7th Std 5in1 Em Term3 Guide
7th Std 5in1 Em Term3 Guide
5 -in-1
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7th Standard
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Term - III
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Based on the New Textbooks
& New Syllabus for 2019-20
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Salient Features :
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Term-wise Guide as per the New Textbooks for the year 2019-20, Term - III.
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SURA PUBLICATIONS
Chennai
2019 - 20 Edition
© Reserved with Publishers
ISBN : 978-81-8449-777-9
Code No. : T3-C-7 (EM)
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Sura’s Maths Guide (EM & TM) Sura’s Maths Guide (EM & TM)
Sura’s Science Guide (EM & TM) Sura’s Science Guide (EM &TM)
Sura’s Social Science Guide (EM & TM) Sura’s Social Science Guide (EM & TM)
Sura’s 5-in-1 Sura’s Map Workbook (EM & TM)
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GUIDES
RuhÉ‹ jÄœ ciuüš Sura’s English Guide
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Sura’s Will to Win English Guide Sura’s Mathematics Guide (EM & TM)
Sura’s Science Guide (EM & TM)
Sura’s Social Science Guide (EM & TM)
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QUESTION BANKS
Sura’s PTA Solution Book & Exam Refresher (EM & TM)
Sura’s 5-in-1 Question Bank (EM & TM)
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bghUsl¡f« jÄœ
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t. g¡f
bghU©ik, ïaš ghl¤ jiy¥òfŸ
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v© v©
kd¥ghl¢ brŒíŸ 2
fÉij¥ngiH ÉUªnjh«gš
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ehfÇf«, bjhÊš, taY« thœî«
tÂf«
â¡bfšyh« òfGW«
1. ea¤jF ehfÇf« ciueil cyf«
âUbešntÈ
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3-26
âUbešntÈ¢ Óikí«
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myF nj®î -1
òJik És¡F
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fÉij¥ngiH
mw«, j¤Jt«, mw« v‹D« fâ®
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ciueil cyf« x¥òuî be¿
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myF nj®î -2
kiy¥bghÊî
fÉij¥ngiH
j‹id m¿jš
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thœÉaš âU¡FwŸ
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myF nj®î -3
RuhÉ‹ khâÇ _‹wh« gUt bghJ¤ bjhF¤j¿¤ nj®î
(iii)
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ENGLISH
Units Chapters Page No.
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Prose - Journey by Train 75 - 88
Poem - Sea Fever 89 - 94
Supplementary - Sindbad – My First Voyage 95 - 102
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Unit Test Questions with Answers 103 - 104
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Poem - Courage 120 - 125
Supplementary - Man Overboard 126 - 134
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Unit Test Questions with Answers 135 - 136
151 - 154
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with answers
Tamil Translation 155 - 168
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MATHEMATICS
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3
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SCIENCE
Unit Name Page No.
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1. Light 283 - 304
2. Universe and Space 305 - 314
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3. Polymer Chemistry 315 - 330
4. Chemistry in Daily Life 331 - 342
5. Animals in Daily Life 343 - 352
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6. Visual Communication 353 - 358
SURA’S MODEL SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT 2019-20 359 - 362
Units
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Chapters
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Page No.
HISTORY
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GEOGRAPHY
1. Exploring Continents – North America and South America 390 - 408
2. Map Reading 409 - 418
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CIVICS
1. Women Empowerment 429 - 434
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ECONOMICS
1. Tax and its importance 448 - 455
Sura’s Model Summative Assessment Term III -2019-20 456 - 458
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SURA PUBLICATIONS
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bghUsl¡f« jÄœ
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t. g¡f
bghU©ik, ïaš ghl¤ jiy¥òfŸ
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v© v©
kd¥ghl¢ brŒíŸ 2
fÉij¥ngiH ÉUªnjh«gš
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ehfÇf«, bjhÊš, taY« thœî«
tÂf«
â¡bfšyh« òfGW«
1. ea¤jF ehfÇf« ciueil cyf«
âUbešntÈ
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3-26
âUbešntÈ¢ Óikí«
ÉÇthd«
fÉfS«
f‰f©L m ïy¡fz«
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myF nj®î -1
òJik És¡F
ab
fÉij¥ngiH
mw«, j¤Jt«, mw« v‹D« fâ®
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ciueil cyf« x¥òuî be¿
2.
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myF nj®î -2
kiy¥bghÊî
fÉij¥ngiH
j‹id m¿jš
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thœÉaš âU¡FwŸ
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myF nj®î -3
RuhÉ‹ khâÇ _‹wh« gUt bghJ¤ bjhF¤j¿¤ nj®î
ïaš - 1
kd¥ghl¢ brŒíŸ ÉUªnjh«gš
khÇbah‹W ï‹¿ twªâUªj fhy¤J«
ghÇ klkfŸ gh©kf‰F - Ú®ciyíŸ
bgh‹âwªJ bfh©L òfhth eš»dhŸ
x‹whF K‹¿nyh ïš. - K‹Wiw miuadh®
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ïaš - 2
òJik És¡F
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btŒa fânuh‹ És¡fhf¢ - brŒa
Rl®MÊah‹ mo¡nf N£ond‹ brhškhiy
ïl®MÊ Ú§Ffnt v‹W. - bghŒif Mœth®
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mw« v‹D« fâ®
ï‹brhš ÉisÃydh <jny ɤjhf
t‹brhš fisf£L thŒik vUt£o
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m‹òÚ® ghŒ¢á mw¡fâ® <dX®
ig§Tœ áWfhiy¢ brŒ. - Kid¥ghoah®
âU¡FwŸ
Éidbraš tif
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2. Éidahš Éidah¡»¡ nfhlš eidfîŸ
ahidahš ahidah¤ j‰W.
ab
ehL
5. cWgáí« Xth¥ ãÂí« brWgifí«
nruhJ ïaštJ ehL.
bgUik
9. ãw¥bgh¡F« všyh cÆ®¡F« áw¥òx›th
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kiy¥bghÊî
thí« tÆW« MirÆš ÉGªjhš
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[email protected] Ph: 9600175757 / 8124201000 / 8124301000
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ea¤jF ehfÇf«
ïaš
1 ÉUªnjh«gš fÉij¥ngiH
m ea¤jF ehfÇf«
üš btË
gHbkhÊ eh}W üÈ‹ MáÇa® K‹Wiw miuadh® Mth®. ït® ».ã. (bgh.M.)
eh‹fh« ü‰wh©il¢ nr®ªjt® v‹g®. gHbkhÊ eh}W üÈ‹ flîŸ thœ¤J¥ ghlš _y«
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ït® rkz rka¤ij¢ nr®ªjt® vd m¿a Ko»wJ.
gHbkhÊ eh}W gâbd©Ñœ¡fz¡F üšfSŸ x‹W. ïJ eh}W ghlšfis¡ bfh©lJ.
x›bthU ghlÈ‹ ïWâÆY« xU gHbkhÊ ïl« bg‰¿U¥gjhš ïJ gHbkhÊ eh}W v‹D«
bga®bg‰wJ. ïªüÈ‹ xU ghlš ï§F¤ ju¥g£LŸsJ.
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ghlÈ‹ bghUŸ
kiHÆ‹¿ tw£á ÃyÉa fhy¤âš, ghÇ kfËuhd m§fit, r§fit M»nahÇl«
ïaš 1
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ghz®fŸ ïuªJ Ëwd®. ghÇkfË® ciyÚÇš bgh‹ ï£L mt®fS¡F¤ jªjd®. mjdhš
bghUŸ VJ« ïšyhj åL vJî« ïšiy v‹gij m¿ayh«.
ï¥ghlÈš ïl« bg‰WŸs gHbkhÊ x‹whF K‹¿nyh ïš v‹gjhF«. x‹WÄšyhj åL
vJîÄšiy v‹gJ ïj‹ bghUŸ.
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brhšY« bghUS« :
1. khÇ - kiH
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2. klkfŸ - ïskfŸ
3. twªâUªj - tw©oUªj
4. eš»dhŸ - bfhL¤jhŸ
5. òfth - czthf
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kâ¥ÕL
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2. `bghUŸ VJ« ïšyhj åLfns ïšiy’ - v›thW?
ghÇ kfË® ciy ÚÇš bgh‹ ï£L¤ jªjjhš ‘bghUŸ VJ« ïšyhj åLfns
ïšiy’ v‹gJ òydh»wJ.
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áªjid Édh
jÄH®fË‹ ãw g©gh£L¡ TWfis vGJf.
jÄH®fË‹ ãw g©gh£L¡ TWfŸ : (g©ghL- e«ik¥ g©gL¤Jjš)
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(i) xG¡f«
(ii) áwªj fšÉia¥ bgWjš
(iii) bgÇnahiu kâ¤jš
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(iv) e‹¿íz®îl‹ ïU¤jš
(v) <if¡ Fz«
(vi) ÉUªnjh«gš
(vii) K‹ndh® T¿at‰iw¥ ã‹g‰Wjš
(viii) nkiyeh£L czit¤ jÉ®¤J e« ghu«gÇa czit c©Qjš.
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(ix) cliy kiw¡F« Mil mÂjš.
(x) cwÉd®fis¥ ng ghJfh¤jš
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f‰git f‰wã‹
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1. mâakh‹ 5. eŸË
_‹wh« gUt«
2. MŒ 6. ghÇ
3. XÇ 7. ngf‹
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4. fhÇ
m ea¤jF ehfÇf«
bešÈid¢ nrfǤJ vL¤J tªJ jªjhš, eh‹ mjid rik¤J moatU¡F
m‹d« gÇkhWnt‹’’ v‹whŸ.
moatiu¡ bfhŠr neu« fh¤âU¡F«go¡ T¿É£L, taY¡F¢ br‹wh®
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khwdh®. òÅjtâ Ä¢rÄUªj Éwif it¤J njh£l¤âš ïUªj Ñiuia¢
rik¤jhŸ. khwdh® tUif¡F¡ fh¤âUªjhŸ. moat® f©za®ªJ É£lh®.
khwdh® xU tÊahf ÚÇš Äjªj Éijbešiy vL¤J tªjh®. ÉwF
ïšyhjjhš å£o‹ TiuÆš ïUªj F¢áfis vL¤J¡ bfhL¤jh®. òÅjtâ
bešiy cuÈš ï£L¡ F¤â mÇáia vL¤J ciyÆÈ£L¢ nrhwh¡»dhŸ.
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ãwF cw§»¡ bfh©oUªj moatiu czî c©gj‰fhf khwdh®
vG¥ãdh®. m¥nghJ nrhâ tothf ïiwt‹ njh‹¿dh®. ``khwdhnu, c§fŸ
ïUtÇ‹ ÉUªnjh«gš g©ãid cy»‰F cz®¤jnt eh‹ ï›thW brŒnj‹.
ïaš 1
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ïÅ Ú§fŸ bršt§fŸ mid¤ijí« bg‰W gy fhy« bjh©L brŒJ v‹id
tªJ milå®fshf,’’ v‹W T¿É£L kiwªjh®.
ï¥òuhz¡fij ek¡F ÉUªnjh«gš g‰¿ cz®¤J»wJ.
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TLjš Édh¡fŸ
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Ãu¥òf.
1. gHbkhÊ eh}W üÈ‹ MáÇa® K‹Wiu miuadh®.
2. K‹Wiw miuadhÇ‹ fhy« ».ã. eh‹fh« ü‰wh©L.
3. K‹Wiw miuadh® rkz rka¤ij¢ nr®ªjt®.
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ÉilaË :
1. gHbkhÊ eh}W F¿¥ò tiuf.
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m
üš btË
eh£L¥òw§fËš ciH¡F« k¡fŸ j§fŸ fis¥ò¤ bjÇahkš ïU¥gj‰fhf¥ ghL«
ghlny eh£L¥òw¥ghlš vd¥gL»wJ. ïjid thŒbkhÊ ïy¡»a« v‹W« tH§Ft®. gšntW
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bjhÊšfŸ F¿¤j eh£L¥òw¥ghlšfis kiy mUÉ v‹D« üÈš ».th. #fªehj‹
bjhF¤JŸsh®. mªüÈš cŸs cHî¤bjhÊš g‰¿a ghlš x‹W ï§F¤ ju¥g£LŸsJ.
ghlÈ‹ bghUŸ
cHî brŒí« k¡fŸ Xilia¡ flªJ br‹W x‹wiu¡
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FÊ Ãy¤ij¤ nj®ªbjL¤jd®. bg©fŸ òlitia ïWf¡ f£o
elî brŒa taÈš ïw§»d®. eh‰W g¿¡F«nghJ M©fS«
bg©fS« taš tu¥ãš cŸs e©Lfisí« ão¤jd®.
xU rhQ¡F xU eh‰W åj« RWRW¥ghf e£ld®. elî
e£l taÈ‹ k©FËUkhW kiltÊna Ú®ghŒ¢ád®. e£l
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be‰gÆ®fŸ tÇirahf ts®ªJ brʤjd. ghš ão¤J K‰¿a
beškÂfŸ kd« ka§FkhW Éisªjd. mWtil brŒí«
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M£fS¡F¥ gz« bfhL¤jd®. mWtil brŒj bešjhŸfis¡ f£Lfshf¡ f£o¤ jiy¡F¢
R«khL it¤J¤ ö¡»¢ br‹W fs¤âš nr®¤jd®. fâuo¤j bešjhŸfis¡ »H¡f¤â
khLfis¡ bfh©L Äâ¡f¢ brŒjd®. khLfŸ Äâ¤j be‰fâ®fËš ïUªJ beškÂfŸ
ab
kÂkÂahŒ c⮪jd.
brhšY« bghUS« :
1. FÊ - Ãy msit¥bga®
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2. Óiy - òlit
3. rh© - Ú£lš msit¥bga®
4. kil - taY¡F Ú® tU« tÊ
5. k - K‰¿a beš
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6. fGYjš - câ®jš
_‹wh« gUt«
kâ¥ÕL
rÇahd Éilia¤ nj®ªbjL¤J vGJf.
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m ea¤jF ehfÇf«
ÉilfŸ
1. eh‰W - g¿¤jš eLjš
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2. Ú® - mW¤jš ghŒ¢Rjš
3. fâ® - eLjš mW¤jš
4. fis - ghŒ¢Rjš g¿¤jš
s.
taY« thœî« ghlÈš cŸs nkhid, vJif¢ brh‰fis vGJf
ïaš 1
nkhid¢ brh‰fŸ vJif¢ brh‰fŸ
Xil - x©ziu¡ FÊ
klkl‹D - k©FËu
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ng¢R tH¡F¢ brh‰fis vG¤J tH¡»š vGJf
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nr¤J - eh¤J
rhY - ehY
ïw§Fwh§f ïw§F»‹wd®
thuh‹ tU»‹wh‹
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FWÉdh
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áWÉdh
cHî¤bjhÊÈ‹ Ãfœîfis tÇir¥gL¤â vGJf.
cHî¤bjhÊÈ‹ ÃfœîfŸ :
(i) khLfis VÇš ó£o Ãy¤ij cGJ g©gL¤Jt®.
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(ii) eh‰w§fhÈš ïUªJ ãL§» vL¡f¥g£l eh‰iw eLt®. m›thW eL«nghJ
xU rhQ¡F xU eh‰W åj« v‹W bg©fŸ eh‰iw eLt®.
(iii) gÆU¡F¤ njitahd msî Úiu¥ ghŒ¢Rt®.
co
(iv) ãwF gÆ®fS¡F ïilna ts®ªJŸs fisfis¥ g¿¥g®.
(v) gÆ®fS¡F¤ njit¡nf‰g ó¢á¡bfhšÈ kUªJfis¤ bjË¥g®. ïa‰if
cu§fisí« ga‹gL¤Jt®.
(vi) be‰gÆ® ts®ªJ beš K‰¿aJ« mWtil brŒt®.
s.
(vii) mWtil brŒj bešjhŸfis¡ f£Lfshf¡ f£o be‰fs¤âš nr®¥g®.
(viii) fâuo¤J beškÂia¥ ãǤJ vL¥g®. vŠáÆU¡F« beškÂfis¥
ãÇ¥gj‰fhf khLfis¡ bfh©L Äâ¡f¢ brŒt®.
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(ix) ãwF beškÂfis btÆÈš fhait¤J _£ilfshf¡ f£o å£oš bfh©L
tªJ nr®¥g®.
áªjid Édh
o
cHî¤bjhÊÈš fhyªnjhW« V‰g£LtU« kh‰w§fŸ g‰¿ vGJf.
cHî¤bjhÊÈš fhyªnjhW« V‰g£L tU« kh‰w§fŸ :
ab
ghŒ¢ád®. gÆ® brŒjd®. tuF, rhik, beš vd¥ gÆ® brŒjd® jÄH®.
mÇáia cy»‰bfšyh« bfhL¤jd®.
(v) mnjnghy ãw gFâfËš ïUªJ ntW áy gÆ®fis¤ jÄHf¤â‰F¥ g©il¤
jÄH®fŸ bfh©L tªJŸsd®.
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_‹wh« gUt«
(vi) thÅaš g‰¿ m¿ªjjhš nfhŸfË‹ Ãiy f©L kiH tU« fhyk¿ªJ
gÆ® brŒjd®. ïa‰if cu§fshd ïiyjiHfis¥ ga‹gL¤âd®.
fhšeilfis ts®¤J mj‹ rhz§fis vUth¡»d®. fhšeilfis
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f‰git f‰wã‹
1. ntsh©ik rh®ªj fUÉfË‹ bga®fis vGâ tUf.
m ea¤jF ehfÇf«
ntsh©ik rh®ªj fUÉfŸ : V®¡fy¥ig, k©bt£o, mÇthŸ, f¤â, cHî
ïaªâu«, fl¥ghiu.
co
bjǪJ bjËnth«
mWtil brŒj be‰fâ®fis¡ fs¤âš mo¤J bešiy¥ ãÇ¥g®. bešjhËš
vŠáÆU¡F« beškÂfis¥ ãÇ¥gj‰fhf khLfis¡ bfh©L Äâ¡f¢ brŒt®.
ïj‰F¥ nghuo¤jš v‹W bga®.
s.
khLf£o¥ nghuo¤jhš khshJ brªbešby‹W
Midf£o¥ nghuo¡F« mHfhd bj‹kJiu - eh£L¥òw¥ghlš
ïaš 1
Ãu¥òf.
1.
2.
TLjš Édh¡fŸ
ok
eh£L¥òw¥ ghlšfis kiy mUÉ v‹D« üÈš ».th.#fªehj‹
bjhF¤JŸsh®.
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`FÊ’ v‹gJ Ãy msit¥ bga®.
3. `rh©’ v‹gJ Ú£lš msit¥ bga®.
ab
m
kâ¥ÕL
rÇahd Éilia¤ nj®ªbjL¤J vGJf.
co
1. âUbešntÈ ................. k‹d®fnshL bjhl®ò cilaJ.
m) nru M) nrhH ï) gh©oa <) gšyt
[Éil: ï) gh©oa]
2. ïs§nfhtofŸ .......................... kiy¡F Kj‹ik bfhL¤J¥ ghodh®.
s.
m) ïka M) bfhšÈ ï) bghâif <) ɪâa
[Éil: ï) bghâif]
3. âUbešntÈ .................. M‰¿‹ fiuÆš mikªJŸsJ.
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m) fhÉÇ M) itif
ï) bj‹bg©iz <) jhÄugu [Éil: <) jhÄuguÂ]
bghU¤Jf
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ÉilfŸ
1. j©bghUie - bgh‹ ehza§fŸ cUth¡F« ïl« jhÄuguÂ
ab
FWÉdh
.s
áw¥ig¡ TW»‹wd.
(iii) »nu¡f, cnuhkhòÇ ehLfis¢ nr®ªj atd®fŸ K¤Jfis ÉU«ã th§»¢
br‹wd®.
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áWÉdh
1. âUbešntÈ¥ gFâÆš eilbgW« cHî¤bjhÊš F¿¤J vGJf.
(i) âUbešntÈ kht£l¥ bghUshjhu¤âš Kj‹ikahd g§F t»¥gJ cHî¤
bjhÊš. jhÄugu M‰¿‹ _y« ï§F cHî¤bjhÊš eilbgW»‹wJ.
ï§F Fs¤J¥ ghrdK« »z‰W¥ ghrdK«Tl¥ ga‹gh£oš cŸsd.
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RuhÉ‹ jÄœ ciuüš 7 M« tF¥ò
(ii) ïU gUt§fËš beš gÆÇl¥gL»‹wJ. khdhthÇ¥ gÆ®fshf¢
áWjhÅa§fŸ, v©bzŒÉ¤JfŸ, fhŒfÅfŸ, gU¤â, gaWtiffŸ
ngh‹wit gÆÇl¥gL»‹wd.
(iii) ïuhjhòu«, eh§FneÇ, m«ghrK¤âu«, bj‹fhá ngh‹w gFâfËš
bgUksÉš thiH gÆÇl¥gL»‹wJ. ï§F Éisí« thiH¤jh®fŸ
m ea¤jF ehfÇf«
jÄœehL k£LÄ‹¿ f®ehlf«, nfus« ngh‹w ãw khÃy§fS¡F«
mD¥g¥gL»‹wd.
(iv) bešÈ¡fhŒ c‰g¤âÆš jÄHf¤âš bešiy kht£lnk KjÈl« t»¡»‹wJ.
co
2. âUbešntÈ¡F« jÄG¡F« cŸs bjhl®ò F¿¤J vGJf.
âUbešntÈí«, jÄG« :
(i) mf¤âa« v‹D« Kjš jÄœ ïy¡fz üiy vGâat® mf¤âa®. ït®
âUbešntÈÆYŸs bghâif kiyÆš thœªjt®.
s.
(ii) r§f¥ òytuhd khnwh¡f¤J e¥griyah®, e«khœth®, bgÇahœth®,
FkuFUgu®, âÇTluhr¥g¡ fÉuha®, fÉuhr¥ g©oj® M»nah®
ïaš 1
âUbešntÈ¢ ÓikÆš ãwªJ jÄG¡F¢ brGik nr®ªJŸsd®.
3.
(iii)
áªjid Édh
k¡fŸ k»œ¢áahf thH xU efu« v›thW ïU¡f nt©L« v‹W
Ãid¡»Ö®fŸ?
w
m
(ix) áwªj kU¤JtidfŸ ïU¡f nt©L«.
(x) rhiynahu§fËš ku§fŸ ts®¡f nt©L«.
(xi) gytifahd tÂf« eilbgw nt©L«.
co
(xii) nk‰T¿a mid¤J« k¡fis k»œ¢áahf thH it¡F«.
f‰git f‰wã‹
s.
1. c§fSila kht£l¤âš cŸs R‰Wyh ïl§fŸ g‰¿a brŒâfis¤ njo¤
bjhF¡f.
vdJ kht£l¤âš cŸs R‰Wyh ïl§fŸ :
ok
v‹Dila kht£l« br‹id. ïJ e« khÃy¤â‹ jiyefu« MF«. ï§F
gh®¡f nt©oa ïl§fŸ gy cŸsd. ï§FŸs bkÇdh fl‰fiu, cy»nyna
Äf Ú©l fl‰fiufËš ïu©lhtJ ïl¤ij¥ bgW»wJ. br‹id tháfŸ
MirnahL bghGJngh¡» k»G« mUikahd âwªj btË ïlkhF«.
o
M§»y¡ »H¡»ªâa¡ f«bgÅauhš f£l¥g£lJ òÅj #h®{ nfh£il. ïj‹
btË¥òw¤âš mfÊ, mjid R‰¿ kâš Rt®fŸ cŸsd. nfh£ilÆ‹ K‹ò
ab
m ea¤jF ehfÇf«
khefuh£áahf nk«gL¤j¥g£l ehŸ : 29 br¥l«g® 1688
îthf k©ly§fŸ : 15
îthf k©ly§fË‹ bga®fŸ : âUbth‰¿ô®, kzÈ, khjtu«,
co
j©ilah®ng£il, uhaòu«,
âU.É.f.ef®, m«g¤ö®, m©zh
ef®, njdh«ng£il, nfhl«gh¡f«,
tsruth¡f«, Myªö®, milah®,
bgU§Fo, nrh˧fešÿ®.
s.
th®LfË‹ v©Â¡if : 200
k¡fŸ bjhif (2011 fz¡bfL¥ã‹ go) : 86,96,010
ïaš 1
(ii) nfha«ò¤ö® khefuh£á:
efu« cUth¡f¥g£l ehŸ
îthf k©ly§fŸ : 5
îthf k©ly§fË‹ bga®fŸ
o ok
: 1 et«g® 1866
khefuh£áahf nk«gL¤j¥g£l M©L : 1981
îthf k©ly§fŸ :4
îthf k©ly§fË‹ bga®fŸ : Nuk§fy«, A°j«g£o,
m«khng£il, bfh©lyh«g£o
th®LfË‹ v©Â¡if : 60
k¡fŸ bjhif (2011 fz¡bfL¥ã‹ go) : 10,13,388
m
nky¥ghisa«, âUbešntÈ.
th®LfË‹ v©Â¡if : 55
k¡fŸ bjhif (2011 fz¡bfL¥ã‹ go) : 4,74,838
(vii) âU¥ó® khefuh£á:
co
efu« cUth¡f¥g£l ehŸ : 1 or«g® 1947(gŠrha¤J ôÅadhf)
khefuh£áahf nk«gL¤j¥g£l M©L : 2008
îthf k©ly§fŸ :4
îthf k©ly§fË‹ bga®fŸ : tl¡F, »H¡F, bj‰F, nk‰F.
s.
th®LfË‹ v©Â¡if : 60
k¡fŸ bjhif (2011 fz¡bfL¥ã‹ go) : 4,66,998
(viii) <nuhL khefuh£á:
ok
efu« cUth¡f¥g£l M©L : 1871
khefuh£áahf nk«gL¤j¥g£l M©L : 2008
îthf k©ly§fŸ :4
îthf k©ly§fË‹ bga®fŸ : Nu«g£o, fhághisa«,
åu¥g‹r¤âu«, bgÇa nr_®.
o
th®LfË‹ v©Â¡if : 60
k¡fŸ bjhif (2011 fz¡bfL¥ã‹ go) : 4,44,782
ab
îthf k©ly§fŸ :4
îthf k©ly§fË‹ bga®fŸ : tl¡F, »H¡F, bj‰F, nk‰F.
th®LfË‹ v©Â¡if : 60
w
m ea¤jF ehfÇf«
th®LfË‹ v©Â¡if : 51
k¡fŸ bjhif (2011 fz¡bfL¥ã‹ go) : 2,07,225
(xiii) ehf®nfhÉš khefuh£á:
efu« cUth¡f¥g£l ehŸ : 1 et«g® 1866
co
khefuh£áahf nk«gL¤j¥g£l M©L : 2019
îthf k©ly§fŸ :4
îthf k©ly§fË‹ bga®fŸ : tl¡F, »H¡F, bj‰F, nk‰F.
th®LfË‹ v©Â¡if : 51
s.
k¡fŸ bjhif (2011 fz¡bfL¥ã‹ go) : 2,24,849
(xiv) XN® khefuh£á:
efu« cUth¡f¥g£l ehŸ : 1 et«g® 1866
ïaš 1
khefuh£áahf nk«gL¤j¥g£l M©L : 2019
îthf k©ly§fŸ
îthf k©ly§fË‹ bga®fŸ
th®LfË‹ v©Â¡if ok
:4
: tl¡F, »H¡F, bj‰F, nk‰F.
: 51
k¡fŸ bjhif (2011 fz¡bfL¥ã‹ go) : 1,16,821
(xv) Mto khefuh£á :
o
efu« cUth¡f¥g£l ehŸ : 10 #dtÇ 1955
ab
bjǪJ bjËnth«
(i) K‰fhy¤âš âUbešntÈ¡F ntQtd« v‹D« bgaU« ïUªJŸsJ.
.s
TLjš Édh¡fŸ
Ãu¥òf.
1. gHªjÄHf¤ij M©l k‹d®fŸ nru®, nrhH®, gh©oa®.
m
2. gh©oa®fË‹ jiyef® kJiu.
3. gh©oa®fsJ ïu©lhtJ jiyefukhf És§»a efu« âUbešntÈ.
4. âUbešntÈ¥ gFâia ts« brÊ¡f¢ brŒí« MW jhÄugu MF«.
co
5. `â¡bfšyh« òfGW« âUbešntÈ’ vd¥ ghoat® âUPhdr«gªj®.
6. `j©bghUie¥ òdš ehL’ v‹W ghoat® nr¡»Hh®.
7. ntQtd« v‹gj‹ bghUŸ _§»š fhL.
8. jÄHf¤âš bešÈ¡fhŒ c‰g¤âÆš KjÈl« t»¡F« kht£l« âUbešntÈ.
9. jhÄugu flnyhL fy¡F« ïl¤âš cŸs JiwKf« bfh‰if.
s.
10. `K¤J¥gL gu¥ã‰ bfh‰if K‹Wiw’ v‹W ghL« üš e‰¿iz.
11. `bfh‰ifÆš bgUªJiw K¤J` vd¥ ghL« üš mfeh}W.
12. fht‰òiu v‹whš áiw¢rhiy.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
jhÅa§fŸ ɉf¥gL« bjU Ty¡fil¤ bjU.
tÂf« eilbgW« gFâ ng£il v‹W tH§f¥g£lJ.
ok
ïu£il efu§fŸ v‹git âUbešntÈí«, ghisa§nfh£ilí« MF«.
bj‹ÅªâahÉ‹ M~°ngh®L ghisa§nfh£il.
o
gh©oa k‹d‹ ËwÓ® beLkhwid bešiy efu k¡fŸ vâ®bfh©L
tunt‰w ïl« gh©oaòu« v‹W tH§f¥gL»‹wd.
ab
jhÊfŸ.
ÉilaË :
1.
.s
(i)
ngh‰¿íŸsh®.
(ii) âUbešntÈÆš â§fŸnjhW« âUÉHh eilbgW« v‹gij,
w
ea¤jF ehfÇf«
(i) nru‹khnjÉ (ii) f§ifbfh©lh‹
m
(iii) âUkiya¥òu« (iv) åugh©oa¥ g£od«
(v) Fynrfu‹g£od«.
co
ea¤jF ehfÇf«
ïaš
1 âUbešntÈ¢ Óikí« fÉfS«
s.
ÉÇthd«
üš btË
ïaš 1
o.nf.á vd miH¡f¥gL« o.nf. áj«guehj® tH¡f¿P® bjhÊš brŒjt®;
ok
jÄœ vG¤jhsuhfî« âwdhŒthsuhfî« òfœbg‰wt®; ïuáfk v‹W
áw¥ã¡f¥g£lt®. ït® jkJ å£oš `t£l¤bjh£o’ v‹D« bgaÇš ïy¡»a¡
T£l§fŸ el¤â tªjh®. ït® foj ïy¡»a¤â‹ K‹ndho, jÄÊir¡
fhty®, ts®jÄœ M®ty®, F‰why KÅt® vd¥ gythwhf¥ òfH¥gL»wh®.
o
ï¥ghl¥gFâÆš ïl«bg‰WŸs f£Liu ïtuJ `ïja xÈ’ v‹D« üÈš
ïUªJ ju¥g£LŸsJ.
ab
kâ¥ÕL
1. o.nf.á. F¿¥ãL« âUbešntÈ¡ fÉP®fŸ g‰¿a brŒâfis¤ bjhF¤J vGJf.
ur
m
fÇty« tªj ešÿ® v‹D« bga® bfh©l °jy« fUit ešÿ® MF«.
ï¤jy¤ij¥ g‰¿ âU¡fUit bt©gh mªjhâ, gâ‰W¥g¤jªjhâ, fȤJiw
mªjhâ M»a üšfËš òyt® xUt® ghoíŸsh®.
F‰why kiyÆ‹ ïa‰ifia¡ f©l âUPhd r«gªj® `E© JË ö§F«
co
F‰why«’ v‹W ghoíŸsh®. ï¤jy¤ij¥ g‰¿ kh¡fthrfU« `c‰whiu
ah‹nt©nl‹‘ v‹w ghlÈš F¿¥ã£LŸsh®.
âÇTluhr¥g¡ fÉuha® j« F‰why¡ FwtŠáÆš ï«kiyÆ‹ ts¤ij¡ F¿
brhšY»‹w bg© TWtJ nghš ghoíŸsh®.
s.
ï¤jF bgUikÄ¡f âUbešntÈia¥ g‰¿í« m§F thœªj òyt®fË‹
òyikiaí« ÃidÉš bfhŸnth«.
1.
khzt‹ 1
ok
f‰git f‰wã‹
c§fS¡F¥ ão¤j fÉij x‹iw¥ g‰¿ tF¥giwÆš fyªJiuahLf.
: ï‹W eh‹ üyf« bršyyh« v‹W òw¥g£nl‹. ešy kiH
o
bgŒjjjhš bršyÉšiy.
khzt‹ 2 : vj‰F üyf¤â‰F bršy nt©L«?
ab
khzt‹ 1
RujhÉ‹ fÉij üÈš `ï‹g«’ v‹w jiy¥ãš cŸs fÉij
vd¡F Äfî« ão¤âUªjJ.
``gHªjÄœ f‰wš ï‹g«
.s
..............................
bg‰wij tH§» thG«
bgU§Fz« bgWjš ï‹g«.
w
m ea¤jF ehfÇf«
khzt‹ 1 : rÇ! miH¤J¢ brš»nw‹.
co
ea¤jF ehfÇf«
ïaš
1 m ïy¡fz« f‰f©L
s.
kâ¥ÕL
ïaš 1
FWÉdh
1. ctik, ctnka«, ctkcUò És¡Ff.
ok
xU brhšiy k‰bwhU brhšnyhL x¥ã£L¡ TWtJ ctik mšyJ ctkhd«
o
MF«. ctikahš És¡f¥gL« bghUŸ ctnka« MF«. ctik ctnka«
ïu©L¡F« ïilÆš tU« cUò ctk cUò MF«.
ab
f‰git f‰wã‹
w
TLjš Édh¡fŸ
Ãu¥òf.
1. m v‹D« brhšY¡F mHF v‹gJ bghUŸ.
2. xU brŒíis¢ brhšyhY«, bghUshY« mHF bgw¢ brŒjš m vd¥gL«.
m
3. nghy, òiua, m‹d, ï‹d, m‰W, ï‰W, khd, fL¥g, x¥g, cwH ngh‹wit
ctk cUòfŸ MF«.
4. xU ghlÈš ctikí« ctnkaK« tªJ ctk cUò btË¥gilahf tªjhš
mJ ctik m vd¥gL«.
co
5. xU ghlÈš ctik xU bjhluhfî« ctnka« xU bjhluhfî« tªJ ctk
cUò kiwªJ tªjhš mJ vL¤J¡fh£L ctik m vd¥gL«.
6. cy»š ïšyhj x‹iw ctikahf¡ TWtJ ïšbghUŸ ctik m MF«.
ÉilaË :
s.
1. ctika És¡Ff.
m És¡f«: xU ghlÈš ctikí«, ctnkaK« tªJ ctk cUò
btË¥gilahf tUtJ ctika MF«.
m mikªj ghlš:
mfœthiu¤ jh§F« Ãy«nghy¤ j«ik
ïfœth®¥ bghW¤jš jiy. ok
ghlš bghUŸ: óÄ j‹id¤ njh©Lgtiu¥ bghW¤J¡ bfhŸtJnghy eh«
o
e«ik ïfœªJ ngRgtiu¥ bghW¤J bfhŸs nt©L«.
m bghU¤j«: óÄ j‹id¤ njh©Lgtiu¥ bghW¤J¡ bfhŸSjš v‹gJ
ab
v.fh. :
1. khiy btÆÈš kiH¤öwš bgh‹kiH bghʪjJ nghš njh‹¿aJ.
2. fhis bfh«ò Kis¤j Fâiu nghy¥ ghŒªJ tªjJ.
m bghU¤j«: cy»š bgh‹ kiHahf¥ bghÊtJ ïšiy, bfh«ò Kis¤j
Fâiuí« ïšiy. ï›thW cy»š ïšyhj x‹iw ctikahf¡ Tw¥g£ljhš
ïšbghUŸ ctika¡F¢ rh‹whÆd.
20 [email protected] Ph: 9600175757 / 8124201000 / 8124301000
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RuhÉ‹ jÄœ ciuüš 7 M« tF¥ò
bkhÊia MŸnth«
nf£f.
òfœbg‰w fÉP® xUtuJ ciuÆ‹ xÈ¥gâit¡ nf£L k»œf.
m ea¤jF ehfÇf«
khzt®fŸ jh§fshfnt òfœbg‰w fÉP® xUtuJ ciuÆ‹ xÈ¥gâit nf£L
k»H nt©L«.
Ñœ¡fhQ« jiy¥òfSŸ x‹W g‰¿ ïu©L ÃÄl« ngRf
co
1. eh‹ ÉU«ò« fÉP®.
eh‹ ÉU«ò« fÉP® - kfhfÉ ghuâah® :
eh‹ ÉU«ò« fÉPuhd ghuâahiu¥ g‰¿¥ ngr tªJŸns‹.
s.
ïªâa¤ jhÆ‹ koÆš MdªjkhŒ¤ jtH nt©oa eh« moikfshŒ¢
RU©L »lªjij¥ bghW¡fhkš, e«ik Û£f e«Äilna Rjªâu cz®ití«
vG¢áiaí« åu« ÄFªj j‹Dila ghlšfshš V‰gL¤âat® ghuâah®. ït®
ïaš 1
rhâ, kj«, ïd«, bkhÊ, kj ntWghLfË‹¿ midtiuí« j« ghlšfËdhš
x‹¿iz¤jt®.
ok
kfhfÉ ghuâah® ö¤J¡Fo kht£l« v£ilaòu¤âš 1882 M« M©L or«g®
11 M« njâ á‹drhÄ Ia® - ïy¡FÄa«khŸ j«gâaU¡F kfdhf¥ ãwªjh®.
ïtuJ ïa‰bga® R¥ãukÂa‹ MF«.
o
j‹ ïs«taânyna jÄÊš fÉijfŸ gho midtiuí« ft®ªjt®.
ïtuJ 16MtJ taânyna v£ilaòu« muritÆš fÉij gho `ghuâ’ v‹D«
ab
m
e‹¿ T¿ Éil bgW»nw‹.
2. vd¡F¥ ão¤j ghlš.
midtU¡F« tz¡f«! vd¡F¥ ão¤j eh£L¥òw¥ ghlš g‰¿ ï§F¥ ngr
co
tªJŸns‹.
eh£L¥òw¥ ghlšfŸ V£oš vGj¥glhj X® ïy¡»a«. tÊ tÊahf
K‹ndh®fŸ ghoaij¡ nf£L«, mjndhL j§fŸ ïurid¡nf‰wthW mt‰¿š
th®¤ijfis¢ nr®¤J« eh£L¥òw¥ ghlšfŸ cUthÆd. eh£L¥òw¥ ghlšfËš
brhšy¥glhj fU¤JfŸ »ilahJ. Äf¡ fodkhd fU¤Jfis¡ Tl Äf¢
s.
Rygkhf ghoÉLth®fŸ. MHkhd fU¤JfSl‹ Hfu, yfu, sfu vG¤JfË‹
c¢rÇ¥ò k‰W« wfu, ufu c¢rÇ¥òfŸ, eh¥ãwœ¢á ïšyhkš ghL« gƉá
M»ait eh£L¥òw¥ ghlšfËdhš »il¡»‹wd.
ok
(i) ``fliyÆny xU cuš
cuSJ bguSJ
j¤jË¡FJ jhs« nghLJ
fliy jsu cGJ
fy fliy Éij¢nr‹
o
fy fliyí« fy fliyah¢R.’’
(ii) ``ÉahH¡»Hik ViH¡»Ht‹
ab
thiH¥gH« tG¡»
ÑnH ÉGªjh‹.’’
btŸisa® M£áia cŸns EiHaÉ£lJ e« jtW. mij btF mHfhf¡ xU
eh£L¥òw¥ ghlš TW»wJ:-
ur
m ea¤jF ehfÇf«
bfh©L ɉf E§fhnd‹!
öu¤J k¡fS¡F¤
önjhiy ehdhnd‹!
mG»w ãŸisf£F¡
co
»Y»Y¥ig ehdhnd‹!
ifâÇ¡F« fÆWkhnd‹!
f‹Wf£l¤ J«òkhnd‹! - eh£L¥òw¥ghlš
Édh¡fŸ :
s.
1. gid ku« jU« czî¥bghUŸfŸ ahit?
gjÅ, E§F M»ait gid ku« jU« czî¥ bghUŸfshF«.
2. gid ku« ahU¡F¡ »Y»Y¥ig¤ jU«?
ïaš 1
ok
gid kukhdJ, mG»w ãŸis¡F¡ »Y»Y¥igia¤ jU»wJ.
3. `önjhiy’ v‹D« brhšiy¥ ãǤJ vGJf.
önjhiy = öJ + Xiy.
4. gidku« _y« ek¡F¡ »il¡F« bghUŸfis¥ g£oaÈLf.
o
gjÅ, E§F, önjhiy, »Y»Y¥ig, fÆW, J«ò KjÈad gidku« _y«
ek¡F¡ »il¡F« bghUŸfshF«.
ab
cyf¥bghJkiw :
mw«, bghUŸ, ï‹g« M»at‰iw br«ikíw ek¡F¡ TW« âU¡FwŸ
F¿¥ã£l xU eh£odU¡nfh, bkhÊÆdU¡nfh k£L« cǤj‹W. cyf«
KGtâ‰F« brhªjkhdJ. cy»nyna mâf bkhÊfËš bkhÊbga®¡f¥g£l
w
m
bkhÊnahL ÉisahL
co
FW¡bfG¤J¥ òâ®.
jÄœeh£oš cŸs C®¥ bga®fisí« mt‰¿‹ áw¥igí« m¿nth«.
1 2
3 4
s.
5 6
13
o 9
11
10
8
12
ok 14
ÉilfŸ
w
6. br‹id 8. fhiu¡fhš
13. jŠrhñ® 11. <nuhL
w
m ea¤jF ehfÇf«
nghy/ efK« rijí« nghy) [Éil: efK« rijí« nghy]
3. âUtŸStÇ‹ òfiH .............. cyfnk m¿ªJŸsJ. (vÈí« óidí« nghy/
cŸs§if bešÈ¡fÅ nghy) [Éil: cŸs§if bešÈ¡fÅ nghy]
co
4. m¥Jš fyhÄ‹ òfœ ..................... cybf§F« guÉaJ. (F‹¿nkÈ£l És¡F
nghy/ Fl¤JŸ ï£l És¡F nghy) [Éil: F‹¿‹nkÈ£l És¡F nghy]
5. áW taâš eh‹ gh®¤j Ãfœ¢áfŸ................... v‹ kd¤âš gâªjd.
s.
(»z‰W¤jtis nghy/ gRku¤jh nghy) [Éil: gRku¤jh nghy]
ïaš 1
1.
2.
3.
(v.fh.) âUbešntÈ
ehf¥g£od«
f‹ÅahFkÇ
br§fšg£L
- âU, beš, ntÈ, ntš
ok
- ehf«, g£od«, go, g£o, f¥g«, eho, eh
- f‹Å, FkÇ, fÅ, fÇ, ah, fah
o
- br§fš, g£L, gL, brš, gš, fš, gfš, gf£L
4. cjfk©ly« - k©, k©ly«, kl«, c©, f©, jl«, fk©ly«, fl«
ab
Éf mj‰F¤ jf
ur
v‹ bghW¥òfŸ
1. efu§fË‹ áw¥ò¤ j‹ikia m¿ªJ ngh‰Wnt‹.
2. x›bthU CÇY« eilbgW« bjhÊšfË‹ áw¥ig m¿ªJ bjhÊš
brŒnthiu kâ¥ng‹.
.s
fiy¢brhš m¿nth«
1. ehfÇf« - Civilization 6. be‰gÆ® - Paddy
w
w
myF¤ nj®î -1
neu« : 60 ÃÄl§fŸ kâ¥bg©fŸ : 25
m
1. ku« ts®¤jhš ............................ bgwyh«.
m) kh¿ M) khÇ ï) fhÇ <) ghÇ
2. `nj®ªbjL¤J’ v‹D« brhšiy¥ ãǤJ vGj¡ »il¥gJ ........................... .
co
m) nj® + vL¤J M) nj®ªJ + bjL¤J
ï) nj®ªjJ + mL¤J <) nj®ªJ + vL¤J
3. ïs§nfhtofŸ .......................... kiy¡F Kj‹ik bfhL¤J¥ ghodh®.
m) ïka M) bfhšÈ ï) bghâif <) ɪâa
s.
II. nfho£l ïl§fis Ãu¥òf. (3 × 1 = 3)
4. be‰gÆ® eLtj‰fhd ïilbtË .............................. .
5. ntQtd« v‹gj‹ bghUŸ ......................... .
6.
III.
7.
ok
cy»š ïšyhj x‹iw ctikahf¡ TWtJ .................. MF«.
bjhlU¡F¥ bghU¤jkhd ctikia vL¤J vGJf
hD« v‹ njhÊí« ................. ïizªJ ïU¥ngh«. (ïŠá â‹w Fu§F nghy/ efK«
e
rijí« nghy)
o (3 × 1 = 3)
8.
âUtŸStÇ‹ òfiH .............. cyfnk m¿ªJŸsJ. (vÈí« óidí« nghy/ cŸs§if
ab
bešÈ¡fÅ nghy)
9. m¥Jš fyhÄ‹ òfœ ..................... cybf§F« guÉaJ. (F‹¿nkÈ£l És¡F nghy/
Fl¤JŸ ï£l És¡F nghy)
IV. ã‹tU« Édh¡fSŸ vitnaD« _‹W Édh¡fS¡F _‹W tÇfËš
ur
ÉilaË¡fî«. (3 × 2 = 6)
10. ghÇ kfËÇ‹ bga®fis vGJf.
11. be‰fâÇÈUªJ beškÂia v›thW ãÇ¥g®?
.s
_‹wh« gUt«
x¥òuî xGF
ïaš
2 òJik És¡F fÉij¥ngiH
m
ghlš :
ita« jfËah th®flny beŒahf
btŒa fânuh‹ És¡fhf¢ - brŒa
co
Rl®MÊah‹ mo¡nf N£ond‹ brhškhiy
ïl®MÊ Ú§Ffnt v‹W. - bghŒif Mœth®
ghlÈ‹ bghUŸ
s.
óÄia mfšÉs¡fhfî«, xÈ¡»‹w fliy beŒahfî«, bt¥g¡fâ® åR« fâutid¢
Rluhfî« bfh©lt‹ âUkhš. átªj xËåR« r¡fu¤ij cila mtdJ âUtofS¡F v‹
J‹g¡ flš Ú§f nt©o¥ ghlyhš khiy N£ond‹.
üš btË
ok
bghŒifahœth® fhŠáòu¤â‰F mU»YŸs âUbt~fh v‹D« CÇš ãwªjt®.
ehyhÆu¤ â›Éa¥ ãugªj¤âš cŸs Kjš âUtªjhâ ït® ghoajhF«. mj‹ Kjš ghlš
ek¡F¡ bfhL¡f¥g£LŸsJ.
o
brhšY« bghUS« :
ab
1. ita« - cyf«
2. btŒa - bt¥g¡fâ® åR«
3. Rl®MÊah‹ - xËÉL« r¡fu¤ij cila âUkhš
4. ïl®MÊ - J‹g¡ flš
ur
ghlÈ‹ bghUŸ
Phd¤jÄœ gÆ‹w eh‹ m‹igna mfšÉs¡fhfî«, M®t¤ijna beŒahfî«,
w
ïÅikahš cUF« kd¤ijna ïL»‹w âÇahfî« bfh©L, Phd xËah»a Rl® És¡if
kd« cUf âUkhY¡F V‰¿nd‹.
w
üš btË
ój¤jhœth® br‹idia mL¤JŸs khkšyòu¤âš ãwªjt®. ït® ehyhÆu¤ â›Éa¥
ãugªj¤âš ïu©lh« âUtªjhâia ïa‰¿íŸsh®. e« ghl¥ gFâ ïu©lh« âUtªjhâÆš
cŸs Kjš ghlyhF«.
[27]
m
kâ¥ÕL
rÇahd Éilia¤ nj®ªbjL¤J vGJf.
co
1. ``ïl® MÊ Ú§Ffnt’’ - ï¤bjhlÇš mo¡nfho£l brhšÈ‹ bghUŸ ............
m) J‹g« M) k»œ¢á ï) M®t« <) ï‹g«
[Éil: m) J‹g«]
2. `Phd¢Rl®’ v‹D« brhšiy¥ ãǤJ vGj¡ »il¥gJ ...................... .
s.
m) Phd + Rl® M) Phd¢ + Rl®
ï) Phd« + Rl® <) PhÅ + Rl®[Éil: ï) Phd« + Rl®]
3. ï‹ò + cUF v‹gjid¢ nr®¤bjGj¡ »il¡F« brhš .......................... .
m) ï‹ò cUF
ï) ï‹òUF <) ï‹gUF
bghU¤Jf
o M) ï‹ò« cUF
ok[Éil: ï) ï‹òUF]
ÉilfŸ
1. m‹ò - beŒ jfË
ab
FWÉdh
1. bghŒifahœthU« ój¤jhœthU« mfšÉs¡fhf vt‰iw
.s
cUtf¥gL¤J»‹wd®?
_‹wh« gUt«
ghkhiy N£L»wh®.
áWÉdh
w
áªjid Édh
bghŒifahœth® Phd¤ij És¡fhf cUtf¥gL¤J»wh®. Ú§fŸ vt‰iw
všyh« És¡fhf cUtf¥gL¤Jå®fŸ?
bghŒifahœth® Phd¤ij És¡fhf cUtf¥gL¤J»wh®. eh‹ xG¡f«, m‹ò
m
M»at‰iw És¡fhf cUtf¥gL¤Jnt‹.
x¥òuî xGF
co
f‰git f‰wã‹
1. g‹ÅU Mœth®fË‹ bga®fis¤ âu£Lf.
1. bghŒif Mœth® 2. ój¤jhœth®
s.
3. ngahœth® 4. âUkÊir Mœth®
5. e«khœth® 6. âUk§ifahœth®
7. bjh©luo¥ bgho Mœth® 8. bgÇahœth®
ïaš 2
ok
9. $ M©lhŸ 10. Fynrfu Mœth®
11. kJufÉ Mœth® 12. âU¥ghzhœth®
bjǪJ bjËnth«
o
(i) xU ghlÈ‹ ïWâ vG¤njh mirnah, brhšnyh mL¤J tU« ghlY¡F Kjyhf
miktij mªjhâ v‹g®. (mªj« - Koî, Mâ - Kjš). ï›thW mªjhâahf
ab
TLjš Édh¡fŸ
.s
Ãu¥òf.
1. cŸs¤ öŒiknahL e‹bd¿Æš el¥gnj rh‹nwhÇ‹ ïašò.
w
m
1. mªjhâ - F¿¥ò vGJf
(i) xU ghlÈ‹ ïWâ vG¤njh, mirnah, brhšnyh mL¤J tU« ghlY¡F
Kjyhf miktij mªjhâ v‹g®.
co
(ii) ï›thW mªjhâahf mikí« ghlšfis¡ bfh©L miktJ mªjhâ
v‹D« ቿy¡»a tifahF«.
2. bghŒifahœth® F¿¥ò vGJf.
(i) bghŒifahœth® fhŠáòu¤â‰F mU»YŸs âUbt~fh v‹D« CÇš
s.
ãwªjt®.
(ii) ehyhÆu¤â›Éa¥ ãugªj¤âš cŸs Kjš âUtªjhâia¥ ghoat®.
3.
ok
ój¤jhœth® F¿¥ò tiuf.
(i) ój¤jhœth® br‹idia mL¤JŸs khkšyòu¤âš ãwªjt®.
(ii) ït® ehyhÆu¤ â›Éa¥ ãugªj¤âš ïu©lh« âUtªjhâia¥ ghoat®.
o
x¥òuî xGF
ïaš
ab
üš btË
ur
ghlÈ‹ bghUŸ
w
ïÅa brhšiyna ÉisÃykhf¡ bfhŸs nt©L«. mâš <if v‹D« g©ig Éijahf
Éij¡f nt©L«. t‹brhš v‹D« fisia Ú¡f nt©L«. c©ik ngRjš v‹D«
vUÉid ïl nt©L«. m‹gh»a Úiu¥ ghŒ¢r nt©L«. m¥nghJjh‹ mwkh»a fâiu¥
w
brhšY« bghUS« :
w
1. ɤJ - Éij
2. fis - nt©lhj bro
3. <d - bgw
4. Ãy‹ - Ãy«
5. ig§Tœ - gRikahd gÆ®
6. t‹brhš - fLŠbrhš
30 [email protected] Ph: 9600175757 / 8124201000 / 8124301000
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RuhÉ‹ jÄœ ciuüš 7 M« tF¥ò
kâ¥ÕL
rÇahd Éilia¤ nj®ªbjL¤J vGJf.
1. fhªâaofŸ v¥nghJ« .........................¥ ngádh®.
m
m) t‹brh‰fis M) muáaiy
x¥òuî xGF
ï) fijfis <) thŒikia[Éil: <) thŒikia]
2. `ï‹brhš’ v‹D« brhšiy¥ ãǤJ vGj¡ »il¥gJ ..............
co
m) ïÅa + brhš M) ï‹ik + brhš
ï) ïÅik + brhš <) ï‹ + brhš
[Éil: ï) ïÅik + brhš]
3. mw« + fâ® v‹gjid¢ nr®¤bjGj¡ »il¡F« brhš ........................... .
s.
m) mw fâ® M) mWfâ®
ï) mw¡fâ® <) mw«fâ® [Éil: ï) mw¡fâ®]
4.
ïaš 2
‘ïsik’ v‹D« brhšÈ‹ v⮢brhš .......................... .
m) KJik
ï) jÅik <) ïÅik
bghU¤Jf
oM) òJik
ok ÉilfŸ
[Éil: m) KJik]
FWÉdh
1. mw¡fâ® Éisa vjid vUthf ïl nt©L« vd Kid¥ghoah® TW»wh®?
mw¡fâ® Éisa vUthf ïlnt©oaJ c©ik ngRjš MF«.
.s
áWÉdh
ïs« taânyna brŒa nt©oa brašfshf Kid¥ghoah® TWtd ahit?
w
áªjid Édh
ïs« taânyna eh« f‰W¡bfhŸs nt©oa e‰g©òfŸ vit vd¡ fUJ»Ö®fŸ?
ïs« taânyna eh« f‰W¡bfhŸs nt©oa e‰g©òfŸ :
mw¢brašfŸ brŒjš. öŒikílD« c©ikílD«
m
Ãahakhf ïU¤jš.
cjÉ brŒí« Fz«. ãw® fU¤Jfis V‰W¡ bfhŸSjš.
bjh©L brŒjš. fUizílD« ïu¡f¤JlD« ïU¤jš.
co
k‹Å¡F« Fz«. g©òilatuhf¤ âfœjš.
x‰Wikahf ïU¤jš. r»¥ò¤j‹ik.
eh£L¥g‰Wl‹ ïU¤jš. j‹dyÄ‹¿¥ ãw® ey‹ ngQjš.
s.
JÂî ÄFªj brašfis¢ brŒjš. e‹ik brŒa ÉU«òjš.
Ñœ¥goªJ el¤jš. ml¡f«, mikâ fh¤jš.
ok
cŸbsh‹W it¤J¥ òwbkh‹W
ngrhkš btË¥gilahf ïU¤jš.
f‰git f‰wã‹
o
1. ãwUl‹ ngR«nghJ Ú§fŸ ga‹gL¤J« ï‹brh‰fis¤ bjhF¤J¡ TWf.
ab
m
ïUªjhY« jtW brŒjhš j©o¡f¡TlhJ. eh« TWtij¥ òǪJ bfhŸS«
x¥òuî xGF
tajhf ïUªjhš brhšÈ¥ òÇa it¡f nt©L«. ïšiybaÅš jtW ÃfHhkš
ïU¡f tÊ brŒa nt©L«. vªj¥ bghUis v§F it¡f nt©L« v‹W m¿ªJ
co
mªjªj ïl¤âš it¡f nt©L«. všnyhÇlK« m‹nghL gHF. e«ikÉl¢
á¿at®fSl‹ É£L¡bfhL¤J thœªâL, k‰wt®fSila fU¤Jfis
V‰W¡bfhŸ’’ v‹W ï‹brh‰fshnyna m¿îiu T¿dh®. m›î¿îiuia eh‹
v‹W« kwnt‹.
s.
m‹¿UªJ eh‹ midtÇlK« m‹nghL gHF»nw‹. mªehis v‹dhš
kw¡fÉayhJ.
ïaš 2
TLjš Édh¡fŸ
Ãu¥òf.
1.
2.
3.
Kid¥ghoah® rkz rka¤ij¢ rh®ªjt®.
Kid¥ghoah® thœªj fhy« gâ‹_‹wh« ü‰wh©L.
o
mwbe¿¢rhu« mwbe¿fis¤ bjhF¤J¡ TW»wJ.
ok
ÉilaË :
ab
x¥òuî xGF
ïaš
2 x¥òuî be¿
w
ciueil cyf«
üš btË
w
kâ¥ÕL
rÇahd Éilia¤ nj®ªbjL¤J vGJf.
m
1. xUt® všyhU¡fhfî« všyhU« xUtU¡fhf v‹gJ........... be¿.
m) jÅílik M) bghJîilik
ï) bghUSilik <) xG¡fKilik
[Éil: M) bghJîilik]
co
2. bršt¤â‹ ga‹ .................... thœî.
m) Ml«gu M) Ú©l ï) x¥òuî <) neha‰w
[Éil: ï) x¥òuî]
3. tWikia¥ ã v‹W« bršt¤ij ............... v‹W« TWt®.
s.
m) kUªJ M) kU¤Jt®
ï) kU¤Jtkid <) kh¤âiu[Éil: m) kUªJ]
4. cyf« c©z c©; cL¤j cL¥ghŒ v‹W T¿at® .............
ok
m) ghuâah® M) ghuâjhr‹
ï) Koaur‹ <) f©zjhr‹ [Éil: M) ghuâjhr‹]
v⮢brh‰fis¥ bghU¤Jf
o
ÉilfŸ
ab
Mdt® mÇ¢rªâu‹.
4. áªâ¤J ªâ¤J¢ brayh‰¿dhš eh« áw¥gilayh«.
-á
w
FWÉdh
1. bghUç£Ltij Élî« bgÇa braš vJ?
w
m
cz®î M»at‰¿‹ mo¥ilÆnyna kâ¥ãl¥gL»wJ. ju¤ij¡ fh£L»wJ.
x¥òuî xGF
xUtU¡bfhUt® cjÉ brŒJ bfhŸSjš k£L« nghjhJ.
(ii) j‰fh¥ò¡fhfî« ïyhg¤â‰fhfî« cjÉ brŒayh«. ï¤jifa cjÉfŸ
co
xUtifÆš thÂf« nghy¤jh‹.
(iii) mnj cjÉia¡ f£L¥gh£L cz®îl‹, cjÉ bgWgtiu cwî¥gh§»š
v©Â, cÇik cilatuhf ÃidªJ, cjÉbrŒtj‰F¥ gâš mtnu
vL¤J¡ bfhŸS« cÇikia tH§Fjš x¥òuî MF«.
s.
2. CUÂiaí« ku¤ijí« vL¤J¡fh£o¡ F‹w¡Fo mofsh® TW« brŒâfŸ
ahit?
ïaš 2
ok
(i) CUÂia mfœªJ, j©Ùiu¡ bfhz®ªJ nj¡Fgt® kÅj®jh«.
CUÂia mik¤J¤ j©Ùiu¤ nj¡F« flik bghW¥òz®îl‹ - T£L¥
bghW¥òl‹ brŒa¥ bg‰whšjh‹ CUÂÆš j©Ù® Ãiwí«. gyU«
vL¤J¡ Fo¡fyh«. ga‹jU« ku§fis ts®¤jhšjh‹ fÅfŸ »il¡F«.
â‹W mDgÉ¡fyh«.
o
(ii) ï§F« kÅjÅ‹ gil¥ig¤ bjhl®ªJjh‹ Ef®î tU»wJ. x¥òuî
ab
áªjid Édh
x¥òuî¡F« cjÉ brŒjY¡F« ntWghL ahJ?
w
f‰git f‰wã‹
1. ãwU¡fhf ciH¤J¥ òfœbg‰w rh‹nwh®fŸ g‰¿a brŒâfis¤ âu£o tªJ
m
tF¥giwÆš g»®f.
ãwU¡fhf ciH¤J¥ òfœbg‰w rh‹nwh®fŸ g‰¿a brŒâfŸ :
(i) rnfhjÇ Ãntâjh :
co
rnfhjÇ Ãntâjh RthÄ ÉntfhdªjÇ‹ Kj‹ik Ól®. ït®
ma®yhªâ‹ tlgFâ khfhz« ilnuhÅš cŸs l§fd‹ vD« CÇš
ãwªjt®. bg‰nwh® rhKntš Ç¢k©£, nkÇ ïrbgš AhÄšl‹ Mt®.
ïtUila ïa‰bga® kh®fbu£ vÈrbg¤ nehãŸ.
j«Kila gâbdG taâš MáÇa® gÂia¤ bjhl§»dh®. áwªj
s.
fšÉahsuhf ca®ªjh®. `u°»‹ gŸË’ v‹w bgaÇš xU gŸËia¤
bjhl§»dh®. j‹ fod ciH¥ghš gyU« ngh‰W«go ca®ªjh®.
Ãôah®¡»š `uhk»UZz bjh©l® r§f«’ mik¥ig ÃWÉdh®. RthÄ
ok
ÉntfhdªjÇ‹ Óluhdh®. vËa, öa, òÅj thœî thœtJ, mid¤J
cÆ®fisí« ïiwtdhf¡ fUâ mt®fS¡F¥ g brŒtJ M»a
ÉntfhdªjÇ‹ bfhŸifia V‰W brašg£lh®.
RthÄ ÉntfhdªjÇ‹ kiwɉF¥ ã‹ g‹kl§F cWâíl‹
ïªâahɉF¥ g brŒjh®. ïªâa ÉLjiy¡fhf¥ nghuhl Kidªjh®.
o
muɪjUl‹ ïizªjh®. cz®¢á bgh§f ngRth®. cz®¢á jJ«g
vGJth®. 1902 M« M©L br‹id¡F tªjh®. `ïªâahÉ‹ xUik¥ghL’
ab
(ii)
g©oj ukhghŒ :
_‹wh« gUt«
m
Ú®nghy¥ gyU¡F« ga‹gL«.
x¥òuî xGF
ga‹ku« cŸq®¥ gG¤Jm‰whš bršt«
eaDil ah‹f© go‹. (FwŸ. 216)
co
e‰g©ò cilatÇl« bršt« nr®tJ CU¡FŸ gHku¤âš gH§fŸ
gG¤âU¥gij¥ ngh‹wJ.
TLjš Édh¡fŸ
s.
Ãu¥òf.
1. thœ¡if F¿¡nfhŸ cilaJ.
2. k¡fŸ gÂia ïiw¥ gÂahf v©Â¤ j« thœehŸ KGtJ« bjh©L
ïaš 2
ok
brŒjt® jt¤âU F‹w¡Fo mofsh®.
3. F‹w¡Fo mofsh® vGâa üšfŸ eha‹kh® mo¢Rt£oš, Fw£bršt«,
Mya§fŸ rKjha ika§fŸ.
4. F‹w¡Fo mofsh® el¤âa ïjœfŸ mUnshir, m¿f m¿Éaš.
o
5. `bršt¤J¥ gand <jš’ v‹W ghoa üš òweh}W.
6. tWikia¥ ã v‹W«, bršt¤ij kUªJ v‹W« TWtJ jÄœ kuò.
ab
áWÉdh:
1. ehyhÆu¤â›Éa ãugªj« g‰¿ vGâ, Kjyhœth®fË‹ bga®fis vGJf.
w
m
(iii) thH¤ bjhl§»aj‹ Kj‰goahf¡ F¿¡nfhis¤ bjËthf¢ áªâ¤J Koî
brŒnth«.
(iv) ïªj¥ òÉia el¤J« bghW¥ig V‰ngh«. bghJikÆš ïªj¥ òÉia
el¤Jnth«. bghJÉš el¤Jnth«.
co
(v) cyf« c©z c©ngh«. cyf« cL¤j cL¤Jnth«.
(vi) v§F cyf« j§»ÆU¡»wnjh m§nfna ehK« j§Fnth«. k©zf¤âš
É©zf« fh©ngh«.
s.
x¥òuî xGF
ïaš
2 c©ik xË
üš btË ok
b#‹ v‹D« #¥ghÅa bkhÊ¢ brhšY¡F `âahd« brŒ’ v‹gJ bghUŸ. ò¤j kj¤ij¢
o
rh®ªj JwÉaÇš xU ãÇÉdnu b#‹ áªjidahs®fŸ. ït®fŸ bgU«ghY« Ódh, #¥gh‹
ÉÇthd«
M»a ehLfËš thœªJ tªjd®. mt®fŸ jkJ áªjidfis¢ áW Ãfœ¢áfŸ, vËa fijfŸ
ab
kâ¥ÕL
ur
m
bfh©nl« Iah’’ v‹W khzt®fŸ T¿d®. cŸS¡FŸ xË ïšiyba‹whš
x¥òuî xGF
c¢á btÆš Tl¡ fhÇUns v‹gij¥ òǪJ bfhŸS§fŸ v‹W T¿É£L
m§»UªJ br‹WÉ£lh®.
co
tF¥ò Koªj ãwF FU mU»š cŸs á‰ùU¡F¥ òw¥g£L¢ br‹wh®.
ïU£Ltj‰FŸ Ciu mila nt©L« v‹W v©Â¡bfh©nl br‹wh®.
rhiynahu« xUt‹ ka§»¡ »lªjh‹. Fâiuia ÃW¤â, ÑnH ïw§»a FU mªj
kÅjid vG¥ã¥ gh®¤jh®. mt‹ ka§»a ÃiyÆnyna ïUªjh‹. Û©L«
Û©L« vG¥ãaâš ka§»at‹ vGªjh‹.
s.
FU, bfhŠr« Úiu¡ bfhL¤J¡ Fo¡f¢ brŒjh®. ka§»at‹, jh‹ gáahš
ka§» ÉGªJÉ£ljhfî« g¡f¤J CU¡F¢ bršy nt©L« v‹W« T¿dh‹.
ïaš 2
FUî« mt‹nkš gÇjhg¥g£L mtid¡ FâiuÆš miH¤J¢ bršy
ok
v©Âdh®. mjdhš mtid bkJthf¡ FâiuÆ‹ ÛJ FU V‰¿dh®.
FâiuÆš V¿a mt‹ Fâiuia mo¤J Éu£l¤ bjhl§»dh‹. Fâiuia¤
âULtj‰Ffhf¤jh‹ ka§»at‹ nghš eo¤JŸsh‹ v‹gij¡ FU cz®ªjh®.
FU FâiuÆšyhkš v§F« bršy ïayhJ v‹gjhš, v¥goahtJ xU
o
Fâiuia th§»¡ bfh©Ljh‹ CU¡F¤ âU«g nt©L« v‹W KobtL¤jh®.
mªj¢ rªijÆš FUÉ‹ Fâiu ËW bfh©oUªjJ. FU mt‹ njhis¤
ab
f‰git f‰wã‹
w
m
tUnth«. ïnjh ïªj¡ nfhÆY¡F K‹ xU ehza¤ij¢ R©o ÉL»nw‹. mâš
jiyÉGªjhš bt‰¿ ek¡nf. ó ÉGªjhš eh« njh‰gjhf m®¤j«. ï¥gona
âU«ã ÉLnth«. bt‰¿ah? njhšÉah? ek¡F nkš cŸs r¡â Ô®khÅ¡f£L«...
rÇah?’’ ``M... ešy nahrid. m¥gona brŒnth«.’’
co
ehza¤ij¢ R©odh‹ jsgâ. fh‰¿š ÄjªJ, É®bu‹W RH‹W jiuÆš
ÉGªjJ ehza«.
jiy...!
s.
åu®fŸ c‰rhf¤âš Äjªjd®. bt‰¿, bt‰¿ v‹W v¡fhsÄ£lgo ngh®¡fs«
neh¡» Xod®. btF ntfkhf vâÇ eh£odUl‹ r©ilÆ£ld®.
ml! v‹d M¢r®a«. mªj á¿a gil, vâÇ eh£o‹ bgU« gilia
ok
圤âÉ£lJ. Jiz¤ jsgâ tªjh‹. ``eh« bt‹WÉ£nlh«. flîŸ Ô®¥ig kh‰w
Koahjšyth...’’ v‹wh‹ c‰rhf¤Jl‹.
``Mkh«... c©ikjh‹’’ v‹W T¿ago mªj ehza¤ij¤ Jiz¤
jsgâÆl« bfhL¤jh‹ jsgâ.
ehza¤â‹ ïUg¡f§fËY« jiy.
o
* ï¡fijÆš _y« eh« cz®tJ `j‹d«ã¡ifjh‹ bt‰¿Æ‹ Kjšgo’
v‹gjhF«.
ab
m¿nt‹ Iah.
b#‹ FU : ïšiy. ntW ahuhtJ TW§fŸ gh®¥ngh«.
w
m
b#‹ FU : cŸS¡FŸ xË ïšiyba‹whš c¢á btÆšTl¡ fhÇUns
x¥òuî xGF
v‹gij¥ òǪJ bfhŸS§fŸ. Û©L« ehis rªâ¥ngh«.
(tF¥ò KoªJ khzt®fŸ fiyªJ brš»‹wd®.)
co
fh£á - 2
(FU
mU»š cŸs á‰ùU¡F¥ òw¥gL»wh®.)
b#‹ FU : (kdâ‰FŸ) ïU£Ltj‰FŸ Ciu mila nt©L«.
b#‹ FU : (tÊÆš) M! ahuJ rhiynahu« gL¤J¡»l¥gJ.
s.
(Fâiuia ÃW¤â, ÑnH ïw§»a FU mªj kÅjid vG¥ò»wh®)
b#‹ FU : FHªjhŒ! vGªâU. Ú ah®? V‹ ï§nf gL¤âU¡»whŒ?
ïaš 2
(kdâ‰FŸ) ït‹ ka¡f« milªâU¡»wh‹.
b#‹ FU
ok
(gL¤âU¥gtD¡F Úiu¥ gUf¤ jU»wh® FU.)
: FHªjhŒ! vGªâU. ïªj Úiu¡ bfhŠr« Fo.
(ka¡fkilªjt‹ vGªJ c£fhU»wh‹.)
o
tÊ¥ngh¡f‹ : gáahš ka§» ÉGªJ É£nl‹. Iah. eh‹ g¡f¤J CU¡F¢
bršy nt©L«.
ab
fh£á - 3
ïl« : rªij
b#‹ FU : (kdâ‰FŸ) ï§F v¥goahtJ xU Fâiuia th§»¡
w
njhis¤ bjhL»wh®)
b#‹ FU : FHªjhŒ!
: M! Ú§fsh? (FU bkšy¢ áÇ¡»wh®)
w
âUl‹
b#‹ FU : ahÇlK« brhšyhnj!
âUl‹ : vij? V‹?
b#‹ FU : Fâiuia Úna it¤J¡bfhŸ. Mdhš, ïJ cd¡F v¥go¡
»il¤jJ v‹W ahÇlK« brhšyhnj.
m
K‹tu kh£lh®fŸ. òÇ»wjh? FW»a j‹dy¤J¡fhf ešy
nfh£ghLfis mʤJÉl¡TlhJ. ïij Ú bjǪJ bfhŸ.
* Fâiuia¤ âUoat‹ FUÉ‹ bgUªj‹ikia cz®ªJ bt£»¤ jiyFÅ»wh‹.
co
x¥òuî xGF
ïaš
s.
2 m ïy¡fz« f‰f©L
FWÉdh
1. cUtf mÂia És¡Ff.
o ok
kâ¥ÕL
v.fh. v.fh.
ita« jfËah th®flny beŒahf bgUik¡F« Vid¢
btŒa fânuh‹ És¡fhf¢ - brŒa áWik¡F« j¤j«
Rl®MÊah‹ mo¡nf N£ond‹ brhškhiy fUknk f£lis¡ fš.
ïl®MÊ Ú§Ffnt v‹W. (âU¡FwŸ)
f‰git f‰wã‹
ctik¤ bjhl®fis vGâ mt‰iw cUtf§fshf kh‰Wf.
m
(v.fh.) ky® ngh‹w Kf« - Kfky®
x¥òuî xGF
ctik¤ bjhl® cUtf«
ky® ngh‹w Kf« Kf ky®
co
ky® ngh‹w ghj« ghj ky®
mKj« ngh‹w bkhÊ bkhÊaKJ
faš ngh‹w f© f©faš
nj‹ ngh‹w jÄœ jÄœ¤nj‹
s.
ó ngh‹w Éuš Éuš ó
kâ ngh‹w Kf« Kfkâ
ïaš 2
ky® ngh‹w mo mo ky®
K¤J ngh‹w gš
Éš ngh‹w òUt«
o ok
gš K¤J
òUt Éš
TLjš Édh¡fŸ
Ãu¥òf.
ab
FWÉdh :
1. cUtf m v‹whš v‹d?
ctik ntW ctÄ¡f¥gL« bghUŸ ntW v‹W ïšyhkš ïu©L« x‹nw
.s
bkhÊia MŸnth«
w
m
4. bršt¤J¥ ga‹ x¥òuî thœ¡if.
5. ctikí« ctnkaK« x‹whf miktJ cUtf mÂ.
m¿ªJ ga‹gL¤Jnth«
co
njD« x‹iw m¿ªJ bfhŸtj‰fhf Édt¥gLtJ ÉdhthF«. Édh nf£f¥
V
ga‹gL¤J« brh‰fŸ Édh¢brh‰fŸ vd¥gL«.
`vJ, v‹, v§F, v¥go, v¤jid, v¥bghGJ, vt‰iw, vj‰F, V‹, ah®,
s.
ahJ, ahit’ ngh‹wd Édh¢brh‰fŸ MF«.
ok
1. bešiya¥g® nfhÉš ............... cŸsJ? [Éil: v§F]
2. Kjš Mœth®fŸ ................. ng®? [Éil: v¤jid]
3. ................. brh‰fis¥ ngr nt©L«? [Éil: vªj¢]
4. mwbe¿¢rhu« ghliy vGâat®.............? [Éil: ah®]
o
5. mwbe¿¢rhu« v‹gj‹ bghUŸ ..............? [Éil: ahJ]
ã‹tU« bjhliu¥ go¤J Édh¡fŸ vGJf.
ab
(v.fh)
jiy¥ò¢ brŒâ : jÄHf¤âš tl»H¡F¥ gUtkiH bjhl¡f« - thÅiy
ika« m¿É¥ò.
w
ghuh£odh®.
2. jK¡f« ikjhd¤âš ò¤jf¡ f©fh£á bjhl¡f« - k¡fŸ M®t¤Jl‹ tUif
jK¡f« ikjhd¤âš ò¤jf¡ f©fh£á bjhl§»ajhš k¡fŸ M®t¤Jl‹ tUif
jªjd®.
3. njáa msÉyhd if¥gªJ¥ ngh£o - jÄHf m bt‰¿
njáa msÉyhd if¥gªJ¥ ngh£oÆš jÄHf m bt‰¿ bg‰wJ.
44 [email protected] Ph: 9600175757 / 8124201000 / 8124301000
This is only for Sample Materials
for full Book Order Online or Available at all Leading Bookstores
RuhÉ‹ jÄœ ciuüš 7 M« tF¥ò
4. kht£l msÉyhd m¿Éaš f©fh£á - VHh« tF¥ò khzÉ KjÈl«.
kht£l msÉyhd m¿Éaš f©fh£áÆš VHh« tF¥ò khzÉ KjÈl«
bg‰whŸ.
5. khÃy msÉyhd ng¢R¥ngh£o - br‹idÆš ï‹W bjhl¡f«
khÃy msÉyhd ng¢R¥ngh£o br‹idÆš ï‹W bjhl§F»wJ.
m x¥òuî xGF
f£Liu vGJf.
co
x‰Wikna ca®î
K‹Diu :
`x‹Wg£lhš c©L thœnt, e«Äš x‰Wik Ú§»š midt®¡F« jhœnt’
v‹W ghuâah® ghoíŸsh®. m¥go¥g£l x‰Wikia¥ g‰¿ ï¡f£LiuÆš
fh©ngh«.
s.
tŸSt® TW« x‰Wik :
x‰WikÆ‹ gy¤ij m¿ªj tŸSt® x¥òuî m¿jš v‹w mâfhu¤â‹
_y« mjid És¡»íŸsh®.
ïaš 2
ok
``ò¤nj Syf¤J« <©L« bgwyÇnj
x¥òuÉ‹ ešy ãw’’
v‹w FwË‹ bghUŸ x‰Wikia¥ nghš ntbwh‹iw¤ njtUyf« br‹whY«
bgw ïayhJ v‹gjhF«.
o
ïa‰if fh£L« x‰Wik :
gy ku§fS« brofS« ïizªjhšjh‹ ïa‰if cÆ®bgW»wJ. ku§fË‹
x‰Wikahš R‰W¢NHš öŒik bgW«. bfhŠr« bfhŠrkhf tU« kiHÆdhš
ab
c©L. kfhfÉ ghuâah® `tªnj khju«’ v‹w j« fÉijÆš, `x‹W g£lhš c©L
thœnt - e«Äš x‰Wik Ú§»oš midt®¡F« jhœnt’ v‹w ghlš tÇfS¡F
V‰wh®nghš x‰Wikíl‹ eh« thœªjhšjh‹ e« ehL« ehK« K‹ndwyh«.
.s
bkhÊnahL ÉisahL
w
m
nrhs« Éij¤jh‹.
flÈš gaz« brŒa f£Lku« cjî«
2. f£L
kh£il¡ f«g¤âš f£odh‹
co
áWt‹ kho¥goÆš V¿dh‹.
3. go
áWt‹ go¤jh‹.
ïuÉš thd¤âš Ãyî bjÇí«.
s.
4. Ãyî
khefu¤âš gugu¥ghd NHš Ãyî»wJ.
5. ehL g©gh£oš áwªjJ jÄœehL.
6. ML
m¿it ÉÇî brŒa üyf¤ij ehL.
taÈš ML nkŒªjJ.
o
nkilÆš áWÄ ModhŸ.
ok
ab
Éf mj‰F¤ jf
v‹ bghW¥òfŸ...
1. vªj¢ NœÃiyÆY« ïÅa brh‰fisna ngRnt‹.
2. midtÇlK« kÇahijíl‹ elªJ bfhŸnt‹.
ur
- Objective - Neighbour
_‹wh« gUt«
1. F¿¡nfhŸ 6. mayt®
2. bršt« - Wealth 7. tWik - Poverty
3. y£áa« - Ambition 8. x¥òuîbe¿ - Reciprocity
w
ïiza¤âš fh©f
w
m
MáÇa® F¿¥ò
x¥òuî xGF
bga® : âUtŸSt®
bg‰nwh® : Mâ, gft‹
kidÉ : thR»
co
C® : kÆiy
fhy« : ».K. 31-M« ü‰wh©L
áw¥ò¥ bga®fŸ : bjŒt¥òyt®. eh‹Kfdh®, khjhDg§»,
bgU ehty®, bghŒÆš òyt®.
s.
üš btË
ïªüš _‹W ãÇîfis¡ bfh©lJ. mit :
1. mw¤J¥ghš : ï aš-4. ghÆuÉaš, ïšywÉaš, JwtwÉaš, CÊaš-38
ïaš 2
mâfhu« - 380 Fw£gh¡fŸ
ok
2. bghU£ghš : ïaš 3 - muáaš, m§fÉaš, xÊãaš - 70 mâfhu« - 700 Fw£gh¡fŸ
3. ï‹g¤J¥ghš : ïaš 2 - fsÉaš, f‰ãaš - 25 mâfhu« - 250 Fw£gh¡fŸ
4. ntWbga®fŸ : K¥ghš, c¤juntj«, bjŒtüš, cyf¥bghJkiw, thíiw thœ¤J.
Éidbraš tif
o
1. bghUŸfUÉ fhy« ÉidïlbdhL IªJ«
ïUŸÔu v©Â¢ braš.
ab
m
bjËîiu: bj˪j ÚU«, ÃyK«, kiyí«, mH»a ÃHš cila fhL« M»a
eh‹F« cŸsnj mu© MF«.
8. vidkh£á¤J M»a¡ f©Q« Éidkh£á
co
ïšyh®f© ïšyJ mu©.
bjËîiu: mu© v›tsî bgUikíilajhf ïUªjhY«, braš áw¥ò
ïšyhjtÇl¤âš mJ gaÅšyhjJ MF«.
bgUik
s.
9. ãw¥bgh¡F« všyh cÆ®¡F« áw¥òx›th
brŒbjhÊš nt‰Wik ah‹.
bjËîiu: ãw¥ghš k¡fŸ midtU« x¤j ïašòilat®fns, mt®fŸ brŒí«
kâ¥ÕL
rÇahd Éilia¤ nj®ªbjL¤J vGJf.
1. .............. xU eh£o‹ muz‹W.
m) fhL M) taš ï) kiy <) bj˪j Ú®
ur
[Éil: M) taš]
2. k¡fŸ midtU« .................... x¤j ïašòilat®fŸ.
m) ãw¥ghš M) Ãw¤jhš ï) Fz¤jhš <) gz¤jhš
[Éil: m) ãw¥ghš]
.s
_‹wh« gUt«
m
MuhŒªJ xU braiy¢ brŒa nt©L«.
x¥òuî xGF
2. xU eh£L¡F vitbašyh« mu©fshf mikí«?
xU eh£L¡F mu©fshf miktd : bj˪j Ú®, Ãy«, kiy, mH»a ÃHš
co
cila fhL.
3. áwªj eh£o‹ ïašòfshf tŸSt® TWtd ahit?
áwªj eh£o‹ ïašòfshf tŸSt® TWtd :
(i) Ä¡f gáí«, Xahj nehí«, mÊî brŒí« gifí« nruhkš ešy tifÆš
s.
eilbgWtnj áwªj ehlhF«.
(ii) bgÇa msÉš Ka‰á ïšyhkš ts« jU« ehnl áwªj ehlhF«.
ïaš 2
gl§fS¡F¥ bghU¤jkhd âU¡Fwis vGJf.
o ok
Éil : kÂÚU« k©Q« kiyí« mÂÃHš
ab
ÉilaË :
TLjš Édh¡fŸ
1.
w
(i) nt©oa bghUŸ, V‰w fUÉ, jFªj fhy«, nk‰bfhŸS« braÈ‹ j‹ik,
cÇa ïl« M»a Iªijí« Ia« Ôu MuhŒªJ xU braiy¢ brŒa nt©L«.
(ii) xU ahidia¡ bfh©L k‰bwhU ahidia¥ ão¥g®. mJnghy xU
braiy¢ brŒí«nghnj m¢brayhš k‰bwhU braiyí« brŒJ Ko¤J¡
bfhŸsš nt©L«.
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This is only for Sample Materials
for full Book Order Online or Available at all Leading Bookstores
RuhÉ‹ jÄœ ciuüš 7 M« tF¥ò
m
m) J‹g« M) k»œ¢á ï) M®t« <) ï‹g«
2. `ï‹brhš’ v‹D« brhšiy¥ ãǤJ vGj¡ »il¥gJ ..............
m) ïÅa + brhš M) ï‹ik + brhš ï) ïÅik + brhš <) ï‹+brhš
3. tWikia¥ ã v‹W« bršt¤ij ............... v‹W« TWt®.
co
m) kUªJ M) kU¤Jt® ï) kU¤Jtkid <) kh¤âiu
II. nfho£l ïl§fis Ãu¥òf. (3 × 1 = 3)
4. óÄia mfšÉs¡fhf¥ ghoat® .............................. .
5. ......................... mwbe¿fis¤ bjhF¤J¡ TW»wJ.
s.
6. `bršt¤J¥ gand <jš’ v‹W ghoa üš ..................
III. bghU¤Jf. (4 × ½ = 2)
7. m‹ò - beŒ
ok
8. M®t« - jfË
9. áªij - És¡F
10. Phd« - ïLâÇ
IV. bjhl®fËš mik¤J vGJf (2 × ½ = 1)
o
11. thœehŸ - 12. áªâ¤J -
V. ã‹tU« Édh¡fSŸ vitnaD« _‹W Édh¡fS¡F _‹W tÇfËš
ab
ÉilaË¡fî«. (3 × 2 = 6)
13. bghŒif Mœth® vj‰fhf¥ ghkhiy N£L»wh®?
14. Ú¡fnt©oa fis v‹W mwbe¿¢rhu« vjid¡ F¿¥ãL»wJ?
15. xU braiy¢ brŒa vt‰iwbašyh« Muha nt©L«?
16. Vfnjr cUtf m v‹whš v‹d?
ur
20. `ita«’ vd¤ bjhl§F« `òJik És¡F’ ghliy¢ brŒíŸ toÉš vGJf.
w
w
khDl« btšY«
ïaš
3 kiy¥bghÊî fÉij¥ngiH
m
üš btË
f©zjhrÅ‹ ïa‰bga® K¤ijah. ït® fÉauR v‹D« áw¥ò¥ bgauhY«
miH¡f¥gL»wh®. fhÉa§fŸ, fÉijfŸ, f£LiufŸ, áWfijfŸ, ehlf§fŸ, òâd§fŸ
co
ngh‹w ïy¡»a tot§fËš gšntW üšfis vGâíŸsh®. Vuhskhd âiu¥gl¥
ghlšfisí« vGâíŸsh®. ït® jÄHf murit¡ fÉPuhfî« ïUªJŸsh®.
ïnaRÉ‹ thœ¡if tuyh‰iwí« mtuJ m¿îiufisí« TW« üš ïnaR
fhÉa« MF«. ïªüÈš cŸs kiy¥bghÊî v‹D« gFâÆÈUªJ áy ghlšfŸ ï§F¤
s.
ju¥g£LŸsd.
ghlÈ‹ bghUŸ
(j« Ól®fS¡F m¿îiu Tw v©Âa ïnaRehj® xU F‹¿‹ ÛJ V¿ ËW ngr¤
bjhl§»dh®.)
ok
rhªj« v‹D« mikâahd g©ò bfh©lt®fŸjh‹ ngW bg‰wt®fŸ. ïªj cyf«
KGtJ« mt®fS¡nf cÇaJ. mt®fns jiyt®fŸ Mt® v‹w c©ikia ïnaRehj®
T¿dh®. kÅj thœ¡ifÆš njit¥gLtJ bghWik. mJ k©izí« É©izí« M£á
brŒí« bgUikíilaJ v‹wh®.
o
ï›îyf« rhâfshY« fU¤J ntWghLfshY« Ãiy¤jLkhW»wJ. mw« v‹»w x‹wid
ab
e«ãa ãwF r©ilfŸ Ú§» cyf« mikâah» ÉL«. bghUŸ <£LtâY« mwtÊia¥
ã‹g‰w nt©L«. ï›îyf« V‰w¤jhœî ïšyh thœit¥ bgw nt©L«.
ïu¡f« cilnahnu ngWbg‰wt® Mt®. mt®fŸ ãw cÆ®fË‹ ÛJ ïu¡f« fh£o
ïiwtÅ‹ ïu¡f¤ij¥ bgWt®. ïJjh‹ mt®fS¡fhd gÇR. kÅj‹ MirÆš
ur
brhšY« bghUS« :
1. rhªj« - mikâ
w
2. kf¤Jt« - áw¥ò
3. ngj§fŸ - ntWghLfŸ
w
4. jhu - cyf«
5. j¤Jt« - c©ik
6. ïu¡f« - fUiz
[51]
kâ¥ÕL
rÇahd Éilia¤ nj®ªbjL¤J vGJf.
m
1. kÅj thœ¡ifÆš njit¥gLtJ .....................
m) gz« M) bghWik ï) òfœ <) åL
[Éil: M) bghWik]
2.
co
rhªj Fz« cilat®fŸ ...................... KGtijí« bgWt®.
m) ò¤jf« M) bršt«
ï) cyf« <) J‹g« [Éil: ï) cyf«]
3. `kiyasî’ v‹D« brhšiy¥ ãǤJ vGj¡ »il¥gJ .......................... .
m) kiy + asî M) kiy + msî
s.
ï) kiyÆ‹ + msî <) kiyÆš + msî
[Éil: M) kiy + msî]
4. `j‹dhL’ v‹D« brhšiy¥ ãǤJ vGj¡ »il¥gJ .......................... .
5.
m) j‹ + dhL
ï) j‹ + ehL
ok
M) j‹ik + dhL
<) j‹ik + ehL
[Éil: ï) j‹ + ehL]
ïit + ïšyhJ v‹gjid¢ nr®¤bjGj¡ »il¡F« brhš .......................... .
m) ïitÆšyhJ
o
M) ïitïšyhJ
ï) ïtÆšyhJ <) ïtïšyhJ
[Éil: m) ïitÆšyhJ]
ab
bghU¤Jf
ÉilfŸ
ur
FWÉdh
w
áWÉdh
rhªj« g‰¿ ïnaRfhÉa« TWtd ahit?
rhªj« g‰¿ ïnaRfhÉa« TWtd :
rhªj« v‹D« mikâahd g©ò bfh©lt®fS¡nf ï›îyf« KGtJ«
m khDl« btšY«
cÇaJ. mt®fns jiyt®fŸ Mt® v‹w c©ikia ïnaRehj® T¿dh®. kÅj
thœ¡ifÆš njit¥gLtJ bghWik. mJ k©izí« É©izí« M£á
brŒí« bgUikíilaJ v‹wh®.
co
ï›îyf« rhâfshY« fU¤J ntWghLfshY« ÃiyjLkhW»wJ. mw«
v‹»w x‹wid e«ãaãwF r©ilfŸ Ú§» cyf« mikâah»ÉL«. bghUŸ
<£LtâY« mwtÊia¥ ã‹g‰w nt©L«. ï›îyf« V‰w¤jhœî ïšyh thœit¥
bgw nt©L«.
s.
ïu¡f« cilat®fŸ ãw cÆ®fË‹ ÛJ ïu¡f« fh£o ïiwtÅ‹ ïu¡f¤ij¥
bgWt®. ïJjh‹ mt®fS¡fhd gÇR. kÅj‹ MirÆš ÉGªJÉ£lhš mtdJ
thœî ghiytd« nghš gad‰wjh»ÉL«. ešy cŸs¤njhL thœªjhš
ïaš 3
mtDila thœ¡if ky®¢nrhiyahf kh¿ÉL«.
ok
kÅj®fŸ r©il r¢ruîfshš jhK« J‹ò‰W¥ ãwiuí« J‹òW¤J»‹wd®.
mt®fŸ j‹dhL, ãwehL v‹W ngá c©ikÆšyh cwîfshf thœ»‹wd®.
f©Âik¡F« neu¤â‰FŸ el¡F« MÆu« ngh£ofshš gad‰w
fdîfŸjh« njh‹W»‹wd. ïit ïšyhkš mikâahf thœªjhš ïja«
o
kiyasî ca®ªjjhf khW«.
ab
áªjid Édh
všyh k¡fS« x‰Wikahf thH v‹d brŒa nt©L«?
všyh k¡fS« x‰Wikahf thH brŒa nt©Ltd :
ur
(ii)
gHf nt©L«. eh‹, Ú v‹W ngh£o¥ nghl¡TlhJ. MztÄ‹¿ ïU¡f
nt©L«. eh« brhštij k£L« všnyhU« brŒa nt©L« v‹W
Ãid¡f¡TlhJ.
w
(iv) `ahJ« Cnu ahtU« nfË®’ v‹W fÂa‹ ó§F‹wdh® T¿aij ÃidÉš
it¤J thœªjhš midtU« x‰Wikíl‹ thH Koí«.
f‰git f‰wã‹
ïnaRÉ‹ thœÉš elªj Ritahd Ãfœî x‹¿id m¿ªJ tªJ
m
tF¥giwÆš g»®f.
(i) xU bg© g‹Åu©L M©Lfshf¤ Ôuhj nehÆdhš J‹g¥gL»‹whŸ.
mtŸ v¥goahtJ mªnehŒ Fzkhf nt©L« v‹W Ãid¤jhŸ. mtŸ
co
T£l¤â‰»ilÆš Ë¿Uªj ïnaRÉ‹ ã‹dhš nghŒ mtUila m§»Æ‹
Xu¤ij¤ bjh£lhŸ. cldoahf mtŸ Fzkh»É£lhŸ. m¥nghJ ïnaR,
``ah® v‹id¤ bjh£lJ?’’ v‹W nf£lh®. mªj¥ bg© gaªJ nghdhŸ. ãwF
mt® K‹dhš tªJ c©ikia¢ brh‹dhŸ. ïnaR mtËl« `kfns,
ëkâahf¥ ngh’ v‹W MWjyhf¢ brh‹dh®.
s.
(ii) ï‹bdhU Kiw, aåU v‹w mâfhÇ ïnaRÉl« tªJ, `jaîbrŒJ
v‹ å£L¡F thU§fŸ. v‹Dila F£o¥ bg© Äfî« cl«ò Koahkš
ïU¡»whŸ’ v‹W bfŠádh®. Mdhš, ïnaR m§nf nghtj‰F K‹ng
ok
mtŸ ïwªJ É£lhŸ. ïUªjhY«, aåUÉ‹ å£L¡F ïnaR nghdh®. m§nf
Ãiwa ng® mªj¡ FL«g¤jhUl‹ nr®ªJ òy«ã mGJ bfh©oUªjh®fŸ.
ïnaR mt®fËl«, ``mHhÔ®fŸ, mtŸ ö§F»whŸ’’ v‹W brh‹dh®. ãwF,
mªj¥ bg©Â‹ ifia¥ ão¤J, ``áWÄna, vGªâU!’’ v‹W brh‹dh®.
o
clnd mtŸ vGªJ c£fh®ªjhŸ. rh¥ãl mtS¡F VjhtJ bfhL¡F«go
ïnaR mtSila m¥gh, m«khÉl« brh‹dh®. mªj bg‰nwh® msÉyh
ab
TLjš Édh¡fŸ
ur
Ãu¥òf.
1. f©zjhrÅ‹ ïa‰bga® K¤ijah.
2. f©zjhrÅ‹ áw¥ò¥ bga® fÉauR.
3. f©zjhr‹ jÄHf murit¡ fÉPuhf ïUªJŸsh®.
.s
fhÉa« MF«.
5. kiy¥bghÊî v‹D« gFâ ïnaR fhÉa« v‹D« üÈÈUªJ vL¡f¥g£LŸsJ.
w
ÉilaË :
1. fÉP® f©zjhr‹ v›tifahd üšfis vGâdh®?
fhÉa§fŸ, fÉijfŸ, f£LiufŸ, áWfijfŸ, ehlf§fŸ, òâd§fŸ ngh‹w
w
m khDl« btšY«
c©ikÆšyh cwîfshf ïnaRehj® TWtJ ahJ?
kÅj®fŸ r©il r¢ruîfshš jhK« J‹ò‰W¥ ãwiuí« J‹òW¤J»‹wd®. nkY«,
mt®fŸ j‹dhL, ãw®ehL v‹W« ngá c©ikÆšyh cwîfshf thœ»‹wd®.
co
khDl« btšY«
ïaš
3 j‹id m¿jš
s.
fÉij¥ngiH
ïaš 3
ok
üš btË
nr.ãUªjh òfœbg‰w bg© fÉP®fSŸ xUt®. kiH g‰¿a g»®jšfŸ, åL KG¡f thd«,
kfS¡F¢ brh‹d fij M»a fÉij üšfis vGâíŸsh®. ï¡fÉij kfS¡F¢ brh‹d
fij v‹D« üÈÈUªJ vL¤J¤ ju¥g£LŸsJ.
o
fÉijÆ‹ c£bghUŸ
ab
kâ¥ÕL
.s
m) jh + xU M) jh‹ + bdhU
ï) jh‹ + xU <) jhnd + xU [Éil: ï) jh‹ + xU]
w
FWÉdh
1. fh¡if V‹ FÆš FŠir¥ nghf¢ brh‹dJ?
fh¡if FÆš FŠir¥ nghf¢ brh‹dj‰fhd fhuz« : FÆÈd¤â‰bf‹W
jŤj‹ikí©L. fh¡ifÆd¤â‰bf‹W jŤj‹ikí©L. ïu©L« nr®ªJ
xnu T£oš thH ïayhJ v‹gjhš fh¡if, FÆš FŠir¥ nghf¢ brh‹dJ.
m
FÆš FŠR j‹d«ã¡ifíl‹ thH¤ bjhl§»a Ãfœit vGJf.
FÆš FŠR j‹d«ã¡ifíl‹ thH¤ bjhl§»a Ãfœî :
co
(i) FÆš x‹W fh¡ifÆ‹ T£oš K£ilÆL»wJ. K£ilÆÈUªJ btËtªj
FÆš FŠR j‹id¡ fh¡if¡ FŠrhf v©Â¡ fh¡ifia¥ nghynt
fiua Kaš»wJ.
(ii) jÅna br‹W thH mŠR»wJ. xU Éoa‰fhiyÆš `T’ v‹W TÉaJ. jh‹
FÆš v‹gijí« j‹ Fuš ïÅikahdJ v‹gjidí« cz®ªj ãwF
s.
j‹d«ã¡ifíl‹ thH¤ bjhl§F»wJ.
(iii) ehK« ekJ M‰wiy cz®ªJ bfh©lhš thœÉš rhjidfis¥ òÇayh«
v‹gij ïªÃfœî _y« czuyh«.
áªjid Édh
c§fËl« cŸs jŤj‹ikfshf Ú§fŸ fUJtd ahit?
v‹Ål« cŸs jŤj‹ikfŸ :
(i)
o
midtÇlK« m‹òl‹ gHFjš
ok (ii) ãwU¡F cjÉ brŒjš
(iii) giftÇlK« m‹ò ghuh£Ljš (iv) ï‹Kf¤Jl‹ ïU¤jš
ab
f‰git f‰wã‹
gwitfŸ, Éy§FfŸ M»at‰W¡F cÇa jŤj‹ikfis¥ g£oaÈLf.
.s
gwitfŸ Éy§FfŸ
_‹wh« gUt«
TLjš Édh¡fŸ :
1. ekJ M‰wiy cz®ªJ bfh©lhš ehK« thœÉš rhjidfis¥ òÇayh«.
w
56 [email protected] Ph: 9600175757 / 8124201000 / 8124301000
This is only for Sample Materials
for full Book Order Online or Available at all Leading Bookstores
RuhÉ‹ jÄœ ciuüš 7 M« tF¥ò
khDl« btšY«
ïaš
3 f©ÂaÄF jiyt® ciueil cyf«
m khDl« btšY«
kâ¥ÕL
rÇahd Éilia¤ nj®ªbjL¤J vGJf.
co
1. fhÆnjÄšy¤ ........... g©ã‰F cjhuzkhf¤ âfœªjh®.
m) j©ik M) vËik
ï) Ml«gu« <) bgUik [Éil: M) vËik]
2. `fhÆnj Äšy¤’ v‹D« muò¢ brhšY¡F¢ .................... v‹gJ bghUŸ.
s.
m) R‰Wyh tÊfh£o M) rKjha tÊfh£o
ï) áªjidahs® <) r£l tšYe®
[Éil: M) rKjha tÊfh£o]
ïaš 3
ok
3. ÉLjiy¥ nghuh£l¤â‹nghJ fhÆnjÄšy¤ ......... ïa¡f¤âš fyªJbfh©lh®.
m) btŸisand btËnaW M) c¥ò¡ fhŒ¢R«
ï) Rnjá <) x¤JiHahik
[Éil: <) x¤JiHahik]
4. fhÆnj Äšy¤ jÄœbkhÊia M£ábkhÊah¡f nt©L« v‹W ngáa ïl«
o
............. .
m) r£lk‹w« M) ehlhSk‹w«
ab
FWÉdh
1. ÉLjiy¥ nghuh£l¤âš fhÆnj Äšy¤ mt®fË‹ g§F g‰¿ vGJf.
w
m
(ii) ÄFâahd k¡fŸ ngR« bkhÊia M£á bkhÊahf m¿É¡f nt©L« v‹W
áyU« gHik thŒªj bkhÊia M£á bkhÊahf¤ nj®ªbjL¡f nt©L«
v‹W áyU« gǪJiu brŒjd®.
co
(iii) Mdhš fhÆnj Äšy¤ mt®fŸ “gHikahd bkhÊfËny x‹iw¤jh‹
M£ábkhÊah¡f nt©Lbk‹whš, Kj‹Kjyhf¥ ngr¥g£l bkhÊfŸ
âuhÉl bkhÊfËš Äfî« ïy¡»a¢ br¿îbfh©l jÄœbkhÊjh‹ Äf¥
gHikahd bkhÊ. vdnt, jÄœbkhÊia eh£o‹ M£á bkhÊahf m¿É¡f
nt©L«” v‹W T¿dh®.
s.
áªjid Édh
ok
Ú§fŸ xU jiytuhf ïUªjhš v¤jifa k¡fŸ ey¥gÂfis¢ brŒå®fŸ?
k¡fŸ ey¥ gÂfŸ :
k¡fS¡F mo¥gil¤ njitfŸ czî, cil, ciwíŸ M»adthF«.
ït‰¿š KjÈu©L ïl¤âš cŸsit czî« cilí«. ïit ntsh©ikia
M ntuhf¡ bfh©lit. m¤jF ntsh©ik áw¥ghf mika Ú®Ãiyfis
o
ts¥gL¤Jnt‹. nfhil¡fhy§fËš ö® vL¤J kiHÚiu¢ nrÄ¡f tÊtif
brŒnt‹. mid¤J ïšy§fËY« kiHÚ® nrÄ¥ò¤ bjh£o mik¡f
ab
c¤juÉLnt‹.
fšÉ ïšyh FHªijfns ïšiy v‹w Ãiyia cUth¡Fnt‹. ngh¡Ftu¤J
trâ¡fhf rhiyfis¢ Óuik¤J k¡fŸ mtâ¥glhkš ïU¡f cjînt‹.
k¡fŸ bjhif¡F V‰g gŸË¡Tl§fis mik¤J¤ jUnt‹. fšÉia¥
bg‰WÉ£lhš khÃy¤ij mt®fns br«ik¥gL¤â ÉLth®fŸ. ïitna eh‹
ur
f‰git f‰wã‹
.s
_‹wh« gUt«
m khDl« btšY«
thŒ¥gˤjik¡F e‹¿ T¿ Éil bgW»nw‹.
bjǪJ bjËnth«
co
(i) jÄHf muáaš thÅš f›ÉÆUªj fhÇUis mf‰w tªj xË¡fâuhf¡ fhÆnj
Äšy¤ KfkJ ï°khÆš mt®fŸ âfœ»wh®. - m¿P® m©zh
(ii) ï¥go¥g£l jiyt® »il¥gJ mÇJ. mt® ešy c¤jkkhd kÅj®.
- jªij bgÇah®
s.
TLjš Édh¡fŸ
ïaš 3
ok
Ãu¥òf.
1. fhÆnj Äšy¤ vËikÆ‹ áfukhf thœªjt®.
2. ``kz¡bfhil th§F« âUkz§fËš fyªJ bfhŸs kh£nl‹’’ v‹W
btË¥gilahf T¿at® fhÆnj Äšy¤.
o
3. ïªâahî¡F« Ódhî¡F« ïilna 1962 M« M©L ngh® _©lJ.
4. fhÆnj Äšy¤ mt®fË‹ ïa‰bga® KfkJ ïRkhÆš.
ab
m
T¿dh®. mªj¥ gÂahs® ``Iah e« mYtyf¤ânyna mŠrš jiyfŸ th§»
it¤JŸnsh«. mt‰¿ÈUªJ x‹iw vL¤J x£o ÉL»nw‹’’ v‹wh®. mj‰F
mªj¤ jiyt®, ``nt©lh«. ïJ eh‹ jÅ¥g£l KiwÆš mD¥ò« foj«.
co
mj‰F ïa¡f¥ gz¤âš ïUªJ th§f¥g£l mŠršjiyfis¥ ga‹gL¤JtJ
KiwahfhJ’’ v‹W T¿dh®.
s.
khDl« btšY«
ïaš
3 gaz«
ok
ÉÇthd«
üš btË
ght©z‹ áWfij, fÉij, f£Liu vd¥ gšntW tifahd ïy¡»a tot§fËY«
vGâ tU»wh®. f‹dl bkhÊÆÈUªJ gy üšfis¤ jÄÊš bkhÊbga®¤JŸsh®. nt®fŸ
o
bjhiyÉš ïU¡»‹wd, ne‰W thœªjt®fŸ, flnyhu åL, ghŒku¡ f¥gš, Ûir¡fhu óid,
ãuahz« cŸË£l gy üšfis vGâíŸsh®. ãuahz« v‹D« üÈš cŸs gaz«
ab
kâ¥ÕL
ur
m khDl« btšY«
gaz mDgt§fis mtÅl« g»®ªJ bfh©lh®.
kWehŸ fhiy Äât©oia¢ rÇ brŒj ã‹d® m¢áWt‹ Äât©oia
X£odh‹. KjÈš j£L¤ jLkh¿ X£odh‹. Vw¤jhH ïu©L k neu« X£oÉ£L
åL âU«ãd®. mtDila m«kh bfhL¤j mtiy¢ rh¥ã£L¡ bfh©oU¡F«
co
nghnj kiH tªJÉ£lJ. kiHËwJ« òw¥g£lh®. Mdhš m¢áWt‹ nf£L¡
bfh©ljhš mtD¡F Äât©oia¡ bfhL¤J X£l¢ brŒjh®. É£L É£L
kiH bgŒjjhš ïuî m§nfna j§»É£lh®. ïuî KGtJ« mtUila gaz
mDgt§fis¥ g»®ªJ bfh©lh®. ÉoªjJ« mt‹ mtUl‹ brštj‰F
s.
mDkâ nf£lh‹. mt® rÇ v‹wh®. mtDila m«khî« ïirªjh®.
m§»UªJ òw¥gL«nghJ, mt®fS¡F¥ gz« juyh« v‹W v©Âdh®.
Mdhš bfhL¡fhkš kdâš CiktÈíl‹ òw¥g£lh®. m¢áWtid¥ ã‹dhš
ïaš 3
ok
c£fhu it¤J¡ bfh©L k»œ¢áíl‹ br‹wh®. áWt‹ Äât©oia¡ bfhŠr
öu« X£o¢ br‹W âU«ãdh‹. ãwF gaz¤ij¤ bjhl®ªjd®. tÊÆš
cztf¤âš rh¥ã£ld®.
mÇá¡bfnu beU§»aJ« åLfŸ bj‹g£ld. thfd§fŸ, kÅj elkh£l«
o
mtUila kdij¡ »s®¢áaila brŒjJ. m¢áWt‹, ``ï‹D« bfhŠr
öu«jh‹ v§f khkh åL. mJ tiu¡F« ehnd Äât©oÆš nghŒ tu£lh?
bfhŠr neu« mt§f Äât©oia¤ bjh£L£lh v‹dh f¤J f¤Jth§f bjÇíkh?
ab
f‰git f‰wã‹
1. Ú§fŸ br‹W tªj gaz« F¿¤J tF¥giwÆš fyªJiuahLf.
w
khzt‹ 1 : v
‹dlh fnzZ! Ú V‹ ï‹W gŸË¡F tuÉšiy? clš Ãiy
rÇÆšiyah?
khzt‹ 2 : e
h‹ e‹whf¤jh‹ ïU¡»nw‹. miuah©L ÉLKiw v‹gjhš
w
m
ïw§» Fˤnjh«. v§fS¡F Äfî« ão¤âUªjJ.
khzt‹ 1 : v
d¡F¡ Tl fl‰fiu¡F¢ brštJ Äfî« ão¡F«. Mkh«
f‹ÅahFkÇÆš K¡flš nrU« v‹W brhšth®fns?
khzt‹ 2 : r
Çahf¢ brh‹dhŒ. t§fhs ÉÇFlh, muã¡flš, ïªâa¥
co
bgU§flš M»a K¡flšfS« r§fÄ¡»‹wd. ïªj ïl¤âid
FkÇKid v‹gh®fŸ.
khzt‹ 1 : n
f£fnt k»œ¢áahf cŸsJ.
khzt‹ 2 : m
§F gâdhW ö©fis¡ bfh©l áw¥òÄ¡f ÚuhLJiw
s.
ïUªjJ. m§F fUkzš, br«kzš, bt©kzš KjÈa _‹W
Ãw kzšfSl« nt‰WikÆ‹¿ ÉuÉ¡ »lªjd. eh§fŸ KG
Ãyî ehËš br‹¿Uªjjhš NÇaidí« rªâuidí« vâbuâ®
âirÆš f©nlh«. ï¡fh£á ntbw§F« gh®¡f ïayhJ.
khzt‹ 1 : e
h‹Tl nfŸÉ¥g£oU¡»nw‹.
khzt‹ 2 : f
ok
hªâ Ãidthya« br‹nwh«. m§F fhªâaofË‹ ãwªj
ehshd m¡nlhg® ïu©lh« ehs‹W NÇaÅ‹ fâ®fŸ mtuJ
m°â¡fyr« it¡f¥g£l nkil ÛJ ÉG« v‹W T¿dh®fŸ.
khzt‹ 1 : É
a¥ghf cŸsnj!
o
khzt‹ 2 : v
d¡F« Éa¥ghf¤jh‹ cŸsJ. mj‹ãwF fl‰fiuÆš ïUªJ
Rkh® 400 Û£l® bjhiyÉš cŸs Éntfhdªj® ghiw¡F¥ gl»š
ab
tU»nw‹.
_‹wh« gUt«
bfhŸnt‹.
(iv) eh‹ j§F« ïl¤âš J Jit¤J¥ nghL« trâ ïUªjhš Fiwthd
v©Â¡ifÆš Milia vL¤J it¥ng‹.
w
62 [email protected] Ph: 9600175757 / 8124201000 / 8124301000
This is only for Sample Materials
for full Book Order Online or Available at all Leading Bookstores
RuhÉ‹ jÄœ ciuüš 7 M« tF¥ò
khDl« btšY«
ïaš
3 MFbga® f‰f©L
m khDl« btšY«
kâ¥ÕL
rÇahd Éilia¤ nj®ªbjL¤J vGJf.
co
1. bghUË‹ bga® mj‹ cW¥ò¡F M» tUtJ .......................... .
m) bghUshF bga® M) áidahF bga®
ï) g©ghF bga® <) ïlthF bga®
[Éil: m) bghUshF bga®]
s.
2. ïªj ntiyia Ko¡f xU if Fiw»wJ v‹gJ ....................... .
m) KjyhF bga® M) áidahF bga®
ïaš 3
ï) bjhÊyhF bga® <) g©ghF bga®
3.
m) mL¡F¤bjhl®
ï) bjhÊyhF bga®
o ok
[Éil: M) áidahF bga®]
kiH rlrlbtd¥ bgŒjJ. - ï¤bjlÇš mikªJŸsJ ....................... .
M) ïu£il¡»sÉ
<) g©ghFbga®
[Éil: M) ïu£il¡ »sÉ]
4. mL¡F¤ bjhlÇš xnu brhš ....................... Kiw tiu mL¡» tU«.
ab
m) ïu©L M) _‹W
ï) eh‹F <) IªJ [Éil: ï) eh‹F]
FWÉdh
ur
áWÉdh
1. bghUshF bgaiuí« áidahF bgaiuí« ntWgL¤Jf.
w
m
tiu tU«.
brh‰fŸ ïizªnj ÉF«. brh‰fŸ jŤjÅna ÉF«.
Éid¡F milbkhÊahf¡ F¿¥ò¥ Éiuî, btFË, ctif, m¢r«, mty«
co
bghUËš tU«. M»a bghUŸfŸ fhuzkhf tU«.
v.fh. ks ks. v.fh. gh«ò gh«ò.
f‰git f‰wã‹
s.
1. gŸË üyf¤âÈUªJ üš x‹iw vL¤JtªJ mªüÈš MFbga®fshf ïl«
bg‰WŸs bga®¢brh‰fis¤ bjhF¡f.
ok
K»y‹ j‹ bg‰nwhUl‹ ÔghtË¡F¥ òâa Mil th§Ftj‰F¡ fil¡F¢
br‹wh‹. K»yÅ‹ m¥gh mt‹ m«khÉl« ``fhŠá ntQkh? Mu ntQkh?’’
v‹W nf£lh®. K»yÅ‹ m«kh, vd¡F ``fhŠájh‹ ntQ«’’ v‹W T¿dh®.
gh®¤jîlndna nj®ªbjL¤JÉ£lh®. ãwF K»yD¡F KG¡fhš r£il¡F« nkš
o
r£il¡F« J vL¡f M©fŸ ãÇî¡F¢ br‹wd®. fil¡fhuÇl« `2 Û£l®
bfhL’ v‹W nf£lh®. jd¡F« vL¤J¡ bfh©L filia É£L btËna¿d®.
ab
MFbga®
1. fhŠá ntQkh?
ïlthF bga®
w
2. Mu ntQkh?
3. 2 Û£l® bfhL Ú£lš msifahF bga®
4. bgh§fš c©ld® bjhÊyhF bga®
w
7.
m khDl« btšY«
ghuh£odh®.
ï‹D« áy brh‰fŸ
co
1. brhšY brhšY 6. ehŒ ehŒ
2. ešyJ ešyJ 7. t©o t©o
3. go go 8. e‹W e‹W
4. nghJ« nghJ« 9. thœf thœf
s.
5. ÔÔ 10. ão ão
ïu£il¡ »sÉ :
ïaš 3
ok
1. Kšiy ky® fkfk vd kz« åR»wJ.
2. ku¡»is klkl vd K¿ªjJ.
3. btËÆš br‹W tªjhny frfr vd Éa®it tªJ ÉL«.
4. bfhil¡fhdš br‹wnghJ »L»L gŸs¤ij¥ gh®¤nj‹.
o
5. th¡F¢rhto¡F th¡fË¡f FLFL »Ht® tªjh®.
ab
ï‹D« áy brh‰fŸ
1. bfhG bfhG 6. rj rj
2. »R »R 7. ru ru
3. fl fl 8. áY áY
ur
4. ry ry 9. jl jl
5. »W »W 10. fz fz
.s
TLjš Édh¡fŸ
Ãu¥òf.
1.
w
bkhÊia MŸnth«
nf£f.
kÅj nea« g‰¿¤ jiyt®fŸ M‰¿a ciufis¡ nf£L k»œf.
khzt®fŸ jh§fshfnt kÅj nea« g‰¿¤ jiyt®fŸ M‰¿a ciufis¡
m
nf£L k»H nt©L«.
co
m) c©ik
Éil :
midtU¡F« tz¡f«!
s.
c©ik - thŒik v‹W« bkŒ v‹W« Tw¥gL«. ï›thŒikia tŸSt®
``thŒik vd¥gLtJahbjÅ‹ ahbjh‹W«
Ôik ïyhj brhyš.’’
ok
- v‹W TW»wh®. thŒik v‹whš ãw® kd« ò©glhjgo ngRjš v‹»wh®.
xUtiu¥ bgÇat® á¿at® v‹W ïd« fh©gJ mt®fŸ brŒí«
brašfis it¤Jjh‹. všnyhU¡F« c©ikahf ïU§fŸ. bghŒ TwhÔ®fŸ.
MÆu« e‹ikfŸ »il¤jhY« bghŒikia mf‰¿ c©ikia¡ fil¥ão¡f
nt©L«.
o
c©ik v‹wîl‹ e« ÃidɉF tUgt®fŸ ïu©L ng®. xUt® mÇ¢rªâu‹.
k‰bwhUt® fhªâaofŸ. mÇ¢rªâu‹ gy J‹g§fS¡F Msh¡f¥g£lhY«
ab
M) kÅj nea«
Éil :
midtU¡F« tz¡f«!
kÅjnea« v‹gJ ãw®ÛJ eh« fh£L« m¡fiw, MWjš, ne®kiw cz®î,
fUiz cŸs«, ïu¡f Fz«, všnyhUlD« fh£L« m‹ò ngh‹wt‰¿‹
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RuhÉ‹ jÄœ ciuüš 7 M« tF¥ò
bjhF¥ng MF«. ït‰iw x›bthUtU« bg‰¿U¤jš mtáa«. kÅjnea«
j‹dy« m‰w nritahF«.
e« cwÉd®fSl‹, e©g®fSl‹ fh£L« m‹ò, ghr«, fUiz ngh‹wit
kÅjneakhfhJ. vªj¤ bjhl®ò« ïšyhjtÇ‹ J‹g¤ij¥ bghW¡fhkš
ïu¡f¥gL»nwhnk mJnt kÅjnea«.
m khDl« btšY«
m‹id bjurhit¡ bfh©lhL»nwh«. vj‰fhf? mt® Raeyk‰wtuhŒ
thœªjjhšjh‹. mt® thœ¡ifÆš f©lit, âahf«, mw«, kÅjnea«,
ViH vËat®ÛJ m¡fiw, fUiz, kješÈz¡f«, É£L¡bfhL¤jš M»a
x£Lbkh¤j ca®g©òfŸjh«.
co
kÅjnea« v‹gJ kÅj‹, kÅj‹ nkš k£L« bfhŸS« nea« v‹wšyhkš
r‰nw ÉǪj gh®itnahL ïa‰ifÆ‹ khbgU« gil¥ghd kÅj‹, j‹id¥
gil¤j ïa‰if Kjš jh‹ gil¤j ÉŠPhd« <whf mid¤âÅlK« fh£Ltnj
kÅjnea« MF« v‹gij czu nt©L«. mj‰F cjhuzkhf¤ âfœªjt®
s.
ïuhkȧf mofŸ Mth®.
kÅjnea¤â‰F ïtiuÉl ntW ahiuí« vL¤J¡fh£lhf¡ fh£l ïayhJ.
VbdÅš ït® ``thoa gÆiu¡ f©l nghbjšyh« thond‹‘‘ v‹W Xu¿î
ïaš 3
ok
cÆÇlK« ïu¡f« fh£oat®. ït® rhâ, kj«, bkhÊ, njr« ngh‹w mid¤J
nt‰WikfS¡F« m¥gh‰g£L mid¤J cÆ®fS« ï‹ò‰W thœf! bfhšyh
be¿na FUtUŸ be¿ v‹wh®. mid¤J cÆ®fS« ïiwtÅ‹ FHªijfŸ,
mt‰iw¢ rkkhf ghÉ¥gJ« fUizahš cgrÇ¥gJ« k£Lnk âUtUS¡F
cfªjJ v‹wh®.
o
xUehËš ïUgJ k neu« ãwU¡fhfnt thœªjt® ònshu‹°
ie£o§nfš. ït® `if És¡nfªâa fhÇif’ v‹W miH¡f¥gLgt®. ït® jkJ
ab
eh‹ cjÉ brŒJ thœjš g‰¿¥ ngr tªJŸns‹. cy»š njh‹W« mid¤J
cÆ®fS« x‹iwbah‹W rh®ªJ thœ»‹wd. ku«, bro, bfhofŸ, gwitfŸ,
Éy§FfŸ všyh« m›thnw ts®»‹wd. ïit ek¡F cjÉ brŒJ thœjiy
w
cz®¤J»wJ.
ãwUila cjÉ jk¡F¤ njitÆšiy v‹W ahuhY« jŤJ thH ïayhJ.
VjhtJ xU fhy¡f£l¤âš ãwuJ cjÉia kÅj‹ eho¤jh‹ Mfnt©L«.
w
m
m›thW brŒaÉšiy vÅš J‹g¥gLt® v‹W òweh}W TW»wJ.
xU áy® jhD« ahU¡F« cjÉ brŒa kh£lh®fŸ. cjÉ brŒgtiuí«
brŒaÉlhkš jL¤J ÉLth®fŸ. ï›thW ïU¡fhkš eh« e«khš ïa‹wtiu
cjÉ brŒJ thœÉš ca®nth«.
co
brhšy¡ nf£L vGJf
1. kÅj thœ¡ifÆš njit¥gLtJ bghWik.
FÆš FËÇš eL§»aJ; kiHÆš xL§»aJ; btÆÈš fhŒªjJ.
s.
2.
3. ïu¡f« cilnah® mUŸbg‰wt® Mt®.
4. fhÆnj Äšy¤ v‹D« brhšY¡F¢ ``rKjha tÊfh£o’’ v‹W bghUŸ.
ok
5. Éoí« nghJ FËu¤ bjhl§»É£lJ.
Ñœ¡fhQ« jiy¥òfËš x‹iw¤ nj®ªbjL¤J¡ fÉij vGJf
m) m‹ò M) j‹d«ã¡if
o
m‹ò xUehŸ RtÇ‹ _iyÆš ã‹dyhd tiy
njh‰W¥ ngh»wJ, áyªâÆ‹ j‹d«ã¡if f©L Éaªnj‹
ab
3. mâf msÉš ku§fis ts®¥ngh«. ................. ku§fŸjh‹ kiH¡F mo¥gil.
[Éil: VbdÅš]
4. ãwU¡F¡ bfhL¤jny bršt¤â‹ ga‹. .............ãwU¡F¡ bfhL¤J k»œnth«.
w
[Éil: vdnt]
5. jÄHf¤âš kiH bgŒJtU»wJ. ................ ïu©L eh£fŸ kiH Úo¡F« vd
thÅiy MŒîika« m¿É¥ò. [Éil: nkY«]
foj« vGJf.
c§fŸ CÇš eilbgW« âUÉHhit¡ fhz tUkhW miH¥ò ÉL¤J cwÉd®
xUtU¡F¡ foj« vGJf.
m°j«g£o, nry«
m khDl« btšY«
20-12-2019
m‹òŸs khkh,
co
ï§F eh§fŸ midtU« eykhf ïU¡»nwh«. m§F c§fŸ ey¤ijí«
m¤ijÆ‹ ey¤ijí« m¿a Mtyhf ïU¡»nw‹.
e« CÇš tU»‹w kh£L¥ bgh§fy‹W `VWjGîjš’ v‹w e« g©gh£L
Ãfœthd `fhisia ml¡Fjš’ ÉHh btF áw¥ghf¡ bfh©lhl V‰ghL
s.
brŒa¥g£LŸsJ. bj‹kht£l§fËš eilbgWtij¥ ngh‹nw ï§F« ï›ÉHh
M©LnjhW« bfh©lhl¥gLtij Ú§fŸ m¿å®fŸ. Ú§fŸ, m¤ijíl‹ mL¤j
khj« ï›ÉHhit¡ fhz ï§F tunt©L« v‹W ÉU«ò»nw‹. m¥ghî«,
ïaš 3
ok
m«khî« c§fŸ tUifia MtYl‹ vâ®neh¡F»wh®fŸ. Mfnt k‰wit
neÇš.
劉d«,
c§fŸ m‹òŸs,
o
k. ïs§Fku‹.
ciwnkš KftÇ
ab
âU. r.uhK
v© : 105, jhkiu mL¡ff«,
irjh¥ng£il, br‹id - 600 015.
ur
bkhÊnahL ÉisahL
.s
F¿¥òfis¥ ga‹gL¤â ïlÄUªJ tykhf¡ f£l§fis Ãu¥òf.
w
f 1ü š Ÿ
2â U ¡ F w Ÿ
3 m rh
w
w be ¿ ¢ «u
4F ‰ wh y ¡ F w t Š á
5 â Ç T l uh r ¥ g ¡ f É uh a ®
w
4 R ¥ ã u k  a jh r ‹
3 F k u F U g u ®
2 gh u â jh r ‹
1ü y f «
m
ÉÇth¡f« R¥ãukÂajhr‹.
5. F‰why¡ FwtŠá ghoat® âÇTluhr¥g¡ fÉuha®.
Ñœ¡fhQ« gl§fis¥ gh®¤J ïu£il¡»sÉ mikíkhW bjhl® cUth¡Ff.
co
s.
1. 2. 3.
ok
v.fh : kiH rl rlbtd¥ bgŒjJ.
1. gwitfŸ glgl vd gwªjd. 2. uÆš jljl vd XoaJ.
3. ku¡»is klkl vd K¿ªjJ
o
Ô Ég¤J« ghJfh¥ò KiwfS«
ab
Édh¡fŸ :
1. Ô Ég¤âdhš bgÇa ghâ¥ò V‰glhkš ïU¥gj‰F, brŒa nt©oa
K‹bd¢rÇ¡if elto¡iffŸ ahit?
K‹bd¢rÇ¡if elto¡iffŸ :
åLfËY« bghJ ïl§fËY« Ô ghJfh¥ò¡ fUÉfŸ bghU¤j¥g£oU¡f
ur
(i)
nt©L«.
(ii) bghJ ïl§fËš Ô¤jL¥ò v¢rÇ¡if xÈ¥gh‹fŸ bghU¤j¥g£oU¡f nt©L«.
(iii) v¢rÇ¡if xÈ v›thW ïU¡F« v‹gij¥ gÂahs®fŸ m¿ªâU¡f
.s
nt©L«.
_‹wh« gUt«
bto¡f nt©L«.
(vii) ÃWtd§fËš gÂòÇí« gÂahs®fS¡F¤ Ô¤jL¥ò¥ gƉáfŸ
mË¡f¥gl nt©L«.
w
m khDl« btšY«
(vii) bghJ ïl§fËš Ô Ég¤J V‰g£lhš gj‰wkilªJ Xlhkš, mtrufhy
tÊÆš btËnaw nt©L«.
(viii) mU»š ïU¡F« f£ll§fS¡F¤ Ô guthkš ïU¡F« tifÆš
K‹bd¢rÇ¡if brŒa nt©L«.
co
3. bghJ ïl§fËš Ô Ég¤J V‰g£lhš btËnaW« Kiwia¡ TWf.
bghJ ïl§fËš Ô Ég¤J V‰g£lhš gj‰wkilªJ Xlhkš, mtrufhy tÊÆš
btËnaw nt©L«.
4.
s.
Ô Ég¤J V‰g£lhš brŒa¡Tlhjit ahit?
(i) Ô Ég¤J V‰g£LŸs f£ll¤â‹ Ä‹ ö¡»ia¥ ga‹gL¤j¡TlhJ.
(ii) v©bzŒ cŸs ïl¤âš V‰g£l Ôia miz¡f¤ j©Ùiu¥ ga‹gL¤j¡
ïaš 3
TlhJ.
5.
(iii)
clÈš Ô¥g‰¿dhš brŒa nt©oa KjYjÉ ahJ?
(i)
(ii)
ok
Ô¡fha« g£l ïl¤âš v©bzŒ, ngdh ik ngh‹wt‰iw¤ jlt¡ TlhJ.
Éf mj‰F¤ jf
v‹ bghW¥òfŸ...
1. eh‹ v¥nghJ« vËikia¡ fil¥ão¥ng‹
.s
4.
fiy¢brhš m¿nth«
w
<if
4. f©Âa« - Dignity 9. cgnjr« - Preaching
5. bfhŸif - Doctrine 10. thÅaš - Astronomy
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RuhÉ‹ jÄœ ciuüš 7 M« tF¥ò
myF¤ nj®î -3
neu« : 60 ÃÄl§fŸ kâ¥bg©fŸ : 25
m
1. rhªj Fz« cilat®fŸ ...................... KGtijí« bgWt®.
m) ò¤jf« M) bršt« ï) cyf« <) J‹g«
2. `jhbdhU’ v‹D« brhšiy¥ ãǤJ vGj¡ »il¥gJ ..............
co
m) jh + xU M) jh‹ + bdhU
ï) jh‹ + xU <) jhnd + xU
3. ïªj ntiyia Ko¡f xU if Fiw»wJ v‹gJ ....................... .
m) KjyhF bga® M) áidahF bga®
s.
ï) bjhÊyhF bga® <) g©ghF bga®
II. nfho£l ïl§fis Ãu¥òf. (3 × 1 = 3)
ok
4. kiy¥bghÊî v‹D« gFâ ........... v‹D« üÈÈUªJ vL¡f¥g£LŸsJ.
5. ïªâahî¡F« Ódhî¡F« ïilna .............. M« M©L ngh® _©lJ.
6. ïªâah bt‹wJ .............................
III. bghU¤Jf. (4 × ½ = 2)
o
7. rhªj« - áw¥ò
8. kf¤Jt« - cyf«
ab
9. jhu - fUiz
10. ïu¡f« - mikâ
IV. rÇahd ïiz¥ò¢ brhšyhš Ãu¥òf. (2 × ½ = 1)
11. eh« ïÅa brh‰fis¥ ngr nt©L«. .................... J‹g¥gl neÇL«
ur
ÉilaË¡fî«. (2 × 3 = 6)
17.
všyh k¡fS« x‰Wikahf thH v‹d brŒa nt©L«?
w
khDl« btšY«
kâ¥bg©fŸ : 60
m
I. m. rÇahd Éilia¤ nj®ªbjL¤J vGJf. (4 × 1 = 4)
1. ku« ts®¤jhš ............................ bgwyh«.
m) kh¿ M) khÇ ï) fhÇ <) ghÇ
co
2. `ï‹brhš’ v‹D« brhšiy¥ ãǤJ vGj¡ »il¥gJ ..............
m) ïÅa + brhš M) ï‹ik + brhš ï) ïÅik + brhš <) ï‹ + brhš
3. tWikia¥ ã v‹W« bršt¤ij ............... v‹W« TWt®.
m) kUªJ M) kU¤Jt® ï) kU¤Jtkid <) kh¤âiu
s.
4. ïit + ïšyhJ v‹gjid¢ nr®¤bjGj¡ »il¡F« brhš .......................... .
m) ïitÆšyhJ M) ïitïšyhJ ï) ïtÆšyhJ <) ïtïšyhJ
M. nfho£l ïl¤ij Ãu¥òf. (2 × 1 = 2)
ïaš 3
ok
5. `rh©’ v‹gJ ................. msit¥ bga®
6. fhÆnj Äšy¤ mt®fË‹ ïa‰bga® ..........................
ï. bghU¤Jf. (4 × 1 = 4)
7. rhªj« - áw¥ò
8.
o
kf¤Jt« - cyf«
9. jhu - fUiz
10. ïu¡f« - mikâ
ab
m
bjhl®fËš mik¤J vGJf. áªâ¤J
32. jiy¥ò¢ brŒâfis KG brh‰bwhl®fshf vGJf.
jK¡f« ikjhd¤âš ò¤jf¡ f©fh£á bjhl¡f« - k¡fŸ M®t¤Jl‹ tUif
33. bga®¢brhšyhfî« Éid¢brhšyhfî« ga‹gL¤â¤ bjhl®fŸ cUth¡Ff. f£L
co
34. ïu£il¡»sÉ mikíkhW bjhl® cUth¡Ff.
uÆš,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,, vd XoaJ.
VI. VnjD« x‹wD¡F k£L« ÉilaË¡f: (1 × 6 = 6)
35. vd¡F¥ ão¤j ghlš g‰¿ vGJf.
36. ïnaRÉ‹ thœÉš elªj Ritahd Ãfœîfis g‰¿ vGJf.
s.
VII. xU g¡f msÉš ÉÇthf vGJf: (1 × 6 = 6)
37. `x‰Wikna ca®î’ vD« jiy¥ãš f£Liu tiuf.
(mšyJ)
ok
c§fŸ CÇš eilbgW« âUÉHhit¡ fhz tUkhW miH¥ò ÉL¤J cwÉd®
xUtU¡F¡ foj« vGJf.
ÉilfŸ
1. M) khÇ 2. ï) ïÅik + brhš 3. m ) kUªJ
o
4. m) ïitÆšyhJ 5. Ú£lš 6. KfkJ ïRkÆš
7. mikâ 8. áw¥ò 9. cyf«
ab
10. fUiz
11. gh®¡f ïaš 1 - brŒaŸ - ò¤jf Édh nfŸÉ v© -1
12. gh®¡f ïaš 2 - brŒíŸ - ò¤jf Édh nfŸÉ v© -2
13. gh®¡f ïaš 2 - âU¡FwŸ - ò¤jf Édh nfŸÉ v© -1
14. gh®¡f ïaš 1 - ciueil - ò¤jf Édh nfŸÉ v© -1
ur
m
co
N
s.
TERM ok G
o
III L
ab
I
ur
.s
S
w
H
w
w
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C ontents
m
co
ENGLISH
s.
Units Chapters Page No.
ok
Poem - Sea Fever 89 - 94
Supplementary - Sindbad – My First Voyage 95 - 102
Unit Test Questions with Answers 103 - 104
3
ur
76
PROSE
Unit 1 Journey by Train
m
MIND MAP
co
Journey by Train
The trio set out from the Mr. Phileas Fogg and
village towards Allahabad Passepartout go on a train
s.
on the elephant. journey
ok
Mr. Phileas bets the Reform
Phileas purchased an
Club - will go round the
elephant for 2000 pounds.
world in eighty days
GLOSSARY
.s
announced - reported
bargain - agreement
carpet bag - a travelling bag made of carpet fabric (Mr. Phileas Fogg left London
w
with very little luggage. All his money was in the carpet bag.)
conveyance - transportation
dense - thick
w
equipped - provided
extracted - took out
fertile territory - rich vegetated area
flurried - worried
foreseen - predicted
77
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m
horizon - the line at which the earth’s surface and the sky appear to meet
howdahs - a seat for riding on the back of an elephant
locomotive - railway engine
co
magnificent - superb
obstacle - difficulty
perched - positioned
persisted - continued
s.
point-blank - bluntly
proceeded - moved
proposed - put forward
rapidly
refused
rejoined
resolved
snapped
-
-
-
-
-
quickly
not willing
joined together
firmly determined
o
became angry
ok
spirals - shapes or patterns
ab
straggling - trailing
tributaries - streams or small rivers
yielded - accepted
zeal - enthusiasm
ur
Section - I
.s
SUMMARY
This story tells us of an amazing journey by an Englishman Mr. Phileas Fogg. He is a ruthless
perfectionist who cares more about the bet than the native places, he sees on his travels. He will do
w
was the time, when the railways were being built in the country. The train started at the scheduled
time from Bombay. There were a number of passengers like officers, government officials and
merchants in the train. Sir Francis Cromarty, one of Mr. Fogg's friends, occupied a seat opposite
w
to them. The train passed the bridges, the Island of Salcette, mountains, jungles, forests and the
fertile territory of Khandesh.
Passepartout couldn't believe that he was actually crossing India in a railway train. Tigers and
snakes fled at the noise of the train. Elephants stood gazing at the train with sad eyes. At half-past
twelve, the train stopped at Burhampoor. The travellers had a hasty breakfast. The train entered the
valleys of Sutpour Mountains at three in the morning.
78
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Journey by Train
Salcette. Khandesh. Towers of trees, attractive Cambray, valleys of
m
temples. bangalows, viharas Sutpour Mountains.
and temples.
co
Section - II
SUMMARY
The train stopped at 8 o'clock some fifteen miles beyond Rothal. Phileas Fogg and others
s.
were annoyed. They were wondering why there was a halt of the train in the midst of the forest.
When they enquired, the conductor informed them that the railroad lines ends at Kholby, 50 miles
short of Allahabad. The line begins again from there in Allahabad. Sir Francis got angry because
ok
they sold the tickets from Bombay to Calcutta, without confirming about the railroad lines.
The passengers had to provide means of transportation for themselves from Kholby to Allahabad.
So, Mr. Fogg, his attendant and Sir. Francis planned to reach Allahabad in time by some means of
transport, as a steamer was ready to leave Calcutta for Hongkong on the 25th. They had two days
left to reach Calcutta.
o
Discuss and answer - Intext Questions.
ab
Section - III
SUMMARY
w
After searching the village from end to end, Mr. Fogg and Sir. Francis came back without
finding any means of transport. But Passepartout suggested that they can travel on an Indian
w
elephant. As it could travel rapidly for a long time, Mr. Fogg determined to hire it. Even though
Mr. Fogg offered excessive amount to hire the elephant, the elephant's owner refused to hire it.
So Mr. Fogg finally purchased the elephant for two thousand pounds. A young man offered his
w
79
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2. Did he hire Kiouni? Why?
Ans No, he did not hire Kiouni, but purchased it for 2000 pounds, because the owner of
the elephant intended to make a big bargain and so refused to hire him.
co
3. Why was the elephant owner happy with the deal?
Ans The elephant owner was happy with the deal because Mr. Fogg offered him 2000
pounds to purchase the elephant.
s.
READ AND UNDERSTAND
The train stopped in the middle The passengers must provide themselves a means
of the forest. of transport from Kholby to Allahabad.
ab
They couldn’t hire the elephant. Mr. Fogg purchased it for 2000 pounds.
They were in need of an elephant
A young man offered his service as a guide.
driver.
ur
the neck of the elephant and set out from the village with the three passengers.
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Journey by Train
Ans Mr. Phileas Fogg was a rich, English man. He was a member of the Reform Club
of London. He orders his life precisely by the clock and makes a bet with fellow
m
club members that he can travel around the world in 80 days. He travels with his
French servant Passepartout. He is a precise and intelligent man. He is perfect in
his manners and is very punctual as well as particular about what he wants. This is
co
evident in this extract, when he is determined to travel to Allahabad as planned.
He even goes to the extent of purchasing an elephant for 2000 pounds to continue
his travel to Allahabad. These qualities of Mr. Fogg are highlighted in his extract.
VOCABULARY
s.
D. Fill in the blanks with correct travel words.
schedule reach book railway pack board
E.
Ans
ok
To make travel convenient, we must book tickets well in advance. Then we have to
pack our things and schedule our trip. We have to reach the railway station in time
and board the train in order to reach our destination.
o
Match the phrasal verbs with their meanings.
Section - A Section – B
ab
F. DICTIONARY TASK
Refer to a dictionary. Find the meaning of the following words and write them down.
Ans 1. journey - The act of travelling from one place to another.
w
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away from Nagapatinam.
co
SPEAKING
H. Your family has decided to go on a tour during the vacation. You are calling a
travel agency and seeking information regarding package, places of visit, cost etc.
Work in pairs and role play as a receptionist and a customer.
s.
Ans Receptionist : Good morning. This is Sai Dwaraka Mai Travel Agency. How can I
help you?
Customer : We would like to go to a tour to Shirdi temple. Can you give us the
Receptionist :
Customer :
o it.
ok
information regarding the package, places of visit and the cost for
Receptionist : It costs Rs. 9,999/- per person. So the total amount for four people
would be Rs. 39,996/-.
Customer : Thank you Sir, I will get back to you immediately, after discussing
with my family members.
.s
GRAMMAR
w
Ans
up the tree and purred from the
branch of the tree. The cat jumped
w
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Journey by Train
masala idli. spongy.
m
co
Yummy...yummy! Mmm...They have added My sister also likes this
It’s delicious too. Kashmiri chilli and spices dish very much.
too.
s.
Ans
ok
Nila told Miruthula that that hotel was famous for masala idli. Miruthula said that
the idly was soft and spongy. Nila said that it was delicious too. She also said that
they had added Kashmiri chilli. Miruthula said that her sister also liked that dish
very much.
o
ab
WRITING
K. Your friend is coming to your city / town to spend a week with you. He /she wants
to visit some tourist places, and enjoy the special food items of the place. Prepare
a two day itinerary for the visit.
ur
Ans Mode of
Day Timing Stopover Activity
Transport
.s
9.00 am
Fab Hotel Blossom Breakfast Auto
10.00 am
Sri Balaji Temple Visit & do offerings Auto
12 noon
Fab Hotel Blossom Rest Auto
w
8.00 am
Santhome Visit Auto
Cathedral
9.00 am Kapaleeshwar Visit & do offerings Auto
w
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CREATIVE WRITING
L. You are waiting to board a train in a railway station. The train is delayed by an
hour. Write a paragraph about the crowded scene in the railway station based on
m
your observation.
vendors tea vendors shops families piles of luggage
porters trolley scroll board announcement ticket counter queue
co
s.
Ans The Railway Station
o ok
I was waiting to board a train at a railway station. The train was delayed by an hour. A
lot of families were waiting eagerly for the announcement of the arrival of the train.
ab
Some of the porters were carrying the luggage of the passengers. Piles of luggage were
seen all over. There were fruit vendors, tea vendors and other shops selling water, milk
and snacks. By the ticket counter, there was a queue, waiting to buy tickets. The scroll
board was displaying the necessary information for the passengers. The porters were
ur
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
.s
2. fertile
(a) vast (b) productive (c) barren (d) incapable[ Ans (b) productive]
3. territory
w
(a) barrier (b) border (c) limit (d) region [ Ans (d) region]
4. gazing
w
(a) look steadily (b) looking away (c) scanning (d) blinking[ Ans (a) look steadily]
5. hasty
(a) slow (b) wise (c) quick (d) lazy [ Ans (c) quick]
6. curled
(a) straightened (b) erected (c) evened (d) twined [ Ans (d) twined]
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Journey by Train
(a) start (b) stop (c) go (d) continue [ Ans (b) stop]
m
9. foreseen
(a) predicted (b) neglected (c) disregarded (d) failed [ Ans (a) predicted]
10. rapidly
co
(a) slowly (b) suddenly (c) quickly (d) easily [ Ans (c) quickly]
s.
(a) same (b) unlike (c) dissimilar (d) contrast [ Ans (a) same]
2. punctually
(a) promptly (b) timely (c) regularly (d) early [ Ans (d) early]
3.
4.
straggling
(a) few
waking
(a) sleeping
(b) rare
(b) arousing
o ok
(c) abundant
(c) raising
(d) irregular [ Ans (c) abundant]
6. skilled
(a) trained (b) qualified
(c) inexperienced (d) practised [ Ans (c) inexperienced]
ur
7. announced
(a) reported (b) declared (c) notified (d) suppressed
[ Ans (d) suppressed]
8. snapped
.s
9. disadvantage
(a) effectiveness (b) unfavourable (c) drawback (d) advantage [ Ans (d) advantage]
10. hesitation
w
(a) fluctuation (b) unwillingness (c) willingness (d) stutter [ Ans (c) willingness]
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(c) club member (d) driver [ Ans (a) General]
5. Sir Francis was ________.
(a) happy (b) furious (c) cool (d) cheerful [ Ans (b) furious]
co
th
6. A steamer leaves Calcutta for _______ at noon on the 25 .
(a) Hongkong (b) Persia (c) Norway (d) Burhampoor
[ Ans (a) Hongkong]
7. 'Good Heavens', what a price for an _______.
s.
(a) eagle (b) ox (c) elephant (d) ostrich [ Ans (c) elephant]
8. The driver ______ himself on the elephant's neck.
(a) lost (b) perched (c) unsettled (d) lowered [ Ans (b) perched]
9.
(a) averse
(a) lunch
(b) ugly
(b) dinner
ok
A young man, with an _______ face, offered his services as a guide.
(c) intelligent (d) inapt
10. The travellers made a hasty _______.
o
(c) moment
[ Ans (c) intelligent]
1. Who is the author of this novel 'Around the world in Eighty Days'?
Ans The author of this novel is Jules Verna.
2. Who were there among the passengers?
ur
Ans He met him on the ship Mongolia that brought him to Bombay.
6. When will the steamer leave Calcutta for Hong Kong?
w
Ans The steamer would leave Calcutta for Hong Kong at noon on the 25th.
7. What was Mr. Fogg resolved to hire?
He was resolved to hire an Indian elephant for his journey to Allahabad.
w
Ans
8. How much did Mr. Fogg offer to hire the elephant at first?
Ans He offered ten pounds per hour to hire the elephant.
9. Where did the train stop at half-past twelve?
Ans It stopped at Burhampoor at half-past twelve.
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Journey by Train
1. What did Passepartout see, when he was crossing India in a railway train?
m
Ans Passepartout on waking looked out. He could not believe that he was actually
crossing India. The locomotive, guided by an English engineer and fed with coal,
threw out its smoke upon cotton, coffee, nutmeg, clove and pepper plantations.
co
The steam curled in spirals around groups of palm-trees. In the midst of these
trees were attractive bungalows, viharas and marvellous temples, decorated by the
rich work of Indian architecture. There were vast areas extending to the horizon
with jungles and forests. There he saw snakes, tigers and elephants.
2. Who served as a guide to Mr. Fogg and others? How did he manage to take all the
s.
three to Allahabad?
Ans A young intelligent man offered his services as a guide. The elephant was led
out and equipped. The skilled driver covered the elephant's back with a sort of
ok
saddle-cloth and attached to each of its side some uncomfortable howdahs. While
Sir Francis and Mr. Fogg took the howdahs on either side, Passepartout got on to
the saddle-cloth between them. The driver positioned himself on the elephant's
neck and they set out from the village at nine o'clock by short cuts through the
dense forests of palms.
o
GRAMMAR ADDITIONAL
ab
REPORTED SPEECH
The actual words spoken by a person is Direct speech. They are enclosed within quotation
marks.
ur
When we later report this, making changes to the words the speaker originally said, it is
Reported Speech. (Indirect Speech)
Sentence Direct Speech Indirect Speech
.s
I want an ice cream Ram said to Rakesh, “I want Ram told Rakesh that he wanted
an ice cream.’’ an ice cream.
I am coming to My uncle said to me, “I am My uncle told me that he was
w
Chennai tomorrow. coming to Chennai tomorrow.” coming to Chennai the next day.
I want to become a doctor. Monica said, “I want to Monica said that she wanted to
become a doctor.” become a doctor.
w
The comic books are kept The librarian said, “The comic The librarian said that the comic
on the second shelf. books are kept on the second books were kept on the second
shelf.” shelf.
w
The monument is beautiful. Sidharthan said, “The Sidharthan said that the
monument is beautiful.” monument was beautiful.
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Ans Radha said that she was going out.
3. Ravi said, "I can swim".
Ans Ravi said that he could swim.
co
4. He said, "I arrived before you".
Ans He said that he had arrived before him.
5. My father said, "I will be in Pairs on Monday".
Ans My father said that he would be in Paris on Monday.
s.
Warm Up
Ans
2. Tent 5. Hammer
3. Cell Phone 6. Stove
w
These things are essential for a camp because without these things, we cannot enjoy
our camp. Camping is an amazing experience. So we should prepare ourselves
properly with the essential items taken along with us. This will avoid frustration and
w
stress.
•••
w
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POEM
Poetic devices - A Glance
m
1. Simile : It is a comparison made between two objects of different kinds which have
some resemblance/ similarities. It is introduced by a word of comparison, such
as, ‘like’, ‘as’.
co
Example:
Where the wind’s like a whetted life .................... (Poem-1)
The wind is directly compared to whetted life, using the word like. So the figure
of speech is Simile.
2. Metaphor : It is a figure of speech that makes an implicit, implied, or hidden comparison
s.
between two things that are unrelated, but which share some common
characteristics.
Example:
And quiet sleep and a sweet dream when the long trick’s over. ............ (Poem-1)
3. Alliteration
ok
"When the long trick's over". The end of a long voyage is compared to the end
of a long life. It is an indirect comparison, without using a word "like" or "as".
So, it is Metaphor.
: It is the repetition of identical initial consonant sounds at the beginning of
o
two or more words in the same line.
Example:
.... to the lonely sea and the sky, .......(Poem-1)
ab
And the wheel’s kick and the wind’s song and the white sail’s shaking, .......(Poem-1)
The wind, the wheel and the white sail are given the human qualities. So, the
figure of speech is Personification.
5. Imagery : The descriptions create a picture in the reader’s mind.
.s
Example:
And a grey mist on the sea’s face .................... (Poem-1)
This description creates a picture. So it is Imagery.
6. Rhyming : It is making the last words in the lines produce the same sound.
w
7. Rhyme scheme : A rhyme scheme is the pattern of rhymes at the end of each line of a poem or
song. It is usually referred to by using letters to indicate which lines rhyme;
lines designated with the same letter rhyme with each other.
w
Example:
Courage isn’t the last resort
In the work of life or the game of sport; .......... (Poem-2)
w
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MIND MAP
SEA FEVER
co
The poet, John wants to go to the
A quiet sleep and a sweet dream
seas again
s.
Wants a merry yarn from a Wants a tall ship and a star to
laughing fellow-rover guide the ship
Flung spray, blown spume and Call of the tide is a wild call
sea-gulls crying
ur
Asks for a windy day with clouds A clear call that cannot be
flying ignored
.s
Summary
w
In the poem 'Sea Fever', the poet, John Masefield expresses his desire for sailing once again in
the quiet sea, under the quiet sky. He expresses his desire for the need of a well-built ship to sail and
a star in the dark sky to act as a guide. Soon the adventures would begin and as each day dawns, he
w
wakes up to see the early grey mist rise from the sea. He wishes that there would be strong winds
that would blow away the thick white clouds in the sky and take sail forward throughout the day.
Watching from the shore, fills his heart with the adventure and spirit. The poet finally wishes to be
w
a wandering gypsy.
He loves to share the tales and laughter with a fellow sailor. He wanted to sleep soundly with
pleasant dreams at the end of his long shift on watch.
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POEM OVERVIEW
Line
Poem Lines Explanation
Nos.
Sea Fever
m
I must go down to the seas again, to the The poet expresses his desire to go back
lonely sea and the sky, to the sea again. He feels an urgency in it.
1-2 He says that the lovely sea and sky create a
And all I ask is a tall ship and a star to vision of a wide horizon. He wishes for a
co
steer her by; tall ship and a star to act as a guide.
And the wheel’s kick and the wind’s
song and the white sail’s shaking, The adventure begins soon. As each day
3-4 dawns, he wakes up to see the early grey
And a grey mist on the sea’s face, and a mist rise from the sea.
s.
grey dawn breaking.
I must go down to the seas again, for
the call of the running tide The poet expresses his strong desire to get
5-6 back to the sea, as the call from the sea
ok
Is a wild call and a clear call that may cannot be ignored or denied.
not be denied;
He wishes that there would be strong
And all I ask is a windy day with the winds that would blow away the thick
white clouds in the sky and take the
o
white clouds flying,
7-8 sail forward throughout the day.
And the flung spray and the blown He wishes to hear the sea-gulls watching
spume, and the sea-gulls crying.
ab
11 - 12
And quiet sleep and a sweet dream with pleasant dreams at the end of his long
when the long trick’s over. shift on watch.
w
GLOSSARY
denied - refused
w
flung - threw
flurried - worried
mist - fog
w
rover - wanderer
spray - a mass of very small drops of liquid carried in air
spume - sea foam
Star to steer - the north star is the pole star which tells the sailor where North is and
thus they can steer the ship correctly
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yarn - A long or rambling story especially one that is impossible
co
B. Choose the best answer.
1. The title of the poem ‘Sea Fever’ means __________.
(a) flu fever (b) the poet’s deep wish to be at sea
s.
(c) the poet’s fear of the sea [ Ans (b) the poet's deep wish to be at sea]
2. The poet asks for __________.
(a) a fishing net (b) a big boat (c) a tall ship [ Ans (c) a tall ship]
C.
3.
1. I must go down to the sea again, to the lonely sea and the sky
ab
2. And the wheel’s kick and the winds song and the white sail’s shaking
What according to the poet are the pleasures of sailing?
ur
Ans Watching from the shore, the wind's song, the ship's steering wheel and the
shaking of the sail in the breeze are the pleasures of sailing.
3. And all I ask is a windy day with the white clouds flying
Why does the poet ask for a windy day?
.s
Ans The poet asks for a windy day, as it would blow away the thick white clouds from
the sky and take the sail forward throughout the day.
4. And all I ask is a merry yarn from a laughing fellow rover.
w
5.
And quiet sleep and a sweet dream when the long trick’s over
What does the poet want to do after his voyage is over?
Ans The poet wants to sleep soundly with pleasant dreams at the end of his long shift
on watch.
w
D. Poem Appreciation
1. Fill in the blanks with correct rhyming words from the poem.
Ans sky - by, knife - life, rover - over.
2. Quote the line that has been repeated in the poem.
Ans "I must go down to the seas again".
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Sea Fever
Where the wind’s like a whetted life ....................
m
Ans Simile.
E. The poem has many visual and sound images. Complete the table with examples
co
from the poem. The first one has been done for you.
Ans Visual images Sound images
Wheel’s kick Wind’s song
s.
white sail's shaking wild call
grey dawn clear call
running tide windy day
white clouds flying
blown spume
sea-gulls crying
o ok
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
ab
I. Poem Comprehension:
1. And all I ask is a tall ship and a star to steer her by;
What does the word 'her' refer to?
ur
2. To the gull’s way and the whale’s way where the wind’s like a whetted knife;
What is like a whetted knife?
.s
1. I must go down to the seas again, to the lonely sea and the sky,
Pick out the alliterated words.
Ans sea - sky are the alliterated words.
w
2. And the wheel’s kick and the wind’s song and the white sail’s shaking,
What poetic device is used here?
Ans Personification : The wind, the wheel and the white sail are given the human
w
qualities.
3. And quiet sleep and a sweet dream when the long trick’s over.
Name the literary device used in this line.
Ans Metaphor : 'When the long trick's over'. This is comparing the end of a long
voyage to the end of a long life.
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Ans The call of the running tide is wild and clear.
co
4. What does he want from a fellow-wanderer?
Ans He wants to share a happy tale and laughter with a fellow-wanderer.
s.
Ans It refers to 'a watch at sea'.
ok
What message does the poet convey through the poem?
Ans John Masefield's poem 'Sea Fever' is a work of art that brings beauty to the English
language through its use of rhythm, imagery and many complex figures of speech.
The imagery in 'Sea Fever' suggests an adventurous ocean that appeals to all five
senses. Along with an adventurous ocean, 'Sea Fever' also sets a mood of freedom
o
through the imagery of travelling gypsies. 'Sea Fever' not only depicts a strong
longing for the sea through its theme, but also through the use of complex figures
ab
of speech.
Warm Up
3. Island 7. Harbour
4. Navigate 8. Shore
•••
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SUPPLEMENTARY
Unit 1 Sindbad – My First Voyage
m
MIND MAP
co
Sindbad - My first voyage
Completes the story and presents Rich Sindbad describes his first
s.
the Porter with gold coins. voyage to poor Sindbad (Porter).
ok
Spends all his wealth foolishly.
return to his goods given to him.
His ship arrives and takes him Sails for the Persian Gulf with
home. some goods.
o
ab
The King of the Island supports Jumps into the sea to save his
.s
Struggles for his life in the sea Couldn't board the ship - left
and gets thrown on an island abandoned in the sea.
w
Summary
Sindbad, the sailor is a fictional mariner and the hero of a story cycle of Middle-Eastern origin.
w
He was a man from Baghdad who had fantastic adventures in magical realms. In this extract, the
rich Sindbad describes his first voyage to the poor Sindbad, the porter.
When the father of rich Sindbad died, he left behind a big wealth. Sindbad spent all his wealth
foolishly. After realising his fault, Sindbad decided to sail for the Persian Gulf with some goods.
One day, on board, their group saw a beautiful small green island. Out of curiosity, they all got
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met a man who helped him to get good food and drink. Later, when he narrated his sufferings to
the king of the Island, Mihrjan, he took pity on him. He appointed him as an officer on the spot.
There Sindbad witnessed many unimaginable wonders. He became friendly with the people there.
But longed to go back. One day, the same ship which he boarded, happened to come to that place.
co
The captain of the ship was surprised to find Sindbad alive.
Sindbad presented some of his goods to the kind king. In return, the king also gave him
expensive presents. As the ship stayed on the island for a few days, Sindbad did good business and
earned a lot of money. Finally, he returned to his city Baghdad as a rich man. Sindbad completed
s.
his story and bade good bye to the poor porter. He presented him with a purse-full of good coins.
The unexpected riches overjoyed the porter.
1.
Column - A
green island
READ AND UNDERSTAND
o
(a)
ok
Column - B
in the cave
2. Mihrjan (b) huge fish
ab
3. The men in the cave were all ________ (ministers/slaves) of the king. [ Ans slaves]
4. The king was a _____ (noble and kind/mean and cruel) person. [ Ans noble and kind]
w
5. The king gave many valuable ______ (gifts/rewards) to Sindbad. [ Ans gifts]
One day, when I was standing on the port, I saw a ship approaching the port. It was the
same ship, which had sailed further after leaving me behind, struggling in the sea. When the
captain of the ship saw me, he was greatly surprised to find me alive. He and the other crew
members hugged me with happiness. The captain handed over my goods to me, which had
been left on the ship.
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3. Whom did he meet on the ship and why was the person surprised?
Ans He met the captain on the ship. The person was surprised to find him alive.
4. What did he get back from the captain?
co
Ans He got back his goods from the captain.
s.
2. I narrated my tale of sufferings and hardships to the king.
3. Our group sailed from one country to another, selling goods.
4. I saw the same ship approaching the port.
ok
5. My father was a rich merchant.
6. I was being tossed by the frequent powerful waves.
7. Sindbad completed the tale of his voyage.
8. He presented the purse full of gold coins.
o
Ans 5, 3, 6, 2, 1, 4, 7, 8.
ab
Ans One day, they were on board. They saw a beautiful small green island. Just to have
some fun, they all got down on it. As soon as they lit the fire for cooking, they got
a jerk. The island was trembling. It was not an island. It was the back of a huge
w
animal. It got disturbed when the fire was lit on his back.
2. Did Sindbad, the porter, enjoy his meeting with Sindbad the sailor? Why?
Ans Yes, Sindbad the porter enjoyed his meeting with Sindbad, the sailor. He was
w
listening to the amazing tale of Sindbad with all wonder. The rich Sindbad bade
him good bye and asked him to come the next day to hear the tale of his new
voyage. He presented him a purse full of gold coins. The unexpected riches
overjoyed Sindbad, the porter. He thanked him and went home.
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PROJECT
F. Brochure Making
Your school is organising an educational trip. Work in a team and prepare a brochure
m
for the trip. Include places to see, essential things to be brought, and the activities one can
do on the trip.
co
CONNECTING TO SELF
G. Road Safety
s.
Road safety rules make our driving a better experience. As a responsible citizen we ought
to obey traffic rules and pay attention to the road signs.
ok
Look at the picture. Circle the dangerous actions of pedestrians on or near the road.
Discuss in groups and write down the Pedestrians Road Safety Rules.
o
ab
ur
.s
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STEP TO SUCCESS
H. A set of words are given below. Categorize it under the appropriate columns.
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TTE anchor captain platform visa
pilot passport deck air hostess cockpit
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Ans Airport Railway Station Harbour
Pilot Engine driver Crew
Passport Compartment Anchor
s.
Air Hostess TTE Deck
Visa Platform Helmsman
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Cockpit Porter Captain
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
o
I. Choose the Correct Answers (MCQ).
1. My father was a rich _______.
ab
(a) trader (b) farmer (c) merchant (d) landlord [ Ans (c) merchant]
2. I decided to sail from _______ gulf with some goods.
(a) Persian (b) Mexican (c) California (d) Alaska [ Ans (a) Persian]
3. As soon as we lit the fire for cooking, we got a _______.
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(a) shiver (b) jerk (c) tremble (d) shake [ Ans (b) jerk]
4. We were _______ when we realized this.
(a) surprised (b) shocked (c) baffled (d) terrified [ Ans (d) terrified]
.s
(a) an island (b) a land (c) a shore (d) the raft [ Ans (a) an island]
7. As I walked further in this _______ land, I met a man.
[ Ans (d) strange]
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4. Sindbad held on to the wood when tossed by the waves. [ Ans True]
5. The king was a merciless man. [ Ans False]
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III. Very Short Questions with Answers.
1. When did Sindbad's father die?
Ans Sindbad's father died, when he was young.
s.
Ans Sindbad decided to sail for the Persian Gulf with some goods.
4.
5.
Was it really an island? What was it?
Ans Sindbad's limbs became stiff and refused to move because of his continuous
struggle in the sea.
7. How did he quench his thirst?
Ans He quenched his thirst from a spring on the island.
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Ans Mihrjan was the ruler of the island. He was a noble and a kind person.
3. What did the king do, after hearing Sindbad's tale of suffering?
Ans The king sympathized with him and appointed him as an officer on the spot.
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huge fishes in the seawater around the island. Once, he saw a fish that had a head
like a bull. He also witnessed many unimaginable wonders. Ships from different
parts of the world visited the small island. But the visiting sailors did not know
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about the city of Baghdad. Sindbad longed to go back home.
VI. Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
A. 1. Just to have fun, we all got down on that green patch.
s.
2. Our group sailed from one country to another, selling the goods.
3. I returned to my senses only after the loss of all the wealth.
4. I decided to sail for the Persian Gulf with some goods.
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5. One day, when we were on board, we saw a beautiful small green island.
Ans 3, 4, 2, 5, 1.
3. I returned to my senses only after the loss of all the wealth.
4. I decided to sail for the Persian Gulf with some goods.
o
2. Our group sailed from one country to another, selling the goods.
5. One day, when we were on board, we saw a beautiful small green island.
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B. 1. I thanked the king for his kindness and all the favours he had done to me.
2. The king again gave me many valuable farewell gifts.
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Ans 5, 3, 1, 2, 4.
5. Meanwhile, I did good business and earned a lot of money.
3. When it was time to leave, I went to meet the king.
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1. I thanked the king for his kindness and all the favours he had done to me.
2. The king again gave me many valuable farewell gifts.
4. Finally, I returned to my city Baghdad as a rich man.
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C. 1. He asked him to come the next day to hear the tale of his new voyage.
2. Sindbad the sailor then bade good bye to the poor porter.
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4. He thanked his rich host and went home.
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My father was a rich merchant. When he died, I was still young. He left behind a big wealth.
However, I was an inexperienced thoughtless youth and spent all his wealth foolishly.
1. To whom did Sindbad describe his first voyage?
Ans Sindbad describes his first voyage to the poor Sindbad, the porter.
s.
2. What did his father leave behind?
Ans His father left behind a big wealth.
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3. How did he spend all his wealth?
Ans He spent all his wealth foolishly.
B. I was being tossed by the powerful sea waves but I held on to the wood and kept floating for
a long time. At last, I was thrown on an island. I was very tired and extremely hungry.
1. What did Sindbad held on to?
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•••
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UNIT TEST
Time : 1 hour Marks : 25
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1. territory
(a) barrier (b) border (c) limit (d) region
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2. obstacle
(a) assist (b) aid (c) support (d) difficulty
II. Choose the correct antonym. 2×1=2
1. abandoned
s.
(a) deserted (b) forsakened (c) casted (d) inhabited
2. waking
(a) sleeping (b) arousing (c) raising (d) getting up
III. Match the following.
1.
2.
Phrasal verbs
set out
get off
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ok Meaning
(a) to go somewhere for a short break or holiday
(b) to begin a journey
5×1=5
1. And the wheel's kick and the winds song and the while sail's shaking
(a) What according to the poet are the pleasures of sailing?
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ANSWERS
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I. 1. (d) region
2. (d) difficulty
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II. 1. (d) inhabited
2. (a) sleeping
III.
s.
Phrasal verbs Meaning
1. set out (b) to begin a journey
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2. get off (d) to leave a bus, a train or a plane
3. get away (a) to go somewhere for a short break or holiday
4. see off (e) to go to the station to say good bye to someone
5. get into (c) to enter a bus, a train or a plane
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IV. 1. Radha said that she was going out.
2. He said that he had arrived before him.
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2. At first, Fogg chose to go on foot to Allahabad. Then he purchased an elephant to take
them to Allahabad.
3. Mr. Fogg meant that some difficulty or the other would sooner or later arise on his route.
.s
VI. 1. (a) Watching from the shore, the wind's song, the ship's steering wheel and the
shaking of the sail in the breeze are the pleasures of sailing.
(b) Personification. The wind, the wheel and the while sail are given the human
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qualities.
2. (a) The poet wants to go to the sea again.
(b) sea - sky are the alliterated words.
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VII. Yes, Sindbad, the porter, enjoyed his meeting with Sindbad, the sailor. He was listening
to the amazing tale of Sindbad with all wonder. The rich Sindbad bade him good bye and
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asked him to come the next day to hear the tale of his new voyage. He presented him a
purse full of gold coins. The unexpected riches overjoyed Sindbad, the porter. He thanked
him and went home.
•••
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PROSE
Unit 2 A Story of Self
Sacrifice and Bravery
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MIND MAP
NEERJA BHANOT
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Parents set up a Pan Am Trust. Born on 7th September 1963.
s.
Awarded the Ashok Chakra- Parents - Rama Bhanot, Harish
India's highest honour. Bhanot - a journalist.
by armed terrorists.
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GLOSSARY
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m
progressing or succeeding
hijacked - illegally seized control of an aircraft, ship, etc
inflicted - caused something unpleasant to be suffered by
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injustice - lack of justice, unfairness
mandate - an official order
nightmare - unpleasant and frightening dream
performance - doing something to a specified standard
posthumously - after the death of the person
s.
pressurizing - persuading or forcing someone into doing something
review - a formal assessment
succumbed - yielded or surrendered
* Words given in bold are taken from Textbook Glossary.
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Section - I
hijacked, while it was parked at Karachi airport. The passengers were Indians, Germans, Americans,
Pakistanis and others. The terrorists were more intent on targetting the Americans. Neerja, a senior
flight purser, was asked to collect the passport of the passengers. She managed to hide and throw them
down the rubbish chute. The hijackers wanted to fly to Israel and crash the plane against a building.
Neerja alerted the pilots in the cockpit of the hijacked plane, so that they could save themselves.
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When the terrorists knew this, they attacked her violently. Responding to her warning, the pilots
escaped through an alternate exit. The terrorists were at a loss of pilots.
The frustration and helplessness of the terrorists grew every hour. They became impatient.
After seventeen hours of the hijack, the plane ran out of power. The terrorists were armed with
.s
grenades, plastic explosive belts and pistols. They started to fire the passengers and there was
confusion on board. Taking advantage of this, Neerja leapt into action. She started saving as many
passengers as she could. As she was about to exit herself, she noticed three children in the flight.
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She rescued the kids. But she was hit by the bullets fired by the terrorists. This heroic young girl
passed away, as the wounds were fatal.
Discuss and answer.
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Rama Bhanot and Harish Bhanot. Her father was a journalist. She was the third child of the couple.
She had two brothers, Akhil and Aneesh. She studied in Sacred Heart School till 6th Standard.
After that, they moved to Mumbai. There, she attended Bombay Scottish School. She graduated
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from St. Xavier's College. She got married to a man in Sharjah, UAE in March 1985. This marriage
proved to be a disaster. After two months, she left her husband due to dowry demands. She refused
to surrender to the society, as she was born with a spirit to fight. She started her career in modelling
and made appearances in various advertisements like "Binaca toothpaste".
s.
carrier in the United States at that time. Neerja was one among the 80 applicants who were selected.
She was sent to Miami to get trained for 6 to 8 weeks. Then she was sent to London to be trained as
a purser, the senior-most cabin manager. Her duty was handling passenger's complaints, making
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required announcements and handling security. She was soon made a senior flight purser with the
airways. It was a big career achievement for a young woman of 22.
Discuss and answer.
1. Name the schools and colleges Neerja studied in.
o
Ans Neerja studied in Sacred Heart School and Bombay Scottish School. She got graduated
from St. Xavier's College.
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Section - III
.s
Pakistan and America acknowledged her act of bravery. They rewarded her with various awards.
Ashok Chakra, which was India's highest honour for bravery in peacetime was awarded to her.
A postage stamp was also issued in her honour in 2004. She was awarded the ‘Justice for Crimes
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Award’ and ‘Tamgha-e-Insaniyat award’. Her parents set up "the Neerja Bhanot Pan Am Trust"
with the insurance money and the funds from 'Pan Am'. The trust presented two awards every
year - one to honour a dedicated flight crew member, worldwide. Another award was presented
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to an Indian woman who overcomes social injustice and helps other women in social distress. The
award includes a sum of INR 1,50,000, a trophy and a citation.
One of the children, who had been saved by Neerja during the hijack, is now a captain of a
major airline. Some people, shine even after death. Neerja was one among them. Even the streets
of Mumbai remember her. A square in Mumbai's Ghatkopar (East) suburb was named after her by
the Mumbai Corporation.
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Ans Neerja act of bravery was acknowledged and rewarded by the Indian, Pakistan and
American governments. She was awarded the Ashoka Chakra. A postage stamp
was also issued in her honour in 2004. She received 'Justice for Crimes Award' and
'Tamgha-e-Insaniyat Award'.
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3. What are the selection criteria for the Neerja Bhanot Pan Am Award?
Ans The trust presents two awards every year - one to honour a flight crew member.
The other to an Indian Woman who overcomes social injustice.
s.
WHAT OTHERS SAY
Think and Answer.
1. According to Neerja’s father, Neerja had well defined principles and there was little
compromise?
Ans ok
room for compromise in that area. Do you have any principles where you don’t want to
your friend?
Ans Yes, I am always loyal to my best friends Latha and Revathi.
3. Neerja would speak her mind, tell them the truth, according to one of her classmate Eliza.
Do you always have the courage to stand for truth?
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Ans Yes, I do have the courage to stand for truth. But on some occasions, I had to keep
quiet for the benefit of my dear ones.
3. Neerja leapt into action when she ________. [ Ans noticed there was chaos on board]
4. Neerja had a sour marriage due to ________. [ Ans pressurizing dowry demands]
5. Neerja was sent to London based on _______.[ Ans her performance and peer review]
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Ans
(a) Stop supporting the Dictators who found terrorism.
(b) Stop Arming terrorists.
(c) Stop Imperial Conquests for Arab oil.
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(d) Stop torture.
(e) Tackle corruption and money laundering.
C. Read the “Story of Self Sacrifice and Bravery” once again and complete the flow
s.
Ans Neerja – The Hijack Hero
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Life Achievement
Ans
Her parents were Harish Bhanot and Rama Bhanot. Her father was a Mumbai based
journalist. She had two brothers named Akhil and Aneesh. She started her career in
modelling. She then applied for a flight attendant's job with 'Pan Am'. She sent to
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London to be trained as a Purser. Soon she became a senior flight purser. She was
awarded the Ashoka Chakra award from the Indian government. A postage stamp
was also issued in her honour in 2004. She was also awarded the Justice for Crimes
Award and the Tamgha-e-Insaniyat Award from American and Pakistan government.
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VOCABULARY
Airline Vocabulary
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E. Fill in the blanks with appropriate airline vocabulary given in the box.
cockpit touch down call light gate turbulence
bumpy take off landing boarding pass run way
1. You must present the ___________ at the gate. [ Ans boarding pass]
2. It might be a ___________ ride because we are flying through a storm. [ Ans bumpy]
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[ Ans run way]
8. We are next in line to ___________ on this run way. [ Ans take off]
9. That was a very smooth ___________. [ Ans touch down]
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10. This ___________ should only last a few minutes. [ Ans turbulence]
PHRASAL VERB
F. Match the phrasal verbs in column A with their meaning in Column B.
s.
A B
1. fight or flight (a) escaping as rapidly as possible
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2. put to flight (b) among the best of a particular group
3. take flight (c) to defend oneself or to run away
4. flight of fancy (d) to cause someone to flee
5. have a nice flight (e) to flee or run away
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6. in full flight (f) an imaginative but unrealistic idea
6. top-flight (g) enjoy your flight
ab
phrase, typically using all the original letters exactly once. Eg. Seat – east, alert – alter
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Ans The number of the light is 89 B.
2. What are the things to be kept ready?
Ans Boarding Pass and Identification are the things to be kept ready.
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3. When will the regular boarding begin?
Ans The regular boarding will begin in approximately ten minutes.
Announcement 2
s.
Ans The final boarding call is for passengers Alex and Ruskin Collins.
2. Where should the passengers proceed?
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Ans The passengers should proceed to gate 3 immediately.
3. Where is the flight to?
Ans The flight is to New Delhi.
Announcement 3
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1. When will the flight be in the air?
Ans The flight is expected to be in the air in approximately seven minutes.
ab
SPEAKING
.s
I. Read the story board and take roles as pilot and flight attendants to enact the scene.
Inflight Passenger Announcements.
Flight Attendant 1 : Ladies and Gentlemen, this is Indian Airline flight 999 bound
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Ans
for New York. This is a reminder that all carry-on baggage
must fit securely either in the overhead compartments or
under the seat in front of you.
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Flight Attendant 2 : The captain of this flight is Ms. Fatima. And I am Sylvia, the
in-flight time to the destination will be eleven hours and 14
minutes. Our captain will provide you with more information
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after take-off.
Flight Attendant 1 : Before our departure, please make sure that your seats are in
the upright position and tray tables are stowed. Also, please
be aware that this is a non-smoking cabin and smoking in the
lavatory or any part of the cabin is strictly prohibited.
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assistance. Thank you!
Pilot : Hello everyone, this is the captain speaking, and I want to
welcome you to Flight 18 bound for New York. Our flight
time today is 11hours and 14 minutes, and we will be flying
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at an average altitude of 29,000 feet. The local time at New
York is a quarter to twelve (11:45), and the current weather is
sunny, but there is a chance of rain later in the day. We will be
arriving at Gate 13.
s.
Flight Attendant 1 : On behalf of Indian Airlines and the crew, I want to wish you
an enjoyable stay in the Seattle area or at your final destination.
Now, please sit back and enjoy the flight. Thank you.
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J. Imagine that you are going to interview one of the survivors of the Pan Am Hijack.
Discuss with your partner and write down the conversation. Then one of you
play the role of the interviewer and other the survivor. You can use the sample
questions given below.
1. Do you have any information regarding the suspects of the hijack?
o
2. Which countries did the hijackers belong?
3. What are the details of the hijacked flight?
ab
Ans Interviewer : Good Morning Sir. This is Manoj Tiwari from the 'Hindu'.
I would like to interview you, as you are one of the survivors of the
'Pan Am Hijack'.
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Survivor : Yes, it's true. I should thank the Almighty God and Neerja for saving
our lives.
Interviewer : Yes, she had done a brave act, risking her life. Do you have any
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evacuating as many passengers as she could. She waited selflessly in
the face of death to help the ones around her. Such a great soul she is!
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K. Read the story board and take roles as pilot and flight attendants to enact the scene.
Ans Please refer to Q. No. I, (Previous Page, Under the heading, "Speaking")
s.
DIRECT AND INDIRECT SPEECH
Direct Speech :
The exact words someone said.
Example : She said, “I meet my friend.”
(We use quotation marks.)
ok
Reported Speech : Someone tells us what someone else said.
Example : She said that she met her friend.
o
(We don’t use quotation marks.)
ab
Infinitive ® To be + P.P
Imperative (do it) ® Infinitive (to do it)
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m
5. shankar said to his teacher madam i had prepared my project assignment but i forgot
to bring it
Ans Shankar said to his teacher, "Madam, I had prepared my project assignment,
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but I forgot to bring it."
s.
2. “I met you yesterday.” Sam told me that he had met me ____. [ Ans the previous day]
3. “I cannot come.” Mala said that ________. [ Ans she couldn't come]
4. “I will pay tomorrow.” He said that he would pay ________. [ Ans the next day]
ok
5. “The Himalayas are the highest mountain ranges.” He knew that the Himalayas ________
the highest mountain ranges. [ Ans are]
6. “I may lend you some money.” Balu promised _____ some money. [ Ans to lend him]
7. “I have been watching a film.” He said that _____ a film. [ Ans he had been watching]
8. “I have not done it today.” I explained that I had not done it ________. [ Ans that day]
o
9. “I was with him last week.” Jimmy told that ________ with him the previous week.
[ Ans he was]
ab
10. “I will finish this picture tomorrow.” Jothi said that ________ picture the next day.
[ Ans he would finish that]
N. Read the following dialogue and report it.
Betty : What are you doing here, Kitty? I haven’t seen you since June.
Kitty : I’ve just come back from my holiday in Darjeeling.
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Kitty : Yes. It was my first trip. I can show you some pictures. Are you doing any thing
tomorrow?
Betty : I must arrange a couple of things. But I am free tonight.
Kitty : You might come to my place. What time shall we meet?
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her since June. Kitty explained that she had just come back from her holiday in
Darjeeling. Betty asked if she had enjoyed it. Kitty told her that she loved Darjeeling
and that the landscape was amazing. Betty wanted to know if she had gone to
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the Lloyd’s Botanical Garden. Kitty said that it had been her first trip and that she
could show her some pictures. And then she asked her if she was doing anything the
next day. Betty explained that she had to arrange a couple of things. But she added
that she was free that night. Kitty suggested that she might come to her place and
asked her at what time they should meet. Betty said she would be there at eight. And
finally, she asked whether it was all right.
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WRITING
O. Read the story of Neerja Bhanot. Make notes based on the table and complete it.
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Father’s Name & Occupation Harish Bhanot - Mumbai-based Journalist
Mother’s Name & Occupation Rama Bhanot
Born on 7th September, 1963
co
Nationality Indian
State Punjab
City Chandigarh
s.
College : St. Xavier's College, Mumbai.
Career Modelling, Flight Attendant's job
Personal Life Marriage proved a disaster - left her husband at 22 years.
Siblings
Achievements
o ok
Two brothers : Akhil and Aneesh
1. Senior Flight Purser at 22 years.
2. The youngest civilian to be awarded the Ashok
Chakra, the highest honour for bravery
Ashok Chakra (1987), Justice for Crimes Award (2005)
Awards
and Tamgha-e-Insaniyat Award (1987).
ab
CREATIVE WRITING
P. “Heroes are ordinary people who do extraordinary things.” Write an anecdote
on the extraordinary deed of Jaiswal K.P. who helped in the recent Kerala Flood.
.s
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[ Ans (b) attacked violently]
2. disaster
(a) misfortune (b) luck (c) merit (d) happiness [ Ans (a) misfortune]
3. achievement
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(a) failure (b) disappointment (c) approval (d) success [ Ans (d) success]
4. injustice
(a) fairness (b) unfairness (c) equality (d) delight [ Ans (b) unfairness]
5. distress
s.
(a) happiness (b) joy (c) merriness (d) sorrow [ Ans (d) sorrow]
6. chaos
(a) order (b) discipline (c) confusion (d) law [ Ans (c) confusion]
7. citation
(a) quotation (b) thought
8. fatal
(a) harmless (b) beneficial (c) death
9. succumbed
o ok
(c) morality (d) scandal [ Ans (a) quotation]
(a) surrendered (b) won (c) defeated (d) battled [ Ans (a) surrendered]
10. mandate
(a) announcement (b) an official order
ab
2. calamity
(a) blessed (b) damage (c) distress (d) disaster [ Ans (a) blessed]
3. foremost
(a) prominent (b) outstanding (c) hindmost (d) topmost [ Ans (c) hindmost]
.s
4. attempted
(a) struggled (b) offered (c) prevented (d) gambled [ Ans (c) prevented]
5. forced
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8. rescued
(a) imprisoned (b) saved (c) liberated (d) freed [ Ans (a) imprisoned]
9. similar
(a) resembled (b) different (c) identical (d) same [ Ans (b) different]
10. includes
(a) comprises (b) contains (c) excludes (d) covers [ Ans (c) excludes]
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3. The hijackers wanted to fly to Israel and crash the plane against a ________.
(a) 40 storey building (b) building
(c) harbour (d) flight [ Ans (b) building]
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4. The ________ on the aircraft continued for long.
(a) chaos (b) confusion (c) nightmare (d) terror [ Ans (c) nightmare]
5. The marriage proved to be a ________.
s.
(a) 10,000 (b) 600 (c) 10,000 (d) 2,000 [ Ans (c) 10,000]
7. She was sent to Miami to be trained for ________ weeks.
(a) 5 to 7 (b) 8 to 10 (c) 6 to 8 (d) 2 to 3 [ Ans (c) 6 to 8]
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8. A postage stamp was also issued in her honour in ________.
(a) 2002 (b) 2004 (c) 2001 (d) 2003 [ Ans (b) 2004]
9. The trust presents two awards ________.
(a) every week (b) every month (c) every year (d) every two years
[ Ans (c) every year]
o
10. Some people ________ even after death.
(a) glitter (b) live (c) lighten (d) shine [ Ans (d) shine]
ab
Ans
7. Why was she sent to Miami?
Ans She was sent to Miami to be trained for 6 to 8 weeks.
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m
Ans She saved at least 39 Americans out of 41 passengers with her immediate action.
3. Why were the terrorists at a loss of pilots?
Ans As per the mandate, the pilots made an escape through the alternate exit. So the
co
terrorists were at a loss of pilots.
4. Why did Neerja leave her husband?
Ans She left her husband because of the dowry demands.
5. What was named after her in Mumbai and by whom?
s.
Ans A square in Mumbai's Ghatkopar (East) Suburb was named after her by Mumbai
Municipal Corporation.
ok
V. Paragraph Question with Answer.
1. Narrate the disaster of Neerja's married life.
Ans Though Neerja's career had taken off, her family decided to get her married to
a man in Sharjah, UAE. She was married in the month of March 1985. This is
o
where her life took a turn for the worse. The marriage proved to be a disaster.
After two months, she left her husband at the age of 22. This was due to the
pressurizing dowry demands. Neerja refused to surrender to the society because
ab
GRAMMAR ADDITIONAL
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quotation. message.
Verb within quotations is in the Verbs in the present tense must be changed to
present tense forms. their corresponding past tense.
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helping verbs like (is, was, are, were, after the subject.
am), will, shall, may, can, have, has,
do, does.
Use of 'I', 'You' in the direct speech. Change to 'he' / 'she' according to the speaker
and listener.
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[ Ans they would come; the next day]
5. 'My Dad has left just now'. Saru told me that her Dad _____. [ Ans had left just then]
II. Punctuate the following.
co
1. what a wonderful sight it is said anu
Ans "What a wonderful sight it is!," said Anu.
s.
3. get up it is getting late said her mother
Ans "Get up. It is getting late," said her mother.
4. dont shout in the classroom keep quiet said the teacher
Ans
5. what are you doing here asked the watchman
Ans ok
"Don't shout in the classroom, keep quiet," said the teacher.
and ability. They are admired for their brave deeds and noble qualities.
3. Does every hero have to fight or risk their life?
Ans No, not every hero has to fight or risk his life. If he values humanity and does his best,
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he is a hero.
Think and Answer.
1. Can you think of a situation in which taking a small action would make a big difference?
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Ans One day, I joined a mission-oriented online group. I raised money for a good cause.
I started my own website. I volunteered for it remotely. I donated for a good cause.
A small action of mine, made a big difference in my life.
w
m
MIND MAP
COURAGE
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Breath of life and faith of a A daring deed in a moment's
strongman. flash
s.
Something deep in the soul of
More than a daring deed.
man
Summary
Edgar Albert Guest elaborates that courage is temporary and not a mere flash of reflection.
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It is not like lightning that flashes and goes off. He explains that courage is long-lasting and always
remains. It leaves a deep and lasting impression. It always works in the background and keeps
reflecting itself. It stays with the person in every moment, situation and throughout life in one way
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or the other. It holds back the person, whether he calls for it or not. The courage always drops in
and reflects itself, when the person is facing a tough time. As it slips down, the situations go against
the run. The poet says one who wants to win has to explore misfortune, failures and mishaps.
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The poet emphasizes how one needs to take any sort of failures positively. One should hold
on to courage in the tough times. One has to face and suffer the dark during the negative days in
life and has to bear the unfortunate losses. The true time to test one's courage is when one is facing
a rough time. It is displayed in every victory and defeat. It is there in every challenge, a man may
meet. It is more than a daring act. It is the breath of life and faith of a story man.
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POEM OVERVIEW
Line
Poem Lines Explanation
Nos.
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Courage isn’t a brilliant dash, Courage is a brilliant quality of a person.
1-2
A daring deed in a moment’s flash; It is a daring act of a person.
It is not like lightning that flashes and
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It isn’t an instantaneous thing
3-4 goes off. It is not born of hopelessness
Born of despair with a sudden spring and with a sudden spring.
Courage is not a hope which shines
It isn’t a creature of flickered hope unsteadily or a final sudden pull of the
5-6
slipping rope. It is always long-lasting
s.
Or the final tug at a slipping rope;
and remains always.
But it’s something deep in the soul of man But it is something that leaves a lasting
7-8 impression. It is always working to serve
ok
That is working always to serve some plan. some plan.
Courage isn’t the last resort Courage is not the last hope in the work
9 - 10
Courage
In the work of life or the game of sport; of life or the game of sport.
It is not a thing that a person can call
o
It isn’t a thing that a man can call
11 - 12 when he is in tough times. It holds back
At some future time when he’s apt to fall; the person whether he calls for it or not.
ab
Courage isn’t a dazzling light Courage is not a bright light that flashes
17 - 18
That flashes and passes away from sight; and goes away from sight.
It’s part of a man when his skies are blue, It is a part of a man, when he is happy
21 - 22
It’s part of him when he has work to do. and when he has work to do.
The brave man never is freed of it. The brave man is never free from this
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Back of his smiles and behind his tears. behind his tears.
Courage is more than a daring deed: Courage is more than a brave deed.
31 - 32 It is the breath of life and faith of a
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It’s the breath of life and a strong man’s creed. strong man.
GLOSSARY
s.
daring - bold
dazzling - extremely bright
designed - planned
ok
despair - hopelessness
flashes - shines
flickered - shone unsteadily
ingrained - firmly established and hard to change
instantaneous - happening or done immediately
o
resort - tourist centre
strain - force
ab
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Ans 'It' refers to 'courage'.
(b) What does ‘born of despair mean’?
Ans 'Born of despair' means 'born of hopelessness'.
co
2. It’s a slow, unwavering, ingrained trait
With the patience to work and the strength to wait.
(a) What is an ‘ingrained trait’?
Ans Courage is an 'ingrained trait'.
s.
(b) Why does a courageous man need patience?
Ans A courageous man needs patience because courage is a slow, steady and
firm quality.
3.
ok
It’s part of his hours, his days and his years,
Back of his smiles and behind his tears.
Courage
(a) What does ‘tears’ mean?
Ans 'Tears' means 'sorrow'.
o
LITERARY APPRECIATION
ab
Rhyme Scheme : A rhyme scheme is the pattern of rhyming words at the end of each line
of a poem or song. It is usually referred to by using letters to indicate which lines rhyme;
lines designated with the same sound rhyme with each other.
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CREATIVE WRITING
Bio - Poem
A Bio - Poem is an essay about oneself in the form of poetry.
D. Work in small groups. Pick out the adjectives and nouns that suit you using a
m
dictionary. Read the steps given. Arrange adjectives and nouns like the given
sample to construct your Bio-Poem. Present in the class.
Example Sarah
co
Strict, smart, active and friendly,
Daughter of Lazaro, sister of Francis
Lover of sports, music and reading.
Who feels enthusiastic, merry and comfortable
s.
Who needs peace, health and prosperity
Who gives courage, money and guidance
Who fears cockroaches, spiders and lizards
ok
Who would like to see the Himalayas, Kashmir and Europe
Lives in Australia
James
E. Collect all the poems. Compile an Anthology of BioPoems of Class VII.
o
Ans Activity to be done by the Students.
ab
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
I. Poem Comprehension.
ur
Ans
(b) What is a 'goal' here?
Ans A goal is a challenge or aim in life.
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2. It isn’t a creature of flickered hope
Or the final tug at a slipping rope;
But it’s something deep in the soul of man
That is working always to serve some plan.
co
(a) What are the rhyming words?
Ans hope - rope; man - plan are the rhyming words.
(b) What is the rhyming scheme?
Ans The rhyming scheme is 'a a b b'.
s.
III. Short Questions and Answers.
1. What do you mean by the word 'flickered'?
'Flickered' means shone unsteadily.
ok
Ans
2. What was courage never designed for?
Ans It was never designed for show.
Courage
3. Where is courage written?
Ans Courage is written in victory and defeat.
o
4. What is more than a daring deed?
Ans Courage is more than a daring deed.
ab
Ans Courage is a daring act of a person. It is not like lightning that flashes and goes
off. It is not born of hopelessness and with a sudden spring. It shines steadily
and is always long-lasting. The courage always drops in and reflects itself, when
.s
the person is facing a tough time. One who wants to win a goal need to have
courage. Courage is displayed in every victory and defeat. It is more than a brave
deed, as it is the breath of life and the faith of a strong man.
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Warm Up
SUPPLEMENTARY
Unit 2 Man Overboard
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MIND MAP
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MAN OVERBOARD
s.
She was the happiest person on Vasantha travelled on board a
board that day. ship S.S. Rajula
ok
She proudly showed the gift to Message about a storm by the
every one. captain
The captain of the ship presented All the adults panicked and
o
a model of the ship to Vasantha prayed
ab
The captain ordered the rescue A man tumbled over the railings
team to save the man. into the wild sea.
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Vasantha was on board a ship called 'S.S. Rajula'. She was travelling to Singapore, after
her stay with her grandparents. She spent the day exploring the ship. It looked like a big house.
m
sdThere were furnished rooms, and swimming pool, a room for indoor games and a library. The
next day morning, the captain announced that they had received a message about a storm in the
Indian Ocean. Most of the adults panicked. But Vasantha was excited about it. She remembered
her class teacher telling them in class about a big storm. The teacher was on her way to Singapore.
co
Due to the storm, the ship rocked to and fro. Everything in the cabins rolled up and down. This
incident, which was told by her class teacher, made her imagination run wild. She thought it would
be fun, if the storm broke when they had lunch. It would be a merry-go-round to all of them sitting
on the chairs.
s.
In the evening, a strong wind started blowing. The ship rocked to and fro. Huge waves were
dashing against it. She noticed a man vomiting over the rails and looked rather blue about the
mouth. A huge wave lashed the ship and the man tumbled over the railings into the wild sea.
ok
Man Overboard
Vasantha shouted to save him. The captain heard this and sent the rescue team officers to save
the man. Two life-boats moved towards the man. The captain was watching the rescue operation
through a pair of binoculars. Vasantha could not see what was happening, as the boat was too far
for her. But the captain was giving a running commentary to Vasantha.
o
The ship had dropped the anchor but was rising up and down. The two sailors caught hold of a
rope. One of them tied the rope around his waist. With the man between them, the sailors swam
ab
back to the life-boats. The boat headed back to the ship. The ship's doctor was ready at the railings
with two nurses and a stretcher. The man was given immediate attention to improve his condition.
A nurse told Vasantha that he was saved and would regain consciousness after a few minutes. The
capt ain called Vasantha to his cabin and gifted her with a beautiful model of a ship. On it was
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inscribed “B.I.S.N. & Co. S.S. RAJULA.” She felt happy. She hugged and kissed the captain. She
proudly showed the present to everyone. She was the happiest person on board that day.
.s
[ Ans she remembered her class teacher telling about a big storm]
3. Vasantha made a lot of noise because -________.
[ Ans a man tumbled over the railings into the wild sea]
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4. He'll have to be given artificial respiration and kept warm. [ Ans The doctor]
5. Wake up, child. [ Ans A sailor]
co
C. Book Talk!
Read the story once again and fill in the boxes.
s.
She was travelling to Singapore after her stay with
her grandparents.
Middle : Due to a strong wind, the ship rocked to and fro.
Plot
o ok
Huge waves were dashing against it. A man on
board tumbled over the railings into the wild sea.
Vasantha shouted for help. The rescue officers
saved him and he was sent for immediate medical
care.
End : The man was saved. The captain of the ship was
ab
Setting going to Singapore.
Where : At Madras Harbour.
.s
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Describe the solution :
Vasantha alerted everyone to save the man. The Rescue team
Solution
co
struggled and the two sailors dragged the man to the ship.
Immediate medical care was given to him.
s.
Vasantha's immediate action in alerting the members of the ship to
Part save the man.
ok
Man Overboard
CONNECTING TO SELF
D. Read the incidents. Work in small groups to role play the situations in which they
showed their presence of mind. Each group should perform the skit for the rest of
o
the class. Share similar situations in the class.
ab
PROJECT
E. Look at the picture. Browse the internet with the help of your teacher to get
ur
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STEP TO SUCCESS
F. In each question below, there is a sentence in which some parts have been jumbled
up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct
sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
m
1. When he
P : did not know
co
Q : he was nervous and
R : heard the hue and cry at midnight
S : what to do
(a) RQPS (b) QSPR (c) SQPR (d) PQRS [ Ans sd]
s.
2. They felt safer
P : to watch the mountain
Q : of more than five miles
R : as they settled down
S : from a distance
(a) RPSQ (b) RSQP
o ok
(c) PQSR (d) PRSQ [ Ans (d) PRSQ]
(a) SQPR (b) QPSR (c) QSRP (d) SQRP [ Ans (c) QSRP]
4. He knew that
P : and then to save himself
.s
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2. Uncle, I am going back to my parents in ________.
(a) London (b) Malaysia (c) Australia (d) Singapore [ Ans (d) Singapore]
co
3. I request all of you to keep ________.
(a) calm (b) silent (c) quiet (d) shouting [ Ans (a) calm]
4. There was ________ everywhere.
(a) sorrow (b) happiness (c) energy (d) panic [ Ans (d) panic]
s.
5. 'A ________ sea will be the end of me!'
(a) rough (b) calm (c) wild (d) roaring [ Ans (a) rough]
6. This made my imagination run ________.
ok
(a) mad (b) wild (c) strange (d) deep [ Ans (b) wild]
Man Overboard
7. Even the heavy pianos in the ________ went crashing against the walls.
(a) hall (b) room (c) lounge (d) dining room [ Ans (c) lounge]
8. ________ waves were dashing against the ship.
o
(a) High (b) Huge (c) Big (d) mild [ Ans (b) Huge]
9. People started crowding the ________.
ab
(a) deck (b) board (c) kitchen (d) lounge [ Ans (a) deck]
10. I borrowed the captain's ________.
(a) glasses (b) binoculars (c) book (d) gloves [ Ans (b) binoculars]
II. Identify the Character / Speaker.
ur
4. "There was a big storm near Gibraltar." [ Ans Vasantha's class teacher]
5. "Good Morning, Uncle, isn't it lovely?" [ Ans Vasantha]
6. "Can I be of any help?" [ Ans Vasantha]
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7. "What's the matter? Why are you making, so much noise?"[ Ans The captain of the ship]
8. "You're hurting me, Sir." [ Ans Vasantha]
9. "Aye, aye, captain." [ Ans The Ship's doctor]
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10. "Wake up, child. You're Vasantha, aren't you?" [ Ans A sailor]
III. Write True or False against each statement.
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m
Ans Vasantha waved to her grandparents.
3. How did Vasantha spend the day in the ship?
Ans Vasantha spent the day exploring the ship.
co
4. Was Vasantha thrilled about the upcoming storm?
Ans Yes, she was thrilled when she got the news about the storm.
5. Who was Vasantha's class teacher?
Vasantha's class teacher was an English woman.
s.
Ans
ok
7. How many life-boats moved towards the man who fell into the sea?
Ans Two life-boats moved towards the man who fell into the sea.
8. How was the captain of the ship watching the rescue operations?
Ans The captain was watching the rescue operations through a pair of binoculars.
o
9. Who was waiting at the railings for the rescued man?
Ans The ship's doctor, with two nurses, was waiting for the rescued man.
ab
10. What was inscribed on the model of the ship given as a present to Vasantha?
Ans “B.I.S.N. & Co. S.S. RAJULA” was inscribed on the model of the ship.
2. What did the captain of the ship inform the passengers the next day?
Ans The captain informed the passengers that they had received a message that a
storm was likely to form in the Indian Ocean.
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4. What did her class teacher tell her students one day?
Ans Her class teacher told them that she was crossing the English channel on her
way to Singapore. Then there was a big storm near Gibraltar. Their ship rocked
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to and fro. Everything in the cabins rolled up and down. Even the heavy pianos
went crashing against the walls.
5. What was the man doing at the railings?
Ans The man was almost vomiting over the rails. He looked rather blue about the
mouth.
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immediate action. She opened the box. On a velvet backing, was a most beautiful
model of a ship. On it, was inscribed the letters “B.I.S.N. & Co. S.S. RAJULA.”
Vasantha felt very happy. She threw her hands round the captain, hugged and
kissed him. He patted her cheek and went away. Vasantha proudly showed her
co
present to everyone she met. She was the happiest person on board that day.
VII. Rearrange the Jumbled Sentences.
A. 1. The ship slowly moved out of Madras harbour.
s.
2. It was a new experience for me.
3. I was thrilled to be on board a ship.
4. I waved to my grandparents till I could see them no more.
ok
5. I stood on the deck of S. S. Rajula.
Man Overboard
Ans 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
5. I stood on the deck of S. S. Rajula.
1. The ship slowly moved out of Madras harbour.
o
4. I waved to my grandparents till I could see them no more.
3. I was thrilled to be on board a ship.
2. It was a new experience for me.
ab
5. The ship rocked to and fro, rocking and rolling to the music of the wind.
Ans 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
2. The storm didn't break.
.s
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4. Both of them were good swimmers and soon had caught hold of the rope.
3. Then, with powerful strokes, they swam towards uncle.
VIII. Read the passage and answer the questions.
co
A. The next morning the passengers were seated in the dining hall, having breakfast. The
loudspeaker spluttered noisily and then the captain’s voice came loud and clear. “Friends we
have just received a message that a storm is brewing in the Indian Ocean.
1. Where were the passengers seated?
s.
Ans There were seated in the dining room.
2. What splattered noisily?
Ans The loudspeaker splattered noisily.
ok
3. Where was the storm brewing?
Ans The storm was brewing in the Indian Ocean.
B. When he turned away, I quietly sneaked into the hospital room to see what they were doing
to the patient. Two nurses were hurrying to and fro with trays full of medicines and syringes.
o
Another was rushing off with Uncle’s wet clothes.
1. Who sneaked into the hospital?
ab
down.
1. What did Vasantha do?
She followed the officer eagerly.
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Ans
•••
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UNIT TEST
Time : 1 hour Marks : 25
m
I. Choose the correct Synonym. 2×1=2
1. injustice
(a) fairness (b) unfairness (c) equality (d) delight
co
2. fatal
(a) harmless (b) beneficial (c) death (d) devoted
II. Choose the correct antonym. 2×1=2
1. foremost
s.
(a) prominent (b) outstanding (c) hindmost (d) topmost
2. rescued
(a) imprisoned (b) saved (c) liberated (d) freed
1. Neerja leapt into action when she ________.
2.
ok
III. Fill in the blanks with the passive form of the verbs given in the brackets.
2×1=2
Neerja passed on the warning in a code to the pilots because she ________.
o
IV. Punctuation. 2×1=2
ab
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P : to watch the mountain Q : of more than five miles
R : as they settled down S : from a distance
(a) RPSQ (b) RSQP (c) PQSR (d) PRSQ
co
2. If you need help
P : promptly and politely Q : ask for attendants
R : to help our customers S : who have instructions
(a) SQPR (b) QPSR (c) QSRP (d) SQRP
s.
IX. Rearrange the Jumbled Sentences. 5×1=5
1. Huge waves were dashing against it.
2. The storm didn't break.
ok
3. Even though the deck was slippery, I was running around.
4. But in the evening, a strong wind started blowing.
5. The ship rocked to and fro, rocking and rolling to the music of the wind.
o
ANSWERS
I. 1. (b) unfairness 2. (c) death
ab
PLAY
Unit 3 Jane Eyre
m
MIND MAP
JANE EYRE
co
Leads a new life there. Parents died when young.
s.
Leaves to Thornfield and teaches
Lives with her aunt Mrs. Reed.
Adela.
GLOSSARY
.s
fury - anger
predisposed - put at risk of
trickle - flow
w
SUMMARY
w
Jane Eyre was a ten years old girl. Her parents were dead. So she lived with her aunt
Mrs. Reed and her three cousins - Eliza, John and Georgiana. Mrs. Reed's house was in a town
called Gateshead, in England. Jane's uncle Mr. Reed liked her. But he was no more. He died.
Mrs. Reed did not like Jane because she was not her daughter. Her three cousins always ill-treated
her and Mrs. Reed locked her up in the red room. After this incident, Mrs. Reed wrote a letter to
Mr. Brocklehurst who is running a school at Lowood. Jane is sent to Lowood. There Jane was put in
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Discuss in pairs and answer.
1. Why does Jane want to go to school or learn anything in the first place?
co
Ans Jane wants to learn life's lessons that shape her character as an adult.
2. Why does education become such an important issue for her as a child?
Ans Education becomes such an important issue for Jane because education takes place
for every single one of her emotional and physical needs - food, shelter, family and
s.
friendship.
3. What does Jane’s education at Lowood prepare her to do?
Ans Jane's education at Lowood prepares her to understand the world in terms of a
ok
teacher-student relationship.
VOCABULARY
SEMANTIC MAP
o
A. Read the list of words. Write down all the words related to those words. Create a
“map” using a graphic organizer and discuss it in groups. One is done for you.
ab
library
book news
.s
1. Building
architecture construction
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Gardener Plants
m
Watering Caretaker Ferns Roots
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Hose Spray Curator Guardian Boston Staghorn Carrot Beetroot
3. Teacher
s.
Classroom Students
VOCABULARY FRAME
B. Look at the list of words. Read the instructions and make Vocabulary Frames.
Jane Eyre
Top Right Corner : The word’s definition.
Top Left Corner : The word’s opposite.
.s
Lower Left Corner : A sentence that uses the definition of the word.
Lower Right Corner : Graphic visualization.
In the Centre : The word.
w
Ans 1.
ignorance Attention
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Notice
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Hide
m
co
Don't hide your faults.
3.
s.
Agreeing Angry argument
ok
Quarrelling
‘Jane Eyre’.
Ans Monosyllabic Words Disyllabic Words Trisyllabic Words
ten ser-vant de-pen-dant
.s
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2. Dad used to go fishing with his father. [ Ans False]
3. Dad has talked a lot about this fishing spot in the past. [ Ans True]
4. The daughter also loves to fish. [ Ans True]
co
5. Dad says his daughter MUST fish. [ Ans False]
6. The daughter is going to cook the fish. [ Ans True]
7. Dad’s fishing place hasn’t changed since he was a boy. [ Ans False]
s.
SPEAKING
E. Imagine that below are some of the paintings of Jane Eyre. Discuss with your
partner and describe the paintings.
Ans
o ok This painting of a tree with white
flowers looks beautiful. The colours
used to paint it is fantastic. When we
look at it, we feel joy in her hearts.
ab
Jane Eyre
This painting of snow-covered
mountains with a hut on top of a raised
area is fantastic. It has some pine trees
.s
ROLE PLAY
F. Put students into groups of three and let them act as Jane.
w
Ans Student 1 : I am Jane. As my parents died, I had to live with my uncle and aunt Mr. and
Mrs. Reed in a town called Gateshead. My three cousins Eliza, John and
Georgiana ill-treated me. After my uncle's death, my aunt did not look after
me as her daughter. She always locked me up in a red room. Besides, the
maid had to listen to my aunt and did, as was told by her. My aunt wrote a
letter to Mr. Brocklehurst and sent me to Lowood.
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as a teacher. I wanted liberty. So I advertised in Herald for situations. A
week later, I received a letter from Mrs. Fairfax, Thornfield, for a job.
Student 3 : There, at Thornfield, I was asked to teach Miss. Adela. She was
Mr. Rochester's ward. I liked Thornfield very much. I told Adela that I
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would teach her about nature, animals and flowers. We can study all we can
that isn't in books. I believe that art is the window of the soul. So I started
teaching Adela and led a new life in Thornfield.
After this, decide who is the unhappiest of the three ‘Janes’.
s.
Ans The unhappiest of the three 'Janes' : 'Jane' who lived with Mrs. Reed, at Gateshead.
READING
G.
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Read the story and fill in the grid by ticking each character’s qualities.
Discuss in pairs to rate the characteristic and give marks from 1 to 10 depending
on the grade of each quality.
Justify your views in one or two sentences.
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Ans Characteristics Jane Eyre Mrs. Reed Bessie Helen Burns Miss. Temple
ab
arrogant
bitter
caring
courageous
ur
cruel
emotional
friendly
.s
kind
sensitive
rich
w
poor
patient
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self-disciplined
unjust
Marks
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WRITING
H. Arrange the jumbled sentences and write a paragraph. Use appropriate
conjunctions.
1. Jane Eyre is an orphan.
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2. She lives with her aunt Mrs. Reed.
3. Mrs. Reed does not like Jane because Jane is not her daughter.
4. Jane’s uncle Mr. Reed likes Jane, but he dies.
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5. He makes Mrs. Reed promise to take care of Jane, but instead she sends Jane away.
6. Jane is ten years old, she is sent to Lowood school.
7. Jane graduates and stays there to teach.
8. She leaves for Thornfield, where she is a governess.
s.
9. She is very happy there.
Ans 1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
Jane Eyre is an orphan. So she lives with her aunt and uncle Mr. and Mrs. Reed.
Jane’s uncle Mr. Reed likes Jane, but he dies. Mrs. Reed does not like Jane because Jane
I.
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is not her daughter. Before his death, Uncle Reed makes his wife promise to take care
of Jane, but instead she sends her away. As Jane is only ten years old, she is sent to
Lowood school. As, Jane gets graduated herself, she stays there to teach. From there,
she leaves for Thornfield, where she becomes a governess. She is very happy there.
o
Read scene I. Discuss with your partner what Mrs Reed might write about Jane in
her letter to the owner of a school. Now complete her letter to Mr. Brocklehurst.
ab
Lowood
Jane Eyre
Durham
Dear Sir,
.s
I understand that you have a school for the orphans. My niece, Miss. Jane Eyre,
who is ten years old, is an orphan. She lost her parents. I am finding it difficult
to bring her up here. So I request you to admit her in your charity institution.
If you permit to take her, I will send her to Lowood.
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Thank you.
Yours sincerely,
Mrs. Reed.
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GRAMMAR
DETERMINERS
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J. Read the passage. Choose between a little, a lot of, a few, few, fewer, many and
much to fill in the gap.
DON’T CALL US, WE’LL CALL YOU!
Ans Two years ago, I moved to a new neighbourhood. There seemed to be very few people
in this area without telephones, so I expected to get a new phone quickly. I applied for
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phone and you need many friends whose phones you can use as well. Fortunately,
I had both. December came and went, but there was no sign of a phone. I went to
the company’s local office to protest. ‘They told me I’d have a phone by December,’ I
protested. ‘Which year?’ the assistant asked.
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PERFECT TENSES
K. Read the Time Line of Harish. Write sentences using the present perfect tense.
s.
Ans 1. Harish has been born in Madurai in 1971.
2. Harish and his family have moved to Chennai in 1976.
3. In 1993, Harish has finished college and started working for Indian Oil.
4. In 1996, Harish has been promoted as a manager at Indian Oil.
L.
5.
6.
7.
Harish has met Amina in 1997.
Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verb.
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Where had I gone? What had I done?
What had I seen?
ab
Ans I had never seen (see) such beautiful sights before I visited Paris in 2012. I had saved
(save) money for five years before I booked my trip to Paris. I was very excited! Before
my trip to Paris, I had never been (be) out of India.
When I went to Paris, I spent many days touring the city. The city was big. Sometimes
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I got lost and asked for directions. I asked for directions in French. That was easy
because I had studied (study) French for two years before I visited Paris.
By the time I left Paris, I had toured (tour) many beautiful places. The Eiffel Tower,
the Notre Dame Cathedral, and the Luxembourg Gardens were just a few of the places
.s
I saw. Before I visited Paris, I had only seen (see) those places on television.
PREPOSITIONS
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4.
(5)
(6) (7) 5. The rabbit is on the bag.
(8)
6. The rabbit is between two bags.
7. The rabbit is near the bag.
8. The rabbits are running around a bag.
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m
e. At what time do you usually wake up? f. How far is your home from school?
Ans You Reena Jane Latha Raghav Vinay
Age 12yrs 13yrs 11yrs 12yrs 13yrs 13yrs
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Height 148 cms 150 cms 142 cms 148 cms 150 cms 150 cms
Hercules Hercules Hero
BSA Drake BSA Agent BSA
Bicycle Street cat street cat Quicker
16 X 16 Drake 16
20 20 16 T
s.
Number of
3 2 3 2 3 2
Languages
Wake Up Time 6.00 a.m. 5.30 a.m. 5.00 a.m 6.00 a.m. 6.30 a.m. 6.00 a.m.
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Distance to 40 10 25 15
20 minutes 1 hour
School minutes minutes minutes minutes
O. Work in groups of six. Write the other students’ names at the top of the table.
Interview each student using the above questions and complete the table with
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their answers.
When you have all the answers, use the results to write three comparative and
ab
Jane Eyre
4. My bicycle is the most attractive one.
5. Latha's home is the nearest one to the school.
6. Jane is the youngest in her class.
.s
PASSIVE VOICE
P. Read the following article about the amazing similarities between the assassination
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of John F. Kennedy and Abraham Lincoln; then underline the passive forms.
Ans 1. Abraham Lincoln was elected to Congress in 1846. Voters elected John F.
Kennedy to Congress in 1946.
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2. Lincoln was elected president in 1860. Voters elected Kennedy president in 1960.
3. Both men were particularly concerned with civil rights.
4. Both wives lost their children while living in the White House.
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of fifteen letters.
14. Lincoln was shot at a theatre named “Ford”. The gunman shot Kennedy in a car
called a “Lincoln” that the company Ford made.
15. Booth ran from the theatre and was caught in a warehouse. Oswald ran from a
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warehouse and the police caught him in a theatre.
16. Booth was assassinated before his trial. Someone assassinated Oswald before his
trial.
Q. Reported Questions.
s.
1. Jane told Bessie that she would hide herself in the library with Uncle Reed’s book.
Ans "I'll hide myself in the library with uncle Reed's book".
2. John ordered Jane to come there when he called her.
3.
4.
Ans
Ans
"Come here when I call you."
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Eliza asked Jane what she was doing then.
"What are you reading now?"
Mrs. Reed told Bessie to take her away to the red room and lock her in there.
Ans
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"Take her away to the red room and lock her in there!"
5. Miss. Temple asked Jane whether she could read and write.
ab
9. Jane asked Mrs. Fairfax whether she would have the pleasure of seeing Miss. Fairfax
that night.
Ans "Shall I have the pleasure of seeing Miss. Fairfax tonight?"
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10. Miss. Adela told Jane that she could sing and dance also.
Ans "I can sing and dance also. Shall I?"
CONNECTING TO SELF
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R. Case Study.
• In Charlotte Bronte’s day, many orphans were sent to institutions like Lowood.
• Conduct research to find out what options exist today for children without parents.
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• Refer books and Internet resources as well as children’s services department in India.
• Then, prepare two or three case studies, or profiles, using made-up names, that present
typical situations.
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PROJECT
S. Look at the story board. Read the captions given under each frame. Fill the bubbles
and complete the story board.
• Create your own story board for the scene ‘At Thornfield’.
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• Make a power point presentation using the story board.
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s.
o ok
ab
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Jane Eyre
Ans Activity to be done by the Students.
.s
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1. mischiefs
(a) solemnity (b) virtues (c) tricks (d) boons [ Ans (c) tricks]
2. uproar
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(a) independent (b) unconditional (c) helpless (d) strong [ Ans (c) helpless]
4. screams
(a) shriek (b) whisper (c) relax (d) laugh [ Ans (a) shriek]
5. behaviour
(a) idleness (b) misbehaviour (c) misconduct (d) conduct [ Ans (d) conduct]
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(a) slow (b) dull (c) hasten (d) lethargic [ Ans (c) hasten]
9. charity
(a) financial aid (b) selfishness (c) meanness (d) miserly[ Ans (a) financial aid]
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10. composed
(a) disturbed (b) excited (c) overwrought (d) cool [ Ans (d) cool]
II. Choose the correct Antonyms from the options below.
1. eagerly
s.
(a) happily (b) anxiously
(c) uninterestingly (d) strongly [ Ans (c) uninterestingly]
2. receive
[ Ans (d) give]
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(a) collect (b) accept (c) awarded (d) give
3. desperate
(a) cheerful (b) hopeless (d) despairing (d) lacking [ Ans (a) cheerful]
4. tedious
(a) boring (b) dull (d) monotonous (d) exciting [ Ans (d) exciting]
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5. pleasure
(a) delight (b) comfort (c) displeasure (d) bliss [ Ans (c) displeasure]
ab
6. entertain
(a) bore (b) enjoyment (c) consideration(d) amusement [ Ans (a) bore]
7. horrible
(a) shocking (b) horror (c) agreeable (d) dreadful [ Ans (c) agreeable]
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8. frightful
(a) delightful (b) awful (c) horrible (d) terrible [ Ans (a) delightful]
9. immediately
(a) instantly (b) presently (c) later (d) directly [ Ans (c) later]
.s
10. neglected
(a) cared (b) failed (c) ignored (d) disregarded [ Ans (a) cared]
III. Choose the Correct Answer (MCQ).
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(a) Eliza (b) Bessie (c) Georgiana (d) John [ Ans (d) John]
3. John throws the ________ at her.
(a) stone (b) book (c) duster (d) stick [ Ans (b) book]
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4. Take her away in the ________ room and lock her in there.
(a) dark (b) lonely (c) red (d) last [ Ans (c) red]
5. What shocking ________ for a young girl.
(a) behaviour (b) nature (c) attitude (d) quality [ Ans (a) behaviour]
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8. It's partly a charity ________.
(a) school (b) home (c) organization (d) orphanage [ Ans (a) school]
9. Jane spends ________ years in the school.
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(a) nine (b) six (c) seven (d) eight [ Ans (d) eight]
10. You are an early ________.
(a) bird (b) riser (c) applicant (d) person [ Ans (b) riser]
IV. Very Short Questions with Answers.
s.
1. How old was Jane when she came to her aunt's house?
Ans She was ten years old.
2. Who were her cousins?
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Ans Her cousins were Eliza, John and Georgiana.
3. What was the name of the servant maid of Mrs. Reed?
Ans The servant maid of Mrs. Reed was Bessie.
4. What did Bessie tell Jane?
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Ans Bessie told Jane not to quarrel with Miss. Georgina and Eliza. If she does, the
whole house would be in uproar.
ab
Jane Eyre
Ans Mrs. Reed ordered Bessie to take Jane to the red room and lock her up.
8. To whom does Mrs. Reed write a letter about Jane?
.s
2. Where did Miss Miller and Jane enter, the next day? Who were there?
Ans Miss Miller and Jane entered a wide long room. There were many girls of age ten
to twenty.
3. What type of a school was the Lowood Institution?
Ans Lowood Institution was partly a charity school. It is an institution for educating
orphans.
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Ans Jane spent eight years in the Lowood School. She was there as a student for six
years and worked as a teacher for two years.
VI. Paragraph Question with Answer.
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1. Narrate the incident at Thornfield.
Ans Jane received a letter from Mrs. Fairfax at Thornfield to teach Adela. Jane went to
Thornfield and met Mrs. Fairfax. She gave her a warm welcome. Next morning,
Miss. Adela came running to Jane followed by her attendant Miss. Varens. Jane
s.
told her that she would teach her to learn about nature, animals and the flowers.
They would study all they can that isn't in the books. They would also learn to
paint and draw. She started teaching Adela and led a new life at Thornfield.
2. What is education?
Ans Education is the process of getting knowledge, skills, values, beliefs and habits.
3. Why do we need education?
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Ans Education gives us a knowledge of the world around us and changes it into something
better. It helps us build opinions and have points of view on things in life.
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•••
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SECTION - A (VOCABULARY) IV. Fill in the blanks with the past tense.
4×1=4
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I. Choose the correct Synonyms. 1. The boy _______ (chase) a cat.
4×1=4 2. The cat ________ (climb)up the tree.
1. territory 3. He ______ (leave) his attempt to catch
(a) barrier (b) border the cat.
s.
(c) limit (d) region
4. He ______ (run) home.
2. rapidly
(a) slowly (b) suddenly V. Complete the sentences in reported
speech. 4×1=4
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(c) quickly (d) easily
3. achievement 1. “It is too late.” I said that it ________
(a) failure (b) disappointment too late.
(c) approval (d) success 2. “I cannot come.” Mala said that she ___.
4. fatal
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3. “I will pay tomorrow.” He said that he
(a) harmless (b) beneficial would pay ________.
(c) death (d) devoted
ab
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Lowood School? 1. We were _______ when we realized
this.
IX. Answer any 1 of the following (a) surprised (b) shocked
questions in a paragraph. 1 × 4 = 4 (c) baffled (d) terrified
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1. What did Passepartout see, when he 2. They served me good _______ and
was crossing India in a railway train? drink.
2. Narrate the incident at Thornfield. (a) disk (b) lunch
(c) food (d) supper
SECTION - D (POEM)
s.
3. My father was a rich _______.
X. Read the lines and answer the (a) trader (b) farmer
questions. 5×1=5 (c) merchant (d) landlord
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4. ________ waves were dashing against
1. And quiet sleep and a sweet dream
the ship.
when the long trick’s over (a) High ( b ) Hu g e
What does the poet want to do after (c) Big (d) mild
his voyage is over?
5. There was ________ everywhere.
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2. Write the poetic device which is used (a) sorrow (b) happiness
in the line below. (c) energy (d) panic
ab
(a) What are the rhyming words? XIV. Write whether the following
(b) What is the rhyming scheme? statements are 'True' or 'False'.
4×1=4
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•••
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SECTION - C (PROSE)
ANSWERS VIII. 1. Snakes and tigers fled at the noise of
the train. The elephants stood gazing
I. 1. (d) region
with sad eyes at the train, as it passed.
2. (c) quickly
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2. He offered ten pounds per hour to
3. (d) success hire the elephant.
4. (c) death 3. The terrorists were more intent in
targetting the Americans. So they told
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II. 1. (a) sleeping
Neerja to collect all the passports of
2. (d) advantage the passengers.
3. (a) imprisoned 4. A square in Mumbai's Ghatkopar
4. (c) abundant (East) Suburb was named after Neerja
s.
by Mumbai Municipal Corporation.
III. Monosyllabic Disyllabic Trisyllabic 5. Jane spent eight years in the Lowood
Words Words Words School. She was there as a student for
book no-tice de-pen-dent six years and worked as a teacher for
IV. 1. chased
2. climbed
to-mor-row
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IX. 1.
two years.
Passepartout on waking looked
out. He could not believe that he
was actually crossing India. The
locomotive, guided by an English
3. left
engineer and fed with coal, threw
4. ran
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2. Imagery and personification. It is more than a brave deed, as it is the
3. sea - sky are the alliterated words. breath of life and the faith of a strong
4. (a) h
ope - rope; man - plan are the man.
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rhyming words.
(b) The rhyming scheme is 'a a b b'.
SECTION - E
XI.
(SUPPLEMENTARY READER)
1. John Masefield's poem 'Sea Fever' is a XII. 1. (d) terrified
s.
work of art that brings beauty to the 2. (c) food
English language through its use of 3. (c) merchant
rhythm, imagery and many complex
4. (b) Huge
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figures of speech. The imagery in 'Sea
Fever' suggests an adventurous ocean 5. (d) panic
that appeals to all five senses. Along
XIII.1. A gentleman
with an adventurous ocean, 'Sea Fever'
also sets a mood of freedom through 2. Vasantha
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the imagery of travelling gypsies. 3. Captain of the ship
'Sea Fever' not only depicts a strong
longing for the sea through its theme, 4. The doctor
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•••
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jÄHh¡f«
PROSE
Journey by Train
1
m
Unit uÆš _y« gaz«
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ãÇî - I
#]š° bt®‹ (Jules Verne) v‹gtÇ‹ áwªj rhfr ehtyhd “v©gJ eh£fËš cyf¤ij
R‰¿ tUjš” (Around the world in 80 days) v‹gâ‹ rhunk ïªj fijahF«. Phileas Fogg v‹D«
s.
M§»nya®, j‹ e©g®fSl‹ Ó®âU¤j r§f« (Reform Club)-ïš ïUªjnghJ, xU gªja¤â‰F (Wager)
x¥ò¡bfhŸ»wh®. 80 eh£fËš cyif¢ R‰¿ tunt©L« v‹gJ jh‹ gªja«. gªja¤âš bt‰¿ bg‰whš
20,000 gî©L (ï‹iwa kâ¥ãš Rkh® 1.6 ÄšÈa‹ gî©LfŸ) bjhif »il¡F«. ï›thW Phileas
ok
Fogg, jkJ ãbuŠ¢ cjÉahsuhd Passepartout v‹gtUl‹ cyif¢ R‰¿tu¢ brŒí« Ka‰ána, ïªj
ehtÈ‹ fijahF«.
ïªâahÉš ïuÆš f£lik¥òfŸ cUth¡f¥g£L, ntiyfŸ eilbg‰W¡ bfh©oUªj rka¤âš
jh‹ Fogg j‹ gaz¤ij áy gFâfËš nk‰bfhŸ»wh®.
o
ïªj¡ fij vGj¥g£L üwh©LfS¡F nkyhdgoahš, ïâš ÉtÇ¡f¥gL« gy ïl§fË‹ bga®
c¢rÇ¥òfŸ ntWgL»‹wd.
F¿¥ã£l neu¤âš uÆš òw¥g£lJ. mâš gaz« brŒjt®fËilna, gy mâfhÇfŸ, muR
ab
bfh©l, bjhLthd« tiu Ú©l Érhykhd gFâfis¡ flªjd®. m¥nghJ uÆÈ‹ r¤j¤ij nf£L
mit X£l« ão¤jd. ãwF, uÆš td¤ij fl¡ifÆš, nrhfkhd Ãiy¤j gh®itíl‹ mij¥ gh®¡F«
ahidfis¡ f©ld®.
g‹Åu©liu k¡F uÆš g®Ah«ó® (Burhampoor)-I milªjJ. m§F gaÂa® Éiuthf
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á‰W©oia Ko¤jd®. Assurghur v‹w kiy¡nfh£il efiu neh¡» uÆš òw¥g£lJ. m¥nghJ Nu¤
(Surat) mUnf fh«ng (Cambray) tisFlhÉš fy¡F« jgâ v‹D« áW eâia flªJ uÆš br‹wJ.
g©nlšf©£ (Bundelcund) kiy¤bjhlÇÈUªJ, fh©nlZ (Khandeish) gFâia¥ ãÇ¡F«
r¤óuh (Sutpour) kiy¤bjhlÇ‹ gŸs¤jh¡FfËš uÆš ga¤jJ. m¥nghJ neu« Éofhiy _‹W
k MF«.
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
ãÇî - II
Tamil Translation
m
tªj el¤JdÇ‹ Fuš nf£lJ.
ïj‰F VjhtJ És¡f« TWthbud Sir Francis I neh¡»ago Phileas Fogg vâ®gh®¤jh®. Mdhš
uÆyhdJ V‹ <¢r ku§fŸ k‰W« fUnty ku§fŸ Ãiwªj fh£o‹ eLnt Ëwbjd b#duš Francis
Cromarty ahY« És¡f« ju ïayÉšiy.
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ntfkhŒ M®t¤Jl‹ br‹w Passepartout, mnj ntf¤âš âU«g tªjh®. “Iah, ïj‰Fnkš
uÆš j©lths§fns ïšiy!” v‹wh®. “Ú v‹d TW»whŒ?” v‹wh® Sir Francis, “ïÅnkš uÆyhdJ
K‹nd brštj‰F tÊÆšiy vd TW»nw‹,” v‹wh® Passepartout.
cldoahf, uÆš bg£oÆÈUªJ b#duš Francis ÑnH ïw§»dh®. bjhl®ªJ Fogg-« mikâahf
ïw§»dh®. ïUtU« el¤JdÇl« br‹W ‘eh« v§nf ïU¡»nwh«?’ v‹W nf£ld®. “nfhšig (Kholby)
s.
vD« F¡»uhk¤âYŸnsh«. ïj‰F nkš bršy ïayhJ, VbdÅš uÆš ghij mik¡F« g ï‹D«
KoaÉšiy. ï‹D« ï§»UªJ myfhgh¤â‰F 50 ».Û. öu¤â‰F uÆš ghij nghl nt©L«. m§»UªJ
jh‹ kWgoí« uÆš ghij bjhl§F»wJ”, vd el¤Jd® T¿dh®.
ok
“Mdhš uÆš ghij KGtJkhf ngh¡Ftu¤â‰F âw¡f¥g£LÉ£ljhf brŒâ¤jhŸfËš tªjnj”
vd Francis brh‹dh®. “eh‹ v‹d brhštJ? brŒâ¤jhŸfËš brŒâfŸ jtwhf tªJÉ£ld” vd
el¤Jd® T¿dh®.
“ïUªjhY« g«ghÆÈUªJ fšf¤jh tiu gaz¢Ó£LfŸ ɉ»Ö®fns?” vd nfhg¤Jl‹ b#duš
Francis nf£lh®.
o
“mâš rªnjfÄšiy”, vd¡ T¿a el¤Jd®, “nfhšig(Kholby)ÆÈUªJ myfhgh¤ tiu
jh§fns, j§fŸ gaz¤â‰fhd V‰ghLfis¢ brŒJ bfhŸs nt©Lbkd gaÂfS¡F e‹whf¤
bjÇí«” v‹W gâyˤjh®.
ab
jh‹”, v‹wh® Fogg. “v¥go? ïªj uÆš ghijia¥g‰¿ c§fS¡F bjÇíkh?” vd Francis nf£lh®. “v‹
gaz§fËš ïJ nghy áy jilfnsh, ntW vJnth m›t¥nghJ tU« v‹gij eh‹ m¿nt‹, vdnt
ïâš ïH¥ngJÄšiy”, v‹wh® Fogg.
“V‰fdnt, v‹Ål« ïu©L eh£fŸ mtfhr« ïUªjd. mt‰iw eh‹ âahf« brŒa nt©L«.
.s
25« njâ, f¥gš fšf¤jhÉÈUªJ Ah§fh§ (Hong Kong) òw¥gL»wJ. ï‹W 22« njâ. vdnt eh«
neu¤â‰F fšf¤jh br‹W Élyh«” v‹wh® Fogg.
ãÇî - III
w
Fogg k‰W« Francis ïUtU«, »uhk¤â‹ _iy KL¡bfšyh« njoí«, nk‰bfh©L ga¡f
vJî« »il¡fhkš âU«ãd®.
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“eh‹ elªnj bršy¥ ngh»nw‹” v‹wh® Fogg. ïj‰»ilna j‹ v#khdÇl« tªJ nr®ªj
Passepartout rªnjhõk‰w Kf¤Jl‹ á¿J ja¡f¤â‰F ã‹ “Iah, ga¡f eh‹ xU tÊia
f©Lão¤JÉ£nl‹” v‹wh®. “v‹d?” v‹W nf£lt®fËl«, “ï§»UªJ 100 mo öu¤âš tá¡F«
w
xUtÇl« xU ahid cŸsJ. ‘»nahÅ’ v‹w bgaUila mªj ahid âra« btFöu« Éiuthf el¡f¡
ToaJ” v‹W brh‹dh® mt®. gaz¤ij¤ bjhlu ntW tÊ ïšyhjjhš mjid Fogg thlif¡F
mk®¤â¡ bfhŸs KobtL¤jh®.
ïij¥g‰¿ mªj ahidÆ‹ cÇikahsÇl« Fogg nf£lJ«, mt® j‹ ahidia thlif¡F
Él cldoahf kW¥ò bjÇɤjh®. Élh¥ãoahf Fogg mtiu t‰òW¤â, xU k neu¤â‰F 10 gî©L
thlifahf jUtjhfî«, ahidia thlif¡F mË¡F« goí« nf£f, mt® ïz§fhjjhš ïUgJ gî©£
vd ngu« ngr mJî« kW¡f¥gl, eh‰gJ gî©£ vd¡ Tw mJî« ahid¡fhuuhš kW¡f¥g£lJ.
156
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
Kothf, mªj ahidiana Éiy¡F th§f Fogg Ô®khŤJ, KjÈš MÆu« gî©LfŸ ju K‹
Tamil Translation
tªjh®. MÆD« ahid¡fhu® mij V‰f kW¤JÉ£lh®.
Mr. Fogg Éiyia 1200, 1500, 1800 gî©LfŸ vd mâfǤJ¡ bfh©nl tªjh®. ïWâÆš
ïu©lhÆu« gî©LfS¡F mªj kÅj® r«kâ¤jh®. “flîns! xU ahid¡F ï›tsî Éiyah!” vd
Passepartout M¢r®a¥g£lh®.
m
tÊfh£oahf tUtj‰F, X® ò¤ârhÈahd, X® ïisP‹ K‹ tªjh‹. mij V‰W¡ bfh©l
Mr. Fogg, mtD¡F xU jhuhskhd btFkâ mË¥gjhfî« cWâaˤjh®. mJ mt‹ c‰rhf¤ij
mâfǤjJ. ahidí« jah®gL¤j¥g£lJ.
áwªj ahid¥ghfdhd mt‹ ahidÆ‹ KJ»š nrz¤J ngh‹w x‹iw ngh®¤â mj‹ ïU
co
òwK« r‰W brsfÇa¡ Fiw¢ryhd m«ghÇfis ïiz¤jh‹. Mr. Fogg ahidÆ‹ cÇikahsÇl«,
j‹ gz¥igÆÈUªJ áy gz neh£L¡fis vL¤J bfhL¤jh®. Passepartout ïij¡ f©L Éaªjh®.
ïU m«ghÇfËY« Francis k‰W« Fogg M»nah® V¿¡bfhŸs, Passepartout ïUtU¡F«
eLÉš cŸs nrz¤JÂÆš mk®ªJ bfh©lh®. ahidÆ‹ fG¤â‹ÛJ ghf‹ mk®ªJ bfh©lJ«
s.
x‹gJ kÂasÉš mt®fŸ »uhk¤ij É£L òw¥g£ld®, mªj ahidí« ml®ªj gd§fh£o‹ eLnt
FW¡F tÊfË}nl K‹nd¿¢ br‹wJ.
Unit 1
o ok
Sea Fever
flš fhŒ¢rš
POEM
(fl‰) gwitÆ‹ tÊÆš, âħfy¤â‹ tÊÆš, m§F fh‰whdJ TÇa f¤ânghš åR«bghGâš,
k‰W« eh‹ nf£gbjšyh«, Ú©l f‰gid¡ fijfis, ò‹difíl‹ TW« rf khYÄ,
k‰W« gaz¤â‰F ã‹, mikâahd cw¡fK«, ïÅa fdî«jh‹!
w
SUPPLEMENTARY
Unit
áªJgh¤ - v‹ Kjš gaz«
w
k¤âa »H¡F ehLfËš, gh¡jh¤ij rh®ªj fij¡fs¤âš xU f‰gid khYÄna áªJgh¤ Mth®.
mt® ».ã. 8-9 tJ ü‰wh©LfËš murh©l K‰fhy Abbasid Caliphate (fÈgh) fhy¤ij nr®ªjtuhf
ÉtÇ¡f¥gL»wh®. M¥ãÇ¡fh k‰W« bj‰fháahÉš mt® el¤âa VG fl‰gaz§fËš mt® rªâ¤j
(kha) kªâu gFâfŸ, vâ® bfh©l mRu®fŸ (ga§fukhzt®fŸ) k‰W« ïa‰if¡F m¥gh‰g£l ÃfœîfŸ
ml§»anj ïªj f‰gid fijfshF«.
157
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
ïªj fij rhu¤âš, brštªjuhd áªJgh¤, ViHahd áªJgh¤âl« j‹ Kjš gaz¤ij TWtjhf
Tamil Translation
mik»wJ.
“v‹ jªij xU bgU« ÉahghÇ Mth®. mt® ïw¡F« bghGJ eh‹ á¿atdhŒ ïUªnj‹. mt® bgU«
bršt¤ij É£L¢ br‹¿Uªjh®. mDgtÄ‹ik fhuzkhfî«, bghW¥ãšyh ïs taâ‹ fhuzkhfî«
mid¤J bršt¤ijí« K£lhŸjdkhf brytʤJ É£nl‹.
m
m¤jid brštK« fiuªj ã‹ jh‹ Ra cz®nt vd¡F tªjJ. v§fŸ FG xU eh£oÈUªJ
k‰bwhU eh£o‰F br‹W bghU£fis ɉW tªjd®.
ehD« bg®Îa tisFlhî¡F áy bghU£fSl‹, flÈš ga¡f KobtL¤nj‹. xU ehŸ eh§fŸ
f¥gÈš ïU¡ifÆš, xU á¿a gRikahd Ôit¡ f©nlh«.
co
áW Föfy¤â‰fhf mªj¤ ÔÉ‹ gR« â£oš eh§fŸ ïw§»ndh«. eh§fŸ gánahL ïUªjjhš,
á¿J czit rik¡f Ô®khŤnjh«. eh§fŸ mL¥ò g‰w it¡f Mu«ã¡ifÆš, X® mâ®î V‰g£lJ.
mªj¤ Ônt FY§»aJ. mJ Ônt mšy! mJ xU bgÇa ÄUf¤â‹ ã‹òwkhF« (KJF). mj‹ KJ»š
Ô g£ljhš, mJ ghâ¡f¥g£lâ‹ Éisî jh‹ mªj mâ®î. ïij cz®ªjJ« eh§fŸ gaªJ É£nlh«.
s.
midtU« cÆiu fh¥gh‰¿¡ bfhŸs flÈš Fâ¤J É£nlh«. K¡fhš thᥠng® f¥gÈš V¿É£lhY«,
áy® VWtj‰F K‹ f¥gÈ‹ nf¥l‹ ntfkhf f¥giy ïa¡» É£ljhš, áy khYÄfŸ ÉLg£L cÆU¡fhf
flÈš j¤jˤJ¡ bfh©L ïUªjd®. mt®fËš ehD« xUt‹ Mnt‹. mâ®Zltrkhf eh‹ mU»š
Äjªj xU ku¡f£ilia, mJ ifÆš »£oajhš ão¤J¡ bfh©nl‹.
ok
tÈik thŒªj flš miyfshš gªjhl¥g£l eh‹ ku¡f£ilia ão¤J¡ bfh©L btFneu« ÄjªJ
bfh©oUªnj‹. filáÆš, xU ÔÉš eh‹ ö¡» v¿a¥g£nl‹. eh‹ Äfî« fis¥òlD«, gáílD«
ïUªnj‹. mªj¤ ÔÉš c©gj‰F áy _Èiffis¤ jÉu vJî« »£lÉšiy. btFneu« flš ÚÇš
j¤jˤjjhš, v‹ if, fhšfŸ ïW», mira kW¤jd. eh‹ bkJthŒ jtœªjâš áy _ÈiffŸ »£od.
mt‰iw c©l eh‹, jhf« Ô®¡f mªj ÔÉÈUªj Ú%‰¿ÈUªJ Úiu¥ gU»nd‹.
o
ïªj Éá¤âukhd¤ ÔÉš el¡ifÆš xU kÅjiu eh‹ rªâ¤nj‹. eh‹ v§»UªJ tU»nw‹ vd
mt® nf£f, eh‹ v‹ JuâUZl¤ij mtÇl« T¿nd‹.
ab
v‹ nrhf¡ fijia nf£L mt® vd nkš gÇjhg¥g£lh®. v‹id mt® xU Fif¡F miH¤J¢ br‹wh®.
m§nf Ãiwa kÅj®fŸ ïUªjd®. mt®fŸ midtU« mªj¤ ÔÉ‹ murÇ‹ moikfŸ Mt®. v‹id
m‹ghf el¤âa mt®fŸ, vd¡F ešy czití«, Úiuí« mˤjd®. ã‹d® v‹id mt®fŸ mªj¤
ÔÉ‹ muruhd ÄÏ®#h‹ (Mihrjan) v‹gt® K‹ bfh©L ÃW¤âd®. eh‹ v‹Dila Jau§fisí«,
J‹g§fisí« murÇl« T¿nd‹. mªj mur®, fÅî«, ca®ªj FzK« bfh©lt® Mth®. v‹Ål«
ur
Äf¥bgÇa f¥giy Él üWkl§F bgÇajhŒ ïUªjd. xU ehŸ, eh‹ vUJ ngh‹w jiyia¡ bfh©l
Ûidí« f©nl‹. nkY«, f‰gid Tl brŒa ïayhj gy ɪijfis¡ f©nl‹.
cy»‹ gy ghf§fËÈUªJ«, f¥gšfŸ ïªj á¿a ÔÉ‹ JiwKf¤â‰F tªJ bfh©oUªjd.
m§F tU« gy khYÄfËlbkšyh«, eh‹ v‹ gh¡jh¤ efu¤ij¥ g‰¿ nf£L¡ bfh©oU¥ng‹. Mdhš,
w
ahU¡F« mij¥ g‰¿ bjÇaÉšiy. Mdhš vd¡F v‹ ïšy« (gh¡jh¤) âU«g ÉU¥g« V‰g£lJ.
xU ehŸ eh‹ JiwKf¤âš ËW bfh©oU¡ifÆš, xU f¥gš JiwKf« neh¡» tªjJ. mJ eh‹
K‹d® gaz« brŒj nghJ ÚÇš ÉGªJ j¤jË¡ifÆš v‹id É£L¢ br‹w f¥gyhF«! mªj¡ f¥gÈ‹
w
nf¥l‹ v‹id cÆUl‹ f©lJ« bgU« M¢rÇa« milªjh®. mtU«, f¥gÈ‹ k‰w cW¥ãd®fS«,
v‹id f£o¤ jGÉ k»œ¢áia btË¥gL¤âd®. eh‹ f¥gÈš it¤âUªj bghU£fis, f¥gÈ‹ nf¥l‹
v‹Ål« x¥gil¤jh®.
w
v‹ bghU£fËš, kâ¥ò Ä¡ft‰iw eh‹ ÔÉ‹ murU¡F gÇrhf mˤnj‹. mtU« gâY¡F gy
Éiyía®ªj gÇRfis vd¡fˤjh®. áy eh£fŸ mªj¡ f¥gš, JiwKf¤ânyna j§»aJ. mªneu¤âš
eh‹ áw¥ghf thÂg« brŒJ, Ãiwa gz« r«ghâ¤nj‹.
f¥gš òw¥gL« neu« tªjJ« eh‹ muriu rªâ¤J mt® vd¡F mˤj m‹ã‰F«, rYif¡F« e‹¿
T¿nd‹. eh‹ òw¥gLifÆš, mur® kWgoí« vd¡F gy Éiy ca®ªj gÇRfŸ mˤJ ãÇahÉil
jªjh®. ïWâÆš, xU brštªjdhf eh‹ v‹ gh¡jh¤ efU¡F âU«ãnd‹.”
158
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
ï›thwhf áªJgh¤ j‹ Kjš gaz¡ fijia T¿ Ko¤jh®. Rik ö¡F« ViH bjhÊyhËahd
Tamil Translation
áªJgh¤, ïªj khYÄahd áªJgh¤â‹ fijia¡ nf£L ÉaªJ nghdh‹. ãwF, khYÄahd áªJgh¤,
mªj ViH¤ bjhÊyhËahd áªJgh¤âl«, kWehŸ tªJ j‹ òJ gaz¤ij¥ g‰¿ jh‹ brhšy¥nghtij¡
nf£f nt©Lbkd¡ T¿dh®. mj‰F K‹d®, khYÄahd áªjgh¤ mtD¡F, xU gz¥ig Ãiwa j§f¡
fhRfis gÇrhf mˤjh®. mªj vâ®ghuhj bršt«, Rik ö¡F« bjhÊyhËahd áªJgh¤â‰F k»œ¢áia
m
jªjJ. mt‹, j‹ cgrÇ¥ghsU¡F (khYÄ áªJgh¤J¡F) e‹¿ brY¤âÉ£L ïšy« âU«ãdh‹.
PROSE
co
Unit 2 A Story of Self Sacrifice and Bravery
Ra âahf« k‰W« åu¤âid g‰¿a xU fij
s.
ãÇî - I
Pan Am Flight 73 :
gaÂfSl‹ Pan Am Flight 73 K«igÆÈUªJ m¥nghJ
jh‹ tªâUªjJ. mJ fuh¢áÆ‹ Í‹dh r®tnjr Ékhd
o
Ãiya¤âÈUªJ òw¥g£L, mj‹ nrUÄlkhd mbkÇ¡f
ok
mJ br¥l«g® 5, 1986-ï‹ fhiy¥ bghGJ. 360
gh‹ m« Ékhd« - 73
xU Kiw ïsk§ifahd
Úu#h, j‹ jhahÇl« Éthâ¤J¡
bfh©oUªjnghJ ïJ ngh‹w xU
eh£il br‹wila nt©L«. JuâUZltrkhf mªj Ékhd« fl¤jš r«gt« elªjhš “eh‹ ïw¥ngnd
gykhd Míj§fis¡ bfh©l eh‹F ga§futhâfshš, jÉu, Xo Él kh£nl‹” vd T¿ajhf
ab
fuh¢á Ékhd Ãiya¤âš ÃW¤â it¡f¥g£oU¡F« bghGJ mtUila rnfhju® mÜZ gndh£
fl¤j¥g£lJ. Ãidî T®ªjh®. xU ehŸ Úu#hî«,
mtuJ jhahU« Éthâ¡F« nghJ
mªj Ékhd¤âš gy ehLfis¢ nr®ªj gaÂa® mtUila jhah®, “Ú gÂòÇí« Pan
ïUªjd®. mt®fËš, ïªâa®, b#®khÅa®, mbkÇ¡f® Am Ékhd¤âš, xU fl¤jš r«gt«
ur
k‰W« gh»°jhÅa® cŸË£l gyU« ml§Ft®. ÔÉuthâfŸ, elªjhš KjÈš Ú c‹id fh¥gh‰¿¡
K¡»akhf mbkÇ¡f®fis F¿ it¤âUªjd®. Ékhd bfhŸ” v‹W Tw, Úu#h mtÇl« “ïJ
gÂahsuhd Úu#hÉl«, gaÂaÇ‹ gh°ngh®£Lfis nghš Ú§fŸ kWgo Ãid¡fhÔ®fŸ”
nrfÇ¡F«go mt®fŸ T¿d®. mt® mt‰iw kiw¤J v‹wh®. “mªj khâÇahd rka§fËš
.s
cõh®gL¤âaJ. ïj‹ _y« ÉkhÅfŸ kh‰W tÊÆš j¥ã¤JÉl, ÉkhÅfŸ ï‹¿ ÔÉuthâfŸ
jh§fŸ ÉU«ò« ïl¤â‰F ÉkhÅfis gytªj¥gL¤â Ékhd¤ij gw¡f it¡f ïayhJ nghdJ.
ÔÉuthâfËdhš Ékhd¤âš V‰g£l ga§fu« Ú©L bfh©nl br‹wJ. Éu¡âí«, cjÉ
w
159
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
m
Úu#h, ÔÉuthâfËš xUtdhš Rl¥g£lh®. nkhrkhd fha§fŸ V‰g£ljhš mt® kuzkilªjh®. ÉâÆ‹
F%ukhd âU¥g§fshš, mªj rhfr ïsk§if ïwªJ nghdh®.
ãÇî - II
co
Neerja Bhanhot – Life : Úu#h gndh£o‹ thœ¡if
s.
AßZ gndh£ v‹»w K«igia nr®ªj g¤âÇifahsU¡F«, ukh ghndh£ v‹D« bg©k¡F«
gŠrh¥ khÃy« r©ofÇš br¥l«g® 7, 1963 š Úu#h gndh£ ãwªjh®. m»š, mÜZ v‹»w ïU kf‹fS¡F¥
ãwF btF fhy« fʤJ _‹whtJ FHªijahf mt® ãwªjh®.
ok
j‹ MwhtJ tF¥ò tiu r©ofÇš cŸs “òÅj ïUja gŸËÆš” (Sacred Heart School)
Úu#h go¤jh®. mj‹ ã‹ mtuJ FL«g« K«ig¡F Fobga®ªjJ. m§FŸs gh«ng °fh£oZ gŸËÆš
(Bombay Scottish School) gÆ‹w mt®, mj‹ ãwF òÅj nrÉa® fšÿÇÆš (St. Xavier’s College)
g£l« bg‰wh®.
Úu#hÉ‹ thœî cau Mu«ã¤jhY«, mt® FL«g¤âd® mtU¡F I¡»a muò eh£oYŸs õh®#h
o
(Sharjah, UAE)-I nr®ªj xUtU¡F âUkz« brŒJ it¤jd®. kh®¢ 1985š mtU¡F âUkzkhdJ.
mj‹ ãwF, mt® thœÉš nkhrkhd xU âU¥g« V‰g£lJ. mt® âUkz thœî xU nguÊthdJ,
ab
âUkzkhd ïu©L khj§fËnyna, tuj£riz fhuz§fshš mt® fztiu É£L¥ ãǪjh®. nghuh£l
Fz« cilatuhjyhš, mt® rKjha¤âl« ruzilaÉšiy. j‹ fr¥ghd âUkz thœÉ‰F¥ ãwF
mt® És«gu (khlȧ) JiwÆš ftd« brY¤j¤ bjhl§»dh®. ãdhfh (Binaca) g‰gir ngh‹w
És«gu§fËš mt® njh‹¿dh®.
mj‹ ã‹d®, Pan Am v‹»w mbkÇ¡fhÉ‹ K¡»a, Äf¥bgÇa Ékhd ÃWtd¤âš Ékhd
ur
ãÇî - III
Awards, Achievements and Legacy :
w
“Ékhd¤âš ÉfâahŒ Ëw gaÂaU¡F mt® fh£oa ÉRthr« v‹bw‹W«, khDl cz®É‹
jiy áwªj Fz¤â‰F mŠrÈahf ïU¡F«.” - mnrh¡ r¡uh ÉUâš nk‰nfhŸ.
Úu#hÉ‹ åu¢braš, ïªâah, gh»°jh‹ k‰W« mbkÇ¡f murh§f§fshš V‰W¡ bfhŸs¥g£L
btFkâfŸ mË¡f¥g£ld. ïªâa murhš mikâ fhy¤â‰fhd, åu¤â‰fhd Äf ca®ªj ÉUjhd
“mnrh¡ r¡uh” ÉUJ mtU¡F tH§f¥g£lJ. nkY«, mªj ÉUij¥ bgW« Äf ïisa taJila FokfŸ
mtnu Mth®. mtiu bfsuÉ¡F« Éjkhf 2004 M« tUl« jghš jiyí« btËÆl¥g£lJ.
160
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
Úu#hÉ‹ rnfhju® 2005« tUl« Washington DC (mbkÇ¡fh) br‹W ‘Justice for Crimes
Award’ v‹»w, kuz¤â‰F ãwfhd ÉUâid Annual Crime Rights Week mDZo¡f¥gL« nghJ
Tamil Translation
bg‰W¡ bfh©lh®. Úu#hî¡F ‘Tamgha-e-Insaniyat Award’ v‹»w ÉUJ« bfhL¡f¥g£lJ.
Úu#hÉ‹ bg‰nwh® Neerja Bhanot Pan Am Trust v‹»w mw¡f£lisia, fh¥ã£L ÃWtd«
mˤj gz¤ij¡ bfh©L«, Pan Am v‹»w bgaiu £u°£L¡F cgnahf¥gL¤Jtj‰fhf mªj ÃWtd«
m
mˤj gz¤ij¡ bfh©L«, ÃWÉd®. ïªj mw¡f£lis tUlªnjhW« ïU ÉUJfis tH§F»wJ.
mit 1. cyfshÉa msÉš, j‹ gÂfS¡F« nk‰g£L brašgL« VjhtJ xU Ékhd¥ gÂahsU¡F«,
2. r_f mÚâia bt‹W mij¥nghynt ghâ¡f¥g£l k‰w bg©fS¡F cjî« X® ïªâa k§if¡F«
ÉUJfŸ tH§f¥gL»‹wd.
co
ïªj ÉUâš %. 1,50,000/-, xU nfla« k‰W« rh‹W M»ait ml§F«.
ïªj åuk§if Úu#h, fl¤jš r«gt¤â‹ bghGJ fh¥gh‰¿a FHªijfËš xUt® ï¥nghJ xU
bgÇa Ékhd ÃWtd¤âš “nf¥l‹” Mf gÂòÇ»wh®.
ïw¥ã‰F ã‹D« òfœ milgt® áy®. Úu#h gndh£ mt®fËš xUt® Mth®. K«igÆ‹ bjU¡fŸ
s.
Tl mtiu kw¡fÉšiy. K«igÆ‹ xU òwef® gFâahd »H¡F f£nfhghÇš cŸs xU rJ¡f¤â‰F
mt® bgaiu K«ig khefuh£á N£oíŸsJ.
Unit 2 Courage
o ok
ijÇa«
POEM
ab
m
mt‹ áÇ¥ò k‰W« f©ÙU¡F¥ ã‹dhš cŸsjhF«
kfh¤kh fhªâ : tÈik v‹gJ b#Æ¥gjhš
ijÇa« xU åu¢ braiy Él nk«g£ljhF« tUtâšiy. c§fŸ nghuh£l§fns c§fŸ
mJ thœÉ‹ Rthr« k‰W« tÈikahdtÅ‹ tÈikia ts®¡»‹wd. J‹g§fËilna
co
e«ã¡ifahF«. Ú§fŸ ga¡ifÆš, ruzilahâU¥gnj
- v£fh® Mšg®£ bf°£ tÈikahF«.
s.
SUPPLEMENTARY
2
Man Overboard
Unit
ok
f¥gš js¤âš kÅj‹
eh‹ S. S. u#]yh v‹»w f¥gÈ‹ nkšjs¤âš ËW bfh©oUªnj‹. mªj¡ f¥gš br‹id
JiwKf¤ij É£L bkJthf ef®ifÆš, eh‹ v‹ jh¤jh, gh£o M»nah® v‹ gh®itia É£L kiwí«
tiuÆš ifair¤J¡ bfh©oUªnj‹. xU f¥gÈ‹ js¤âš Égâš eh‹ Äfî« áÈ®¥gilªâUªnj‹.
o
ïJ vd¡F xU òâa mDgtkhF«.
“Ú jÅahf ga¡»whah?” v‹W vd¡fUnf Ë¿Uªjt® nf£lh®.
ab
m¥nghJ v§F« gj‰w« V‰g£lJ. xU tajhd bg©k cu¤j FuÈš “X, flîns! v§fŸ nkš
fUiz fh£L«! v‹ xnu kf‹ vd¡fhf á§f¥óÇš fh¤J¡ bfh©oU¡»wh‹,” v‹W ãuh®¤jid brŒjh®.
xU kÅj® mtÇl« “ftiy¥glhÔ®fŸ m«kh, ïJ btW« v¢rÇ¡if k£Lnk. eh« ïjdhš ghâ¡f¥gl¥
nghtâšiy” v‹wh®.
w
v‹ mUnf mk®ªâUªj k‰bwhU bg©kÂ, clš ey« ghâ¡f¥g£lJ nghš ïUªjh®. “eh‹ V‰fdnt
fl‰ãÂahš ghâ¡f¥g£LŸns‹. ïâš nkhrkhd thÅiyíkh? bfhªjË¡F« flš jh‹ v‹ Kothf
ïU¡F« nghy” v‹wh® mt®.
ïªj tajhdt®fŸ midtU« V‹ jh‹ ï›thW kdbkhoªJ ngh»wh®fnsh? eh‹ go¤j gy
w
Tamil Translation
“eh‹ á§f¥ó® bršY« tÊÆš ï§»ÈZ nrdiy (M§»y fhšthŒ) fl¡ifÆš Í¥uhšl® mUnf
xUbgU« NwhtË tªjJ. f¥gš Mo, jLkh¿ br‹W bfh©oUªjJ.
nfã‹ miwÆš cŸs mid¤J« nkY«, ÑG« cU©ld. yîŠáš (XŒî miwÆš) it¡f¥g£oUªj
bgÇa fdkhd ãahndh¡fŸ (pianos) Tl RtÇš nkhâd.”
m
ïjdhš, v‹ f‰gid jhWkhwhf XoaJ. kWgoí« mU»ÈUªjtÇl« “eh« cztUªJifÆš
NwhtË tªjhš nto¡ifahf ïU¡F« mšyth? m¥nghJ nki#fŸ, mt‰¿‹ ÛâU¡F« czî
tiffŸ gyî« e«ÄlÄUªJ Éy» Xo¢bršY«. eh« mk®ªâU¡F« eh‰fhÈfŸ Tl uh£od« nghy
R‰W«” v‹nw‹.
co
m§F cztUªJ« nki#Æš mk®ªâUªj midtU« v‹id â»Yl‹ gh®¤jd®. “ï§FŸs
bgÇat®fŸ ahU¡F« rhfr cz®nt ïšiyna. v›tsî kªjkhŒ ït®fŸ cŸsd®!” vd vd¡FŸ
v©Â¡ bfh©nl‹.
òaš tuÉšiy, Mdhš khiyÆš gykhd fh‰W år¤ Jt§»aJ. fh‰¿‹ ïir¡nf‰g f¥gš K‹D«
ã‹Dkhf¥ nghŒ tªjJ. nguiyfŸ f¥gÈ‹ ÛJ nkhâd. f¥gÈ‹ nkš js« tG¡F«go ïUªjhY«,
s.
eh‹ R‰¿Y« Xo¡ bfh©oUªnj‹. m¥nghJ jh‹ f¥gÈ‹ ãokhd¤ij g‰¿¡ bfh©L xUt® xL§»
ËWbfh©L ïUªjij f©nl‹. mtU« mªj mDgt¤ij uá¡»wh® vd v©Â¡ bfh©L, mtÇl«
Xond‹. “fhiy tz¡f« m§»Ÿ, ïJ mUikahf ïU¡»wjšyth?” v‹W mtiu¡ nf£nl‹.
Mdhš, mt® ãokhd§fSl‹ ïW»¡ bfh©L thªâ vL¤J¡ bfh©oUªjh®. mtÇl« gÇjhg«
ok
bfh©l eh‹ “j§fS¡F eh‹ VjhtJ cjt Koíkh? kU¤Jtiu miH¡fth?” v‹W nf£nl‹.
mt® gâyË¡fhkš, ifia k£L« ca®¤âdh®. mL¤jKiw vL¤j Fk£lš mtiu cY¡»Él, mt®
ãokhd§fË‹ nkš rǪJ x£o¡ bfh©lh®. mnj neu¤âš, xU bgÇa miy f¥gÈ‹ ÛJ nkhâaJ. mj‹
ntf« jh§fhJ mt® ãokhd¤âÈUªJ jLkh¿, flÈš ÉGªjh®. xU beho eh‹ m¥gona °j«ã¤J
ËW É£nl‹. ãwF bt¿ go¤jtŸ nghy “cjÉ, cjÉ! nkš js¤âš ïUªJ flÈš ÉGªj kÅjiu
o
fh¥gh‰W§fŸ” vd cu¡f TÉnd‹. mâfhiy¥ bghGâY«, (gugu¥ghf) fhyo¤ jl§fŸ ÉiuªJ
tUtij nf£nl‹.
f©Ù® tʪnjhl cu¡f f¤â¡ bfh©nl, bgUntfkhŒ X® mâfhÇÆl« Xond‹.
ab
mt® f©o¥ghd FuÈš “V‹ ï›tsî T¥ghL nghL»whŒ? v‹d Éõa«?” vd¡ nf£lh®. mt®
mªj f¥gÈ‹ nf¥l‹ vd m¿ªJ eh‹ M¢rÇa« milªnj‹.
eh‹ MRthrkilªJ “Iah, xUt® flÈš ÉGªJ É£lh®. jaî T®ªJ mtiu fh¥gh‰W§fŸ”
v‹nw‹. “v§nf!” vd nf£l mtÇl« ‘m§nf’ vd mªj ïl¤ij R£o¡ fh£ond‹.
mt® k‰w Égu§fis¥ g‰¿ nf£fhkš, Ãiwa mâfhÇfŸ mk®ªâUªj miw¡F Xodh®. “f¥gš nkš
ur
js¤âÈUªj kÅj®” vd f¤â¡ bfh©nl “f¥giy ÃW¤J§fŸ, e§Tu¤ij flÈš clnd ghŒ¢R§fŸ”
vd f£lisÆl mJ clnd Ãiwnt¿aJ. ã‹d® nkš js¤â‰F Xoa nf¥lid eh‹ ã‹ bjhl®ªnj‹.
“cÆ® fh¡F« glFfis ïw¡F§fŸ, Û£ò¡ FGit mªj ïl¤â‰F mD¥ò§fŸ” v‹wh®. “f¥gÈÈUªJ
xU kÅj® flÈš ÉGªJÉ£lh®”. Û£ò¡ FGÉd® clnd mtU¡F Ñœ¥goªJ, braÈš ïw§»d®.
.s
gaÂa® js¤âš T£lkhf Tl Mu«ã¤jd®. “v‹d elªjJ?” vd xUt® v‹id¡ nf£lh®. brŒâ
guÉaîl‹ midtU« gj‰wkhÆd®. “mnjh mt®” v‹D« Fuš m›t¥nghJ fhâš ÉGªjJ.
xUt® “ah® mt®?” vd nf£f, k‰wt® “bjÇahJ” vd gâyˤjh®. ïjÅilna ïu©L cÆ®fh¡F«
glFfŸ, flÈš ÉGªjtU¡F mUnf br‹wd. eh‹ nf¥lÅ‹ mU»š ËW bfh©nl‹. mtU¡»Uªj
w
gj£l¤âš mt® v‹ njhis tYthf g‰¿¡ bfh©lh®. “Ú§fŸ v‹id ntjidgL¤J»Ö®fŸ” vd eh‹
mtÇl« M£nrã¤nj‹.
“k‹Å¡f nt©L« m«kh, ï‹W flš bfhªjË¥ghf cŸsJ. v‹ M£fŸ mtiu rÇahd neu¤âš
w
163
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for full Book Order Online or Available at all Leading Bookstores
Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
eh‹ nf¥lÅ‹ bjhiyneh¡»ia th§»¥ gh®¤nj‹. ï¥nghJ v‹dhš Û£ò elto¡ifia bjËthf
Tamil Translation
gh®¡f KoªjJ. Û£ò¥ gl»š ïUªjt® tYthd fƉiw “ãoí§fŸ” vd T¿ago mªj ïU khYÄfËl«
v¿ªjh®. mij ão¤J¡ bfh©l mt®fŸ, ‘m§»is’ neh¡» Úªâd®.
xUt® mtiu ão¤J¡ bfhŸs, k‰bwhUt® mt® ïL¥ãš fƉiw f£odh®. ïUòwK« mt®fŸ ïU¡f,
ghJfh¥ghf fÆW« ïU¡f, uncle cl‹ ïUtU« cÆ®fh¡F« glFfis neh¡» Úªj Mu«ã¤jd®. Û£ò¡
m
FGÉd® mt®fŸ _tiuí« gl»‰FŸ ïK¤J¡ bfh©ld®. mªj¥ glFfŸ Éiuthf f¥giy neh¡» tu
Mu«ã¤jd.
‘flîns e‹¿’ vd T¿¡ bfh©nl nf¥l‹ áYit¡ F¿ia ï£L¡ bfh©lh®. “mt®fŸ mªj kÅjiu
fh¥gh‰¿ É£ld®”, v‹wh® nf¥l‹. mj‹ ã‹d®, ãokhd¤ij ão¤J¡ bfh©oUªj gaÂfËl« “mªj
co
kÅj® tªjîl‹, mtiu NHªJ¡ bfh©L ÉfhÔ®fŸ, mtU¡F kU¤Jt ftÅ¥ò njit”, v‹wh®
nf¥l‹. f¥gÈš kU¤JtU« ïU brÉÈaUl‹ ËW bfh©oUªjh®. ãokhd§fS¡F mU»š °£bu¢r®
(stretcher) bfh©L tu¥g£lJ.
“lh¡l®! nehahË¡fhf všyh« jahuhŒ cŸsjh?” vd nf¥l‹ nf£f, kU¤JtU« “M« nf¥l‹” v‹wh®.
ãwF nf¥l‹ f¥gÈ‹ Ãiyikia Óuh¡f m§»UªJ mf‹wh®. eh‹ lh¡lU¡F mUnf br‹W
s.
“mtU¡F Ú§fŸ v‹d brŒå®fŸ? mt® Fzkilthuh?” v‹W nf£nl‹.
“m¥go¤jh‹ Ãid¡»nw‹. mt® clÈÈUªJ Úiu btËna‰¿ É£L bra‰if Rthr« bfhL¤J,
cliy Nlh¡f nt©L«” v‹w lh¡lÇl« “v¥go Úiu btËna‰Wå®fŸ?” vd eh‹ nf£f, “mtuJ
tƉiw mK¡», mid¤J ÚU« btËnaW«go brhŒnth«”, v‹wh® kU¤Jt®.
ok
Û£ò¡ FGÉd® f¥giy milªjJ«, “m§»Ÿ” °£bu¢rÇš it¡f¥g£L kU¤Jtkid mikªJŸs
miw¡F bfh©L bršy¥g£lh®. “Ú nghŒ c‹ e©g®fSl‹ ÉisahL, vd¡F ntiy ïU¡»wJ. Mdhš,
eh‹ c‹id ã‹d® miH¥ng‹, m¥nghJ cd¡F X® M¢rÇaK« fh¤âU¡F«” v‹wh® nf¥l‹.
mt® ef®ªjîl‹ eh‹ bkJthf kU¤Jt miw¡F br‹W mt®fŸ nehahË¡F v‹d brŒ»wh®fŸ
v‹W gh®¤nj‹. ïu©L brÉÈa®, j£LfŸ Ãu«ò« msî¡F kUªJfŸ k‰W« áuŠRfis vL¤J¡
o
bfh©L, nghŒ-tªJ bfh©oUªjd®. k‰bwhUt®, m§»Ë‹ eidªj JÂfis vL¤J¡ bfh©L
ÉiuªJ bfh©oUªjh®. eh‹ mtiu ÃW¤â, “m§»Ÿ Ra Ãidî¡F âU«ãÉ£lhuh?” vd nf£f “ï‹D«
ïšiy, Mdhš mt® ï¥nghJ e‹whf ïU¡»wh®. ï‹D« á¿J neu¤âš mtU¡F Ãidî âU«ãÉL«”
ab
v‹wh®.
f¥gš Mo¡ bfh©nl ïUªjjhš, v‹dhš vªj Éisah£ilí« Éisahl ïayÉšiy. eh‹ br‹W
brsfÇakhd xU eh‰fhÈÆš (tunt‰giwÆš) mk®ªJ¡ bfh©L fij ò¤jf« go¤J¡ bfh©oUªnj‹.
vd¡F ka¡f« tUtJ nghy ïUªjJ. ka§» É£nl‹. m¥nghJ ahnuh xUt® “FHªjhŒ, vGªâU, c‹
bga® trªjh jhnd? j‹ nfã‹ miwÆš nf¥l‹ c‹id rªâ¡f ÉU«ò»wh®” vd¡ T¿dh®. eh‹
ur
ÉʤJ¥ gh®¡ifÆš v‹ vânu xU khYÄ Ã‹¿Uªjh®. mªj Û£ò elto¡if g‰¿í«, nf¥l‹ v‹Ål«
“eh‹ c‹id ã‹d® miH¡»nw‹” v‹W T¿aijí« ÃidîgL¤â¡ bfhŸs á¿J neu« ão¤jJ.
eh‹ mªj mâfhÇíl‹ (khYÄ) MtYl‹ nf¥lÅ‹ nfãD¡F¢ br‹nw‹. mªj khYÄ v‹id
nf¥l‹ miwÆ‹ fjtUnf ÃW¤â, “cŸns brš” v‹W T¿dh®. eh‹ fjit j£o É£L, cŸns
.s
br‹nw‹. miwÆ‹ k¤âÆš Ë¿Uªj nf¥l‹, v‹id¡ f©lJ« MtyhŒ ö¡»¡ bfh©lh®. v‹id
ÑnH ïw¡» ÉL« tiu ò‹dif¤J¡ bfh©nl ïUªjh®.
“c‹ e©g®fËl« brhšy cd¡F Ãiwa (Éõa«) ïU¡F«. ï¥nghJ c‹ f©fis _o¡ bfhŸ”
v‹W T¿dh®. ehD« m›thnw f©fis _o¡ bfh©nl‹. áy ÉehofS¡F¥ã‹ mt® “cd¡F
w
eh‹ v‹d it¤âU¡»nw‹ gh®” v‹W T¿aJ«, eh‹ f©fis¤ âwªjJ«, xU bgÇa gG¥ò (brown)
Ãw bg£oia¡ f©nl‹. mâš, “nf¥l‹ È‹£n[ (LINDSAY) É‹ áwªj ghuh£LfSl‹” v‹W
vGj¥g£oUªjJ.
mªj¥ bg£oia eh‹ MtYl‹ âwªJ gh®¤jJ« “v‹d X® mHfhd f¥gš” v‹W M¢rÇa¥g£nl‹.
w
PLAY
3 Jane Eyre
Tamil Translation
Unit
n#‹ vŒ®
m
Gateshead (nf£°bA£) v‹gJ ï§»yhªâš cŸs xU efu«. Jane Eyre v‹w áWÄ, jdJ jhŒ,
jªijaiu ïHªJ É£l 10 taJ bg©. mtŸ j‹ m¤ij Mrs. Reed k‰W« Eliza, John k‰W« Georgiana
v‹»w _‹W x‹W É£l cl‹ ãw¥òfSl‹ tá¤J tªjhŸ. Bessie v‹gtŸ mªj å£o‹ ntiy¡fhÇ.
: n#‹, ï‹W c‹ Éõk¤jd§fis xJ¡» it¤J ÉL. Mrs. Reed, fhiy czit
co
bg°Ì
c©Q« nghnj Äfî« ga§fukhd kdÃiyÆš ïUªjh®.
n#‹ : mt® v¥nghJ« v‹id f©fhÂ¥gâšiy. eh‹ gofËš ïw§» tU« r¤j«
nf£lJ«, mt® tunt‰ò miwÆš kiwªJ bfhŸ»wh®.
bg°Ì : eh‹ Georgiana (#h®Íahdh) k‰W« Eliza (vÈrh) g‰¿¥ ngR»nw‹. mt®fŸ
ïUtUlD« Ú jfuhW brŒahkš ïU¡f nt©L«. ïšiyba‹whš ånl gugu¥gh»
s.
ÉL«.
n#‹ : eh‹ ãu¢ridia Mu«ã¡f kh£nl‹. eh‹ khkhÉ‹ üyf¤âš mtUila
ò¤jf§fS¡»ilna x˪J bfhŸs¥ ngh»nw‹.
ok
(Jane jiuÆš mk®ªJ gl§fŸ ml§»a ò¤jf¤ij gh®¤J¡ bfh©oU¡»whŸ. John, Georgiana k‰W«
Eliza M»nah® tU»‹wd®.)
#h‹ : ïtŸ ï§nfjh‹ ïU¡»whŸ.
n#‹ : cd¡F v‹d nt©L«?
#h‹ : cd¡bf‹d nt©Lbkd v‹idna Ú nfŸÉ nf£»whah? v‹d ijÇa« cd¡F?
o
eh‹ miH¡F«nghJ Ú tunt©L«.
vÈrh : (n#id neh¡») Ú v‹d go¤J¡ bfh©oU¡»whŒ?
n#‹ : Bewick Dila M§»nya gwitfË‹ rǤâu« (History of British Birds).
ab
#h‹ : Ú v§fis rh®ªJ ïU¡»whŒ. v§fSila ò¤jf§fis vL¤J go¡f cd¡F vªj
cÇikí« ïšiy. v§fis¥ ngh‹w trâahd ca®ªj ãŸisfËl« Ú ã¢ir
nf£L thHyhnk jÉu, Tlnt tá¡f¡ TlhJ. c‹ jªij cd¡nfJ« É£L¢
bršyÉšiy. ï§»UªJ Éy» nghŒ fjî¡F mU»š Ú.
.s
[Jane áy mofŸ ef®ªjJ«, #h‹ ò¤jf¤ij vL¤J mtŸ ÛJ åádh‹. ã‹ Xo¢ br‹W mtŸ Koiaí«,
njhisí« g‰¿¥ ão¤J Vnjh x‹whš jh¡»dh‹. mtŸ jiyÆÈUªJ ïU©L
brh£L ïu¤j« fG¤âš áªâaJ. vÈrh ïij f©L T¢rÈl Bessie k‰W« Mrs. Reed
m§F tªjd®.]
w
[Bessie, n#id bu£%K¡F bfh©L tªJ ÉL»whŸ. n#‹ jiuÆš ÉGªJ mG»whŸ. mtS¡F áy
XirfS«, T¡FuY« nf£»wJ.]
n#‹ : Bessie! v‹id btËna ÉL§fŸ. vd¡F cjî§fŸ. [Mrs. Reed k‰W« Bessie
ïUtU« AhY¡F tªjd®.]
Ä[° ߣ : ï¥nghJ ïªj ga§fukhd bg©Q¡F v‹d tªjJ?
bg°Ì : n#‹, Ú e‹whf¤ jhnd ïU¡»whŒ?
n#‹ : jaî brŒJ v‹id btËna ÉL§fŸ.
165
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
n#‹ : vd¡F Vnjh fhâš nf£lJ! jaî brŒJ v‹id fjit âwªJ btËna ÉL§fŸ.
Ä[°. ߣ : T¢rÈLtij ÃW¤J. c‹ jªâu§fŸ v‹Ål« vLglhJ. eh‹ fhiyÆš jh‹
c‹id btËna ÉLnt‹.
[Jane mªj miwÆnyna »lªjhŸ. mtŸ f© ÉÊ¡ifÆš Bessie mtsUnf Ë¿UªjhŸ. Jane¡F
m
FH¥g« V‰g£lJ.]
n#‹ : Bessie eh‹ v§nf ïU¡»nw‹?
bg°Ì : n#‹, Ú btFneu« cw§»É£lhŒ. ïJ ïuî czî¡fhd neu«.
n#‹ : vd¡F fhŒ¢rš tªjJ nghy njh‹W»wJ.
co
bg°Ì : kU¤Jt® gh®¤JÉ£L br‹¿U¡»wh®. cd¡F fhŒ¢rš v‹W mt® T¿íŸsh®.
n#‹ : eh‹ ïw¡f¥ ngh»nwdh?
bg°Ì : xU thu¤âš c‹ clš Fzkh»ÉL«. Ú bu£%Äš »lªJ mGjjhš c‹ clš ey«
ghâ¡f¥g£lJ v‹W eh‹ fUJ»nw‹.
n#‹ : eh‹ mHÉšiy, Bessie. eh‹ Vnjh r¤j¤ij nf£nl‹. vijnah gh®¤nj‹.
s.
bg°Ì : cd¡F XŒî njit. c‹id Ú tU¤â¡ bfhŸshnj.
n#‹ : (fhyŠbr‹w) Uncle Reed I eh‹ gh®¤nj‹.
bg°Ì : cZ.... ïj‰Fnkš ngrhJ ïU. f©iz _o¡bfhŸ. eh‹ c‹Dl‹ ïU¡»nw‹.
ga¥glhnj.
ok
n#‹ : v‹dhš mij v¥nghJ« kw¡f ïayhJ. (n#‹ ö¡f¤âš MœªJÉ£lhŸ).
bg°Ì : gÇjhgkhd FHªij. ehD« mij e«ò»nw‹.
[ïªj r«gt¤â‰F ãwF Lowood v‹D« ïl¤âš xU gŸË¡Tl« el¤J« Mr. Brocklehurst v‹gtU¡F
Mrs. Reed xU foj« vGJ»whŸ. mt® Gateshead ¡F É#a« brŒ»wh®. ãwF Jane mtUl‹ Lowood
¡F mD¥g¥gL»whŸ.]
o
At Lowood (nyhî£ gŸËÆš)
[nyhî£ v‹gJ mdhij bg© FHªijfS¡fhd xU gŸËahF«. Lowood milªjJ« X£Ld® n#id
ab
vG¥ãdh®. Lowood‹ thƉfjîfË‹ mU»š mtis É£LÉ£lh®. m§F Miss. Miller k‰W« Miss.
Temple M»nahiu n#‹ rªâ¤jhŸ.]
İ Äšy® : Ú Jane Eyre jhnd?
n#‹ : M« nkl«.
ur
İ. Äšy® : ïªj tÊahf¥ nghfyh«. [İ bl«òŸ fh¤âU¡F« ïl¤ij mt®fŸ flªJ
br‹wd®.]
[Jane xU fU¥ò fš f£ll¤â‰FŸ EiHªjhŸ. midtU« mikâahŒ ïUªjd®. mtŸ vªj khztiuí«,
gh®¡fnth Fuiy nf£fnth ïšiy.]
.s
İ. bl«òŸ : İ. Äšy®, mtŸ gánahL ïU¡»whŸ. mâš rªnjfnkÆšiy. mtŸ gL¤J
cw§Ftj‰FŸ á¿J czî mË¡f nt©L«. [n#Ål«] Ú c‹ bg‰nwhiu É£L
tUtJ ïJ jh‹ Kjš Kiwah bg©nz?
n#‹ : v‹ bg‰nwh® ïwªJ É£ld®.
w
İ. Äšy® : mikâ. [clnd mªj bg©fŸ bksdkhÆd®] gh¤âu« fGt¢ bršY§fŸ.
[bg©fŸ m§F bršy jahuhdnghâY«, mt®fŸ ja§»d®] v‹d Éõa«? ïJ
Tamil Translation
gh¤âu« Jy¡F« neukhF«.
xU bg© : İ Äšy®.
İ. Äšy® : v‹d?
m
bg© : m§F Ú® kWgoí« ciwªJŸsJ.
İ. Äšy® : e‹whf nghƉW. gh¤âu§fis vL§fŸ.
[Miss. Temple cŸns tU»wh®.]
İ. Äšy® : òâjhŒ tªj áWÄia, eh‹ vªj tF¥ãš mDkâ¡f nt©L«
co
İ. bl«òŸ?
İ. bl«òŸ : 4 tJ ~ghu« tF¥ãš.
İ. Äšy® : Mdhš, ïtŸ Äfî« á¿atshŒ ïU¡»whns?
İ. bl«òŸ : mtshš vGj, go¡f ïaY«. mjdhš m§F mtshš e‹whf go¡f ïaY«.
İ. Äšy® : M« İ. bl«òŸ.
s.
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cŸns EiHªJ, c£fh®ªJ xU ò¤jf¤ij go¡»whŸ.]
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167
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brsfÇakhf¤ jh‹ cŸns‹. ïªj ïUkš jh‹ v‹id nrh®th¡» É£lJ. vd¡F
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ã‹, mtS¡F Thornfield v‹w ïl¤âš cŸs Mrs. Fairfax v‹gtÇlÄUªJ xU
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At Thornfield (njh®‹~Õš£ v‹w ïl¤âš)
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Ä[°. ~ng®ng¡° : ïšiy, vd¡F FL«g« »ilahJ. mtŸ âU. nuhá°lÇ‹
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tªJ mtUl‹ ngR.
İ. moyh : ïÅa fhiy tz¡f«, Miss. Jane.
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C ontents
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MATHEMATICS
s.
Units Name Page No.
2
3 Algebra
o ok
Percentage and simple interest 195 - 219
220 - 237
170
1
Chapter
Number System
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co
Representing a Decimal Number
To round a decimal
First underline the digit that is to be rounded. Then look at the digit to the right of the
s.
underlined digit.
If that digit is less than 5, then the underlined digit remains the same.
If that digit is greater than or equal to 5, add 1 to the underlined digit.
ok
After rounding of leave all the digits after the underlined digit.
4 4 ´ 25 100
2. What is the place value of 5 in 63.257.
Sol. Place value of 5 in 63.257 is 5 hundredths (Hundreth place)
3. Identify the digit in the tenth place of 75.036.
ur
Sol. 0
4. Express the decimal number 3.75 as a fraction.
375 15
Sol. 3.75 = =
100 4
.s
1
5. Write the decimal number for the fraction 5 .
5
1 26 26 ´ 2 52
Sol. 5 = = = = 5.2
5 5 5´2 10
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m
Unit 1
Exercise 1.1
1. Round each of the following decimals to the nearest whole number.
co
(i) 8.71 (ii) 26.01 (iii) 69.48 (iv) 103.72
(v) 49.84 (vi) 101.35 (vii) 39.814 (viii) 1.23
Sol. (i) 8.71
Underlining the digit to be rounded 8.71. Since the digit next to the underlined digit,
7 which is greater than 5, adding 1 to the underlined digit. Hence the nearest whole
s.
number 8.71 rounds to is 9.
(ii) 26.01
Underlining the digit to be rounded 26.01. Since the digit next to the underlined digit, 0
ok
which is less than 5, the underlined digit 6 remains the same.
∴ The nearest whole number 26.01 rounds to is 26.
(iii) 69.48
Underlining the digit to be rounded 69.48. Since the digit next to the underlined digit, 4
which is less than 5, the underlined digit 9 remains the same.
o
∴ The whole number is 69.48 rounds to is 69.
(iv) 103.72
ab
Underlining the digit to be rounded 103.72 since the digit next to the underlined digit, 7
which is greater than 5, we add 1 to the under lined digit.
Hence the nearest whole number 103.72 rounds to is 104.
(v) 49.84
Underlining the digit to be rounded 49.84. Since the digit next to the underlined digit 8
ur
Underlining the digit to be rounded 39.814. Since the digit next to the underlined digit 8
is greater than 5, we add 1 to the underlined digit.
Hence the nearest whole number 39.814 rounds to is 40.
(viii) 1.23
w
Underlining the digit to be rounded 1.23. Since the digit next to the underlined digit 2,
is less than 5, the underlined digit 1 remains the same.
Hence the nearest whole number 1.23 rounds to is 1.
w
m
4 less than 5 the underlined digit remains the same. Hence the rounded number is 35.001.
Number System
3. Round the following decimal numbers upto 1 places of decimal.
(i) 123.37 (ii) 19.99 (iii) 910.546
co
Sol. (i) 123.37
Rounding 123.37 upto one places of decimal means round to the nearest tenths place.
Underling the digit in the tenths place of 123.37 gives 123.37. Since the digit next to
the tenth place value is 7 which is greater than 5, we add 1 to the underlined digit to get
123.4. Hence the rounded value of 123.37 upto one places of decimal is 123.4.
s.
(ii) 19.99
Rounding 19.99 upto one places of decimal means round to the nearest tenth place.
Underling the digit in the tenths place of 19.99 gives 19.99. Since the digit next to the
(iii) 910.546 ok
tenth place value is 9 which is greater than 5, we add 1 to the underlined digit to get 20.
Hence the rounded value of 19.99 upto one places of decimal is 20.0.
Rounding 910.546 upto one places of decimal means round to the nearest tenths place
o
underlining the digit in the tenths place of 910.546 gives 910.546. Since the digit next
to the tenth place value is 4, which is less than 5 the underlined digit remains the same.
Hence the rounded value of 910.546 upto one places of decimal is 910.5.
ab
Rounding 87.755 upto 2 places of decimal means round to the nearest hundredths place.
Underlining the digit in the hundredth place of 87.755 gives 87.755. Since the digit next
to the hundredth place value is 5, we add 1 to the underlined digit.
Hence the rounded value of 87.755 upto two places of decimal is 87.76.
.s
(ii) 301.513
Rounding 301.51 upto 2 places of decimal means round to the nearest hundredths place.
Underlining the digit in the hundredth place of 301.513 gives 301.513. Since the digit
w
next to the underlined digit 3 is less than 5, the underlined digit remains the same.
∴ The rounded value of 301.513 upto 2 places of decimal is 301.51.
(iii) 79.997
w
Rounding 79.997 upto 2 places of decimal means round to the nearest hundredths place.
Underlining the digit in the hundredth place of 79.997 gives 79.997. Since the digit next
to the underlined digit 7 is greater than 5, we add 1 to the underlined number.
Hence the rounded value of 79.997 upto 2 places of decimal is 80.00.
w
∴ The underlined digit remains the same. So the rounded value of 24.4003 upto 3 places
of decimal is 24.400.
(b) 1251.2345
Rounding 1251.2345 upto 3 places of decimal means rounding to the nearest thousandths
place. Underlining the digit in the thousandths place of 1251.2345 gives 1251.2345, the
m
digit next to the thousandths place value is 5 and so we add 1 to the underlined digit. So
Unit 1
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place. Underlining the digit in the thousandth place of 61.00203 gives 61.00203. In
61.00203, the digit next to the thousandths place value is 0, which is less than 5.
Hence the underlined digit remains the same. So the rounded value of 61.00203 upto 3
places of decimal is 61.002.
s.
Additional Questions
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1. Match the following:
1. 39.814 ≈ 39.8 (i) Rounded to hundredth place
2. 35.0014 ≈ 35.001 (ii) Rounded to ten thousandth place
3. 21.805 21.81 (iii) Rounded to nearest whole number
o
4. 8.71 ≈ 9 (iv) Rounded to thousandth place
5. 61.00208 ≈ 61.00221 (v) Rounded to tenth place
ab
Sol. Rounding 87.777 upto 2 places of decimal means round to the nearest hundredths place.
Underlining the digit in the hundredth place of 87.777 gives 87.777. Since the digit after
the hundredth place value is 7 which is more than 5, we add 1 to the underlined digit. So the
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Adding zeros at the right end of decimal digits will not change the value of the number.
Zeros are added at the right end of decimal digits of a decimal number that are to be added or
subtracted.
m
83 4
0.83 = and 0.04 =
Number System
100 100
Shading the regions
co
0.83 and 0.04
The sum is the total shaded region.
S = 0.83 + 0.04 = 0.87
s.
35 9
0.35 = and 0.09 =
100 100
Shading the regions 0.35 by shading 35 boxes out of 100.
ok
Striking off 9 boxes out of 35 shaded boxes to subtract 0.09
from 0.35.
The left over shaded boxes represent the required value.
∴ 0.35 – 0.09 = 0.26
o
TRY THESE (Text book Page No. 7)
ab
Sol. (i)
ur
1.2
3.5 4.7
.s
Here 1.2 is represented in blue colour and 3.5 is represented in Green colour. Sum of 1.2 and
3.5 is 4.7.
(ii) 3.5 − 2.3
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Representing 3.5 using 3 squares and 5 rectangular strips. Crossing out 2 squares from
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3 squares and 3 rectangular strips from 5 to get the difference. So 3.5 – 2.3 = 1.2.
Complete the magic square in such a way that rows, columns and diagonals give the same
sum 1.5. Sol.
0.8 0.6 0.8 0.1 0.6
0.5 0.3 0.5 0.7
0.4 0.4 0.9 0.2
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
Exercise 1.2
1. Add by using grid 0.51+0.25.
51 25
Sol. Here 0.51 = and 0.25 = .
100 100
m
Unit 1
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(i) 25.8 + 18.53 (ii) 17.4 + 23.435
Sol. (i) 25.8 + 18.53.
Using place value grid.
Decimal No Tens Ones Tenths Hundredths
s.
25.8 2 5 8 0
18.53 1 8 5 3
44.33 4 4 3 3
Therefore 25.8 + 18.53 = 44.33
(ii) 17.4 + 23.435
Lets use the place value grid.
Decimal No
o
Tens Ones
ok
Tenths Hundredths Thousandths
17.4 1 7 4 0 0
ab
23.435 2 3 4 3 5
40.835 4 0 8 3 5
Therefore 17.4 + 23.435 = 40.835
3. Find the value of 0.46 − 0.13 by grid model.
ur
46 13
Sol. Here 0.46 = and 0.13 =
100 100
Shading the region 0.46 and then crossing out 0.13 from the shaded
area. The left out shaded region without cross marks is the difference.
.s
6.567 6 5 6 7
2.664 2 6 6 4
Therefore 9.231 – 6.567 = 2.664
w
m
(–) 27.89
Number System
31.01
(–) 17.00
co
14.01
6. Sulaiman bought 3.350 kg of Potato, 2.250 kg of Tomato and some onions. If the weight
of the total items are 10.250 kg, then find the weight of onions?
Sol. Weight of Potato = 3.350 kg
s.
Weight of Tomato = 2.250 kg
Total weight of Potato and Tomato = (3.350 + 2.250 kg)
= 5.600 kg
ok
Weight of potato, tomato and onions = 10.250
Weight of potato and tomato = 5.600
∴ Weight of onions = (10.250 – 5.600) kg = 4.650 kg
Weight of onions = 4.650 kg
o
7. What should be subtracted from 7.1 to get 0.713? 7.100
Sol. To get the number to be subtracted (–) 0.713
ab
Sol. Perimeter of an equilateral triangle = (Side + Side + Side) Sq. units. 3.8
Given side = 3.8 (+) 3.8
∴ Perimeter = 3.8 + 3.8 + 3.8
(+) 3.8
Perimeter of the triangle = 11.4 cm
11.4
m
Unit 1
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6 9 10
(i) 3.47 (ii) 4.17 7.00
(iii) 7.34 (iv) 4.73 (–) 2.83
4.17
s.
Hint :
13. Subtract 1.35 from 3.51 4 11
ok
(iii) 8.64 (iv) 2.16 2.16
1. If Sheela bought 2.083 kg of grapes and 3.752 kg of orange. What is the total weight of
fruits.
2.083
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2. Kathir bought 8.72 kg of sugar, 7.302 kg of grains. His carry bag can contain only 15kg
of weight. What is the remaining weight of items bought?
Sol. Weight of sugar = 8.72 kg (+)
w
m
21.277 2 1 2 7 7
Number System
Multiplication of Decimal Numbers
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The number of decimal digits in the product of two decimal numbers is equal to the sum of
decimal digits of decimal digits that are multiplied.
When a decimal number is multiplied by 10, 100 or 1000, the digits in the product are same as
in the decimal number but the decimal point in the product is shifted to the right by as many
s.
places as there are zeros followed by 1.
ok
How are the products 2.1 × 3.2 and 21 × 32 alike? How are they different.
Sol. 2.1 × 3.2 = 6.72 and 21 × 32 = 672.
In both the cases the digits ambers are the same. But the place value differs.
TRY THESE
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(Text book Page No. 13)
Yellow
1 2 3 4 5 6
7 8 9 10 11 12 Red
13 14 15 16 17 18
Orange
ur
.s
3 rows of Yellow represent 0.3, 6 columns of Red colour represent 0.6 Double shaded 18
squares of orange colour represent.
w
m
235
Unit 1
= = 23.5
10
235 7.63 × 100 = 763 63.237 × 100 = 6323.7
co
2.35 × 100 = × 100
100
= 235 = 235.0
235 7.63 × 1000 = 7630 63.237 × 1000 = 63237
2.35 × 1000 = × 1000
100
s.
= 2350.0
6 6 6
0.6 × 10 = × 10 0.6 × 100 = × 100 0.6 × 1000 = × 1000
ok
10 10 10
=6 = 60 = 600
TRY THESE
o
(Text book Page No. 15)
116 1 116
11.6 × 0.1 ´ 1.16
10 10 100
.s
116 1 116
11.6 × 0.01 ´ 0.116
10 100 1000
116 1 116
11.6 × 0.001 ´ 0.0116
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10 1000 10000
Exercise 1.3
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(iii) 50.2 × 4
502 × 4 = 2008 50.2 1 decimal place
×4
50.2 × 4 = 200.8
200.8 1 decimal place
(vi) 0.03 × 9
3×9 = 27
m
0.03 × 9 = 0.27
Number System
(v) 453.03 × 7 453.03 2 decimal places
45303 × 7 = 317121 ×7
3171.21 2 decimal places
co
453.03 × 7 = 3171.21
(vi) 4 × 0.7
4×7 = 28
4 × 0.7 = 2.8
2.
s.
Find the area of the parallelogram whose base is 6.8 cm and height is 3.5 cm.
Sol. Base of the parallelogram b = 6.8 cm 6.8 1 decimal place
× 3.5 1 decimal place
Height of the parallelogram h = 3.5 cm 340
ok
Area of the parallelogram A = b × h sq.units = 6.8 × 3.5 cm2 2040
Area of the parallelogram = 23.80 cm2 23.80 2 decimal places
3. Find the area of the rectangle whose length is 23.7 cm and breadth is 15.2 cm.
Sol. Length of the rectangle l = 23.7 cm
o
23.7 1 decimal place
Breadth of the rectangle b = 15.2 cm × 15.2 1 decimal place
474
Area of the rectangle A = l × b sq.units
ab
2
11850
= 23.7 × 15.2 cm 12700
Area of the rectangle = 360.24 cm2 360.24 2 decimal places
(v) 62.735 × 100 (vi) 0.7 × 10 (vii) 0.03 × 100 (viii) 0.4 × 1000
Sol. (i) 2.57×10 = 25.7
(ii) 0.51×10 = 5.1
.s
5. A wheel of a baby cycle covers 49.7 cm in one rotation. Find the distance covered in 10
rotations.
Sol. Length covered in 1 rotation = 49.7 cm
w
m
36 × 3 = 108 ×0.3 1 decimal place
Unit 1
co
52.3 × 0.1 = 5.23
(iii) 537.4 × 0.2 537.4 1 decimal place
5374 × 2 = 10748 × 0.2 1 decimal place
537.4 × 0.2 = 107.48 107.48 2 decimal places
s.
(iv) 0.6 × 0.06
6 × 6 = 36
0.6 × 0.06 = 0.036
ok
(v) 62.2 × 0.23 62.2 1 decimal place
622 × 23 = 14306 × 0.23 2 decimal places
1866
62.2 × 0.23 = 14.306
12440
(vi) 1.02 × 0.05 14.306 3 decimal places
o
102 × 5 = 510
1.02 × 0.05 = 0.0510
ab
9. 2.08 × 10 = ________
(i) 20.8 (ii) 208.0 (iii) 0.208 (iv) 280.0 [Ans : (i) 20.8]
Hint : 208 × 10 = 2080
2.08 × 10 = 20.80 = 20.8
10. A frog jumps 5.3 cm in one jump. The distance travelled by the frog in 10 jumps is
______.
(i) 0.53 cm (ii) 530 cm (iii) 53.0 cm (iv) 53.5 cm
[Ans : (iii) 53.0 cm]
Hint : 53 × 10 = 530
m
5.3 × 10 = 53.0
Number System
Additional Questions
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1. Cost of 1m cloth is ` 6.75. Find the cost of 14.75m correct to two places of decimal.
Sol. Cost of 1 m cloth = ` 6.75 14.75 2 decimal places
Cost of 14.75m cloth = 14.75 × 6.75 × 6.75 2 decimal places
s.
7375
= ` 99.5625
103250
= ` 99.56 885000
99.5625 4 decimal places
2.
Sol. Side of a square
Area of a square
o= 18.35 cm
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Length of a side of a square is 18.35 cm. Find its Area.
obtained decimal number after division is shifted to the left by as many places as there are
zeros followed by 1.
.s
Division of Integers
w
Divide the following (i) 17.237 ÷ 10 (ii) 17.237 ÷ 100 (iii) 17.237 ÷1000
17237 1 17237
Sol. (i) 17.237 ÷ 10 = × = = 1.7237
1000 10 10000
m
Unit 1
17237 1 17237
(ii) 17.237 ÷ 100 = × = = 0.17237
1000 100 100000
17237 1 17237
co
(iii) 17.237 ÷1000 = × = = 0.017237
1000 1000 1000000
s.
(i) 46.2 ÷ 3 = ? (ii) 71.6 ÷ 4 = ? (iii) 23.24 ÷ 2 = ? 154
ok
462 1 16
Sol. (i) 46.2 ÷ 3 = ´
10 3 15
1 462 1 12
= ´ = × 154
10 3 10 12
o
154 0
= = 15.4
10
ab
716 1
(ii) 71.6 ÷ 4 = ´
10 4 179
=
1
×
716 )
4 716
10 4 4
ur
1 31
= × 179
10 28
= 17.9 36
.s
2324 1 36
(iii) 23.24 ÷ 2 = ´ 0
100 2
2324 1 1
w
= × = 1162 ×
2 100 100
1162 1415
=
100
)
9 12735
w
9
= 11.62 37
36
12735 1
(iv) 127.35 ÷ 9 = ´ 13
w
100 9 9
12735 1 1 45
= ´ = 1415 ×
9 100 100 45
1415 0
= = 14.15
100
47201 1 6743
(v) ´ 47.201 ÷ 7 = )
7 47201
1000 7 42
47201 1 37
= × 49
7 1000 30
1 6743
m
28
= 6743 × = = 6.743
1000 1000 21
Number System
21
0
co
TRY THESE (Text book Page No. 22)
s.
çè ÷
9.25 100 ø 925 100 925
Sol. (i) = = ´ = = 37
0.25 æ 25 ö 100 25 25
çè ÷
100 ø
(ii)
o 8.6
4.3
=
æ 43 ö
çè ÷ø
æ 441ö
ok
æ 86 ö
çè ÷ø
10
10
=
86 10
´
10 43
=
86
43
=2
çè ÷
44.1 10 ø 441 100
(iii) = = ´ = 21 × 10 = 210
ab
0.21 æ 21 ö 10 21
çè ÷
100 ø
æ 96 ö
9.6 çè ÷ø 96 10
10
(iv) = = ´ =8
1.2 æ 12 ö 10 12
ur
çè ÷ø
10
The price of a tablet strip containing 30 tablets is 22.63 Then how will you find the
price of each tablet?
2263
Sol. Price of 30 tablets = ` 22.63 = `
w
100
æ 2263 ö æ 2263 ö
çè ÷ çè ÷
100 ø 100 ø
∴ Price of 1 tablet = =
w
30 æ 30 ö
çè ÷ø
2263 1 1
= ´
100 30
w
2263 1 2263 1
= ´ = ´
30 100 3 1000
1 754.33
= 754.33 × = = 0.75433
1000 1000
Price of each tablet is ` 0.7543
Exercise 1.4
1. Simplify the following.
(i) 0.6 ÷ 3 (ii) 0.90 ÷ 5 (iii) 4.08 ÷ 4 (iv) 21.56 ÷ 7
(v) 0.564 ÷ 6 (vi) 41.36 ÷ 4 (vii) 298.2 ÷ 3
m
Unit 1
6 1 6 1 1 2
Sol. (i) 0.6 ÷ 3 = ´ = ´ =2× = = 0.2
10 3 3 10 10 10
co
90 1 90 1 1 18
(ii) 0.90 ÷ 5 = ´ = ´ = 18 × = = 0.18
100 5 5 100 100 100
408 1 408 1 1 102
(iii) 4.08 ÷ 4 = ´ = ´ = 102 × = = 1.02
100 4 4 100 100 100
s.
2156 1 2156 1 1 308
(iv) 21.56 ÷ 7 = ´ = ´ = 308 × = = 3.08
100 7 7 100 100 100
ok
564 1 564 1 94
(v) 0.564 ÷ 6 = ´ = ´ = = 0.094
1000 6 6 1000 1000
4136 1 4136 1 1034
(vi) 41.36 ÷ 4 = ´ = ´ = = 10.34
100 4 4 100 100
o
2982 1 2982 1 994
(vii) 298.2 ÷ 3 = ´ = ´ = = 99.4
10 3 3 10 10
ab
9 1 9
(iii) 0.9 ÷ 10 = × = = 0.09
10 10 100
301301 1 301301
w
62 1 62
(vi) 0.062 ÷ 10 = × = = 0.0062
1000 10 10000
w
38 1 38
(ii) 3.8 ÷ 100 = × = = 0.038
10 100 1000
493 1 493
(iii) 49.3 ÷ 100 = × = = 0.493
10 100 1000
46385 1 46385
m
(iv) 463.85 ÷ 100 = × = = 4.6385
100 100 10000
Number System
3 1 3
(v) 0.3 ÷ 100 = × = = 0.003
10 100 1000
co
274 1 274
(vi) 27.4 ÷ 100 = × = = 0.274
10 100 1000
s.
(v) 382.4 ÷ 1000 (vi) 93.8 ÷ 1000
189 1 189
Sol. (i) 18.9 ÷ 1000 = × = = 0.0189
ok
10 1000 10000
87 1 87
(ii) 0.87 ÷ 1000 = × = = 0.00087
100 1000 100000
493 1 493
(iii) 49.3 ÷ 100 = × = = 0.493
o
10 100 1000
3 1 3
(iv) 0.3 ÷ 1000 = × = = 0.0003
10 1000 10000
ab
3824 1 3824
(v) 382.4 ÷ 1000 = × = = 0.3824
10 1000 10000
938 1 938
(vi) 93.8 ÷ 1000 = × = = 0.0938
ur
10 1000 10000
æ 24 ö 10 24 24
çè ÷ø
10
æ 495 ö
çè ÷
w
æ ´ 11ö19
çè ÷
100 ø 1911 10
(iii) 19.11 ÷ 1.3 = = ´
æ ö13 100 13
çè ÷ø
10
1911 10 1 147
= × = 147 × = = 14.7
13 100 10 10
æ 399 ö
çè ÷
1000 ø 399 10
(iv) 0.399 ÷ 2.1 = = ´
21 1000 21
19
399 10
10
)
21 399
m
= ´ 21
Unit 1
21 1000
1 19 189
= 19 × = = 0.19 189
100 100
co
æ 54 ö 0
çè ÷ø 54 10
10
(v) 5.4 ÷ 0.6 = = ´
æ 6ö 10 6
çè ÷ø
10
s.
54
= =9
6
æ 2197 ö
çè ÷
ok
169
1000 ø 2197 10 )
13 2197
(vi) 2.197 ÷1.3 = = ´
æ 13 ö 1000 13 13
çè ÷ø
10 89
1 78
= 169 ×
100 117
o
169 117
= = 1.69
100 0
ab
6. Divide 9.55 kg of sweet among 5 children. How much will each child get?
Sol. Weight of the sweet = 9.55 kg
955
Weight of sweet for 5 children = kg
100
ur
æ 955 ö
çè ÷
100 ø 955 1 955
´
1
Weight of sweet for 1 child = = × =
5 100 5 5 100
191
.s
= = 1.91
100
Each child will get 1.91 kg sweet.
7. A vehicle covers a distance of 76.8 km for 1.2 litre of petrol. How much distance will it
w
çè ÷
10 ø
∴ For 1 litre of petrol distance covered = km
1.2
æ 768 ö
w
çè ÷
10 ø 768 10
´
= =
æ 12 ö 10 12
çè ÷ø
10
768 10
= ´ = 64 km
12 10
For 1 litre of petrol distance covered = 64 km.
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
8. Cost of levelling a land at the rate of ` 15.50 sq. ft is ` 10,075. Find the area of the land.
Sol. Cost of levelling the entire land = ` 10, 075
Cost of levelling 1 sq. ft = ` 15.50
Cost of levelling entire land
∴ Area of the land =
Cost of levelling 1 sq. ft.
m
650
20150
10075 100 10075 ´ 100 1007500
Number System
= × = = 100750
15.50 100 15.50 ´ 100 1550
155 31
100750 1
co
= = 650
155
∴ Area of the land = 650 sq.ft.
9. The cost of 28 books are ` 1506.4. Find the cost of one book.
Sol. Cost of 28 books = ` 1506.4
s.
15064 538
3766
1506.4 15064 1 15064
Cost of 1 book = = 10 = ´
28 28 10 28 28 7
ok
1
1
15064 1 1 538
= ´ = 538 × = = ` 53.80
28 10 10 10
Cost of 1 book = ` 53.80
o
10. The product of two numbers is 40.376. One number is 14.42. Find the other number.
28
Sol. Product of two numbers = 40.376
ab
2884
One number = 14.42 20188
40376 40376
40.376 1442
Another number = = 1000 721
14.42 1442 103
ur
100 1
40376 100 40376 100
= ´ = ´
1000 1442 1442 1000
1 28
.s
= 28 × = = 2.8
10 10
Other number = 2.8
= 11.2 5
06
5
10
10
0
m
= 67
Unit 1
18
21
co
21
13. 0.05 ÷ 0.5 = ? 0
(i) 0.01 (ii) 0.1 (iii) 0.10 (iv) 1.0 [Ans: (ii) 0.1]
5
s.
0.05
Hint : = 100 = 5 ´ 10 = 1 = 0.1
0.5 5 100 5 10
10
1.
Additional Questions
ok
A wire of length 363.987m is cut into 30 pieces. What is the length of each piece?
Sol. Length of the wire = 363.987m
o
363987
i.e Total length of 30 pieces = m
1000
ab
æ 363987 ö
çè ÷
1000 ø 363987 ´ 1 363987 1
∴ Length of 1 piece = = = ×
30 1000 30 30 1000
1
ur
= 12132.9 ×
1000
Length of 1 piece of wire = 12.1329m
2. A cake of 50kg needs 23.4 kg sugar. Find the weight of cake made by 1 kg of sugar.
.s
50 10 500
= ´ = = 2.1367 kg
23.4 10 234
¾ 2.14 kg
w
Exercise 1.5
Miscellaneous Practice problems
1. Malini bought three ribbon of lengths 13.92 m, 11.5 m and 10.64 m. Find the total length
m
of the ribbons?
Number System
Sol. Length of ribbon 1 = 13.92 m 13.92
Length of ribbon 2 = 11.50 m + 11.50
co
Length of ribbon 3 = 10.64 m 10.64
Total Length of the ribbons = 13.92 m + 11.5 m + 10.64 m = 36.06 m 36.06
Total length of the ribbons= 36.06m
2. Chitra has bought 10 kg 35 g of ghee for preparing sweets. She used 8 kg 59 g of ghee.
s.
How much ghee will be left?
Sol. Total weight of ghee bought = 10 kg 35 g
Weight of ghee used = 8 kg 59 g 10.35
– 8.59
ok
Weight of ghee left = 10.35 kg – 8.59 kg = 1.76 kg
1.76
∴ Weight of ghee left= 1 kg 76 g = 1.76 kg
3. If the capacity of a milk can is 2.53 l, then how much milk is required to fill 8 such cans?
Sol. Capacity of 1 milk can= 2.53 l 2.53
o
∴ Capacity of 8 milk cans= 2.53 l × 8 = 20.24 l × 8
To fill 8 cans 20.24 l of milk is required. 20.24
ab
4. A basket of orange weighs 22.5 kg. If each family requires 2.5 kg of orange, how many
families can share?
Sol. Total weight of orange = 22.5 kg
Weight of orange required for 1 family = 2.5 kg
ur
A baker uses 3.924 kg of sugar to bake 10 cakes of equal size. How much sugar is used in
each cake?
Sol. For 10 cakes sugar required = 3.924 kg
3.924
w
7. Murugan bought some bags of vegetables. Each bag weighs 20.55 kg. If the total weight
of all the bags is 308.25 kg, how many bags did he buy?
Sol. Total weight of all bags = 308.25 kg
Weight of 1 bag = 20.55 kg 2055
6165
Total weight 30825
∴ Number of bags =
m
Weight of 1 bag
Unit 1
2055
411
æ 30825 ö 137
308 × 25 çè ÷
100 ø
= 20 × 55 = æ 2055 ö
co
15
çè ÷
100 ø
)
137 2055
137
30825 100
= ´ 685
100 2055
685
s.
2055
30825 2055 0
= = = 15
2055 137 137
∴ He bought 15 bags.
8.
10. A printer can print 15 pages per minute. How many pages can it print in 4.6 minutes?
Sol. In 1 minute the pages printed = 15 4.6 1 decimal place
In 4.6 minutes the pages printed = 15 × 4.6 15
230
.s
= 69 460
The printer prints 69 pages. 69.0 1 decimal place
w
Challenge Problems
11. The distance travelled by Prabhu from home to Yoga centre is 102 m and from Yoga
w
centre to school is 165 m. What is the total distance travelled by him in kilometres (in
decimal form)?
Sol. Distance from home to yoga centre = 102 m (+)
w
12. Anbu and Mala travelled from A to C in two different routes. Anbu travelled from place
A to place B and from there to place C. A is 8.3 km from B and B is 15.6 km from C. Mala
travelled from place A to place D and from there to place C. D is 7.5 km from A and C is
16.9 km from D. Who travelled more and by how much distance?
Sol. Distance travelled by Anbu:
m
From place A to place B = 8.3 km
Number System
Distance from place B to place C = 15.6 km
∴ Total distance travelled by Anbu = 8.3 + 15.6
= 23.9 km
co
Distance travlled by Mala:
Distance travelled place A to D = 7.5 km
Distance from place D to place C = 16.9 km
Total distance travelled by mala = (7.5 + 16.9) km = 24.4 km
s.
24.4 > 23.9
∴ Mala travelled more distance. She travelled (24.4 – 23.9) km more i.e she travelled 0.5 km
more.
13.
Sol.
has to pay totally as taxi fare for a week?
ok
Ramesh paid ` 97.75 per hour for a taxi and he used 35 hours in a week. How much he
278120
100 278120 1
= = ´
6 ( )
1
100 6
278120 1 1
w
= ´ = 46353 ×
6 100 100
= 463.53 km
w
Sol. Distance travelled with 1 litre fuel = 12.6 km × 25.8 1 decimal place
∴ with 25.8 litres distance travelled = 12.6 × 25.8 1008
= 325.08 km 6300
25200
The car can travel 325.08 km 325.08 2 decimal places
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
Unit Test
Time: 1 hr Max Marks : 25
I. Fill in the blanks. 5×1=5
1. 67.4 rounds to the nearest whole number is _______.
m
Unit 1
co
5. 8.764 + 9.32 = _____.
s.
7. Cost of 5 kg apple is ` 498.976. Cost of 5 kg orange is ` 270.730. Find the total amount to be
paid?
8. A wheel covers 50.3 cm in one rotation. Find the distance covered on 10 rotations.
ok
9. Find the area of a square if one side is 4.93 cm.
10. If the area of a room is 110.32 sq.ft. If it is covered by 20 tiles perfectly what is the area of 1
tile?
Answers
I. 1. 67 2. 87.01
ur
3. 80.010 4. 9.2
5. 18.084
II. 6. 4.469 7. ` 769.706
.s
w
w
Percentage And
2
Chapter
Simple Interest
m
Converting Fractions Into percentage
co
Percent is derived from the Latin word ‘Per centum’ meaning ‘per hundred’
Percent is denoted by the symbol ‘%’
Percentage is a fraction with denominator hundred.
s.
To convert a fraction as percentage multiply the numerator and denominator of the
fraction by 100.
To convert a percentage as fraction write it as fraction with denominator 100.
Find the percentage of children whose scores fall in different categories given in
o
table below.
Colour Number of Students Fraction Percentage
ab
25
Below 60 25 25%
100
23
60 – 80 23 23%
ur
100
42
81 – 90 42 42%
100
.s
9
91 – 99 9 9%
100
1
w
Centum 1 1%
100
100
Total 100 100%
w
100
There are 50 students in class VII of a school. The number of students involved in these activities
are :
Scout : 7 Red Ribbon Club : 6 Junior Red Cross : 9
Green Force : 3 Sports : 14 Cultural activity : 11
Find the percentage of students who involved in various activities.
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
m
50 50 ´ 2 100
Unit 2
9 9´2 18
3. Junior Red Cross 9 = ⇒ 18%
50 50 ´ 2 100
co
3 3´ 2 6
4. Green Force 3 = ⇒ 6%
50 50 ´ 2 100
14 14 ´ 2 28
5. Sports 14 = ⇒ 28%
s.
50 50 ´ 2 100
11 11 ´ 2 22
6. Cultural Activity 11 = ⇒ 22%
50 50 ´ 2 100
TRY THESE
Total
o 50
ok 100
100
100%
1 13 45
(i) (ii) (iii)
20 25 50
18 27 72
(iv) (v) (vi)
5 10 90
ur
1 1 100 1
Sol. (i) = ´ = × 100% = 5%
20 20 100 20
13 13 100 13
(ii) = ´ = × 100% = 52%
25 25 100 25
.s
45 45 100 45
(iii) = ´ = × 100% = 90%
50 50 100 50
18 18 100 18
w
72 72 100 72
(vi) = ´ = × 100% = 80%
90 90 100 90
w
75 3
(ii) 75% = =
100 4
250 25 5
(iii) 250% = = =
100 10 2
m
1 æ 151 ö
co
7
7 20 = 7 7
(v) % = =
20 100 20 ´ 100 2000
90 9
(vi) 90% = =
s.
100 10
1.
2.
100 ok
What is the difference between 0.01 and 1%.
Sol. 0.01 =
1
= 1% 0.01 and 1% are the same.
o
In a readymade shop there will be a board showing upto 50% off. Most of the people will
realize that everything is half of its original price, Is that true?
Sol. No. Only some of them are half of its original price.
ab
Exercise 2.1
1. In each of the following grid, find the numbers of coloured squares and express it as a
fraction, decimal and percentage.
ur
100
Decimal : 0.58
Percentage : 58%
w
m
50 2 100
Unit 2
25 100 25
Percentage : ´ = × 100% = 50%
50 100 50
co
(iv) Number of coloured square = 17
Total number of squares = 25
17
∴ Fraction :
25
17 4 68
s.
Decimal : ´ = = 0.68
25 4 100
17 100 17
Percentage : ´ = × 100% = 68%
25 100 25
(v) Number of coloured square
Total number of squares
∴ Fraction
o = 15
= 30
:
15
30
ok
15 1 50 50
Decimal : = ´ = = 0.50
30 2 50 100
ab
15 15 100 15
Percentage : = ´ = × 100% = 50%
30 30 100 30
2. A picture of chess board is given. (i) Find the percentage of the white coloured squares.
(ii) Find the percentage of gray coloured squares.(iii) Find the percentage of the squares
ur
that have the pieces and (iv) The squares that do not have the pieces.
Sol. (i) Total number of squares in the chess board = 64
Number of white coloured squares = 32
32 100
.s
Percentage = ´
64 100
32
= × 100% = 50%
w
64
(ii) Grey coloured squares = 64
32 100 32
Percentage = ´ = × 100% = 50%
w
64 100 64
(iii) Number of squares having pieces = 20
Total number of squares = 64
w
5
10
20 100 20 25
125% 1
Percentage = ´ = ´ 100 % = = 31 %
64 100 64 4 4
32
16
4
Percentage = 44 100 44 25
275% = 68 3 %
´ = = 100 % =
64 100 64 4 4
16
4
m
3. A picture of dart board is given. Find the percentage of white coloured portion and black
co
Black coloured sector = 10
10 100
Percentage of white : ´
20 100
10
Decimal : × 100% = 50%
s.
20
10 100
Percentage of black colour : ´
20 100
ok
10
Decimal : × 100% = 50%
20
4. Write each of the following fraction as percentage.
36 81 42 1 3
o
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 2 (v) 1
50 30 56 4 5
36 36 100 36
ab
3 8 8 100 8
(v) 1 = = ´ = × 100% = 160%
5 5 5 100 5
5.
w
Anbu scored 436 marks out of 500 in his exams. What was the percentage he scored?
Sol. Total marks = 500; Anbu's Score = 436
436 100 436
Percentage = ´ = × 100% = 87.2%
w
(i) 21% (ii) 93.1% (iii) 151% (iv) 65% (v) 0.64%
21
Sol. (i) 21% =
100
93.1 93.1 ´ 10 931
(ii) 93.1% = = =
100 100 ´ 10 1000
151
(iii) 151% =
100
65 13
(iv) 65% = =
100 20
m
0.64 0.64 ´ 100 64 4
(v) 0.64% = = = =
Unit 2
7. Iniyan bought 5 dozen eggs. Out of that 5 dozen eggs, 10 eggs are rotten. Express the
co
number of good eggs as percentage.
Sol. 1 dozen eggs = 12
5 dozen = 5 × 12
Total eggs = 60 eggs
Rotten eggs = 10
s.
Good eggs = 60 – 10 = 50
50
Fraction of good eggs =
ok
60
50 100 50 5
Percentage of good eggs = ´ = × 100% = ×100% = 83.33%
60 100 60 6
Percentage of good eggs = 83.33%
8.
o
In an election, Candidate X secured 48% of votes. What fraction will represent his votes?
48
Sol. Percentage of votes × secured = 48% =
ab
100
12
Fraction of votes × secured =
25
9. Ranjith total income was ` 7,500. He saved 25% of his total income. Find the amount
ur
saved by him.
Sol. Total income of Ranjith = `7500
25 25
His savings = 25% of 7500 = of 7500 = × 7500 = `1,875
100 100
.s
10. Thendral saved one fourth of her salary. Her savings percentage is
3 1
(i) (ii) % (iii) 25% (iv) 1%
w
4 4
1 100 1
Hint : ´ = ´ 100% = 25% [Ans : (iii) 25%]
4 100 4
w
12. 0.07% is
7 7 7 7
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
10 100 1000 10, 000
7
0.07 100 7 7 7
Hint : 0.07%
0.071== = = = [Ans : (iv) ]
m
100 100 100 ´ 100 10, 000 10, 000
co
1. 72% of 25 students are good at science. How many are not good at science?
Sol. Number of students who are good at science
72
= 72% of 25 = × 25 = 18 students
100
s.
∴ Number of students who are not good at science
= 25 – 18 = 7 students
2. A flower garden has 1000 plants. 5% of the plants are roses and 1% are daisy
ok
plants. What is the total number of other plants.
Sol. Total plants = 1000
5
Number of rose plants = 5% of 1000 = × 1000 = 50
100
o
1
Number of Daisy plants = 1% of 1000 = ×1000 = 10
100
ab
3. Find 135% of 80 `.
135
ur
25 7
Sol. (i) 0.25 = = 25% (ii) 0.7 = = 7%
100 100
w
100
m
(vi) 135% (vii) 0.5%
Unit 2
3
Sol. (i) 3% = = 0.03
100
co
25
(ii) 25% = = 0.25
100
80
(iii) 80% = = 0.8
100
s.
67
(iv) 67% = = 0.67
100
17.5
ok
(v) 17.5% = = 0.175
100
135
(vi) 135% = = 1.35
100
0.5
o
(vii) 0.5% = = 0.005
100
ab
Exercise 2.2
21
Sol. (i) 21% = = 0.21
100
93.1
.s
100
65
(iv) 65% = = 0.65
100
w
0.64
(v) 0.64% = = 0.0064
100
w
109
(iii) 1.09 = × 100% = 109%
100
71
(iv) 0.71 = × 100% = 71%
100
m
858
(v) 0.858 = × 100% = 85.8%
co
in decimal form?
75
Sol. Student's Score = 75% = = 0.75
100
4. In a village 70.5% people are literate. Express it as a decimal.
70.5
Sol. Percentage of literate people = 70.5% = = 0.705
s.
100
5. Scoring rate of a batsman is 86%. Write his strike rate as decimal.
86
ok
Sol. Scoring rate of the batsman = 86% = = 0.86
100
6. The height of a flag pole in school is 6.75m. Write it as percentage.
675
Sol. Height of flag pole = 6.75m = = 6.75%
100
o
7. The weights of two chemical substances are 20.34 g and 18.78 g. Write the difference in
percentage?
ab
1878
Percentage of substance 2 = = 1878%
100
Their difference = 2034 – 1878 = 156%
.s
1
Fraction of shaded region =
4
w
1 100 1
Percentage of shaded region = ´ = × 100% = 25%
4 100 4
m
11. The percentage of 4.7 is
Unit 2
co
Hint : 4.7 = = ´ = 470% [Ans : (iv) 470%]
10 10 100
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
s.
1. Neka bought 72.3m of cloth from a role of 100m. Express the cloth bought in terms of
percentage.
Sol. Total length of the cloth = 100 m
2.
Length of cloth bought = 72.3 m
1.86
(ii) 1.86% = = 0.0186
100
3. Convert (i) 3.35 (ii) 0.5 into percentage.
ur
335
Sol. (i) 3.35 = × 100% = 335%
100
5
(ii) 0.5 = × 100% = 50%
10
.s
Amount of change
1. Percentage of Increase or decrease = × 100
Original amount
Profit
2. Profit percent = × 100
w
Cost Price
3. Cost Price = Selling Price + Loss
The world's population is growing by 1.10% per year.
w
m
28
co
3
60
15 300
56
=
35
× 100 = = 42.86% 40
7
7 35
s.
Exercise 2.3
1. 14 out of the 70 magazines at the bookstore are comedy magazines. What percentage of
ok
the magazines at the bookstore are comedy magazines?
Sol. Total number of magazines in the bookstore = 100 m
Number of comedy magazines = 14
14
Percentage of commedy magzines = × 100% = 20%
o
70
20% of the magazines are comedy magazines.
2. A tank can hold 50 litres of water. At present, it is only 30% full. How many litres of
ab
æ 25 ö
P– ç ´ P ÷ = 1000
è 100 ø
1
P – × P = 1000
w
4
1
P (1 – ) = 1000
4
3
w
P = 1000
4
4 4000
P = 1000 × =
3 3
P = 1333.33
∴ Marked price of the shoes = `1333
m
100
Unit 2
co
Sol. Number of flowers examined = 40
Number of perennials = 30
30
Percentage = × 100% = 75%
40
s.
75% of the flowers were perennials.
6. Ismail ordered a collection of beads. He received 50 beads in all. Out of that 15 beads
ok
were brown. Find the percentage of brown beads?
Sol. Number of beads received = 50
Number of brown beads = 5
15
Percentage of brown beads = × 100% = 10%
50
o
10% of the beads was brown
7. Ramu scored 20 out of 25 marks in English, 30 out of 40 marks in Science and 68 out of
ab
68
Percentage scored in Maths = × 100% = 85%
80
w
85% > 80% > 75%. ∴In Mathematics his percentage of marks is the best.
8. Peter requires 50% to pass. If he gets 280 marks and falls short by 20 marks, what would
have been the maximum marks of the exam?
w
9. Kayal scored 225 marks out of 500 in revision test 1 and 265 out of 500 marks in revision
test 2. Find the percentage of increase in her score.
Sol. Marks scored in revision I = 225
Marks scored in revision II = 265
Change in marks = 265 – 225 = 40
m
Change in marks 40
co
10. Roja earned ` 18,000 per month. She utilized her salary in the ratio 2:1:3 for education,
savings and other expenses respectively. Express her usage of income in percentage.
Sol. Amount of Salary = ` 18,000
(i) Total number of parts of salary = 2 + 1 + 3 = 6
s.
2 1 3
Salary is divided into 3 portions as , and
6 6 6
2
Portion of salary used for education =
6
ok
2
Salary used for education = × 18,000 = ` 6,000
6
6000
Percentage for Education = × 100 = 33.33%
18000
o
1
(ii) Usage of salary for savings = × 18,000 = ` 3,000
6
ab
3000
Percentage for savings = × 100 = 16.67%
18000
3
(iii) Usage of salary for other expenses = × 18,000 = ` 9,000
6
ur
9000
Percentage for other expenses = × 100 = 50%
18000
Additional Questions
1. If Gayathri had ` 600 left after spending 75% of her money, how much did she have in
.s
the beginning?
Sol. Suppose Gayathri had ` X in the beginning.
75 3X
w
X
But it is given that money left = ` 600 i.e. = 600
4
X = 600 × 4 = 2400 ∴ Gayathri had ` 2,400
w
2. Mohan gets 98 marks in her exams. This amounts to 56% of the total marks, What are
the maximum marks?
Sol. Let the maximum marks be X. 56% of X = 98
56 100
× (X) = 98 ⇒ X = 98 ×
100 56
X = 175
∴ Maximum marks = 175
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
Simple Interest
rincipal is the money borrowed or lent.
P
Interest is the additional money given by the borrower to use the principal for a certain
period of time.
m
Rate of interest is the percentage of the principal paid every year.
Unit 2
co
of time. It is found by using Amount = Principal + Interest.
P ´ n´ r
imple interest can be calculated by using
S , where P – Principal, r – Rate of
100
Interest, n – Time.
s.
TRY THESE (Text book Page No. 41)
1. Arjun borrowed a sum of ` 5,000 from a bank at 5% per annum. Find the interest
and amount to be paid at the end of three year.
Sol. Here Principal (P) =
Rate of interest (r) =
o
Time (n) =
ok`5,000
5% per annum
3 years
Pnr 5000 ´ 3 ´ 5
Simple Interest I = = = `750
100 100
ab
In simple interest, a sum of money doubles itself in 10 years. In how many years
it will get triple itself.
w
2P – P = I
P = I
P ´n ´ r
P =
100
P ´ 10 ´ r
P =
m
100
co
r = 10%
Now if the amount becomes triple then A = P + I = 3P
3P = P + I
3P – P = I
s.
2P = I
P ´ n ´ 10
2P =
100
2P ´ 100
ok
= n
P ´ 10
n = 20 years
∴ After 20 years the amount get tripled.
Exercise 2.4
o
1. Find the simple interest on `35,000 at 9% per annum for 2 years?
ab
100 100
Simple interest I = `6300 6300
2. Aravind borrowed a sum of ` 8,000 from Akash at 7% per annum. Find the interest and
amount to be paid at the end of two years.
.s
Pnr 8000 ´ 2 ´ 7
Simple Interest (I) = =
100 100
I = `1120
w
Amount = P + I
I = `8000 + 1120 = 9120
Interest to be paid = `1,120
w
Pnr
Simple Interest I =
100
Given I = `21,280
Pnr
∴ = `21,280
100
m
P ´ 4 ´ 9.5
Unit 2
= `21,280
100
P ´ 4 ´ 95
= `21,280
co
1000
21280 ´ 1000
P = = `56,000
4 ´ 95
∴ Sum of money Sheela bought = `56,000
4. Basha borrowed ` 8,500 from a bank at a particular rate of simple interest. After 3 years,
s.
he paid ` 11,050 to settle his debt. At what rate of interest he borrowed the money?
Sol. Let the rate of interest be r% per annum
Here Principal P = `8,500
o ok
Time n = 3 years
Total amount paid = `11,050
A = P + I = `11,050
i.e. 8,500 + I = `11,050
I = `11,050 – `8,500 = `2,550
Pnr
Also we know that I = = `2,550
100
ab
8, 500 ´ 3 ´ r
= `2,550
100
2550 ´ 100
r =
8500 ´ 3
r = 10%
ur
39
∴ Interest I = 22935 – 16,500 = `6,435
117
Pnr
Simple Interest I = 1287
100
w
6435 ´ 100
16500 ´ n ´ 13
6435 = 16600 ´ 13
100
1
6435 ´ 100 33
w
n =
16500 ´ 13 3
n = 3 years 1
m
A = P+I
co
Pnr
Simple Interest (I) =
100
17800 ´ n ´ 6
2136 = 2
100 356
s.
2136 ´ 100 2136
n =
17800 ´ 6 178 ´ 6
n = 2 years 1 1
ok
Required time = 2 years
7. A sum of ` 48,000 was lent out at simple interest and at the end of 2 years and
3 months the total amount was ` 55,560. Find the rate of interest per year.
Sol. Given Principal P = `48,000
o
Time n = 2 years 3 months
3 1
= 2 + years = 2 + years
ab
12 4
8 1 9
= + years = years
4 4 4
Amount A = `55,660
A = P+I
ur
55660 = 48000 + I
I = 55660 – 48000 = `7660
9
∴ Interest for years = `7660
.s
4 Pnr
Simple Interest =
100 9 r
7660 = 48000 × ´
w
4 100
7660 ´ 4 ´ 100
r = = 7.09% = 7%
9 ´ 48000
Rate of Interest = 7% per annum
w
8. A principal becomes `17,000 at the rate of 12% in 3 years. Find the principal.
Sol. Given the Principal becomes `17,000
Let the principle initially be P
w
æ 36 ö
17000 = Pç + 1÷
è 100 ø
æ 136 ö
17000 = Pç ÷
è 100 ø
17000 ´ 100
m
P = = 12,500
136
Unit 2
∴ Principal P = `12,500
co
9. The interest for a principle of ` 4,500 which gives an amount of ` 5,000 at end of certain
period is
(i) ` 500 (ii) ` 200 (iii) 20% (iv) 15%
s.
Hint : Interest = Amount – Principle = ` 5000 – ` 4500 = ` 500 [Ans: (i) `500]
10. Which among the following is the simple interest for the principle of ` 1,000 for one year
at the rate of 10% interest per annum?
11.
(i) ` 200
Hint : Interest =
(ii)
100
=
` 10
Pnr 1000 ´ 1 ´ 10
100
= `100
=` 100 ok
(iii) ` 100 (iv) ` 1,000
[Ans: (iii) `100]
Which among the following rate of interest yields an interest of ` 200 for the principle of
`2,000 for one year.
o
(i) 10% (ii) 20% (iii) 5% (iv) 15%
ab
Additional Questions
ur
1. On what sum of money lent out at 9% per annum for 6 years does the simple interest
amount to `810?
Sol. Given Simple Interest I = `810
.s
Pnr
I =
100
P × 6× 9
w
810 =
100
810 ´ 100
P =
6´9
w
P = `1500
Sum of money required = `1500
2
2. Find the simple interest on `1120 for 2 years at the rate of 5% per annum.
5
Pnr
Sol. Simple Interest I =
100
Principal P = `1120
m
2 12
co
1 5
12 5 672
∴ I = 1120 × ´ = = `134.4
5 100 5
Simple interest = `134.4
Exercise 2.5
s.
Miscellaneous Practice problems
ok
1
1. When Mathi was buying her flat she had to put down a deposit of of the value of the
flat. What percentage was this? 10
1 1
Sol. Percentage of = ×100% = 10%
10 10
Mathi has to put down a deposit of 10% of the value of the flat.
o
2. Yazhini scored 15 out of 25 in a test. Express the marks scored by her in percentage.
15
ab
as percentage.
Sol. Total teachers of the school = 120
Number of male teachers = 70
70 700
.s
4. A cricket team won 70 matches during a year and lost 28 matches and no results for two
matches. Find the percentage of matches they won.
Sol. Number of Matches won = 70
w
70
Percentage of Matches won = × 100% = 70%
100
The won 70% of the matches
5. There are 500 students in a rural school. If 370 of them can swim, what percentage of
them can swim and what percentage cannot?
Sol. Total number of students = 500
m
500
i.e. 74% can swim and 26% cannot swim
Unit 2
6. The ratio of Saral’s income to her savings is 4 : 1. What is the percentage of money saved
by her?
co
Sol. Total parts of money = 4 + 1 = 5
Part of money saved = 1
1
∴ Percentage of money saved = ×100% = 20%
5
∴ 20% of money is saved by Saral
s.
7. A salesman is on a commission rate of 5%. How much commission does he make on sales
worth ` 1,500?
Sol. Total amount on sale = `1500
8.
Commission rate = 5%
In the year 2015 ticket to the world cup cricket match was ` 1,500. This year the price has
o
been increased by 18%. What is the price of a ticket this year?
Sol. Price of a ticket in 2015 = `1500
ab
x% of 50 = 2
x
×50 = 2
100
w
2 ´ 100
x = = 4%
∴ 4% of 50 is 2 50
10.
w
×8 = 64
100
64 ´ 100
x = = 800
∴ 800% of 8 is 64 8
11. Stephen invested `10,000 in a savings bank account that earned 2% simple interest. Find
the interest earned if the amount was kept in the bank for 4 years.
Sol. Principal (P) = `10,000
Rate of interest (r) = 2%
Time (n) = 4 years
m
Pnr 10000 ´ 4 ´ 2
co
as interest while clearing the loan, find the time for which the loan was given.
Sol. Here Principal (P) = `15,000
Rate of interest (r) = 10%
Simple Interest (I) = `9000
s.
Pnr
I =
100
15000 ´ n ´ 10
ok
9000 =
100
9000 ´ 100
n =
15000 ´ 10
n = 6 years
o
∴ The loan was given for 6 years.
13.
ab
In how much time will the simple interest on ` 3,000 at the rate of 8% per annum be the
same as simple interest on `4,000 at 12% per annum for 4 years?
Sol. Let the required number of years be x
Pnr
Simple Interest I =
ur
100
Principal P1 = `3000
Rate of interest (r) = 8%
Time (n1) = n1 years
.s
3000 ´ 8 ´ n1
Simple Interest I1 = = 240 n1
100
Principal (P2) = `4000
w
4000 ´ 12 ´ 4
Simple Interest I2 =
100
I2 = 1920
w
If I1 = I2
240 n1 = 1920
1920
n1 = =8
240
∴ The required time = 8 years
Challenge Problems
14. A man travelled 80 km by car and 320 km by train to reach his destination. Find what
percent of total journey did he travel by car and what per cent by train?
Sol. Distance travelled by car = 80 km.
Distance travelled by train = 320 km
m
Unit 2
co
320
Percentage of distance travelled by train = ×100% = 40%
800
15. Lalitha took a math test and got 35 correct and 10 incorrect answers. What was the
percentage of correct answers?
s.
Sol. Number of correct answers = 35
Number of incorrect answers = 10
Total number of answers = 35 + 10 = 45
35
ok
Percentage of correct answers = × 100% = 77.777% = 77.78%
45
16. Kumaran worked 7 months out of the year. What percentage of the year did he work?
Sol. Total number of months in a year = 12
o
Number of Months Kumaran worked = 7
7
Percentage of the year he worked = ×100%
12
ab
100
19. A metal bar weighs 8.5 kg. 85% of the bar is silver. How many kilograms of silver are in the bar?
Sol. Total weight of the metal = 8.5 kg
Percentage of silver in the metal = 85%
85
Weight of silver in the metal = 85% of total weight = × 8.5 kg = 7.225 kg
7.225 kg of silver are in the bar. 100
20. Concession card holders pay ` 120 for a train ticket. Full fare is ` 230. What is the
percentage of discount for concession card holders?
Sol. Train ticket fare = `230
Ticket fare on concession = `120
Discount = Ticket fare – concession fare = 230 – 120 = `110
m
Discount 110
co
21. A tank can hold 200 litres of water. At present, it is only 40% full. How many litres of
water to fill in the tank, so that it is 75 % full?
Sol. Capacity of the water tank = 200 litres
Percentage of water in the tank = 40%
s.
Percentage of water to fill = Upto 75%
Difference in percentage = 75% – 40% = 35%
∴ Volume of water to be filled = Percentage of difference × total capacity
ok
35
= × 200 = 70 l
70 l of water to be filled. 100
2 2
22. Which is greater 16 or or 0.17 ?
3 5
o
2 50 50 2 2
Sol. 16 = = ×100% = 1666.67% ⇒ = × 100 = 40%
3 30 3 5 5
17
ab
0.17 = =17%
2 50 100
∴ 1666.67 is greater. ∴ 16 is = greater.
3 30
23. The value of a machine depreciates at 10% per year. If the present value is
` 1,62,000, what is the worth of the machine after two years.
ur
1, 62, 000 ´ 1 ´ 10
For 1 year depreciation amount = = `16,200
100
Worth of the machine after one year = Worth of Machine – Depreciation
w
m
Unit 2
10, 000 ´ 1 ´ r
= 1200 ⇒ r = 12%
100
Rate of interest = 12% per annum
co
25. A sum of `46,900 was lent out at simple interest and at the end of 2 years, the total
amount was ` 53,466.Find the rate of interest per year.
Sol. Here principal P = `46900
Time n = 2 years
s.
Amount A = `53466
Let r n be the rate of interest per year Pnr
Interest I =
100
53466 – 46900 =
o A = P+I
53466 = 46900 +
ok 46900 ´ 2 ´ r
46900 ´ 2 ´ r
100
6566 = 469× 2× r
100
6566
ab
r = % = 7%
2 ´ 469
Rate of interest = 7% per year
26. Arun lent ` 5,000 to Balaji for 2 years and ` 3,000 to Charles for 4 years on simple interest
ur
at the same rate of interest and received ` 2,200 in all from both of them as interest. Find
the rate of interest per year.
Sol. Principal lent to Balaji P1 = `5000
Time n1 = 2 years
.s
+ = 2200
100 100
100r + 120r = 2200
2200
220r = 2200 =
220
r = 10%
Rate of interest per year = 10%
27. If a principal is getting doubled after 4 years, then calculate the rate of interest. (Hint :
Let P = ` 100).
Sol. Let the principal P = `100
Given it is doubled after 4 years
i.e. Time n = 4 years
After 4 years A = `200
co
After 4 years interest I = 100
Pnr 100 ´ 4 ´ r
I = ⇒ 100 =
100 100
4r = 100 ⇒ r = 25%
s.
Rate of interest r = 25%
Unit Test
Time: 1 hr
I.
1.
2.
Fill in the blanks. ok
Simple interest can be calculated as I = ______(
o
________ is the money borrowed or lent.
Max Marks : 25
5×1=5
18
4. = ______ %
4
5. 78% = ______ in fraction.
II. Answer the following questions. 5 × 2 = 10
ur
1
6. Write as percent.
8
7. Convert 16% as fraction.
8. Convert 172% into decimal
.s
9. In a class of 40 students 80% of then are passed. Find the number of students passed.
10. In a population of 100 people 72 like sweets. Find the percentage of people who like sweets.
III. Answer the following questions. 2 × 5 = 10
w
11. A boy spent 20% of a day for his studying and 30% of a day for playing. Find the hours in a
day he spend for his study and play together.
12. Find the amount after 2 years if principal is 64000 at rate of interest 5% per annum.
w
Answers
Pnr 78
w
3
Chapter
Algebra
m
Algebraic Identities
co
ÊÊ A
lgebraic equalities which hold true for all the values of the variables are called identities.
ÊÊ The following identities are proved geometrically:
(x + a)(x + b) = x2 + x(a + b) + ab ; (a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2 ; (a − b)2 = a2 − 2ab + b2 and
s.
(a + b)(a − b) = a2 − b2
ÊÊ Also we have
(x + a)(x – b) = x2 + x(a – b) – ab ; (x – a)(x + b) = x2 + x(b – a) – ab;
ÊÊ T
(x − a)(x – b) = x2 – x(a + b) + ab
ok
he factors of an algebraic expression is two or more expressions whose product is the given
expression.
ÊÊ The process of writing an algebraic expression as the product of its factors is called factorisation.
o
(Text book Page No. 50)
ab
1. Is it the only way to decompose the numbers representing length and breadth? Discuss.
Sol. No, for example 15 can be decompose into 1 × 15, 3 × 5, 5 × 3, 15 × 1
ur
1. Observe the following figures and try to find its area, geometrically. Also verify the same
by multiplication of monomial.
.s
i) ii) iii)
y x y
{
3y y a + b+ c
w
3x x
y x
x x x x
x
w
4x
iv) ii)
y
x
3y y
w
2x
x
y
x x x x x
2x 3x
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m
(ii) Area of each small box = x2
Total number of boxes = 3
∴Total area = 3x2
co
Also length of the rectangle = 3x
breadth of the rectangle = x
Area of the rectangle = length × breadth
= 3x × x
s.
= 3x2
(iii) Area of each small box is ay, by, cy
∴Total area = ay + by + cy = y (a + b + c)
= (a + b + c) y
(iv) Area of each small square = x2
There are 4 small squares
o ok
Area of the rectangle = length × breadth
as many rectangles as you can and find out the length and breadth of the rectangles so
formed such that its area is
(i) 12xy (ii) 8xy (iii) 9xy
w
x x
x x
y y y y y y y y y y
w
(ii) 8xy
x x
x y y y y y y y y
y y y y
(iii) 9xy
x x
y y y y y y y y y x
x
m
y y y
TRY THESE (Text book Page No. 58)
co
Consider a square shaped paddy field with side of 48 m. A pathway with uniform breadth is
surrounded the square field and the length of the outer side is 52 m. Can you find the area of
the pathway by using identities?
Sol. Let a = 52
b = 4
s.
2m 2m
(a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2 = 522 – 2 (52) (4) + 42 48 m
= 2704 – 416 + 16 = 2304 52 m
ok
Unit 3
Can we factorize the following expressions using any basic identities? Justify your answer.
(i) x2 + 5x + 4 (ii) x2 − 5x + 4
o
Sol. (i) x2 + 5x + 4 = x2 + (1 + 4)x + (1 × 4)
Which is of the form x2 + (a + b) x + ab
ab
= (x + a) (x + b)
x2 + (1+ 4) x + (1 × 4) = (x + 1) (x + 4)
∴ x2 + 5x + 4 = (x + 1) (x + 4)
(ii) x2 – 5x + 4 = x2 + ((–1) + (– 4))x + (–1) (– 4)
ur
Exercise 3.1
w
[Ans: 2× 2 × 2 × 3 × a × b × b × c × c]
2. Say whether the following statements are True or False.
(i) (7x + 3)(7x − 4) = 49x2 − 7x − 12 . [Ans : True]
(ii) (a − 1)2 = a2 − 1. [Ans : False]
(iii) (x2 + y2)(y2 + x2) = (x2 + y2)2 [Ans : True]
(iv) 2p is the factor of 8pq. [Ans : True]
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
m
4. Using the identity (x + a)(x + b) = x2 + x(a + b) + ab, find the following product.
(i) (x + 3)(x + 7) (ii) (6a + 9)(6a − 5)
co
(iii) (4x + 3y)(4x + 5y) (iv) (8 + pq)(pq + 7)
Sol. (i) (x + 3)(x + 7)
Let a = 3; b = 7, then
(x + 3)(x + 7) is of the form x2 + x (a + b) + ab
s.
(x + 3)(x + 7) = x2 + x (3 + 7) + (3 × 7) = x2 + 10x + 21
(ii) (6a + 9)(6a − 5)
Substituting x = 6a ; a = 9 and b = –5
ok
In (x + a) (x + b) = x2 + x (a + b) + ab, we get
(6a + 9)(6a − 5) = (6a)2 + 6a (9 + (–5)) + (9 × (–5))
Algebra
= 62 a2 + 6a (4) + (–45) = 36a2 + 24a – 45
o
(6a + 9) (6a – 5) = 36a2 + 24a – 45
(iii) (4x + 3y)(4x + 5y)
ab
Substituting x = 4x ; a = 3y and b = 5y in
(x + a) (x + b) = x2 + x (a + b) + ab, we get
(4x + 3y)(4x − 5y) = (4x)2 + 4x (3y + 5y) + (3y) (5y)
= 42 x2 + 4x (8y) + 15y2 = 16x2 + 32xy + 15y2
ur
(x + a) (x + b) = x2 + x (a + b) + ab, we get
(pq + 8)(pq + 7) = (pq)2 + pq (8 + 7) + (8) (7)
= p2 q2 + pq (15) + 56
w
(8 + pq)(pq + 7) = p2 q2 + 15pq + 56
5. Expand the following squares, using suitable identities.
w
(i) (2x + 5)2 (ii) (b –7)2 (iii) (mn + 3p)2 (iv) (xyz –1)2
Sol. (i) (2x + 5)2
Comparing (2x + 5)2 with (a + b)2 we have a = 2x and b = 5
w
a = 2x and b = 5,
(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2
(2x + 5)2 = (2x)2 + 2(2x) (5) + 52 = 22 x2 + 20x + 25
= 22 x2 + 20x + 25
(2x + 5)2 = 4x2 + 20x + 25
(ii) (b –7)2
Comparing (b – 7)2 with (a – b)2 we have a = b and b = 7
(a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2
(b – 7)2 = b2 – 2(b) (7) + 72
(b – 7)2 = b2 – 14b + 49
m
(iii) (mn + 3p)2
Comparing (mn + 3p)2 with (a + b)2 we have
(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2
co
(mn + 3p)2 = (mn)2 + 2(mn) (3p) + (3p)2
(mn + 3p)2 = m2 n2 + 6mnp + 9p2
(iv) (xyz –1)2
s.
Comparing (xyz – 1)2 with (a – b)2 we have = a + xyz and b = 1
a = xyz and b = 1
(a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2
ok
(xyz – 1)2 = (xyz)2 – 2 (xyz) (1) + 12
Unit 3
(4 + mn) (4 – mn) = 42 – (mn)2 = 16 – m2 n2
(iv) (6x + 7y)(6x – 7y)
w
Substituting a = 6x and b = 7y in
(a + b) (a – b) = a2 – b2, we get
(6x + 7y) (6x – 7y) = (6x)2 – (7y)2 = 62x2 – 72y2
(6x + 7y) (6x – 7y) = 36x2 – 49y2
m
Taking a = 50 and b = 1 we get
(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2
(50 + 1)2 = 502 + 2 (50) (1) + 12 = 2500 + 100 + 1
co
512 = 2601
(ii) 1032
1032 = (100 + 3)2
Taking a = 100 and b = 3
s.
(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2 becomes
(100 + 3)2 = 1002 + 2 (100) (3) + 32 = 10000 + 600 + 9
1032 = 10609
ok
(iii) 9982
9982 = (1000 – 2)2
Taking a = 1000 and b = 2
Algebra
(a – b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2 becomes
o
(1000 – 2)2 = 10002 – 2 (1000) (2) + 22
= 1000000 – 4000 + 4
ab
9982 = 10,04,004
2
(iv) 47
472 = (50 – 3)2
Taking a = 50 and b = 3
(a – b)2 a2 – 2ab + b2 becomes
ur
=
(50 – 3)2 = 502 – 2 (50) (3) + 32
= 2500 – 300 + 9 = 2200 + 9
472 = 2209
.s
(a + b) (a – b) = a2 – b2 becomes
(300 + 3) (300 – 3) = 3002 – 32
303 × 297 = 90000 – 9
w
(vii) 51 × 52
51 × 52 = (50 + 1) (50 + 1)
Taking x = 50 , a = 1 and b = 2
then (x + a) (x + b) = x2 + (a + b) x + ab becomes
(50 + 1) (50 + 2) = 502 + (1 + 2) 50 + (1 × 2)
m
= 2500 + (3) 50 + 2 = 2500 + 150 + 2
51 × 52 = 2652
8. 2
Simplify: (a + b) − 4ab
co
Sol. (a + b)2 – 4ab = a2 + b2 + 2ab – 4ab = a2 + b2 – 2ab = (a – b)2
9. Show that (m − n)2 + (m + n)2 = 2(m2 + n2)
Sol. Taking the LHS = (m –n)2 + (m + n)2
= m2 – 2mn + n2 + m2 + 2mn + n2 = m2 + n2 + m2 + n2
s.
= 2m2 + 2n2 [ (a + b)2 – 4ab= a2 + 2ab + b2
= 2(m2 + n2) = RHS (a – b)2= a2 – 2ab + b2]
2 2 2 2
∴(m − n) + (m + n) = 2(m + n )
10.
ok
If a + b = 10 , and ab = 18, find the value of a2 + b2.
Unit 3
100 – 36 = a2 + b2
a2 + b2 = 64
11. Factorise the following algebraic expressions by using the identity a2 − b2 = (a + b)(a − b).
ur
let a = z and b = 4,
z2 – 42 = (z + 4) (z – 4)
(ii) 9 – 4y2
w
9 – 4y2 = 32 – 22 y2 = 32 –(2y)2
let a = 3 and b = 2y, then
a – b2
2
= (a + b) (a – b)
w
∴ 3 – (2y)2
2
= (3 + 2y) (3 – 2y)
9 – 4y2 = (3 + 2y) (3 – 2y)
(iii) 25a2 – 49b2
25a2 – 49b2 = 52 a2 – 72 b2 = (5a)2 – (7b)2
w
let A = 5a and B = 7b
A2 – B2 = (A + B) (A – B) becomes
(5a)2 – (7b)2 = (5a + 7b) (5a – 7b)
(iv) x4 – y4
Let x4 – y4 = (x2)2 – (y2)2
We have a2 – b2 = (a + b) (a – b)
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m
(i) x2 − 8x + 16 (ii) y2 + 20y + 100 (iii) 36m2 + 60m + 25
(iv) 64x2 − 112xy + 49y2 (v) a2 + 6ab + 9b2 − c2
Sol. (i) x2 − 8x + 16 x2 − 8x + 16 = x2 – (2× 4 × x) + 42
co
This expression is in the form of identity
a2 – 2ab + b2 = (a – b)2
x – 2 × 4 × x + 42 = (x – 4)2
2
∴ x2 – 8x + 16 = (x – 4) (x – 4)
s.
(ii) y2 + 20y + 100
y2 + 20y + 100 = y2 + (2 × (10)) y + (10 × 10)
= y2 + (2 × 10 × y ) + 102
ok
This is of the form of identity
a2 + 2ab + b2 = (a + b)2
y + (2× 10 × y) + 102 = (y + 10)2
2
Algebra
y2 + 20y + 100 = (y + 10)2
y2 + 20y + 100 = (y + 10) (y + 10)
o
(iii) 36m2 + 60m + 25
ab
36m2 + 60m + 25 = 62 m2 + 2 × 6m × 5 + 52
This expression is of the form of identity
a2 + 2ab + b2 = (a + b)2
(6m) + (2× 6m × 5) + 52 = (6m + 5)2
2
a2 – 2ab + b2 = (a – b)2
(8x) – (2× 8x × 7y) + (7y)2 = (8x – 7y)2
2
m
13 + 2ab = 25
2ab = 12
ab = 6
14. (5 + 20)(−20 − 5) = ?
co
(i) –425 (ii) 375 (iii) –625 (iv) 0 [Ans : (iii) –625]
Hint : (50 + 20) (–20 – 5) = –(5 + 20)2 = – (25)2 = – 625
15.
The factors of x2 – 6x + 9 are
s.
(i) (x − 3)(x − 3) (ii) (x − 3)(x + 3)
(iii) (x + 3)(x + 3) (iv) (x − 6)(x + 9) [Ans : (i) (x − 3)(x − 3)]
2 2 2
Hint : x – 6x + 9 = x – 2(x) (3) + 3
ok
a – 2ab + b2 = (a – b)2 = (x – 3)2 = (x − 3) (x − 3)
2
Unit 3
16.
The common factors of the algebraic expression ax2y, bxy2 and cxyz is
(i) x2y (ii) xy2 (iii) xyz (iv) xy [Ans : (iv) xy]
2
Hint : ax y = a × x × x × y
o
bxy2 = b × x × y × y
cxyz = c × x × y × z
ab
Common factor = xy
Additional Questions
1. If 4x2 + y2 = 40 and xy = 6 find the value of 2x + y.
ur
2x + y = 8
1 1
2. If x2 + 2
= 23 find x + .
x x
w
è xø x x
1 1 1
= x2 + 2 + 2
= x2 + 2 + 2 = 23 + 2 x2 + = 23
2 x x x2
w
æ 1ö
çx+ ÷ = 25
è xø
2
æ 1ö
çx+ ÷ = 52
è xø
1
x+ = 5
x
æ2 ö æ2 ö
3. Find the product of ç x 2 + 5 y 2 ÷ ç x 2 + 5 y 2 ÷ .
è3 ø è3 ø
2
æ2 2 2 öæ 2 2 2ö 2
Sol. ç x + 5y ÷ç x + 5y ÷ = æç x 2 + 5 y 2 ö÷
è3 øè 3 ø è3 ø
m
We have (a + b)2 2
= a + 2ab + b 2
2 2
Here a = x b = 5y2
3
2 2
2
co
æ2 2 2ö æ 2 2ö
ç x + 5y ÷ = ç x ÷ + 2 × x2 × 5y2 + (5y2)2
è3 ø è3 ø 3
2 2 2
æ 2 ö 2 2 20 x y
= ç ÷ (x ) + + 52 (y2)2
è3ø 3
2
æ2 2 2ö 4 4 20 x 2 y 2
s.
ç x + 5y ÷ = x + +25y4
è3 ø 9 3
Inequations
ÊÊ T
ok
he algebraic statement that shows two algebraic expression being unequal is known as an
algebraic inequation.
ÊÊ The algebraic expressions are connected with any one of the four signs of inequalities, namely,
Algebra
>, ≥ ,< and ≤.
o
ÊÊ When both sides of an inequation are added, subtracted, multiplied and divided by the same
non-zero positive number, the inequality remains the same.
ab
ÊÊ When both sides of an inequation are multiplied or divided by the same non-zero negative number,
the sign of inequality is reversed. For example, x < y ⇒ − x > − y.
ÊÊ The solution set of an inequation can be represented on the number line by marking the true
values of solutions with different colour on the number line.
ur
Hameed saw a stranger in the street. He told his parent, “The stranger’s age is
w
Exercise 3.2
1. Given that x ≥ y. Fill in the blanks with suitable inequality signs.
(i) y x (ii) x+6 y+6
(iii) x2 xy (iv) −xy – y2
m
(v) x−y 0
Ans: (i) y ≤ x (ii) x+6 ≥ y+6
(iii) x2 ≥ xy (iv) −xy ≤ – y2
co
(v) x − y ≥ 0
2. Say True or False.
(i) Linear inequation has almost one solution. [Ans : False]
(ii) When x is an integer, the solution set for x ≤ 0 are −1, −2,.. [Ans : False]
s.
(iii) An inequation, −3 < x < −1, where x is an integer, cannot be represented in the
number line. [Ans : True]
(iv) x < −y can be rewritten as −y < x [Ans : False]
ok
Unit 3
Since the solutions belongs to the set of natural numbers that are less than 7, we take
the values of x as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(iii) 2a + 3 ≤ 13, where a is a whole number.
2a + 3 ≤ 13
.s
6x – 7 + 7 ≥ 35 + 7
6x ≥ 42
6x 42
Dividing both the sides by 6 we get ≥
6 6
x ≥7
Since the solution belongs to the set of integers that are greater than or equal to 7, we
take the values of x as 7, 8, 9, 10...
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m
4x -24
>
4 4
x >–6
co
Since the solution belongs to a negative integer that are greater than –6, we take values
of u as –5, –4, –3, –2 and –1.
4. Solve the following inequations and represent the solution on the number line:
(i) k > −5, k is an integer. (ii) −7 ≤ y, y is a negative integer.
s.
(iii) −4 ≤ x ≤ 8, x is a natural number. (iv) 3m − 5 ≤ 2m + 1, m is an integer.
Sol. (i) k > −5, k is an integer.
Since the solution belongs to the set of integers, the solution is –4, –3, –2, –1, 0,... It’s
ok
graph on number line is shown below.
-6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5
(ii) −7 ≤ y, y is a negative integer.
Algebra
–7 ≤ y
o
Since the solution set belongs to the set of negative integers, the solution is
–7, –6, –5, –4, –3, –2, –1.
ab
-9 -8 -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
(iii) −4 ≤ x ≤ 8, x is a natural number.
−4 ≤ x ≤ 8
ur
Since the solution belongs to the set of natural numbers, the solution is
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8.
Its graph on number line is shown below
.s
-5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(iv) 3m − 5 ≤ 2m + 1, m is an integer.
3m – 5 ≤ 2m + 1
w
-9 -8 -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
5. An artist can spend any amount between `80 to `200 on brushes. If cost of each brush is ` 5
and there are 6 brushes in each packet, then how many packets of brush can the artist buy?
Sol. Given the artist can spend any amount between `80 to `200
Let the number of packets of brush he can buy be x
Given cost of 1 brush = `5
m
Cost of 1 packet brush (6 brushes) = `5 × 6 = `30
∴Cost of x packets of brushes = 30x
∴ The inequation becomes 80 ≤ 30x ≤ 200
co
80 30 x 200
Dividing throughout by 30 we get £ £
30 30 30
8 20 2 2
£x£ ; 2 £ x£6
3 3 3 3
brush packets cannot get in fractions.
s.
∴The artist can buy 3 ≤ x ≤ 6 packets of brushes.
or x = 3, 4, 5 and 6 packets of brushes.
ok
Objective Type Questions
Unit 3
5
8. The cost of one pen is `8 and it is available in a sealed pack of 10 pens. If Swetha has only
`500, how many packs of pens can she buy at the maximum?
(i) 10 (ii) 5 (iii) 6 (iv) 8 [Ans : (iii) 6]
.s
80x ≤ 500
8x ≤ 50
50
x ≤ = 6.25
w
8
x is a natural number x = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
9. The inequation that is represented on the number line as shown below is _______.
w
-9 -8 -7 -6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Additional Questions
1. Solve 2x + 5 < 15 where x is a natural number and represent the solution in a number line.
Sol. 2x + 5 < 15
Subtracting 5 on both sides 2x + 5 – 5 < 15 – 5
m
2x < 10
Dividing by 2 on both the sides
2 x 10
<
co
2 2
Since x is a natural number and it is less than 5, the solution is 4, 3, 2 and 1. It is
shown in the number line as below.
s.
-5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Algebra
2c 10
o
£
2 2
c ≤ 5
ab
Since the solutions are whole numbers which are less than r equal to 5, the solution
set is 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
3. Solve –8 < –2n + 4, n is a natural number.
Sol. –8 < – 2n + 4
ur
-2n -12
< [ Dividing by negative number, the inequation get reversed]
-2 -2
n < 6
w
Since the solutions are natural numbers which are less then 6, we have the solution
as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
w
Exercise 3.3
Miscellaneous Practice problems
1. Using identity, find the value of (i) (4.9)2 (100.1)2
w
(ii) (100.1)2
(100.1)2 = (100 + 0.1)2
Substituting a = 100 and b = 0.1 in
(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2, we have
(100 + 0.1)2 = (100)2 + 2 (100) (0.1) + (0.1)2
(100.1)2 = 10000 + 20 + 0.01
m
(100.1)2 = 10020.01
(iii) (1.9) × (2.1)
(1.9) × (2.1) = (2 – 0.1)× (2 + 0.1)
co
Substituting a = 100 and b = 0.1 in
(a – b) (a + b) = a2 – b2, we have
(2 – 0.1)(2 + 0.1) = 22 – (0.1)2
(1.9) × (2.1) = 4 – 0.01
(9.9) (2.1) = 3.99
s.
2. Factorise : 4x2 – 9y2
Sol. 4x2 – 9y2 = 22 x2 – 32 y2 = (2x)2 – (3y)2
Substituting a = 2x and b = 3y in
ok
(a2 – b2) = (a + b) (a – b), we have
Unit 3
(x + a) (x + b) = x2 + x(a + b) + ab
(3p + q)(3p + r) = (3p)2 + 3p (q + r) + (q × r)
= 32 p2 + 3p (q + r) + qr
(3p + q)(3p + r) = 9p2 + 3p (q + r) + qr
ur
(a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2]
= x2 – x2 + 4xy + 4xy + 4y2 – 4y2
= x2 (1 – 1) + xy (4 + 4) + y2 (4 – 4)
= 0x2 + 8xy + 0y2 = 8xy = RHS
w
Area of the path way = area of large square – area of smaller square
= 502 – 402
Substituting a = 50 and b = 40 in
a2 – b2 = (a + b) (a – b) we have
502 – 402 = (50 + 40) (50 – 40) 5m 40 m 5m
50 m
Area of pathway = 90 × 10
m
2
Area of the pathway = 900 m
Challenge Problems
co
6. If X = a2 − 1 and Y = 1 − b2, then find X + Y and factorize the same.
Sol. Given X = a2 – 1
Y = 1 – b2
X + Y = (a2 – 1) + (1 – b2)
s.
= a2 – 1 + 1 – b2
We know the identity that a2 – b2 = (a + b) (a – b)
∴ X + Y = (a + b) (a – b)
ok
7. Find the value of (x − y)(x + y)(x2 + y2).
Sol. We know that (a – b) (a + b) = a2 – b2 ... (1)
Put a = x and b = y in the identity (1) then
(x – y) (x + y) = x2 – y2
Algebra
Now (x – y) (x + y)(x2 + y2) = (x2 – y2) (x2 + y2)
o
Again put a = x2 and b = y2 in (1)
We have (x2 – y2) (x2 + y2) = (x2)2 – (y2)2= x4 – y4
ab
So (x – y) (x + y) (x2 + y2) = x4 – y4
8. Simplify (5x − 3y)2 − (5x + 3y)2.
Sol. We have the identities ... (1)
(a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2
ur
(a – b)2 = a2 – 2ab + b2
So (5x – 3y)2 – (5x + 3y)2 = (5x)2 – (2 × 5x × 3y) + (3y)2
– [(5x)2 + 2(5x) (3y) + (3y)2]
= 52x2 – 30xy + 32 y2 – [52x2 – 30xy + 32 y2]
.s
m
10. A square lawn has a 2 m wide path surrounding it. If the area of the path is 136 m2, find
the area of lawn.
Sol. Let the side of the lawn = a m
co
then side of big square = (a + 2(2))m
= (a + 4)m 2m 2m
Area of the path = Area of large square – Area of smaller square
136 = (a + 4)2 – a2
s.
136 = a2 + (2 × a × 4) + 42 – a2
136 = a2 + 8a + 16 – a2
136 = 8a + 16
136 = 8 (a + 2)
ok
Unit 3
Dividing by 8
17 = a+2
Subtracting 2 on both sides
17 – 2 = a+2–2
o
15 = a
∴ Side of small square = 15m
ab
4n + 7 – 3n ≥ 3n + 10 – 3n
n (4 – 3) + 7 ≥ 3n + 10 – 3n
n (4 – 3) + 7 ≥ n (3 – 3) + 10
w
n + 7 ≥ 10
Subtracting 7 on both sides
n + 7 – 7 ≥ 10 – 7
n ≥ 3
w
Since the solution is an integer and is greater than or equal to 3, the solution will be 3,
4, 5, 6, 7, ...
n = 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, ...
w
m
(iii) −13 ≤ 5x + 2 ≤ 32, x is an integer.
Subtracting throughout by 2
–13 – 2 ≤ 5x + 2 – 2 ≤ 32 –2
co
– 15 ≤ 5x ≤ 30
Dividing throughout by 5
-15 5x 30
≤ ≤
5 5 5
s.
–3 ≤ x≤6
∴Since the solution is an integer between –3 and 6 both inclusive, we have the solution
as –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
i.e. x = –3, –2, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
ok
Unit Test
Algebra
Time: 1 hr Section A Max Marks : 25
o
I. Fill in the blanks 5×1=5
1. (a + b) (a – b) = _________.
ab
2. The process of writing an algebraic expression as the product of its factors is called______.
3. When both sides of an inequation is multiplied by a non zero negative number the sign of the
inequality is ______.
4. (x + 2) (x + 3) =______.
ur
8. 56 × 48 9. 6x = 232 – 172
10. (3x + 4) (3x – 5)
III. Solve the folloiwng inequations. 2 × 5 = 10
w
Answers
w
I. 1. a2 – b2 2. factorisation 3. reversed
4. x2 + 5x + 6 5. 4x2 – 9
w
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4
Chapter
Geometry
m
co
Symmetry
The line that divides any figure into two equal halves such that each half exactly coincides with
the other is known as the line of symmetry or axis of symmetry.
s.
Mirror symmetry is called reflection symmetry.
An object is said to have a rotational symmetry if it looks the same after being rotated about
its centre through an angle less than 360°.
ok
The minimum number of tomes a figure coincides with itself in one complete rotation is called
the order of roational symmetry.
All figures have rotational symmetry of order 1.
A object has rotational symmetry, only when the order of symmetry is more than 1.
o
2 is the smallest order of rotational symmetry.
Translation symmetry occurs when a pattern slides to a new position.
ab
What can you say about the number of lines of symmetry of a circle?
Sol. A circle has infinite number of lines of symmetry.
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m
(i) M (ii) M (iii) T
A O H
T M A
co
H T
Sol. (i) M (ii) M (iii) T
A O H
T M A
s.
H T
ok
Will the figure be symmetric about both the diagonals?
Sol. Yes, it is symmetric about both the diagonals.
o (Text book Page No. 73)
ab
ur
m
Unit 4
co
TRY THESE (Text book Page No. 75)
Using translational symmetry make new pattern with the given figure.
s.
Sol.
o ok
ab
ur
Sol.
w
m
Sol. 8 → 5 → 3 ↑
Geometry
co
(Text book Page No. 78)
The pre-image and the image after a translation coincide. What can you say about the
translation?
Sol. There is no right, left, up or down movement took place.
s.
TRY THESE (Text book Page No. 80)
1.
Sol.
ok
Draw the line reflection in the following pictures.
o
ab
B B1
C A1A C1
.s
w
D D1
Exercise 4.1
w
1. Find the new position of each point using the translation given.
(i) 2 →, 4 ↓ (ii) 6 ↑
w
(iii) 3 ←, 5 ↓ (iv) 4 →, 3 ↑
m
Unit 4
co
Sol. (i) (ii) K'
A
A' K
s.
ok
(iii) (iv)
T
S'
o
S
T'
ab
B'
ur
A C D
B D'
C'
.s
L T
K
w
A U U
M V T
B
C
S
Sol.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A' L T
K U'
B' T'
C' L'
A U U
m
T'
M K' V T
B S'
Geometry
C M' U'
V'
co
S
s.
F C M J
A B
T W
(iv)
o
(v)
U V
ok (vi)
L K
U T
ab
L P
S
D
Q R
C
E
M N
ur
Sol.
(i) V' (ii) W' (iii)
E D
.s
F C J' M' M J
A B U' T'
A' B' T W
w
F' C'
E' D'
U V K' L' L K
w
C'
U T
L P D'
S B'
N' D
Q R
Q' R' E'
C
P' E
S'
M N
U' T' B
5. Reflect the shape in each of the following pictures with given line of reflection.
(i) (ii) (iii)
m
Unit 4
Sol.
(i) (ii) (iii)
co
s.
ok
6. Rotate the preimages in each case as directed about the red point.
(i) (ii) (iii)
A
o
ab
B C
D B
C
C A
.s
A B B A
C D
w
Sol.
(i) (ii) (iii)
w
C'
A B'
w
A'
B C
m
A' B' A' B'
A B B A
Geometry
co
C D
7.
s.
Sol. Reflection
8.
o ok
ab
Sol. Rotation
9.
ur
Sol. Translation
10. A pool of fish translates from point F to point D.
.s
point D.
Sol. (a) Translation of pool of fish is 7→, 2↓
(b) No, the fishing boat will be landed on the island if translated.
w
12. In given diagram, the blue figure is an image of the pink figure.
O N
M΄
N΄ L M
m
Unit 4
O΄
L΄
(i) Choose an angle or a vertex from the preimage and name its image.
co
(ii) List all pairs of corresponding sides.
Sol. (i) Image of ∠L is ∠L′, Image of ∠M is ∠M′,
Image of ∠N is ∠N′, Image of ∠O is ∠O′
Image of vertex L is L′, Image of vertex M is ∠M′
Image of vertex N is ∠N′, Image of vertex O is O′
s.
(ii) Corresponding sides are LM and L′M′, MN and M′N′, NO and N′O′ and OL and O′L′
13. In the diagram at the right, the green figure is a translation image of the pink figure.
Write a coordinate rule that describes the translation.
o ok
Sol. The rule bind here in 3→, 1↓
ab
19. You must rotate the puzzle piece 270° clockwise about point P to fit it into
a puzzle.
(i) Which piece fits in the puzzle as shown?
(ii)
(i) (ii)
P
m
(iii)
(iii)
Geometry
(iii) (iv) [Ans : (iii) ]
co
Additional Questions
1. Give some examples of shapes with no line of symmetry.
s.
Sol. 1. A scalene Triangle. 2. The letter F.
2. What is the order of rotational symmetry of the letter N?
Sol. 2
ok
Circles
The collection of all the points in a plane, which are at a fixed distance from a fixed
point in the plane, is called a circle. The fixed point is called the centre of the circle and
o
the fixed distance is called the radius of the circle.
If two points on a circle are joined by a line segment, then the line segment is called a
ab
The area between the two concentric circles is known as circular ring
Width of the circular ring(w) = r2 – r1
.s
Exercise 4.2
1. Draw circles for the following measurements of radius (r)/ diameters(d).
(i) r = 4 cm (ii) d = 12 cm. (iii) r = 3.5 cm
w
6 cm
m
A
O
Unit 4
co
Step 1 : Marked a point ‘O’ on the paper.
Step 2 : Extended the compass distance equal to radius 6 cm.
s.
Step 3 : At center ‘O’, held the compass firmly and placed the pointed end of the
compass.
Step 4 : Slowly rotated the compass around to get the circle.
ok
(iii) r = 3.5 cm o
3.5 cm
A
O
ab
(iv) r = 6.5 cm
w
w
6.5 cm
A
O
w
m
d 6
∴ radius r = = = 3 cm
2 2
Geometry
co
3 cm
A
O
s.
ok
Step 1 : Market a point ‘O’ on the paper.
Step 2 : Extended the compass distance equal to radius 3 cm.
Step 3 : At center ‘O’, held the compass firmly and placed the pointed end of the
compass.
Step 4 : Slowly rotated the compass around to get the circle.
o
2. Draw concentric circles for the following measurements of radii / diameters. Find out the
ab
Rough Diagram
A A
m
.s
3c
m
O 5 cm B
3c
B
5 cm
w
O
w
Rough Diagram
A
A
m
cm
Unit 4
cm
3.5
O 6.5 cm B
3.5
co
O B
6.5 cm
s.
ok
Step 1 : Drawn a rough diagram and market the given measurements
Step 2 : Taken any point O and marked it as the center.
Step 3 : With O as center drawn a circle of radius OA = 3.5 cm.
Step 4 : With O as center drawn a circle of radius OB = 6.5 cm. Thus the concentric
o
circles C1 and C2 are drawn.
Width of the circular ring = OB – OA = 6.5 – 3.5 = 3 cm
ab
2 2
Rough Diagram
A
.s
cm
A
3.2
m
3. 2c O 5.8 cm B
w
B
O 5.8 cm
w
w
m
A
m
5c
m O 7.5 cm B
5c
Geometry
co
B
O 7.5 cm
s.
Step 1
Step 2
Step 3
Step 4
:
:
:
:
ok
Drawn a rough diagram and market the given measurements
Taken any point O and marked it as the center.
With O as center drawn a circle of radius OA = 5 cm.
With O as center drawn a circle of radius OB = 7.5 cm. Thus the concentric
o
circles C1 and C2 are drawn.
Width of the circular ring = OB – OA = 7.5 – 5 = 2.5 cm
ab
6.2
∴r= = 3.1 cm and r = 6.2 cm
2 Rough Diagram
A
.s
cm
A 3.
1
O 6.2 cm B
cm
3.1
w
B
O 6.2 cm
w
w
m
Unit 4
Rough Diagram
co
A cm
6
m O 7.1 cm B
6c
B
O 7.1 cm
s.
Step 1
Step 2
Step 3
:
:
:
ok
Drawn a rough diagram and marked the given measurements
Taken any point O and marked it as center.
o
With O as center, drawn a circle of radius OA = 6 cm.
Step 4 : With O as center, drawn a circle of radius OB = 7.1 cm. Thus concentric circles
ab
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
ur
5.2 cm
w
A
O
w
w
Sol.
Step 1 : Market a point ‘O’ on the paper.
Step 2 : Extended the compass distance equal to radius 5.2 cm.
Step 3 : At center ‘O’, held the compass firmly and placed the pointed end of the compass.
Step 4 : Slowly rotated the compass around to get the circle.
2. Draw concentric circles with radii 5.2cm and 6.6cm. Find the width of the circular ring.
Sol.
Rough Diagram
m
A cm
2
5.
cm O 6.6 cm B
5.2
Geometry
B
co
O 6.6 cm
s.
Step 1 : Drawn a rough diagram and marked the given measurements
Step 2 : Taken any point O and marked it as the center.
Step 3
Step 4
:
:
ok
With O as center, drawn a circle of radius OA = 5.2 cm.
With O as center, drawn a circle of radius OB = 6.6 cm. Thus the concentric
circles C1 and C2 are drawn.
Width of the circular ring = OB – OA = 6.6 – 5.2 = 1.4 cm
o
Exercise 4.3
ab
move.
w
w
Sol. Pawn – 1↑ or 2↑
w
Rook – 1 to 8 ↑
Knight – 2→,1↑ or 2←,1↑ or1→,2↑ or 1←,2↑
Bishop – 1→,1↑ or 2→,2↑or 3→,3↑or 4→,4↑or 5→5↑1←,1↑ or 2←,2↑ or 3←,3↑ or 4←,4↑
or 5←5↑
Queen – 1 to 8 ↑, 1→, 1↑ or 2→,2↑ or 3→,3↑ or 4→,4↑ or 5→,5↑ or 1←,1↑ or 2←,2↑ or
3←,3↑ or 4←,4↑ or 5←5↑
King – 1→ or ← or ↑
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This is only for Sample Materials
for full Book Order Online or Available at all Leading Bookstores
Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
m
reflected within the bar?
Unit 4
co
4. Given figure is a floor design in which the length of the small red
equilateral triangle is 30 cm. All the triangles and hexagons are
regular. Describe the translations in cm, represented by the (i)
yellow line (ii) black line (iii) blue line.
s.
Sol. (i) 120cm→,210cm↓
(ii) 270cm←,330cm↑
(iii) 150 cm→
5.
(i) (ii)
o (iii) ok
Describe the transformation involved in the following pair of
figures (letters). Write translation, reflection or rotation.
(iv)
Challenge problems
Sol. (i) Translation 3←,5↑ and 90° counter clockwise rotation about the green point and
translates 5←, 2↓
(ii) Translation 2←90° counter clockwise rotation about the green point and translates
2← , 2↓.
8. (i) Draw the translation of the shape (ii) Draw the reflection of the shape
m Geometry
co
(iii) Draw the Rotation of the shape
s.
Sol.
o ok
ab
9. Draw concentric circles given that radius of inner circle is 4.5 cm and width of circular
ring is 2.5 cm.
Sol. Give radius of inner circle = 4.5 cm
ur
Rough Diagram
w
A A
cm
cm 4.
5
4.5 O 7 cm B
w
B
O 7 cm
w
m
Unit 4
co
ring is 1.8 cm.
Sol. Give radius of outer circle = 5.3 cm
Width of circular ring = 1.8 cm
Radius of the inner circle = 5.3 – 1.8
s.
= 3.5 cm
Rough Diagram
3.5
o
cm
A ok 3.
cm
5
O 5.3 cm
A
B
O B
5.3 cm
ab
ur
w
Unit Test
Time: 1 hr Max Marks : 25
I. Fill in the blanks. 5×1=5
1. The order of rotational symmetry of a circle is ___________.
m
2. The order of rotational symmetry of a square is __________.
3. The angle of rotation of a rectangle is ________.
Geometry
4. A full turn means a rotation of __________ degrees.
co
5. The default direction of a rotation is in the __________ direction.
s.
(i) (ii)
4→ 3↑
o
5← 2↓
ok
B
A1
B1
A B
ur
Answers
I. 1. infinite 2. 4
w
3. 180° 4. 360°
5. anti clockwise
II. 6.
B
B1
A1
m
A
Unit 4
7. (i) 5← 4↑ (ii) 3→ 1↑
co
8.
The total number of times the figure coincides with itself in one complete rotational is
complete rotaion is called the order of rotational symmetry. An object is said to have a
rotational symmetry if it looks the same after being rotated about its centre through an
angle less than 360°.
9.
Translation symmetry occurs when a pattern slides to a new position. The sliding
s.
movement involves neither rotation not reflection.
10. A reflection is a transformation that ‘flips’ or ‘reflects’ a figure about a line.
ok
III. 11. Diameter = 8cm and 6cm
radius = 4 cm and 3 cm
Rough Diagram
o
A
cm
A 3
m O 4 cm B
ab
3c
O B
4 cm
ur
= 1 cm
12.
w
3.8 cm
A
O
w
w
5
Chapter
Statistics
m
co
Arithmetic Mean
Based on the purpose, appropriate data has to be collected and organised to find the
representative of data.
s.
Representative of data are also known as measures of central tendency.
Arithmetic mean is the most commonly used representative of data and is calculated by the
formula.
Sum of all observations
ok
Arithmetic Mean =
Number of observations
TRY THESE (Text book Page No. 96)
1. Collect the height of students of your class. Organise the data in ascending order.
o
Sol. Height of 15 students in our class.
130cm, 150 cm, 155 cm, 142 cm, 138 cm, 145 cm, 148 cm, 147 cm, 148cm, 143 cm, 141cm,
ab
(i) The study time spent by Kathir in a week is 3 hrs, 4 hrs, 5 hrs, 3 hrs, 4 hrs,
3:45 hrs; 4:15 hrs. 3 51
Sol. Arithmetic Mean =
Sum of all observations )
7 27 )
7 360
w
Number of observations 21 35
3 + 4 + 5 + 3 + 4 + 3.45 + 4.15 6 10
=
7 7
27
w
= = 3 hrs 52 min 3
7
mean = 3 : 52 hrs.
w
(ii) The marks scored by Muhil in five subjects are 75, 91, 48, 63, 51.
Sum of all observations
Sol. Arithmetic Mean =
Number of observations
75 + 91+ 48 + 63 + 51 328
= =
5 5
Arithmetic mean = 65.6
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Ph: 9600175757 / 8124201000 / 8124301000
This is only for Sample Materials
for full Book Order Online or Available at all Leading Bookstores
Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
(iii) Money spent on vegetables for five days is ` 120, ` 80, ` 75, ` 95 and ` 86.
Sum of all observations
Sol. Arithmetic Mean =
Number of observations
120 + 80 + 75 + 95 + 86 456
= =
5 5
m
Unit 5
Think
co
(Text book Page No. 99)
Check the properties of arithmetic mean for the example given below:
X 3 6 9 12 15
(i) If the mean is increased by 2, then what happens to the individual observations.
s.
Sol. Given number are 3, 6, 9, 12, 15
Sum of all observations
Arithmetic Mean =
Number of observations
=
If mean is increased by 2 then,
o ok
3 + 6 + 9 + 12 + 15
5
Sum of observations
=
45
5
=9
9+2 =
5
ab
Sum of observations = 5 × 11 = 55
Difference in sum = 55 – 45 = 10
∴ Each number is increased by 2 if the mean is increased by 2.
(ii) If first two items are increased by 3 and last two items are reduced by 3, then
ur
6 + 9 + 9 + 9 + 12
∴ Mean of new numbers =
5
45
= =9
w
5
There is no change in the mean.
Exercise 5.1
w
(i) The mean of first ten natural numbers is _______. [Ans : 5.5]
(ii) If the average selling price of 15 books is ` 235, then the total selling price is
_______. [Ans : 3,525]
(iii) The average of the marks 2, 9, 5, 4, 4, 8, 10 is ________. [Ans : 6]
(iv) The average of integers between –10 to 10 is _______. [Ans : 0]
2. Ages of 15 students in 8th standard is 13, 12, 13, 14, 12, 13, 13, 14, 12, 13, 13, 14, 13, 12,
14. Find the mean age of the students.
Sum of all observations
Sol. Arithmetic Mean =
Number of observations
13 + 12 + 13 + 14 + 12 + 13 + 13 + 14 + 12 + 13 + 13 + 14 + 13 + 12 + 14
m
=
15
195
= = 13
Statistics
15
co
Mean age of the students = 13
3. The marks of 14 students in a science test out of 50 are given below. 34, 23, 10, 45, 44, 47,
35, 37, 41, 30, 28, 32, 45, 39 Find
(i) the mean mark.
s.
(ii) the maximum mark obtained.
(iii) the minimum mark obtained.
Sum of all marks
ok
Sol. (i) Mean marks =
Total number of marks
34 + 23 + 10 + 45 + 44 + 47 + 35 + 37 + 41+ 30 + 28 + 32 + 45 + 39
=
14
o
490
=
14
ab
Mean marks = 35
(ii) Maximum mark obtained = 47
(iii) Minimum mark obtained = 10
4. The mean height of 11 students in a group is 150 cm. The heights of the students
ur
are 154 cm, 145 cm, Y cm, Y + 4 cm, 160 cm, 151 cm, 149 cm, 149 cm, 150 cm,
144 cm and 140 cm. Find the value of Y and the heights of two students.
Sum of heights of all students
Sol. Mean Height =
Number of students
.s
1342 + Y + Y + 4
150 =
11
1346 + 2Y
w
150 =
11
150 × 11 = 1346 + 2Y
1650 = 1346 + 2Y
w
5. The mean of runs scored by a cricket team in the last 10 innings is 276. If the scores
are 235, 400, 351, x, 100, 315, 410, 165, 260, 284, then find the runs scored in the fourth
innings.
Sol. Let the runs scored in the fourth innings be x.
Total runs of all innings
Mean runs scored =
m
number of innings
Unit 5
co
276 =
10
276 × 10 = 2520 + x
2760 = 2520 + x
x = 2760 – 2520 = 240
∴ Number of runs scored in the fourth innings = 240
s.
6. Find the mean of the following data. 5.1, 4.8, 4.3, 4.5, 5.1, 4.7, 4.5, 5.2, 5.4, 5.8, 4.3, 5.6,
5.2, 5.5. Sum of all numbers
ok
Sol. Mean =
Number of values
5.1+ 4.8 + 4.3 + 4.5 + 5.1+ 4.7 + 4.5 + 5.2 + 5.4 + 5.8 + 4.3 + 5.6 + 5.2 + 5.5
=
14
70.0
o
= =5
14
Mean = 5
ab
7. Arithmetic mean of 10 observations was found to be 22. If one more observation 44 was
to be added to the data, what would be the new mean?
Sol. Arithmetic mean of 10 observation is 22.
Sum of all observations
Arithmetic mean =
ur
Number of observations
sum of 10 observations
22 =
10
.s
11
220 + 44 264
= = = 24
11 11
w
New mean = 24
m
10. The average of two numbers are 20. One number is 24, another number is ______.
(1) 16 (2) 26 (3) 20 (4) 40 [Ans : (1) 16]
Statistics
x+ y
co
Hint : = 20
2
x+y = 40
24 + y = 40
y = 40 – 24 = 16
s.
11. The mean of the data 12, x, 28 is 18. Find the value of x.
(1) 18 (2) 16 (3) 14 (4) 22 [Ans : (3) 14]
ok
12 + x + 28
Hint : = 18
3
x + 40 = 54
x = 14
o
Additional Questions
ab
1. The class scores on an exam are 97, 85, 92, 78 and 90. What is the average score?
Sum of scores
Sol. Average score =
Number of scores
97 + 85 + 92 + 78 + 90
ur
=
5
442
= = 88 .4
5
.s
Sum of observation
27 =
20
Sum of observations = 27 × 20
w
MODE
Mode is the value of the data which occurs maximum number of times.
A data may have more than one mode as well as no mode.
A data is of large size, mode can be found out after grouping.
m
Unit 5
co
1. Find the mode of the following data. 2, 6, 5, 3, 0, 3, 4, 3, 2, 4, 5, 2
Sol. Arranging the numbers in ascending order we get 0, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 5, 5, 6
Since 2 and 3 occurs the maximum of 3 times. So mode of this data is 2 and 3.
2. Find the mode of the following data set. 3, 12, 15, 3, 4, 12, 11, 3, 12, 9, 19.
s.
Sol. Arranging the given data in ascending order : 3, 3, 3, 4, 9, 11, 12, 12, 12, 15, 19.
The data 3 and 12 occurs the maximum of 3 times.
So mode of this data is 3 and 12.
ok
3. Find the mode of even numbers within 20.
Sol. Even numbers within 20 are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18.
There is no mode for this data.
o
(Text book Page No. 102)
1. A toy factory making variety of toys for kids, wants to know the most popular toy liked
ab
by all the kids. Which average will be the most appropriate for it?
Sol. Mode.
2. Is there a mode exists between the odd numbers from 20 to 40? Discuss.
Sol. Odd number between 20 to 40 are 21, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39.
ur
As all numbers occurs only once there is no mode for this data.
Which average will be most aprropriate for the companies producing the following
goods? why?
(i) Diaries and notebooks. (ii) School bags. (iii) Jeans and T-shirts.
Sol. For all the above data mode will be more appropriate.
w
Exercise 5.2
w
2. The number of points scored by a Kabaddi team in 20 matches are 36, 35, 27, 28, 29, 31,
32, 31, 35, 38, 38, 31, 28, 31, 34, 33, 34, 31, 30, 29. Find the mode of the points scored by
the team.
Sol. Arranging the given data in ascending order 27, 28, 28, 29, 29, 30, 31, 31, 31, 31, 31, 32, 33,
34, 34, 35, 35, 36, 38, 38.
m
Here the number 31 occurs 5 times which is the maximum.
∴ Mode of this data is 31.
3. The ages (in years) of 11 cricket players are given below. 25, 36, 39,38 40, 36, 25, 25, 38,
Statistics
co
26, 36. Find the mode of the ages.
Sol. Arranging the ages is ascending order: 25, 25, 25, 26, 36, 36, 36, 36, 38, 38, 39, 40.
25 and 36 occurs maximum number of times.
∴ Mode is 25 and 36.
s.
4. Find the mode of the following data. 12, 14, 12, 16, 15, 13, 14, 18, 19, 12, 14, 15, 16, 15, 16,
16, 15, 17, 13, 16, 16, 15, 15, 13, 15, 17, 15, 14, 15, 13, 15, 14.
Sol. Tabulating the given data
ok
Data Tally marks Frequency
12 ||| 3
13 |||| 4
14 |||| 5
o
15 |||| |||| 10
16 |||| | 6
ab
17 || 2
18 | 1
19 | 1
ur
Total 32
The highest frequency is 10 which corresponds to the value 15.
Hence mode of this data is 15.
.s
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
1. Find the mode of the following data. 1, 2, 5, 7, 3, 4, 2, 5, 7, 6, 2, 3.
Sol. Arranging the data in ascending order: 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 6, 7, 7
Here 2 occurs maximum number of times.
m
Unit 5
∴ Mode is 2.
MEDIAN
co
Median is the middle most value of the given data.
To find the median for the given data,
(i) arrange the data in ascending or descending order.
s.
th
æ n + 1ö
(ii) If the number of terms (n) is odd, then çè ÷ term is the median.
2 ø th
th
æ nö æn ö
(iii) If the number of terms (n) is even, then average of çè ÷ø and çè + 1÷ø terms is the
ok
2 2
median.
2
Hence the median is 6.
2. Find the median: 11, 14, 10, 9, 14, 11, 12, 6, 7, 7.
Sol. Arranging in ascending order: 6, 7, 7, 9, 10, 11, 11, 12, 14, 14
.s
þ
th th
1 ìæ 10 ö æ 10 ö ü
= íç ÷ term + ç + 1÷ term ý
2 îè 2 ø è 2 ø þ
w
1 th 1
= {5 term + 6th term} = {10+11}
2 2
1
w
= (21) = 10.5
2
∴ Median = 10.5
Complete the table given below and observe it to answer the following questions.
Series Values Mean Median
m
A 99,100,101 100 100
B 90,100,110 100 100
Statistics
C 50,100,150 100 100
co
D 99,100,200 99.99 100
(i) Which are all the series having common mean and median?
Sol. A, B and C.
(ii) Why median is same for all the 4 series?
s.
Sol. Since the middle value is 100.
(iii) How mean is unchanged in the series A, B and C?
Sol. The difference between the given numbers are equal.
th th
æ n + 1ö æ 7 + 1ö
∴ Median = çè ÷ term = çè ÷ term
2 ø 2 ø
w
th
æ 8ö
= çè ÷ø term = 4th term
2
Hence Median = 34
w
3. The weekly sale of motor bikes in a showroom for the past 14 weeks given below. 10, 6, 8,
3, 5, 6, 4, 7, 12, 13, 16, 10, 4, 7. Find the median of the data.
Sol. Arranging the given data in ascending order 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 6, 7, 7, 8, 10, 10, 12, 13, 16.
w
1 th
= {7 term + 8th term}
2
1 1
= {7 + 7} = (14) = 7
2 2
m
∴ Median = 7
Unit 5
4. Find the median of the 10 observations 36, 33, 45, 28, 39, 45, 54, 23, 56, 25. If another
observation 35 is added to the above data, what would be the new median?
co
Sol. Arranging the given 10 observations in ascending order 23, 25, 28, 33, 36, 39, 45, 45, 54, 56.
Here number of data n = 10, which is even
th th
1 ìæ n ö æn ö ü
∴ Median = íç ÷ term + ç + 1÷ term ý
2 îè 2 ø è2 ø þ
s.
th th
1 ìæ 10 ö æ 10 ö ü
= íç ÷ term + ç + 1÷ term ý
è
2î 2 ø è 2 ø þ
1 th 1
ok
= {5 term + 6th term} = {36 + 39}
2 2
1
= (75) = 37.5
2
o
∴ Median = 37.5
If 35 is added to the above data then it will be the 5th term then number of data
ab
n = 11, odd
th th
æ n + 1ö æ 11+ 1ö
∴ Median = çè ÷ term = çè ÷ term
2 ø 2 ø
th
æ 12 ö
ur
a = 2
6. The median of the data 24, 29, 34, 38, 35 and 30, is_____________
w
m
2 2
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
Statistics
co
1. Find the median of the data 1, 3, 7, 16, 0, 19, 7, 4, 3.
Sol. Arranging the given data in ascending order: 0, 1, 3, 3, 4, 7, 7, 16, 19
Number of terms n = 9, which is odd.
s.
th
æ n + 1ö
∴ Median = çè ÷ term
2 ø
th th
æ 9 + 1ö æ 10 ö
= çè ÷ term = çè ÷ø term
ok
2 ø 2
= 5th term
Hence Median = 4
2. Find the median of first 10 even number.
o
Sol. First 10 even numbers are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20.
Here number of data n = 10, which is even
ab
th th
1 ìæ n ö æn ö ü
∴ Median = íç ÷ term + çè + 1÷ø term ý
2 îè 2 ø 2 þ
th th
1 ìæ 10 ö æ 10 ö ü
= íç ÷ term + ç + 1÷ term ý
ur
2 îè 2 ø è 2 ø þ
1 th 1 1
= {5 term + 6th term} = {10 + 12} = (22)
2 2 2
∴ Median = 11
.s
Exercise 5.4
w
Number of observations
Sum of 15 observation
85 =
15
85 × 15 = sum of 15 observations
1275 = sum of 15 observations
Wrong observation = 73
Correct observation = 28
Sum - Wrong value + Correct value
∴ Correct Mean =
Number of obervation
1275 -73 + 28 1202 + 28 1230
m
= = = = 82
Unit 5
15 15 15
Correct mean = 82
co
2. Find the median of 25, 16, 15, 10, 8, 30.
Sol. Arranging is ascending order : 8, 10, 15, 16, 25, 30
Here n = 6, even
th th
1 ìæ n ö æn ö ü
∴ Median = íç ÷ term + ç + 1÷ term ý
s.
2 îè 2 ø è2 ø þ
th th
1 ìæ 6 ö æ6 ö ü
= íç ÷ term + ç + 1÷ term ý
2 îè 2 ø è2 ø þ
3.
=
∴ Median
o 1 rd
2
= 15.5
Find the mode of 2, 5, 5, 1, 3, 2, 2, 1, 3, 5, 3.
ok 1
2
1
{3 term + 4th term} = {15 + 16} = (31) = 15.5
2
Sol. Arranging the given data in ascending order: 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18.
Sum of all observations
Mean =
Number of observations
.s
8 + 10 + 12 + 14 + 16 + 18 78
= =
6 6
Mean = 13
w
2 îè 2 ø è2 ø þ
th th
1 ìæ 6 ö æ6 ö ü
= íç ÷ term + ç + 1÷ term ý
2 îè 2 ø è2 ø þ
w
1 th
= {3 term + 4th term}
2
1 1
= {8 + 18} = (26) = 13
2 2
∴ Median = 13
5. The number of goals scored by a football team is given below. Find the mode and median
for the data of 2, 3, 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 2, 4, 1, 6.
Sol. Arranging the given data in ascending order: 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 4, 6, 6
Clearly 2 occurs at the maximum of 3 times and so mode = 2
Here number of data of data n = 11, odd.
m
th
æ n + 1ö
∴ Median = çè ÷ term
2 ø
Statistics
th th
æ 11+ 1ö æ 12 ö
co
= çè ÷ term = çè ÷ø term
2 ø 2
= 6th term
Median = 3
6. Find the mean and mode of 6, 11, 13, 12, 4, 2.
s.
Sol. Arranging is ascending order : 2, 4, 6, 11, 12, 13
Sum of all observations
Mean =
Number of observations
Mean =
o 48
6
=8ok
2 + 4 + 6 + 11+ 12 + 13
6
All observation occurs only once and so there is no mode for this date.
ab
Challenge Problems
7. The average marks of six students is 8. One more student mark is added and the mean is
still 8. Find the student mark that has been added.
ur
Sum of observation = 6 × 8
= 48
If one more mark is added then number of observations = 6 + 1 = 7
Let the number be x
w
Still average = 8
48 + x
∴8 =
7
48 + x = 7 × 8
w
48 + x = 56
48 + x = 56 – 48
w
x = 8
∴ The number that is added = 8
8. Calculate the mean, mode and median for the following data:
22, 15, 10, 10, 24, 21.
Sol. Arranging in ascending order: 10, 10, 15, 21, 22, 24
Sum of all observations
Mean =
Number of observations
m
10 + 10 + 15 + 21+ 22 + 24
Unit 5
=
102 6
= = 17
6
co
Here n = 6, even
th th
1 ìæ n ö æn ö ü
∴ Median = íç ÷ term + ç + 1÷ term ý
2 îè 2 ø è2 ø þ
th th
1 ìæ 6 ö æ6 ö ü
= íç ÷ term + ç + 1÷ term ý
s.
2 îè 2 ø è2 ø þ
1 th 1
= {3 term + 4th term} = {15 + 21}
2 2
ok
1
= (36)
2
∴ Median = 18
Clearly the data 10 occurs maximum number of times and so 10 is the mode.
o
∴ Mode = 10
9. Find the median of the given data: 14, −3, 0, −2, −8, 13, −1, 7.
ab
Sol. Arranging the data is ascending order: –8, –3, –2, –1, 0, 7, 13, 14
Here number of data n = 8, even
th th
1 ìæ n ö æn ö ü
∴ Median = íç ÷ term + çè + 1÷ø term ý
2 îè 2 ø 2 þ
ur
th th
1 ìæ 8 ö æ8 ö ü
= íç ÷ term + ç + 1÷ term ý
2 îè 2 ø è2 ø þ
1 th
.s
∴ Median = – 0.5
10. Find the mean of first 10 prime numbers and first 10 composite numbers.
w
Sol. First 10 prime numbers are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29
Sum of all data
Mean =
number of data
w
2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11+ 13 + 17 + 19 + 23 + 29
=
10
129
=
10
Mean = 12.9
Mean of first 10 prime numbers = 12.9
First 10 composite numbers are 4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, 14, 15, 16, 18
4 + 6 + 8 + 9 + 10 + 12 + 14 + 15 + 16 + 18
Mean =
m
10
112
=
10
Statistics
= 11.2
co
Mean of first 10 composite numbers = 11.2
Unit Test
s.
Time: 1 hr Max Marks : 25
I. Fill in the blanks. 5×1=5
1.
2.
3.
4.
Mode of 9, 8, 15, 8, 20 is ________. ok
Mean of 19, 21, 18, 17, 18, 22, 46 is _________.
Median of 19, 21, 18, 17, 18, 22, 46 is ________.
9. The mean height of 5 children is 1.63m. If another child who is 1.75m tall joined this group
find the mean height?
10. Find the median of 8, 9, 10, 10, 10, 11, 11, 11, 12, 13.
.s
Answers
w
I. 1. 23 2. 19 3. 8 4. 34 5. 34
II. 6. 34.78 7. 3 and 5 8. 3 9. 1.65 m
w
10. 10.5
III. 11. Mean = 15, Median = 14, Mode = 8
12. Mean = 3.5, Median = 3, Mode = None.
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Information
6
Chapter
Processing
m
co
The process that involves deciding of the ordering of tasks and allocating of appropriate
resources among the different type of possible tasks is called scheduling.
Whatever activity a human being or machine does for achieving a specified objective comes
under problem solving.
s.
A flowchart is a pictorial representation and it gives an idea of instructions to perform a task
or calculation.
ok
Shape Name Meaning
Flowline Used to connect shapes and indicates the flow of
instructions.
Terminal Used to represent the start and End of the task.
o
Input / Output Used to the instruction to be read or displayed are
described inside.
ab
Exercise 6.1
1. Match the following:
w
2. c=a+b
3. Start / End
w
4. a >= 0
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Sura’s Mathematics 7th Std 5 in 1 Term - III
Sol.
S. No. Symbols Uses
1. Input / Output
2. c=a+b
m
3. Start / End
co
4. a >= 0
s.
5. It shows direction of flow
2. The steps of withdrawing cash from your saving bank account using ATM card are
explained in the figures given below. Construct an appropriated flow chart.
(i) o ok Insert a ATM debit /credit card
withdraw
m
Insert a ATM card
Unit 6
co
Select your plan
s.
Select Savings Proceed to recharge
End
ok
Complete the direction of the flowchart
using arrows for the flow chart
explaining the traffic rule given below.
Enter the amount
o
Collect your cash
ab
Flowchart
End Start
Signal = Signal = No
(v)
red yellow
Enter your PIN
(vi) Enter the required amount
Yes
Signal = No Signal =
choose your recharge plan red yellow
No
• Proceed to recharge
Print Print Print
“Stop” “Wait” “Go”
End
m Information Processing
Input Name
a = Living thing
b = Non living thing
co
Flowchart
No
Name = a
Yes Sol. (i)
Start
Input T, E, M, S, SS
s.
Sol. Input name Horse
Horse = a
Average = (T + E + M + S + SS) / 5
Yes
Print Living thing
Flowchart
Start
Input Name
o ok Print “Average”
End
No Yes
Name = a
No Average Yes
> 75
Print “b” Print “a”
ur
End
Print
“Try to get
Print
“Very good”
6. Complete the given flowchart. more marks”
(i) Fill in the flow chart to print the
.s
Average = (T + E + M + S + SS) / 5
flow chart to print ‘PROFIT’ if the
selling price (SP) is more than the cost
price (CP) or else ‘LOSS’.
w
Algorithm: Algorithm:
(i) Enter cost price (i) Read principal
(ii) Enter selling price (ii) Read years
(iii) Checking whether CP < SP (iii) Read rate of interest per year
(iv) If Yes print ‘PROFIT’ (iv) Calculate the interest with formula
m
Interest = Principal × Years
Unit 6
co
Start 2. Draw a flowchart to convert the
given Fahrenheit temperature to
5
Input CP, SP Celsius. Formula is C = × (F – 32)
9
Sol. Algorithm:
s.
(i) Read temperature in Fahrenheit
No Amount = Yes (ii) Calculate temperature in Celsius
CP < SP
5
ok
using formula C = × (F – 32)
9
Print Print (iii) Print C
“Loss” “ ”
Start
o
End
Read F
ab
Additional Questions
5
1. Draw a flowchart to calculate simple C= × (F – 32)
interest for your bank deposit.
9
ur
Input principal
End
Input years
w
Input Rate
w
Print Interest
End
Unit Test
Time: 1 hr Max Marks : 25
I. Answer the following questions. 5 × 5 = 25
1. Draw a flowchart to determine whether a student passed the exam or not. If average of 5 marks
m
≥ 50, he passed.
Information Processing
2. Draw a flowchart to find the area and perimeter of a square.
3. Draw a flowchart to find the area and perimeter of a rectangle.
4. Draw a flow chart to find the sum of two numbers.
co
5. Draw a flow chart to find the perimeter of a triangle.
Answers Start
I. 1. 2.
s.
Start
Input the value side
Input M1, M2, M3, M4, M5
Area = Side × Side
ok
Average = (M1 + M2+ M3 + M4 + M5) / 5
Perimeter= 4 × Side
if Average
Yes No
< 50
Print Area
Print “FAIL” Print “PASS”
o
Print Perimeter
End
ab
Stop
3. Start 4. Start
Sum = A + B
Print Area
Print sum
w
Print Perimeter
End
End
w
5. Start
Enter sides A, B, C
w
Perimeter = A + B + C
Print Perimeter
End
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m
Part - A
Sura’s Model Summative Question paper Term III - 2019-20
co
2. (5 + 20)(−20 − 5) = ?
(i) –425 (ii) 375 (iii) –625 (iv) 0
3. Kavin scored 15 out of 25 in a test. The percentage of his marks is
(i) 60% (ii) 15% (iii) 25% (iv) 15/25
s.
4. The transformation used in the picture is
(i) Translation (ii) Rotation
(iii) Reflection (iv) Glide Reflection
5.
10. When x is an integer, the solution set for x ≤ 0 are −1, −2,..
III. Match the following : 5×1= 5
11. 39.814 ≈ 39.8 (i) Rounded to hundredth place
ur
20. The median of the data 12, 14, 23, 25, 34, 11, 42, 45, 32, 22, 44 is _________.
Part - B
w
25. Out of total 120 teachers of a school 70 were 39. In what time will ` 17800 amount to `
male. Express the number of male teachers 19936 at 6% per annum?
as percentage. 40. Solve the following inequations and
26. Kumaran worked 7 months out of the year. represent the solution on the number line:
What percentage of the year did he work?
3m − 5 ≤ 2m + 1, m is an integer.
m
27. Consider a square shaped paddy field with
co
you find the area of the pathway by using
identities?
28. Simplify: (a + b)2 − 4ab.
29. Using identity, find the value of (4.9)2
30. Find the new position of each point using
s.
the translation given.
2 →, 4 ↓ 42. Arithmetic mean of 10 observations was
found to be 22. If one more observation 44
ok
A
was to be added to the data, what would be
the new mean?
43. Construct the flow chart to print teachers
comment as “very good” if your average
mark is above 75 out of 100 or else, as “still
o
try more” can be inserted in the flow chart
31. Give some examples of shapes with no line with earlier one.
ab
of symmetry. Flowchart
19, 7, 4, 3.
35. Find the median of the given data: 14, −3,
0, −2, −8, 13, −1, 7.
Part - D
w
Answers
Part - A
I. 1. (ii) 4.17 2. (iii) –625
3. (i) 60% 4. (ii) Rotation
m
5. (i) `500
Sura’s Model Summative Question paper Term III - 2019-20
co
10.False
III. 11.39.814 ≈ 39.8 - Rounded to tenth place
12.35.0014 ≈ 35.001 - Rounded to thousandth place
13.21.805 21.81 -Rounded to hundredth place
14.8.71 ≈ 9 - Rounded to nearest whole number
s.
15.61.00208 ≈ 61.00221 - Rounded to ten thousandth place
IV. 16.(x – 2) and (x – 2) 17. p2 – 2pq + q2
18.5.5 19. 0
V.
20.25
Part - B
21. Refer Sura Guide Chapter -1.2 Q.No. 2
22. Refer Sura Guide Chapter -1.3 Q.No. 3
o
23. Refer Sura Guide Chapter -2.1 Q.No. 7
ok
24. Refer Sura Guide Chapter -2.1 Q.No. 1
25. Refer Sura Guide Chapter -2.5 Q.No. 3
ab
Part - C
VI. 36. Refer Sura Guide Chapter -1.2 Q.No. 6
37. Refer Sura Guide Chapter -1.4 Q.No. 4 (i), (ii)
w
m
S
co
C
s.
TERM ok I
E
o
III
ab
N
ur
C
.s
w
E
w
w
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C ontents
m
co
s.
SCIENCE
Unit
o
Name ok Page
No.
1. Light 285 - 304
ab
284
Unit
01 Light
m
LEARNING OBJECTIVES
co
understand that light is an energy
differentiate natural and artificial light sources
s.
know reflection of light and its types
Light
Sources of light
Properties of light
ur
Natural Artificial
.s
Diffuse Reflection
Reflection
w
Specular Reflection
Speed
Transparent Material
w
m
:
light of light.
Rectilinear Light travels in straight line, it cannot bend the path itself.
:
co
propagation of light
The bouncing back of light from a reflecting surface is called
Reflection :
reflection.
Incident ray : The ray of light that falls on the surface of the reflection materials.
s.
Physics
The ray of light that comes from the point when the incident ray falls
Reflected Ray :
on the reflection materials.
The point of which are incident ray strikes the reflecting surface is
Point of incidence
Normal
Angle of incidence
:
:
ok
the point of incidence.
The perpendicular line drawn from the point of incidence to the
plane of reflecting surface is called normal.
o
The angle between the incident ray and the line BD.
Unit 1
Angle of reflection : The angle between the reflected ray and the normal.
ab
Transparent Materials that allow light to pass through completely are known as
:
materials transparent material.
Objects that allow light to pass through partially are called
Translucent materials :
translucent material.
ur
Materials that are not able to allow light to pass through, are called
Opaque materials :
opaque material.
Real image : The images that are obtained on a screen are called real image.
.s
If the colours are not clear adjust the position of the mirror to
Spectrum : bring it into focus. This arrangement of colours in sunlight is called
spectrum.
w
w
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EVALUATION
I. Choose the correct option:
m
1. Light travels only in a _______ . It is because of this property that _______ are formed.
(a) curved line, shadows (b) straight line, shadows
(c) straight line, reflection (d) curved line and then straight line, shadows
co
[Ans. (b) straight line, shadows]
2. Light that hits a mirror gets _________
(a) Transmitted (b) Reflected
(c) Absorbed (d) Refracted [Ans. (b) Reflected]
s.
3. _____________ surface reflects the light well
(a) Water (b) Compact disc (c) Mirror (d) Stone
ok
[Ans. (c) Mirror]
4. Light is a form of ____________
Light
(a) matter (b) energy (c) medium (d) particle
[Ans. (b) energy]
o
5. You can see your image in polished floors, but not in wooden table because ____________
(a) regular reflection takes place in wooden table and irregular reflection in polished
ab
floor
(b) regular reflection takes place in polished floor and irregular reflection in wooden table
(c) regular reflection takes place in both polished floor and wooden table
(d) irregular reflection takes place in both polished floor and wooden table
ur
8.
(a) plastic plate (b) plane mirror (c) wall (d) paper
[Ans. (b) plane mirror]
w
9. Sivarajan placed a meter stick in the playground at 7.00 am in the morning. How will the shadow
of the stick at noon look in comparison to the one in the morning
(a) There will be no shadow
(b) The shadow will be longer and on the opposite side as the sun
(c) The shadow will be shorter and on the same side as the sun
(d) The shadow will be shorter [Ans. (d) The shadow will be shorter]
287
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m
11. Which of the following facts explain how shadows are formed?
(a) Light travels in straight lines
(b) Opaque bodies do not allow light to pass through them
co
(c) Reflection occurs at a smooth surfaces like mirrors
(d) Lateral inversion happens
(a) both A and B (b) both A and D
(c) both B and C (d) only A [Ans. (a) both A and B]
s.
II. Fill in the blanks:
Physics
7. The sunlight can be split into its constituent colours using ____________ . [Ans. prism]
ab
8. Reflection of light from rough surface is called __________ reflection. [Ans. irregular]
3.
the periscope is also laterally inverted
Ans. False. Correct statement : The image formed by the plane mirror is laterally inverted, hence
the image seen through the periscope is erect.
w
Ans. True
5. We see a book because it reflects the light that falls on its surface
Ans. True
w
288
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m
10. A shadow is formed on the same side of the object as the source of light.
Ans. False. Correct statement : A shadow is formed on the opposite side of the object as the
source of light.
co
11. We are able to see things around us with the help of regular reflection
Ans. True
12. After passing through a prism, white light splits into a band of seven colours
Ans. True
s.
IV. Match the following:
1. Rectilinear propagation Primary source of light
2.
3.
Plane Mirror
Fire fly
ok
Non-luminous object
Periscope
Light
4. The Moon Pinhole camera
5. Wide light source Spectrum of light
o
6. Regular reflection luminous object
7. The sun Penumbra
ab
Angle of Angle of
Incidence
i r
w
Incident Ray
O
Pencil
Eye
m
a) Draw its image formed by the mirror
b) Show how light rays from the object are reflected at the mirror to form the image
co
for the eye.
Ans. a) b)
s.
Physics
o ok
Unit 1
3. A person is looking at the image of a tree in a mirror placed 3.5 m in front of him. Given
that the tree is at 0.5 m behind his eyes. Find the distance between the image of the tree
ab
0.5 m 3.5 m 4m
Distance between the person and the mirror = 3.5 m Things needed to see
Distance between the person and tree (object) = 0.5 m. an object :
.s
6. What are the three types of materials based on the absorption of light?
Ans. (i) Transparent Material
(ii) Translucent Material
(iii) Opaque Material
290
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(i) All objects do not form shadows. Only opaque objects form shadows.
(ii) Shadows will be formed in the opposite side of light source.
(iii) It cannot be determined the characteristics of an object by its shadow.
co
(iv) The shadow will be always darker, whatever may be the color of light rays.
(v) Light source, opaque object are shadow all are in a straight line.
(vi) The size of shadow depends upon the distance between light source and object and
the distance between object and the screen.
s.
9. What is plane mirror?
Ans. A plane mirror is a mirror with a flat reflective surface. A plane mirror makes an image of
objects in front of it.
10. What is prism?
ok
Light
Ans. A prism is an object made up of a transparent material, like glass or plastic that has at least
two flat surfaces that form an acute angle (less than 90º).
o
11. What do you mean by visible light?
Ans. Visible light is a spectrum of a number of waves with different wavelength range from
ab
400nm to 700nm (1nm = 10-9 meter) each wave has a definite wavelength represents a
particular colour.
12. Write the items given here in the correct column (Stars, brick walls, plants, mirror, planets,
electric light bulb, candle)
ur
Ans.
Sources of Light Objects that reflect light
Stars Brick walls
w
14. Draw a diagram of a pinhole camera showing the rays of light passing between the Object
and its image
Ans. X
m
Translucent
Screen
Y’
co
O
Pin Hole
Object Y
X’
Box Inverted
Image
15. Why is the writing on the front of an ambulance back to front as shown in the picture?
s.
Physics
Ans. (i)
o
This is due to lateral inversion.
ok
Unit 1
(ii) The phenomenon due to which the left side of an object appears to be right side of
ab
Ans. Any letter that has a bilateral symmetry will have its mirror image the same as that of the
object.
Example :
A A
.s
H H
w
17. Two plane mirrors M1 and M2 are placed perpendicular with each other, as shown in
figure. The ray AB makes an angle 39º with the plane mirror M1, then A
2
A
3. i = 39º M1
39º 39º
51º
4. r = 39º C
M2
292
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18. Rajan was playing with the mirror images of a clock. He looked at the clock in his room.
It was showing 1:40. Draw the position of the hands on the real clock and on its mirror
reflection. Write below the picture what time each picture
is showing.
Ans.
m
co
1 : 40 1 : 20
s.
light.
20. If a ray of light is falling on a plane mirror at an angle of 50º is formed, what will be the
ok
angle of reflection?
Ans. Angle of incidence i = 90º – 50º
Light
i = 40º
According to laws of reflection,
o
i = r i r
40º ?
Angle of incidence = Angle of reflection
ab
50º
i = 40º
∴ r = 40º
Angle of reflection r = 40º
ur
23. Why do we see white color in Newton’s disc, when we rotate it very fast?
Ans. When the disc turned quickly, the retina receives the sensation of the spectrum simultaneously
and disc appears white.
w
24. What is a shadow? What things are necessary for the formation of a shadow?
Ans. (i) Shadows are formed because light travels in straight lines.
w
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m
parallel beam of light, such a reflection is called regular
reflection. Specular Reflection
(Smooth surface) (or)
Regular reflection
(ii) Irregular reflection : When a parallel beam of light, on
striking some rough surface, is reflected in different directions,
co
then such a reflection is called irregular or diffused reflection.
Diffused Reflection
(Rough surface) (or)
2. What are the difference between luminous and non-luminous irregular reflection
s.
objects? Give two examples of each.
Physics
ok
themselves are called luminous objects. energy of their own, but reflect the
light energy falling on them and
hence, become visible are called non-
luminous object.
o
2. Ex. : Sun, stars, torch light, burning candle Ex. : Metals, trees, houses, stones,
Unit 1
3. Write about two everyday situations that tell you that light travels in a straight line.
Ans. (i) Formation of shadow : Shadows are formed when some light rays continue its travel
in straight lines while other rays are stopped by an object.
(ii) When there is a small hole in a room, light travels only in a straight line.
ur
2. Eg. : You see your reflection in a Eg. : If you place your hand in front of a candle,
pool of water or mirror. you will see the image of the hand on the wall.
This image will show only the outline of the
w
B B
m
Ans. (i) When the tube is bent, we cannot see the source of light.
(ii) When the tube is held straight we can see the flame. The two pictures verify that light
co
travels in straight lines. This is known as rectilinear propagation of light.
7. Define the following terms
a. Incident ray b. Reflected ray
c. Normal d. Angle of incidence
s.
Ans. (a) Incident ray: The ray of light that falls on the surface of the reflection materials.
(b) Reflected ray: The ray of light that comes from the point when the incident ray falls
on the reflection material.
(c) Normal: The perpendicular line drawn from the point of incidence to the plane of
reflecting surface is called normal.
ok
(d) Angle of incidence: The angle formed between the incident ray PO and the normal
Light
‘ON’ is angle of incidence.
8. Compare the images formed by plane mirror with that by pinhole camera
o
Ans. Difference between the images formed in Pinhole camera and Plane mirror :
Images formed by Pin hole camera Images formed in Plane mirror
ab
Intext Activities
ACTIVITY - 4
Let’s categorize transparent material, translucent material and opaque material among
.s
foil, thick colored plastic lid, rough glass piece, measuring glass with water, wooden piece)
Place all the materials given above in the dark room. Focus a torch light on one side of each
material. Inspect the light coming out at the other side of each material and then classify
w
ACTIVITY - 6
Surfaces Property of Image (Clearer / blurred)
Glass Blurred
Metal Sheet Blurred
m
Aluminum foil Clearer
White paper Clearer
co
ACTIVITY - 7
There are eight letters in the word EINSTEIN
1. Write the word in front of a plane mirror shown
in diagram
s.
Physics
ok
when the word is reflected?
4. Write down the letters that appear to be the same.
Ans. (i)
IN
o
STE
Unit 1
EIN
ab
(ii)
N NIET
S TEI SNIE
EIN
ur
ACTIVITY - 10
.s
You need Gelatin papers of Red, Blue and Yellow. Fold each gelatin paper three times
and look different colour objects listed below through each folded paper. Observe what
colour each object has. Write your observations in the table.
w
leaves Green
Brown trouser Brown
White shirt White Red Blue Yellow
Black board Black
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Additional Questions
I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Which of the following is a natural source of light?
m
(a) Electric lamp (b) Electric filament
(c) Torch light (d) Sunlight [Ans. (d) Sunlight]
2. Light shows _______
co
(a) curvilinear propagation (b) random propagation
(c) rectilinear propagation (d) none of these
[Ans. (c) rectilinear propagation]
3. Rectilinear propagation is _______
s.
(a) mode of travelling in straight lines (b) mode of travelling in curved lines
(c) ability to bend around obstacles (d) displaying the phenomenon of diffraction
[Ans. (a) made of travelling in straight lines]
ok
4. Plane mirrors are arranged parallel to each other to get _______
(a) a single image (b) two images
Light
(c) a large number of reflected image (d) no image [Ans. (d) two images]
5. Which of the following is not luminous object?
o
(a) Sun (b) Moon (c) Candle (d) Bulb
[Ans. (b) Moon]
ab
10.
(a) always real (b) always uncapturable on a screen
(c) always inverted (d) always caught on a screen
[Ans. (b) always uncapturable on a screen]
w
3. _______ is a simple device which helps us to understand about the rectilinear propagation
of light. [Ans. Pin-hole camera]
4. The light falling on the mirror is called as _______and the light reflected is called _________.
[Ans. incident ray, reflected ray]
5. The angle formed between the reflected ray and the normal is _______.
m
[Ans. angle of reflection]
6. Light travels _______ km per second in air or vacuum. [Ans. 3 lakh]
7. Materials that allow light to pass through completely are known as _______ material.
co
[Ans. transparent]
8. Materials that allow light to pass through partially are called _______ materials.
[Ans. translucent]
9. Materials that are not able to allow light to pass through it are called _______ materials.
s.
[Ans. opaque]
Physics
10. _______ is always against, opposite side of light source. [Ans. Shadow]
11. The _______ is the darkest part of a shadow. [Ans. umbra]
ok
12. The lighter shade of shadow is the _______. [Ans. penumbra]
13. Only _______objects forms shadows. [Ans. opaque]
14. _______eclipse occurs, when the moon arrives between the sun and the Earth.[Ans. Solar]
15. _______cables are able to carry more signals than traditional copper cable telephone lines.
[Ans. Fibre optic]
o
Unit 1
16. The images that are obtained on a screen are called _______and that which cannot be obtained
on a screen is _______. [Ans. real image, virtual image]
ab
17. When all colours of visible light strikes the retina of our eye at the same time, our brain
perceives _______. [Ans. white]
18. _______colour is scattered the least by air molecules. [Ans. Red]
19. _______is the method of creating colour by mixing various proportion of two or three distinct
ur
Ans. False. Correct statement : The image formed by a plane mirror is virtual and erect.
3. Diffused reflection gives a sharp image.
Ans. False. Correct statement : Regular reflection gives a sharp image.
w
4. The image formed by a plane mirror is always that far behind the mirror as far the object
lies in front of it.
Ans. True.
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5. You can see a rainbow only when your back is towards the sun.
Ans. True.
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7.
Ans. True.
8. We can not get white light when we mix seven colours.
Ans. False. Correct statement : We can get white light when we mix seven colours.
co
9. Materials that allow light to pass through completely are known as transparent material.
Ans. True.
10. Solar and lunar eclipses are occuring due to the property of light known as the rectilinear
s.
propagation of light.
Ans. True.
Light
2. Greased paper (b) Inverted
3. Real image (c) Opaque medium
o
4. Virtual image (d) Translucent medium
[Ans. (1 - c. 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a)]
ab
mirror.
[Ans. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of assertion.]
Correct reason: It is because of the property of image formed in a plane mirror.
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2. Assertion (A) : When an object is placed between two plane mirrors; then all the images
found are of unequal intensity.
Reason (R) : In case of plane parallel mirrors, only two images are possible.
[Ans. (c) A is true but R is false]
Correct reason: In case of plane parallel mirrors, infinite images are formed.
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4. Assertion (A) : A ray incident along normal to the mirror retraces its path.
Reason (R) : In reflection, angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection.
[Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of assertion]
co
VI. Very short Answers:
1. What is the composition of sunlight?
Ans. Sunlight is a mixture of seven colours.
2. How does light travel?
s.
Physics
ok
Ans. Smooth and shiny surface reflects light.
4. Name the triangular piece of glass that splits white light into different colours.
Ans. Prism.
5. What is reflection of light?
o
Ans. When light falls on smooth surface like mirror then it changes its direction, it is called
Unit 1
reflection.
ab
blue, indigo and violet. When the disc turned quickly, the retina receives the sensation of the
spectrum simultaneously and disc appears white.
8. What is an eclipse?
Ans. An eclipse is an incident, when any astronomical object is partially or fully obscured due to
.s
Ans. Sources which emit light naturally are known as natural sources of light. The Sun is the
primary and the major source of natural light.
Mention the properties of light.
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2.
Ans. Light has some fundamental properties as mentioned below.
� Rectilinear propagation of light � Reflection
m
4. Define transparent materials. Give example.
Ans. (i) Materials that allow light to pass through completely are known as transparent
material.
co
(ii) Example: Eye glasses, clear drinking glass, clear water, face glasses used in buses.
5. Define opaque material. Give example.
Ans. (i) Materials that are not able to allow light to pass through, are called opaque material.
(ii) Example: Wall, thick card board, stone, etc.
s.
6. What is lunar eclipse?
Ans. (i) Lunar eclipse occurs, when the Earth (E) comes between the Sun (S) and the Moon
(M).
ok
(ii) The Earth prevents light coming from the Sun and makes shadow on the Moon. This
is lunar eclipse.
Light
7. Why danger lights in vehicles are red in colour?
Ans. (i) Red color is scattered the least by air molecules.
o
(ii) Red color has the highest wavelength of all the other colors. So red color is able to
travel the longest distance through air, fog.
ab
9. When lighting a bulbs in a dark room, light spreads the whole room quickly. Give reason.
Ans. (i) When lighting a bulb in a dark room, light spreads the whole room quickly.
(ii) This is because the light travels very fast.
.s
(iii) Light travels three lakh kilometers per second in air or vacuum.
(iv) In theory, nothing can travel faster than light.
(ii) It consists of a cable having one or more thin flexible fibers with a glass core through
which light signals can be sent.
(iii) Optical fiber can be twisted and bent easily.
(iv) When a light a ray of light is incident at one end of the core of optical fiber, it suffers
total internal reflection at the many places inside the fiber and emerges at the other
m
end with negligible loss of energy.
(v) The data or information in the form of pulses of light, can be sent through bundles
of optical fibers.
(vi)
co
Optical fibers have become very important in high-speed communications, such as
cable TV and high-speed broadband services. Fiber optic cables are able to carry more
signals than traditional copper cable telephone lines.
3. With help of a diagram, write a note on : a. Solar eclipse, b. Lunar eclipse.
Ans. a) Solar eclipse
s.
Physics
ok
Solar eclipse occurs, when the Moon arrives between the Sun (S) and the Earth(E).
The shadow of the Moon appears on the Earth at A as shown in picture. Hence, those
o
Unit 1
who are at the region A are unable to see the Sun instantly. This is solar eclipse. But,
those who are at the region B and C are able to see the sun partially.
ab
b) Lunar eclipse
Lunar eclipse: Lunar eclipse occurs, when the Earth
(E) comes between the Sun (S) and the Moon (M).
The Earth prevents light coming from the Sun and
makes shadow on the Moon. This is lunar eclipse
ur
1.
kept at an angle of 10º to each others.
Solution:
360º
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360º
Number of image n = –1= –1
q 10º
= 36 – 1
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= 35 images
2. A ray of light fall on a plane surface at an angle of incidence 9º and reflection occurs.
Calculate the angle of reflection in degree.
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Solution:
By first law of reflection, angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection.
i = r . Here, angle of incidence is 9º. So angle of reflection must be equal to 9º.
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3. A plane mirror forms a virtual image. The distance between Maria and her image in a
plane mirror is 10 m. How much distance should she move in order to get the distance
of 5 m between herself and her image?
Solution:
m
Maria Her image
5m 5m
10 m
co
The distance between Maria and her image in a plane mirror = 10 m.
2.5 m 2.5 m
5m
s.
So, she should move a distance of 2.5 m towards the plane mirror.
ok
1.
Ans. Top water reflects the light into our eyes. As long as an object reflects light into our eyes,
we can see it.
Light
2. Imagine that parallel rays are incident on an irregular surface. Are the rays reflected from
this surface parallel to each other?
o
Ans. No, the reflected rays from irregular surface are in different directions.
3. Ram planned an activity to observe an object through pipes as shown in figure, so that
ab
Eye
.s
(c)
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M2
M1
M3
Eye
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UNIT TEST
Time : 60 min. Marks : 25
I. Choose the correct answer: (3 × 1 = 3)
m
1. Light is a form of ____________.
(a) matter (b) energy (c) medium (d) particle
2. Which of the following is the best reflector of light?
(a) Plastic plate (b) Plane mirror (c) Wall (d) Paper
co
3. Which of the following is a natural source of light?
(a) Electric lamp (b) Electric filament (c) Torch light (d) Sunlight
II. Fill in the blanks. (4 × 1 = 4)
4. The splitting of white light into seven colours is called ___________.
s.
Physics
8.
9.
10.
ok
III. True or False - If false, give the correct statement.
The image formed in a plane mirror is upside down
After passing through a prism, white light splits into a band of seven colours
You can see a rainbow only when your back is towards the Sun.
o (3 × 1 = 3)
Unit 1
Answer Key
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Universe and
Unit
02 Space
m
LEARNING OBJECTIVES
co
Explain the beginning of Universe
Know about Galaxies and its types
s.
Distinguish between natural and artificial satellites.
o Concept Map
ok
Universe and Space
ab
Galaxies
.s
Natural
Solar system
Satellites
Spiral Galaxy
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Artificial
Elliptical Galaxy Satellites
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Irregular Galaxy
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Galaxy : A Galaxy is a large collection of stars or cluster of stars and celestial
bodies held together by gravitational attraction.
Constellation : A constellation is a recognizable pattern of stars in the night sky
co
when viewed from the Earth.
Satellite : An object that revolves around a planet in a stable and consistent
orbit is called a satellite.
Star : A Star is a luminous heavenly body that radiate energy.
s.
Natural satellites : All natural objects revolving around a planet are natural satellites.
Physics
Artificial satellites : Artificial satellites are man-made objects placed in an obit to rotate
around a planet – usually the Earth.
ok
Elliptical Galaxy : An elliptical Galaxy is a type of Galaxy having an approximately
ellipsoidal shape and a smooth image.
Barred spiral Galaxy : A barred spiral Galaxy is a spiral Galaxy with a central bar-shaped
structure composed of Stars.
o
Unit 2
EVALUATION
ab
1. The Moon takes ___________ days to complete one revolution around the Earth.
(a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28 [Ans. (c) 27]
2. If the Moon is appeaing in the sky today near the star Karthikai , the position of the Moon
after 27 days is near the Star
.s
5. With the launch of this satellite, ISRO became capable of launching 4 ton heavy satellites
(a) GSAT- 13 (b) GSAT- 14
(c) GSAT- 17 (d) Way par GSAT- 19
[Ans. (d) Way par GSAT-19]
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4.
5. ___________ is the first satellite launched by India [Ans. Aryabhatta]
co
1. On a full Moon day, when the Sun is setting in the west, Moon rises in the West.
Ans. False. Correct statement : On a full Moon day, when the Sun is setting in the west, Moon
rises in the East.
2. The word crescent refers to the phases where the Moon is less than half illuminated.
s.
Ans. True.
3. Galilio accepted the Geo-centric model.
Ans. False. Correct statement : Galilio did not accepted the Geo-centric model.
4.
ok
Our Milky Way galaxy is identified as an elliptical galaxy.
5. Mangalyaan GSLV-D5
Ans.
1. Rohini SLV-3
.s
2. GSAT-14 GSLV-D5
3. GSAT-19 GSLV Mark III D1
4. Chandrayaan-2 GSLV-Mark III
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V. Analogy:
Older stars : elliptical galaxies :: younger stars :__________ .
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1.
Ans. Irregular galaxies.
2. Nearest galaxy : Andromeda :: Nearest star :__________ .
w
m
4. In which phase does the size of the planet Venus is small?
Ans. When it was in Gibbous phase.
5. The only evidence of the big bang theory is
co
Ans. The only evidence of the big bang theory is a faint glow in space, called cosmic microwave
background.
6. The galaxy which contains abundant amount of gas and dust is _________?
Ans. Spiral galaxy.
s.
Physics
(ii) A small circle whose centre is on the circumference of a larger circle, in ptolemic
astronomy.
ab
(iii) It was seen as the basis of revolution of the seven plants, given a fixed central Earth.
2. Name the four different types of Galaxies.
Ans. (i) Spiral galaxy (ii) Elliptical galaxy
(iii) Irregular galaxy (iv) Barred spiral galaxy
ur
3. What is constellation?
Ans. A constellation is a recognizable pattern of stars in the night sky when viewed from the
Earth.
.s
(iii) If the Venus was going around the Sun, and its (at greatest
elongation)
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(iv) It can never be seen in the midnight sky. Two when it is near the Earth, it would be
brighter and bigger compared to when it is on the other side of the Sun.
(v) Thirdly only if the Venus is revolving around the Sun, it can exhibit gibbous phase,
and the size of the gibbous phase smaller than the crescent phase.
(vi) If the Venus was revolving around the Earth, we can never see the gibbous phase of
m
the Venus and it would be seen only if it is orbiting the Sun.
2. Write short notes on constellations.
Ans. (i) A constellation is a recognizable pattern of stars in the night sky when viewed from
co
the Earth.
(ii) International Astronomical Union has classified 88 constellations to cover the entire
celestial sphere.
(iii) Many of the old constellations have Greek or Latin names and are often named after
s.
mythological characters.
(iv) Ursa Major (Saptha Rishi Mandalam) is a large constellation and it covers a large part
of the sky.
ok
(v) The most striking feature of this constellation is a group of seven bright stars known
Ans. I would like to support Neelan, because Life is possible only on the Earth due to presence of
water, oxygen, various gases and suitable temperature, which enables us to live.
Mala opposed Neelan’s view based on the following points :
(i) Like the Sun, there might be billions of other stars with their own planets revolving
.s
around them.
(ii) Thus there are many chances of any planet getting the suitable conditions for supporting
life.
w
Additional Questions
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m
(c) German Satellite Launching Vehicle (d) None of these
[Ans. (b) Geostationary Satellite Launch Vehicle]
5. Parsec is equal to ________
co
(a) 2 light years (b) 5 light years (c) 4.56 light years (d) 3.26 light years
[Ans. (d) 3.26 light years]
6. The hottest planet in the solar system is ________
(a) Mercury (b) Venus (c) Sun (d) Mars
[Ans. (b) Venus]
s.
Physics
ok
8. The nearest galaxy to our Milky way is ________
(a) Andromeda (b) Proxima centauri
(c) Large megallanic cloud (d) None of these [Ans. (a) Andromeda]
9. Earth orbit around Sun in ________ days.
o
(a) 465 (b) 365 (c) 687 (d) 24
Unit 2
10. According to Big Bang theory, space and time emerged together about _______billions
of years ago.
(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 14 (d) 50 [Ans. (c) 14]
1. _______is commonly defined as the totality of everything that exists or is known to exist.
[Ans. Universe]
2. At all times one half of _______ is illuminated by Sun and the opposite side is shroud in
.s
7. The distance travelled by light in one year is called a ________. [Ans. light year]
8. The average distance between the Earth and the Sun is called an _______.
[Ans. astronomical unit]
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9. The diameter of Milky Way is over ________ light years. [Ans. 100,000]
10. The solar system travels at an average speed of _________. [Ans. 828,000 km/h]
11. ISRO built India’s first satellite, ________, which was launched by the Soviet Union on 19
April 1975. [Ans. Aryabhatta]
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2. Moon going around Earth with 27 days period.
Ans. True.
co
3. The word gibbous refers to phases where the Moon is more than half illuminated.
Ans. False. Correct statement : The word crescent refers to phases where the Moon is more than
half illuminated.
4. Kepler found that his observation of Venus gave the observational evidence to support
s.
the heliocentric theory.
Ans. False. Correct statement : Galileo found that his observation of venus gave the observational
evidence to support the heliocentric theory.
ok
5. All the galaxies are appearing to move away from us.
9. The vision of ISRO is to harness space technology for national development while pursuing
space science research and planetary exploration.
Ans. True.
10. NASA sent a lunar orbiter, Chandrayan - 1 on 22 October- 2008.
.s
Ans. False. Correct statement : ISRO sent a lunar orbiter, Chandrayan - 1 on 22 October-2008.
m
[Ans. (1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4- b)]
V. Very short Answers:
1. Name the planets which have no Moon.
co
Ans. Mercury and Venus.
2. Name the galaxy in which we live.
Ans. Milky way.
3. Name the star that appears to be stationary in the night sky.
s.
Ans. Pole star.
Physics
ok
5. Name the planets which have more than 60 Moons.
Ans. Jupiter and Saturn.
6. What is the distance of our solar system from the centre of the galaxy?
Ans. 27,000 light years.
o
7. What is the distance that light travels in one year called?
Unit 2
8.
Ans. Ursa Major.
9. What are constellations?
Ans. Constellations are stars that appear to form a pattern when viewed from the Earth.
ur
Ans. (i) Planets are heavenly bodies that revolve around the Sun.
(ii) They do not give out light of their own.
(iii) Their surface reflects the light of the Sun to us.
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– usually the Earth.
(ii) The world’s first artificial satellite launched was Sputnik-1by Russia, Aryabhatta was
the first satellite launched by India.
co
(iii) These satellites are used in television and radio transmission, studying agriculture
yield, locating mineral resources, weather forecasting, locate different places on Earth.
7. Stars appear to twinkle. Give reason.
Ans. (i) The stars are remotely located and appear as tiny dots of light.
s.
(ii) Their light travels long distances to reach us.
(iii) The atmosphere disturbances do not allow light to reach us in a straight line path.
(iv) Because of this the stars appear to twinkle.
ok
VII. Long Answer:
(iii) The event when the matter confined in a single point and began to expand is called
‘big bang’.
(iv) This is considered as the origin of our universe as we know it.
(v) The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing model of the evolution of the Universe.
ur
(vi) Under this theory, space and time emerged together about 14 billions of years ago.
(vii) At that time, the entire Universe was inside a bubble that was thousands of times
smaller than a pinhead.
(viii) It was hotter and denser than anything we can imagine.
.s
P
2. In the given picture out of the positions P, Q, R and S which will Moon
indicate the position of the Sun. Draw the Sun at the appropriate Night Day
R
position.
w
S
3. We never see the backside of the Moon from the Earth. Is it true?
Ans. Yes, as the Moon revolves around the Earth facing one part of the
Moon towards the Earth, then we never see back side of the Moon from the Earth.
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UNIT TEST
Time : 60 min. Marks : 25
I. Choose the correct answer: (3 × 1 = 3)
1. The Galaxy containing young and hot stars is
m
(a) elliptical galaxy (b) irregular galaxy (c) cluster (d) spiral galaxy
2. With the launch of this satellite, ISRO became capable of launching 4 ton heavy satellites
(a) GSAT- 13 (b) GSAT- 14 (c) GSAT- 17 (d) Way par GSAT- 19
co
3. The nearest galaxy to our Milky way is ________
(a) Andromeda (b) Proxima centauri
(c) Large megallanic cloud (d) None of these
II. Fill in the blanks. (4 × 1 = 4)
s.
4. ____________ is the prevailing model of Evolution of the Universe.
Physics
8.
9.
10.
ok
III. True or False - If false, give the correct statement.
On a full Moon day, when the Sun is setting in the west, Moon rises in the West.
The planet Venus in our solar system doesn’t have a Moon.
(3 × 1 = 3)
Kepler found that his observation of Venus gave the observational evidence to support the
heliocentric theory.
o
Unit 2
10. False. Correct statement : Galileo found that his observation of venus gave the observational
evidence to support the heliocentric theory.
IV. 11. Refer Sura’s Guide Text Book Q. No. VI - 5.
w
Unit
3 Polymer Chemistry
m
LEARNING OBJECTIVES
co
Recognize various types of fibres
Conduct activities to learn the characteristics of synthetic fibres
List down the advantages and disadvantages of synthetic fibres
Differentiate between thermoplastics and thermo-setting plastics
s.
Identifies various types of plastics based on the resin codes
Realize the impacts of plastics on humans, animals and the environment.
Recall the different methods and hierarchy of disposing waste based on the 5R principle
Explore the complexities of bio-plastics
Concept Map
ab
Types of Fibres
ur
Types
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315 315
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natural fibres.
Synthetic fibres : Fibres that are made using raw materials from petroleum are synthetic
fibres.
Fibres : Fibres are long strands of molecules interwoven to form linear,
co
string-like structures that can be woven, knitted, matted or bonded.
Thermoplastics : Plastics that get deformed easily on heating and can be bent are known
as thermoplastics.
Thermosetting plastic : Plastics that do not get deformed easily on heating and cannot be
Chemistry
s.
Plastic : Plastic is a synthetic polymer that can be moulded or shaped in any
form.
Bio-degradable : A material that gets decomposed through natural processes
Non-biodegradable
EVALUATION
:
ok
and action by bacteria is called biodegradable.
Substances that cannot decay by natural process when acted upon
by decomposition .
o
Unit 3
ab
m
4. The fully natural fibreis called ___________. [Ans. plant fibre]
5. A natural fibre obtained by boiling of cocoons is called ___________ . [Ans. silk]
co
III. True or False :
1. A lot of plastic pollutes our environment.
Ans. True.
2. Refuse (avoid) is the best way to manage plastic.
s.
Ans. True.
It is good to wear clothes made of synthetic fibres while cooking.
Polymer Chemistry
3.
ok
Ans. False. Correct statement : It is good to wear clothes made of natural fibres while cooking.
4. Degradable plastics break down into tiny pieces called microplastics.
Ans. True.
5. Cotton is a natural polymer.
o
Ans. True.
ab
3. Bakelite Fibre
4. Teflon Wood pulp
5. Rayon Non-stick cookwares
Ans.
.s
A B
1. Nylon Fibre
2. PVC Thermoplastic
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2. Let the article cool for 24 hours before we use it.
VI. Analogy :
1. Cotton: natural : : Polyester: ________.
co
Ans. Synthetic.
2. PLA spoon :compostable : : Plastic spoon :_________
Ans. Disposable.
Chemistry
s.
3. Nylon :melts on heating : : Silk: ______
Ans. Burns on heating.
ok
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
o
Unit 3
Reason (R) : Nylon made out of petrochemicals is non-biodegradable and cotton cloth
is biodegradable.
[Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A]
3. Assertion (A) : It is good to avoid plastics.
.s
VIII. Crossword
Across:
1. Fibre that is used as synthetic wool.
w
Down:
5. A type of fibre that is naturally obtained from a cocoon.
6. A synthetic fibre classified as polyester.
7. A polymer used for making rope.
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5 S
1
A C R Y L I C
L
K
2 P O L Y 6T H E N E
m
E
3
P O L Y M E R
4 7N
R A Y O
co
C Y
O L
T O
N
s.
IX. Very short answer :
1. What is the chemical name of the polymers that make up cotton?
Ans. Cellulose.
Polymer Chemistry
ok
2. What gives plastic different qualities and characteristics?
E
Ans. Different chemicals (additives) are added to plastic to give them various qualities and
characteristics.
3. It is not advisable to burn plastic and synthetic fabrics. Why?
o
Ans. Burning of plastics and synthetic fabrics is not a good solution, as we end up wasting non-
renewable resources and produce super toxic chemicals that are difficult to store or dispose
ab
safely.
4. A bucket made of plastic does not rust like a bucket made of iron. Why?
Ans. (i) The reason is due to their chemical composition.
(ii) The bucket is made of plastic which does not react with the oxygen and humidity
ur
present in air.
(iii) While the iron reacts with the oxygen, air corrodes to form rust.
5. Why is it better to avoid the use of plastic products?
Ans. (i) Plastics do not decompose by natural processes and action of bacteria and are
.s
(iii) Plastic waste ends up being recycled, incinerated, landfilled, dumped or ends up
littering our environment.
(iv) So, it is better to avoid the use of plastic products.
w
Ans. Plastic disposal is the 5 R principle, Refuse, Reduce, Reuse, Recycle and Recover is called as
5 R principle.
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X. Short Answer :
1. What does the term biodegradable mean?
Ans. A material that gets decomposed through natural processes and action by bacteria is called
biodegradable.
m
2. What kind of fabric is suitable to dress-up and play in summer? Why?
Ans. (i) In summer it is better to wear clothing that is made out of cotton materials rather
than synthetic.
(ii) This is because most synthetic fibres absorb very little moisture and do not allow air
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circulation making them hot and uncomfortable to wear.
3. How do plastics impact animals and the environment?
Ans. (i) The increase in the use of plastics, particularly the one-time use and throw away
Chemistry
s.
(ii) We have seen garbage dumps with different plastics. One big problem with plastics is
that they do not decompose or biodegrade.
(iii) This leads to large amounts of waste that will not disappear and end up accumulating
ok
and polluting the environment.
(iv) Many animals confuse plastic for food and eat it by accident. When leftover food is
thrown away it is often packed in plastic. Animals smell the leftover food and eat the
plastic by accident.
o
XI. Long Answer :
Unit 3
nylon, is that they are stronger and do not allow air circulation making them
than many natural fibres such as hot and uncomfortable to wear.
silk or wool.
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3. These fibres are strong and elastic Synthetic fibres are made out of petrochemicals
which gives it the properties to and last in the environment for a very long
bounce. time. It break down into very small pieces called
microplastics which cause pollution to soil and
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Recycle :
(i) It is better to recycle plastic waste.
(ii) Separating plastic waste (based on the resin code) and making sure it gets recycled is
good as it turns waste materials into something new.
(iii) Then it will not be thrown away in landfills, open dumps or ending up as litter in the
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environment.
Recover (Compost And Incinerate) : Solid waste can be converted into resources such as
electricity and compost through thermal and biological means.
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XII. HOTS :
1. The Tamil Nadu Government has banned the use of one-time use throw away plastics. Why
do you think this is important?
Ans. It is important to reduce the negative consequences of plastics on the environment.
s.
2. A plastic bag dumped in the soil stays without breaking down for 500 years. If a new generation
starts in every 30 years, how many generations would it take to see the plastic bag finally
Polymer Chemistry
broken down?
o ok
Ans. It would take 16 to 17 generations to see the plastic bag finally broken down.
Tooth brush
Plastic mug
plastic item that
Switch you touched this
Duster morning?
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Chair
Look at the What is the
classroom and list material that
down the items you use for
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Cotton
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Ans. A lot of one-time use plastic such as polythene bags and food packaging that are thrown
away are responsible for littering the environment and clogging drains. Standing water
breeds mosquitoes that can spread diseases such as malaria dengue and chickungunya and
Chemistry
s.
also lead to flooding.
iii) Read the following information and convert them into a graph to compare the
countries and the amount of plastic they use.
Ans.
China contributes the highest share - that is around 28%, of the total plastic used
globally. Indonesia uses 10%, both the Philippines and Vietnam use 6% each; Thailand
uses 3.2%, Egypt 3%, Nigeria 2.7% and South Africa 2%.
o ok
Amount of plastic used (in %)
Unit 3
30
25
ab
20
15
10
ur
a sia s
in one
ine tnam nd ypt a h
eri Sout a
Ch ipp Vie aila Eg Nig
Ind Ph
il Th Af
ric
.s
Intext Activities
ACTIVITY - 2
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How Strong is Nylon? Take an iron stand with a clamp. Take samples of
cotton, wool, nylon and silk threads of about 50cm in length.
First tie cotton thread to the stand so that it hangs freely from it. At the free
end, attach a CD as plate so that weights can be placed on it. Add weights
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starting from 10 grams one by one, until the thread breaks. Note down the
total weight required to break the cotton thread. Repeat the same activity
with the wool, silk and nylon threads. NOTE: All the varieties of threads
should be of same thickness.
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Which type of fibre is the strongest?
Ans. Nylon.
Which type of fibre is the weakest?
co
Ans. Cotton.
ACTIVITY - 4
Synthetic or Natural Fibres : The teacher can give the learner a piece of each and every type
of fibre. The learner can feel the fibre and write down the name of the fibre and state whether
s.
it is natural or synthetic fibre.
Ans.
Polymer Chemistry
ok
S.No Name of the fibre Type of the fibre– Natural /Synthetic
1. Jute Natural
2. Cotton Natural
3. Rayon Synthetic
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4. Wool Natural
5. Polyester Synthetic
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We have done four activities so far. Which activity helped you better to identify the type of
fibre?
Ans. Activity 3, 4
ACTIVITY - 5
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ACTIVITY - 6
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Which of these fabrics dries the fastest? The cotton cloth or the umbrella cloth?
Ans. Umbrella cloth dries the fastest.
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ACTIVITY - 7
Right and wrong application of plastics.
Look at the list of eight plastic items. Decide which four plastic items are used for the right
application and which four are used for the wrong application by filling in the chart below:
Plastic items: straws, helmets, cutlery, thin carry bags, syringes, electrical wires,tea cups and
m
blood bags Right application Wrong application
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Straws Helmets Cutlery
Chemistry
s.
ok
Syringes Electrical wires Tea cups Blood bags
ACTIVITY - 8
Identify the different types of plastics.
Collect different kinds of plastic products and look carefully for the resin code and/or acronym
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on them. With the help of the resin code chart, mark the resin code number, acronym, if you
think it is a safer, unsafe or questionable (when you cannot find the resin code in the article)
type of plastic. What resin codes do you find? Is the resin code safer, un safe or questionable?
Ans.
.s
Additional Questions
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(a) Jute (b) Cotton (c) Nylon (d) Wool
[Ans. (c) Nylon]
5. Which is a thermosetting plastic?
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(a) Melamine (b) Polythene (c) PVC (d) Nylon
[Ans. (a) Melamine]
6. Which of the following is non - bio degradable?
(a) Plastic (b) Paper (c) Cotton cloth (d) Wood
s.
[Ans. (a) plastic]
7. The material similar to silk in appearance is.
Polymer Chemistry
(a) nylon (b) rayon (c) polyester (d) terylene
ok
[Ans. (b) rayon]
8. The fibres such as rayon, nylon, polyester are obtained from ________
(a) natural resources (b) chemical substances
(c) minerals (d) plants and animals
[Ans. (b) chemicals substances]
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9. Which of the following fibres is considered as the strongest natural fibre?
(a) Cotton (b) Jute (c) Silk (d) Wool
ab
2. All the ________ present in your body are polymers. [Ans. proteins]
3. ________ is made of sugar molecules and is the main component of cotton used in clothing.
[Ans. Cellulose]
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4. _______ and ________ are the building block monomers that make up many different types
of plastics. [Ans. Ethylene, propylene]
5. _______ are long strands of polymers interwoven to form linear, string-like structures.
[Ans. Fibres]
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6. Fibres that are made using raw materials from _____ are synthetic fibres.[Ans. petroleum]
7. The cellulose dissolves in the chemicals added to it and produces syrup called ______.
[Ans. Viscose]
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8. Nylon is a plastic polymer made of chemical units called ______. [Ans. Polyamides]
9. ________ is a synthetic fibre which is strong and elastic that it has the ability to bounce.
[Ans. Trampoline]
10. Syringe that is made from a type of plastic called ________. [Ans. polypropylene]
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11. Edmund Alexander Parkes was the creator of the first plastic called ____.[Ans. Parkesine]
12. ________ resists fire and can tolerate heat. [Ans. Melamine]
13. Poly Lactic Acid or polylactide is _________ and __________ thermoplastic.
[Ans.compostable, bioactive]
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III. True or False - if false, give the correct statement.
1. Polycot is a mixture of polyester and cotton.
Ans. True.
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2. Polyamides are made with monomers.
Ans. True.
3. Wool is the first fully processed synthetic fibre.
Chemistry
Ans. False. Correct statement : Nylon is the first fully processed synthetic fibre.
s.
4. Rayon is a fibre obtained by the chemical treatment of wood pulp.
Ans. True.
5.
Ans. True.
6. ok
Plastics are flexible and waterproof and some are even UV resistant.
7. Polyvinyl chloride has heavy metals such as cadmium and lead which are toxic and
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bodyscrubs.
9. Plastics are environment friendly.
Ans. False. Correct statement : Plastics are not environment friendly.
.s
11. Electric switches, plugs, sockets and handles of cooling utensils are made up of
thermoplastics.
Ans. False. Correct statement : Electric switches, plugs, sockets and handles of cooling utensils
are made up of thermosetting plastics.
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3. 1. Plastic bags (a) Polyvinyl chloride
2. PVC (b) Natural fibre
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3. Melamine (c) Non-bio degradable
4. Wood (d) Thermosetting plastic [Ans. (1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b)]
s.
1. What is the full form of PVC?
Ans. Poly Vinyl Chloride.
Polymer Chemistry
2. Name a synthetic fibre which works like wool?
ok
Ans. Acrylic.
3. Plastic articles are available in all possible shapes and sizes. Why?
Ans. Plastic is easily mouldable, so the articles can be made in any shape and size.
4. Name the unit used in the formation of a polymer.
o
Ans. Monomer is the small unit used in the formation of a polymer.
5. Name the form of polyester which is replacing materials like glass and used for making
ab
7. Name the plastic. Which is coated on the uniform of fireman to make it fire resistant?
Ans. Melamine is coated in the uniforms of fireman.
8. Name a natural polymer occuring in plants.
.s
Ans. (i) Rayon is a synthetic fibre having properties similar to that of silk.
(ii) It was obtained by chemical treatment of wood pulp.
(iii) That’s why, it is called an artificial silk.
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Ans. (i) Plastics which are derived from renewable resources such as corn, sugar cane,
avocado seeds or shrimp cells.
(ii) It can be broken down completely by microbes and turned back into food for plants
- CO2, methane, water and other natural compounds.
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4. Why do you think some animals eat plastic?
Ans. (i) Many animals confuse plastic for food and eat it by accident.
(ii) When leftover food is thrown away it is often packed in plastic.
(iii) Animals smell the leftover food and eat the plastic by accident.
Chemistry
s.
5. What do you mean by microplastics?
Ans. (i) Synthetic fibres are made out of petrochemicals and last in the environment for a
very long time.
6. ok
(ii) It break down into very small pieces called microplastics which cause pollution to soil
and water bodies such as rivers, lakes and oceans.
Mention a few household products in which microbeads can found.
Ans. Microbeads can be found in toothpaste, facewash and bodyscrubs.
o
Unit 3
There are some plastics which once they are moulded, cannot be softened through heating
them. These are called thermosetting plastics.
8. Hot foot stuff should not be kept in polythene containers. Why?
Ans. Hot food stuff should not be kept in polythene containers since polythene is a thermoplastic.
ur
Ans. (i) In 2016, scientists from Japan tested different bacteria from a bottle recycling plant
and found that Ideonellasakaiens is 201-F6 could digest the plastic used to make
single-use drinks bottles that are made of polyethylene terephthalate (PET).
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(ii) The bacteria works by secreting an enzyme known as ‘PETase’, that breaks down plastic
into smaller molecules.
(iii) These smaller molecules are then absorbed by the bacteria as a food source.
(iv) The scale of the bacteria breaking down plastics is much slower and will therefore not
solve the crisis we are facing.
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crystal structure.
(iv) If we cooled it slowly, the atoms would slowly line up back into their crystalline
arrangement.
(v) But if we cool the liquid fast enough, the atoms of the silica will be halted in their
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tracks, they won’t have time to line up, and they will be stuck in any old arrangement,
with no order to the arrangement of the atoms.
(vi) We call materials like this as amorphous.
3. Write the importance of rayon.
s.
Ans. (i) Some types of rayon are made from the short cotton fibres left on cotton seeds after ginning.
(ii) Rayon is cheaper than silk, can be woven like natural silk fibre and can be dyed in a
Polymer Chemistry
wide variety of colours.
ok
(iii) It can be mixed with cotton to make bed sheets or with wool in the production of
carpets and home furnishing products.
(iv) Rayon is also found in sanitary products, diapers, bandages and gauze for dressing wounds.
VIII. Complete the following crossword with the help of the clues provided:
o
Across: 5. First artificially made fibre. 1
T
7 P O L Y E S T E R
6. Join together to form polymers. 5
R A Y O N
ab
IX. HOTS : C
1. Ram took with him some nylon ropes, when he was going for rock climbing. Can you tell
why he selected nylon ropes instead of ropes made up of cotton or jute?
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Ans. (i) Nylon ropes are strong, elastic and lighter as compared to cotton and jute ropes.
(ii) A nylon thread is actually stronger than a steel wire of similar thickness.
2. Ramya loves to were the clothes made up of synthetic fibres. When she was working in
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kitchen, her mother advised her not to wear the synthetic clothes.
(i) Why Ramya’s mother advised her not to wear synthetic clothes while working in kitchen?
(ii) Why Ramya loves to wear synthetic dress?
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Ans. (i) Synthetic fibres melt on heating. It the clothes catch fire, it can be disastrous. The
fabric melts and sticks to the body of the person wearing it. So, she advised here not
to wear synthetic clothes while working in kitchen.
(ii) Ramya loves to wear synthetic dress because these clothes dry up quickly, durable, less
expensive, readily available and easy to maintain.
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UNIT TEST
Time : 60 min. Marks : 25
m
1. Which of the following is the strongest?
(a) Rayon (b) Nylon (c) Acrylic (d) Polyester
2. A good application of plastic is the use of _________.
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(a) Blood bags (b) Plastic cutlery
(c) Plastic straws (d) Plastic carry bag
II. Fill in the blanks. (2 × 1 = 2)
3. A _____ is a long chain made up of many repeated small units called monomers.
Chemistry
s.
4. The cellulose dissolves in the chemicals added to it and produces syrup called ______.
III. Write true or false, If false, give the correct answer: (1 × 1 = 1)
5. It is good to wear clothes made of synthetic fibres while cooking.
IV.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Answer any six of the following.
ok
What gives plastic different qualities and characteristics?
Why is it better to avoid the use of plastic products?
What is compostable plastic?
Analogy:
o (6 × 2 = 12)
Unit 3
10. The Tamil Nadu Government has banned the use of one-time use throw away plastics. Why
do you think this is important?
11. Plastics have completely occupied our life. Why?
V. Answer the following in detail. (2 × 4 = 8)
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Answer Key
.s
III. 5. False. Correct statement : It is good to wear clothes made of natural fibres
while cooking.
IV. 6. Refer Sura’s Guide Text book Q. No. IX - 2
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Chemistry in Daily
Unit
4 Life
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LEARNING OBJECTIVES
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Understand the meaning of Medicines, Antibiotics, Analgesics, Antiseptics,
Antihistamines, Antacids and Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS).
s.
Understands combustion and its types
Recognizes flame and its structure.
o
Concept Map ok
Combustion
ab
Types of combustion
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Antacid Antihistamine
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Medical
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Flame : Zone of combustion of a combustible substance.
Calorific value : The amount of heat energy produced on complete combustions of 1
kg of fuel is called its calorific value.
co
Ignition temperature : The minimum temperature at which a substance catches fire and
burns is called its ignition temperature.
ORS : Mixture of electrolytes, sugar, and water taken by mouth to absorb
water and electrolytes in the body and properly restore
Chemistry
s.
or diarrhoea.
Calorific value : The amount of heat energy produced on complete combustion of 1kg
of fuel is called its calorific value.
Rapid combustion
Spontaneous
combustion
Explosion
:
:
ok
It is a combustion process in which a substance burns rapidly and
produces heat and light with the help of external heat.
It is a combustion process in which a light without the help of external
heat.
o
It is a type of combustion in which a substance burns suddenly and
Unit 4
produces heat, light and sound with the help of heat or pressure.
ab
EVALUATION
ur
m
4. In the presence of water, the ignition temperature of paper is _______.[Ans. not reached]
5. Fire produced by oil cannot be controlled by _____________ . [Ans. water]
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III. True or False - If False, give the correct answer :
1. Antibiotics does work for viruses like cold and
Ans. False. Correct statement : Antibiotics does not work for viruses like cold and flu.
2. Analgesics are the substances that lower the temperature during fever.
s.
Ans. False. Correct statement : Antipyretic are the substances that lower the temperature
during fever.
ok
3. All fuels form flame.
Ans. False. Correct statement : All fuels do not form flame.
V. Analogy:
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Ans. CO2, Methane, Chlorofluorocarbons.
3. Name a substance which can be used as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant.
Ans. Garlic, Turmeric, Aloe vera.
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4. What are the main constituents of dettol?
Ans. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpincol
5. Name the unit in which the calorific value of a fuel is expressed.
Ans. KJ/Kg.
Chemistry
s.
6. How many types of combustion are there?
Ans. (i) Rapid combustion
(ii) Spontaneous combustion
ok
(iii) Explosion
7. What are the essential requirements for producing fire?
Ans. Fuel, Heat and Oxygen.
accidently eaten for a disease, it may not cure the disease but actually can have harmful side
effects to the body.
2. Why do antiseptics differ from disinfectants? Give one example of each.
Ans. Difference between Antiseptic and Disinfectants
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Antiseptic Disinfectants
1. All antiseptic are disinfectants. All disinfectants are not antiseptic
2. It can be applied on the live tissue It can be apply on in animate object
.s
temperature..
4. If 4.5kg of fuel is completely burnt and amount of heat produced stands measured at
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Calorific value = ?
Solution :
Heat produced 1,80,000
Calorific Value = Amount of fuel = = 40,000
4.5
∴Calorific value = 40,000 kJ / kg.
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(ii) Those biosynthesized chemicals can be isolated from the plants/micro organisms
and was used as medicines against infectious diseases, these substances were called
as antibiotics.
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(iii) Ex: Chloramphenicols, tetracyclines, Penicillin derivatives, cephalosporin’s and their
derivatives.
(iv) The world’s first antibiotic penicillin was discovered by Dr. Alexander Fleming.
Analgesics :
(i) Analgesics or pain killers that react like the pain-suppressing chemicals released by
s.
the body.
(ii) They suppress the feeling of ‘pain’.
(iii) This analgesics drug selectively relieves pain by acting either in CNS (Central Nerves
ok
System) or on peripheral pain mechanism, without significantly altering consciousness.
Moderately
Middle zone of Partial
hot
combustion (yellow)
ab
Wax Candle
ur
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Intext Activities
ACTIVITY
What happens when you add with these chemicals?
Sugar + Potassium permanganate + Glycerin.
m
co
Chemistry
s.
Ans. (i) After adding sugar, potassium permanganate and glycerin to the dish, immediately
step back because spark and solid potassium permanganate will be expelled from the
(ii)
dish.
ok
When potassium permanganate mixes with glycerin, a redox reaction starts. This
reaction starts out really slow, but produces a lot of heat, so it will start to speed up bit
by bit. As the potassium permanganate oxidises the sugar, it will speed up more and
o
more until it finally starts to smoke and after that it will ignite.
Unit 4
ab
Additional Questions
I. Choose the correct answer.
1. _____is a special combination of dry salt that is mixed with safe water.
ur
3.
(a) glucose (b) sodium (c) citrate (d) none
[Ans. (a) glucose]
Antacids are actually_______.
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4.
(a) weak acids (b) weak bases (c) strong acids (d) strong bases
[Ans. (b) weak bases]
Our stomach naturally produce_______to help digest and breakdown food.
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5.
(a) Sulphuric acid (b) acetic acid
(c) hydrochloric acid (d) none of these
[Ans. (c) hydrochloric acid]
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[Ans. (b) exothermic]
8. Any reaction that involves reaction with oxygen is called_______reaction.
(a) reduction (b) ignition (c) oxidation (d) none
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[Ans. (c) oxidation]
9. Which is the luminous part of the plame?
(a) Outer zone (b) Middle zone (c) Inner zone (d) None
[Ans. (b) middle zone]
s.
II. Fill in the Blanks.
1. The chemical process in which a substance reacts with oxygen to produce heat is called
ok
________. [Ans. combustion]
Substances which vapourise during burning produce __________. [Ans. flames]
6. Once infection is sensed, the immune system releases a chemical called __________.
[Ans. Pyrogen]
7. Sensing the pyrogens, hypothalamus increases the body temperature by releasing a chemical
called __________. [Ans. prostaglandin]
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8. __________that react like the pain - suppressing chemicals released by the body.
[Ans. Analgesics]
9. __________resistane is defined as the ability of the microorganisms to resist the effects of
.s
Ans. True.
2. Acidity issues arise when there is excess production of acetic acid due to triggers.
Ans. False. Correct statement : Acidity issues arise when there is excess production of
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4. The bacteria staphylococcus is meant to cause deadly diseases such as pneumonia sour
throat etc.
Ans. True.
5. Fleming named the mould penicillum notatum, from which the antibiotic penicillin
was isolated.
m
Ans. True.
6. Paracetamol interact with the receptors and reduce the intensity of pain signals to the
brain.
co
Ans. True.
7. Bacteria and virus can thrive above a certain temperature.
Ans. False. Correct statement : Bacteria and virus cannot thrive above a certain temperature.
Chemistry
s.
8. The adverse effects of antihistamines are mouth dryness and sleepiness .
Ans. True.
9. Complete combustion of the fuel takes place and the colour of the flame is yellow and is
ok
the hottest part of the flame.
Ans. False. Correct statement : Complete combustion of the fuel takes place and the colour of
the flame is blue and is the hottest part of the flame.
1. What is antipyretics?
Ans. (i) Antipyretics (anti - against and pyretic - feverish) are chemical substances that reduce
fever.
(ii) They suppress the release of prostaglandin and reduce fever.
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2. What is antiseptics?
Ans. Antiseptics are substances applied to the exterior of a body that kill or inhibit microbes and
infective agents.
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4. Define histamine.
Ans. Histamine is a chemical messenger involved in number of complex biological reactions.
5. Complete the oxidation reaction.
CH4 + 2O2 → _____ + ________ + Heat energy
m
Ans. CO2 + 2H2O.
6. Name a few substances which produce flames on burning.
Ans. Wax, Kerosene.
co
7. Give one example for spontaneous combustion.
Ans. Phosphorous burns spontaneously at room temperature.
8. Give one example for slow combustion.
s.
Ans. Respiration.
9. What are the classes of fire?
Ans. There are 5 classes of fire.
ok
1. Class A, 2. Class B, 3. Class C, 4. Class D and 5. Class D.
3. What is fever?
Ans. In normal course, our body temperature is one degree below or one degree above 98.6 degrees
Fahrenheit. When the temperature goes above this level it is called fever.
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Ans. (i) Substances which have very low ignition temperature and can easily catch fire with a
flame are called inflammable substances.
(ii) E.g. Petrol. Alcohol, LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas), CNG (Compressed Natural
Gas), etc.
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7. What is slow combustion? Give example.
Ans. Slow combustion is a form of combustion which takes place at low temperatures. Respiration
is an example of slow combustion.
co
8. Mention the conditions necessary for producing fire.
Ans. The conditions necessary for producing fire are,
(i) Fuel
(ii) Air (to supply oxygen)
Chemistry
s.
(iii) Heat (to raise the temperature of the fuel beyond its ignition temperature)
9. Mention the most common types of fire extinguishers.
Ans. (i)
ok
Air pressurized water extinguishers
(ii) Carbon-di-oxide extinguishers
(iii) Dry chemical powder extinguishers.
VII. Long Answer
o
1. Explain the structure of a candle flame.
Unit 4
(i) The outer zone - complete combustion of the fuel takes place and the colour of the flame
is blue and is the hottest part of the flame. It is the non-luminous part of the flame.
(ii) The middle zone - partial combustions of the fuel takes place and the colour of the flame
is yellow and is moderately hot part of the flame. It is the luminous part of the flame.
(iii) The inner zone - There are unburnt vapours of the fuel and the colour is black and
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(ii) Cheap
(iii) Easy transport and store
(iv) Burns at moderate rate
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to burn.
(ii) When the candle of an extinguisher is compressed, it opens and inner canister of high
pressure gases forces the extinguishing agent from the main cylinder through a siphon
tube and out the nozzle.
(iii) A fire extinguisher works much like a can of hair spray.
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VIII. HOTS:
1. Why a person is covered with a blanket when the clothes of that person catch fire?
Ans. When the clothes of a person catch fire, the person is covered with a blanket to extinguish
the fire. This is because the supply of air to the burning clothes is cut off by blanket, due to
this the clothes stop burning and the fire gets extinguished.
m
2. Why is the candle flame straight?
Ans. A candle flame is caused by vapour burning above the candle. This burning vapour is hotter
than the surrounding air and is therefore less dense. So, by the principle of convection, it
co
“rises” so the flame is always upwards
UNIT TEST
s.
Time : 60 min. Marks : 25
ok
9. Analogy:
Inner zone of flame : :____________, outer
zone of flame : :____________
If 4.5 kg of fuel is completely burnt and amount of heat produced stands measured at 1,
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10.
80,000 KJ what is the calorific value.
11. What do you mean by inflammable substance?
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Answer Key
I. 1. (b) Antipyretic 2. (c) hydrochloric acid
II. 3. Alexander Fleming 4. Pyrogen
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III. 5. False. Correct statement : Antipyretic are the substances that lower the
temperature during fever.
IV. 6. Refer Sura’s Guide Text book Q. No. VI - 6
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7. Refer Sura’s Guide Text book Q. No. VI - 3
8. Refer Sura’s Guide Additional Q. No. VI - 3
9. (i) Black (ii) Blue
Chemistry
s.
10. Refer Sura’s Guide Text book Q. No. VII - 4
11. Refer Sura’s Guide Additional Q. No. VI - 5
V. 12. Refer Sura’s Guide Text book Q. No. VIII - 1
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13. Refer Sura’s Guide Additional Q. No. VII - 2
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Unit 4
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Animals in Daily
Unit
5 Life
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LEARNING OBJECTIVES
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To know animals are used as food and for making clothes
To know how wool and silk is produced
To understand the hazards of silk and wool industries and learn how to avoid it
s.
Milk Silk
.s
Wool
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Eggs
Wool processing
Life cycle of
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Ahimsa silk
Meat Shearing butterfly
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mammals.
Eggs : Eggs are laid by female birds of many different species to produce
their young ones like hen, duck, turkey and ostrich.
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Honey : Honey is a sweet liquid produced by honey bees from the nectar of
flowers.
Meat : Meat is animal flesh that is eaten as food.
Poultry Farming : Poultry farming is the process of raising domesticated birds such
as chicken, duck, turkey and geese for the purpose of getting meat
s.
Biology
Web
Silk
:
:
:
ok
The flesh of the sheep is removed from its body. This is called
shearing.
The process arranges the wool into a flat sheet called a web.
Silk is the secretions of the silk moth.
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Unit 5
Husbandary.
EVALUATION
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4. ____________ is the strongest natural fibre. [Ans. Silk]
5. Peace silk was produced in the year _______. [Ans. 1992]
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1. Animals are the greatest gift of nature.
Ans. True.
2. Horse hair is used as bristles in small painting brushes.
s.
Ans. True.
5.
ok
Ahimsa silk is otherwise known as Mulberry silk.
Ans. False. Correct statement :Ahimsa silk is otherwise known as peace silk.
Pencillin is the best medicine for curing Anthrax.
Ans. True.
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IV. Match the following :
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1. Cocoons Meat
2. Peace silk Poultry
3. Broilers Silk worm
4. Sweet Liquid Andhra pradesh
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5. Goat Honey
5. Goat Meat
V. Analogy:
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m
These two are dairy products. They are Nutritive food containing protein and calcium are
made from milk.
2. What are the two types of fibres that are obtained from animals?
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Ans. (i) Wool - silk fibre is obtained from the cocoon of silkworm.
(ii) Wool is got from fleece of sheep or goat
3. What is shearing?
Ans. The fleece of the sheep is removed from its body. This is called shearing.
s.
Biology
5. Define – Sericulture.
Ans. (i) ok
(ii) Sometimes it may leads to nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.
(ii) It gives comfort in warm weather and warmth during colder months.
(iii) It is used in the manufacture of classical and high fashion clothes, modern dresses
particularly silk sarees, the elegant of beautiful dresses.
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(iv) It is also used in household for making wall hangings, curtains, rugs and carpets.
(v) It is also being used in the manufacture of surgical threads for sutures.
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VIII. Answer in Detail :
1. Write about Ahimsa Silk.
Ans. (i) It is also known as Peace silk.
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(ii) In 1992, Kusuma Rajaiah, a Government officer from Andhra Pradesh state of India
proposed ahimsa way of silk production for the making silks without killing the
silkworm.
(iii) It involves a humane method specifically letting the worms to hatch and then using
s.
the vacant cocoons.
(iv) Traditional silk manufacturing methods involve boiling the cocoons of the silk worms
ok
(v) It has been supported by many people who are interested in the welfare of animals.
2. Write about the hazards of silk industry.
Ans. (i) Generally, the workers in silk industry affected with arthritis is they stand for a long
time reeling the silk into yarn.
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(ii) They also develop back pain and visionary problem and skin injuries.
(iii) Some time they may suffer from respiratory problem like asthma and bronchitis due
to poor ventilated area of their work.
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(iii) Shearing:- The fleece of the sheep is removed from its body. This is called shearing.
(iv) Grading (or) Sorting:- The fleece from the same sheep may be different from different
parts of the body. It is sorted out into separate piles of similar nature. This is known
as Grading (or) Sorting.
.s
(v) Washing (or) Scouting:- The sheared skin is washed thoroughly with soap (or)
detergents to remove dirt, dust and grease.
(vi) Carding:- The dried wool is carefully removed. These fibres then passed through the
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rollers which are covered with fine sheet of thin wire teeth. This process arranges the
wool into a flat sheet called a web.
(vii) Spinning:- The web is drawn into narrow strand and then passed through spinning
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machines. The spinning machines twist the strands into yarn. The yarn is wound to
form balls of wool. This yarn is either weaved into fabric (or) retained for knitting.
4. Write the uses of the wool.
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Ans. (i) Wool is a multifunctional fibre with a range of diameters that makes it suitable for
clothing, household fabrics and technical textiles.
(ii) Two third of wool is used in the manufacture of garments including sweaters, dresses,
coats and active sportswear.
(iii) Blended with other natural (or) synthetic fibres wool used as adds drape and crease
resistance blankets, anti-static and noise absorbing carpets.
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IX. HOTS :
1. Silk fiber is used to manufacture parachute. Why?
Ans. (i) Silk is the strongest natural fibre.
(ii) It is thin light in weight, strong.
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(iii) It is easly to peak and unfold.
(iv) It is also fire resistant.
(v) It is dries quickly.
(vi) It is also resistant to abrasion and chemicals.
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2. Honey is recommended for all. Why? What is its significance.
Ans. (i) Honey has high levels of sugar.
(ii) It has antiseptic and antibacterial properties.
(iii) It can prevent cancer, heart diseases reduce ullcer and digestive problems.
s.
Biology
ok
X. Assertion and Reason :
1. Assertion : Wool is the fibre derived from the fur of animals.
Reason : Animals like goat, Yak, Alpaca and rabbit yields wool.
a. Both Assertion and reasoning is correct
b. Assertion is correct but reason in wrong
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Unit 5
Intext Activities
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ACTIVITY - 1
Some of the food items are given below. Find out their ingredients and sources.
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Spices
1. Oil/Ghee Plants/Animals
Curry leaves Plants
Coriander leaves Plants
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Fish Animals
Spices Plants
2. Oil/Ghee Plants/Animals
Lemon Plants
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Milk Animals
Tea leaf/Coffee nut Plants
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3.
Water
Sugar
Oil/Ghee Plants/Animals
s.
Sugar
5. Spices
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Oil Plants/Animals
Coriander leaves Plants
Additional Questions
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4.
5. The process called ________ involves removal of dried wool. [Ans. carding]
6. _________is the strongest natural fibre. [Ans. silk]
7. Egg laying chickens are called_________. [Ans. Layers]
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8. The ________bees collect the nectar from flowers. [Ans. worker]
9. Silk is the secretion of ________. [Ans. silk moth]
10. The spread of Anthrax can be controlled by ________. [Ans. vaccination]
s.
III. Very Short Answer.
Biology
2.
(i)
Ans. (i)
Layers (egg laying chickens)
Sufficient space
(ii) Plenty of water
o ok
(ii) Broilers (one’s that are reared for meat).
List few requirements for poultry farming.
Unit 5
(i) Pencillin or Ciprofloxacin is given as the best medicine for treatment of anthrax.
(ii) The spread of the disease is controlled by vaccination of animals and by burning or
burial of infected animal’s carcases.
(iii) It is the duty of the employer to take care of the industrial workers by providing hygienic
and well ventilated work place.
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UNIT TEST
Time : 60 min. Marks : 25
m
1. ____________ is the daily essential product which is obtained from cattle.
(a) Egg (b) Milk (c) Both of them (d) None of them
2. Sorter’s Disease is otherwise known as _________.
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(a) Asthma (b) Anthrax
(c) Typhoid (d) Cholera
3. Fowl pox is caused by ________.
(a) virus (b) bacteria (c) fungus (d) protozoan
4. India stands ________in silk production in the world.
s.
(a) first (b) third (c) second (d) fourth
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Peace silk was produced in the year _______.
The process called ________ involves removal of dried wool.
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Answer Key
I. 1. (b) Milk 2. (b) Anthrax 3. (a) virus
4. (c) second
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II. 5. Bacillus anthracis 6. 1992 7. carding
III. 8. True.
IV. 9. Refer Sura’s Guide Textbook Q. No. VI - 2
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10. Refer Sura’s Guide Textbook Q. No. VII - 2
11. 1-c. 2-d, 3-b, 4- e, 5 -a
12. (i) Wire, (ii) Non conductor
13. Refer Sura’s Guide Textbook Q. No. VI - 1
s.
Biology
ok
V. 16. Refer Sura’s Guide Textbook Q. No. IV - 1
(or)
Refer Sura’s Guide Textbook Q. No. VIII - 4
o
Unit 5
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Visual
Unit
6 Communication
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LEARNING OBJECTIVES
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After learning this lesson, the students will be able to
Know how to create a document through the Libreoffice software
Explore their creative thinking
Learn how to align and format the document
s.
EVALUATION
I.
1.
Choose the correct answer. :
(b) Ctrl+v
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The Keyboard shortcut is used to copy the selected text
(a) Ctrl+c (c) Ctrl+x (d) Ctrl+A
[Ans. (a) Ctrl+c]
2. The Keyboard shortcut is used to cut the selected text
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human readable .
(ii) It is defined in several different formats, including the most popular ASCII for cross.
(iii) Platform usage and ANSI for windows - based operating platforms.
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Ans. Right alignment is text or page formatting that aligns text along the right side of a page or
containing element.
5. How to open an existing document?
co
Computer Science
s.
Additional Questions
I.
1.
Choose the correct answer.
(a) LibreOffice
(c) JAVA
o ok
_________ is a powerful and free office suite, used by millions of people.
(b) Microsoft window
(d) HTML [Ans. (a) LibreOffice]
Unit 6
(c) File → save (d) File → close [Ans. (b) File → print]
5. A _________is a set of characters and numbers in a certain style.
(a) Font (b) Bullets (c) Underline (d) Paragraph
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m
1. What is drawing?
Ans. Draw is a vector drawing tool that can produce everything from simple diagrams or
flowcharts to 3D artwork.
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2. How can you create a new document?
Ans. To create a new document, do any one of the following methods
(i) Click the New Document button on the menu bar.
(ii) Choose File → New command from the menu bar.
s.
Visual Communication
(iii) Press CTRL+N keys on the keyboard.
3. How can you print a document?
Ans. To print a document or selected pages follow the steps given below:
(i) Open the document to be printed.
ok
(ii) Choose File → Print command on the menu bar.
The Print dialog box will open. Select the Options like print range, Number of copies,
Printer name etc. See that printer is switched on and the paper is available in the printer
tray.
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(iii) Click OK.
ab
Ans. A font is a set of characters and numbers in a certain style. Each font looks different from
other fonts.
6. What is paragraph alignment?
.s
Ans. Paragraph alignment refers to the appearance of the left and right sides of the paragraph.
Writer is a featurerich tool for creating letters, books, reports, newsletters, brochures, and
other documents.
Calc (spreadsheet):
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Calc has all of the advanced analysis, charting, and decision making features expected
from a high-end spreadsheet. It includes over 300 functions for financial, statistical and
mathematical operations, among others.
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Impress (presentations):
Impress provides all the common multimedia presentation tools, such as special effects,
animation, and drawing tools.
Base (database):
Base provides tools for day-to-day database work within a simple interface. It can create
m
and edit forms, reports, queries, tables, views, and relations, so that managing a relational
database is much the same as in other popular database applications.
Math (formula editor)
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Computer Science
Math is the LibreOffice formula or equation editor. You can use it to create complex equations
that include symbols or characters not available in standard font sets.
2. How can you selecting the text?
Ans. For selecting text, the mouse or the keyboard can be used.
s.
Selecting Text with Mouse : Following steps are to be followed:
(i) Insertion point is moved to the start of the text to be selected.
(ii) The left mouse button should be clicked, held down and dragged across the text to
(i)
be selected.
ok
(iii) When the intended text is selected, the mouse button should be released.
Selecting Text with Keyboard : Following are the steps to be followed:
Insertion point is moved to the start of the text to be selected.
o
(ii) The Shift key is pressed down and the movement keys are used to highlight the
Unit 6
required text.
(iii) When the Shift key is released, the text is selected.
ab
(ii) Edit → Cut is selected or in the tool bar is selected to cut the selected text.
(iii) Insertion point is moved to the place where the text is to be pasted.
(iv) Edit → Paste is selected or in the tool bar is selected to paste the text in the new location.
.s
The text can also be pasted in this way to another or another type of document.
The following keyboard shortcuts can be used to move text.
Ctrl + X → to Cut, Ctrl + V → to Paste
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(iii) The mouse pointer is then moved in between the gray and white area of the ruler.
(iv) When the pointer is in the right spot, it changes into a line with arrows on both sides.
(v) The margin guide is dragged to a new location.
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UNIT TEST
Time : 60 min. Marks : 20
m
1. The menu is used to save the document
(a) File-> open (b) file-> print (c) file-> save (d) file-> close
co
2. The Keyboard shortcut is used to copy the selected text
(a) Ctrl+c (b) Ctrl+v (c) Ctrl+x (d) Ctrl+A
3. How many types of page orientation are there in Libre office Writer?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
s.
Visual Communication
4. _______is the LibreOffice formula or equation editor.
(a) Impress (b) Drawing (c) Base (d) Math
ok
II. Answer the following: (6 × 2 = 12)
5. What is right alignment?
6. What is the use for Text document software?
7. What is the difference between cut and copy?
o
8. How to close a document?
9. What is selecting text?
ab
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Answer Key
I. 1. (c) file-> save
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2. (a) Ctrl+c
3. (b) 2
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Computer Science
4. (d) Math
II. 5. Refer Sura’s Guide Textbook Q. No. II - 4
6. Refer Sura’s Guide Textbook Q. No. II - 1
s.
7. Refer Sura’s Guide Additional Q. No. II - 4
8. Refer Sura’s Guide Textbook Q. No. II - 3
ok
9. Refer Sura’s Guide Textbook Q. No. II - 2
10. Refer Sura’s Guide Additional Q. No. II - 6
III. 11 Refer Sura’s Guide Additional Q. No. III - 3
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Unit 6
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7 TERM-III
th Reg. No.
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I. Choose the correct answer : 10×1= 10
1. Which of the following is the best reflector of light?
(a) plastic plate (b) plane mirror (c) wall (d) paper
co
2. Light that hits a mirror gets _________
(a) Transmitted (b) Reflected (c) Absorbed (d) Refracted
3. Telescope was invented by
s.
(a) Han Lippershey (b) Galilio
(c) Nicolus Coppernicus (d) Ptolomy
4. The Great Bear or Saptha Rishi Mandalam are the names of
ok
(a) The Ursa Major (b) Orion
(c) Both a and b (d) None of these
5. A synthetic fibre which has similar properties to wool is ________.
(a) Nylon (b) Polyester (c) Acrylic (d) PVC
o
6. A drug effective in the treatment of pneumonia, and bronchitis, is _______________.
(a) Streptomycin (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Penicillin (d) Sulphaguanidine
ab
12. What are the three types of materials based on the absorption of light?
13. Write the items given here in the correct column (Stars, brick walls, plants, mirror, planets,
electric light bulb, candle)
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15. Analogy :
7th Std
a) stars :__________ .
b) Nearest galaxy : Andromeda :: Nearest star
16. Give the expansions of PSLV and GSLV.
Science
m
17. Assertion – Reason
Option:
co
Sura’s Model Summative Question paper
s.
Reason (R) : Vegetable peels are compostable.
b) Assertion (A) : It is good to avoid plastics.
Reason (R) : Plastics end up polluting the environment.
ok
18. It is not advisable to burn plastic and synthetic fabrics. Why?
19. A plastic bag dumped in the soil stays without breaking down for 500 years. If a new generation
starts in every 30 years, how many generations would it take to see the plastic bag finally broken
down?
o
20.
ab
A B
1. Nylon Thermoplastic
2. PVC Thermosetting plastic
3. Bakelite Non-stick cookwares
4. Teflon Fibre
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21. :_________,:_________, :_________ are called green house gases (Fleming / lenis pastor)
22. How many types of combustion are there?
23. Analogy :
.s
Arul and Aakash were doing an experiment in which water was to be heated in a beaker.
Arul kept the beaker near the wick in the yellow part of candle flame. Aakash kept the bea-
ker in the outer most part to the flame. Whose water will get heated in a shorter time?
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4. Sweet Liquid Andhra pradesh
27. True or false - If false, give the correct statement.
a) Horse hair is used as bristles in small painting brushes.
co
b) Ahimsa silk is otherwise known as Mulberry silk.
28. Silk fiber is used to manufacture parachute. Why?
29. What is the use for Text document software?
s.
30. How to open an existing document?
ok
a) Incident ray, b) Reflected ray, c) Normal d) Angle of incidence
Science
32. Explain the waxing and waning phases in Venus.
o
33. What are the major steps involved in this wool factory.
7th Std
34. List the advantages and disadvantages of synthetic fibres.
ab
Answers
.s
19. It would take 16 to 17 generations to see the plastic bag finally broken down.
Science
m
20.
A B
1. Nylon Fibre
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Sura’s Model Summative Question paper
2. PVC Thermoplastic
3. Bakelite Thermosetting plastic
4. Teflon Non-stick cookwares
21. CO2, Methane, Chlorofluorocarbons.
s.
22. Refer Sura’s Guide Textbook Q. No. VI - 6, Unit - 4.
23. Least hot, Hottest part
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24. Refer Sura’s Guide Textbook Q. No. VII - 4, Unit - 4.
25. Refer Sura’s Guide Textbook Q. No. IX, Unit - 4.
26.
1. Cocoons Silk worm
o
2. Peace silk Andhra pradesh
ab
3. Broilers Poultry
4. Sweet Liquid Honey
27. a) True
b) False. Correct statement :Ahimsa silk is otherwise known as peace silk.
ur
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S
O
m
C
co
I
A
s.
TERM ok L
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III S
ab
C
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I
.s
E
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N
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C
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C ontents
m
co
SOCIAL SCIENCE
s.
Units Chapters Page No.
HISTORY
1.
2.
3.
ok
New Religious Ideas and Movements
Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu
Jainism, Buddhism and Ajivika Philosophy in Tamil Nadu
o 365 - 372
373 - 380
381 - 389
GEOGRAPHY
ab
in Practice
CIVICS
1. Women Empowerment 429 - 434
.s
ECONOMICS
1. Tax and its importance 448 - 455
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364
History
Unit
1 New Religious Ideas and Movements
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Evaluation
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Who of the following composed songs on Krishna putting himself in the place of mother
s.
Yashoda?
(a) Poigaiazhwar (b) Periyazhwar (c) Nammazhwar (d) Andal
[Ans : (b) Periyazhwar]
ok
2. Who preached the Advaita philosophy?
(a) Ramanujar (b) Ramananda (c) Nammazhwar (d) Adi Shankara
[Ans : (d) Adi Shankara]
3. Who spread the Bhakthi ideology in northern India and made it a mass movement?
(a) Vallabhacharya (b) Ramanujar (c) Ramananda (d) Surdas
o
[Ans : (c) Ramananda]
4. Who made Chishti order popular in India?
ab
2. - Sikhs
3. Srivaishnavism - Abdul-Wahid Abu Najib
4. Granthavali - Guru Gobind Singh
5. Suhrawardi - Tulsidas
[365]
2. Ramcharitmanas - Tulsidas
3. Srivaishnavism - Ramanuja
4. Granthavali - Kabir
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5. Suhrawardi - Abdul-Wahid Abu Najib
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1. 1. Andal - Srivilliputhur
2. Tukaram - Bengal
3. Chaitanyadeva - Maharashtra
4. Brahma-sutra - Vallabacharya
s.
5. Gurudwaras - Sikhs
[Ans : (1) Andal - Srivilliputhur, (5) Gurudwaras - Sikhs]
2. Assertion (A): After Guru Gobind Singh, the holy book Guru Granth Sahib came to be
considered the guru.
(d) Both A and R are wrong [Ans : (c) A is correct but R is wrong]
ab
2. The best known Sufi sage of the early medieval period was Nizamuddin Auliya of the Chishti
order. [Ans : True]
3. Guru Nanak is considered the first guru of Sikhs. [Ans : True]
.s
4. Sufis believed that realization of God can be achieved only through passionate devotion to
God and intense meditation. [Ans : True]
5. The basic Tamil Saivite sacred canon consists of 12 books. [Ans : True]
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Ans. Nambi Andar Nambi (1000 A.D.) is said to have compiled the songs of all of the Nayanmars
that form the basis of Tirumurai, the basic Tamil Saivite sacred canon. It consists of 12 books,
and 11 of them were assembled by Nambi. The 12th book is Sekkizhar’s Periyapuranam.
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2. How many Nayanmars were there and who were prominent among them?
Ans. There are 63 legendary Nayanmars. Among them, Gnanasampandar, Appar, and Sundarar
(often called “the trio”) are worshipped as saints through their images in South Indian temples.
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holy book of the Sikhs.
4. What had Tukkaram to do with the Vitthoba temple of Pantharpur?
Ans. Tukaram, a 17th century saint poet of Maharashtra, is known for his spiritual songs abangas
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or Kirtanas, devoted to Vitthoba, an avatar of krishna. There is Vitthoba / Panduranga temple
at Pantharpur or Pandaripuram in Sholapur district, Maharashtra.
5. Highlight the spiritual ideas of Kabir that appealed to lower classes.
Ans. (i) Kabir believed that God is one and formless, even though different religious sects give
s.
him different names and forms.
(ii) Kabir opposed discrimination on the basis of religion, caste and wealth. He also
condemned meaningless rituals.
The Azhwars, the Vaishnavite Bhakti sages and the originators of Bhakti cult, and the
o
Nayanmars, the worshipers of Siva or the Saivites, composed devotional hymns in
Tamil language, dedicated to their respective gods.
ab
(i) Adi Shankara or Shankarachariar (c. 700–750 A.D.) preached the Advaita
philosophy.
(ii) He set up mathas (mutts), centres of learning and worship, at Badrinath, Puri,
.s
(b) Ramanuja:
(i) Ramanuja, a 11th century Vaishnava saint, was the most influential thinker of
Vaishnavism.
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(i) Ramananda spread the Bhakti ideology in northern India where it became a mass
movement. Vallabhacharya, a Telugu philosopher, built a temple for Lord Krishna on
the Govardhan Hills near Mathura. Surdas, a blind poet and musician, was associated
with this temple as well as that of Agra. His famous collection of poetry is called
Sursagar. Meera Bai, wife of the crown prince of Mewar, was an ardent devotee of
Lord Krishna.
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worship through ecstatic songs and dancing that had a profound effect on Vaishnavism
in Bengal.
(iii) Tulsidas’s Hindi retelling of the story of Rama in the Ramcharitmanas, the sentiment
of friendship and loyalty is stressed.
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(iv) Tukaram, a 17th century saint poet of Maharashtra, is known for his spiritual songs
(abangas or kirtanas), devoted to Vitthoba, an avatar of Krishna.
2. What is Sufism? How did it find its footing in India?
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Ans. The advent of Sufis to India dates back to the Arab conquest of Sind. It gained prominence
during the reign of the Delhi Sultans. Sufism found adherents among both Muslims and
Hindus.
(i) Sufism: The word Sufi takes its origin from suf, meaning wool. The Sufis wore course
s.
garments made of wool and hence they were called Sufis. Sufism was basically
Islamic but was influenced by Hindu and Buddhist (Mahayana) ideas. It rejected the
stringent conduct code of the ulemas. Sufis lived in hermitages akin to monasteries
and functioned outside society.
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Suhrawardi and Firdausi.
ok
Sufis in medieval India were divided into three major orders. They were Chisti,
The best known Sufi sage of the early medieval period was Nizamuddin Auliya of the
Chishti order, who had a large number of followers among the ruling class in Delhi.
o
Suhrawardi order was founded by an Iranian Sufi Abdul-Wahid Abu Najib. The Firdausi
order was a branch of Suhrawardi order and its activities were confined to Bihar.
ab
(iii) Bhakti was a movement of the common people; it used the language of the common
people for its devotional literature.
(iv) Bhakti movement opened up space for Indian languages to grow. It stimulated literary
activity in regional languages.
.s
(v) What sustained Sanskrit, despite its decline during this period, was the support
extended by the rulers of Hindu kingdoms.
(vi) Tamil was the only ancient Indian language remained vibrant during this period. Under
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the influence of devotional cults, its emphasis shifted to religion and religious literature.
(vii) Caste system and social disparities came to be criticised.
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VIII. HOTS
Examine the statement that the Bhakti movement saved Vedic Hinduism from the
onslaught of Islam.
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Ans. (i) The Bhakthi movement emphasised the mutual emotional attachment and love of a
devotee towards a personal God and of the God for the devotee.
(ii) The Azhwars and Nayanmars contibuted a lot to Tamil literature through their
devotional hymns.
(iii) They criticised caste - based social status and advocated gender equality.
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(iv) Sages like Ramanuja and Adi Shankara too articulated ideas of social equality. In
North India poets like Ramananda, Vallabhacharya and Tulsidas spread the Bhakthi
cult through their devotional hymns which could save Vedic Hinduism from the
onslaught of Islam.
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1. There is only one God, through Hindus and Muslims call him by different names stated
___________.
(a) Andal (b) Haridasa (c) Ramanuja (d) Meera Bai
[Ans : (b) Haridasa]
s.
2. The Azhwars and the Nayanmars composed devotional hymns in _______ language.
(a) Tamil (b) Sanksrit (c) Hindi (d) Urdu
[Ans : (a) Tamil]
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3. The __________ Tamil Azhwars are chiefly known for their immortal hymns.
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 12 (d) 13 [Ans : (c) 12]
4. __________ is said to have found Andal as a baby in the tulsi garden at Srivilliputhur.
(a) Poigai Azhwar (b) Pei Azhwar (c) Nammazhwar (d) Periyazhvar
o
[Ans : (d) Periyazhvar]
5. The poems of ________ are used in Vaishnava wedding ceremonies in Tamil Nadu.
ab
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5.
6. The poems of Andal expressing her love for _________, the incarnation of Vishnu.
[Ans : Ranganatha]
7. _____ is said to have compiled the songs of all the Nayanmars.[Ans : Nambi Andar Nambi]
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8. Sekkizhar’s wrote ________. [Ans : Periyapuranam]
9. After a long pilgrimage, Ramanuja settled in ________. [Ans : Srirangam]
10. The Vadakalai Vaishnavism originally flourished around _____. [Ans : Kanchipuram]
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11. Thenkalai Vaishnavism centred on ____________. [Ans : Srirangam]
12. The Panduranga temple is located in _________ district, Maharashtra. [Ans : Sholapur]
13. The best known Sufi sage of the early medieval period was _____[Ans : Nizamuddin Auliya]
14. Kabir came under the influence of Saint __________. [Ans : Ramananda]
15. Guru Nanak’s teachings were spread through hymns called _____. [Ans : kirtan]
s.
III. Match the following:
A B
1.
2.
3.
4.
Khalsa
Kesh
Kangha
kada
o – a) Uncut hair
– b) Dagger
– c) The pure
– d) Comb
ok
5. kirpan – e) Steel bangle
[Ans: 1 –c; 2 –a; 3 –d; 4 –e; 5 –b]
ab
IV.
1. Find out the right pair / pairs.
1. Siva Bhakti - Saivites
2. Andal - Tirumurai
ur
3. Kabir - Bijak
4. Kachera - Dagger
[Ans : (1) Siva Bhakti - Saivites, (3) Kabir - Bijak]
.s
2. Assertion (A): During the Bhakti movement, Sankrit sustained despite its decline.
Reason (R): The Rules of Hindu kingdom extended support to Sanskrit.
(a) R is not the correct explanation of A (b) R is the correct explanation of A
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4. Sufism accepted the stringent conduct code of the ulemas. [Ans : False]
5. The message of Guru Granth Sahib is spread by the Khalsa. [Ans : True]
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1.
Ans. The Bhagavad Gita proposed that the path of bhaktimarga (the path of bhakti) is superior
to the two other religious approaches, namely, the path of knowledge (jnana) and the path
of rituals and good works (karma), providing inspiration to the exponents of Bhakti cult.
co
2. Name the three Muthal Azhwars.
Ans. Three Muthal Azhwars: Poigai Azhwar, Bhoothathu Azhwar and Pei Azhwar.
3. Name any five eminent Azhwars other than the Muthal Azhwar.
Ans. Other Azhwars: Thirumalisai Azhwar, Periyazhwar, Thondaradippodi Azhwar, Thirumangai
s.
Azhwar, Thiruppanazhwar, Kulasekara Azhwar, Nammazhwar, Mathurakavi Azhwar and
Andal.
ok
4. What was the essence of the ‘Advaita’ philosophy?
Ans. The essence of this philosophy is that the soul (atma) unites with the universal soul (brahma)
through the attainment of knowledge.
5. How were the teachings of Guru Nanak spread?
o
Ans. Guru Nanak’s teachings were spread through the group singing of hymns, called kirtan. The
devotees gathered in dharmashalas (rest houses), which became gurudwaras in course of
time.
ab
(v) These were kesh (uncut hair), kangha (comb), kirpan (dagger), kada (steel bangle)
and kachera (underpants).
(vi) After Guru Gobind Singh, the holy book Guru Granth Sahib is considered the guru
w
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UNIT TEST
History
m
1.
(a) Vallabhacharya (b) Ramanujar (c) Ramananda (d) Surdas
2. Kabir’s verses were composed in _________ language mixed with Urdu.
(a) Hindi (b) Oriya (c) Bhojpuri (d) Sanskrit
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II. Fill in the blanks : (3 × 1 = 3)
1. ________________ is the holy book of the Sikhs.
2. _____________ philosophy is known as Vishistadvaita.
Sekkizhar’s wrote ________.
s.
3.
III. Match : (4 × 1 = 4)
A B
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1. Ramcharitmanas – a) Kabir
2. Granthavali – b) Uncuthair
3. Kesh – c) Steel bangle
4. kada – d) Tulsidas
o
IV. True or False : (3 × 1 = 3)
ab
1. The best known Sufi sage of the early medieval period was Nizamuddin Auliya of the Chishti order.
2. Sufis believed that realization of God can be achieved only through passionate devotion to
God and intense meditation.
3. The Vadakalai sect stressed the importance of Divya Prabandhams.
V. Answer in one or two sentences (4 × 2 = 8)
ur
Answer Key
I 1) (c) Ramananda 2) (c) Bhojpuri
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History
Unit Art and Architecture of
2 Tamil Nadu
m
Evaluation
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I. Choose the correct answer.
1. Which is the oldest structural temple in south India?
(a) Shore Temple (b) Mandagapattu
s.
(c) Kailasanatha Temple (d) Vaikuntha Perumal Temple
[Ans : (a) Shore Temple]
2. In which year were the Mamallapuram monuments and temples notified as a UNESCO
3.
world Heritage site?
(a) 1964
(b) 1994
ok
(c) 1974 (d) 1984
What was the special feature of the architecture of early Chola period?
(a) bas-reliefs
o
(b) vimanas (c) corridors
[Ans : (d) 1984]
(d) gopurams
[Ans : (b) vimanas]
4. Where is the Azhakiya Nambi Temple situated?
ab
[Ans : Pudumandapam]
4. Later Chola period was known for beautiful __________. [Ans : gopurams]
5. Vijayanagar period’s unique feature is the _________. [Ans : mandapam]
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m
5. Pudumandapam - Madurai
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1. 1. Krishnapuram Temple - Tirunelveli
2. Kudalazhagar Temple - Azhwar Tirunagari
3. Sethupathis - Feudatories of Madurai Nayaks
4. Jalagandeshwara temple - Vellore
s.
[Ans : (2) Kudalazhagar Temple – Azhwar Tirunagari]
2. Assertion (A): The predominance of corridors of Rameswaram Temple is striking.
Reason (R): The Temple has the largest set of corridors in the world.
ok
(a) R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are wrong [Ans : (b) R is the correct explanation of A]
o
3. Find out the odd one out:
Srivilliputhur, Azhaharkoil, Srirangam, Kanchipuram, Tiruvannamalai.
[Ans : Kanchipuram]
ab
3.
4. Brihadeeshwara temple was built by Rajendra Chola. [Ans : True]
5. Vijayanagar and Nayak paintings are seen at temple at Dadapuram. [Ans : False]
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mythology.
2. Throw light on the paintings of Sittanavasal.
Ans. (i) Caves at Sittanavasal, have outstanding early Pandya paintings.
(ii) Sittanavasal was a residential cave of the Jain monks. They painted the walls with
s.
fresco painting.
(iii) The lotus pond is notable for its excellent execution of colours and exposition of the
scene.
3.
(iv)
Ans. (i)
(ii)
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The image of lotus flowers, leaves spread all over the pond, animals, elephants, buffalos,
swans and a man who plucks the flowers look brilliant.
Point out the special features of Thanjavur Big temple.
t the time the Big Temple of Thanjavur was constructed, it was a huge temple complex.
A
o
The 216 feet vimana (structure over the garbhagriha) is notable as it is one among the
tallest man-made shikaras of the world.
ab
(iii) Due to its massive height, the shikara is called the Dakshina Meru.
(iv) The huge bull statue (Nandi) measures about 16 feet long and 13 feet height and is
carved out of a single rock.
4. Highlight the striking features of Rameswaram Temple.
ur
for about 120 metres in both the eastern and western directions.
(iv) The outer corridor is also remarkable for the number of pillars that support it, which
is over 1200 in number.
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1. The Pallava epoch witnessed a transition from rock-cut to free-standing temples - Explain.
Ans. Pallava Epoch:
(i) The Pallava epoch witnessed a transition from rock-cut to free-standing temples.
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(ii) Rock-cut temples were initially built by carving a rock to the required design and then
rocks were cut to build temples.
(iii) The Pallava king Mahendravarman was a pioneer in rock-cut architecture.
Mandagapattu temple was the first rock-cut temple built by him.
(iv) The rock-cut cave structure has two pillars in the front that hold it.
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large structural temples probably because the structural temples provided a wider
scope to the sculptor to use his skill.
(vi) The Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram, also called the Seven Pagodas, was built by the
Pallava king Narasimhavarman II.
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(vii) The structural temples were built using blocks of rock instead of a whole block as earlier.
(viii) Mahabalipuram (Mamallapuram) is built of cut stones rather than carved out of caves.
2. Discuss how the architecture of Vijayanagara and Nayak period was different from the
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one of Pallavas and Later Cholas.
Ans.
S. Vijayanagara and Nayak Period of Pallavas and Later cholas period of
No. architecture architecture
1. The main features of Vijayanagar and The Pallava epoch withnessed a transition
s.
Nayak architecture are decorated from rock-cut to free standing temples. The
mandapas, ornamental pillars, life- Shore temple at Mahabalipuram was built by
size images, gopuras, prakaras, music the Pallava king Narasimhavarman II.
pillars, floral works and stone windows
during the 15th to 17th centuries.
2. Tanks are attached to the temples.
Gateways to temple are constructed
from four directions with massive
Gopurams.
o ok The maturity attained by later chola
architecture is reflected in the two
magnificent temples of Thanjavur and
Gangaikonda Cholapuram. Dharasuram
is a later Chola period temple rich in
architectural splendour, dedicated to
ab
Iravatheswara.
VIII. HOTS.
1. Dravidian architecture is of indigenous origin - Explain.
ur
Ans. (i) Dravidian architecture is of indigenous origin. It advanced over time by a process of
evolution. The earliest examples of the Tamil Dravidian architectural tradition were
the 7th century rock-cut shrines at Mahabalipuram.
(ii) The absence of monuments in south India prior to the 7th century is attributed by
.s
scholar to temples ought to have been built in wood, which were eventually destroyed
by forces of nature.
(iii) It consists primarily of Hindu temples where the main feature is the high gopura,
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(v) The Cholas, Cheras, Pandyas, Pallavas Kakatiyas, Kadambas, Chalukyas and the
vijayanagar kings contributed to this architecture.
Temple art was at its best during the Nayak Period - Elucidate.
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2.
Ans. (i) The practice of fitting the niches with sculptures continued during the Nayak period.
(ii) There was an increased use of major sculpted figures (relief sculpture) as found at the
Alakiya Nambi temple at Tirukkurungudi (Tirunelveli district) and the Gopalakrishna
temple in the Ranganatha temple complex at Srirangam.
(iii) The southern festival mandapam of Adinatha temple at Azhwar Tirunagari and the
porch of the Nellaiyappar temple at Tirunelveli are other notable examples.
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Additional Questions
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Narasimhavarman II, built the _________ temple at Kanchipuram.
(a) Vaikuntha Perumal (b) Kailasanatha
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[Ans : (b) Pallavas]
3. Tirumalai Nayakkar museum is located at _________.
(a) Madurai (b) Chennai (c) Salem (d) Tirunelveli
[Ans : (a) Madurai]
4. __________ from where we get early Pandya paintings, are in a damaged condition.
s.
(a) Tirunelveli (b) Madurai (c) Tirumalaipuram (d) Anaimalai
[Ans : (c) Tirumalaipuram]
5. For the Early Chola epoch, the temple at _______ near Tindivanam in TamilNadu, is
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worth mentioning.
(a) Thanjavur (b) Darasuram
(c) Gangaikonda Cholapuram (d) Dadapuram [Ans : (d) Dadapuram]
6. Thanjavur Big temple was built by _________ chola.
(a) Rajaraja (b) Vijayalaya (c) Rajendra (d) Karikala
o
[Ans : (a) Rajaraja]
7. _________ near kumbakonam is a temple dedicated to Iravatheswara.
ab
4. The ________ paintings have similarities with the Ajantha paintings. [Ans : Sittanavasal]
5. The Cholas came to limelight in A.D. 850 under ______. [Ans : Vijaylaya Chola]
6. Temples with the increased number of ________ figures belong to the Sembiyan style.
[Ans : devakoshta]
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7. __________ is an illustrious example of early temple that was re-fashioned in the days of
Sembiyan Mahadevi. [Ans : Tiruppurambiyam]
8. _______ served as the Chola capital for about 250 years.[Ans : Gangaikonda Cholapuram]
9. _______ constructed the Iravatheswara temple at Darasuram. [Ans : Rajaraja II]
10. In the temple of Rameswaram, the _________ set of corridors is the oldest of the three.
[Ans : innermost]
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m
4. Nellaiappar temple - d) Kanchipuran
5. Ramanathaswamy temple - e) Nanguneri
[Ans : 1 -d; 2 -a; 3 -e; 4 -b; 5 -c]
IV.
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1. Asseration (A): The Pallava King Mahendravarman was a Pioneer in rock-cut architecture.
Reason (R): Mandagapattu temple was the first rock-cut temple built by him.
(a) R is the correct explanation of A. (b) R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong (d) Both A and R are wrong
[Ans : (a) R is the correct explanation of A]
s.
2. Find the odd one out.
Vijayalaya, Rajasimha, Rajaraja, Rajendra. [Ans : Rajasimha]
Find out the correct statement/s.
ok
3.
1) The illustrious example for rock-cut style is unfinished Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temple.
2) The lotus pond is notable for its execution of colours is found in Ajantha paintings.
3) Pillayarpatti is located near Vellore.
4) Monolithic gigantic yazhi pillars are found in temples of Vijayanagara Period.
o
[Ans : (1) The illustrious example for rock-cut style is unfinished Kazhugumalai
Vettuvankoil temple, (4) Monolithic gigantic yazhi pillars are found in temples of
Vijayanagara Period.]
ab
Ans. The most important cave temples are found in Malaiyadikurichi, Anaimalai, Tiruparankundram
and Trichirappali.
2. Write a short note on the Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temples.
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Ans. (i) The illustrious example for rock-cut style is Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temple.
(ii) The Vettuvankoil, a monolithic temple at Kazhugumalai, is hewn out of a huge boulder
on four sides.
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(iii) At the top of the temple, sculptures of Uma Maheswarar, Dakshinamoorthy, Vishnu
and Brahma are found.
3. Give a brief account of the Dharasuram temple.
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Ans. (i) harasuram, near Kumbakonam, is a Later Chola period temple, rich in architectural
D
splendour, dedicated to Iravatheswara (Siva as god of lord Indira’s elephant).
(ii) The Mahamandapam is an elaborate structure. The entire structure looks like a ratha
because it has four wheels at the Mahamandapam. The sanctum and pillars have many
sculptures, of various mythological figures.
(iii) A compound wall runs round the temple with a gopuram.
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m
5.
Give examples.
Ans. (i) During the Vijayanagara epoch, a new form of construction emerged. It is the
mandapam (pavilion) to where the gods are carried every year.
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(ii) Pillared outdoor mandapams are meant for public rituals with the ones in the east
serving as the waiting room for devotees, which adorn the large temples.
(iii) The kalyana mandapam at Kanchipuram (Varadaraja Perumal temple) and at Vellore
(Jalagandeshwar temple) are notable examples.
s.
6. What are the main features of the Vijayanagara and Nayak architecture?
Ans. (i) e main features of the Vijayanagar and Nayak architecture are decorated mandapas,
Th
ornamental pillars, life-size images, gopuras, prakaras, music pillars, floral works and
ok
stone windows.
(ii) Tanks are attached to the temples. Gateways to temple are constructed from four
directions with massive gopurams.
7. Describe the pillars of the Vijayanagar and Nayak period.
Ans. (i) The pillars of this period are more decorative than the previous period.
o
(ii) Monolithic gigantic yazhi pillars, horse pillars with life-size portraits of mythological
and royal family members, common folk, animals and floral works were made.
ab
(iv) The sanctum has two storeys as in the big temple at Thanjavur.
(v) The outer wall has many projections with niches and recesses on three sides. In the
niches there are the images of Siva, Vishnu and other gods.
(vi) This temple complex has the shrines of Chandeeswarar, Ganesa and Mahishasura
Mardhini.
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UNIT TEST
History
m
1. In which year were the Mamallapuram monuments and temples notified as a UNESCO
world Heritage site?
(a) 1964 (b) 1994 (c) 1974 (d) 1984
co
2. Thanjavur Big temple was built by _________ chola.
(a) Rajaraja (b) Vijayalaya (c) Rajendra (d) Karikala
II. Fill in the blanks : (3 × 1 = 3)
1. The early Chola architecture followed the style of ___________.
s.
2. Later Chola period was known for beautiful __________.
3. The _________, is a monolithic temple at Kazhugumalai.
III. Match : (4 × 1 = 4)
1.
2.
3.
4.
Seven Pagodas
Pudumandampam
Vanamamalai temple
Nellaiappar temple
o -
-
-
-
c) Maduraiok
a) Nanguneri
b) Tirunelveli
d) Shore temple
IV. True or False : (3 × 1 = 3)
ab
Answer Key
I 1) (d) 1984 2) (a) Rajaraja
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History
Unit
3 Jainism, Buddhism and Ajivika
Jainism,BuddhismandAjivikaPhilosophyinTamilNadu
Philosophy in Tamil Nadu
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Evaluation
I. Choose the correct answer:
Where was the first Jain Council held to codify the Jaina canon?
s.
1.
(a) Pataliputra (b) Vallabhi (c) Mathura (d) Kanchipuram
[Ans : (a) Pataliputra]
2. In which language was Agama sutras written?
3.
(a) Ardha-Magadhi Prakrit
(c) Sanskrit
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
o ok
(b) Hindi
(d) Pali [Ans : (a) Ardha-Magadhi Prakrit]
Which of the following was patronised by the Kalabhras?
(c) Ajivikas (d) Hinduism
[Ans : (b) Jainism]
4. Where are the Rock beds found with no head-rests?
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[Ans : Neminatha]
2. Buddhacharita was written by __________. [Ans : Asvaghosa]
Chinese traveller Huein Tsang visited Pallava country in ____________ century.[Ans : 7th]
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3.
4. ____________ describes Buddhism as a religion in decay.
[Ans : Mahendravarman’s Mattavilasa Prahasana]
5. The Mauryan emperor Asoka and his grandson Dasarata patronised _______.[Ans : Ajivikas]
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5. Kizha Kuyil Kudi - Madurai
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1. Find out the odd one
Tiruparuttikunram, Kizha Kuyil Kudi, Kazhugumalai, Nagapattinam, Sittanavasal.
[Ans : Nagapattinam]
2. Assertion (A): Gautama found that he had nothing to learn from the teachers of
s.
the old religions.
Reason (R): The religions proclaimed that the only way to salvation was through
living the life of an ascetic.
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(a) A is correct. R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct. R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong. (d) A is wrong. But R is correct.
[Ans : (a) A is correct. R is the correct explanation of A]
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3. Find out the correct statement/s
i) During the 6th century B.C. as many as 62 religious schools flourished in India.
ii) ‘Palli’ is an educational centre of Buddhists.
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V. True or False
1. The 12th Agama Sutra is said to have been lost. [Ans : True]
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(ii)
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2. What are the four noble truths of Buddha?
Ans. (i) Life includes pain, getting old, disease, and ultimately death.
(ii) Suffering is caused by craving and aversion.
(iii) Suffering can be overcome and happiness attained.
s.
(iv) True happiness and contentment are possible, if one pursues the eight-fold path.
3. Explain the three divisions of Tripitaka.
Ans. (i) The Pali canon Tripitaka has three divisions, also known as the Threefold Basket. They
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
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include Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka.
Vinaya Pitaka contains the rules of the order of Buddhist monks, which must be
observed for achieving purity of conduct.
Sutta Pitaka lays down the principles of religion by citing discourses as evidence.
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Abhidhamma Pitaka is the latest of the Tripitaka. It deals with ethics, philosophy
and meta-physics.
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(iii) The largest of these ascetic beds contains a Tamil-Brahmi inscription that dates to the
2nd century B.C.
(iv) The Sittanavasal cave temple, named Arivar Koil, lies on the west off the hillock. The
facade of the temple is simple, with four rock-cut columns.
.s
(v) Constructed in the early Pandya period, in the 7th century A.D. , it has a hall in the
front called the Ardha-mandapam.
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(i)
one thousand years.
(ii) In the early period of Jainism, monks strictly followed the five great vows of Jainism.
Even religious scriptures were considered possessions and therefore knowledge of the
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(ii) They were reduced to writing by 80 B.C. and were written in the Pali language.
(iii) The Pali canon Tripitaka has three divisions, also known as the Threefold Basket. They
include Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka.
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2. Give an account of relics of Jainism and Buddhism that have come to light in Tamil Nadu.
Ans. Jains in Kanchipuram:
(i) Jainism flourished during the Pallava reign.
(ii) The two Jain temples in Kanchipuram are Trilokyanatha Jinaswamy Temple at
s.
Tiruparuttikunram and the Chandra Prabha temple dedicated to the Tirtankara
named Chandra Prabha.
(iii) Mural paintings in the temples show scenes from the lives of Tirtankaras.
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(iv) In the Kanchipuram district, Jain vestiges have been found over the years in many
villages across the state.
Kazhugumalai Jain Rock-cut Temple:
(i) The Kazhugumalai temple in Thoothukudi district marks the revival of Jainism in
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Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Polished rock-cut cave beds, popularly known as Panchavar Padukkai at Kazhugumalai
cavern host the figures of Tirtankaras and also the figures of yakshas and yakshis.
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Jain temples have also been excavated in the districts of Vellore, Tiruvannamalai and
Madurai.
Buddhism in Tamilzhakam:
(i) Buddhism is believed to have spread to the Tamil country by the Ceylonese missionaries.
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(v) Nalanda, Taxila and Vikramshila gained reputation as great educational centres. They
were originally Buddhist Viharas.
(vi) Excavations of Buddhist Vihara and a temple at Kaveripoompattinam and hundreds
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of stone and bronze sculptures by ASI from over 125 sites have proved the spread of
the religion in the state.
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3. Discuss the essence of Ajivika philosophy and its presence in Tamil Nadu.
Ans. Ajivika Philosophy:
(i) The Ajivikas believed in the doctrine of karma, transmigration of the soul and
determinism.
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(v) Village communities under Pallavas, Cholas and Hoysalas imposed special taxes on
them.
(vi) Despite such obstacles, Ajivikas continued to have influence along the Palar river in
the modern states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu (Vellore, Kanchipuram and Tiruvallur
districts) till about the 14th century. In the end, they seemed to have been absorbed
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religion.
Ans. Heterodox religions and Vedic religion commonalities:
Hinduism is a way of life, while heterodox religions like Buddhism and Jainism advocate a
way of life. All the religions doctrines are codified into texts to be followed by their devotees
s.
and practitioners. All these religions share key concepts, which one interpreted differently
by different individuals.
Differences:
Heterodox religions
No rituals
2. Why did these heterodox religions fail to become mainstream religion in India?
Ans. (i) s far as Buddhism was concerned, if declined due to the loss of patronage and donation
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after the end of the Gupta Empire.
(ii) Invasion of north India by Huns, Turco Mongols and Persians was yet-another reason.
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(iii) In the case of Jainism Lack of Patronage, Lack of efforts to spread the religion. Jains
adopted many Hindu faiths. Jains started to differentiate people in the name of castes
and classes.
(iv) Role of Hindu teachers was also another reason for the failure of these religions in India.
.s
Additional Questions
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7. Milindapanha was originally written in _________.
(a) Sanskrit (b) Pali (c) Hindi (d) Urdu
[Ans : (a) Sanskrit]
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8. Students from Tibet and China were influenced by _______.
(a) Jainism (b) Buddhism (c) Hinduism (d) Sikhism
[Ans : (b) Buddhism]
9. Buddhist Viharas later transformed into _________.
s.
(a) temples (b) hospitals
(c) centres of learning (d) forts [Ans : (c) centres of learning]
10. In the end, they seemed to have been absorbed into _________.
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(a) Jainism (b) Sikhism (c) Saivism (d) Vaishnavism
[Ans : (d) Vaishnavism]
6. The Chinese traveller ________ visited Tamil Nadu during the Pallava rule.
[Ans : Hieun Tsang]
7. Polished rock-cut cave beds at Kazhugumalai were popularly known as_______.
[Ans : Panchavar Padukkai]
.s
8. _______ is a Jain temple in a cave complex located near Arni town. [Ans : Tirumalai]
9. The sculptures at Kizha Kuyil Kudi are assigned to the period of _________.
[Ans : Parantaka Veera Narayana Pandyan]
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16.
17. The Tamil epic ______ was written by Kulavanigan Sithalai Sattanar.[Ans : Manimekalai]
18. A 1.03 metre Buddha statue in _________ pose in remote Tirunattiyattankudi village.
[Ans : padmasana]
19. A _________ in Sanskrit means ‘dwelling’ or ‘house’. [Ans : Vihara]
20. The head of Ajivika sect was _________. [Ans : Gosala Mankhaliputta]
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IV. Answer the following.
1. Find out the odd one out.
Jatakas, Mahavamsa, Jivaka Chintamani, Visuddhimagga [Ans : Jivaka Chintamani]
s.
2. Assertion (A): A major split occurred in Jainism in the 1st century B.C. into two sects.
Reason (R): Both the sects acknowledge the Agama Sutras to be their early literature, but
differed with their content and interpretation.
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(a) A is correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct. R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) Both A and R are wrong. (d) A is wrong. But R is correct.
[Ans : (b) A is correct. R is the correct explanation of A.]
Find out the correct statement/s
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3.
i) The 12th Agama Sutra is said to have been lost.
ii) Naladiyar is attributed to a Buddhist monk
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[Ans : False]
5. Buddhavamsa contains a narration of the life and activities of the 24 Buddhas.[Ans : True]
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1. Why did the Jain monks decide to document the Jain literature known to them?
Ans. (i) e Jain acharyas (teachers) realised that it was extremely difficult to keep memorising
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the entire Jain literature complied by the many scholars of the past and present.
(ii) In fact, significant knowledge was already lost and the rest was tampered with
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modifications. Hence, they decided to document the Jain literature as known to them.
2. Write a short note on Agama Sutras.
Ans. (i) Agama Sutras consists of many sacred books of the Jain religion.
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(ii) They have been written in the Ardha-magadhi Prakrit language.
(iii) Containing the direct preaching of Mahavira, consisting of 12 texts, they were originally
compiled by immediate disciples of Mahavira.
(iv) The 12th Agama Sutra is said to have been lost.
s.
3. Who are Tirthankaras?
Ans. Tirthankaras are those who have attained nirvana and made a passage from this world to
the next.
4. Who expanded the Trilokyanatha Temple and how?
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Ans. Irugappa, a disciple of Jaina-muni Pushpasena; and a minister of Vijayanagar King Harihara
II (1377-1404), expanded the Trilokyanatha Temple by adding the Sangeetha mandapa. The
grand murals were added only at this time.
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5. How were the paintings at Trilokyanatha temple ruined?
Ans. The paintings of the Trilokyanatha temple at Tiruparuttikunram have been ruined by
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periods. The sculptures of Buddha in Thiyaganur village in Salem district strengthen this
conclusion.
VII. Answer in detail
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of perfection.
(ii) Gautama Buddha was a contemporary of Mahavira.
(iii) His father ruled the tribe of Sakya in a region near the present-day Nepal.
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(iv) Gautama found that he had nothing to learn from the teachers of the old religions.
(v) The religions proclaimed that the only way to salvation was through living the life of
an ascetic. But despite practicing asceticism, Gautama could not arrive anywhere near
the truth. And one night, as he sat under a bodhi-tree struggling with his doubt and
his loneliness, a great peace descended on him.
(vi) He was no longer Gautama, the sceptic, but became Buddha, the Enlightened.
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Time : 1 hr.
UNIT TEST Marks : 25
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(a) temples (b) hospitals
(c) centres of learning (d) forts
II. Fill in the blanks : (3 × 1 = 3)
1. The image of __________ is considered to be the tallest Jain image in Tamil Nadu.
s.
2. The Mauryan emperor Asoka and his grandson Dasarata patronised _______.
3. Buddha’s teachings were written in the _______ Language.
III. Match : (4 × 1 = 4)
1.
2.
3.
4.
Neminatha
Kizha Kuyil Kudi
Maha Bhasya
Mulas
o -
-
-
-
a) Madurai
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b) basic doctrine of Jainism
c) 22nd Tirthankara
d) great commentary
IV. True or False : (3 × 1 = 3)
Throughout history, Ajivikas had to face persecution everywhere.
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1.
2. Education was imparted in institutions of Jains irrespective of caste and creed.
3. Buddhism split into two sects Digambaras and Swetambaras.
V. Answer in one or two sentences (4 × 2 = 8)
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Answer Key
I 1) (b) Jainism 2) (c) centres of learning
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Geography
Unit
1 Exploring Continents – North
America and South America
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Evaluation
I. Choose the correct answer.
1. The _________ separates North America from Asia
s.
(a) Bering Strait (b) Palk Strait
(c) Malacca Strait (d) Gibraltar straits
[Ans : (a) Bering Strait]
2.
3.
(a) Mexico (b) USA
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_________ is known as the “sugar bowl of the world”
(c) Canada
_________ are the longest rivers in North America
(a) The Mississippi and Missouri rivers (b) The Mackenzieriver
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(c) The St. Lawrence river
(d) Cuba[Ans : (d) Cuba]
(c) The Amazon (d) The Paraná [Ans : (c) The Amazon]
1.
[Ans : Death valley is]
2. ___________ is one of the world’s best fishing grounds. [Ans : Grand Bank]
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3. The highest peak in the Andes is _________ on the Chile - Argentina border.
[Ans : Mt Aconcagua]
4. _________ of the equatorial regions are called the “lungs of the world”. [Ans : The Selvas]
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5. __________ is also known as the “coffee pot” of the world. [Ans : Brazil]
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5. Rhea - The flightless bird
s.
2.
Ans. United States of America is known as “Melting Pot” where hundreds of different cultures
meet, blend and creating a new culture.
3. Though Quito and Amazon basin are in the same latitude Quito enjoys eternal Spring.
Whereas Amazon basin is hot.
Ans. (i)
(ii)
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The climate of the continent of South America has been closely influenced by the
latitudes, attitudes and the proximity of the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
It is hot in the Amazon basin as the equator passes through it whereas Quito, situated
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almost on the same latitude on the Andes, has “Eternal Spring”.
(iii) That is, it has a pleasant climate throughout the year because of its high altitude at
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(iii) Peruvian waters normally abound with sword fish, mackerel, yellow fin, pompano
and shark.
(iv) More than 50 species are caught commercially.
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V. Distinguish between
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1. The western part of North America is The eastern part of North America is
occupied by long ranges of young fold formed of old fold Appalachian which
mountains known as Rocky mountains. are not continuous like Rockies.
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2. The width varies from 110 to There are few peaks more than 1800m
480 kms. high.
3. The Rocky mountains are west of the The Appalachian Mountains are east
Mississippi River. of the river.
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2. Region - Central USA and Central Region - North of Eastern part of Argentina,
Canada. Uruguay and Southern most Brazil.
3. Winter is very cold, Summer is hot and Summer is quite warm and winter is cold
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rainfall is moderate. and moderate rainfall.
4. Flora - Grasses Flora - short grass.
5. Fauna - Coyote, Gophers, Rabbits Fauna - Rhea, Pampas Deer, Jaguar, Camel,
Prairie Dogs and Bison. Stag etc.
s.
3. Tundra and Taiga.
Ans.
S.No. Tundra Taiga
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1. Region - Northern coast of Canada Region - The coniferous forests are found
and Northern Islands. in Alaska and Canada, South Central
Alaska and North Eastern Canada.
2. Climate - Winter is long and severely Climate - Winter is very cold, Summer is
cold, Summer is short and cool. warm and short. Heavy snowfall in winter.
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Geography
Rainfall is scanty.
3. Flora - Mosses, Lichens and Dwarf Flora - Pine, Fir, Cedar and Spruce.
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willows.
4. Fauna - Arctic fox, Reindeer, Musk ox, Fauna - Beaver, Fox, Sable, Ermine, Skunk,
Polar bears, Sable and Blue fox. Caribou and Grizzly Bears.
1. Assertion (A): Cotton grows well in southern and western states of North America.
Reason (R): Warm summer with frequent rainfall and fertile soil which provide favourable
condition.
.s
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Lawrence Valley.
(ii) The important Fruits of North America are Cranberries, Blueberries, Concord Grapes,
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4. Give a short note about the lifestyle of an Eskimos.
Ans. (i) Eskimos live in the very cold and inhospitable region where plenty of fish varieties
are available.
(ii) They were able to dress themselves in thick warm clothes made of fur, they live in igloos.
s.
(iii) Their lives were very simple and they could not alter the environment to any extent.
(iv) They specially designed a house by ice and is known as igloos.
5. Which are the densely populated areas of North America?
6. ok
Ans. Densely populated areas: Eastern part of North America, Great Lakes region, Florida,
California, Mexico and Central America are the mostly densely populated areas.
Name the physiographic divisions of South America.
Ans. On the basis of topographical features, the continent may be divided into the following
physiographic divisions:
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(i) The Andes Mountains
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(ii) Fauna: Anaconda, Armadillo, Piranha, Monkey, Snake, Crocodile and Parrots.
9. What is known as “Estancias”?
Ans. The Breeds raised on large pasture lands is known as Estancias. These are divided into several
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paddocks. Besides this, there are small yards known as corrals where animals are sorted and
branded. The owner is the Estanciera who has a number of gauchos.
10. Name the major export of South America.
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Ans. South America’s major exports are mostly primary commodities such as sugar, coffee, cocoa,
tobacco, beef, corn, wheat, petroleum, natural gas, linseed, cotton, iron ore, tin and copper.
South America’s products include mostly exported to North America and Europe.
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long bitterly cold winter.
(v) As one proceeds southwards the short summers become warm but the winters are
very cold.
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(vi) The central plains have extreme climate from freezing conditions in winter to tropical
heat in summer.
(vii) The South is usually warm all the year round and the regions around the mouth of
the Mississippi-Missouri and the Gulf Coast have summer rain from the North East
Trades which blow on-shore in summer.
s.
(viii) The warm moist South Westerlies not only bring rainfall to the North West coast and
also keep it warm.
(ix) The warm Alaskan Current keeps the North West coast ice free.
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(x) The State of California in USA has a Mediterranean Climate with moist winter and
dry summers.
2. Describe the Heavy Engineering Industries in North America.
Ans. Heavy Engineering Industries:
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(i) Industries which require heavy and bulky raw materials using enormous amounts
Geography
of power, involvement of huge investment and large transport costs are called heavy
industries.
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(ii) These industries depend heavily on the Iron and Steel industry.
(iii) The important Heavy Industries are automobile industries, aircraft industries, ship
building industries, Railway Wagon industries and farm equipment industries.
(iv) USA is the largest producer of automobiles.
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(v) The important Centers of heavy engineering industries are Detroit, Chicago, Buffalo,
Indianapolis, Los Angeles, Saint Louis, Philadelphia, New York, Baltimore, and Atlanta
in USA and Windsor in Canada.
3. Describe the drainage system in South America.
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Ans. (i) Owing to the position of the Andes all the great rivers of the continent drain into the
Atlantic.
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(ii) The Pacific streams are short and swift but along the coastlands of Peru their waters
are used for irrigation and to some extent for hydro-electric power. Amazon is the
longest river of South America (6,450km) and is the largest river system in the world.
(iii) This river has over a thousand of tributaries.
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(iv) The rivers Rio Negro, Madeira and Tapajos are important tributaries.
(v) At the point where it enters the sea the river is so wide and powerful that it flows even
at a distance of 80 km into the high seas.
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(vi) The Orinoco River originates in the Guiana Highlands and flows northwards into the
Caribbean Sea.
(vii) The river Paraguay has the Paraná and Uruguay rivers as the main tributaries which
together form and known as the Platte River system.
(viii) All the rivers are navigable for quite some distance in the interior.
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live in the mountain and the rainforests and keeping their own languages and traditions.
(iv) There are three major races found in South America and are (i) American Indian, (ii)
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known as ‘Mestizo’.
(v) The mixed population of European and the Blacks is called ‘Mulato’ and the mixture
of Native Indians and Blacks is called ‘Zambo’.
(vi) The current population of South America is 429, 115, 060 (42.25 cores). Population
s.
density of South America is 21 persons per square kilometer.
(vii) South America is positioned 5th rank in total population among the continents.
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X. Activity
1. Given below are some important cities with industries placed in brackets. Pick out the
correct answer from them.
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a) Pittsburgh (Textile, Iron and steel, Shipping) [Ans : Iron and steel]
b) Chicago (Meat Packing, Woolen textile, Heavy Engineering) [Ans : Meat Packing]
c) Ontario (Automobile, Paper, Cement) [Ans : Paper]
d) Chile (Oil refinery, Sugar, Cotton textile) [Ans : Oil refinery]
e) Uruguay (Leather processing, Copper smelting, Dairy products)[Ans : Dairy products]
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c) The combined Parana and Paraguay river.
P L A T T E
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A N G E L
e) The largest river in the world.
A M A Z O N
s.
Additional Questions
I. Choose the correct answer:
1.
2.
(a) 1492 (b) 1491 (c) 1498
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In __________ North America was discovered by Christopher Columbus.
(d) 1496 [Ans : (a) 1492]
The landmass was named America in _______ after Italian explorer America Vespucci.
(a) 1506 (b) 1507
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(c) 1508 (d) 1509[Ans : (b) 1507]
3. North America is the ________ largest continent next to Asia and Africa
(a) second (b) third (c) fourth [Ans : (b) third]
(d) fifth
ab
(a) six (b) seven (c) eight (d) nine[Ans : (b) seven]
6. Death Valley is about ______ m below the sea level and is the lowest part of the continent
of North America.
.s
(a) 6194 (b) 6195 (c) 6180 (d) 6185[Ans : (a) 6194]
8. The width of Rocky mountains varies from ______ to ________ kms.
(a) 100 to 500 (b) 110 to 480 (c) 115 to 485 (d) 120 to 490
[Ans : (b) 110 to 480]
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9. Mississippi and Missouri together form the _______ longest river system in the world.
(a) sixth (b) fourth (c) fifth (d) third
[Ans : (b) fourth]
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10. The warm Alaskan Current keeps the _________ coast ice free.
(a) North West (b) North east (c) South west (d) South east
[Ans : (a) North West]
11. Approximately _______ percentage of the total land area is under forest cover.
(a) 10 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) 50 [Ans : (b) 30]
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[Ans : (a) European]
14. North America is the largest producer of meat and about ______ of the world production.
(a) one fourth (b) one sixth (c) half (d) three fourth
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[Ans : (a) one fourth]
15. North America produces about _____ percent of the world total milk and dairy products.
(a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 25 (d) 40 [Ans : (c) 25]
16. The New England region contains _______ % woolen textile industries.
s.
(a) 70 (b) 80 (c) 50 (d) 40 [Ans : (a) 70]
17. North America is the __________ largest produce of synthetic fibres.
(a) second (b) third (c) fourth (d) fifth[Ans : (a) second]
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18. The population density in North America is about _______ present per sq.km.
(a) 20 (b) 19 (c) 18 (d) 17 [Ans : (a) 20]
19. North America population is equivalent to ________ % of the world total population.
(a) 4.75 (b) 4.76 (c) 4.77 (d) 4.78[Ans : (c) 4.77]
o
20. _________ has the biggest railway yard in the world.
Geography
21. There are _______ great rivers in south America that drain into Atlantic Ocean.
(a) three (b) four (c) five (d) six[Ans : (a) three]
22. The ________ is grown extensively on the Pampas of Argentina.
(a) maize (b) wheat (c) millets (d) sugarcane
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24. South America has _________ varieties of fish that inhabit this river.
(a) 750 (b) 850 (c) 950 (d) 550 [Ans : (a) 750]
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25. There are over _______ fishing ports on the Peruvian coast.
(a) 50 (b) 45 (c) 40 (d) 55 [Ans : (c) 40]
26. River Amazon has _________ varieties of fish.
(a) 700 (b) 750 (c) 800 (d) 850 [Ans : (b) 750]
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27. South America contains _______ of the world’s iron ore reserves.
(a) one seventh (b) one fifth (c) one sixth (d) one third
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30. South America is positioned __________ rank in total population among the continents.
(a) 4th (b) 3rd (c) 5th (d) 8th [Ans : (c) 5th]
31. Population density of south America is _________ persons per square kilometer.
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 21 (d) 24 [Ans : (c) 21]
32. Chile is the __________ largest producer of copper in the world.
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(a) second (b) third (c) fourth [Ans : (b) third]
(d) fifth
s.
4. The ______ river is the second largest drainage basin of North America.[Ans : Mackenzie]
5. St. Lawrence has its origin in _________. [Ans : Lake Ontario]
The _______ river forms the boundary between USA and Mexico. [Ans : Rio Grande]
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6.
7. Lake ________ is the largest fresh water lake in the world. [Ans : Superior]
8. __________ is a well developed industry particular in Canada. [Ans : Lumbering]
9. Cuba is known as __________. [Ans : “sugar bowl of the world”]
10. Edible oil is extracted from _________. [Ans : Soya beans]
o
11. Cattle and pigs are fed with _______ and _______. [Ans : Potato and Sugar beet]
12. The __________ current brings plenty of plankton which provides food for fish.
ab
25. The extensive tropical grasslands of south America are ______ and ______
[Ans : Llanos and Campos]
26. Quebracho tree yields __________. [Ans : tannin]
27. South America is rich in _________. [Ans : minerals]
28. Northern Chile has the world’s only natural deposits of_______. [Ans : sodium nitrate]
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III. Match the following:
1.
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Continent Peaks
1. Asia - a) Mount Kilimanjaro
2. South America - b) Mount McKinley
3. North America - c) Mount Elbrus
s.
4. Africa - d) Mount Aconcagua
5. Europe - e) Mount Everest
[Ans : 1 -e; 2 -d; 3 -b; 4 -a; 5 -c;]
ok
2.
Forest Flora
1. Tundra - a) Grasses
o
Geography
2. Prairies - b) Mahogany
3. Desert - c) Pine
ab
3.
Mineral Area
1. Iron ore - a) Appalachians
.s
2. Copper - b) Mexico
3. Silver - c) Lake superior
4. Gold - d) Great lakes
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5. Coal - e) California
[Ans : 1 -c; 2 -d; 3 -b; 4 -e; 5 -a;]
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4.
Country Population Density
1. USA - a) 3 persons
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2. Canada - b) 51 persons
3. Mexico - c) 30 persons
4. Central Highland - d) Densly Populated
5. Central America - e) Moderate population
[Ans : 1 -c; 2 -a; 3 -b; 4 -e; 5 -d;]
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(ii) Some of the States of the United States are named after the tributaries of two mighty
rivers the Mississippi and Missouri.
2. The Climate of North America is as varied as that of Asia.
s.
4. Cordilleras come under pacific ring of fire.
Ans. The Cordilleras are also part of the Fire Ring of the Pacific. Because there are a number of
active volcanoes and this area is also subject to earthquakes.
5.
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The selvas of the equatorial regions are called the lungs of the world.
Ans. They are thick forests and provide fresh oxygen so are known as lungs of the world.
V. Distinguish between,
o
1. Rocky Mountain and Andes Mountain.
Ans.
ab
3. The river drains into Gulf of Mexico. The river drains into Atlantic ocean ore the
North Eastern coast of Brazil.
3. Bear Lake and Lake Titicaca.
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Ans.
S.No. Bear Lake Lake Titicaca
1. Found in North America. Found in South America.
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2. Name the fold mountains of North America.
Ans. Rockies and Appalachians.
3. What are westerlies?
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Ans. The Westerlies or anti-trades are prevailing winds from the west toward the east in the middle
latitudes between 30 and 60 degrees latitude.
4. Write a note on Grand Banks.
Ans. Grand Banks: The Grand Banks is among the world’s largest and richest resource areas,
s.
renowned for both their valuable fish stocks and petroleum reserves.
5. Write a note on heavy industries of North America.
Ans. Industries which require heavy and bulky raw materials using enormous amounts of power,
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involvement of huge investment and large transport costs are called heavy industries.
6. Name the important centers of heavy engineering industries.
Ans. The important Centers of heavy engineering industries are Detroit, Chicago, Buffalo,
Indianapolis, Los Angeles, Saint Louis, Philadelphia, New York, Baltimore, and Atlanta in
o
USA and Windsor in Canada.
Geography
Ans. Quebec City, Montreal, Boston, New York, Philadelphia, Charleston and New Orleans are
the World’s largest ports.
8. Write a note on Panama canal.
Ans. (i) anama Canal: In 1914 a Canal was cut across the Isthmus of Panama for 80 kms long
P
which connects the Atlantic with Pacific Ocean.
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(ii) It greatly reduced the distance between Europe and the West Coast of North and
South America.
9. Name the busiest international airports of the world found in North America.
.s
Ans. New York, Chicago, Los Angeles, Atlanta, Toronto, Montreal and Mexico City are some of
the busiest international airports in the World.
10. Write about Trade in North America.
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Ans. (i) North America trades mainly with Asia, Europe and Latin America.
(ii) Though Alaska belongs to the USA, it has to import practically every resource. It is
being developed now due to its mineral wealth.
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(iii) North America’s exports are mainly manufactured goods such as Industrial Machinery,
Automobile, Paper, Fish, Arms and Ammunition, Aircraft, Telecom Equipments,
Chemical, Plastics, Fertilizers, Wood Pulp, Timber, Crude Oil, Petroleum, Natural
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11. What are the main natural vegetation areas of south America?
Ans. There are four main natural vegetation areas of South America and are the Amazon basin
(the Selvas), the Eastern Highlands, the Gran Chaco and the slopes of the Andes.
12. Write a note on the coniferous forest of south America.
Ans. The forests on the slopes of the Andes have coniferous such as pine, fir and spruce. These
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forests are also called Montana. They yield valuable softwood for the paper and pulp industry.
13. Write a note on Orinoco and Paraguay rivers.
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Caribbean Sea.
(ii) The river Paraguay has the Paraná and Uruguay rivers as the main tributaries which
together form and known as the Platte River system.
(iii) All the rivers are navigable for quite some distance in the interior.
s.
14. Write a note on Amazon river.
Ans. (i) mazon is the longest river of South America (6,450km) and is the largest river system
A
in the world. This river has over a thousand of tributaries.
(ii)
(iii)
Ans. (i)
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The rivers Rio Negro, Madeira and Tapajos are important tributaries.
At the point where it enters the sea the river is so wide and powerful that it flows even
at a distance of 80 km into the high seas.
15. Define (i) Isthumus, (ii) Strait, (iii) Igloo, (iv) Selvas, (v) Pampas.
o
Isthumus - A narrow stretch of land joining two large land masses
(ii) Strait - A narrow stretch of water joining two large water bodies
ab
(i) The western part of the continent is occupied by long ranges of young folded mountains
interspersed with high plateaus, narrow valleys and broad interior basins.
(ii) This mountain range extends for about 4800 km from Alaska in the North to the
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(iii) The Mackenzie River is the second largest drainage basin of North America. It has it
source from Great Slave Lake and drains into Arctic Ocean.
(iv) St. Lawrence has its origin in Lake Ontario which flows north east and drains into
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the Atlantic Ocean.
(v) The plateau of the west has been cut deeply by the River Columbia and its tributary
which forms many gorges called Canyons.
(vi) The most famous is the Grand Canyon cut by the River Colorado which all flows over
the plateau of Columbia.
s.
(vii) The River Yukon rising in the north-west of the Western mountain system is frozen
for eight months in the year.
(viii) The River Rio Grande flows into the Gulf of Mexico and forms the boundary between
(x)
USA and Mexico.
ok
(ix) The most important chain consists of five lakes. The biggest is Lake Superior and it is
the largest freshwater lake in the world.
Lake Winnipeg, Great Bear Lake and Lake Athabasca are some of the other lakes in
o
Geography
Canada.
3. Write in detail about the crops grown in North America.
ab
(ii) Wheat:
Wheat was introduced by European settlers in North America. It is grown extensively
in the Prairies of North America. North America is the largest exporter of North
America produces more than half of the world total Maize.
.s
California, Mississippi, South of the Prairies and the Mexico. Warm summer with
frequent rainfall and fertile soil are favorable conditions for growth of cotton crop.
(v) Sugar cane:
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Sugar cane is cultivated along the Gulf of Mexico, Parts of Central America and West
Indies. It is an important Cash Crop of West Indies. Cuba is known as the “sugar bowl
of the world” and it is the world’s largest exporter of sugar.
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Soya beans:
(vi)
It is raised in the same area where Maize is grown. It is used for extraction of edible oil.
(vii) Potatoes and Sugar beet:
Prairie Region, North Dakota and Minnesota are the producers of Sugar Beets and
Potatoes. Sugar beet is used for making Sugar. Potato and Sugar Beet are used to feed
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cattle and pigs.
4. Write about population density in North America.
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Population and Density of North America
Population (in
S. No Country Density
Millions)
s.
1. United States 327.16 30 persons
2. Canada 36.95 3 persons
3. Mexico 123.00 51 persons
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
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Densely populated areas: Eastern part of North America, Great Lakes region, Florida,
California, Mexico and Central America are the mostly densely populated areas.
Moderate populated areas: Central part of United States, Central Highland, Highlands
of Mexico, Central and western Canada are the Moderate populated areas.
o
Sparsely populated areas: Northern Canada, Alaska, Rocky Mountain regions and
desert regions are sparsely populated areas.
ab
(ii) The highest peak in the Andes is Mount Aconcagua (an extinct volcano) on the Chile-
Argentina border which reaches at an elevation of 6,961 m. In Chile, the mountains
run very close to the coast.
(iii) The slopes are steep on the western side and gentle on the eastern side like Rockies
.s
in North America.
(iv) There are some active volcanoes like Cotopaxi (5,991m) on the Andes range. The
Andes are rich in minerals like Copper, Tin and Precious Gems including Emeralds.
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silver and gold.
(iii) Northern Chile has the world’s only natural deposits of sodium nitrate an important
ingredient of fertilizers.
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Iron ore:
(i) South America contains about one fifth of the world’s iron ore reserves.
(ii) Brazil and Chile both have massive deposits of iron ore.
(iii) Brazil has the second largest iron ore deposits in the world after Russia, Brazil is
estimated to have about 15% of the world export of iron ore.
s.
Manganese:
(i) Brazil also has large deposits of Manganese.
(ii) Manganese ore is mined at Lafaiete, Minas Gerais and in the Northern State of Amapa.
Petroleum:
(i)
(ii)
Venezuela is rich in petroleum deposits.
ok
Argentina, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Chile and Bolivia are the other valuable oilfields.
Petroleum is the only mineral produced in substantial quantity.
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Geography
Copper:
(i) Chile is the third largest producer of copper in the world.
ab
(ii) Copper provides over 40% of exports by value. Some of the biggest copper mines of
the world are located in Peru.
(iii) It is found in the Atacama Desert.
Bauxite:
(i) Brazil is the third largest bauxite producing country.
ur
(ii) An important bauxite mining centre is located near the mouth of the Amazon River.
Bauxite is used for aluminum production.
7. Explain about the industries of South America.
.s
Ans. Industries:
(i) Industries in South America have developed slowly Argentina, Brazil and Chile are
the most highly developed industrial countries in this continent.
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(ii) The continent lacks infrastructure (especially transport) which is an essential need for
Industrialisation. Railways and the roads could not be developed sufficiently owing
to a rugged terrain.
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S. No Country Industries
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1. Brazil Iron and steel, cotton textiles, sugar, food processing, oil
refining, chemicals and automobiles
2. Argentina Meat processing and Canning, dairy products, food processing,
leather processing, woolen textiles, sugar and oil refining
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6. Venezuela Oil refining, chemical fertilizers and copper smelting
8. Explain about the Transport of South America.
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Unlike North America, South America still does not have an adequately integrated
transportation network. Significant efforts have been made to improve both the connection
within the countries and the linkages between them.
Roadways:
s.
(i) South America has an extensive and rapidly expanding network of roads.
(ii) A Road linking Venezuela and Brazil allows north to south movement through the
Amazon Basin.
ok
(iii) Brazil continues to have the largest network of roads belonging to the Pan American
Highway System which extends throughout the America’s.
Railways:
(i) In most South American countries, railways have lost their dominant position of the
o
major mode of transportation and have been replaced by the road networks that have
developed rapidly since the 1960’s.
(ii) Moreover, rail transport is plagued by operational problems as well as by obsolete
ab
equipment.
(iii) Many countries have two or more track gauges which impedes the efficient integration
of the rails system.
Waterways:
ur
(i) Seaways have long been a vital component of the transport systems of South American
countries.
(ii) Majority of imports and exports to and from the continent are moved by ship. South
America has a number of outstanding natural harbours.
.s
(iii) There are two inland waterways system of international importance. They are
(i) The Paraguay - Uruguay basin which includes territory in four countries and
(ii) The Amazon basin which includes six countries. Each has several thousand
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(ii) The increase is particularly significant with respect to passenger traffic and also
handling of bulky freights.
(iii) All the South America capitals and most of the large cities are linked by direct air
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services to the major traffic centres of the United States and Europe.
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(a) Bering Strait (b) Palk Strait (c) Malacca Strait (d) Gibraltar straits
2. _________ is the longest mountain chain in the world.
(a) The Andes (b) TheRockies (c) The Himalayas (d) The Alps
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3. In __________ North America was discovered by Christopher Columbus.
(a) 1492 (b) 1491 (c) 1498 (d) 1496
4. Death Valley is about ______ m below the sea level and is the lowest part of the continent
of North America.
s.
(a) 86 (b) 90 (c) 95 (d) 100
ok
1. _________ of the equatorial regions are called the “lungs of the world”.
2. St. Lawrence has its origin in _________.
3. The Andes are rich in minerals like _______ and _______.
4. Venezuela is rich in ________ products.
o
Geography
III. Match : (4 × 1 = 4)
1. USA - a) 3 persons
ab
2. Canada - b) 51 persons
3. Mexico - c) Moderate population
4. Central Highland - d) 30 persons
ur
Answer Key
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IV 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Q. No. VII - 2 2) Refer Sura’s Guide Q. No. VII - 9
3) Refer Sura’s Guide Q. No. IV - 10 (A) 4) Refer Sura’s Guide Q. No. IV - 15 (A) (i) and (ii)
V 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Q. No. VIII - 2
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Geography
Unit
2 Map Reading
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Evaluation
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I. Choose the correct answer:
1. The science of map making is called ________.
s.
(a) Geography (b) Cartography
(c) Physiography (d) Physical Geography
[Ans : (b) Cartography]
ok
2. North, South, East and West are four directions are called as
(a) Cardinal (b) Geographical
(c) Latitudinal (d) Angels [Ans : (a) Cardinal]
3. Cultural maps are those which shows the _______ features
o
(a) Natural (b) Man-made
(c) Artificial (d) Environmental [Ans : (b) Man-made]
ab
[Ans : Legend]
4. Cadastral maps are known as _________. [Ans : Village and town maps]
5. Small scale maps are helpful to us to show large areas like _________ and _________.
[Ans : continents, countries]
.s
[409]
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4. Physical map - Colours and Symbols
5. Population map - ‘N’ letter
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Ans. 1. Upper right corner - ‘N’ letter
2. Key (or) legend - Colours and Symbols
3. Large Scale map - District (or) town
4. Physical map - Natural relief features
s.
Geography
2.
Statement II : It is easy to handle and to carry. as it can be rolled up or folded.
(a) Statement I is correct and II is wrong.
(b) Statement I is wrong and II is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
ur
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(iii) It can show continents, countries, cities and even a local area are drawn with specific
details.
Map Reading
What is cartography?
co
2.
Ans. The science of map-making is called cartography (carte means ‘map’ and graphic means
‘drawing’).One who draws maps is called a Cartographer.
3. What are cardinal directions?
Ans. (i) The cardinal direction are North, South, East and West.
s.
(ii) A legend (or) key of a map explain the details in the map.
4. What is an Atlas?
Atlas is a collection of maps in a book.
ok
Ans. (i)
(ii) Atlas maps are small-scale maps covering large areas like continents and countries.
(iii) Only prominent relief features, main roads and railways important towns are shown
in Atlas maps.
(iv) The study of geographic characteristics of a large area is possible at the time with the
o
help of an atlas.
5. Name the types of Atlas.
ab
(i) Maps enable us to know details of the landforms and other ground features without
seeing the area.
(ii) Maps are of immense importance to the military personnel for planning campaigns.
.s
(iii) It is used in the aero planes to reach their destinations and the ships to sail safely in
the oceans.
(iv) Maps are used for weather forecasting and agricultural operations.
w
(v) We can study and interpret the future possibilities of soil erosion, settlement patterns,
drainage patterns, land utilization, etc.,
interpret them.
(ii) Every map is provided with certain features that act as an aid to study the information
presented in it.
(iii) The basic essential elements of a map are title, direction, scale and legend (or) key of
symbol.
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(i) In general maps are drawn with north orientation it helps us to find other direction
on the map like East, West and South. In addition to the North notation, latitudes and
longitudes were depicted in the margins.
(ii) The North is notified by letter ‘N’ with an arrow mark.
co
W N
NE
N
W E
s.
Geography
SE
SW
Scale: S
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
ok
The scale of a map is the ratio between the distance on the map between two points
and actual distance between the two places on the ground.
The scales can be represented as 1cm = 10km.
It means 1cm on the map is equal to 10 km on the ground. It helps to find the distance
o
on the map between two points.
ab
Legend:
(i) A legend or key of a map explain the symbols that are used on it to represent various
ur
used in it.
(iv) They are depicted by using certain colours, symbols or letters.
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real world size of a geographic feature and its representative feature on a map is known as
scale. There are three main ways that scale is indicated on a map: graphic (or bar), Verbal
and representative fraction (RF).
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(iii) Geological Maps are drawn to show geological structures, rocks and minerals.
(iv) Climatic Maps show the distribution of temperature, rainfall, clouds, relative humidity,
direction and velocity of winds and other elements of weather.
(v) Soil Maps which are drawn to show the distribution of different types of soil and their
properties.
m
(vi) Cultural Maps which shows the man-made features are called cultural maps.
(vii) Political Maps show the administrative divisions of a country, state or district. These
maps facilitate the administration in planning and management of the concerned
Map Reading
co
administrative units.
(viii) Population Maps show the distribution, density and growth of population, occupation
structure and literacy.
(ix) Economic Maps depict the production and distribution of different types of crops and
minerals, location of industries, trade routes and flow of commodities.
s.
(x) Transportation Maps show roads, railway lines and the location of railway station,
airports and seaports, etc.,
(xi) Thematic maps are all such maps that represent the distribution of a particular feature
4.
Ans.
or theme and its spatial variation.
S. No Map Globe
ab
5. Describe the types of maps based on the scale? Write about it?
Ans. Maps on the basis of scale:
(i) Large scale maps show small areas in greater details because they are drawn on a
w
prepared by Survey of India. These are also large scale maps which show both natural
features like hills and valleys as well as man-made features like buildings, road and
canals.
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(iv) Small scale maps that show large areas like continent or countries. These maps are
drawn on 1cm = 1000 kms. These are called small-scale maps.
(v) Wall maps are small-scale maps showing large areas. They are useful for students in
classrooms and offices, small scale maps covers a larger area and depicts with limited
information.
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1. Map is an essential tool for a traveler why?
Ans. Map is an essential tool for a traveller, It helps a traveller to find out direction. It also tells
about the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of a place. It helps one to locate a place easily
co
and follow the correct travelling route.
X. Activity
1. In an outline map of India mark the following features by using symbols and colours
s.
Geography
o ok INDIA - OUTLINE
W
N
S
E
ab
Him
ala
yas
ur
R.Gang
a
.s
w
w
Chennai
(State & District Capital)
w
Not to Scale
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Ans. a) b)
c) d)
Map Reading
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e) f) RS
Additional Questions
I. Choose the correct answer:
s.
1. The ________ of a map describes the information given in the map.
(a) title (b) scale (c) direction (d) legend
[Ans : (a) title]
2.
3.
(a) Soil
(c) Climatic
(a) administrative
o ok
_________ maps show distribution of temperature.
(b) Weather
(d) Rainfall
Political Maps show the __________ divisions of a country
(b) economic
[Ans : (c) Climatic]
1. Topographical maps show ________ areas in much greater detail. [Ans : smaller]
2. _______ that show large areas like continent or countries.
[Ans : Small scale maps]
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3. ________ are small scale maps showing large areas. [Ans : wall maps]
4. Relief maps show general ________ like mountain valleys, plains, plateaus and rivers.
[Ans : topography]
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[Ans : title]
7. The North is notified by letter ________ with an arrow mark. [Ans : ‘N’]
8. A sign is a widely used _____ or a _______ pattern. [Ans : symbol, line]
9. The _______ have standardized a set of conventional signs and symbols.
[Ans : Survey of India (SOI)]
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3. Green - c) Water bodies
4. Blue - d) Agriculture
5. Red - e) Mountain, Hells
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[Ans : 1 -e; 2 -d; 3 -b; 4 -c; 5 -a;]
s.
Geography
ok
of convectional signs and symbols. Several colours are commonly used in the map.
2. What are the colours used in the maps?
Ans.
Colours Features
o
White Snow
Yellow Agriculture
ab
Green Forest
Blue Water bodies (oceans, seas and rivers)
Brown Mountain, Hills and contour
Red Settlements, Road
ur
Ans. Transportation Maps show roads, railway lines and the location of railway station, airports
and seaports, etc.,
6. What is a legend?
w
Ans. A legend or key of a map explain the symbols that are used on it to represent various
physical and cultural features.
7. What do you mean by conventional signs and symbols?
Ans. The common signs and symbols are internationally accepted and used in maps are called
conventional signs and symbols.
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Railway Metre Gauge
River
Canal
Map Reading
co
Dam
Lake
Wetland
s.
Mountain
Volcano
Grass & Shrub
o Forest
Country Capital ok
Internal Administrative Capital
Temple
ab
PO Post Office
TO Telegraph Office
PS Police Station
ur
Fort
.s
UNIT TEST
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2. Small scale maps are helpful to us to show large areas like _________ and _________.
3. _______ maps that show large areas like continent or countries.
co
III. Match : (4 × 1 = 4)
1. Key (or) legend - a) District (or) town
2. Large Scale map - b) Colours and Symbols
3. Yellow c) Settlements, Road
s.
Geography
V.
1.
Answer in one or two sentences
o
What are cardinal directions?
ok
Relief map, Soil map, Physical map and Atlas.
Weather Forecasting, Climate, Rainfall and Temperature.
(4 × 2 = 8)
3. Define scale.
4. What do you mean by conventional signs and symbols?
VII Answer the following: (1 × 5 = 5)
ur
Answer Key
.s
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Geography
Natural Hazards –
Unit
3 Understanding of Disaster
m
Management in Practice
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Evaluation
s.
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. _________ is a event which causes enormous physical damage to property, loss of life
ok
and change in the environment.
(a) Hazard (b) Disaster (c) Recovery (d) Mitigation
[Ans : () (a) and (b)]
2. Activities that reduce the effects of disaster
(a) Preparation (b) Response (c) Mitigation (d) Recovery
o
[Ans : (c) Mitigation]
3. A sudden movement (or) trembling of the earth’s crust is called an _____________
ab
1. A hazard is a ________ event that can causes harm or damage to human and his property
[Ans : dangerous]
2. Activities taken during a disaster is called ________.
w
4. In case of fire accidents call the nearby police station or the no __________ for the fire service.
[Ans : 101]
5. Disaster management refers to __________ of lives and property during a natural or man-
made disaster. [Ans : conservation]
[419]
m
4. Industrial accident - Eye of the storm
5. Drought - Carelessness
co
Ans. 1. Earthquake - Creak / Fault
2. Cyclone - Eye of the storm
3. Tsunami - Gigantic waves
Industrial accident - Carelessness
s.
4.
5. Drought - Uneven rainfall
ok
IV. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer
1. Assertion (A) : In the modern world we can’t live happing everyday.
Reason (R) : Due to pollution and environmental degradation we are undergoing
natural hazard and Disaster.
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
o
Geography
1. Define Hazard.
Ans. A hazard is a dangerous phenomenon, substance, human activity or condition that may cause
loss of life, injury, health impacts, property damage, loss of livelihoods, services, social and
w
material, economic, social or environmental losses which exceed the ability of the affected
society to cope using its own resources”.
3. What are the six concepts of Disaster management cycle?
Ans. Preparation, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery and Development are the six
Disaster management cycles.
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4. Name any two agency which involves in warring system in Tamil Nadu.
Ans. (i) TNSDMA
(ii) DDMA
(iii) SDRF
m
5. Waite about any three effects of flood.`
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(iii) Spread of contagious diseases such as cholera and Malaria etc.,
6. Give any four Rail safety tips.
Ans. (i) Stay alert. Trains can come from either direction at any time,
(ii) Never sit on the edge of the Station Platform,
s.
(iii) Cross the tracks safely.
7. Name any four different industry which goes under industrial disaster frequently.
ok
Ans. Defense, Energy, Food and Mining.
3. Its after math leads to loss of property, It causes flooding and disrupts
damage to buildings and loss of life. transportation power communication
and water supply.
.s
Flood Cyclone
No
1. Sudden overflow of water in a large A low pressure area which is encircled
amount due to heavy rainfall, cyclone, by high pressure wind is called a
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1. A dangerous phenomenon, substance, A disaster can be generally defined
human activity or condition that as “A serious disruption in the
may cause loss of life, injury, health society causing widespread material,
impacts, social and economic economic, social or environmental
co
disruption. losses which exceed the ability of the
affected society to cope using its own
resources”.
2. Hazards are geophysical and biological. Disasters are Natural and man made.
s.
VII. Answer the following questions in detail
1. Write about disaster management cycle.
Pre-Disaster phase:
Prevention and Mitigation:
o ok
Ans. The six disaster management phases that have been used in the concept of disaster cycle are
as follows;
Geography
(i) The term prevention is often used to embrace the wide diversity of measures to protect
persons and property.
ab
(ii) Mitigation embraces all measures taken to reduce both the effects of the hazard itself
and the vulnerable conditions to it in order to reduce the scale of a future disaster.
(iii) Therefore, mitigation may incorporate addressing issues such as land ownership,
tenancy rights, wealth distribution, implementation of earthquake resistant building
codes, etc.
ur
Preparedness:
(i) The process includes various measures that enable governments, communities and
individuals to respond rapidly to disaster situations to cope with them effectively.
.s
(ii) Preparedness includes for example, the formulation of viable emergency plans, the
development of warning systems, the maintenance of inventories, public awareness
and education and the training of personnel.
w
Early Warning:
(i) This is the process of monitoring the situation in communities or areas known to be
vulnerable to slow onset hazards, and passing the knowledge of the pending hazard
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Recovery:
Recovery is used to describe the activities that encompass the three overlapping phases of
emergency relief, rehabilitation and reconstruction.
Rehabilitation: Rehabilitation includes the provision of temporary public utilities and housing
s.
as interim measures to assist long-term recovery.
Reconstruction: Reconstruction attempts to return communities with improved pre-disaster
functioning. It includes replacement of buildings; infrastructure and lifeline facilities so that
ok
long-term development prospects are enhanced rather than reproducing the same conditions,
which made an area or population vulnerable in the first place.
Development: In an evolving economy, the development process is an ongoing activity.
Longterm prevention/disaster reduction measures. For examples like construction of
o
embankments against flooding, irrigation facilities as drought proofing measures, increasing
plant cover to reduce the occurrences of landslides, etc.
ab
elevated structures, property buyouts, permanent relocation, zoning, subdivision and building
codes.
w
m
4. Write about earthquake, its effects, and mitigation steps.
Ans. Earthquake:
A sudden movement (or) trembling of the earth crust is called as earthquake. The movement
of the tectonic plates, mass wasting, landslides, surface fault, etc., causes earthquake.
co
Effects :
Due to a strong earthquake, loss of lives, buildings, roads, bridges and dams are damaged.
Earthquake cause floods, tsunamis, landslides, fires, break down of water supply and electrical
lines. It may change the course of a river too.
s.
Mitigation steps:
(i) Construct Earthquake resistant building.
(ii) Seek shelter under stable tables.
(iii) Move to open areas.
(iv) Secure your belonging.
(v) ok
Put latches on cabinet doors and file cabinets.
(vi) Store hazardous materials in a sturdy place.
o
Geography
VIII. Hots
1. Why should we know about the natural disasters?
Ans. (i) To Prevent loss of life.
(ii) To Protect our belongings.
ur
Additional Questions
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5. Drought is an example for ___________ hazard.
(a) fire (b) flood (c) natural (d) earthquake
[Ans : (c) natural]
II. Fill in the blanks:
s.
1. Natural hazards are _________ phenomenon that might have negative impact on human or
the environment. [Ans : natural]
ok
2. Natural hazards are classified into two broad categories _______ and _______.
[Ans : Geophysical, biological]
3. Hazards are termed as _________ when they cause destruction to property and human lives.
[Ans : disaster]
o
4. A __________ pressure area circled by high pressure is called cyclone.
[Ans : low]
ab
2. Disaster - b) reduce
3. Vulnerability - c) a dangerous event
4. Mitigate - d) severity
.s
3.
4. Emergency - d) stop something before it happens
5. Psychological - e) shaking or vibration
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management strategies.
(iii) Human stampedes can be prevented by organization and traffic control, such as barriers,
following queues and avoid mass crowd.
co
2. Name the four aspects of fire.
Ans. Fire involves 3 basic aspects
(i) Prevention,
(ii) Detection and
s.
(iii) Extinguishing
3. Why is disaster management necessary?
Ans. Disaster Management is necessary or expedient for:
(i)
(ii)
Prevention
Mitigation
(iii) Preparedness
(iv) Response
o ok
Geography
(v) Recovery
(vi) Rehabilitation
ab
Management.
(iii) Tamil Nadu State Disaster Response Force (SDRF) has been constituted with a strength
of 80 Police PersonnelThey have been trained in disaster management and rescue
operations in consultation with National Disaster Response Force (NDRF).
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available in the State.
Expand the following:
1. DST Department and Technology
2. DOS Department of Space
s.
3. NDMA National Disaster Management Authority
4. NDRF National Disaster Response Force
5. TNSDMA Tamil Nadu State Disaster Management Authority
6.
7.
8.
DDMA
SDRI
NIDM
o ok
District Disaster Management Authority
State Disaster Response Force
National Institute of Disaster Management.
ab
UNIT TEST
Time : 1 hr. Marks : 25
ur
2. Road accidents can be avoided by permitting the persons who have _____________ is
allowed to drive vehicle
(a) Ration card (b) License (c) permission (d) Documents
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2.
3. Hurricane is a ___________ hazard.
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4. Preventive d) shaking or vibration
co
1. Flood and cyclone
s.
2.
3. Name the four aspects of fire.
4. What is disaster management?
VII Answer the following:
1.
ok
Write about any five general survival techniques.
o (1 × 5 = 5)
Geography
Answer Key
ab
w
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Civics
Unit
1 Women Empowerment
m
Evaluation
co
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of gender inequality?
s.
(a) Poor maternal health (b) Greater insecurity for men
(c) The spread of HIV/AIDS (d) Lower literacy rates for women
[Ans : (b) Greater insecurity for men]
ok
2. Gender equality is an issue that is relevant to
(a) Girls and women; it’s a women’s issue(b) All societies, women and men alike
(c) Third world countries only (d) Developed Countries only
[Ans : (b) All societies, women and men alike]
Which of the following strategies will help women become more socially and economically
o
3.
empowered?
(a) Women working together to challenge discrimination
ab
world?
(a) Because of high school fees, only boys are sent to school
(b) Girls are expected to help out at home
(c) Child Marriage restricts girls mobility and freedom
.s
(d) All of the above [Ans : (b) Girls are expected to help out at home]
1. Jyotirao Phule is remembered as the champion of women’s education in India. He, along with
his wife _____________, opened the first school for girls in 1848.[Ans : Savitribai Phule]
2. ____________ is the first Woman to hold a Union Foreign Minister’s post.
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4. _________ is the first Indian Woman to win Booker [Ans : Arundhati Roy]
[429]
m
3. Junko Tabei - Sri Lanka
4. Charlotte Cooper - USSR
Ans.
co
1. Sirimavo Bandaranaike - Sri Lanka
2. Valentina Tereshkova - USSR
3. Junko Tabei - Japan
4. Charlotte Cooper - England
s.
IV. Consider the following statements:
1. Tick the appropriate answer:
ok
Assertion: Now women are being integrated at all steps of humanitarian operations.
Reason: Women and girls suffer the most from any kind of conflict in the society.
a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) If A is true but R is false
o
d) If A is false but R is true
[Ans : (a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A]
ab
Civics
2. Assertion: Violence against women cuts across caste, class, religion, age and even education.
Reason: Domestic violence is manifested in the form of foeticide, infanticide, dowry murder,
marital cruelty, battering, child abuse etc.
a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
ur
(iii) Empowering women in the economy and bridging gender gaps in the world of work
are key to achieving the agenda for Sustainable Development
(iv) When more women work, economies grow. 4. Increasing women’s and girls’ educational
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violence, slavery and discrimination, to be educated, to own property, to vote and to earn a
Women Empowerment
fair and equal wage.
4. List out the essential factors of woman empowerment.
co
Ans. The essential factors for empowerment are :
(i) Education: Education gives one the ability to think wisely and take thoughtful
decisions.
(ii) Gender Discrimination: A Society which discriminates between the two genders can
s.
never be empowered.
(iii) Discrimination based on caste, creed, religion etc.
5. Write an essay on importance of woman’s education.
Ans. Importance of woman’s education:
(i)
(ii)
ok
Increased Literacy: Offering all children education will prop up literacy rates, pushing
forward development in struggling regions.
Human Trafficking: Women are most vulnerable to trafficking when they are
o
undereducated and poor. Through providing young girls with opportunities and
fundamental skills, Human Trafficking can be significantly undermined.
ab
(iii) Political Representation: Across the globe, women are under represented as voters
and restricted from political involvement. Civic education, training and all around
empowerment will reduce this gap.
(iv) Thriving Babies: Children of educated mothers are twice as likely to survive past the
age of five.
ur
(vi) Income Potential: According to (UNESCO) a single year of primary education has
shown to increase a girl’s wages later in life by 20 percent.
(vii) Prospering GDP: Gross Domestic Product also rises when both girls and boys are
w
Additional Questions
w
m
(a) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman (b) Meira Kumar
(c) Sushma Swaraj (d) Pratibha Patil
[Ans : (a) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman]
co
4. The women population shared _______ of the total population of the world.
(a) 75% (b) 25% (c) 40% (d) 50%
[Ans : (d) 50%]
II. Fill in the blanks:
s.
1. ________ is the first Woman President of India. [Ans : Pratibha Patil]
2. _________ is the first Woman President of the UN General Assembly.
[Ans : Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit]
3.
4.
5. ok
The First Woman Speaker of LokSabha is __________.
The First Woman to win Nobel Peace Prize is ________.
The First Indian Woman to climb Mount Everest is ________.
o [Ans : Meira Kumar]
[Ans : Mother Teresa]
1.
Indian State
2. First Woman IPS Officer of India - b) Champion of women’s education
3. Barrack Obama - c) Sucheta Kripalani
ur
1. Assertion (A): It is everyone’s responsibility to make each woman into an independent and
empowered woman.
Reason (R): World peace and prosperity cannot be achieved without empowering each and
w
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2. Define Education.
Ans. Education is one of the most important means of empowering women with the knowledge,
skills and self-confidence necessary to participate fully in the development process.
3. What are the advantages of educating a girl child?
Ans. (i) ducating the girl child produces mothers who are educated and who will, in turn,
E
m
educate their children care for their families and provide their children care and
Women Empowerment
support.
(ii) The girl child needs to be educated to acquire knowledge and skills needed to advance
co
her status for social interactions and self-improvement.
4. What the factors responsible for poor female literacy rate?
Ans. (i) Gender based inequality.
(ii) Social discrimination and economic exploitation.
s.
(iii) Occupation of girl child in domestic chores.
(iv) Low enrolment of girls in schools.
(v) Low retention rate and high dropout rate.
ok
5. What are the important aspects of woman empowerment?
Ans. Personal rights, Social equality, Political power, and Economic opportunity are the important
aspects of woman empowerment.
UNIT TEST
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m
3.
4. The First Indian Woman to climb Mount Everest is ________.
III. Match : (4 × 1 = 4)
co
1. Sirimavo Bandaranaike - a) Kiran Bedi
2. Junko Tabei - b) Sri Lanka
3. First woman IPS officer of India - c) Champion of women’s education
4. Jyotirao Phule - d) Japan
s.
IV. Consider the following statements : (1 × 1 = 1)
1. Tick the appropriate answer:
ok
Assertion: Now women are being integrated at all steps of humanitarian operations.
Reason: Women and girls suffer the most from any kind of conflict in the society.
a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
o
c) If A is true but R is false d) If A is false but R is true
Answer Key
.s
I 1) (b) Greater insecurity for men 2) (b) All societies, women and men alike
3) (d) 50%
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Civics
Unit
Market and Consumer
2
Protection
m
co
Evaluation
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. In which case a consumer cannot complain against the manufacturer for a defective
s.
product?
(a) Date of expiry unspecified (b) Price of the commodity
(c) Batch number of the commodity (d) Address of the manufacturer
[Ans : (c) Batch number of the commodity]
2.
3.
(a) Unfair trade practices
(c) Standard quality goods
o ok
Consumer’s face various problems from the producer’s end due to
(b) Wide range of goods
(d) Volume of production
[Ans : (a) Unfair trade practices]
Consumers must be provided with adequate information about a product to make
(a) Investment in production (b) Decision in sale of goods
ab
5. Mixing other extraneous material of inferior quality with a superior quality material is
called
(a) Purification (b) Adulteration
w
3. __________refers to a market structure in which there is a single producer or seller that has
a control on the entire market. [Ans : Monopoly]
4. _____ statue is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta’ in the field of consumer protection for checking
unfair trade practices. [Ans : COPRA]
[435]
m
4. The Essential Commodities Act - 1986
co
2. The Legal Metrology Act - 2009
3. The Bureau of Indian Standards Act - 1986
4. The Essential Commodities Act - 1955
s.
IV. Consider the following statements:
1. Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion: In local Markets the buyers and sellers are limited to the local region or area.
ok
Reason: A market is not restricted to one physical or geographical location.
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) If A is true but R is false (d) If A is false but R is true
[Ans : (b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A]
o
V. Answer the following questions
ab
Civics
1. What is market?
Ans. A set up where two or more parties engaged in exchange of goods, services and information
is called a market.
2. Describe consumer protection.
ur
Ans. Consumer protection is a group of laws enacted to protect the rights of consumers, fair trade,
competition and accurate information in the market place.
3. List out the rights of consumers.
Ans. The Eight Basic Consumer Rights:
.s
one core. The National Commission is the Apex body of Consumer Courts; it is also
the highest appellate court in the hierarchy. The commission is headed by a sitting or
retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.
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(ii) State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC): A state level court
works at the state level with cases where compensation claimed is above 20 lakhs but
up to one core.
(iii) District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (DCDRF): A district level court works
m
5. Write about the types of market and its functions.
Ans. I. On the Basis of Geographic Location:
(i) Local Markets: In such a market the buyers and sellers are limited to the local region
co
or area.
(ii) Regional Markets: These markets cover a wider are than local markets like a district,
or a cluster of few smaller states
(iii) National Market: This is when the demand for the goods is limited to one specific
s.
country. Or the government may not allow the trade of such goods outside national
boundaries.
(iv) International Market: When the demand for the product is international and the goods
Very Short Period Market: This is when the supply of the goods is fixed, and so it
cannot be changed instantaneously. For example the market for flowers, vegetables.
Fruits etc.
o
(ii) Short Period Market: The market is slightly longer than the previous one. Here the
ab
supply can be slightly adjusted. Example: The demand of fish, milk or egg,
(iii) Long Period Market: Here the supply can be changed easily by scaling production.
So it can change according to the demand of the market.
III. On the Basis of Nature of Transaction
ur
(i) Spot Market: This is where spot transactions occur, that is the money is paid
immediately. There is no system of credit.
(ii) Future Market: This is where the transactions are credit transactions. There is a promise
to pay the consideration sometime in the future.
.s
Monopoly:
Monopoly refers to a market structure in which there is a single producer or seller that has
w
a control on the entire market. This single seller deals in the products that have no close
substitutes.
Monopolistic Competition:
Monopolistic competition refers to a market situation in which there are a large number of
buyers and sellers of products.
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Additional Questions
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. There are ________ classifications of markets.
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 [Ans : (b) 2]
m
2. ________ market is where the transactions are credit transactions.
(a) National (b) Spot (c) Future (d) Monopoly
[Ans : (c) Future]
co
3. __________ has widened the definition of ‘Consumer’
(a) The Consumer Protection Act 1986
(b) National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
(c) District Forum (d) The Consumer protection Act of 2019
[Ans : (d) The Consumer protection Act of 2019]
s.
4. The CCPA may impose a penalty of up to INR ________ on a manufacturer or an endorser,
for a false or misleading advertisement.
(a) 1,000,000 (b) 1,00,00,000 (c) 50,000 (d) 10,000,000
ok
[Ans : (a) 1,000,000]
5. The NCDRC is headed by __________.
(a) Chief justice of the supreme court of India
(b) One of the judges of the high court
(c) Sitting or retired judge of the supreme court of India
o
(d) Attorney General [Ans : (c) Sitting or retired judge of the supreme court of India]
ab
1. There has to more than one buyer or seller for the market to be _____.[Ans : Competitive]
2. In a _________ market, the supply can be changed easily by scaling production.
[Ans : Long period]
[Ans : spot]
ur
m
Ans. A Consumer is a person who purchases a product or avails a service for a consideration,
either for his personal use or to earn his livelihood by means of self employment.
3. What is unfair trade practice?
co
Ans. An “unfair trade practice” means a trade practice, which, for the purpose of promoting any sale,
use or supply of any goods or services, adopts unfair method, or unfair or deceptive practice.
4. Give few examples of unfair trade practices.
Ans. (i) False representation
s.
(ii) When goods and services are not of stated standard, quality or grade;
(iii) When second hand, renovated goods are sold as new ones;
(iv) When goods and services do not have the claimed use, usefulness or benefit;
When products / services do not have the claimed warranty / guarantee;
ok
(v)
(vi) When the price of product or service is misleading.
(vii) False and misleading advertisement of selling at bargain price.
5. Why are consumer protection controls established?
Ans. Consumer Protection Councils are established at the national, state and district level to
o
increase consumer awareness.
6. Write a short note on E-commerce Transaction.
ab
Ans. The New Act has widened the definition of ‘consumer’. The definition now includes any
person who buys any goods, whether through offline or online transactions, electronic means,
teleshopping, direct selling or multi-level marketing.
7. How can consumers e-file complaints?
ur
Ans. The New Act contains enabling provisions for consumers to file complaints electronically
and for hearing and/or examining parties through video-conferencing.
8. Name the important Acts passed for consumer protection.
Ans. (i) The Consumer Protection Act, 1986. (ii) The Legal Metrology Act, 2009.
.s
(iii) The Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986. (iv) The Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
(v) The prevention of Black Marketing and maintenance of supplies of essential.
(vi) Commodities Act, 1980.
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Ans. (i) A market is also not restricted to one physical or geographical location. It covers a
general wide area and the demand and supply forces of the region.
(ii) There must be a group of buyers and sellers of the commodity to constitute a market.
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And the relations between these sellers and buyers must be business relations.
(iii) Both the sellers and buyers must have access to knowledge about the market. There
should be an awareness of the demand for products, consumer choices, and preferences,
fashion trends, etc.
(iv) At any given time only one price can be prevalent in the market for the goods and
services. This is only possible in the existence of perfect competition.
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1. Consumers must be provided with adequate information about a product to make
(a) Investment in production (b) Decision in sale of goods
(c) Credit purchase of goods (d) Decision in purchase of goods
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2. Mixing other extraneous material of inferior quality with a superior quality material is
called
(a) Purification (b) Adulteration (c) Refinement (d) Alteration
3. ________ market is where the transactions are credit transactions.
(a) National (b) Spot (c) Future (d) Monopoly
s.
II. Fill in the blanks : (4 × 1 = 4)
1. A set up where two or more parties engage in _______ of goods, services and information
is called a market.
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2. _____ statue is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta’ in the field of consumer protection for checking
unfair trade practices.
3. In a _________ market, the supply can be changed easily by scaling production.
4. The stock market is a highly _______ market.
III. Match : (4 × 1 = 4)
o
1. The Legal Metrology Act - a) Teleshopping
2. The Consumer Protection Act - b) False representation
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Civics
VI Answer in Detail (1 × 5 = 5)
1. Write about the types of market and its functions.
Answer Key
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Civics
Unit
3 Road Safety
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Evaluation
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I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Road safety is meant for
(a) Passersby (b) drivers (c) public (d) all who use roads
s.
[Ans : (d) all who use roads]
2. Road accidents affect a country’s
(a) improvement (b) life (c) finance (d) all the above
3.
Permit refers to
(a) permission for driving
o ok [Ans : (d) all the above]
[441]
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5. Right to drive a vehicle License
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1. Tick the appropriate answer:
Assertion : Car pooling is the use of vehicles by turns.
Result : It saves fuel, time and money and also
(a) A is correct and R is not correct (b) A is correct and R is also correct
s.
(c) A is wrong and R is correct (d) Both are wrong
[Ans : (b) A is correct and R is also correct]
2. Find the odd one
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(a) car (b) trucks
(c) tempos (d) aero planes [Ans : (d) aero planes]
3. Find the following statements are true or false.
a) Road safety education in the school curriculum is an additional burden for the students.
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[Ans : False]
b) An ounce of practice is worth more than tons of preaching. [Ans : True]
c) Hoarding on roads has to be banned. [Ans : True]
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Civics
d) Following road safety rules from childhood will become a habit in future.
[Ans : True]
driving license.
5. How can media promote road safety among the public?
Ans. Mass media and journals could play a key role to raise awareness on road safety. In particular,
they can disseminate preventive messages and promote safe behaviours, increase people’s
knowledge and understanding of the gravity of the problem and advocate for safer roads
and systems.
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(ii) It is compulsory to have the following documents – driving license, registration
certificate of the vehicle, Insurance certificate, Taxation certificate, fitness certificate
and permit.
Road Safety
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2. What is the need for including road safety education in the school curriculum?
Ans. (i) arents and Teachers play a vital role in imparting road safety Education to young ones.
P
(ii) If a child’s parent violates the traffic rules, the child too will imitate the same in future.
So the elders have to set an example for them in adhering to the safety rules and
regulations.
s.
(iii) Road Safety education should be provided since childhood.
(iv) It has to be made a part of school curriculum, syllabus, text book and included in
competition on road safety.
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(v) Activities like writing of slogans, essays and paintings on this theme should be
conducted for reinforcement.
3. How can parents teach their children road safety rules?
Ans. (i) arents and Teachers play a vital role in imparting road safety Education to young ones.
P
o
(ii) If a child’s parent violates the traffic rules, the child too will imitate the same in future.
(iii) So the elders have to set an example for them in adhering to the safety rules and
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regulations.
(iv) Video and computer games that simulate receiving should be banned by the government
or discouraged by parents as it will develop racing habit in children.
(v) Parents should help children learn about the traffic signals and rules.
(vi) They should be instructed to wait for the right signal and to use the zebra crossing
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VII. Hots
1. Knowing the road safety rules, how will you influence your parents and relatives?
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(iii)
(iv) We will tell them not to exceed the speed limit while riding or driving.
2. If wheel had not been invented, what might have been our mode of transport?
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Ans. If wheel had not been invented, we would not have been able to ride a two wheeler or use a
car. Walking would have been the only mode of transport. Which would have been a very
tough job.
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Additional Questions
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. India accounts for about ________ of road accident fatalities at worldwide.
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(a) 12% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) 8%
[Ans : (b) 10%]
2. _________ is a larger threat and the leading cause for road accidents.
co
(a) Distracted driving (b) Heavy traffic
(c) Night driving (d) Tailgating
[Ans : (a) Distracted driving]
3. The Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 passed by the Parliament came into force in ____.
(a) 2000 (b) 1990 (c) 1989 (d) 1991
s.
[Ans : (c) 1989]
4. The Mumbai police has released his video of _________ to create awareness among the
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motorists.
(a) M.S.Dhoni (b) Kapil Dev
(c) Amitabh Bhcchan (d) Sachin Tendulkar
[Ans : (d) Sachin Tendulkar]
5. The Government of India observes Road safety week’ awareness during, ______ every year.
o
(a) January (b) March (c) April (d) July
[Ans : (a) January]
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Civics
5. Two wheeler can carry only ______ adult pillion rider. [Ans : one]
6. ________ can result in crucial collisions. [Ans : Brake failure]
7. ________ is a healthy habit and reduces pollution. [Ans : Cycling]
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m
sufficient distance between them. In this condition, if the vehicle in front of him, stops
suddenly, his own vehicle will crash with it.
Mention a few causes for road accidents.
Road Safety
4.
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Ans. (i) Impatience of Pedestrians and violation of traffic rules result in accidents.
(ii) Drunken driving, jumping red light over speeding and unmanned railway crossings
cause great damage to valuable lives.
5. Why are road safety rules designed?
s.
Ans. (i) very country has its own road safety rules and regulations for the best interests of
E
its citizens.
(ii) India also has designed road safety rules for protecting the road users from meeting
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with accidents and injury.
6. Write a short note on Raksha safe drive device.
Ans. (i) o avoid accidents because of potholes and road humps, users can opt to use the
T
Raksha safe drive device.
o
(ii) It is attached with velcro to the car and alerts the driver about road humps, bad roads
and on crossing the speed limits.
ab
(iii) It is a device capable of automatic crash detection, two – way call connectivity, GPS
tracking, engine health monitoring and smart panic button.
7. What is carpooling? How is it useful?
Ans. Carpooling will reduce the number of vehicles on the road. It will pave way for a cordial
ur
V. Answer in Detail
1. Mention some road safety rules.
Ans. (i) Use standard helmets while driving two wheeler vehicle and strap it before mounting
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the vehicle.
(ii) Fasten the seat belts while driving a car for both the driver and co-passenger.
(iii) Avoid carrying heavy load while riding a two wheeler.
(iv) Two wheeler can carry one adult pillion rider and not the whole family.
(v) Keep a safe distance from the vehicle ahead of yours.
(vi) Slow down on bends and turns, especially in hill stations.
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for reducing the number of road accidents.
(i) Taking steps for the rectification of accident black spots and improvement of road
engineering.
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(ii) Ensuring the good functioning of the traffic signals and road signs at busy crossing
roads.
(iii) Constructing and manufacturing proper roads both in urban and rural areas.
(iv) Installation of CCTV cameras to record high speed offences which can detect the
s.
offenders.
(v) Prohibiting the act of digging or hoarding on roads.
(vi) Remove encroachments and maintain proper pedestrian ways for ensuring road safety.
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(vii) Stringent actions to be taken for the violation of any road safety rules.
3. What are the suggestion to reduce vehicle pollution?
Ans. (i) alking is a good alternative and cycling is a good exercise for a distance of 1 to 2 kms.
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(ii) Use eco-friendly vehicles.
o
(iii) Implement the idea of installing bollards near unmanned railway crossings. A separate
unhindered passage for cyclists would yield many benefits and also reducing road
crashes.
ab
Civics
videos.
.s
UNIT TEST
Time : 1 hr. Marks : 25
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4. The Governmental of India observes Road safety week’ awarness during, ______ every
year.
(a) January (b) March (c) April (d) July
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1. Using _________ is inevitable in our journey of life.
2. __________ is the monetary supporter of a family.
3. ________ is prohibited near a hospital or a school zone.
Road Safety
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4. ________ can result in crucial collisions.
III. Match : (4 × 1 = 4)
1. Informatory sign - a) Narrow bend sign
s.
2. Cautionary signs - b) Cordial relationship
3. CCTV cameras - c) Petrol pump sign
4. Carpooling - d) high speed offences
IV.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Answer in one or two sentences:
Why is not safe to drive in nights?
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How can media promote road safety among the public?
Mention a few causes for road accidents.
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Why is road safety week celebrated?
(4 × 2 = 8)
VI Answer in Detail: (1 × 5 = 5)
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Answer Key
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3) Refer Sura’s Guide Q. No. IV - 4 (A) 4) Refer Sura’s Guide Q. No. IV - 8 (A)
VI 1) Refer Sura’s Guide Q. No. VI - 3
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Economics
Unit
1 Tax and its Importance
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Evaluation
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I. Choose the correct answer:
1. Taxes are ________ payment.
s.
(a) Voluntary (b) Compulsory
(c) a & b (d) None of the above
[Ans : (b) Compulsory]
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2. Minimum possible amount should be spent in the collection of taxes is
(a) canon of equality (b) canon of certainity
(c) canon of economy (d) canon of convenience
[Ans : (c) canon of economy]
o
3. This taxation is a very opposite of progressive taxation.
(a) degressive (b) proportional
(c) regressive (d) none [Ans : (c) regressive]
ab
4. Income tax is a
(a) direct tax (b) indirect tax (c) a & b (d) degressive tax
[Ans : (a) direct tax]
ur
1. _________ is a term for when a taxing authority usually a government levies or imposes a
tax. [Ans : Taxation]
___________ is the method, where the rate of tax is same regardless size of the income.[Ans
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2.
: Proportional Taxation]
3. ___________ is paid to the Government by the recipient of gift depending on value of gift.
[Ans : Gift tax]
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Ans. 1. Principle of taxation - Adam Smith
2. Estate tax - Direct Tax
3. Excise Tax - Indirect Tax
s.
4. 01.07.2017 - Goods and Service Tax
5. Direct Tax Less elastic
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IV. Odd one out:
1. Which one of the following is not a indirect tax?
(a) Service tax (b) Value Added Tax(VAT)
(c) Estate duty (d) Excise duty [Ans : (c) Estate duty]
o
V. Correct one out:
1. Which one of the following tax is a direct tax?
ab
1. Define tax.
Ans. Taxes are defined as a compulsory contribution from a person to the government to defray
the expenses incurred in the common interest of all without reference to special benefits
.s
conferred.
2. Why taxes are imposed?
Ans. Everybody is obliged by law to pay taxes. Total Tax money goes to government exchequer.
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Appointed government decides that how are taxes being spent and how the budget is
organized.
3. Write name of taxation types and draw its diagram.
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Taxation Types
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5. What are the types of tax? and explain its.
Ans. In modern times taxes are classified into two types. There are:
(i) Direct Tax:
A Direct tax is the tax whose burden is directly borne by the person on whom it is
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imposed, (i.e), its burden cannot be shifted to others.
(ii) Indirect Tax:
When liability to pay a tax is on one person and the burden of that tax shifts on some
other person, this type of tax is called an indirect tax.
s.
6. Write short note on Gift Tax and Service Tax.
Ans. Gift Tax:
Gift tax is paid to the Government by the recipient of gift depending on value of gift.
7.
Service Tax:
Ans. (i) oods and Services Tax is a kinds of tax imposed on sale, manufacturing and usage
G
of goods and services.
ab
(ii) This tax is applied on services and goods at a national level with a purpose of achieving
overall economic growth.
8. Distinction between the direct and indirect tax.
Ans.
ur
3. Direct tax has no inflation pressure This tax has inflation pressure
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4. The impact and incidence are the same The impact and incidence are different in
in case of direct tax case of indirect tax
5. Direct tax is less elastic Indirect tax is more elastic
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Ans. (i) anon of Equality: The government should impose taxes in such a way that people
C
have to pay according to their ability does not mean equal amount of tax but it means
that the burden of a tax must be fair and just.
(ii) Canon of Certainity: Certainty creates confidence in the taxpayers cost of collection
of taxes and increases economic welfare because it tends to avoid all economic waste.
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(iii) Canon of Convenience: Taxes should be levied and collected in such a manner that
provides a maximum of convenience to the taxpayers should always keep in view that
the taxpayers suffer the least inconvenience in payment of the tax.
(iv) Canon of Economy : Minimum possible money should be spent in the collection of
taxes. Collected amount should be deposited in the Government treasury.
co
(i) Proportional Tax
(ii) Progressive Tax
(iii) Regressive Tax and
(iv) Degressive Tax
s.
(i) Proportional Taxation is a method, where the rate of tax is same regardless size of the
income. The tax amount realized will vary in the same proportion as that of income.
If tax rate is 5% on income, Mr. X getting an income of Rs.1000 will pay. Rs.50, Mr.
ok
B will be getting an income Rs.5,000 will pay tax of Rs.50. In short, proportional tax
leaves the relative financial status of taxed persons unchanged.
(ii) Progressive Taxation is a method by which the rate of tax will also increase with
the increase of income of the person a case of progressive taxation if a person with
Rs.1000 income per annum pay a tax of 10% (i.e) Rs.100, a person with an income of
o
Rs.10,000 per annum pays a tax of 25% (i.e) Rs.2,500 and a person with income of 1
lakh per annum pay the tax of 50% that is Rs.50,000.
ab
(iii) Regressive taxation: It implies that hire the rate of tax furrow income groups than in
the case of higher income groups it is a very opposite to progressive taxation.
(iv) Digressive Taxes which are to mildly progressive, hence not very steep, so that high
income earners do not make a due sacrifice on the basis of equity, are called digressive.
ur
In digressive taxation, a tax may be progressive up to a certain limit; after that it may
be charged at a flat rate.
3. Explain the importance of tax.
Ans. Importance of Tax:
.s
Taxes are crucial because governments collect this money and use it to finance under the
following social projects.
1. Health:
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(ii) Governments put a lot of importance in the development of human capital and
education is central in this development.
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benefits citizens of the country.
4. Other important sectors are infrastructure development, transport, housing, etc.
(i) Apart from social projects, governments also use money collected from taxes to
co
fund sectors that are crucial for the wellbeing of their citizens such as security,
scientific research, environmental protection, etc.
(ii) Some of the money is also channeled to fund projects such as pensions,
unemployment benefits, childcare, etc.
s.
4. Explain the direct and indirect tax with examples.
Ans. Direct Tax:
(i) A Direct tax is the tax whose burden is directly borne by the person on whom it is
ok
imposed, i.e., its burden cannot be shifted to others.
(ii) It is deducted at source from the income of a person who is taxed.
(iii) Income tax is a direct tax because the person, whose income is taxed, is liable to pay the
tax directly to the Government and bear the burden of the tax himself. Eg. Corporation
tax, wealth tax gift tax estate dirty.
o
Indirect Tax:
On the other hand when liability to pay a tax is on one person and the burden of that
ab
(i)
tax shifts on some other person, this type of tax is called an indirect tax.
(ii) Indirect Tax is a tax whose burden can be shifted to others.
(iii) For example: Service tax, Sales tax, Excise duty, Entertainment tax.
Why need for tax on people welfare? And explain it.
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5.
Ans. (i) e levying of taxes aims to raise revenue to fund governing or to alter prices in order
Th
to affect demand.
(ii) Some of these include expenditures on economic infrastructure like, transportation,
.s
of government itself.
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(iii) When expenditures exceed tax revenue, a government accumulates debt. A portion
of taxes may be used to service past debts.
(iv) Governments also use taxes to fund welfare and public services. These services can
include education systems, pensions for the elderly, unemployment benefits, and
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public transportation.
(v) Energy, water and waste management systems are also common public utilities.
(vi) The purpose of taxation is to maintain the stability of the currency, express public
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Additional Questions
I. Choose the correct answer:
1. ___________ is a method by which the rate of tax will also increase with the increase of
m
income.
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2. Wealth tax is an example of _________.
(a) direct tax (b) indirect tax
(c) a and b (d) none
[Ans : (a) direct tax]
s.
3. __________ is charged from successor of inherited property
(a) Wealth Tax (b) Gift Tax (c) Estate Duty (d) Service Tax
[Ans : (c) Estate Duty]
4.
5.
(a) Wealth Tax
(b) Gift Tax
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_________ is paid by the producer of goods who recovers it from wholesalers and retailers.
(c) Estate Duty
2. _________ could be one of the most deserving recipients of tax money.[Ans : Education]
3. __________ is a crucial component in the smooth running of country affairs.
[Ans : Governance]
.s
4. Taxes generally contribute to the _________ of a country. [Ans : gross domestic product]
5. _________ constituted under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
[Ans : Central Board of Direct Taxes]
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6. ________ is particularly designed to replace the indirect taxes imposed on goods and services
by the Central and State. [Ans : GST]
III. Match the following:
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Ans. Corporation tax is levied on profit of corporations and companies. It is charged on royalties,
interest, gains from sale of capital assets located in India, fees for technical services and
dividends.
co
2. What is wealth tax?
Ans. Wealth tax is imposed on property of individuals depending upon the value of property. The
same property will be taxed every year on its current market value.
3. Give an account of Tool tax and Road Tax.
s.
Ans. Toll tax is a tax you often pay to use any form of infrastructure developed by the government,
example roads and bridges. The tax amount levied is rather negligible which is used for
maintenance and basic upkeep of a particular project.
the tax amount from the customer by including it in the price of the commodity that
he sells.
(b) Excise Duty:
Excise duty is paid by the producer of goods, who recovers it from wholesalers and
ur
Some examples are movie tickets, video game arcades, stage shows, exhibitions,
amusement parks, and sports-related activities.
Economics
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UNIT TEST
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2. Income tax is a
(a) direct tax (b) indirect tax
(c) a & b (d) degressive tax
3. _________ is paid by the producer of goods who recovers it from wholesalers and retailers.
(a) Wealth Tax (b) Gift Tax
m
(c) Estate Duty (d) Excise Duty
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(c) 10 November 2016 (d) 10 November 2017
s.
2. Indirect tax is _________ elastic.
3. __________ principles or cannons of taxation still form the basis of the tax structure of a
modern state.
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4. __________ is a crucial component in the smooth running of country affairs.
III. Match : (4 × 1 = 4)
1. Excise tax - a) Movie tickets
o
2. 1.7.2017 - b) Roads and bridges
3. Entertainment tax - c) Goods & service tax
ab
V. Answer in Detail (1 × 5 = 5)
.s
Answer Key
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Marks : 60
Time : 2.00 hrs.
m
I. Choose the correct answer : 10×1= 10
1. Who is considered their first guru by the Sikhs?
(a) Lehna (b) Guru Amir Singh
co
(c) Guru Nanak (d) Guru Gobind Singh
2. In which year were the Mamallapuram monuments and temples notified as a UNESCO
Sura’s Model Summative Assessment -2019-20
s.
3. Where was the first Jain Council held to codify the Jaina canon?
(a) Pataliputra (b) Vallabhi (c) Mathura (d) Kanchipuram
4. North America has __________ time zones.
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(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 9
5. The science of map making is called ________.
(a) Geography (b) Cartography (c) Physiography (d) Physical Geography
6. Activities that reduce the effects of disaster
(a) Preparation (b) Response (c) Mitigation (d) Recovery
o
7. First Women’s University ______ starts, SNDT University in Pune with five students.
(a) Vijaya lakshmi pandit (b)Maharshi Karve
ab
12. The Mauryan emperor Asoka and his grandson Dasarata patronised _______.
13. _________ is an essential tool of a geographer.
14. Activities taken during a disaster is called ________.
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23. Write a note on Pancha Pandava Rathas.
24. What are the four noble truths of Buddha?
25. Which are the densely populated areas of North America?
co
26. What is disaster?
27. Explain woman’s right.
28. Who are the two parties involved in a transaction?
29. Mention the 2 safety gears for safe driving.
s.
31. Distinguish between Earthquake and Tsunami.
32. Name the types of Atlas.
33. What literary work in Tamil provided evidence to the challenges Buddhism faced?
V.
34.
35.
36.
Give brief answer : (any 4)
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What impact did Bhakti movement make on Indian society?
Discuss the essence of Ajivika philosophy and its presence in Tamil Nadu.
o
Write briefly about the major races in South America.
4×5= 20
Answers
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21. Direct Tax - Less elastic
IV.
22. Refer Sura’s Guide, History - Unit - 1, Q. No. VI - 2
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23. Refer Sura’s Guide, History - Unit - 2, Q. No. VI - 1
24. Refer Sura’s Guide, History - Unit - 3, Q. No. VI - 2
Sura’s Model Summative Assessment -2019-20
s.
28. Refer Sura’s Guide, Civics - Unit - 2, Q. No. V - 1
29. Refer Sura’s Guide, Civics - Unit - 3, Q. No. V - 2
30. Refer Sura’s Guide, Economics - Unit - 1, Q. No. VI - 6
31.
32.
33.
V.
34.
ok
Refer Sura’s Guide, Geography - Unit - 1, Q. No. VI - 1
Refer Sura’s Guide, Geography - Unit - 2, Q. No. VII - 5
Refer Sura’s Guide, History - Unit - 3, Q. No. VI - 9 (A)
o
Refer Sura’s Guide, History - Unit - 1, Q. No. VII - 3
35. Refer Sura’s Guide, History - Unit - 3, Q. No. VII - 3
ab
.s
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