rajput ruler Anangpal Tomar. He
was one of the early rulers of the Tomara dynasty in the 11th century. Anangpal Tomar is
sometimes credited with founding the city of Delhi. His rule marked the beginning of Delhi's
historical significance as a political and cultural centre. Anangpal Tomar's contributions played a
crucial role in shaping the history of Northern India.

87.
The correct option is Queen Elizabeth I
In 1600, the East India Company acquired a charter from Queen Elizabeth I of England, which
granted the company a monopoly on English trade with the East Indies.
India's monopoly came into the hands of the English, but this royal charter was not able to stop
other powers like the Portuguese, France, and the Dutch. As a result of this, they were able to buy
the same thing from the Indian markets as the Britishers.
Britishers started building their forts and industries. The first industry made by them was in Hugli,
Bengal, in 1651.

88.
The correct option is Ruskin Bond
Ruskin Bond is the author of numerous novels, articles, and short stories, most of which are aimed
towards children. When he was seventeen years old, he penned his first novel. He received the
Padma Shri award in 1999 and the Padma Bhushan award in 2014.

89.
The correct option is Akash Chopra.
Akash Chopra is an author, commentator, and former Indian cricketer. He represented India in 108
One-Day Internationals and 40 Tests. He has also served as a commentator for prominent
broadcasters, including Sony Sports Network and Star Sports. The book is divided into 61 chapters,
each of which explores a different statistic related to cricket.

90.
The correct option is Jawaharlal Nehru Port.
The port is situated in Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra, on the western coast of India. It is well-
connected to the economic hub of Mumbai and the surrounding regions.
The port is primarily known for its container handling capabilities. It facilitates the movement of
goods both domestically and internationally.
It is well-connected through road, rail and air transportation networks, making it accessible for the
movement of cargo.

48
91.
The correct option is the White Revolution.
Modern Agricultural Technology refers to the use of modern tools, equipment, and techniques in
agriculture to increase efficiency and productivity. The Green Revolution refers to a period of
increased agricultural productivity, especially in developing countries, achieved through the use of
high-yielding varieties of crops. Seed-Fertilizer-Water Technology describes a holistic approach
to agricultural practices that involves optimizing the use of seeds, fertilizers, and water resources.
The White Revolution specifically refers to a movement aimed at increasing milk production and
dairy farming, primarily associated with the successful implementation of dairy development
programs. It is not directly related to the use of technology in crop cultivation.

92.
The correct answer is the President of India
The responsibility for relocating judges from one High Court to another within India is vested in the
President of India. This authority is executed by the stipulations outlined in Article 222 of the
Indian Constitution, which grants the President the ability to reassign a judge from one High Court
to another after discussions with the Chief Justice of India and the respective Governor. The
primary purpose of these transfers is usually to address the judiciary's demands and necessities
in various High Courts throughout the nation.

93.
The correct answer is Article 21.
The KA Najeeb vs. Union of India case is primarily concerned with a breach of Article 21 of the
Indian Constitution. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution provides the right to life and personal
liberty and the courts have construed it to cover a variety of human rights and individual liberties.
In this instance, Najeeb was accused of violating the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
(UAPA) and was detained for over five and a half years before his trial even began. The Supreme
Court ruled that Najeeb's right to a timely trial and access to justice, both of which are vital
components of the right to life and personal liberty, had been infringed by the delay in his trial.

94.
The correct answer is State of Kerala v. Leesamma Joseph.
In the State of Kerala v. Leesamma Joseph case, the Supreme Court held that persons with
disabilities have a right to reservation in promotion under Article 16(4) of the Constitution. In this
case, the Supreme Court delivered some important judgements on reservations for people with
disabilities. And the court held that they have the right to reservations in promotions.

95.
The correct answer is Elaioplasts.
Elaioplasts are a type of plastids in plant cells. They are responsible for the storage of oils and
fats, particularly in the form of lipid droplets. Elaioplasts play a crucial role in lipid metabolism and
can be found in various plant tissues, such as seeds, roots and tubers. Elaioplasts are found in the
cells of plants, algae and some other eukaryotic species. They consist of a double membrane, an
internal stroma and thylakoid membranes. However, unlike chloroplasts, they lack the pigments
necessary for photosynthesis.

96.
The correct option is Ghiyasuddin Balban

49
Ghiyasuddin Balban ruled the Delhi Sultanate in India during the years 1266 to 1287. He ascended
to the throne as the ninth sultan of the Mamluk dynasty, also known as the Slave dynasty. Balban's
reign was marked by his efforts to strengthen the central authority, suppress rebellions, and
establish a more autocratic rule. His policies included measures to curb the power of the nobility
and maintain law and order in the realm.

97.
The correct answer is erosion.
The whole process of landform formation is referred to as erosion. Erosion is the process by which
the earth's surface is worn away by wind, water and glacial ice. Disintegrated and loose elements
are in motion. Erosion and weathering are two different processes.

98.
The correct answer is Centripetal
The centripetal gravitational force is responsible for the moon's orbit around the Earth. The
centripetal force needed to maintain planets in orbit around the sun is provided by gravitational
pull, and it is also responsible for satellites orbiting the Earth. A lunar revolution takes around a
month to complete.

99.
The correct option is tissue.
A tissue is a group of cells similar in structure and function. In biology, tissues are the
organizational level intermediate between cells and organs. Different types of tissues work
together to perform specific functions in multicellular organisms. There are four primary types of
tissues in animals: epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue, and nervous tissue. In plants,
tissues include meristematic, epidermal, ground and vascular tissue.

100.
The correct option is 60.
Indeed, buckminsterfullerene, sometimes known as a "buckyball", is a spherical molecule made up
of sixty carbon atoms. Buckminsterfullerene's highly symmetrical structure is composed of
interlocking hexagonal and pentagonal rings containing carbon atoms. This molecule belongs to
the class of carbon allotropes known as fullerenes, which also comprises a variety of carbon
compounds with closed structures or cage-like shapes.

50
Other Useful Resources

The candidates are highly encouraged to download and study the following management
exams practice materials designed by Careers360.

eBook Title Download Links

3000+ Most Important Words - Vocabulary Builder

500+ Most Important Idioms and Phrases

300+ Most Important Phrasal Verbs

Permutation & Combination - Video Lectures and

Practice Questions

Mastering DILR Questions with Expert Solutions

51
 Logical Reasoning Study Material:
Logical Deductions and Connections Reasoning Cube Reasoning

Distance and Direction Reasoning Figure Counting Reasoning

Calendar Reasoning Mirror and Water Image Reasoning

Non Verbal Analogy Reasoning Order and Ranking Reasoning

Missing Number Reasoning Paper cutting and folding Reasoning

Non Verbal Classification Reasoning Figure Series Reasoning

Verification of Truth of the Statement Reasoning Embedded Figure Reasoning

Venn Diagram Reasoning Mathematical Operations Reasoning

Binary Logic Reasoning Games and Tournaments Reasoning

Clock Reasoning Input Output Reasoning

Arithmatical Problems Reasoning Seating Arrangement Reasoning

Alphabet Test Reasoning Completion of Figure Reasoning

Puzzle Reasoning Analogy Reasoning

Dice Reasoning Blood Relation Reasoning

Classification Reasoning Series Reasoning

Coding-Decoding Reasoning Syllogism Reasoning

Critical Reasoning: Statements conclusions Critical Reasoning: Decision making conclusion

arguments actions and inferences derivation and theme detection

Inequality Reasoning

52
 Quantitative Aptitude Study Material:
Classification of Numbers Last Two Digit of a number

Rational Numbers Remainder theorem

BODMAS Rule in Simplification Number of factors and number of trailing zeroes

What is a Factor? Arithmetic Progression

Perfect squares and perfect cubes Geometric Progression

HCF and LCM Harmonic Progression

Divisibility Rules Relation Between AM, GM and HM

Unit Digit Percentage

Quadratic Equations Lines and Angles

Square Root and Cube Root of Surds Exponent and Surds

Linear Equations in Two Variables Linear Equations in One Variables

Maxima and Minima in polynomials Algebraic Identities

Types of Polynomials Mixture and Alligation

Average Application of TSD in Elevator

Linear Races and Circular Races Application of TSD in Trains and Stream

Concept of Relative Speed and Average Speed Time, Speed, Distance and concept of proportionality

Pipe and Cistern and concept of negative work Time and Work

Application of ratios in partnership Proportions and Variations

Ratio and Proportion Loans and Installment

Compound Interest Simple Interest

Profit and Loss Application of Percentage

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