`GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA

KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION & ASSESSMENT BOARD

MODEL QUESTION PAPER – 2
Class: II Year PUC Academic Year: 2024-25
Subject: Chemistry (34) Maximum Marks: 70
Time: 3.00 Hrs No. of Questions: 46
Instructions
1. Question paper has FIVE parts. All parts are compulsory.
2. a. Part-A carries 20 marks. Each question carries 1 mark.
b. Part-B carries 06 marks. Each question carries 2 marks.
c. Part-C carries 15 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
d. Part-D carries 20marks. Each question carries 5 marks.
e. Part-E carries 09 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
3. In Part-A questions, first attempted answer will be considered for awarding marks.
4. Write balanced chemical equations and draw neat labeled diagrams and graphs wherever necessary.
5. Direct answers to the numerical problems without detailed steps and specific unit for final answer will
not carry any marks.
6. Use log tables and simple calculator if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not allowed).
7. For a question having circuit diagram/figure/ graph/ diagram, alternate questions are given at the end of
question paper in a separate section for visually challenged students.
PART-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 15 × 1 = 15
1. Square planar complex of the type [MABXL] (where A, B, X, L are unidentate) shows
a) Two Cis and one Trans b) Two cis and Two trans
c) One Cis and two Trans d) one Cis and One Trans
2. Order of a reaction in which unit of rate of reaction and rate constant are same
a) 0 b) 1
c) 1/2 d) 2
3. Statement I: Tertiary alcohols heated with copper at 573 K yields 2-methyl propene.
Statement II: Tertiary alcohols undergo dehydration when heated with Cu /573K.
Identify the correct statement
a) Both statement I and II are correct
b) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is in correct and statement II is correct.
4. The tanks used by most of scuba divers are filled with air diluted with helium of around
a) 88.3% b) 56.2%
c) 32.1% d) 11.7%
5. 1,2-dichloroethane is an example of
a) alkylene dihalides b) alkylidene halides
c) vinyl dihalides d) gem-dihalides.

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page1

 6. A galvanic cell has electrical potential of 1.1 V. If an opposing potential of 1.1V is applied to this cell,
what will happen to the cell reaction and current flowing through the cell?
a) The reaction stops and no current flows through the cell.
b) The reaction continuous but current flows in opposite direction.
c) The concentration of reactants becomes unity and current flows from cathode to anode.
d) The cell does not function as a galvanic cell and zinc is deposited on zinc plate
7. As the size of the aldehyde molecule increases, the odour becomes
a) more pungent b) more fragrant
c) less fragrant d) no change in the odour.
8. Sulphur containing amino acid is;
a) cysteine b) tyrosine
c) histidine d) proline
9. The C-O- bond angles of P, Q and R are found to be 111.7o, 109o, 108.9o respectively, compound P, Q
and R are
a) P = Phenol, Q = Methanol, R = Methoxy Methane.
b) P = Methoxy Methane, Q = Methanol, R = Phenol.
c) P = Methanol, Q = Phenol, R = Methoxy Methane.
d) P = Methoxy Methane, Q = Phenol, R = Methanol.
10. Compounds A and B react according to the following chemical equation 2A(g) + B(g) ⎯⎯
→ 2C(g)
concentration of either A or B were changed by keeping the concentrations of one of the reactants
constant and the rates were measured as a function of initial concentration. Following results were
obtained. Choose the correct option for the rate equation for this reaction.
Experiment Initial Concentration of Initial Concentration of Initial Concentration
trial [A] mol L-1 [B] mol L-1 of [C] mol L-1
1 0.40 0.40 0.10
2 0.40 0.80 0.40
3 0.80 0.40 0.20
a) Rate = k [A]2[B] b) Rate = k [A] [B] 2
c) Rate = k [A][B] d) Rate = k [A]2
11. The reagent useful for separation and purification of aldehydes is
a) silver nitrate solution b) sodium hydrogensulphite
c) Fehling’s solution d) sodium sulphate.
12. Match the following given in column I with Column II
Column -I Column - II
i) Chloramphenicol A) Malaria
ii) Chloroquine B) Anaesthetic
iii) Halothane C) Typhoid fever
iv) Thyroxine D) Goiter
a) i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv -A b) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv -D
c) i-D, ii-B, iii-C, iv -A d) i-A, ii-B, iii-C, iv -D

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page2

 13. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is

14. The magnitude of CFSE (crystal field splitting complex, ∆0) can be related to the configuration of d-
orbitals in a coordination entity is
a) if ∆0 < P, the configuration is t32ge1g b) if ∆0 > P, the configuration is t32ge1g
c) if ∆0 > P, the configuration is t22ge2g d) if ∆0 < P, the configuration is t42ge0g

15. The correct order of melting point is.

a) Cr > Mn > Fe b) Fe >Mn>Cr
c) Cr > Fe >Mn d) Mn> Fe >Cr
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(glycogen, starch, catalyst, cobalt, methanol, HNO2) 5 × 1 = 05
16. Storage polysaccharide present in animals is _____________
17. Vitamin B12 is a coordination compound of ___________metal
18. Primary aliphatic amines convert into aliphatic alcohols on reacting with ______________ solution.
19. The chemical name of wood spirit is ___________
20. Change in standard Gibbs free energy (∆G0) of a reaction is does not altered by the addition of ___.
PART-B
III. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries two marks. 3 × 2 = 06
21. Draw a graph to show variation of vapour pressure of solvent and solution with respect to
temperature.
22. Explain the preparation of methoxyethane by Willamson’s synthesis. Give equation.
23. What are heteroleptic complexes? What is the co-ordination number in complex [Co(ox)2Cl2]+.
24. Chlorobenzene cannot be prepared by reacting phenol with SOCl2. Give reasons.
25. What are hormones? Name a hormone that mediate responses to external stimuli.
PART-C
IV. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
26. When a chromite ore ‘A’ is fused with sodium carbonate in free excess of air and the product is
dissolved in water, a yellow solution of compound ‘B’ is obtained. After treatment of this yellow
solution with sulphuric acid compound ‘C’ can be crystallize from the solution. When compound ‘C’
is treated with KCl orange crystals of compound ‘D’ is crystallizes out. Write all the reactions
involved in the conversion of ‘A’ to ‘D’.

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page3

 27. Write the IUPAC name of [CoCl2(en)2]+1. Draw the geometrical isomers for this complex.
28. Fluorine has ability to stabilize most of transition metal in higher oxidation states. Give two reasons
with an example.
29. Write any three limitations of Valence bond Theory (VBT) of coordination compounds.
30. What is lanthanoid contraction? Name two elements of actinoids which exhibits +7 oxidation state in
their compounds.
V. Answer ANY TWO of the following. Each question carries three marks. 2 × 3 = 06
31. What is the effect of temperature on the rate constant of reaction? How can this temperature effect on
rate constant be represented quantitatively?
32. Plot a graph of molar conductivity v/s √c for strong and weak electrolytes in solution. For strong
electrolytes, write the equation that represent the variation of molar conductivity with dilution.
33. Write three reasons to justify that osmotic pressure method has the advantage over other colligative
methods for the measurement of molar mass of proteins and polymers.
34. During working of Leclanche cell, Write the anodic and cathodic reaction. What is the role of produced
ammonia during cell reaction?
PART-D
VI. Answer ANY FOUR of the following. Each question carries five marks. 4 × 5 = 20
35. a) Give any two differences between amylose and amylopectin.
b) Name any two main forces which stabilize the secondary and tertiary structures of
proteins.
c) Which vitamin deficiency causes the increased fragility of RBC’s and muscular
weakness. (2+2+1)
36. a) Write the mechanism for the addition of HCN to carbonyl compound in the presence of base.
b) Aromatic carboxylic acid does not undergo Friedel crafts reaction. Give reasons. (3+2)
37. a) Explain Hoffmann broamamide degradation reaction by taking butanamide as an example. Give
the IUPAC name of the product.
b) pKb of aniline is more than that of methanamine. Give reasons. (3+2)
38. a) How do you prepare phthalimide from aromatic dicarboxylic acid? Give equation.
b) Complete the following reaction:
CHO
Hot conc. NaOH
A+ B
(3+2)
+
39. a) An alkene X (C3H6) reacts with H2O/H to give compound Y, compound Y further undergo reaction
with CrO3-H2SO4 to produce compound Z. Write the IUPAC name of compounds X, Y and Z.
b) Which among the following compounds have lowest and highest pKa value? (3+2)
p-nitrophenol, phenol, ethanol and o-cresol.
40. a) Write any three differences between SN1 and SN2 reaction mechanisms.
b) Identify A and B in the given reaction
NH2 Br

NaNO 2 + HCl B
A
0-5oC
(3+2)

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page4

 PART–E
(NUMERICAL PROBLEMS)
VII. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
41. Calculate the mass of Vitamin C (ascorbic acid, C6H8O6) to be dissolved in 78 g of acetic acid to
lower its melting point by 1.5°C. Given: Kf of acetic acid is 3.9 K kg mol-1.
42. Heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures of the two liquid
components are 105.2 kPa and 46.8 kPa respectively. Calculate the vapour pressure of a solution
containing of 26.0 g of heptane and 35 g of octane.
43. The electrical resistance of a column of 0.05 mol L–1 NaOH solution of diameter 1 cm and length
50 cm is 5.55 × 103 ohm. Calculate its resistivity, conductivity and molar conductivity.
44. Calculate the Gibbs free energy change and equilibrium constant for the cell reaction
2Fe3+ (aq) + 2I− ⎯⎯
→ 2Fe2+ (aq) + I2 . Given E o(Fe3+ /Fe2+ ) = 0.77 V and Eo 1 −
= 0.54 V .
 I2 /I 
2 

45. The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate the
energy of activation of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature.
46. A reaction is first order in A and second order in B.
(i) Write the differential rate equation.
(ii) How is the rate affected on increasing the concentration of ‘B’ three times and decreasing the
concentration of ‘A’ by two times?
(iii) How is the rate affected when the concentrations of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are tripled?

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page5

 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION & ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER – 1
Class: II Year PUC Academic Year: 2024-25
Subject: Chemistry (34) Maximum Marks: 70
Time: 3.00 Hours No. of Questions: 46
Instructions
1. Question paper has FIVE parts. All parts are compulsory.
2. a. Part-A carries 20 marks. Each question carries 1 mark.
b. Part-B carries 06 marks. Each question carries 2 marks.
c. Part-C carries 15 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
d. Part-D carries 20marks. Each question carries 5 marks.
e. Part-E carries 09 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
3. In Part-A questions, first attempted answer will be considered for awarding marks.
4. Write balanced chemical equations and draw neat labeled diagrams and graphs wherever necessary.
5. Direct answers to the numerical problems without detailed steps and specific unit for final answer will
not carry any marks.
6. Use log tables and simple calculator if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not allowed).
7. For a question having circuit diagram/figure/ graph/ diagram, alternate questions are given at the end of question
paper in a separate section for visually challenged students.
PART-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 15 ×1 = 15
1. The role of CO2 in Kolbe’s reaction is
a) acts as catalyst b) act as nucleophile
c) act as weak electrophile d) act as strong electrophile.
2. In DNA, the linkage between different nitrogenous bases is
a) phosphate linkage b) glycosidic linkage
c) peptide linkage d) hydrogen bonding.
3. The complex PtCl2.4NH3Br2 is treated with excess of AgNO3 solution, two mole of AgBr is
precipitated. The primary and secondary valence of this complex is
a) 6 and 1 b) 6 and 2
c) 4 and 6 d) 3 and 6
4. Statement I: Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror images on each other.
Statement II: A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation.
Identify the correct statement
a) Both statement I and II are correct
b) Both statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
5. The most stable manganese compound is
a) Mn2O7 b) MnF4 c) MnO2 d) MnSO4

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page1

 6. Among the following alkyl benzenes which one will not give the benzoic acid on oxidation with
acidic KMnO4 solution.

a) b)

c) d)

7. An ambidentate ligand is
a) Cl– b) CN–
c) OH– c) NO +2
8. The Eo of Fe2+/Fe, Zn2+/Zn and Sn2+/Sn are –0.44 V, –0.76 V and –0.14 V respectively. Which
metal/s is/are act as sacrificial electrode to protect iron from rusting?
a) Both Zn and Sn b) Zn only
c) Sn Only d) neither Zn nor Sn.
9. The chemical name of phosgene is
a) chromyl chloride b) triphenylphosphine
c) phosphorusoxychloride d) carbonyl chloride.
10. In a solution containing non-volatile solute, the mole fraction of solvent is 0.9. The relative lowering
of vapour pressure is
a) 1 b) 0.1
c) 0.9 d) 1.1
11. All natural and artificial radioactive decay of unstable nuclei take place by
a) zero order kinetics b) half order kinetics
c) first order kinetics d) second order kinetics
12. Match the following
List-I List-II
A) Glucocorticoids i) Responsible for development of secondary female characteristics.
B) Mineralocorticoids ii) Responsible for preparing the uterus for implantation of fertilised egg
C) Testosterone iii) Control carbohydrates metabolism
D) Estradiol iv) Responsible for development of secondary male characteristics.
v) Control level of excretion of water and salt by kidney.
a) A-(iv), B- (v), C-(ii), D-(i) b) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i)
c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iv) d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
13. p-Aminoazobenzene is prepared from benzenediazonium chloride and aniline in
a) acidic medium b) basic medium
c) neutral medium d) both acidic and basic medium.

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page2

 14. The chemicals used to convert commercial alcohol into denatured alcohol are
a) CuSO4 and Pyrolidine b) Cu2S and Pyrolidine
c) CuSO4 and Pyridine d) Cu2S and Pyridine.
15. During osmosis, the solvent molecules are moving from
a) Hypotonic solution to hypertonic solution
b) Hypertonic solution to hypotonic solution
c) Higher concentrated solution to lower concentrated solution
d) Higher osmotic pressure solution to lower osmotic pressure solution.
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(aldehydes, phenol, fluorobenzene, decreases, greater, benzene) 5×1= 05
16. The melting point of interstitial compound is ________ than the pure metal.
17. Benzenediazonium fluoroborate on heating decomposes to give_________
18. The simplest hydroxy derivative of benzene is _________
19. When a non-volatile solute is added to the pure solvent, the freezing point of solvent______
20. Ozonolysis of alkenes followed by reaction with zinc dust and water gives ____
PART-B
III. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries two marks. 3 × 2 = 06
21. Explain Swartz reaction with an example.
22. Write the reactions show that glucose contains a) five hydroxyl groups b) aldehyde group.
23. Define half-life period of a reaction. Write the relationship between half-life period and initial
concentration of zero order reaction.
24. Write the reactions involved in preparation of phenol from cumene.
25. Iron (III) catalyses the reaction between iodide and persulphate ions in the reaction:
2I− + S2O82− ⎯⎯
→ I2 + 2SO42− .
Explain the catalytic action of catalyst iron (III) by using chemical reactions.
PART-C
IV. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
26. Study of actinoids elements is more difficult? Give any three reasons.
27. For the complex, Mercury (I) tetrathiocyanato-S-cobaltate (III)
a) What is coordination number of Co.
b) Identify the ligand present in this complex.
c) Does ionization isomer for the following compound exist?
28. A student of 2nd PU performs two trails of reactions between KI and KMnO4. In first trail student
add small amount of acid to reaction mixture and in second trail student forgot to add acid to reaction
mixture. Then student observed that different colour was obtained in first and second trail. Give
reason for above observation. Write the possible chemical reactions to both the trails.
29. Define Crystal field splitting. Sketch the energy level diagram for the crystal field splitting of d-
orbital in a tetrahedral complex.
30. What is the significance of synergic effect in metal carbonyls? How many bridged and non-bridged
CO (carbonyl) ligands are present in octacarbonyldicobalt (0) complex compound?

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page3

 V. Answer ANY TWO of the following. Each question carries three marks. 2 × 3 = 06
31. Direct measurement of conductivity of ionic solutions by Wheatstone bridge is not possible. Give
reasons. Suggest a remedy to resolve it.
32. For the reaction R(s) → P(g), the potential energy diagram is given below:

60

PE (KJ)
R
20

P
5

Time
By observing the above diagram, answer the following.
a) What is the value of activation energy of the reaction?
b) What is the value of ΔH of the reaction?
c) Draw potential energy diagram for the reaction P(g) → R(s).
33. State Faraday’s II law of electrolysis. Mention any two factors which determines the product of
electrolysis.
34. Name the two components present in binary solution. Which component determines the physical
state of binary solution?
PART-D
VI. Answer ANY FOUR of the following. Each question carries five marks. 4 × 5 = 20
35. a) How do you distinguish between primary, secondary and tertiary amines by using Hinsberg’s
reagent with chemical equations involved?
b) Give the preparation of p-hydroxyazobenzene. (3+2)
36. a) Between methanal and ethanal, which would undergo aldol condensation? Write the
chemical reaction involved in it.
b) Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion,
carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Why? (3+2)
37. a) What is peptide bond? Give an example for dipeptide.
b) What are oxidoreductase enzymes? Name the enzyme that catalyses hydrolysis of
maltose into glucose
c) Give any one main natural source of Vitamin K? (2+2+1)
38. a) Complete the following equation:
H CH3
i) HBr

H H

Na
ii) dry ether
Cl

iii) i.NaOH, 623K, 300 atm

+
ii. H

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page4

 b) Explain Saytzeff rule with an example. (3+2)
39. a) Give the chemical equation for the Conversion of propanenitriles into corresponding ketones by
using phenyl magnesium bromide. Write the IUPAC name of the product.
b) Explain Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky (HVZ) reaction with an example. (3+2)
40. a) Write the reaction involved in the mechanism of acid catalyzed dehydration of alcohol
to alkene.
b) Explain the preparation of anisole by Williamson synthesis. (3+2)
PART–E
(NUMERICAL PROBLEMS)
VII. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
41. Show that in a first order reaction, time required for completion of 99.9% is 10 times of half-life
(t1/2) of the reaction.
42. A 5% solution (w/w) of cane sugar (C12H22O11) in water has freezing point of 271 K. calculate the
freezing point depression constant. Given freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K.
43. The molar conductivity of 0.025 mol L–1 methanoic acid is 46.1 S cm2 mol–1. Calculate its degree
of dissociation. Given  o(H+ ) = 349.6 S cm 2 mol −1 and  o(HCOO− ) = 54.6 S cm 2 mol−1 .

44. Henry’s law constant for the molality of methane in benzene at 298 K is 4.27 × 105 mm Hg.
Calculate the mole fraction of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg.
45. Two electrolytic cells A and B containing solutions of AgNO3 and CuSO4 respectively are
connected in series. A steady current of 1.5 amperes was passed through them until 1.45 g of silver
is deposited at the cathode of cell A. How long did the current flow and What mass of copper was
deposited? [Atomic mass of copper = 63.5 and silver = 108].
(1.28  103 )K
46. The rate constant of a reaction is given by: log k = 13.25 − . Calculate the activation
T
energy and pre-exponential factor (A).

PART – F
(For visually challenged students only)
32. Give any three factors which affect a rate of reaction. 3

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page5

 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION & ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER – 3
Class: II Year PUC Academic Year: 2024-25
Subject: Chemistry (34) Maximum Marks: 70
Time: 3.00 Hours No. of Questions: 46
Instructions
1. Question paper has FIVE parts. All parts are compulsory.
2. a. Part-A carries 20 marks. Each question carries 1 mark.
b. Part-B carries 06 marks. Each question carries 2 marks.
c. Part-C carries 15 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
d. Part-D carries 20marks. Each question carries 5 marks.
e. Part-E carries 09 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
3. In Part-A questions, first attempted answer will be considered for awarding marks.
4. Write balanced chemical equations and draw neat labeled diagrams and graphs wherever necessary.
5. Direct answers to the numerical problems without detailed steps and specific unit for final answer will
not carry any marks.
6. Use log tables and simple calculator if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not allowed).
7. For a question having circuit diagram/figure/ graph/ diagram, alternate questions are given at the end of
question paper in a separate section for visually challenged students.
PART-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 1 × 15 = 15
1. The concentration term depends on temperature is
a) ppm b) mole fraction c) molality d) molarity
2. Identify the correct sequence of number of unpaired electrons of the following ions.
a) Ti+3> Cr3+> Fe3+> Ni2+ b) Fe3+> Ni2+> Ti+3> Cr3+
c) Fe3+ > Cr3+> Ni2+ > Ti+3 d) Fe3+ > Cr3+>Ti+3> Ni2+
3. Four haloalkane compounds represented by the letters M, N, O and P having boiling point are 24.2°C,
38°C, 3.56°C and 101.6°C respectively. Among the four compounds N most likely to be
a) CH3Cl b) CH3Br c) C2H5Br d) C3H7I
4. Glycine is an optically inactive α-amino acid due to
a) presence of asymmetric carbon atom b) absence of asymmetric carbon atom
c) α-carbon attached to 4 different groups d) its acidic nature.
5. Statement I: Cu displaces H2 gas from dilute acids.
Statement II: Cu2+ ions get reduced more easily than H+ ions
a) Both Statement I and II are correct
b) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
th
1
6. The radioactive substance reduced to of initial concentration in 20 min, then time taken to reduce to
4
th
1
of the initial concentration is
16
a) 60 min b) 120 min c) 40 min d) 15 min

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page1

 7. The product/s formed when phenol is treated with excess of bromine water is/are
(i) o-bromophenol (ii) p- bromophenol (iii) picric acid (iv) 2,4,6- tribromophenol
a) only (iii) b) only (iv) c) both (i) and (ii) d) only (ii)
8. Which of the following observation is shown by 2–methylpropan-2-ol with Lucas reagent?
a) Turbidity will be observed after five minutes.
b) No turbidity will be observed at room temperature.
c) Turbidity will be observed immediately.
d) Turbidity will be observed at room temperature but will disappear after five minutes.
9. The transition metal present in red pigment of blood haemoglobin is
a) cobalt b) nickel c) iron d) copper.
10. The geometry of the complex Fe(CO)5 is
a) octahedral b) tetrahedral c) trigonal bipyramidal d) square pyramidal
11. Match the following given in List I with List II
List-I List-II
A) Gatterman-Koch reaction i) SnCl2, HCl/ H3O+
B) Stephen reaction ii) CrO2Cl2/ H3O+
C) Rosenmund reaction iii) CO, HCl/Anhyd.AlCl3
D) Etard reaction iv) H2/ Pd-BaSO4
a) A-(iv), B- (iii), C-(ii), D-(i) b) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv) d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
12. An organic compound with the molecular formula C9H10O forms 2,4-DNP derivative, reduces
Tollens’ reagent and undergoes Cannizzaro reaction. On vigorous oxidation, it gives 1,2-
benzenedicarboxylic acid. The organic compound is
a) 3-ethyl benzaldehyde b) 2-ethyl benzaldehyde
c) 4-ethyl benzaldehyde d) 2, 3-dimethyl benzaldehyde.
13. The following factor which does not affect the rate of reaction is
a) molecularity b) temperature
c) catalyst d) concentration of reactant
14. The correct order of basic strength in case of ethyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is
a) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2> NH3
b) (C2H5)3N> (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2> NH3
c) (C2H5)3N> C2H5NH2> (C2H5)2NH > NH3
d) NH3> (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2
15. N-Ethylbenzenesulponamide soluble in alkali because
a) It does not contain any hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom and is not acidic.
b) It contains hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom and is strongly acidic.
c) It contains hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom but is not acidic.
d) It does not contain any hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom but is acidic.

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(SN2, instantaneous, phosphodiester, CHCl3, glycosidic, Yb2+,) 5 × 1 = 05
16. During Surgery, ____________ was used as anesthesia
17. The rate at a particular moment of time is expressed as ___________ rate of reaction.

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page2

 18. The diamagnetic lanthanoid ion is .
19. Williamson’s synthesis of preparing dimethyl ether involves ______ reaction for the attack of a
methoxide ion on methyl chloride.
20. Nucleotides are joined together by ________ linkage between 5 and 3 carbon atoms of pentose sugar.
PART–B
III. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries two marks. 3 × 2 = 06
21. Name an important alloy, which contains maximum percentage of the lanthanoid metals. Mention one
of its use.
22. Explain Fittig’s reaction.
23. Write the expression to relate cryoscopic constant and change in enthalpy of fusion. Explain the terms involved
in it.
24. Give an example for female sex hormone and write its function.
25. Complete the following reaction and name the reaction.
OH

i. CHCl3, NaOH
A
ii. H+

PART-C
IV. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
26. Using abbreviations of following ligands, identify the number of donor sites and write the formula of
each ligand. a) en b) EDTA c) PPh3
27. Write the equations for the preparation of potassium permanganate from pyrolusite ore, what is the
colour of KMnO4 crystals?
28. Using Valence Bond Theory [VBT], explain geometry, hybridisation and magnetic property of [CoF6]3–
ion. [Atomic number of Cobalt is 27].
29. Give any three applications of coordination compounds.
30. Transition elements have higher enthalpy of atomization. Give two reasons. Among 3d and 4d series
of transition elements, which series has higher enthalpy of atomization?
V. Answer ANY TWO of the following. Each question carries three marks. 2 × 3 = 06
31. What does P and ZAB represent in the equation: Rate = PZABe− Ea /RT ? Name a factor on which Z depends.
32. Name the fuel cell used in Apollo space programme and write its anodic and cathodic reaction.
33. Give any three differences between ideal and non -ideal solutions.
34. Mention any three thermodynamic properties determined by using electrochemical cells.
PART-D
VI. Answer ANY FOUR of the following. Each question carries five marks. 4 × 5 = 20
35. a) Write the reactions involved in the conversion of toluene to m-nitrobenzoic acid.
b) The pKa values of acetic acid, benzoic acid and trifluoroacetic acid are 4.76, 4.19 and 0.23
respectively. Arrange them in the increasing order of acid strength. Justify the arrangement. (3+2)
36. a) Write the mechanism involved in the conversion of 2-bromo-2-methylpropane to
2-methylpropan-2-ol.
b)What are enantiomers? Name one physical property which differs enantiomers. (3+2)
37. a) Give the mechanism involved in the acid catalyzed hydration of C2H4 to C2H5OH. (3+2)
b) Name the enzyme involved in fermentation of glucose into ethanol and write its chemical equation.

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page3

 38. a) What does tertiary structure of proteins represent? Give its two major molecular shapes.
b) Write the Haworth structure of α – D – (+)- Glucopyranose. (3+2)
39. a) Identify the product A, B and C.
OH–/partial hydrolysis NaOH + Br2 NaNO2
CN A B C
H2O

b) Name any one biologically active amino compound used in the following:
(i) to increase blood pressure (containing secondary amino group)
(ii) as an anaesthetic in dentistry (a synthetic amino compound) (3+2)
40. An organic compound (X) with molecular formula C8H8O forms an orange-red precipitate with 2,4-
DNP reagent and gives yellow precipitate on heating with iodine in the presence of sodium
hydroxide. It neither reduces Tollens reagent nor does it decolourise bromine water. On oxidation
with chromic acid, ‘X’ gives a carboxylic acid (Y) having molecular formula C7H6O2. Identify the
compounds (X) and (Y) and write all the reactions involved. 5

PART–E
(NUMERICAL PROBLEMS)
VII. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
41. Calculate the molality of 20%(w/v) aqueous solution of KI. Given density of aqueous solution of
KI = 1.2gcm–3. Molar mass of KI = 166gmol-1.
42. Vapour pressure of water at 293K is 17.535 mm Hg. Calculate the vapour pressure of water at 293K
when 25 g of glucose is dissolved in 450 g of water.
43. Calculate the emf of the following cell and state whether the cell is feasible or not?
Pt (s)| Br– (0.01M) | Br2 (l) || H+(0.03M) | H2 (g) (1bar) | Pt(s) Eo(½Br2|Br–) = 1.09V.
44. Calculate the limiting molar conductivity of Cl– by using the data Ʌo for
CaCl2 = 271.6 S cm2 mol–1 and λ0 for Ca2+ = 119.0 S cm2 mol–1.
45. The rate constant for a reaction is 60 s–1. How much time will it take to reduce the initial
concentration of the reactant to its 1/16thvalue?
46. In the given reaction A→B, the rate constant k is 2.0 x 10–2 lit mol-1s-1, find initial rate of reaction
when [A] = 0.5 M at 298K.

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page4

 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER – 3 2024 – 25
II PUC – PHYSICS (33)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 70 No. of questions : 45
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All PARTS (A to D) are compulsory. PART-E is only for visually challenged students.
2. For PART – A questions, first written-answer will be considered for awarding marks.
3. Answers without relevant diagram / figure / circuit wherever necessary will not carry any marks.
4. Direct answers to numerical problems without relevant formula and detailed solution will not carry
any marks.
PART – A
I. Pick the correct option among the four given options for ALL of the following questions: 15 × 1 = 15
1. The SI unit of surface charge density is __________ .
(A) C m–1 (B) C m–2 (C) C m–3 (D) kg m–3
2. The values of electric field (E) and electric potential (V) at any point on the equatorial plane of an electric
dipole are such that
(A) E = 0, V = 0 (B) E = 0, V ≠ 0 (C) E ≠ 0, V = 0 (D) E ≠ 0, V ≠ 0
3. If the potential difference across a capacitor is doubled, then the energy stored in it
(A) is doubled (B) is quadrupled (C) is halved (D) remains same
4. A wire has a non-uniform cross-sectional area as shown in the figure. A steady current I flows through
it. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) The drift speed of electron is constant.
(B) The drift speed of electron increases while moving from A to B.
(C) The drift speed of electron decreases while moving from A to B.
(D) The drift speed of electron varies randomly.

5. A charged particle of charge q is moving in a uniform magnetic field. The angle between the velocity(v)
of the charged particle and magnetic field(B) is . The trajectory of the charged particle varies with
angle . Match the following table by choosing the appropriate trajectory traced by the charged particle
for different possible values of angle .
Angle Trajectory
(i)  = 0o
(a) circle
(ii)  = 45o (b) straight line
(iii)  = 90o (c) helix

(A) (i) – (a) , (ii) – (b), (iii) – (c) (B) (i) – (b) , (ii) – (c), (iii) – (a)
(C) (i) – (b) , (ii) – (a), (iii) – (c) (D) (i) – (c) , (ii) – (b), (iii) – (a)

II PUC PHYSICS MODEL PAPER – 3 2024-25 Page: 1

6. Below are the two statements related to magnetic flux and magnetic field lines.
Statement-I : The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is zero.
Statement-II: The number of magnetic field lines leaving the surface is balanced by the number of lines
entering it.
(A) Both the statements I and II are correct and II is the correct explanation for I.
(B) Both the statements I and II are correct and II is not the correct explanation for I.
(C) Statement I is wrong but the statement II is correct.
(D) Statement I is correct but the statement II is wrong.
7. The polarity of induced emf in a coil is given by _________
(A) Lenz’s law (B) Faraday’s law (C) Gauss’s law in magnetism (D) Ampere’s circuital law
8. In a transformer, the windings of the primary and secondary coils are wound one over the other to
reduce the energy loss due to _________
(A) flux leakage (B) resistance of the windings (C) eddy currents (D) hysteresis
9. The electromagnetic waves suitable for RADAR systems used in aircraft navigation are
(A) Gamma rays (B) Ultraviolet rays (C) Microwaves (D) Infrared waves
10. A ray of light is incident on glass-air interface at an angle greater than the critical angle for the pair
of media. Then the ray undergoes
(A) refraction only (B) partial reflection and partial refraction
(C) total internal reflection (D) grazes the surface at the interface of the two media.
11. To observe sustained interference pattern on a screen placed at a suitable distance in Young’s double
slit experiment, which of the following condition/s is/are necessary?
(a) Sources of light should be coherent.
(b) Sources of light should be narrow.
(c) Sources of light should be very close.
(A) only (a) (B) both (a) and (b) (C) both (b) and (c) (D) all (a), (b) and (c)
12. The de Broglie wavelength of a moving particle is independent of __________ of the particle.
(A) charge (B) mass (C) speed (D) momentum
13. For an electron revolving around the nucleus,
(A) kinetic energy and potential energy are positive, total energy is negative.
(B) kinetic energy is positive, potential energy and total energy are negative.
(C) potential energy is negative, kinetic energy and total energy are positive.
(D) kinetic energy and potential energy are negative, total energy is positive.
27 64
14. The ratio of nuclear densities of 13 Al is and 29 Cu
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 13 : 29 (D) 27 : 64
15. The energy band gap in conductor, insulator and semiconductor are respectively E1 , E2 and E3.
The relation between them is
(A) E1 = E2 = E3 (B) E1 < E2 < E3 (C) E1 > E2 > E3 (D) E1 < E3 < E2
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing appropriate answer given in the bracket for ALL of the
following questions: 5×1=5
(mutual induction, inductance, diffraction, magnification, quantisation, interference)
16. One of the basic properties of electric charge is ______________.
17. The ratio of the magnetic flux-linkage to the current in a coil is called ______________.
18. The principle of working of a transformer is ______________.
19. A microscope is used to produce large _____________ of small objects.
20. The phenomenon of bending of light around the edges of an obstacle is called ____________.

II PUC PHYSICS MODEL PAPER – 3 2024-25 Page: 2

 PART – B
III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 2 = 10
21. Name the two factors on which the resistance of a metallic wire depends.
22. When does a current carrying conductor placed in a uniform magnetic field experience
(i) maximum force and (ii) minimum force?
23. Define “magnetisation of a sample”. How is it related to magnetic intensity?
24. A boy peddles a stationary bicycle. The pedals of the bicycle are attached to a coil of 100 turns, each turn of
area 0.20 m2. The coil rotates at 6 rotations per second and it is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.01 T
perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the coil. Calculate the maximum value of emf generated in the coil.
25. What is displacement current? Give the expression for it.
26. Mention two uses of polaroids.
27. Write two limitations of Bohr’s atom model.
28. How can a semiconductor diode be forward biased? What happens to the width of the depletion region when
forward bias voltage is increased?
PART – C
IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 3 = 15
29. Derive the expression for the torque on an electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field.
30. Give three results of electrostatics of conductors.
31. State and explain Biot-Savart’s law with a suitable diagram.
32. Write the three differences between diamagnetic and ferromagnetic materials.
33. Derive the expression for motional emf induced in a straight conductor moving perpendicular to uniform
magnetic field.
34. A small candle is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm.
At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp image?
What is the nature of the image?
35. Using Huygen’s principle, show that the angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence when a plane
wavefront is reflected by a plane surface.
36. Write the three features of nuclear force.
PART – D
V. Answer any THREE of the following questions: 3 × 5 = 15
37. State Gauss’s law in electrostatics. Derive an expression for the electric field at a point due to an infinitely
long thin uniformly charged straight wire using Gauss's law.
38. Arrive at the balance condition of Wheatstone bridge using Kirchhoff’s rules.
39. What is the principle behind the working of a moving coil galvanometer? With the help of a neat labelled
diagram, obtain the expression for the angular deflection produced in moving coil galvanometer.
40. Derive the expression for refractive index of the material of the prism in terms of angle of minimum deviation
and angle of the prism.
41. (a) Write three differences between intrinsic semiconductor and extrinsic semiconductor. (3)
(b) Draw the energy band diagrams of (i) n-type and (ii) p-type semiconductors at temperature T > 0 K (2)

II PUC PHYSICS MODEL PAPER – 3 2024-25 Page: 3

VI. Answer any TWO of the following questions: 2 × 5 = 10
42. Three capacitors of capacitances 2F, 3F, 6F are connected in series.
(a) Determine the effective capacitance of the combination.
(b) Find the potential difference across 6F capacitor if the combination is connected to a 60 V supply.
43. For copper, the number density of free electrons is 8.5  1028 m–3 and resistivity is 1.7  10–8 Ω m.
Calculate the conductivity of copper and relaxation time of free electrons in copper.
Take the mass of electron = 9.1 10–31 kg and e = 1.6  10–19 C.
44. A resistor of 50 Ω, a pure inductor of 250mH and a capacitor are in series in a circuit containing an AC
source of 220 V, 50 Hz. In the circuit, current leads the voltage by 60o. Find the capacitance of the capacitor.
45. When light of wavelength 400 nm is incident on a photosensitive surface, the stopping potential for the
photoelectrons emitted is found to be 0.96 V. When light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on the same
photosensitive surface, the stopping potential is found to be 0.34 V. Calculate the Planck’s constant.
Given: speed of light in vacuum is 3  108 m s–1 and e = 1.6  10–19 C.

PART – E
(FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED STUDENTS ONLY)

4. A wire has a non-uniform cross-sectional area in which end A of the wire has smaller
area than that of end B. A steady current I flows through it. Which one of the following
statements is correct?
(A) The drift speed of electron is constant.
(B) The drift speed of electron increases while moving from A to B.
(C) The drift speed of electron decreases while moving from A to B.
(D) The drift speed of electron varies randomly.

***********

II PUC PHYSICS MODEL PAPER – 3 2024-25 Page: 4

 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER-2 2024-25
II PUC - PHYSICS (33)
Time: 3 hours. Max Marks: 70
No of questions: 45
General Instructions:
1. All parts (A TO D) are compulsory. PART-E is only for visually challenged students.
2. For Part – A questions, first written-answer will be considered for awarding marks.
3. Answers without relevant diagram / figure / circuit wherever necessary will not carry any marks.
4. Direct answers to numerical problems without relevant formula and detailed solutions will not carry
any marks.
PART – A
I. Pick the correct option among the four given options for ALL of the following
questions: 15 × 1 = 15
1
1. ‘The total electric flux through a closed surface in air is equal to times the total charge
0
enclosed by that surface’. This is the statement of
(A) Coulomb’s law in electrostatics (B) Gauss’s law in magnetism
(C) Gauss’s law in electrostatics (D) Ampere’s circuital law
2. The electric potential due to a negative point charge at a distance ‘r’ is
1 1
(A) positive and it varies as (B) positive and it varies as
r2 r
1 1
(C) negative and it varies as 2 (D) negative and it varies as
r r
3. Identify the WRONG statement from the following
(A) The drift speed acquired by free electrons per unit electric field is called mobility.
(B) The conductivity of semiconductors decreases with increase in temperature.
(C) The conductivity of conductors decreases with increase in temperature.
(D) Alloys are widely used in the construction of standard resistors.
4. The physical quantities related to magnetism are listed in column I and the dimensions are listed in
column II. Identify the correct match
Column I Column II
(i) Magnetic field (a) [MLT-2A-2]
(ii) Magnetic permeability (b) [L2 A]
(iii) Magnetic moment (c) [M T-2A-1]

(A) (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a) (B) (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a)
(C) (i) - (a), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (c) (D) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b)

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER-2 24-25 Page 1

5. The ferromagnetic material among the following is
(A) copper (B) nickel (C) lead (D) calcium
6. The following are the statements related to self-inductance:
(i) The self-inductance of a coil depends on its geometry and on the permeability of the medium
inside it.
(ii) The self-inductance is a measure of electrical inertia and opposes the change in current in the
coil.
(A) Both the statements are wrong (B) Only statement (i) is correct
(C) Both the statements are correct (D) Only statement (ii) is correct
7. In a transformer, NP and NS are the number of turns present in its primary and secondary coils
respectively. The transformer is said to be a step-up transformer if
(A) NP < NS (B) NP > NS (C) NP = NS (D) NP >> NS
8. The expression for displacement current id is
dE dE dE dE
(A) id =  02 (B) id = 0  0 (C) id = 0 (D) id =  0
dt dt dt dt
9. Identify the statement which is true for a compound microscope from the following.
(A) Its objective is a convex lens of greater aperture.
(B) Its eyepiece is a convex lens of smaller aperture.
(C) The image formed by its objective is real and inverted.
(D) Its eyepiece produces the final image, which is virtual and diminished.
10. Diffraction effect is exhibited by ________ .
(A) only sound waves (B) only light waves
(C) only matter waves (D) all types of waves
11. In photoelectric effect experiment if only the frequency of incident radiation is increased, then
(A) the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons decreases. (B) the stopping potential increases.
(C) the photoelectric current increases. (D) the photoelectric current decreases.
12. The impact parameter is minimum in alpha (α) - scattering experiment for the scattering angle of
(A) 1800 (B) 00 (C) 1200 (D) 900
13. The standing wave pattern of matter waves associated with an electron revolving in a stable orbit
is shown in the diagram. The principal quantum number (n) and radius (rn) of
the orbit are respectively
4 4
(A) 8 and (B) 4 and
 
2 2
(C) 8 and (D) 4 and
 
14. The radioactive decay in which very high energy photons are emitted is called __________.
(A) gamma decay (B) alpha decay (C) negative β decay (D) positive β decay
15. When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, it
(A) raises the potential barrier. (B) reduces the majority carrier current to zero.
(C) lowers the potential barrier. (D) raises the width of depletion region.

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER-2 24-25 Page 2

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing appropriate answer given in the bracket for ALL
the following questions: 5×1=5

(zero, paramagnetic, transverse, ac generator, one, diamagnetic)

16. The magnetic susceptibility is negative for ____________ materials.
17. The device which works on the principle of electromagnetic induction is _______________.
18. The power factor of an AC circuit containing pure resistor is __________.
19. The light waves are __________ in nature.
20. The charge of a photon is __________.
PART – B
III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 2 = 10
21. ‘The charges are additive in nature’. Explain.
22. What is an equipotential surface? What will be the shape of equipotential surfaces corresponding to a
single point charge?
23. Give any two differences between current and current density.
24. A moving coil galvanometer gives a deflection of 10 divisions when 200 µA of current is passed
through it. Find the current sensitivity of the galvanometer.
25. State Faraday’s law and Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction.
26. Name the electromagnetic waves used for the following applications.
a) The radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
b) The remote switches of household electronic systems such as TV.
27. How is total energy of an electron revolving in an orbit of hydrogen atom related to the principal
quantum number of the orbit? What is the significance of the negative sign in the expression for total
energy of electron in a hydrogen atom?
28. What are intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors?
PART – C
IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 3 = 15
29. What is an electric dipole? Define electric dipole moment. Give its direction.
30. What is a capacitor? Mention any two factors on which the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
depends.
31. Derive an expression for angular frequency of revolution for a charged particle moving perpendicular to
a uniform magnetic field.
32. Mention any three properties of magnetic field lines.
33. A horizontal straight wire 10 m long is falling with a speed of 5.0 m s–1, at right angles to a magnetic
field, 0.30 × 10–4 Wbm–2. Find the instantaneous value of the emf induced in the wire.

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER-2 24-25 Page 3

34. Derive the relation between radius of curvature and focal length in case of a concave mirror.
35. Give Einstein’s explanation of photoelectric effect and write Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
36. Define ‘binding energy’ and ‘mass defect’. Write the relation between them.
PART – D
V. Answer any THREE of the following questions: 3 × 5 = 15
37. a) Obtain an expression for potential energy of an electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field. (3)
b) Define energy density of a charged capacitor. How is the energy density related to electric field
present between the plates of capacitor? (2)
38. Derive an expression for effective emf and effective internal resistance of two cells of different emfs
and internal resistances connected in parallel.
39. Derive an expression for force per unit length on two infinitely long thin parallel straight conductors
carrying currents and hence define ‘ampere’.
40. a) What is a wavefront? (1)
b) Explain the refraction of a parallel plane wave through a thin prism with a neat diagram. (2)
b) Give any two differences between constructive and destructive interferences of light. (2)
41. What is a half-wave rectifier? Explain the working of a half-wave rectifier using neat circuit diagram.
Also draw input-output waveforms corresponding to it.
VI. Answer any TWO of the following questions: 2 × 5 = 10
42. Two point charges of +4 nC and +8 nC are placed at the points A and B respectively separated by a
distance 0.2 m in air. Find the magnitude of the resultant electric field at the midpoint ‘O’ of the line
joining A and B. What will be the magnitude of resultant electric field at ‘O’ if +4 nC is replaced by
another +8 nC charge?
43. Find the currents I1 and I2 in the given electrical network.

44. A series LCR circuit contains a pure inductor of inductance 5 H, a capacitor of capacitance 20 µF and
resistor of resistance 40 Ω. If the AC source of 200 V, 50 Hz is present in the circuit, find the
impedance. Also find the resonant frequency of the circuit.
45. An object is placed at a distance 0.3 m from a convex lens of focal length 0.2 m. Find the position and
nature of the image formed. Also find the distance through which the object should be moved to get an
image of linear magnification ‘-1’.

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER-2 24-25 Page 4

 PART – E
(For Visually Challenged Students only)
13) The standing wave pattern of matter waves associated with an electron revolving in a stable
orbit is containing 4 complete waves. The principal quantum number (n) and radius (rn) of the
orbit are respectively
4 4 2 2
(A) 8 and (B) 4 and (C) 8 and (D) 4 and
   
43) The positive terminals of two cells of emfs 4 V and 2 V with internal resistances 2 Ω and 1 Ω are
connected by a uniform wire of resistance 12 Ω. Their negative terminals are connected by a second
uniform wire of resistance 8 Ω. The mid points of these two wires are connected by a third uniform
wire of resistance 10 Ω. Find the current through 4 V cell.
&&&&

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER-2 24-25 Page 5

 GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER-1 2024-25
II PUC - PHYSICS (33)
Time: 3 hours. Max Marks: 70
No of questions: 45
General Instructions:
1. All parts A to D are compulsory. Part-E is only for visually challenged students.
2. For Part – A questions, first written-answer will be considered for awarding marks.
3. Answers without relevant diagram / figure / circuit wherever necessary will not carry any marks.
4. Direct answers to numerical problems without relevant formula and detailed solutions will not carry
any marks.
PART – A
I. Pick the correct option among the four given options for ALL of the following
questions: 15 × 1 = 15
1. The S.I. unit of electric charge is
(A) coulomb metre (B) coulomb per metre (C) coulomb (D) per coulomb
2. The angle between equipotential surface and electric field is
(A) 90º (B) 0º (C) 180º (D) 45º
3. Statement-I: The resistivity of metals increases with increase in temperature.
Statement-II: Increasing the temperature of metals causes more frequent collisions of electrons.
(A) both I and II are true and II is the correct explanation of I.
(B) both I and II are true but II is not the correct explanation of I.
(C) I is true but II is false.
(D) both I and II are false.
4. A moving coil galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting
(A) a low resistance in parallel with galvanometer.
(B) a low resistance in series with galvanometer.
(C) a high resistance in parallel with galvanometer.
(D) a high resistance in series with galvanometer.
5. When a bar magnet is suspended freely, it points in the direction of
(A) east-west (B) north-south
(C) northeast-southeast (D) northwest-southwest
6. The energy stored in an inductor of inductance L in establishing the current I in it is
(A) 𝐿𝐼 (B) 𝐿𝐼 (C) 𝐿𝐼 (D) 𝐿𝐼

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER 2024-25 Page 1

7. The direction of current induced in the loop ‘abc’ shown in the figure is
(A) along ‘abc’ if I is increasing
(B) along ‘abc’ if I is decreasing
(C) along ‘acb’ if I is increasing
(D) along ‘acb’ if I is constant
8. An ideal step-up transformer decreases _______ .
(A) current (B) voltage (C) power (D) frequency
9. The displacement current is due to
(A) flow of electrons (B) flow of protons
(C) changing electric field (D) changing magnetic field
10. An object of finite height is placed in front of a concave mirror within its focus. It forms
(A) a real enlarged image (B) a real diminished image
(C) a virtual enlarged image (D) a virtual diminished image
11. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I0 is passed through a pair of polaroids with their
pass-axes inclined at an angle of θ. The intensity of emergent light is equal to
(A) 𝐼 cos 𝜃 (B) 𝐼 cos 𝜃 (C) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 (D) cos 𝜃

12. Emission of electrons from a metal surface by heating it is called

(A) photoelectric emission (B) thermionic emission
(C) field emission (D) secondary emission
13. When alpha particles are passed through a thin gold foil, most of them go undeviated because
(A) most of the region in an atom is empty space
(B) alpha particles are positively charged particles
(C) alpha particles are heavier particles
(D) alpha particles move with high energy
14. Nuclei with same atomic number are called
(A) isotopes (B) isobars (C) isomers (D) isotones
15.The column-I is the list of materials and the column-II, the list of energy band gaps 𝐸 .
Identify the correct match.

Column-I Column-II
(i) conductors (a) 𝐸 < 3 𝑒𝑉
(ii) insulators (b) 𝐸 = 0 𝑒𝑉
(iii) semiconductors (c) 𝐸 > 3 𝑒𝑉

(A) (i) - (a), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (c) (B) (i) - (b), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c)
(C) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b) (D) (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a)

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER 2024-25 Page 2

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing appropriate answer given in the bracket for ALL
the following questions: 5×1=5
(photon, polar, zero, infinite, phase, phasor)
16. A molecule possessing permanent dipole moment is called ____________ molecule.
17. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is _______________.
18. A rotating vector used to represent alternating quantities is called __________.
19. A wavefront is a surface of constant ___________.
20. In interaction with matter, light behaves as if it is made up of packet of energy called __________.

PART – B
III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 2 = 10
21. State and explain Gauss’s law in electrostatics.
22. Define drift velocity and mobility of free electrons in conductors.
23. A long air-core solenoid of 1000 turns per unit length carries a current of 2 A. Calculate the magnetic
field at the mid-point on its axis.
24. Give the principle of AC generator. Why is a current induced in an AC generator called alternating
current?
25. Write any two uses of ultraviolet radiations.
26. Name the objective used in
a) refracting type telescope and
b) reflecting type telescope.
27. Write the two conditions for the total internal reflection to occur.
28. Name the majority and the minority charge carriers in n-type semiconductor.

PART – C

IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions: 5 × 3 = 15

29. Write any three properties of electric field lines.
30. Obtain the expression for the effective capacitance of two capacitors connected in parallel.
31. What is Lorentz force? Write its expression and explain the terms.
32. Write any three differences between diamagnetic and paramagnetic materials.
33. Describe an experiment to demonstrate the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction using a bar
magnet and a coil.
34. Give any three results of experimental study of photoelectric effect.
35. Write the three postulates of Bohr’s atom model.
36. Find the energy equivalent of one atomic mass unit, first in joule and then in MeV.
Given: 1𝑢 = 1.6605 × 10 𝑘𝑔, 𝑒 = 1.602 × 10 𝐶 and 𝑐 = 2.9979 × 10 𝑚 𝑠 .

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER 2024-25 Page 3

 PART – D
V. Answer any THREE of the following questions: 3 × 5 = 15

37. Derive the expression for the electric field at a point on the axis of an electric dipole.
38. Two cells of different emfs and different internal resistances are connected in series. Derive the
expression for effective emf and effective internal resistance of the combination.
39. Derive the expression for the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a circular current loop.
40. a) Two coherent waves of a constant phase difference undergo interference. Obtain the expression for
the resultant displacement. (3)
b) Write the conditions for constructive and destructive interference in terms of phase difference. (2)
41. What is a rectifier? Explain the working of a full-wave rectifier using a neat circuit diagram.
Draw its input-output waveforms.
VI. Answer any TWO of the following questions: 2 × 5 = 10
42. a) Calculate the potential at point P due to a charge of 400nC located 9 cm away.
b) Obtain the work done in moving a charge of 2nC from infinity to the point P. Does the answer
depend on the path along which the charge is moved?
43. In the following network, find the current I3.

44. An AC source of frequency 50Hz is connected in series with an inductor of 1H, a capacitor of 90µF and
a resistor of 100Ω. Does the current leads or lags the voltage? Calculate the phase difference between
the current and the voltage.
45. An equilateral prism is made of glass of unknown refractive index. A parallel beam of light is incident
on a face of the prism. The angle of minimum deviation is 40º. Find the refractive index of the material
of the prism. If the prism is placed in water of refractive index 1.33, find the new angle of minimum
deviation of a parallel beam of light.

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER 2024-25 Page 4

 PART – E
(For Visually Challenged Students only)
7) A circular conducting loop is placed in the plane of the paper to the right of a long straight
conductor carrying current I in the upward direction. The direction of current induced in the
loop is
(A) clockwise if I is increasing (B) clockwise if I is decreasing
(C) anti clockwise if I is increasing (D) anti clockwise if I is constant
43) In a Wheatstone bridge, AB = 10Ω , BC = 10Ω , CD = 5Ω and DA = 20Ω are connected in cyclic
order. A galvanometer of 2Ω is connected between B and D. A current of 1A enters at A and leaves the
network at C. Find the current through the galvanometer.

*****

II PU PHYSICS MODEL PAPER 2024-25 Page 5