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Chapter 5 – People Alignment

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ____________ involves assuring that the skills and behaviors of employees

within the organization will enable the effective implementation of the
organization’s strategy
a. Business dynamics
b. Human development planning
c. People alignment
d. Job development
e. none of the above
(c: Easy; p. 101)

2. In developing required competencies, leaders can select a “____________” or

“____________” approach.
a. make; buy
b. performance; skills
c. performance; make
d. skills; buy
e. none of the above
(a: Moderate; p. 101)

3. Which statement is correct in regards to developing required competencies through

a “buy” approach?
a. injects the organization with new employees who possess the desired set of
competencies
b. implies developing the needed new set of competencies and behaviors in
current employees
c. assumes that employees are both capable of and motivated to acquire and
utilize new skills and engage in new behaviors
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
(a: Moderate; p. 102)

4. To be part of a change effort, training programs need to contain two components:

a. knowledge and skill development.
b. content and methods.
c. strategic focus and reinforcement.
d. support and skills training.
e. none of the above
(a: Difficult; p. 103)

Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall 67

5. ___________ training programs focus on behaviors and typically include

role‐playing and feedback.

a. Team
b. Experiential
c. On-the-job
d. Succession
e. Just-in-time
(b: Moderate; p. 103)

6. Training fade-out is reduced by which of the following factors?

a. supervisory support
b. peer support
c. work conditions
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
(d: Difficult; p. 104)

7. ______________ is the failure of newly learned behaviors to transfer to on-the-job

experiences.
a. Transfer dysfunction
b. Training failure
c. Training fade-out
d. Performance gap
e. none of the above
(c: Moderate; p. 104)

8. Feedback is a key opportunity for developing new skills, but it should:

a. move employees towards new behaviors.
b. effectively reinforce existing patterns.
c. be offered in a training setting only.
d. be a part of the formal appraisal process.
e. none of the above
(a: Difficult; p. 104)

9. ______________ is a formal, regularly scheduled mechanism designed to provide

employees with performance feedback.
a. Informal feedback
b. Performance enhancement training
c. On-the-job development
d. Performance appraisal
e. Group enhancement
(d: Easy; p. 105)

68 Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall

10. ______________ uses performance feedback gathered from peers, subordinates,
supervisors, and customers.
a. Formal performance appraisal
b. Informal performance appraisal
c. 360-degree performance appraisal
d. Self-appraisal
e. none of the above
(c: Easy; p. 106)

11. ________________ can be described as the process of “getting the right people on
the bus” and “the wrong people off the bus.”
a. Removal and replacement
b. Person-organization
c. People alignment
d. Transport scheduling
e. none of the above
(c: Easy; p. 109)

12. ________________a formal process in which top executives regularly review all
managers at or above a certain hierarchical level, looking at both performance and
potential, and devise developmental plans for their most promising individuals.
a. Performance appraisal
b. People alignment
c. Job rotation
d. Succession planning
e. none of the above
(d: Moderate; p. 107)

13. Person-task fit refers to:

a. when the organization has specific tasks that need to be done, it hires
individuals with the requisite skills.
b. human resource specialists’ work in a structured way to define the key
knowledge, skills and abilities required in the performance of core
organizational tasks.
c. individuals are sought, and often tested, to determine their competency
levels to perform specific tasks.
d. all of the above
e. both A and B
(d: Difficult; p. 110)

Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall 69

14. Person-organization fit looks:
a. at the current diversity of the organization.
b. beyond specific jobs to the desired future state of the organization.
c. at ways to better match organizational culture to employee desires.
d. both A and B
e. both B and C
(b: Moderate; pp. 119-110)

15. A ____________ test is self-administered and quantifiable, used in selection.

a. behaviorally anchored
b. simulation
c. standardized
d. valid reflection
e. none of the above
(c: Easy; p. 112)

16. Which of the following is correct about the strengths of behavioral simulation?
a. can focus on specific behaviors
b. valid supplement to other screening mechanisms
c. validity increases when multiple interviewers score results
d. focus on actual rather than recounted behaviors
e. both B and C
(d: Difficult; p. 114)

17. Which of the following is correct about the strengths of paper-and-pencil tests?
a. easy to administer and score
b. inexpensive to use on large scales
c. simple to compare
d. valid job success predictors when used in combination with other
mechanisms
e. all of the above
(e: Moderate; p. 114)

18. In order to ensure that top management supports strategic renewal:

a. it is always necessary to hire new executive leadership from the outside.
b. existing managers should remain in the job, do well, with large pay
increases.
c. a succession plan process with no required follow-up should be in place.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
(e: Difficult; p. 107)

70 Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall

19. A selection tool that uses role plays and behavior demonstrations is called a:
a. paper and pencil test.
b. stress interview.
c. team selection.
d. behavioral simulation.
e. none of the above
(d: Easy; p. 113)

20. Patagonia’s statement that “it’s easier to teach dirt bags to do business than it is to
teach businessmen to be dirt bags” reflects what approach to employee selection?
a. behavioral simulation
b. person-organization fit
c. wilderness training
d. competency assessment
(b: Difficult; p. 114)

21. ____________ is a process in which top executives regularly review all managers
at or above a certain hierarchical level, looking at both performance and potential,
and devise developmental plans for their most promising individuals.
a. Task planning
b. Job planning
c. Policy planning
d. Process planning
e. None of the above
(e: Difficult; p. 116)

22. The statement of “delayering, increased span of control, matrix, or horizontal

structures—all of these work to develop generalists far earlier in their careers and
place a greater premium on interpersonal competencies” refers to which practices
for developing executives capable of adaptation and leading change?
a. structural and design changes
b. explicit international movement
c. career mazes
d. slower velocity to allow greater learning
e. none of the above
(a: Difficult; p. 108)

23. The statement of “explicit lateral movements replace rapid upward functional
mobility with a far broader set of experiences” refers to which practices for
developing executives capable of adaptation and leading change?
a. structural and design changes
b. explicit international movement
c. career mazes

Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall 71

 d. slower velocity to allow greater learning
e. none of the above
(c: Difficult; p. 108)

24. ____________ deals with individuals who cannot or will not develop new
competencies and behaviors.
a. Removal and replacement
b. Career change
c. Training
d. Behavioral replacement
e. none of the above
(a: Moderate; p. 115)

25. ____________ is a widely shared perception that decisions are being made on the
basis of valid criteria.
a. Engagement
b. Fair process
c. Managerial manipulation
d. Sequential approach
(b: Easy; p. 117)

26. In order to accomplish fair process, removal and replacement decisions should be:
a. fair in process.
b. valid in content.
c. appropriate in sequence.
d. timely and accurate.
e. all of the above
f. A and B
g. A, B and C
(g: Moderate; p. 127)

27. When using removal and replacement as implementation tools in support of

strategic renewal and change, perceived fairness will be enhanced by a sequence
of actions that has already included ___________.
a. a shared diagnosis that has surfaced the relationship between past
behavioral patterns and current performance shortcomings.
b. a redesign process that has identified new patterns of behavior required for
sustained outstanding performance.
c. training and development that have been offered to employees as a way of
gaining and demonstrating required new behaviors.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
(d: Difficult; p. 118)

72 Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall

28. Engagement, explanation and expectation clarity are 3 factors that contribute to:
a. removal and replacement.
b. fair process.
c. effective employee selection.
d. mutual engagement.
e. succession planning
(b: Moderate; p. 117)

29. Questions such as, “Give me an example of a work-related problem that you had to
deal with” or “talk about a recent group experience you had at work and the role
that you played” are examples of which type of interviews?
a. behavioral simulations
b. paper-and-pencil tests
c. behaviorally anchored interviews
d. human interaction tests
e. communication skill tests
(c: Moderate; p. 112)

30. Dealing with recounted rather than actual behaviors is a weakness of which
technique for person-organization fit screening?
a. behavioral simulation
b. paper-and-pencil test
c. behaviorally anchored interviews
d. human interaction test
e. communication skill test
(c: Difficult; p. 112)

31. Self-appraisal and data from multiple sources can increase the ____________ and
____________ of performance feedback
a. validity; reliability
b. cost; timeliness
c. validity; effectiveness
d. timeliness; effectiveness
(c: Moderate; p. 106)

32. Evaluating employees is important because:

a. it provides an assessment of human assets in the firm.
b. it identifies the gap between current and future skill needs.
c. it identifies poor performers and potential leaders.
d. it targets required T&D efforts.
e. all of the above
(e: Moderate; p. 105)

Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall 73

33. In succession planning, focusing on fast track managers is a good approach
because:
a. fast trackers are known to have skills associated with future performance
b. fast trackers have passed all of the written and behavioral tests
c. fast trackers are committed to staying with the company who invests in them
d. fast trackers come from the outside so they have fresh ideas
e. none of the above
(e: Difficult; p. 108)

34. ____________ refers to an awareness of the forces demanding strategic renewal

and change and the options available to the organization in response to those
forces.
a. Knowledge component
b. Skill development
c. Management development
d. Behavioral development
e. none of the above
(a: Moderate; p. 111)

TRUE / FALSE

35. A “making” approach to human resource development implies developing the

needed new set of competencies and behaviors in current employees. It assumes
that employees are both capable of and motivated to acquire and utilize new skills
and engage in new behaviors.
(True: Moderate; p. 102)

36. “Buying” involves injecting the organization with new employees who possess the
desired set of competencies.
(True: Easy; p. 102)

37. In order to develop required human resource competencies, organizational leaders

need to align the selection, training, development, and removal of employees with
the behavioral requirements of the desired change.
(True: Easy; p. 102)

38. Training can help convey to employees how their competitive environment is
changing and why their own behaviors need to be altered.
(True: Moderate; p. 103)

39. Training can, under the right circumstances, help employees gain new behavioral
competencies.
(True: Easy; p. 103)

74 Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall

40. The desired goal of the performance feedback process is alignment between the
future needs of the organization and the desires and motivations of employees.
(True: Moderate; p. 105)

41. The biggest advantages of formal appraisal are validity and accuracy.
(False: Moderate; p. 106)

42. Approximately 90% of Fortune 500 companies use some form of 360-degree
feedback.
(True: Moderate; p. 106)

43. On-the-job experience is less useful than behavioral and cognitive training in
developing new skills among executives.
(False: Easy; p. 107)

44. When supervisors seek to clone themselves, the effect is damaging for the
employees, not for the organization.
(False: Easy; p. 111)

45. When an organization is attempting to implement change, there is an urgent need

to attract employees whose behavior exemplifies the desired future state.
(True: Easy; p. 111)

46. The second component of the change effort and training programs is a knowledge
component: an awareness of the forces demanding strategic renewal and change
and the options available to the organization in response to those forces.
(False: Moderate; p. 103)

47. New behaviors acquired during experiential training will fade out unless the work
environment to which participants return supports new behaviors and participants
understand and accept the fact that outstanding performance will require those
behaviors.
(True: Moderate; p. 104)

48. Companies cannot manage the careers of executives in order to create a

continuous stream of leaders from inside the organization capable of implementing
change.
(False: Moderate; p. 108)

49. Workforce reductions and employee layoffs may be effective in improving short-
term performance but will not by themselves produce the human resource
competencies required to support strategic renewal and sustain outstanding
performance.
(True: Moderate; p. 115)

Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall 75

50. In behaviorally anchored interviews, applicants are asked to demonstrate job
behaviors.
(False: Moderate; p. 112)

51. Unless removal and replacement decisions are viewed by employees as being fair
in process, valid in content, and appropriate in sequence, the decisions can
undermine commitment to change implementation.
(True: Easy; p. 118)

52. Perceptions of fairness can also be impacted by the degree to which an

organization provides employees with due process and appeal mechanisms.
(True: Moderate; p. 117)

ESSAY QUESTIONS

53. What are the advantages and disadvantages of make/buy options for
changing human resources?

Make approach:
Advantages: Uses existing talents, knowledge and skills; builds commitment to the
organization
Disadvantages: Not all employees can or want to change; change process may be slow;
training can be costly

Buy approach:
Advantages: Quick; injects the organization with new talents, skills and ideas
Disadvantages: May undercut morale/commitment of existing employees (p. 111)

54. What are the strengths and weaknesses of behaviorally anchored interviews?

Strengths:
 Can focus on specific behaviors
 Valid supplement to other screening mechanisms
 Validity increases when multiple interviewers score results

Weaknesses:
 Deal with recounted rather than actual behaviors
 Can be slow and expensive to administer (Difficult; p. 112)

55. What are the sources of fairness in removal and replacement decisions?
What would be some key questions in determining each source?

76 Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall

 a. Validity: Are decisions made according to personal biases and beliefs of
individual supervisors (low fairness) or in alignment with the clear
requirements of outstanding performance (high fairness)?

b. Due Process: Are decisions seen as final and arbitrary (low fairness), or are
employees able to voice their opinions and appeal what they consider to be
invalid conclusions (high fairness)?
c. Timing and sequencing: Are decisions made before an employee is given an
opportunity to acquire the required skills (low fairness), or are employees
given an opportunity to develop and display the desired new behaviors (high
fairness)? (Moderate; p. 118)

56. Explain the concept of person-task fit.

The concept of person-task fit explains that when the organization has specific
tasks that need to be done, it hires individuals with the requisite skills. Human
resource specialists work in a structured way to define the key knowledge, skills
and abilities required in the performance of core organizational tasks. Individuals
are sought and often tested, to determine their competency levels to perform
specific tasks. The best-qualified individuals are then selected to fill the
organization’s job vacancies. (Moderate; p. 110)

57. Explain the concept of person-organization fit.

The second approach to selection involves what can be thought of as person-

organization fit: seeking “congruence,” between patterns of organizational values
and patterns of individual values, defined here as what an individual values in an
organization, such as being team-oriented or innovative. Person-organization fit
looks beyond specific jobs to the desired future state of the organization. This
concept questions the mind-set, the personality, and the competencies that the
organization seeks through its change. It further involves what newly defined roles,
responsibilities, and relationships have been sought. Most importantly at this stage,
what new competencies—both technical how-to competencies and interpersonal
(creative problem solving, decision making, collaboration, communication, and so
on) are required of this desired future state? (Moderate; p. 110)

Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall 77

58. Explain the components of a behavioral simulation.

In a behavioral simulation, a group of individuals is assigned a complex problem to solve.

 Solving the problem requires multiple skills.
 The problem’s solution is such that effective performance can be
rated objectively.
 Individuals are placed in teams and asked to solve the problem
jointly.
 A facilitator is on hand to offer behavioral observations.
 The joint problem-solving phase may be videotaped to allow
participants to observe their behaviors.
 A trained facilitator leads the team through a discussion of
behaviors.
 The solutions of the teams are measured, providing effectiveness
metrics for each group.
 Team members engage in a further discussion of behaviors based
on their performance. (Difficult; p. 113)

59. Explain the two approaches of “make” and ‘buy” in regards to developing
required competencies.

In developing required competencies, leaders can select a “make” or “buy”

approach. Making implies developing the needed new set of competencies and
behaviors in current employees. Making assumes that employees are both capable
of and motivated to acquire and utilize new skills and engage in new behaviors. Not
all employees can or will make that shift, of course. Additionally, the time required
may be too long. Leaders, therefore, will also have to consider a buy approach.
Buying involves injecting the organization with new employees who possess the
desired set of competencies. The choice between making and buying is not meant
to be an either/or choice. (Moderate; pp. 101-102)

Scenario-Based Questions

You are the new CEO of a major HR firm, offering specialized HR services to
organizations wishing to outsource all or part of their HR functions. In the past, the firm
has been structured into several divisions, including Compensation, Recruitment, Training
and Development, and Legal Services. As part of Step 1, Organization Redesign, you
have successfully piloted cross-functional teams and a new focus on customer service
which you are now rolling out as the new strategic directive for the entire firm. In order to
make sure that the change succeeds, you are now focusing on the newly identified skills
and competencies and you want to make sure that they exist across all groups,
department and functions.

78 Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall

60. Since your priority right now is with people alignment, you need to decide what
comes first. The best approach would be:
a. make sure the right people are in the right places, then train.
b. get rid of all the dead wood and work with what is left.
c. train and develop, then assess, and move to removal and replacement.
d. to make sure that everyone is committed, keep everyone in the same place.
(c: Difficult; p. 102)

61. One of your first decisions is between a make or buy approach to HRD. You
decide:
a. buying is the quicker option, and besides, the organization needs lots of new
talent.
b. making is the only way to go – after all, the organization relies on
commitment from its long-time employees.
c. you decide on some combination between buying and making.
d. you heard that this whole process has something to do with people getting
on and off busses, so you propose a “share a ride” program for all
employees.
(c: Moderate; p 102)

62. Training and development is a key component of your strategic change process.
Because your budget is limited, you want to cut one or more of the following
training components. Which one would you cut?
a. skill development training, focusing on teamwork and customer service
b. skill development training, focusing on planning and budgeting
c. knowledge component, dealing with strategic renewal and adaptation
d. training in new behavior support for supervisors and peers
(b: Difficult; p. 103)

63. In order to enhance the validity and accuracy of appraisal and feedback, you
implement:
a. 360-degree feedback.
b. standardized assessment.
c. behavioral simulations.
d. removal and replacement.
(a: Moderate; p. 106)

64. As much as you are committed to developing your existing employees, several key
people have left the organization because they did not agree with the changes and
some others had to be let go because of serious performance challenges. The best
way to ensure that the removal part of the process goes well is:
a. handle it as quickly as possible and behind closed doors – that way no one
gets hurt.
b. involve people in the decision, explain the criteria and the reasoning, and
offer due process.

Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall 79

 c. give the decision to the company lawyers – they know best how to deal with
these matters.
d. avoid removal altogether – the strategic change will take care of everything.
(b: Moderate; p. 117)

65. In planning replacement for these employees, you decide on which of the following
strategies?
a. The company has a tried-and-true system in place for employee selection –
don’t break what has been working well in the past.
b. Each of these jobs has an extensive job description and your supervisors
have been trained in behavioral interviewing and administering some good
tests that match the person to the job.
c. In light of the strategic change process, it is essential that you select people
who can see the new strategy – you try to pick people who can work well in
teams and know the importance of customer service.
d. You select people based on education and experience.
(c: Difficult; pp. 115-116)

80 Copyright © 2013 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall

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Chatham, Lord, 90
Chand Bibi, 6
Chelmsford, Lord, 257
Chenab, River, 206, 216
Cherusii, 141
"Chesapeake," The, 229
Chevy Chace, 184
Chickahominy, River, 228
Childebert II, 255
Chilian Civil War, 63, 133
Chilian Revolution, 134
Chilperic II, 263
China Wars, 242
Chinese Invasion of Japan, 74, 242
Chino-Japanese War, 119, 194, 199, 267, 270
Chippewa, 144
Chitchagoff, Adm., 208
Chitral Campaign, 60, 149
"Chiyada," The, 270
Choczin, 237
Chodkiewicz, 128
Choniski, 126
Choshiu, Daimyo of, 74
Choshu, 94, 250
Chosroes, 157
-- II, 177, 271
Chotzewitz, 127
Christian IV, 144, 269
-- V, 144
-- Duke of Brunswick, 111, 237
Christina Gyllenstierna, 257
Cristomenes, 49
Chrzanowski, 179
Chudleigh, Gen., 239
Chunda Sahib, 13, 18, 254, 264
Chnodomar, 18
Churchill, Gen., 261
Cialdini, Gen., 14, 52, 95, 186
Cimbric War, 16, 261
Cimon, 87
Cintra, Convention of, 263
Civil War, 1, 4, 9, 12, 39, 40, 41, 50, 55, 58, 69, 80, 81, 84, 114,
115, 133, 154, 172, 174, 193, 202, 214, 239, 250, 269
-- of Cæsar and Pompey, 70, 83, 172, 192, 215, 245, 258
-- of Marius and Sulla, 63, 68, 216
-- of Sertorius, 239
Clam-Gallas, 98, 168, 197, 256
Clanwilliam, Earl of, 107
Clarence, Duke of, 29
Clarifait, Gen., 167
Claudius, 47
-- Appius, 49
-- Gothicus, 171
-- Nero, 158
-- Publius, 140
Clauleu, 57
Clausel, Marshal, 63
Clauset, 213
Claverhouse, 80
Cleland, Col., 81
Clement III, 212
Cleombrotus, 139
Cleomenes, 156, 227
Cleon, 14, 204
Cleopatra, 3
Clermont, Comte de, 68, 91
Clifford, Lord, 89
Clive, 18, 20, 56, 59, 67, 76, 195
Closter-Seven, Convention of, 107
Clothaire II, 79, 87
Clovis, 197, 234, 250, 264
Clytus, 44
Cnœus Domitius, 147
-- Fulvius, 109
-- Pompeius, 168
Cnemas, 65, 172
Cniva, 92, 193
Coa, River, 215
Coburg, Duke of, 90, 210, 266
-- Prince of, 154, 173
Cochrane, Sir A. J., 26, 146, 154, 217, 219
-- Lord, 46
Cockburn, Col., 270
Codrington, Adm., 172
Cœpio, 17
Colborne, Sir John, 217
Coligny, 80
Colley, Sir Geo., 133, 148
Colli, Gen., 114, 159
Collier, Sir George, 190
Collingwood, Adm., 252
Colorados, 164
Columbine, Capt., 227
Colville, Gen., 220
Combermere, Lord, 34
Comnenus, 253
-- Alexius, 82
Comonfort, Gen., 134
Conan the Athenian, 62
Condé, 20, 56, 80, 81, 93, 117, 138, 178, 200, 211, 217, 227, 258
Conflans, 154, 205, 206
Congeen, Commodore, 218
Congressists, 134
Conon, 4, 170
Conquest of Algeria, 63
---- Dacia, 153
---- Ireland, 23
---- Mexico, 159
---- of Peru, 13, 14, 22, 71, 135, 205
Conradin, 242
Constantine, 44, 61, 104, 108, 152, 223, 261
-- III, 42
-- of Alban, 78
-- Palæologus, 65
Constantius, 167, 169, 232
Contades, Marquis de, 159
Conti, Prince Louis de, 47, 145
Contrecœur, 271
Convent of Santa Cruz, 134
Conway, Lord, 174
Cooke, Gen., 33
Coote, Sir Eyre, 20, 197, 198, 201, 230, 265
Cope, Sir John, 202
Copratus, The, 65
Corinthian War, 66
Cornaille, Pierre, 133
Cornwallis, Lord, 19, 26, 47, 103, 223, 227, 271
Cortes, 159, 184
Cossack Rising, 122
Cotton, Gen., 78
Coulon de Jumonville, 271
-- de Villiers, 102
Courbet, Adm., 235
Covenanters' Rising, 38, 80, 215
Coxon, John, 186
Cragova, 58
Crassus, 232
-- P. Licinius, 134
-- Publius, 51
Craufurd, Earl of, 40, 62
Crimean War, 11, 25, 45, 58, 115, 122, 149, 181, 183, 208, 231,
232, 240, 245
Crispus, 108
Critolaus, 223
Crittenden, Gen., 159
Cromwell, Oliver, 80, 81, 154, 172, 202, 269
Cronje, 124, 146, 147, 161, 184
Cronstedt, Adm., 240
Cronstrun, 33
Crouzat, Gen., 30
Crown Prince of Prussia, 126
Crusaders, 2, 16, 20, 21, 64, 79, 118, 157, 176, 256
Ctesiphon, 119
Cuddalore, 201
Cuesta, 155, 200
Cumberland, Duke of, 70, 90, 107, 136
"Cumberland," The, 106
Cureton, Gen., 206
Curio, 25, 258
Curry, Sir Pierce, 134
Curtis, Gen., 189
Custer, Gen., 141, 182
Custria, 273
Cutha, 89
Cyprus War, 88, 138
Cyrus the, Younger, 70
Czarnieçki, 197
Czernitcheff, 137

d’Albergotti, Gen., 79
d'Aché, Comte, 51, 91, 254
Dacia, 152
Dacre, 95, 252
-- Thomas, 234
Dagisteus, 192
d'Aguila, 125
d'Albret, Constable, 5
d'Alençon, Duc, 5, 261
Dalgety, Col., 267
Dalziel, Gen., 215
Dalmatia, 152
Damietta, 157
Damjanics, 127, 264
Damrémont, Gen., 64
Danish Invasions, 42, 78, 86, 87, 109, 144, 158, 166, 180, 207, 230,
247, 248, 267
Dano-Spanish Wars, 108
-- Swedish Wars, 37, 61, 86, 93, 94, 113, 125, 128, 132, 144, 214,
239, 257, 269
Danube, The, 232
Dara, 220
Darando, Gen., 166
d'Argentian, 163
Darius, Codomannus, 17
-- King of Persia, 116
-- Hystaspes, 152
d'Armagnac, 155
Darnad Ali Pasha, 192
Darozhinsky, Gen., 224
d'Artois, Robert, 67
d'Aspré, Gen., 165
Datis, 152
D'Aubigny, 226
d'Aubusson, Pierre, 209
Daun, Marshal, 111, 127, 139, 140, 155, 181, 251, 256
d'Aurelle de Paladines, Gen., 67, 142
d'Auteil, Mons., 13
David II, 174
-- of Scotland, 82, 237
Davidowich, 18, 214
d'Avila, Don Sancho, 16, 165
Davis, Capt., 203
-- Commodore, 157
Davoust, 87, 118, 128, 153, 161, 264, 268
de Aguila, 162
Deane, Adm., 200
de Ataida, Luis, 100
-- Beaumont, Robert, 91
-- Bermingham, Richard, 23
-- -- John, 81
-- Burgh, William, 23
-- Bouillon, Godefroi, 118
-- Bouflers, Mons., 140
-- Castries, Gen., 47
-- Castro, Juan, 77
-- Catinat, Marshal, 153
Decebalus, 153
de Charolais, Comte, 164
-- Conflans, Adm., 31
Decius, 92, 193
-- Mus., 261
-- Publius, 227
de Coigny, Marshal, 188
-- Coligny, Marshal, 103
-- Drucour, Chevalier, 143
-- Failly, Gen., 29
Defenders, 76
de Fersen, Baron, 154
Degollado, 242
de Gonzaga, Francisco, 91, 94
-- Grasse, 78
-- Kalb, 47
-- Kray, 85, 86, 111, 116
-- la Barre?, 218
-- la Feuillade, Duc, 256
-- la Gardie, James, 126
-- la Marck, 41
-- la Meilleraic, Marshal, 185
-- la Motte Count, 270
-- la Noue, François, 215
-- la Pole, Earl of Lincoln, 237
-- la Rochefoucauld, 185
-- Lauria, Roger, 158
Del Canto, Gen., 63, 133
de Levis, Chevalier, 205, 217
Delhi, King of, 240
de Ligneris, Mons., 101
-- Lorraine, Chevalier, 218
de Lucy, Richard, 91
-- Lusignan, Guy, 118, 249
Delzons, Gen., 150
de Marche, Count, 242
-- Mauley, 252
Dembinski, Gen., 121, 247, 265
de Medari, Gen., 52
-- Melac, Mons., 132
-- Mercy, Gen., 188
Demetrius, 212
-- Poliorcetes, 115
de Montfort, John, 23
---- Simon, 139
Demosthenes, 181, 204, 241
de Namur, Guy, 67
Dentatus, M. Carius, 31
Derby, Lord, 44, 206, 269
de Rantzau, 247
-- Rassinghem, 266
-- Rieux, Marshal, 217
-- Rigny, Adm., 172
-- Ros, 57
-- Ruyter, 79, 99, 179, 200, 229, 234
Desaix, 152
d'Estaing, Count, 50, 102, 182
Destigerd, 177
d'Estrées, Count, 107, 234
de Suffren, 199, 201
-- Tavannes, Marshal, 162
-- Thermes, Marshal, 101
-- Tourville, Adm., 29, 131
-- Trastamare, Henry, 173
d'Eu, Comte, 50
de Winter, Adm., 48
-- Vandemont, Prince, 68
-- Vere, Duke of Ireland, 206
-- Villiers, Commandant, 130
---- Coulon, 102
Devizes, 214
De Wert, Jean, 208, 209
-- Wet, 80, 220
Dewey, Adm., 151
de Witt, 79
Dexippus, 2
de Letendeur, Adm., 49
Diacus, 138
Diebitsch, Gen., 102, 129
Dieskau, Baron, 132, 136
di Lezze, Antonio, 224
Dingaan, 77
Diocles, 111, 226
Diocletian, 153
Dionysius, 44, 69, 85, 166, 241
Diophantus, 44
di Potenza, Condé, 244
Dirkzoon, Adm., 273
Djezzar, 3
Doblado, 219
Doctoroff, Gen., 150
Dolabella, 70
Dolabella, P. Cornelius, 132
Dolgorouky, Gen., 171
Domitius, Cnæus, 147
Dom Miguel's Rebellion, 220
Donald, Bree, 99
-- Lord of the Isles, 106
Don Carlos, 110, 113
Don Francisco de Toledo, 104
-- John of Austria, 81, 95, 138, 215
-- Sancho of Castile, 257
-- Sebastian, 110, 113
Doria, 59, 64, 197
Dost Mohammed, 121
Douay, Gen. Abel, 267
Douglas, 231
-- Archibald, 19
-- Arch., Earl of, 105, 112
-- Earl of, 184, 261
-- James, Earl of, 19
-- Rebellion, 40
Doveton, Gen., 21
Dragomiroff, 231
Drake, 19, 44
-- Mr., 45
Drepanum, 140
Dresden, 129
Drummond, Sir Geo., 144
Drusus, 141, 148
Dublin, 207
Duchambon de Vergor, 30
Ducrot, Gen., 263
Duff, Sir James, 97
Dufour Gen., 98
du Gast, 54
Dugommier, 251
du Guesclin, 23, 57, 60, 62, 164, 173, 199
Duilius, Caius, 170
du Lude, Seigneur, 191
Dumouriez, 117, 173, 259
Duncan, Adm., 48
Dundas, Adm., 240
Dundee, 124
-- Battle of, 209, 243
Dunkeld, 144
-- Bishop of, 115
Dunkirk, 112
Dunois, 183
Dupleix, 198
Dupont, Adm., 29, 57
-- Gen., 106
Durand, Col., 50
Durham, Bishop of, 237
Durnford, Col., 115
Dutch Wars, 77, 79, 99, 179, 200, 229, 234, 235, 247
d'York, Gen., 56

Earle, Gen., 125

Early, Gen., 54, 89, 182
Ecgfrith, 173
Edhem Pasha, 78, 193
Edmund Ironsides, 22, 191, 228
Edward, 248
-- I, 55, 81, 87, 88, 139
-- II, 3, 26, 38, 105
-- III, 4, 5, 60, 68, 69
-- IV, 27, 84, 85, 110, 166, 247, 252
-- the Elder, 247, 267
-- the Black Prince, 173, 197
Edwardes, Lieut., 124, 168, 239
Edwin, 107
-- Earl, 94
Egbert, 85, 109
Egerton, Sir Charles, 119
Egmont, Count, 101, 218
-- Philip, 96
Egremont, Lord, 179, 237
Ehrenskiöld, Adm., 94
Eighty-Seventh, Regt., 168
Elbe, River, 107
Elcho, Lord, 250
El Hadj Mohammed Pasha, 129
Elias Khan, 161
Eliot, Gen., 98
Eloff, Sarel, 146
Elphinstone, Gen., 34, 119, 124
-- Sir Keith, 220
Elsasshausen, 269
El Teb, Battle of, 255
Elwas Mohammed, 272
Emin, Malek, 109
Emir Hamada, 89
Enniskillen, 175
Enotake, 120
Enslin, Battle of, 101
Entzheim, Battle of, 232
Epaminondas, 139, 151
Epidamnus, 105
Eporedorix, 3
Equatius Gellius, 47, 227
Erinschild, Adm., 7
Ernest of Styria, Duke, 206
Errol, Earl of, 99
Esk, River, 194
Escobedo, 221
Espartero, 35, 110, 165, 190
Espinay, Prince, 252
Essex, Earl of, 84, 174
Etampes, 188
Ethelwulf, 180
Etruscan War, 20
Eudamus, 21
Eudes, 164
Eugene, Prince, 30, 36, 50, 52, 58, 68, 75, 79, 132, 140, 145, 150,
192, 193, 205, 222, 272
---- of Wurtemberg, 163
Eugenius, 17
Eumenes, 65, 187, 191, 222
Eurylocus, 181
Eurymedon, 204
Euthydemus, 19
Evans, Gen., 26, 110, 115, 221
---- (Am.), 225
-- Sir Ralph, 15
Evetzen, 200
Ewell, Gen., 69, 269
Exeter, 218
-- Earl of, 216
Exmouth, Lord, 10
Eyre, Major Vincent, 20
 F

Fabricius, Caius, 8, 24
Fabius Maximus, Q., 116, 136, 227, 263
Faidherbe, Gen., 27, 105, 218
Fairfax, Sir Thos., 4, 133, 154, 172, 226
Falkenberg, 146
Falkenstein, Gen., 125
Farokshin, 5
Farragut, Adm., 175, 261
Fastolfe, Sir John, 110, 188
Faure, Gen., 14
Faversham, Earl of, 225
Feidlim, 23
Feliciano, 121
Ferdinand, Archduke, 106, 207
-- King of Naples, 185, 210, 226, 260
-- of Brunswick, 68, 160
-- of Hungary, 178
-- Prince, 125
-- the Catholic, 100, 142, 149, 251
Fermor, 273
Ferrars, Lord, 38
Fersen, Baron de, 154
Fife, Earl of, 115
Filipo de Rieti, 273
Finck, Gen., 155
Finland War, 208, 240
Finnegan, Gen., 180
Firth, Lord, 58
Fischbuch, Gen., 58
Fitzalan, Richard, 233
Fitzwalter, Lord, 89
Flaminius, 19, 24, 71
Flammock's Rebellion, 35
Flavius Fimbria, 158
-- Cnæus, 109
Fleetwood, 269
Flemish War, 67, 162, 273
Flics, Gen., 132
Flint, Lieut., 265
Floing, 225
Flores, Gen., 69, 70, 164
Floyd, Gen., 149
Foix, Comte de, 242
Fontana, Benedict, 47
Forbach, Battle of, 236
Forde, Col., 113, 154, 206
Forey, Gen., 134, 163
Forgacz, Count, 188
Forster, Gen., 202
Fort Duquesne, 101, 271
-- Lyman, 132
-- Necessity, 102
Fournier, Gen., 102
Fraga, 139
Francis I, 153, 189
-- II of Naples, 95
-- Joseph, Emperor, 234
Francisco de Manesses, 258
---- Melo, 211
---- Toledo, Don, 104
-- Pizarro, 135
Franco-Austrian War, 147, 149, 163, 234, 256
-- German War, 14, 27, 29, 31, 43, 58, 63, 105, 137, 142, 153, 158,
178, 188, 218, 235, 263
-- Mexican War, 3, 134
Fraser, Gen., 74, 238
Frauenberg, The, 158
Fredegond, Queen, 255
Frederic II, 66, 100
-- IV, of Denmark, 239
-- Augustus, 62
-- Barbarossa, 136
-- Charles, Prince, 82, 98, 126, 137, 158, 168, 178, 197
-- Duke of Austria, 168, 242
-- Elector of Saxony, 168
-- of Bohemia, 201
-- the Great, 60, 72, 109, 111, 112, 126, 129, 139, 140, 143, 162,
181, 201, 234, 273
-- William III, 239
----Elector, 89, 207, 236
French, Gen., 84, 124
-- Canadian Rising, 217
-- Civil Wars, 67
-- Invasion of Egypt, 1, 3, 108, 177, 204
Fresnel, 105
Freyre, 59
Freytag, 112
Fritigern, 105, 152
Frossard, Gen., 235
Fullali, The, 113
Fulvius, Cn., 32
-- Q., 49
Futteh Mohammed Khan, 124

Gablenz, Gen., 253

Gage, Gen., 43, 139, 202
Gaines' Mill, 228
Galba, 199
Galgacus, 100
Gallic Invasion of the East, 86, 105
-- Revolt, 35
-- Tribal Wars, 3
-- Wars, 4, 5, 8, 24, 29, 35, 41, 96, 168, 199, 253
Gallitzin, Prince, 60, 79, 122
Gallus, Cestius, 34
Galway, Lord, 8, 12
Gamarra, 114
Ganetzki, Gen., 196
Garcilasso de la Vega, 183
Gardiner, Col., 12
Gardner, Gen., 200
Garibaldi, 22, 45, 157, 159, 164, 165, 185, 212, 260, 264
Garnett, Gen., 209
Gaston de Foix, 207
Gatacre, Gen. Sir W., 238
Gate Pah, 95
Gates, Gen., 47, 236
Gauchos, 163
Gazer Khan, 184
Gek Horn, Battle of, 190
Gelimer, 51, 254
Gellius Statius, 39
Gelon, 108, 110
Genghiz Khan, 26, 97, 114, 121, 122, 123, 184, 190, 220, 244
Genseric, 48, 111
George II, 76
-- King of Hanover, 152
Georgia, Queen of, 249
Gergue, 190
German Invasion of Italy, 90
Germanic Wars, 114, 141, 148, 260
Getes, 161
Ghuzni, 97, 234
Gildo, 242
Gillespie, Gen., 120
Gingen, Capt., 264
Ginkel, 5
Girard, Col., 137
Girod, 217
Giulay, Marshal, 47
Glabrio, 248
Glarus, 171
Goddard, Gen., 6, 28
Godefroi de Bouillon, 21, 176
Goignies, Gen., 95
Gokameyama, 161
Gokla, 21
Göldli, Geo., 121
Golitshin, Adm., 102
Gomurakami, 129, 161
Gonsalvo de Cordova, 54, 94, 183, 217, 226, 244
Gonzaga, 95
Gonzalo Pizarro, 14, 71
Gore, Col., 217
Gordon, Gen., 123
"Gordon Highlanders," 74
Görgey, 3, 116, 127, 171, 181, 191, 223, 247
Goring, Lord, 133
Gortschakoff, 245
Gothic Invasion of France, 197
---- Italy, 132, 211
---- Thrace, 152
-- Wars, 87, 92, 67, 171, 193, 197, 212, 242
Gothicus, Claudius, 171
Götz, Gen., 264
Gough, Lord, 59, 89, 103, 147, 165, 203, 206, 216
-- Matthew, 235
Gourko, Gen., 78, 99, 193
Gracchus, Tiberius, 32
Graham, Gen., 27, 106, 221
-- Gen. Sir G., 122, 244, 246, 255
Grammont, Duc de, 76
Gran, The, 171
Granson, Sir Thomas, 199
Grant, Gen., 57, 58, 192, 209, 230, 236, 262
-- Sir Hope, 243
-- Major, 107
Gratiani, 117
Graves, Adm., 145
Gravitza Redoubt, 196
Greece, Crown Prince of, 78
Greek War of Independence, 160, 172
Green, Sir Chas., 240
Greene, Gen., 86, 103
Gregory, 255
-- II, 207
Grenville, Sir Richard, 24
Grey, Adm., 111
Grey Gen., 203
-- Sir Geo., 154
-- de Ruthyn, Lord, 178
-- de Wilton, Lord, 179
Grimaldi, 273
Grouchy, 267
Græco-Turkish War, 78, 193, 260
Guelfs and Ghibellines, 12, 47, 66, 162, 242
"Guglers," 92
Guilleminot, Gen., 102
Guiscard, Robert, 62, 82
Guise, Duc de, 45, 80
Guiton, 135
Gurkha War, 12, 119, 120, 168
Gustavus Adolphus, 12, 61, 73, 92, 136, 137, 146, 195, 210, 269
-- Vasa, 257
Guthmund, 149
Guthrum, 87
Guy de Lusignan, 118, 249
Guyeaux, 52
Gwalior Campaign, 147, 203
Gylippus of Sparta, 240

Haco, 134
Hadji, Ahmed, 63
Hadrianus, Fabius, 44
Haidar Khan, 97
Hakki Pasha, 260
Halfdene, 21
Halil Pasha, 120, 202
Humayun, 61, 121
Hamet Zeli, 149
Hamilcar, 68, 69, 110, 111
Hampden, 55
Hampton, Gen, 57
-- Thos., 60
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