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Answer Key for Blood Therapy 2
Correct answer: d
Rationale: An individual with type AB+ blood can receive blood from any group (with type AB
being preferable) and can only donate blood to another AB+ type individual.
4. A bus accident occurred in a rural area. Several patients taken to the local hospital required
blood transfusions, which resulted in a decreased supply of whole blood. One patient is blood
type B. The blood bank sends type O- RBCs. What is the nurse’s best action?
a) Return the blood to the blood bank.
b) Administer the type O blood.
c) Begin IV fluids until type B blood is obtained.
d) Complete an incident report.
Correct answer: b
Rationale: It is acceptable to provide group O RBCs to all patients. This often occurs in
emergency situations before blood typing occurs and/or blood banks will often substitute group
O RBCs for other blood types if their supply is low.
5. A patient is Rh(D) positive. The blood bank sends Rh(D) negative RBCs. What is the nurse’s
best action?
a) Send the blood product back to the blood bank because Rh(D) negative RBCs should
not be transfused to Rh(D) positive patients.
b) Ask the patient whether he has every been exposed to Rh(D) negative blood before.
c) Request that unit of AB+ blood be sent for the patient.
d) Use the blood product supplied, because Rh(D) negative RBCs may be safely
transfused to Rh(D) positive patients.
Correct answer: d
Rationale: It is acceptable to transfuse Rh(D) negative RBCs to Rh(D) positive patients.
6. A patient is Rh(D) negative. The blood bank sends Rh(D) positive plasma. What should the
nurse do?
a) Use the blood product supplied, because Rh(D) positive plasma may be safely
transfused to Rh(D) negative patients.
b) Send the blood product back to the blood bank, because Rh(D) positive plasma should
not be transfused to Rh(D) negative patients.
c) Send a sample of the patient’s blood to the blood bank for repeat Rh typing before
administering plasma.
d) Contact the physician for further pretransfusion orders.
Correct answer: a
Rationale: It is acceptable to transfuse Rh(D) positive plasma to Rh(D) negative patients,
because the Rh(D) antigens are associated with RBCs rather than with plasma.
7. Identify the blood component that elevates hematocrit by 3% and hemoglobin by 1 g/dL when
1 unit is administered. (Select all that apply.)
a) Whole blood
b) RBCs
c) Platelets
d) Plasma
e) Cryoprecipitate
Correct answer: a, b
Rationale: A unit of whole blood should elevate hematocrit by 3% and hemoglobin by 1g/dL in
non-hemorrhaging adult. A unit of RBCs is expected to raise Hgb/Hct levels same as whole
blood.
8. Identify the blood component that can be stored for up to 5 days at room temperature.
a) Whole blood
b) RBCs
c) Platelets
d) Plasma
e) Cryoprecipitate
Correct answer: c
Rationale: Platelets may be stored up to 5 days at room temperature.
9. Identify the blood component that decreases microvascular bleeding during surgery and does
not require ABO and/or Rh testing.
a) Whole blood
b) RBCs
c) Platelets
d) Plasma
e) Cryoprecipitate
Correct answer: e
Rationale: Cryoprecipitate decreases microvascular bleeding during surgical procedures.
Cryoprecipitate is indicated if the patient is bleeding and the fibrinogen level is below 100
mg/dL.
10. The advantages of using this type of autologous blood donation include: it contains more
viable RBCs than stored blood, it has a normal pH, and it contains more 2,3-DPG than other
types of blood donations.
a) Prepoperative
b) Perioperative
c) Hemodilution
d) Allogenic
Correct answer: b
Rationale: Perioperative blood contains more viable RBCs and 2,3-DPG than stored forms of
blood. In addition, the pH is normal.
11. Compatibilites for ABO type of donor and recipient are required for which blood products?
(Select all that apply.)
a) Whole blood
b) RBCs
c) Platelets
d) Plasma
Correct answer: a, b, c, d
Rationale: All of the blood products listed should be blood typed prior to use in order to avoid
life-threatening complications from occurring. Cryoprecipitate and colloid components (such as
albumin) do not require ABO or Rh typing.
1. Why might dysrhythmias and a reduction in core body temperature occur in a recently infuse
patient?
a) Due to an air embolism
b) Due to volume overload
c) Due to hypocalcemia
d) Due to the rapid administration of unheated blood products
Correct answer: d
Rationale: Rapid administration of unheated solutions may result in iatrogenic hypothermia. A
patient who has an air embolism will probably experience symptoms related to heart attack or
stroke. A patient who experiences volume overload will probably exhibit shortness of breath and
edema. A patient who has hypocalcemia may experience muscle twitching and numbness of the
extremities, which should resolve as the blood passes through the liver.
2. When administering blood products, large-bore catheters are used for this primary reason.
a) Large-bore catheters prevent blood product hemolysis as the product passes through
the catheter and into the blood stream.
b) Larger catheters allow a more consistent rate of administration than smaller catheters.
c) Large-bore catheters are used, because blood products are viscous.
d) Large-bore catheters are used so that flushing the line before and after blood product
infusion is easier.
Correct answer: a
Rationale: Using a large-bore catheter reduces the risk of blood product hemolysis, especially
when administering RBCs. Although some blood products are viscous and a large-bore catheter
does support faster administration and is easier to flush than a small-bore catheter, protecting
blood products from destruction during administration is the primary reason that large-bore
catheters are used.
Correct answer: b
Rationale: An 18-gauge needle is the recommended gauge for planned infusions. A 16-gauge
needle is most often used during major surgery, trauma, and obstetric emergency; although it
may be used to infuse blood products outside of those situations, it is rarely the recommended
gauge during a planned infusion. The 20-gauge needle is recommended for most routine patient
applications. The 22-gauge needle is recommended for elderly and children applications. The 24-
gauge needle is the recommended gauge for pediatric and neonate applications.
4. Which blood product places a patient at a higher risk of fluid overload after transfusion?
a) Whole blood
b) RBCs
c) Platelets
d) Leukocyte-poor RBCs
e) Cryoprecipitate
Correct answer: a
Rationale: A unit of whole blood is 450 to 500 mL. Other blood products are substantially less
volume.
5. If a patient develops a skin rash, edema, and wheezing during a blood transfusion, the nurse
should:
a) Discard the blood bag and tubing
b) Slow the rate of the transfusion
c) Stop the transfusion immediately
d) Reassess the patient in 10 minutes
Correct answer: c
Rationale: These are signs of an allergic reaction. Stop the transfusion immediately, and connect
normal saline-primed tubing at VAD to prevent any subsequent blood from infusing from the
tubing.
6. What may happen if Lactated Ringers, electrolytes, or other calcium-containing solutions are
administered concurrently with blood products?
a) Calcium binds to citrate.
b) Electrolyte imbalance occurs due to upsetting the sodium-to-calcium balance.
c) Serum protein concentrations reduce.
d) Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis occurs.
Correct answer: a
Rationale: Most blood products contain citrate as an anticoagulant. Calcium binds to citrate. For
this reason, it is recommended that blood product administration occur separately from most
other IV fluids (except normal saline).
7. A trauma patient has received 6 units of red blood cells. Plasma and platelets are now
prescribed. The nurse changes the blood administration tubing because:
a) Blood tubing must be changed every 6 units.
b) Plasma is unable to pass through tubing that has previously filtered red blood cells.
c) Platelets should run through tubing different than the tubing used for RBCs.
d) Blood tubing must be changed every hour .
Correct answer: c
Rationale: Fibrin strands and debris in the filter may trap platelets.
8. The initial infusion rate and total infusion time for blood products are:
a) 5 mL/min; 30 minutes
b) 10 mL/min; 2 hours
c) 30 mL/min; 4 hours
d) 2 mL/min; 4 hours
Correct answer: d
Rationale: The infusion rate is 2 mL/min (or 20 gtt/min using macrodrip of 10 gtt/mL) for the
initial 15 minutes. All blood products need to be infused within 4 hours of initiating the
transfusion.
9. Heating a unit of blood products in a microwave and/or under hot water from the tap is
contraindicated because:
a) It destroys the blood product.
b) It makes the blood product too hot to infuse and, as it cools, it coagulates.
c) Preparation of blood products is the blood bank’s responsibility.
Correct answer: a
Rationale: Use of microwaves and/or hot water destroys blood products, because the heat
generated by the microwave or hot water cannot be adequately moderated to protect blood
products from damage.
10. Identify the transfusion reactions that result in immediate cessation of the transfusion. (Select
all that apply.)
a) Hemolytic reaction
b) Allergic reaction
c) TRALI
d) GVHD
e) Nonhemolytic reaction
f) Circulatory overload
g) Hyperkalemia
h) Hypocalcemia
i) Hypothermia
Correct answer: a, b, e
Rationale: Hemolytic, nonhemolytic , and allergic reactions are life-threatening reactions that
require immediate cessation of the transfusion.
11. It is acceptable practice to place blood into refrigerators and/or freezers located in patient
care areas.
True / False
Correct answer: a
Rationale: Incorrect patient identification and/or incorrect labeling of blood leads to the
administration of incompatible blood and causes life-threatening transfusion reactions.
Correct answer: b
Rationale: This is why the transfusion is started slowly and why it is so important for the nurse
to intensely monitor the patient during the first 15 minutes of the transfusion.
3. The nurse is transfusing a large amount of blood to a trauma patient. The nurse knows to
observe the patient for:
a) Hypotension and cardiac dysrhythmias
b) Headache and muscle pain
c) Crackles in the lungs and increased central venous pressure
d) Wheezing and chest pain
Correct answer: a
Rationale: Hypotension and cardiac dysrhythmias are the initial reactions to massive
transfusions.
Correct answer: c
Rationale: Administration of the wrong blood type results in a hemolytic reaction and is the
most extreme transfusion reaction that is life threatening.
5. A febrile transfusion reaction typically occurs when the patient’s antibodies react to
transfused:
a) FFP
b) RBCs
c) Corticosteroids
d) White blood cells (WBCs)
Correct answer: d
Rationale: A febrile transfusion reaction is caused by a patient’s anti bodies responding to the
antigens present on transfused WBCs or platelets in the donor’s blood.
6. The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a patient with a history
of anemia. Which is the best question the nurse should ask the patient before explaining the
procedure?
a) “Are you a Jehovah’s Witness?”
b) “Have you ever had a blood transfusion before?”
c) “Do you have any allergies?”
d) “Are you aware of the risks associated with receiving a blood transfusion?”
Correct answer: b
Rationale: The best question to ask is “Have you ever had a blood transfusion before?” This
question will elicit information without creating fear before patient teaching.
Correct answer: b
Rationale: GI bleeding is probably contaminated with bacteria and would exclude this patient
from receiving autotransfusion.
2. A patient who is receiving an autotransfusion has an estimated blood loss of half of the
patient’s blood volume. The physician has ordered FFP. The nurse correctly understands that the
primary rationale for using FFP is:
a) To increase the hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
b) To provide clotting factors and increase blood volume
c) To replace the loss of platelets and clotting factors
d) To prevent a transfusion reaction to the autologous blood.
.
Correct answer: b
Rationale: FFP is administered because it can be transfused rapidly to replace lost fluid volume
and will provide clotting factors. FFP does not contain platelets, so it will not replace platelet
loss. FFP will not specifically increase the hematocrit and hemoglobin. It is unlikely to have a
transfusion reaction to autologous blood. Furthermore, FFP will not prevent a transfusion
reaction and requires ABO compatibility.
3. When turning a patient who has a right-sided hemothorax, 250 mL of dark blood pours into
the chest tube container. The most important intervention is to:
a) Check the chest tube system to confirm patency, and call for a chest x-ray film
immediately.
b) Assess the patient’s vital signs and emergently transfuse 2 units of packed red blood
cells to treat hypovolemia.
c) Prepare for autotransfusion using a high-pressure, rapid infuser to quickly infuse the
blood.
d) Monitor the patient closely, obtain a blood sample for a hematocrit, and document the
drainage since this is probably old blood.
Correct answer: d
Rationale: The color of the blood indicates that it is possibly old, deoxygenated blood. Running
laboratory tests to ensure that the patient’s hematocrit is stable before taking any other action is
the best course of listed actions.
Correct answer: d
Rationale: Blood oozing from all breaks within the skin indicates clotting issue. The other signs
and symptoms listed would be complications of an allogenic transfusion.
5. A patient arrives in the emergency department with a stab wound to the upper abdomen.
Which of the following findings contraindicates autotransufsion of pleural blood?
a) Wound 5 hours old
b) Great vessel injury
c) Diaphragmatic disruption
d) Myocardial rupture
Correct answer: a
Rationale: Recall that autotransfused blood must be transfused within 6 hours. If the wound is 5
hours old, clotting factors have probably been active and made the blood non-transfusable.
6. While assessing a 49-year-old, intubated patient, the nurse notes that the patient is pale and
hypotensive and has tachycardia and oliguria. The patient has a hemothorax on the right side and
bilateral femur fractures. His chest tubes have drained 350 mL over the previous 2 hours. The
nurse knows that:
a) This patient is hypovolemic from blood loss and is an appropriate candidate for
autotransfusion.
b) The patient should begin receiving dopamine for his blood pressure, and large amounts
of fluid should be infused to facilitate increased urine output.
c) The patient is hypovolemic and a poor candidate for autotransfsion because of the
increased risk of a transfusion reaction.
d) The patient requires decreased cardiac output to decrease his heart rate and
compensate for hypovolemia.
Correct answer: a
Rationale: The signs and symptoms indicate that this patient is hematologically compromised.
The volume of blood in the chest tubes makes this patient an ideal candidate for autotransfusion.
7. The patient is to have blood dilution (i.e., hemodilution) prior to surgery. The nurse is
assessing the patient’s understanding of the procedure. Which statement, if made by the patient,
indicates that further instruction is needed?
a) “A unit of my blood will be removed before surgery and reinfused at the end of the
operation.”
b) “A unit of my blood will be removed, diluted with IV fluids, and returned during
surgery.”
c) “As soon as the blood is withdrawn, I will receive IV fluids ot restore my blood
volume.”
d) “During surgery, I will lose fewer RBCs than I would if I did not have the procedure.”
Correct answer: b
Rationale: The removed blood is not diluted; rather, the blood is drawn from a patient before
surgery, and the patient is immediately given IV fluids to compensate for the amount of blood
removed. Since the number of red blood cells in a person’s circulatory system will have been
diluted, fewer red blood cells will be lost from bleeding during the operation. After surgery, the
patient’s own blood is infused.
8. A patient is to have a perioperative blood collection for autotransfusion. The nurse would
recognize which of the following measures as an unexpected step in the process?
a) Fluid aspirated from the surgical site is mixed with an anticoagulant solution.
b) Care is taken when suctioning blood in order to reduce hemolysis of RBCs.
c) Collected blood is washed and concentrated prior to reinfusion.
d) Blood collected from a drainage tube is transfused unwashed to the patient.
Collect answer: d
Rationale: Blood collected from a drainage tube at the surgical site and transfused either washed
or unwashed to the patient describes postoperative blood collection, not perioperative blood
collection. All other statements correctly describe perioperative blood collection for
autotransfusion.
9. A newly hired nurse is orienting to the orthopedic unit where postoperative blood collection
and autotransfusion commonly occur. Which statement, if made by this new nurse, indicates that
further instruction is necessary?
a) “A hemovac is used to collect the blood for autotransfusion.”
b) “The autotransfusion will end when the bleeding stops or slows significantly.”
c) “Postoperative blood collection may also be performed on postoperative cardiac
patients.”
d) “The amount of salvaged blood is generally small.
Collect answer: a
Rationale: Postoperative collection is used primarily in cardiac and orthopedic surgery.
Autotransfusion is ended when bleeding is stopped or slows significantly. Connecting an
ordinary, self-draining device such as a Hemovac container to the drain line(s) discontinues
autotransfusion. In most cases, the volume of salvaged red blood cells is small.
Module Exam
1. The nurse is inspecting a unit of platelets before administering it to the patient. What should
the nurse expect to see?
Correct answer: b
Rationale: Air bubbles, clots, or discoloration indicate bacterial contamination or inadequate
anticoagulation of the stored component and are contraindications for transfusion of that product.
Thawed FFP should be yellow, light green, or light orange in color and clear in appearance. A
unit of platelets should appear clear and straw or light pink in color. It is normal for
cryoprecipitate to be cloudy.
2. Match the blood product type to the benefits of transfusing that product.
Correct match:
Red blood cells Given to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the
circulatory system due to acute or chronic blood loss
(i.e., anemia)
Whole blood Given to increase the oxygen carrying capacity of the
blood and to replace the volume in a patient who is in
shock
Albumin Given to replace volume after acute loss, especially in
patients who have severe burns and/or who are
developing signs of edema; known as a volume
expander
Platelets Given to prevent and/or control bleeding due to
thrombocytopenia
Plasma Given to correct coagulation deficiencies and/or to
reverse the effects of warfarin
Cryoprecipitate Given to control bleeding by replacing clotting factors
3. A young, female trauma patient, whose identity is unknown, requires an immediate, massive
blood transfusion upon arrival to the emergency department. The nurse should administer:
a) O-negative RBCs
b) Typed and cross-matched blood
c) Type-specific blood
d) O-positive RBCs
Correct answer: a
Rationale: While it is preferable to wait for typing and cross matching to occur, in an
emergency, O- blood can be administered until blood typing and matching can occur. O-negative
blood is desired in the premenopausal, female patient. If this patient were male or a
postmenopausal female, it would be acceptable to use O+ blood in this situation.
4. When preparing to administer red blood cells, the nurse notes that lactated Ringer’s solution is
hanging on the patient’s IV pole. Before administering the blood product, the most appropriate
action is to cease administering the lactated Ringer’s solution and flush the line with:
a) Histamine
b) Normal saline solution
c) Heparin
d) Calcium
Correct answer: b
Rationale: It is contraindicated to transfuse any substance that might bind to the citrate in the red
blood cells. By flushing with normal saline, you reduce the likelihood that citrate will bind to the
calcium in the lactated Ringer’s solution.
5. After transfusion of several units of blood, a patient continues to bleed. Anticipate an order to
transfuse:
a) Albumin
b) Platelets
c) Whole blood
d) Red blood cells
Correct answer: b
Rationale: Platelets are transfused when it appears that a clotting issue exists.
6. For a patient with low hemoglobin and hematocrit values, the physician would be expected to
order a transfusion of:
a) FFP
b) Platelets
c) RBCs
d) Clotting factors
Correct answer: c
Rationale: A transfusion of RBCs should increase a patient’s hemoglobin and hematocrit values.
7. On inspection, a unit of blood from the blood bank shows several blood clots clinging to the
bag. The best course of action is:
a) Notify the blood bank.
b) Administer the blood as ordered.
c) Add citrate phosphate dextrose (CPD) to the blood.
d) Shake the bag to break the clots up into smaller pieces.
Correct answer: a
Rationale: The blood bank will need to prepare an alternate bag for transfusion.
8. A patient has a pretransfusion hemoglobin value of 6 g/dL and a hematocrit value of 18%.
Two units of RBCs are transfused. Four hours after the transfusion, the patient’s hemoglobin and
hematocrit values would be expected to be:
Correct answer: b
Rationale: The hemoglobin is expected to increase by 2 g/dL and the hematocrit is expected to
increase by 6% after the transfusion of 2 units.
Correct answer: c
Rationale: Fluid overload is the most likely complication that can occur as a result of an FFP
transfusion.
10. The patient is receiving a unit of whole blood. The patient complains of pain from his
surgical site. The patient has an order for morphine 2 mg IV push every 1 hour as needed. What
is the nurse’s best action?
a) Administer the morphine IV push in the port closest to the patient of the blood
administration tubing.
b) Wait until the transfusion is complete, and then administer the morphine as ordered.
c) Initiate another IV access, and administer the morphine as ordered.
d) Temporarily stop the blood transfusion, flush the tubing with normal saline, administer
the morphine, and restart the transfusion.
Correct answer: c
Rationale: Never inject medication into the same IV line with a blood component because of the
risk for contaminating the blood product with pathogens and the possibility of incompatibility. A
separate IV access must be maintained if the patient requires an IV infusion (i.e., total parenteral
nutrition, pain control) during the transfusion.
11. The nurse is initiating a blood transfusion of packed RBCs. At what rate should the infusion
initially be set?
a) 2 mL/min
b) 10 mL/min
c) 15 mL/min
d) 20 mL/min
Correct answer: a
Rationale: The initial flow rate during the first 15 minutes of a transfusion should be 2 mL/min
or 20 gtt/min (using a macrodrip of 10 gtt/mL). Then regulate to the physician’s orders.
12. The nurse initiates a blood transfusion of packed RBCs at 0800. The unit of blood should not
hang beyond:
a) 1000
b) 1200
c) 1400
d) 2000
Correct answer: b
Rationale: A blood transfusion should be completed within 4 hours to reduce the risk of
bacterial growth.
13. The nurse obtains the patient’s vital signs before initiating a blood transfusion. The patient’s
vital signs are B/P 114/78, T 100.3° F, P 88 beats, R 20. What is the nurse’s most appropriate
action?
a) Record the vital signs and initiate the blood therapy slowly.
b) Notify the health care provider of the pretransfusion vital signs.
c) Continue to monitor the patient’s vital signs and, if the patient’s temperature is greater
than 101° F, administer antipyretic.
d) Administer antipyretic and antihistamine, and initiate the transfusion.
Correct answer: b
Rationale: If the patient is febrile ( temperature becomes greater than 100° F [37.8° C]), notify
the physician or health care provider before initiating the transfusion.
14. The nurse initiates a blood transfusion at 0800. When would an acute hemolytic transfusion
most likely occur?
a) By 0815
b) By 0830
c) 2 to 4 hours after completion
d) 2 to 14 days after completion
Correct answer: a
Rationale: Most transfusion reactions occur within the first 15 minutes of the transfusion.
15. A patient who is classified as a universal recipient has what blood type?
a) O-negative
b) O-positive
c) AB-negative
d) AB-positive
Correct answer: d
Rationale: A person with AB-positive blood can receive A+, A-, B+, B-, O+, O-, AB+, and AB-
type blood, and is referred to as the universal recipient.
16. The nurse checks the physician’s orders to determine whether there are any pretransfusion
medications to be administered. Which of the following would the nurse most likely expect to
administer?
a) Analgesic (e.g., morphine sulfate)
b) Antibiotic (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
c) Antihistamine (e.g., diphenhydramine)
d) Diuretic (e.g,. furosemide)
Correct answer: c
Rationale: Premedications such as antihistamine or antipyretic may be ordered especially if the
patient demonstrated previous transfusion sensitivity.
17. The nurse is preparing to infuse a blood transfusion rapidly for a patient who is experienced
significant blood loss in a motor vehicle accident. Which gauge of IV cannula would be best for
the nurse to choose?
a) 18 to 20 gauge
b) 22 to 24 gauge
c) 26 gauge
d) 28 gauge
Correct answer: a
Rationale: Large-gauge cannulas (18- or 20-gauge) promote rapid flow of blood components
and are preferred in emergency situations.
18. The nurse initiates a blood transfusion and monitors the patient for signs of a transfusion
reaction. Five minutes into the transfusion, which would be a cause for concern?
a) Temperature is 98.6° F.
b) Patient complains of flank pain and chills.
c) Systolic blood pressure increased by 4 mm Hg from baseline.
d) Patient complains of feeling tired and sleepy.
Correct answer: b
Rationale: Flank pain and chills are signs of an acute hemolytic reaction. The patient may also
complain of chest pain, dyspnea, and pain along the vein receiving blood. The patient is likely to
be hypotensive and tachycardic. Fatigue is a symptom that often accompanies anemia.
19. The nurse is instructing the NAP on signs that a person is having an adverse reaction to a
transfusion. Which of the following would be one of the first signs?
a) Tachycardia
b) Hypertension
c) Hypothermia
d) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Correct answer: a
Rationale: An elevation in temperature or heart rate is one of the first signs that a person is
having an adverse reaction to a transfusion. Some patients also experience marked hypotension if
a severe reaction occurs. DIC is a later sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction.
20. How long should the nurse stay with the patient after initiating a blood transfusion?
a) Until the transfusion is completed
b) 5 to 10 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 1 hour
Correct answer: c
Rationale: Most transfusion reactions occur within the first 15 minutes.
21. The nurse obtains the blood from the blood bank and is called away to see another patient.
Twenty minutes later, the nurse realizes that she will be unable to initiate the transfusion at this
time. What is the nurse’s best action?
a) Put the blood in the facility’s refrigerator.
b) Have the NAP initiate the transfusion under the nurse’s verbal direction.
c) Return the blood to the blood bank.
d) Discard the blood appropriately, and retrieve another one when able to administer it.
Correct answer: c
Rationale: If you cannot initiate the blood transfusion within 30 minutes from the time of
release from the blood bank, immediately return the blood to the blood bank and retrieve it when
you can administer it.
The same care that the Germans show in the growing and
transportation of fish is also manifested in their treatment of game.
During the automobile tour across Germany to which reference
has been made, we purposely stopped, as a rule, at the smaller
towns and taverns; but everywhere, without advance notice, we had
excellent food. I had previously come to the conclusion that the
average German restaurant serves nearly if not quite as good meals
as the average French restaurant, at least in the provinces.
It was game season, and everywhere we were able to get
partridges—plump young birds, juicy, and cooked scientifically, at
about one-third American prices.
Hares and rabbits are a German specialty, and Hasenrücken is a
very different thing from the undrawn rabbit abomination sold in
American markets. The Californian cottontail is the nearest approach
we have to the Teutonic hare. I shot dozens of them in Los Angeles
County one winter and found them as tender and almost as well
flavored as young chicken.
Venison is seldom to be had in our markets and usually only at
fancy prices. In German restaurants it is as cheap as beef;
sometimes cheaper. The back—Rehrücken—costs a trifle more, and
is better than the rest of the meat, which is usually served roasted
or as a ragout; but all is good. It seems to be a specialty of the
Rhine boats.
Other game also is abundant and cheap, for the simple reason
that the greed for sport is regulated by severe laws which are strictly
enforced. We, too, now have game laws in most of our States, but
they are seldom enforced effectively and most of them, moreover,
were made on the principle of locking the stable door after the horse
has been stolen.
Africa is at present the scene of ruthless slaughter of game, big
and little, but at its worst it is not often so reckless, extravagant, and
wasteful as the hideous carnage of which Americans have been
guilty. Time was when wild pigeons blackened the sky and were slain
by the hundreds with poles. Wild turkeys inhabited every thicket and
could be bought for twenty cents apiece—they are twice as much a
pound now, though seldom on sale at any price. Ruffled grouse were
so plentiful that a bounty was offered for their extermination, their
abundance being a menace to the crops. To-day you pay $5 for a
brace of these birds. Deer, until lately, were killed for their haunches,
the rest being left for beasts of prey; while millions of buffaloes were
slaughtered for their tongues and hides—often for the tongues
alone.
The Audubon Society, aided by generous donors and, to some
extent, by the Government, has done royal service to protect game
and song birds. The intelligent sporting clubs are lending useful aid,
while the Yellowstone Park has been set aside as a great game
preserve. Unfortunately, although the animals are safe from guns
while they remain in the Park, thousands are slaughtered in winter
when hunger drives them outside its limits, while many thousands
more perish because no provision is made for feeding these poor
wards of the Government.
A pathetic picture is printed in Dillon Wallace's splendid book,
"Saddle and Camp in the Rockies." It tells a sad story. One settler
told him there had been times when he could walk half a mile on the
bodies of dead elk. Instead of helping its wards, the Federal
Government actually gave permits to sheepmen which would have
devastated the last refuge of the elks. The settlers saved the
situation by holding an indignation meeting. "The sheepmen saw the
point—and the rope—and discreetly departed."
In Germany the game animals are cared for in winter. While
visiting Mark Twain's daughter and her husband, the eminent
pianist-composer, Ossip Gabrilowitsch, in the Bavarian Highlands, in
the summer of 1912, we met at their house a young tenor who was
also a mighty hunter before the Lord. He gave us an account of the
game laws and the general arrangements for preservation and
multiplication, which convinced us that if we are to retrieve the
errors and crimes of our predecessors, East and West, we must
follow the example of Germany.
Pointing to the meadows round about, he explained that the hay
made on these is preserved and fed to the deer in winter. Often one
may see as many as a hundred at a time assembling for their daily
meal, and people come all the way from Munich to see them at it.
As it had been found that too much hay or other dry food was
not good for the deer, the owners of private game preserves, of
which there are many, have taken to planting beets, turnips or
potatoes, which remain in the ground till the animals dig them out
from under the snow and soil.
A suggestive detail regarding the protection of birds is that
thickets, bristling with thorns, are specially provided to help them
during nesting time and when pursued by birds or beasts of prey.
The clearing away of thickets in America has done almost as much
as actual slaughter in exterminating birds. Lovers of song birds as
well as epicures who like game for a change would unite in blessing
our railway companies if they followed the German example of
planting shrubs as homes for birds all along the railroad
embankments.
While the Germans are fond of partridges and other game birds,
their favorite food, so far as the feathered tribes are concerned, is
the domesticated goose. In the markets, especially of the northern
cities, more geese are exposed for sale than all other kinds of
poultry combined, and in restaurants Gänsebraten is seldom absent
from the menu. The French rather look down on roast goose, but
that is because their roast goose is not so juicy and tender as the
Prussian, whether owing to a difference in variety or rearing I cannot
tell.
The Germans are most painstaking in the growing and the proper
feeding of this bird. They know that corn fodder yields the largest
amount of fat—and goose fat is much in demand—while the finest
Flavor is secured by feeding barley malt.
The best goose, like the best beef, is grown where there is
abundant pasturage. There is less of this in the Empire than there
used to be, hence large numbers of geese are imported. From six to
seven millions of them are annually brought across the border,
mostly from Russia. Every day, a special "goose train," consisting of
from fifteen to forty cars crosses the Russian frontier bound for
Berlin or Strassburg.
Deer in German Forest
IN A BERLIN MARKET.
That the goose is the food of the day and every day is made
manifest in the markets of Berlin, of which there are more than a
dozen. All the poultry stalls are filled with them, so much so that
other meat, even the ever-present veal, shrinks timidly into the
background.
Wherever one stops, the displays are most attractive. There are
unfrozen, fresh-killed meats of all kinds, tempting even the sightseer
who has no intention of buying. Autumn flowers, and large boxes of
deep red Preisselbeeren—a berry very similar to the mountain
cranberry found on Maine's highest peaks, and growing everywhere
in Germany (it ought to be acclimated in our fields)—give rich
autumnal hues to many of the market stalls, while the fragrance of
Gravenstein apples fills the air near the fruit stalls.
As in Paris, the sea fish are fresh-caught, with ice about them,
but never frozen, while fresh-water fish are carried to the buyer's
house in a tank and selected alive. The German krebs, or crawfish, is
almost as much in evidence as the French écrevisses, and like these,
it is kept in tanks of cold, running water, except for a few boxfuls,
the probable supply of the day, which are sorted out by sizes for
convenience. "Solo-krebs" is one of the items on a Berlin menu, and
means one huge fellow, almost as big as a small lobster.
This Berlin market, unlike the Halles of Paris, does not encroach
on and beautify the surrounding streets. It is orderly and law-
abiding, and fills up its allotted space of two covered squares to the
limit, but with no overflow. However, the shops nearby are generally
for foods, with appetizing windows of sausages, smoked meats and
fish, or cheeses.
An oddity of this market is that the upper floor space is divided
about equally between fruits and household furnishings. There is an
exhaustless supply of step-ladders, and besides these, every need of
the kitchen is provided for.
Meat prices, which soar in Berlin, are much lower in the big
markets than elsewhere.
Any one coming directly from the United States, where the veal is
seldom so good as the lamb or the beef is sure to wonder at the
abundance of calves in German markets. After sampling the veal a
few times, one ceases to wonder why the Germans are so addicted
to it, and the Austrians no less so. The French know how to cook
veal, and a good cutlet à la Milanaise is not to be despised, but there
is nothing in its way as good as the Wiener Schnitzel or the German
Kalbsbraten.
The excellence of German veal is due largely to the strict
exclusion from the markets by the meat inspectors of all animals
that are too young or too old, the Flavor as well as the tenderness of
the meat being largely dependent on the right age for slaughtering
the calf. The calves are, moreover, milkfed and not brought up on
"hay-tea."
Fruit
Oranges, Bananas, Grape Fruit, Grapes
Preserves
Honey, Strawberry Marmalade, Jams, Quince Jelly
Sweet Pickel Peaches, Scotch Marmalade
Coffee, Tea, etc.
Coffee, Coffeeïneless Coffee H. A. G., Cocoa, Chocolate
Ceylon Tea, Mixed Tea, Milk and Cream
Bread
Rolls, Milk and Butter Toast, Toast plain
Various Kinds of Cakes and Crackers
Cereals
Milk Rice, Oatmeal, Hominy, Force, Shredded Wheat, Grape Nuts
Eggs, Omelettes and Pancakes
Buckwheat, Hominy, Rice and Wheat Cakes,
Pancakes plain, with Apples or Cherries
Apricot or Currant Marmalade
Potato Pancakes,
Boiled Eggs, Poached Eggs, Baked Eggs
Fried Eggs plain, with Bacon or à la Tyrolienne
Scrambled Eggs plain, with Ham or à la Bavaroise
Omelette plain, aux fines Herbes or with Strawberries
Fish, Steaks, Chops etc.
Kippered Herrings, Haddock, Fish Croquettes, Sole, Salted Mackerels
Fillet Steak Westmoreland, Fillet of Veal Esterházy
Fillet Gulyàs with Mushrooms, German Beef Steak
Chicken Liver on the Spit with Piémontaise Rice
Calf's Liver with Apples and Onions, Fried Calf's Brains Sauce Rémoulade
Grill: Tenderloin Steak, Mutton Chops, Sirloinsteak, Lamb Kidneys,
English Ham, Frankfort Sausages
Potatoes
Boiled, Fried, Baked, Mashed Potatoes
Saratoga Chips, French Fried Potatoes, Lyonnaise Potatoes
Cold Dishes
Westphalian Ham, Smoked Bologna Sausages, Smoked Tongue
Potted Fieldfares with Truffles, Roast Beef, Chicken
Relishes
Eel in Jelly, Oil Sardines, Anchovies, Fillet of Herring in diverser Sauce
Cheese
Camembert, Herb, Imperial, Holland Cheese
Gabel-Frühstück—Luncheon
à la carte.
Vorspeisen
Salat de Boeuf Parisienne
Küken-Salat
Geräucherter Aal
Royans à la Bordelaise
Heringsfilet, Remouladensauce
Rollmops
Anchovis
Suppen
Hühner-Kraftbrühe in Tassen
Schottische Graupensuppe
Kartoffelsuppe mit Croutons
Fisch
Gerösteter Lachs, Anchovisbutter
Streifbarsch, Sauce Pluche
Eierspeisen
Omelett mit Schnittlauch
Spiegeleier Othello
Verlorene Eier Cardinal
Bürgerliches Gericht
Klops à la Königsberg
Salate
Kartoffelsalat, Achanaka-Salat
Kaltes Buffet
Lammrücken garniert
Galantine von Poularde, Sauce Cumberland
Chaud-froid von Reh mit Pilzen
Tournedos Jockey Art
Junge Ente in Aspik
Geräucherte Zunge
Gespicktes Kalbsfrikandeau, Roastbeef
Kaltes Geflügel
Geräucherter und gekochter Schinken
Käse
Kräuter-, Schweizer-, Camembert-Käse
Frucht Kaffee
Hors d'Oeuvres
Salad de Boeuf Parisienne
Chicken Salad
Smoked Eel
Royans à la Bordelaise
Fillet of Herrings, Sauce Remoulade
Rolled Pickled Herrings
Anchovies
Soups
Chicken Broth in Cup
Scotch Barley Soup
Potato Soup with Croutons
Fish
Broiled Salmon, Anchovy Butter
Striped Bass, Sauce Pluche
Eggs
Omelet with Chive
Fried Eggs Othello
Poached Eggs Cardinal
Special Dish
Klops à la Koenigsberg
Salads
Potato Salad, Salad Achanaka
Cheese
Herb, Swiss, Camembert Cheese
Fruit Coffee
Table-stewards and stateroom-
stewards will
take orders for dinner at any time
during
the day.
Carte du jour.
Hors d'Oeuvres:
Hors d'oeuvre Varié
Caprice Sticks
Soups:
Consommé Grimaldi
Cream Soup à la d'Orléans
Fieldfare Soup Old Style
Fish:
Salmon Cutlets à la Count d'Artois
Sole Meunière
Turbot, Butter, Parsley
Entrées:
Fillet of Beef Renaissance
Lamb Chops, Sauce Périgueux
Stuffed Artichoke Bottoms
Croutons of Goose Liver Moderne (cold)
Broiled Sweetbread, Green Peas
Entrecôtes Jardinière
Leg of Lamb, Larded, Brussels Sprouts
Ready Dishes:
Prague Ham à la Fitz James
Poultry:
Cherbourg Poularde
Partridge
Vegetables:
Palm Marrow Bordelaise
Peas and Asparagus, Stew Corn
Boiled Rice
French and German fried Potatoes
Mashed Potatoes, Baked Potatoes
Compote:
Green Gages, Strawberries
Salads:
Lettuce Salad
Endive Salad
Sweets:
Strawberry Ice, Whipped Cream
Peaches à la Condé
Praline Ice Cream
Ice Napolitaine
Pastry
Cheese Fruit Coffee
A few Suggestions
I.
Hors d'oeuvre Varié
Cream Soup à la d'Orléans
Sole Meunière
Lamb Chops, Sauce Périgueux
Stuffed Artichoke Bottoms
Partridge
Compote Salad
Strawberry Ice, Whipped Cream
II.
Fieldfare Soup Old Style
Salmon Cutlets à la Count d'Artois
Fillet of Beef Renaissance
Croutons of Goose Liver Moderne (cold)
Cherbourg Poularde
Compote Salad
Palm Marrow Bordelaise
Peaches à la Condé
III. (Supper)
Caprice Sticks
Consommé Grimaldi
Turbot, Butter, Parsley
Leg of Lamb, Larded, Brussels Sprouts
Praline Ice Cream
Pastry
Another German ambition is to have the largest and most
comfortable floating hotels. The newest Hamburg and Bremen
steamers are indeed unsurpassed in any respect, and their cuisine is
particularly good. The trans-Atlantic steamers have the great
advantage of being able to buy in New York the best things
American markets offer, and in the German ports not only the
European delicatessen, but those which the sister boats bring from
Oriental countries. I once gained eight pounds in as many days
crossing the Big Pond on a German steamer; and can you wonder, in
view of the abundance of the choicest viands offered as antidotes to
the hunger-breeding sea air?
There are now on the largest steamers Ritz-Carlton restaurants
for wealthy epicures; but you need not go to these for good food, as
the sample menus for first-cabin breakfast, lunch, and dinner on the
Kaiserin Auguste Victoria, herewith reproduced, indicate. He must be
hard to please, indeed, who cannot find something on such menus
to tempt his appetite—unless he is sea-sick.
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