CONTENTS

Political Science (323) CUET Official Papers & Mock Papers

CUET 2024 CUET 2023 Slot 2 Paper (Solved) 3

CUET 2022 Slot 1 Paper (Solved) 11

CUET 2022 Official Mock Paper (Solved) 19

Educart Mock Paper - 1 (Self-Assessment) 26

Educart Mock Paper - 2 (Self-Assessment) 29

Educart Mock Paper - 3 (Self-Assessment) 32

Educart Mock Paper - 4 (Self-Assessment) 35

Educart Mock Paper - 5 (Self-Assessment) 38

History (314) CUET Official Papers & Mock Papers

CUET 2024 CUET 2023 Slot 1 Paper (Solved) 43

CUET 2022 Slot 1 Paper (Solved) 50

CUET 2022 Official Mock Paper (Solved) 57

Educart Mock Paper - 1 (Self-Assessment) 64

Educart Mock Paper - 2 (Self-Assessment) 67

Educart Mock Paper - 3 (Self-Assessment) 70

Educart Mock Paper - 4 (Self-Assessment) 73

Educart Mock Paper - 5 (Self-Assessment) 76

Geography (313) CUET Official Papers & Mock Papers
CUET 2024 CUET 2023 Slot 3 Paper (Solved) 81

CUET 2022 Slot 2 Paper (Solved) 89

CUET 2022 Official Mock Paper (Solved) 96

Educart Mock Paper - 1 (Self-Assessment) 103

Educart Mock Paper - 2 (Self-Assessment) 107

Educart Mock Paper - 3 (Self-Assessment) 111

Educart Mock Paper - 4 (Self-Assessment) 115

Educart Mock Paper - 5 (Self-Assessment) 119

Economics (309) CUET Official Papers & Mock Papers

CUET 2024 CUET 2023 Slot 1 Paper (Solved) 125

CUET 2022 Slot 1 Paper (Solved) 133

CUET 2022 Official Mock Paper (Solved) 142

Educart Mock Paper - 1 (Self-Assessment) 148

Educart Mock Paper - 2 (Self-Assessment) 153

Educart Mock Paper - 3 (Self-Assessment) 158

Educart Mock Paper - 4 (Self-Assessment) 163

Educart Mock Paper - 5 (Self-Assessment) 167

Practice OMR Sheets 172

 NTA CUET (UG)
OFFICIAL PAPER
30th August 2023, Slot-2
SOLVED

General Instructions:
•• For every correct answer, 5 marks will be awarded.
•• 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
•• 40 Questions to be attempted out of 50.
Time Allowed: 45 Minutes Maximum Marks: 200 Marks

1. The strategy of Non-Congressism was II. The Assassination of Rajiv Gandhi. 6. Match List-I with List-II.
given by which leader? III. Manmohan Singh became the List-I List-II
(A) Karpoori Thakur Prime Minister. 1. Soviet I. 1950-53
(B) Morarji Desai IV. First time coalition government at Intervention in
(C) V. V. Giri Hungary
center.
(D) Jayaprakash Narayan 2. Korean War II. 1972
Choose the correct answer from the
3. American III. 1956
2. Which of the following statements are options given below:
Intervention in
correct about the Chipko Movement? (A) I, III, II, IV Vietnam
I. The Chipko Movement initially (B) III, II, IV, I 4. US President IV. 1954-75
started in Uttarakhand region. Richard Nixon's
(C) II, I, IV, III
II. The movement was the villagers' visit to China
(D) IV, I, II, III
protest against the government
Choose the correct answer from the
policy. These villagers were 4. The statement - "the biggest gamble in options given below:
protesting against the practices of history" is associated with the political (A) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV
commercial logging.
process of:
(B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
III. This movement also focused on the
(A) Parliamentary Democracy in India (C) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
marginalised sections of society
such as the Adivasis and the Dalits. (B) Federalism in India (D) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I
IV. The movement also took up (C) Universal Adult Franchise in India
7. What is the new name given to 'India's
economic issues of landless forest (D) Multi-Party system in India
Look East' policy in 2014?
worker's and asked for guarantees
5. Which among the following statements (A) Look Towards East Policy
of minimum wages.
is correct? (B) Greater East Policy
Choose the correct answer from the
(A) The first non-aligned summit of (C) New East Policy
options given below:
(A) II, III and IV only NAM was held in Belgrade in 1949. (D) Act East Policy
(B) I, II and IV only (B) The Cuban Missile Crisis happened 8. The people of Jagatsinghpur district
(C) I, III and IV only in 1972. staged a demonstration against POSCO
(D) II, III and I only (C) The Eastern Alliance, known as the plant.

3. Arrange the following incidents in their Warsaw Pact, was led by the Soviet The above mentioned district is in
chronological order: Union. which state?
th (A) Jharkhand (B Chhattisgarh
I. Implementation of the Mandal (D) NAM 18 Summit was held in
Commission's recommendations. India in 2019. (C) Orissa (D) Telangana

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 3

 9. The Afro-Asian conference held in (A) Free JP Campaign 23. The State Reorganisation Act passed in
Indonesia, also known as the Bandung (B) The Farmers Movement 1956, let to the creation of how many
Conference, was held in which year? (C) The Railway Strikes of 1974 states and union territories?
(A) 1955 (B) 1956 (D) Movement for Right to Information (A) 8 states and 6 union territories
(C) 1959 (D) 1951 (B) 9 states and 4 union territories
14. Which one of the following was not
a part of the early phase of India's (C) 10 states and 9 union territories
10. Match List-I with List-II.
development policy? (D) 14 states and 6 union territories
List-I List-II
(A) Planning 24. Who coined the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai
1. Shetkari I. Karnataka
(B) Privatisation Kisan'?
Sanghatan
(C) Social and Economic Justice (A) Lal Bahadur Shastri
2. Mazdoor II. Maharashtra (D) Regional Autonomy
Kisan Shakti (B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Sanghatan 15. Write the full form of SVD. (C) Jai Parakash Narain
3. Rayat Sangha III. Haryana (A) Samyukt Vidhayak Dal (D) Rafi Ahmed Kidawai
(B) Samyukt Vijita Dal
4. Bharatiya IV. Rajasthan 25. Which of the statements given below
Kisan Union (C) Samarthan Vishesh Dal
explains the ‘Bandwagon Strategy'?
(D) Senia Vidhayak Dal
Choose the correct answer from the (A) Challenge the Super Power and
options given below: 16. When did 'Arab Spring’ begin? become the hegemon.
(A) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-I (A) 2010 (B) 2011 (B) Indulge in a full–fledged war.
(B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III (C) 2012 (D) 2013 (C) Instead of opposing the hegemonic
(C) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV power, take advantage of the
17. Write the full form of ‘LTTE’.
(D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II Hegemon.
(A) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
11. Choose the correct timeline of (D) Fear the hegemonic country and
(B) Liberal Tiger of Tamil Eelam
disintegration of the Soviet Union. stay away from the radar.
(C) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Education
I. Three Baltic Republics - Estonia, (D) Liberal Tiger of Tamil Education 26. Who is known as the Frontier Gandhi?
Latvia and Lithuania become UN
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
members. 18. Mandal Commission was officially
known as the "Second Backward Classes (B) Indira Gandhi
II. Gorbachev resigns as the President
of Soviet Union. Commission". It asked for reservation of (C) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
III. Mikhail Gorbachev was elected which section of the society? (D) Maulana Abdul Kalam
as the General Secretary of the (A) General
27. Which among the following would you
Communist Party. (B) Schedule Caste and Tribes
consider as major components of India's
IV. Lithuania becomes the first of (C) Other backward classes
security strategy?
the 15 Soviet Republic to declare (D) Kshatriya Caste
I. India is looking to develop its own
independence.
19. The Central Asian Nation which economy in a way that the vast
Choose the correct answer from the
witnessed a civil war that went on for mass of citizens are lifted out of
options given below:
ten years till 2001 is: economic inequalities.
(A) III, IV, I, II (B) I, II, III, IV
(A) Tazakistan (B) Azerbaijan II. Indian security strategy is
(C) II, III, IV, I (D) III, IV, II, I
(C) Georgia (D) Armenia geared towards internal security
12. Arrange the following in their challenges.
20. Which of the following party advocated
chronological order. III. Strengthening the Indian military
the idea of democratic socialism?
I. Goa became the 25th State of India capabilities in defence against
(A) The Congress Party
II. Rajiv Gandhi - Laldenga Accord military conflicts with its own
(B) The Communist Party
III. Anandpur Sahib Resolution neighbours.
(C) The Socialist Party
IV. Operation Blue Star IV. India's security strategy has been to
(D) The Swatantra Party
Choose the correct answer from the strengthen international norms and
options given below: 21. Identify the country that started the international institutions to protect
(A) III, IV, II, I (B) I, II, III, IV forest movements. its own security interest.
(C) IV, III, II, I (D) I, IV, II, III (A) Canada (B) Australia Choose the correct answer from the
(C) Iraq (D) Chile options given below:
13. “Today is India's Independence Day...
22. On which date and year the Emergency (A) I, III and IV only
Don't let the lights go out on India's
democracy”. The said quote formed was announced? (B) II, IV and III only
part of an advertisement in the Times, (A) 25 June 1975 (B) 25 July 1975 (C) I, II and IV only
London. What was it related to? (C) 25 June 1974 (D) 25 June 1973 (D) III, IV and II only

Page 4  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

28. Identify the person in the picture given Choose the correct answer from the 36. What do the 10 stalks represent in
below who participated in Tebhaga options given below: ASEAN flag?
movement before India's independence. (A) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I (A) These ten stalks of paddy represent
10 countries.
(B) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-II
(B) These ten stalks represent the
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II
10 founding principal of the
(D) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III organisation.
(C) These ten stalks of wheat,
32. Match List I with List II.
represent the crucial leaders of the
List-I List-II organisation.
1. Operation I. March, (D) 10 stalks of paddy represent the
Enduring 2003 harvesting season.
Freedom 37. Match List-I with List-II.
(A) Jayprakash Narayan 2. Global War on II. George
(B) Morarji Desai List-I List-II
Terror W. Bush
(C) Charu Mazumdar 1. Growing I. Economic
3. Operation Iraqi III. September, strength of Policies
(D) Shri Lal Shukla
Freedom 2001 regional
29. Match List-I with List-II. 4. The First Gulf IV. The parties
List-I List-II War Computer 2. Politics of II. Alliance
War consensus Politics
1. Signing of I. 1945
the Atlantic October Choose the correct answer from the 3. Personal law III. Coalition
Charter by the options given below: and gender Government
U.S. President (A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV issue
Roosevelt (B) 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I 4. N.D.A and IV. Shah Bano
(C) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV U.P.A. Case
2. India joins the II. 1943
U.N. December (D) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
3. Yalta Conference III. 1941 33. Which of the following organisations (A) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II
of the Big Three August is referred to as the Bretten Woods (B) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV
(Roosevelt, Institutions? (C) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
Churchill, Stalin) I. International Monetary Fund (D) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II
4. Tehran IV. 1945 II. World Trade Organisation
38. Who was the leader of the anti-caste
Conference February III. World Bank movement and struggled for justice to
IV. Food and Agriculture Organisation the dalits?
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below: Choose the correct answer from the (A) Bhimrao Ambedkar
(A) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II options given below: (B) Acharya Narendra Dev
(B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 3-IV (A) I and III only (C) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(C) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I (B) IV and III only (D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) 1-I, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-III (C) I, II and III only 39. Match List-I with List-II.
30. Which of the following countries tried (D) I, II and IV only List-I List-II
to stop using the ballistic missiles as a 1. Bhutan I. Multi Party
34. The UN agency concerned with the
defensive shield through ABM treaty
safety and peacefull use of nuclear System, 2005
1972?
energy is: 2. Maldives II. Democratic
(A) USA and USSR
(A) The UNDP Republic, 2008
(B) USA and China
(C) USSR and UK (B) The UN Committee on Disarmament 3. Nepal III. Indian Peace
(C) The WHO Keeping Force,
(D) USSR and China
1989
(D) The IAEA
31. Match List-I with List-II. 4. Sri Lanka IV. Constitutional
List-I List-II 35. In context of Britain's attack on Egypt Monarch, 2008
over the Suez Canal issue in 1956, India Choose the correct answer from the
1. 1959 I. Antarctic Treaty
led the World protest against: options given below:
2. 1975 II. Kyoto Protocol
(A) Non-Colonial rule (A) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
3. 1992 III. Agenda 21 (B) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III
(B) Neo-Colonial rule
4. 1997 IV. World Council of (C) Colonial invasion (C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II
Indigenous people (D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV
(D) Rio-colonial invasion

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 5

40. Who became the first Chief Minister of I. Their mandate of work level of spending was very low in the 1950s. It
Jammu and Kashmir? II. Their geographical representation could not be reduced any more. So the planners
sought to push savings up. That, too was difficult
(A) Ghulam Mohammed Sadiq III. Race of people representing the as the total capital stock in the country was rather
(B) Sheikh Abdullah member countries low compared to the total number of employable
(C) Mufti Mohammad Sayeed IV. The period of establishment people. Nevertheless, people's savings did rise in
(D) Ghulam NabiAzad V. Limited membership the first phase of the the planned process until the
end of the Third Five-Year Plan. But, the rise was
Choose the correct answer from the
41. Which of the following are not not as spectacular as was expected at the beginning
options given below:
of the First Plan. Later, from the early 1960's till the
the function of the International (A) II, III and IV (B) III and IV early 1970s the proportion of saving in the country
Organisations?
(C) I and III (D) I, II and V dropped consistently.
I. Monitoring the movement of
people, goods and services across 44. Which of the following organisation is 46. The first Five Year Plan addressed,
borders. responsible for framing laws related to mainly on which sector?
II. Framing constitution of sovereign trade between countries? (A) Agrarian sector
countries. (A) The International Monetary Fund (B) Heavy industries
III. Creating rules for war, peace and (B) The North Atlantic Fund (C) Domestic industries only
technology. (C) The World Trade Organisation (D) Environmental sector
IV. Devising responses to the (D) The United Nations
international spread of pandemics 47. First Five Year Plan was drafted by:
and tackling the ultimate problem 45. Which of the following International (A) P.C. Mahalanobis
of global climate change. organisations announced that Covid-19 (B) K.N. Raj
V. Ensuring the compliance of was a pandemic?
(C) J.C. Kumarappa
lockdowns in pandemic struck (A) United Nations
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
countries. (B) World Bank Group
Choose the correct answer from the (C) World Trade Organisation 48. In which year the draft of the First Five-
options given below: (D) World Health Organisation Year Plan released?
(A) I, III and IV (C) II and III (A) 1949 (B) 1950
Direction (Q No. 46 to 50)
(C) I, III and V (D) II and V (C) 1951 (D) 1952
Read the following passage and answer the
42. Which of the following International questions. 49. Name the person who argued that India
Organisations bailed out states during should 'Hasten Slowly' for the first two
The first Five Year Plan (1951-1956) sought to
decades as a fast rate of development
the 2009 Great Recession? get the country's economy out of the cycle of
poverty. K.N. Raj, a young economist involved might endanger democracy.
I. The United Nations
in drafting the plan, argued that India should (A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
II. The World Trade Organisation 'hasten slowly’ for the first two decades as a fast
III. The International Monetary Fund rate of development might endanger democracy. (B) Mahatma Gandhi
IV. North Atlantic Treaty Organisation The First Five Year Plan addressed, mainly, the (C) J.C. Kumarappa
agrarian sector including investment in dams
V. South Asian Association for Regional (D) K.N. Raj
and irrigation. Agricultural sector was hit hardest
Cooperation. by Partition and needed urgent attention. Huge
50. Which sector was hit hardest by the
Choose the correct answer from the allocations were made for large-scale projects
options given below: like the Bhakra Nangal Dam. The Plan identified partition of India and needed urgent
the pattern of land distribution in the country as attention?
(A) I and II only (B) IV and V only
the principal obstacle in the way of agricultural
(C) III only (D) I only growth. It focused on land reforms as the key to (A) Agriculture Sector
the country's development. One of the basic aims (B) Industrial Sector
43. The International Organisations can of the planners was to raise the level of national
be classified based on which of the (C) Environmental Sector
income, which could be possible only if the people
following criterias? saved more money than they spent. As the basic (D) Private Sector

Solutions
1. None of the given options fit. The Related Theory 2. (B) I, II and IV only
correct answer is: Ram Manohar  It was after the fourth general elections in Explanation: The Chipko Movement
Lohia 1967, that the opposition parties were in took birth in two or three villages
forefront of organising public protests and
Explanation: The term Non-Congressism, pressuring the government. Ram Manohar of Uttarakhand when the forest
coined by Ram Manohar Lohia, was used Lohia was the socialist leader who gave department refused to permit the
for the non - Congress parties along with this strategy the name of Non-Congressism. villagers to fell ash trees in order
The coming together of the non-Congress
their different programmes and ideologies parties was the need of the hour to reclaim to make agricultural tools. But they
together to form anti-Congress fronts. democracy for the people. allotted the same patch of land to a

Page 6  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 sports manufacturer for commercial Universal Adult Franchise appeared (3) 
The Vietnam War began in 1954
use. This act angered the villagers and to everyone to be very bold and risky. and ended after two decades in
led to protests against the government. An Indian Editor called it “the biggest 1975.
The movement quickly spread across gamble in history”. Another magazine, (4) 
U.S. President Richard Nixon
many parts of the Uttarakhand region. Organiser, wrote that Jawaharlal Nehru traveled to Beijing, Hangzhou, and
Serious issues of ecological and “would live to confess the failure of
Shanghai from February 21 to 28,
economic exploitation of the region universal adult franchise in India”.
1972.
were brought to attention. The struggle However, when the general elections
also took up economic issues of were held it was admired equally by the 7. (D) Act East Policy
landless forest workers and demanded observers, even by those outside India. Explanation: India's Act East
guarantees of minimum wage.
policy was announced in 2014 by
Related Theory the Prime Minister Narendra Modi's
Related Theory  On Jan 26, 1950, when the Constitution of administration after a couple of decades.
 All the sections of society failed to reap the benefits India formally came into effect, the universal It is a successor to the Look East
of economic growth as it did not reach evenly to adult franchise was granted. It is meant to
provide all citizens, those who have attained policy. The Act East Policy has been
all. This led to different movements in which the
students and young political activists from various the age of 18 (previously 21), the right to vote. formulated to serve the twin purposes
sections of the society worked in the forefront to This is regardless of their gender, religion, of stronger trade and business ties
organise the marginalised sections such as Dalits caste, class, ethnicity, wealth, income, place of with South East Asia and other Indo
birth, etc.
and Adivasis. Pacific countries. It also aims to create
Caution development opportunities for the North
3. (D) IV, I, II, III
East States of India.
Explanation:  Students should keep in mind that universal
adult suffrage is about the right to vote, 8. (C) Orissa
(I) The Implementation of the Mandal which is the same as universal adult
Commission's Recommendations franchise. Both of these concepts are based Explanation: Carrying bows, arrows
was done by the National Front on the principles of democracy and equality, and sticks, the villagers walked
government led by V.P. Singh and both are essential for ensuring that every from their homes to the district of
after being neglected for 10 years. citizen has a say in the affairs of the state. Jagatsinghpur in Orissa state, where the
The National Front government 5. (C) T
 he Eastern Alliance, known as the plant was to be based, shouting slogans
declared on 7 August 1990 that Warsaw Pact, was led by the Soviet against POSCO.
it would provide 27 per cent Union.
reservations to "socially and 9. (A) 1955
Explanation:
educationally backward classes" Explanation: Also known as the
(1) The Eastern Alliance, which is also Bandung Conference, the Asian-African
for jobs in central government
known as the Warsaw Pact, was
services and public undertakings. Conference was held in Bandung,
created in 1955 with the primary
V.P. Singh announced its Indonesia from 18 to 24 April, 1955.
aim to counter NATO’s forces in
legal implementation in his
Europe. The Eastern Alliance was 10. (B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
Independence Day speech two led by the Soviet Union.
days later after the release of the Explanation:
(2) The First NAM Summit
Government Order on 13 August. (1) Founded by Sharad Anantrao Joshi,
Conference took place in Belgrade,
(II) Rajiv Gandhi, former Prime Swabhimani Shetkari Sanghatana
Yugoslavia, in September 1961.
Minister of India, was or SSS is a farmers union based in
(3) The Cuban Missile Crisis lasted Kolhapur, Maharashtra, India.
assassinated by suicide bombing
from October 16 to October 28,
in Sriperumbudur in Tamil Nadu, (2) 
A group of people in Rajasthan
1962.
India on 21 May, 1991. formed the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti
(4) The 18th Summit of the Non-
(III) Manmohan Singh took the oath as Sangathan (MKSS) to demand
Aligned Movement was held from
the Prime Minister of India on 22 October 25 to 26, 2019 in Baku, information from the government.
May, 2004. Azerbaijan. (3) 
Karnataka Rajya Raitha
(IV) India's first ever national coalition Sangha, was established
government which was also 6. (C) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II under the leadership of M. D.
the first non-Congress national Explanation: Nanjundaswamy. It was established
government, was formed under (1) In October, 1956, the Soviet Union to fight against the exploitation by
the prime ministership of Morarji commanded its troops to crush a the Patels, Patwaris, Deshmukh's,
Desai. It was headed by the Janata nascent rebellion in Budapest, the Revenue and Police officials.
Party and existed from 24 March capital of the Soviet satellite state (4) 
Bharatiya Kisan Union (BKU)
1977 to 15 July 1979. of Hungary. which is a farmer's representative
(2) The Korean War began on 25 June organisation in India, was founded
4. (C) Universal Adult Franchise in India 1950 and continued till 27 July 1953, by Chaudhary Charan Singh.
Explanation: Compared to the literate only after the signing of an armistice However, the national headquarters
population of the Europe and North which was an agreement that the of the union is located in Sisauli,
America, India’s experiment with country would remain divided. Uttar Pradesh.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 7

 14. (B) Privatisation ideological position. The Socialist
Caution
Explanation: Privatisation did not Party has explicit connections to the
 Students should know that Karnataka Rajya Raitha
form part of the early phase of India’s labour movement and trade unions.
Sangha or (KRRS) is also known as Karnataka
Rajya Ryota Sangha. Although the names are development policy.
different, they refer to the same association which Related Theory
is the Karnataka State Farmers’ Association, the
largest farmers’ associations in the country. Related Theory  Not long after India's independence, the Socialist
Party was founded when Jayaprakash Narayan,
 India introduced privatisation in the historic
Rambriksh Benipuri, Basawon Singh (Sinha),
11. (A) III, IV, I, II reforms budget of 1991 which is also known as
Explanation: Acharya Narendra Dev led the CSP out of the
'New Economic Policy or LPG policy'.
Congress party.
(I) 1991 September: In this year,
three Baltic republics of Estonia, 15. (A) Samyukt Vidhayak Dal
21. (D) Chile
Latvia and Lithuania became UN Explanation: In the elections of 1967,
Explanation: Enormous pressures
members (later join NATO in coalitions formed when no single
are faced by the forest movements of
March 2004). party got the majority. This is when
the South, in Mexico, Chile, Brazil,
(II) 1991 December 25: This was the joint legislator parties called ‘Samyukt
Malaysia, Indonesia, continental Africa
year when Gorbachev resigned as Vidhayak Dal’ came together in order
and India (just to list a few examples).
the President of the Soviet Union. to form the government to support non-
Despite three decades of environmental
It was the end of the Soviet Union. Congress government.
activism, forest clearing in the Third
16. (A) 2010 World continues at an alarming rate.
(III) 1985 March: This was the year
when Mikhail Gorbachev was Explanation: The Arab Spring was 22. (A) 25 June 1975
elected as the General Secretary of a series of anti-government protests,
Explanation: President Fakhruddin Ali
the Communist Party of the Soviet uprisings and armed rebellions. It spread
Union. Ahmed proclaimed a state of national
across much of the Arab world in the early
emergency on 25 June 1975 on the
(IV) 1990 March: In this year, 2010s. It was started in Tunisia in response
advice of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
Lithuania became the first of the to corruption and economic stagnation.
15 Soviet republics to declare its
independence. Related Theory
Related Theory
Caution  The Emergency declared in India was of 21-month
 In the aftermath of the Arab Spring, began the civil from 1975 to 1977.
 The students must remember the important dates to war in Syria that lasted for several years. The war
answer such questions. forced many to leave their country to seek refuge in 23. (D) 14 states and 6 union territories
Turkey, Greece and throughout Western Europe.
12. (A) III, IV, II, I Explanation: In 1956, the States
Explanation: 17. (A) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam Reorganisation Act was passed which
(I) Goa became the 25th State of India Explanation: A militant separatist led to the creation of 14 states and six
in the year 1987. group, the Liberation Tigers of Tamil union territories.
(II) Rajiv Gandhi-Laldenga Accord Eelam (LTTE) was fighting for an Caution
was signed in 1986. independent homeland for Hindu Tamils
in Northeastern Sri Lanka. The group
 Students must know that there are 28 States and 8
(III) 
Anandpur Sahib Resolution was Union Territories in India at present.
made on 1973. was founded by Velupillai Prabhakaran
(IV) Operation Blue Star took place in in the early 1970s. He led the group 24. (A) Lal Bahadur Shastri
1984. until his death by Sri Lankan armed Explanation: To highlight the
forces in May 2009. importance of Indian soldiers and Indian
13. (A) Free JP Campaign farmers Lal Bahadur Shastri gave the
Explanation: Surur Hoda, in the UK, 18. (C) Other backward classes
slogan 'Jai Jawan Jai Kisan'.
launched the "Free JP" campaign Explanation: The second Backward
chaired by Nobel Peace Prize winner Classes Commission was appointed by 25. (C) Instead of opposing the hegemonic
Noel-Baker for the release of Jaya- the government of India in 1979. It was power, take advantage of the
prakash Narayan. known as the Mandal Commission as it Hegemon.
was headed by B.P. Mandal. Explanation: Bandwagoning, is a
Related Theory strategy that is employed by states that
19. (A) Tazakistan
 Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan (JP) (1902- find themselves in a weak position.
Explanation: Tajikistan, which is a According to this strategy, the logic
1979): He was a Marxist in his youth; founder
general secretary of the Congress Socialist Party
Central Asian country witnessed a civil stipulates that an outgunned, weaker
and the Socialist Party and a hero of the 1942 Quit war which continued for ten years state should align itself with a stronger
India movement. The leader of Bihar movement, he till 2001. The country also witnessed
adversary because the latter can take
became the symbol of opposition to Emergency. sectarian violence as well.
what it wants by force anyway.
Caution 20. (C) The Socialist Party
Explanation: The party advocates Related Theory
 Students should know about the ad campaigns and
newspaper articles published during the imposition either democratic socialism, social  Hide strategy is a strategy in which it is suggested
of ‘emergency’ in June 1975. democracy or even third way as their to stay away from a dominant power as far as

Page 8  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 possible. The attributes of this strategy were noticed (3) Yalta Conference of the Big Three 33. (A) I and III only
in countries like China, Russia and the European (Roosevelt, Churchill, Stalin) was Explanation: The IMF and the World
Union. These countries frame their policies almost on February 4–11, 1945. Bank are the two institutions that
hidden from the US.
(4) Tehran Conference was held from are referred to as the Bretton Woods
26. (C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan 28 Nov., 1943 to 1 Dec., 1943. institutions or sometimes the Bretton
Explanation: Abdul Ghaffar Khan was Woods twins.
30. (A) USA and USSR
closely identified with Gandhi because
of his non-violence principles. He is Explanation: The Anti-Ballistic Missile
Related Theory
known in India as the 'Frontier Gandhi'. Treaty, also known as ABM Treaty
 The Bretton Woods Institutions—the IMF and
He was a Pashtun independence activist, or ABMT, (1972–2002) was an arms World Bank—play a very important role in making
and founder of the Khudai Khidmatgar control treaty. It was a treaty between globalisation work better. These institutions were
resistance movement against British the United States and the Soviet Union created in 1944 in order to help restore and sustain
colonial rule in India. on the limitation of the anti-ballistic the benefits of global integration, by promoting
missile (ABM) systems which were international economic cooperation.
27. (B) II, IV, and III only used in defending areas against ballistic 34. (D) The IAEA
Explanation: There are wide components missile-delivered nuclear weapons. Explanation: To promote safe, secure
in India’s security strategy that have
31. (B) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-II and peaceful use of nuclear energy,
been used from time to time in different
the IAEA or The International Atomic
combinations. These components are as Explanation: Energy Agency works with its 164
follows: (1) On 1 December 1959, the Antarctic Member States and multiple partners
(1) Strengthening military capabilities Treaty was signed in Washington. worldwide.
(2) Strengthening international norms (2) 
In 1975, The World Council
and institutions of Indigenous Peoples, an Related Theory
(3) Meeting security challenges within organisation founded to represent  India is one of the founding members of the IAEA.
the country people and communities of the As of 2019, our country has put 26 reactors under
There has been an attempt to develop Fourth World. IAEA safeguards. In January 2020, India joined
the economy of India in a way that the the IAEA Response and Assistance Network
(3) 
As a result of the 1992 Rio de (RANET).
vast mass of citizens are lifted out of Janeiro, Brazil, UN Conference
poverty. on Environment and Development 35. (B) Neo-Colonial rule
28. (C) Charu Majumdar (UNCED), Agenda 21, which is a Explanation: When Britain attacked
United Nations (UN) action plan Egypt over the Suez Canal issue in
Explanation: Charu Majumdar was
for sustainable development, was 1956, India led the world protest against
popularly known as CM and was a
produced. this neo-colonial invasion.
Communist leader from India. He was
the founder and General Secretary of (4) On 11 December 1997, the Kyoto
the Communist Party of India (Marxist- Protocol was adopted. Related Theory
Leninist). He joined the Tebhaga  The Suez Crisis happened as a result of
movement in the Jalpaiguri region in 32. None of the given options fit. The the American and British decision against
1946 and from there embarked on a correct answer is: 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV. financing Egypt's construction of the Aswan
Explanation: High Dam. This was in response to Egypt's
proletariat militant struggle in North
growing ties with communist Czechoslovakia
Bengal. (1) 
Operation Enduring Freedom and the Soviet Union.
was an operation announced by
President George W. Bush on 7 36. (A) T
 hese ten stalks of paddy represent
Related Theory 10 countries.
October 2001. This was in response
 Tebhaga movement which took place between to the September 11 attacks. Explanation: The ten bound stalks
1946 and 1947, was a significant peasant of rice which are in the centre of the
agitation that was initiated in Bengal by the (2) 
The war on terror which was
Emblem, represent the member states of
All India Kisan Sabha of peasant front of the officially the Global War on
ASEAN and the circle around the stalks
Communist Party of India. Terrorism, is a global counter-
signify the unity of ASEAN.
terrorism military campaign that
Caution Caution
was initiated by the United States
 It is important for students to remember the following the September 11  Students should keep in mind the ten
names of the leaders associated with significant
attacks. It started on 11 September Southeast Asian countries: Brunei,
movements to avoid errors in such questions.
2001. Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia,
Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore,
29. (A) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II (3) 
Operation Iraqi Freedom was a Thailand, and Vietnam.
Explanation: protracted armed conflict in Iraq
(1) Signing of the Atlantic Charter by from March 2003 to 2011. 37. (C) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
the U.S. President Roosevelt was (4) 
First Gulf War was also called Explanation:
on August 14, 1941. computer war because of the highly (1) 
Growing strength of regional
(2) India joins the U.N. on October, publicised use of 'smart bombs' by parties is due to the formation of
30, 1945. the US. Coalition Governments.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 9

 (2) 
Politics of consensus investigates 40. (A) Ghulam Mohammed Sadiq 45. (D) World Health Organisation
the role of political consensus in Explanation: It was Ghulam Mohammed Explanation: The World Health
accelerating economic reforms. Sadiq, who was sworn in as the first chief Organisation declared that Covid-19
(3) 
Personal law and gender issue - minister of Jammu and Kashmir.
was a pandemic.
The post-colonial politics, which
41. None of the options fit. The correct
included the Muslim personal law,
answer is: (I), (II), and (V)
women's rights and minority rights Related Theory
in India has intensified since the Explanation: International organisations
help with matters of war and peace.  The World Health Organisation, popularly known
Shah Bano case.
International organisations are helpful as WHO, is a United Nations specialised body.
(4) 
N.D.A. and U.P.A. - The United in another way. For example, global It investigates public health issues around the
Progressive Alliance (U.P.A.) and warming- each country can try to find world and takes steps when needed. The WHO
the National Democratic Alliance its own solution to the effects of global headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland, and it was
(N.D.A.) are two prominent warming. But in the end a more effective founded on April 7, 1948.
alliances in Indian politics. approach is to stop the warming itself.
This requires at least all of the major 46. (A) Agrarian sector
Caution
industrial powers to cooperate. Explanation: The first Five Year Plan
 Students should know that Alliance between
gave priority to the agricultural sector of
parties is made to win the elections by 42. (C) III only
gaining majority seats in the election the country. It also included investment
Explanation: The great recession was
whereas, a Coalition is made to form the in dams and irrigation.
solved when several countries received
government after the election.
bailout packages from the troika
(European Commission, European Caution
38. (A) Bhimrao Ambedkar
Central Bank, International Monetary  Students must carefully read the passage to answer
Explanation: Bhimrao Ramji the questions without any error.
Fund). This also implemented a series
Ambedkar launched the Dalit Buddhist
of emergency measures.
movement in 1956. This led to several 47. (B) K.N. Raj
mass conversions of Dalits from Related Theory Explanation: The Five Year years
Hinduism to Buddhism.  The Great Recession occurred when there was a (1951 – 1956) plan was drafted by
sharp decline in economic activity from 2007-2009.
39. (A) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III It was said to be the largest economic downturn the economist K.N. Raj. The plan was
Explanation: since the Great Depression. based on the Harrod-Domar model
(1) Bhutan: Bhutan successfully which was a Keynesian model of an
Caution
transitioned from an absolute economic plan.
hereditary monarchy to a  Students should not get confused and keep in mind
that the Great Recession is different from the Great 48. (C) 1951
constitutional monarchy. This was Depression.
done with a bicameral elected Explanation: The first Five Year Plan
parliament in 2008. This marked 43. (D) I, II and IV was launched in 1951 and its main focus
the final step in the transition to a Explanation: The International was the development of the primary
parliamentary democracy. Organisations can be classified sector.
(2) Maldives: On June 2, 2005, based on their mandate of work,
the Maldivian parliament voted their geographical representation, 49. (D) K.N. Raj
unanimously for the creation of a and the limited membership of the
Explanation: K.N. Raj put forth the
multiparty system. organisations.
argument that India should 'hasten
(3) Nepal: On 28 May 2008, Nepal 44. (C) The World Trade Organisation slowly' for the first two decades because
became a federal republic. After Explanation: The World Trade a fast rate of development might
that it was formally renamed the Organisation (WTO), which is an endanger democracy.
'Federal Democratic Republic of intergovernmental organisation, regulates
Nepal'. and facilitates international trade. 50. (A) Agriculture Sector
(4) Sri Lanka: Indian Peace Keeping
Explanation: Agriculture sector was
Force or (IPKF) was the Indian Related Theory
most affected by partition and needed
military contingent performing  The IMF is an international organisation
a peacekeeping operation in urgent attention. Grand allocations were
that works to help reduce poverty, encourage
Sri Lanka. This operation was trade, and promote financial stability and therefore made for large-scale projects
performed between 1987 and 1990. economic growth around the world. such as the Bhakra Nangal Dam.
qq

Page 10  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)
OFFICIAL PAPER
18th August 2022, Slot-1
SOLVED
1. Soviet Intervention in Czechoslovakia 4. In the context of International Political 9. After 1991, Yugoslavia broke apart in
was in the year : Economy the term of LDC stands for : several provinces, which one of the
(A) 1965 (B) 1962 (A) Lowest Developed Countries following was not a province among
(B) Lowest Developing Countries them?
(C) 1968 (D) 1978
(A) Croatia
2. Match List-I with List-II : (C) Least Developing Countries
(B) Slovenia
(D) Least Developed Countries
List-I List-II (C) Czech Republic
(NAM Founding 5. In the context of Cold War, arrange the
(Country) (D) Bosnia and Herzegovina
Members) following events in chronological order :
10. The first Gulf war was also called a video
I. Gorbachev become the President of
(1) Sukarno I. India game war because of :
the USSR.
(2) Gamal Abdel II. Indonesia (A) Usage of smart bombs
II. Formation of North Atlantic treaty
Nasser (B) Live and widespread television
organization.
(3) Pt. Jawaharlal III. Egypt coverage
III. Placement of Nuclear Missiles in
Nehru (C) Precision attacks
Cuba.
(4) J o s i p B r o z IV. Yugoslavia (D) Widespread and massive destruction
IV. The first summit of Non-Alignment
Tito 11. Arrange the following in chronological
movement.
Choose the correct answer from the order :
V. Formation of Eastern Alliance.
options given below : I. China's accession to WTO
Choose the correct answer from the
(A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I II. Establishment of the EEC
options given below :
III. Establishment of the EU
(B) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV (A) II, I, V, II, IV
IV. Birth of ARF
(C) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III (B) II, V, I, III, IV
Choose the correct answer from the
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV (C) II, V, IV, III, I options given below :
3. The idea of New International Economic (D) V, II, IV, III, I (A) III, IV, II, I (B) II, III, IV, I
Order (NIEO) originated with the 6. Arrange in the chronological order of their (C) III, I, II, IV (D) IV, II, I, III
realization of necessity to have sustained occurrence. 12. In the context of European Union, name
development. I. Formation of North Atlantic Treaty and countries which resisted Maastricht
Choose the correct options proposed by Organisation. Treaty and the adoption of Euro :
the UNCTAD as a reform of the global II. Outbreak of Second World War. (A) Britain and France
trading system. III. Dropping ofAtom bomb on Hiroshima. (B) Denmark and Sweden
I. LDCs to be given control over their IV. Formation of Warsaw Pact. (C) Germany and Britain
natural resources which are exploited Choose the correct answer from the (D) Spain and Portugal
by the developed countries. options given below : Directions (Q No. 13 to 17)
II. Restrictions of the markets in order (A) II, II, IV, I
to protect the interest of western Read the passage and answer the questions.
(B) II, I, III, IV
countries. A new chapter of peace and cooperation might
(C) II, III, I, IV
III. LDCs to be given greater role in evolve in South Asia if all the countries in the
(D) I, II, III, IV region allow free trade across borders. This is
international economic institution.
7. After the disintegration of USSR, which the spirit behind the idea of South Asian Free
IV. LDCs to be given technologies at
organization was formed by the former Trade Agreement (SAFTA). The agreement
reduced cost. republics of the USSR? was signed in 2004 and came into effect on 1
V. LDCs to be provided with nuclear (A) NATO (B) European Union January, 2006. SAFTA aims at lowering trade
arsenals. tariffs. But some of our neighbours fear that
(C) CIS (D) IMF
Choose the correct answer from the SAFTA is a way for India to 'invade' their
8. Which country was considered to be the
options given below : markets and to influence their societies and
successor country of the Soviet Union
(A) I, II and III Only politics through commercial ventures and a
with regard to its military and position
commercial presence in their countries. India
(B) I, III and IV Only in the UN Security Council? thinks that there are real economic benefits for
(C) II, III and IV Only (A) Russia (B) Ukrain all from SAFTA and that a region that trades
(D) I, III and V Only (C) Georgia (D) Latvia more freely will be able to cooperate better on

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 11

political issues. Some in India think that SAFTA 18. Match List-I with List-II: 21. Which is not a principal organ of the
is not worth the trouble since India already has United Nations.
List-I List-II
bilateral agreements with Bhutan, Nepal and (A) International Court of Justice
Sri Lanka. (1) International I.  D e b a t e s a n d
(B) Economic and Social Council
13. Out of the given options, choose the most Atomic discusses global
issues (C) International Monetary Fund
appropriate one. SAFTA stands for : Energy
(D) Secretariat
(A) South Asian Free Trade Agreement Agency
22. Who said, "The United Nations was not
(B) South Asian Free Trade Area (2) General II. Administration created to take humanity to heaven, but
(C) South Asian Free Trade Association Assembly and coordi- to save it from hell".
(D) South Asian Full Trade Agreement nation of UN
affairs (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
14. Out of the given options, choose the most (B) Dag Hammarskjold
appropriate one. (3) WHO III. Providing good
health for all (C) Kurt Waldheim
The Spirit behind the idea of SAFTA is :
(D) Henry Kissinger
(A) It would improve the bilateral (4) Secretariat IV.  S a f e t y a n d
peaceful use of 23. Match the term with their meaning :
relations between India and
nuclear energy Term
Pakistan.
Choose the correct answer from the (1) Deterrence
(B) A new chapter of peace and
cooperation might evolve in South options given below : (2) Defence
Asia if all the countries in the region (A) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II (3) Alliance Building
allow free trade across the borders. (B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV (4) Disarmament
(C) Formation of SAFTA would enable (C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I Meaning
the South Asian countries to compete I. A coalition of states meant to deter
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV
with the world. or defend against military attacks
19. Read the statements carefully and identify
(D) Formation of SAFTA would promote II. All states to give up certain kinds of
the new international referred in it.
religious harmony among the people weapons
of this region. I. It was created during Second World
III. Limiting or ending the war
15. Choose the most appropriate option War. It focuses on the developing
IV. Preventing the war
among the following : countries by providing loans and
Choose the correct answer from the
Some in India think that SAFTA is not grants to the member countries. It
options given below :
worth because : exercises enormous influence on the
economic policies of the developing (A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II
(A) The Indian Economy is already very (B) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV
developed. countries.
II. It sets the rule for global trade. (C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
(B) India already has bilateral agreements
It was setup as a successor to the (D) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-I, 4-III
with Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka.
General Agreement on Trade and 24. The global think tank 'The Club of Rome'
(C) India has better links with ASEAN.
Tariff created after the Second published which book on the potential
(D) India is already playing the role of depletion of Earth's resources?
'Big Brother' in the South Asian World War. The developing
countries often complain of non- (A) 'Small is Beautiful'
Region.
transparent procedures and being (B) 'Depletion of Environment'
16. Out of the given options, choose the most
appropriate one : pushed around by big power. (C) 'Human and Environment'
Some of India's neighbours have fear (A) World Bank and WTC (D) 'Limits to Growth'
about SAFTA because : (B) WTO and IMF 25. In the context of Environment and
(A) SAFTA will endanger their national (C) World Bank and WTO Natural resources, 2018, 'Res Communis
security. (D) World Bank and UNCTAD humanitatis' stand for :
(B) They think that SAFTA is a way for 20. Arrange the UN Secretary Generals in (A) Common Property resources
India to 'invade' their markets and to chronological order. (B) Common room
influence their societies and politics. I. Kurt Waldheim (C) Global commons
(C) SAFTA will create unrest in their (D) Sustainable development
II. Kofi Annan
countries. 26. Choose the correct statement about
III. U. Thant
(D) SAFTA will isolate them from the Globalization.
world economy. IV. Boutros Boutros Ghali
(A) Globalization is only about the
17. Out of the given options, choose the most V. Ban Ki Moon
movement of commodities.
appropriate one : Choose the correct answer from the
(B) Globalization does not involve a
The SAFTA came into effect on : options given below : conflict of values.
(A) 1st January, 2005 (A) III, I, II, V, IV (C) Services are an insignificant part of
(B) 1st January, 2006 (B) III, I, IV, II, V Globalization.
(C) 1st January, 2004 (C) I, III, II, IV, V (D) Globalization is about worldwide
(D) 1st December, 2003 (D) I, III, IV, V, II interconnectedness.

Page 12  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

27. Identify the statement which does not 32. Match List-I with List-II : (4) S. Nijalingappa IV.  I n t r o d u c e d
highlight the economic consequences of List-I List-II mid-day meal
Globalization. (Parties) (Ideologies) scheme for
(A) Greater flow of goods and services. school children
(1) Socialist I.  O n e c o u n t r y, in Tamil Nadu
(B) Influencing each others' traditions. Party one culture, one
Choose the correct answer from the
(C) Increased influence and involve- nation
options given below :
ment of IMF and WTO in countries, (2) Bharatiya II.  D e m o c r a t i c (A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
internal matters. Janta Party Socialism
(B) 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I
(D) India is already playing the role of (3) Swatantra III. Social and ideolo- (C) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II
'Big Brother' in the South Asian Party gical coalition (D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV
Region. 36. Indira Gandhi wanted to remove the
(4) Congress IV.  F a v o u r e d
28. In the decades of 50s-70s, why did the Party expansion of free provision of Privy Purse. She had some
government impose substantial tariffs on private sector specific reasons against this provision.
imports? Following are the options, find out which
Choose the correct answer from the
was not the reason for abolishing Privy
(A) To increase the income from imports. options given below : Purse :
(B) To balance the trade deficits. (A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III (A) It was not consonant with principles
(C) To boost the quantity of imports. (B) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV of equality
(D) To protect domestic industries. (C) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-II (B) It was not consonant with the concept
29. Consider the following statements about (D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I of social justice
B.R. Ambedkar and choose the correct 33. Arrange in chronological order : (C) It was not consonant with the concept
of economic justice
answer : I. The Tashkent Agreement
(D) It was not consonant with the concept
I. He was the Chairman of the Drafting II. The Panchsheel Agreement of sovereignty
Committee. III. India-USSR Treaty of Peace and 37. The year 1967 is considered a landmark
II. He also headed the Union Powers Friendship year in India's political and electoral
Committee of the Constituent IV. Shimla Agreement history. In the given context which of the
Assembly. V. Indus Water Treaty statements is/are correct?
I. The results jolted Congress at both
III. He founded the Independent Labour Choose the correct answer from the
national and state levels.
Party. options given below :
II. Congress managed to get a majority
IV. He resigned from the first Cabinet (A) V, II, IV, I, III in Lok Sabha with its highest tally of
over Hindu Code Bill. (B) II, V, I, III, IV seats so far.
V. He adopted Buddhism in 1956 along (C) IV, II, V, I, III III. Half the ministers in Indira Gandhi's
with his followers. (D) III, I, II, V, IV cabinet were defeated.
Choose the correct answer from the 34. Who was the President of USA during IV. The political stalwarts lost in their
constituencies.
options given below : Indo-Pak war of 1971?
V. The Congress lost majority in nine
(A) I, II, V and IV Only (A) Henry Kissinger states.
(B) I, III, V and IV Only (B) John F. Kennedy Choose the correct answer from the
(C) I, II, III and V Only (C) Richard Nixon options given below :
(D) II, III, IV and V Only (D) Ronald Reagen (A) I, III and IV Only
30. After India's independence, Nizam 35. Match List-I with List-II : (B) II, III, and V Only
responded by unleashing a para-military (C) II, IV and V Only
List-I List-II
force known as Razakars on the people (D) III, V and I Only
(Leader) (Description/
of : 38. The famous expression ‘Aya Ram Gaya
Associated with)
Ram' during 1960s in Indian politics was
(A) Hyderabad (1) Ram I. Advocacy of being referred to :
(B) Andhra Pradesh Manohar reservation (A) Kamaraj plan in Congress
(C) Manipur Lohia for backward (B) Defections by MLAS
castes and
(D) Bhopal (C) Coalition policies by regional parties
opposition to
31. Apart from being the Deputy Prime (D) The Congress 'Syndicate'
English
Minister, which other portfolio did 39. Which of the following amendment to
(2) Natarajan II.  P r e s i d e n t o f Indian Constitution was passed during
Sardar Patel hold? Congress
Annadurai Emergency?
(A) Defence Minister during 1968-71 (A) 44th Amendment
(B) Home Minister (3) K. Kamraj III. Chief Minister (B) 42nd Amendment
(C) Finance Minister of Madras from (C) 45th Amendment
(D) External Affairs Minister 1967 (D) 46th Amendment

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 13

 40. On June 12th 1975, Justice Jagmohan 1977-79 taught another lesson in democratic (A) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
Lal Sinha from which of the following politics : governments that are seen to be (B) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV
High Court, passed a judgement declaring unstable and quarrelsome are severely punished (C) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
Indira Gandhi's election to the Lok Sabha by the voters.
(C) 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I
invalid? 42. Name the Prime Minister under Janata
48. Match List-I with List-II :
(A) Madras High Court Party in 1977.
(B) Calcutta High Court List-I List-II
(A) Jagjivan Ram (B) Charan Singh
(Principles) (Instances)
(C) Bombay High Court (C) Indira Gandhi (D) Morarji Desai
(1)  M a p p i n g I. Himachal Pradesh
(D) Allahabad High Court 43. Charan Singh government remained in boundaries and Uttarakhand
41. On June 12th 1975, Justice Jagmohan power for : on religious
Lal Sinha from which of the following (A) Five months grounds
High Court, passed a judgement declaring (B) Four months (2)  M a p p i n g II. Jharkhand and
Indira Gandhi's election to the Lok Sabha boundaries Chhattisgarh
(C) Eighteen months on grounds
invalid?
(D) Six months of different
I. Shah Commission of Inquiry languages
44. Government headed by Morarji Desai
II. 42nd Constitutional Amendment (3) Demarcating III. Pakistan and
lost in less than Eighteen months. Which
III. Decision in the Keshavananda Bharti of the following was not a reason for this boundaries Bangladesh
Case within a
loss? country by
IV. Declaration of Emergency (A) Lacked direction geographical
V. Jai Prakesh Narayan led a peoples' (B) No common programme zones
march to the Parliament (4) Demarcating IV. India and Pakistan
(C) Lacked leadership
Choose the correct answer from the the boundaries
(D) Jagjivan Ram wanted to become within a
options given below :
Prime Minister country on
(A) I, II, III, IV, V administrative
45. Governments that are seen to be
(B) V, IV, III, II, I and political
unstable and quarrelsome are severely
(C) III, V, IV, II, I grounds
punished by the voters. Which of the
(D) IV, V, III, II, I following gives a wrong justification of Choose the correct answer from the
the statement? options given below :
Directions (Q No. 42 to 46)
(A) Morarji Desai lost in Eighteen (A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I
Read the passage and answer the questions.
months (B) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II
The opposition to Emergency could keep the
(B) Charan Singh lost in four months (C) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II
Janata Party together only for a while. Its
critics felt that the Janata Party lacked direction, (C) Congress won in 1971 (D) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-I, 4-III
leadership and a common programme. The (D) Fresh Lok Sabha election in 1980 49. The first nuclear explosion was undertaken
Janata Party government could not bring about 46. In 1977, Janata Party swept the polls, in by India in :
a fundamental change in politics from those which part of India? (A) May 1972 (B) May 1973
pursued by the Congress. The Janata Party (A) South India (B) North India (C) May 1974 (D) May 1975
split and government which was led by Morarji 50. India opposed the indefinite extension
(C) East India (D) West India
Desai lost its majority in less than 18 months. of the NPT in 1995 and also refused to
47. Match List-I with List-II :
Another government headed by Charan Singh
sign the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
was formed on the assurance of the support List-I List-II
(CTBT) due to which of the following
of the Congress party. But the Congress party (States) (Movement)
reasons?
later decided to withdraw its support with the (1) Assam I.  M o v e m e n t f o r
autonomy (A) India wanted to become a Nuclear
result that the Charan Singh government could
(2) Punjab II. Movement power as it wanted to influence Asian
remain in power for just about four months.
against outsiders countries.
Fresh Lok Sabha elections were held in January
1980 in which the Janata Party suffered a (3) Mizoram III. Secessionist (B) India wanted to use Nuclear weapons
comprehensive defeat, especially in northy movement for defence purposes only.
India where it had swept the polls in 1977. (4) Jammu and IV. Armed campaign (C) India did not want to give up its
Congress party led by Indira Gandhi nearly Kashmir for independence Nuclear weapons as it planned to
repeated its great victory in 1971. It won 353 Choose the correct answer from the become a super power.
seats and came back to power. experience of options given below : (D) India considered it discriminatory.

Page 14  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 Solutions
1. (C) 1968 and severe structural barriers to 10. (B) Live and widespread television
Explanation: Soviet intervention sustainable development. The coverage
in Czechoslovakia happened in major concern for these nations is to Explanation: The First Gulf War
1968. increase economic growth and pull was also called a 'video game war'
their populations out of poverty. becasue due to widespread television
Related Theory
5. (C) II, V, IV, III, I coverage the viewers around the
 In order to crack down on reformist aspira-
tions in Prague, the Soviet Union led War- Explanation: world could watch the destruction of
saw Pact troops in an invasion of Czecho-  1949 : North Atlantic Treaty Iraqi forces live on TV in the comfort
slovakia in August of that year. Alexander Organisation (NATO) came into of their living rooms.
Dubcek was deemed by the Soviets to be existence
going too far and needed to be restrained, Related Theory
 1955 : The Eastern alliance was
as evidenced by the military intervention.  The First Gulf War revealed the vast tech-
The Soviet Union's intervention successfully established nological gap that had opened up between
slowed the pace of reform in Czechoslovakia,  1961 : The first NAM summit the US military capability and that of other
but it also had unforeseen effects on the unity was held at Belgrade. states. The highly publicised use of socalled
of the communist bloc. ‘smart bombs’ by the US led some observers
 1962 : Cuban Missile Crisis
2. (D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV to call this a ‘computer war’.
 1985 : Gorbachev becomes
Explanation: NAM was founded the president of the USSR and 11. (C) III, I, II, IV
by Jawaharlal Nehru (India), Josip begins reform process Explanation: The Treaty founding
Broz Tito (Yugoslavia), and Gamal 6. (C) II, III, I, IV the European Economic Community
Abdel Nasser (Egypt). They were (EEC) was signed on 25 March,
Explanation:
further supported by Sukarno 1957.
(Indonesia) and Kwame Nkrumah  1939 : Outbreak of Second
World War  The ASEAN Regional Forum
(Ghana).
 1945 : US dropped bombs on (ARF) was founded in 1994.
Related Theory Hiroshima and Nagasaki  China joined as a member of
 The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was
 1949 : North Atlantic Treaty WTO on 11 December, 2001.
the policy of newly decolonised countries of
Asia, Africa and Latin America for not join- Organisation (NATO) came into  European Union (EU) was
ing any of the alliances but rather go for the existence founded on 01 November, 1993.
third option i.e remain non-aligned. One of  1955 : The WARSAW Pact was 12. (A) Britain and France
these alliances was led by USA and the other formed Explanation: Denmark and Sweden
was led by Soviet Union. Non- Alignment
7. (C) CIS had resisted the Maastricht Treaty
does not refer to either isolationism or neu-
trality but it played a role in mediating be- Explanation: CIS i.e. the and the adoption of the Euro, the
tween the two rival alliances. Commonwealth of Independent common European currency. Please
3. (B) I, III and IV Only States, was formed in December note that the Treaty of Maastricht
Explanation: The idea of a 1991. This was formed by eleven was signed establishing the European
New International Economic countries from the ex-USSR. Union (EU) on 07 Feb, 1992.
Order (NIEO) originated with 8. (A) Russia 13. (A) South Asian Free Trade Agreement
the realisation. The United Explanation: Russia became the Explanation: Full form of SAFTA is
Nations Conference on Trade and successor state of the Soviet Union South Asian Free Trade Agreement
Development (UNCTAD) brought with regards to its military and it also (SAFTA).
out a report in 1972 entitled inherited the Soviet seat in the UN
Towards a New Trade Policy for Security Council. Related Theory
Development. The report proposed a 9. (C) Czech Republic  SAFTA was a free trade agreement signed
reform of the global trading system by the SAARC members to promise the for-
Explanation: As a result of a series
so as to : mation of a free trade zone for the whole of
of political upheavals and conflicts South Asia.
 Give the LDCs control over their during the early 1990s, Yugoslavia
natural resources. 14. (B) A new chapter of peace and
broke up in 1991. Yugoslavia was
 Reduce the cost of technology cooperation might evolve in South
set up as a federation of six republics
from the Western countries. Asia if all the countries in the region
i.e. Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia,
 Provide the LDCs with a greater Macedonia, Montenegro, Serbia, allow free trade across the borders.
role in international economic and Slovenia. These republic had Explanation: The Spirit behind the
institutions. borders drawn along ethnic and idea of SAFTA is : a new chapter of
4. (D) Least Developed Countries historical lines.The Czech Republic peace and cooperation might evolve
Explanation: The countries and Slovakia were formed out of in South Asia if all the countries in
known as least developed countries Czechoslovak federation in January, the region allow free trade across the
(LDCs) are those with low incomes 1993. borders.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 15

 15. (B) India already has bilateral agreements (as on 1 September, 2012). All 22. (B) Dag Hammarskjold
with Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka decisions are taken unanimously
Explanation: " The UN was not
Explanation: Some in India think but the major economic powers
created to take mankind to heaven,
that SAFTA is not worth because such as the US, EU and Japan
but to save humanity from hell"
India already has bilateral agreements have managed to use the
was said by Dag Hammarskjold of
with Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka. WTO to frame rules of trade
Sweden. He served as the second
to advance their own interests.
16. (B) They think that SAFTA is a way for Secretary General of United Nations
The developing countries often
India to 'invade' their markets and to from April 1953 to September 1961.
complain of non-transparent
influence their societies and politics.
procedures and being pushed 23. (A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II
Explanation: Some of India's
around by big powers. Explanation:
neighbours have fear about SAFTA
because they think that SAFTA is a 20. (B) III, I, IV, II, V  Deterrence µ Preventing the war
way for India to 'invade their markets Explanation:  Defence µ Limiting or ending
and to influence their societies and  Ban Ki-moon (Korea)—January the war
politics. 2007 to December 2016;  Alliance Building µ A coalition
Kofi Annan (Ghana)—January of states meant to deter or
17. (B) 1st January, 2006 
1997 to December 2006 ; defend against military attacks
Explanation: The South Asian Free
Trade Agreement (SAFTA) SAFTA  Boutros Boutros-Ghali  Disarmament - All states to give
came into effect on 1st January, (Egypt)—January 1992 to up certain kinds of weapons
2006. December 1996 ; 24. (D) 'Limits to Growth'
18. (A) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II  Javier Pérez de Cuellar (Peru)— Explanation: The Club of Rome, a
Explanation: The correct match is January 1982 to December global think tank, published a book
as follows : 1991; in 1972 entitled Limits to Growth,
 International Atomic Energy  Kurt Waldheim (Austria)— dramatising the potential depletion
Agency : Safety and Peacefuluse January 1972 to December of the Earth’s resources against the
of nuclear energy 1981; backdrop of rapidly growing world
U Thant (Burma, now population.
 General Assembly : Debates and 
discusses global issues Myanmar)—November 1962 25. (A) Common Property resources
 WHO : Providing Good Health to December 1971; Explanation: In the context of
for all  Dag Hammarskjöld (Sweden)— Environment and Natural resources
April 1953 to September 1961 ; 'Res Communis humanitatis' stands
 Secretariat : Administration and
coordination of world affairs  Trygve Lie (Norway)—February for common property resources of
1946 to November 1952. all.
19. (C) World Bank and WTO
Explanation: 21. (C) International Monetary Fund Related Theory
Explanation: The International  ‘Commons’ are those resources which are
 World Bank : The World Bank
not owned by anyone but rather shared by
was created immediately after Monetary Fund (IMF) is is not the
a community. They include the earth’s atmo-
the Second World War in 1945. principal organ of United Nations.
sphere, Antarctica, the ocean floor, and outer
It provides loans and grants to The main organs of the United space.
the member-countries. In this Nations are the General Assembly,
26. (D) Globalization is about worldwide
way, it exercises enormous the Security Council, the Economic
interconnectedness.
influence on the economic and Social Council, the Trusteeship
Explanation: Interconnectedness
policies of developing countries. Council, the International Court of
can be regarded as the ability
It is often criticised for setting Justice, and the UN Secretariat.
to understand and function in
the economic agenda of the Related Theory an increasingly multicultural,
poorer nations, attaching  The International Monetary Fund (IMF) international, yet interconnected
stringent conditions to its loans is an international organisation that over- environment.
and forcing free market reforms. sees those financial institutions and regu-
 The World Trade Organisation lations that act at the international level. 27. (C) Increased influence and involve-
(WTO) is an international The IMF has 188 member countries, (as ment of IMF and WTO in countries,
organisation which sets the on 1 September, 2012) but they do not en- internal matters.
joy an equal say. The top ten countries Explanation: Increased influence
rules for global trade. This
have more than 52 per cent of the votes.
organisation was set up in 1995 and involvement of IMF and WTO
They are the G-8 members (the US, Japan,
as the successor to the General Germany, France, the UK, Italy, Canada
in countries' internal matters is that
Agreement on Trade and Tariffs and Russia), China and Saudi Arabia. statement which does not highlight
(GATT) created after the Second The US alone has 16.75 per cent voting the economic consequences of
World War. It has 157 members rights. Globalization.

Page 16  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 Prime Minister and also the first 1947 after the independence of India, and
Related Theory Home Minister of India from 1947 later to merge their states in 1949, thereby
 The economic consequences of the Globali- to 1950. ending their ruling rights.
sation can be highlighted by Greater flow of 32. (A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III 37. (A) I, III and IV Only
goods and services., influencing each others' Explanation: The year 1967 is
Explanation: The correct match is
traditions and India playing the role of 'Big considered a landmark year in
as follows :
Brother' in the South Asian Region.
 Socialist Party—Democratic India's political and electoral history.
28. (D) To protect domestic industries. In 1967 Elections, although the
Socialism
Explanation: In the decades of Congress Party did manage to get a
 Bharatiya Janata Party—One
50s-70s, the Government imposed majority in the Lok Sabha, but with
Country, One Culture, One
substantial tariffs on imports for its lowest tally of seats and share of
Nation
protecting domestic industries from votes since 1952. Half the ministers
international competition. The aim  Swatantra Party—Favoured
in Indira Gandhi's cabinet were
of this policy was to boost domestic expansion of free private sector
defeated. The political stalwarts
production.  Congress Party—Social and who lost in their constituencies
29. (B) I, III, V and IV Only Ideological Coalition included Kamaraj in Tamil Nadu,
Explanation: 33. (B) II, V, I, III, IV S.K. Patil in Maharashtra, Atulya
 Dr. B.R.Ambedkar was the Explanation: The correct order Ghosh in West Bengal and K. B.
chairman of the drafting of the events given in the question Sahay in Bihar. The Congress lost
committee of the Indian is the Panchsheel Agreement majority in as many as seven States.
Constitution. (1954), Indus Water Treaty (1960), 38. (B) Defections by MLAS
 Union Powers Committee of the Tashkent Agreement (1966), Explanation: The famous
the Constituent Assembly was India-USSR Treaty of Peace and expression 'Aya Ram Gaya Ram'
headed by Jawaharlal Nehru. Friendship (1971) and Shimla during 1960s in Indian politics
Agreement (1972). was being referred to frequent
 The Independent Labour
Party (ILP) was a political 34. (C) Richard Nixon defections by MLAs.
Organisation which was formed Explanation: Richard Nixon was
Related Theory
under the leadership of B. R. the President of USA during Indo-
 After the 1967 general election, the
Ambedkar on 15 August, 1936. Pak war of 1971. He was the 37th
breakaway Congress legislators played
Ambedkar resigned from the president of the United States,
 an important role in establishing non-
first cabinet due to the defeat serving from 1969 to 1974.
Congress governments in three States.
of Hindu Code bills in the 35. (B) 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I The constant realignments and shifting
assembly. Explanation: The correct match is political loyalties in this period gave
 In 1956, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as follows : rise to this famous expression.
along with nearly half a million  Ram Manohar Lohia—Chief
39. (A) 44th Amendment
Dalits (formerly untouchables) Minister of Madras from 1967.
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment
converted to Buddhism.  Natarajan Annadurai—President
to the Indian Constitution was
30. (A) Hyderabad of Congress during 1968-71. passed during the Emergency. It
E x p l a n a t i o n : A f t e r I n d i a ' s  K. Kamraj—Introduced midµday added new Directive Principles,.
independence Nizam responded by meal scheme for school children Article 39A, Article 43A and Article
unleashing a para-military force in Tamil Nadu. 48A. Articles 358 and 359 were
known as Razakars on the people of  S. Nijalingappa—Advocacy of amended, to allow suspension of
Hyderabad. reservation for backward castes Fundamental Rights, and suspension
Related Theory and opposition to English. of enforcement of any of the rights
 The atrocities and communal nature of the 36. (D) It was not consonant with the conferred by the Constitution during
Razakars knew no bounds. They murdered, concept of sovereignty an Emergency.
maimed, raped and looted, targeting Explanation: Indira Gandhi wanted 40. (D) Allahabad High Court
particularly the nonµMuslims. The central
to remove the provision of Privy Explanation: On June 12th 1975,
government had to order the army to tackle
the situation.
Purse because it was not consonant Justice Jagniohan Lal Sinha of the
with the Principles of Equality, the Allahabad High Court passed a
 In September 1948, Indian army moved in to
control the Nizam’s forces. After a few days Concept of Social Justice and the judgement declaring Indira Gandh's
of intermittent fighting, the Nizam surren- Concept of Economic Justice. election to the Lok Sabha invalid.
dered. This led to Hyderabad’s accession to 41. (C) III, V, IV, II, I
Related Theory
India. Explanation: The correct chrono-
 Please note that in India, a privy purse
31. (B) Home Minister was a payment made to the ruling families logical order of the events is
Explanation: Sardar Vallabhbhai of erstwhile princely states as part of their Decision in the Keshavananda
Patel served as the first Deputy agreements to first integrate with India in Bharti Case (1973), Jai Prakash

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 17

 Narayan led a people's march role of Congress massive victory in  Demarcating boundaries within
to the Parliament(March 1975), the 1971 election. a country by geographical
Declaration of Emergency (June 46. (B) North India zones : Himachal Pradesh and
1975), 42nd Constitutional Explanation: In 1977 Janata Party Uttarakhand
Amendment (1976) and Shah swept the polls in North India. It  Demarcating the boundaries
Commission of Inquiry (1977). was following the opposition to within a country on
42. (D) Morarji Desai Emergency declared under the prime administrative and political
Explanation: Morarji Desai was Ministership of Indira Gandhi. grounds : Jharkhand and
the Prime Minister under Janata 47. (A) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I Chattisgarh
Party rule in 1977. 49. (C) May 1974
Explanation: The correct match is
43. (B) Four months as follows : Explanation: The first nuclear
Explanation: Charan Singh  Assam—Movement against explosion was undertaken by India
government remained in power for outsiders. on 18 May, 1974 at Pokhran in
only four months. Rajasthan. It was codenamed as
 Punjab—Secessionist Movement
44. (D) Jagjivan Ram wanted to become 'Smiling Buddha'.
 Mizoram—Armed Campaign
Prime Minister 50. (D) India considered it discriminatory.
for Independence
Explanation: Government headed Explanation: India opposed the
 Jammu and Kashmirµ Movement
by Morariji Desai lost in less than indefinite extension of the NPT in
for Autonomy
Eighteen months. The reason being 1995. India also refused to sign the
Janata Party lack of direction, 48. (B) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
leadership and a common programe. Explanation: The correct match is (CTBT) primarily because India
45. (C) Congress won in 1971 as follows : considered these are discriminatory.
Explanation: Indira Gandhi made  Mapping boundaries on religious
Related Theory
abolition of Privey Purse' a major grounds : India and Pakistan
 On the one hand non-nuclear states aren't al-
election issue in 1971 and got a lot of  Mapping boundaries on grounds lowed to have nuclear weapons while nucle-
public support. Among other factors of different languages : Pakistan ar-weapon states have no obligation to give
including this played an important and Bangladesh them up.
qq

Page 18  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)
OFFICIAL MOCK PAPER
22nd June 2022
SOLVED
1. During the Second World War, the Axis 8. In 1968, the permanent members of the Plan, the Organisation for European Economic
Powers comprised of : Security Council tried to impose which Cooperation (OEEC) was established in
(A) USA, Britain, Germany and France of the following treaty on the rest of the 1948 to channel aid to the west European
(B) Germany, Italy and Japan world? states. It became a forum where the western
(C) India, Yugoslavia, Egypt (A) Limited Test Ban Treaty European states began to cooperate on trade
(D) USSR, USA, France and UK (B) Anti- Ballistic Missile Treaty and economic issues. The Council of Europe,
2. The Soviet Union invaded Afghanistan (C) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty established in 1949, was another step forward
in : (D) Nuclear Non Proliferation Treaty in political cooperation. The process of
(A) 1979 (B) 1981 9. Match List I with List II : economic integration of European capitalist
(C) 1982 (D) 1991 List- I countries proceeded step by step leading to
3. The reforms like 'Perestroika' and (1) Resisted the Maastricht Treaty the formation of the European Economic
'Glasnost' were introduced in the Soviet (2) Did not join the 'Coalition of the Community in 1957. This process acquired
Union by : Willing' during Iraq invasion in 2003 a political dimesnion with the creation of the
(A) Nibita Khrushchev (3) A nuclear power state European Parliament. The collapse of the
(B) Joseph Stalin (4) An erstwhile member of the socialist Soviet bloc put Europe on a fast track and
(C) Michail Gorbachev bloc resulted in the establishment of the European
(D) Leonid Brezhnev List-II Union in 1992. The foundation was thus laid
4. After the disintegration of the USSR, I. Germany for a common foreign and secuirty policy,
Russia and India share which of the II. France cooperation on justice and home affairs, and
following vision of world order?
III. Poland the creation of a single currency.
(A) Unipolar (B) Bipolar
IV. Sweden 11. Which of the following was not an initial
(C) Multipolar (D) Comprehensive
Choose the correct answer from the objective of the European Union?
5. The former Soviet republic which
witnessed a civil war for 10 years till options given below : (A) Common foreign and security policy
2001, is : (A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV (B) Cooperation on Justice and Home
(A) Azerbaijan (B) Tajikistan (B) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV affairs
(C) Uzbekistan (D) Kyrgyzstan (C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-III (C) Bring about social and cultural
6. Which of the following does not act as a (C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III development
constraint to the hegemonic power of the 10. Arrange in chronological order of their (D) Creation of a single currency
US? coming into existence.
I. Its institutional architecture I. Council of Europe 12. For the revival of the European economies
II. The open nature of the American II. Organisation for European Economic after the Second World War, the United
society Cooperation States of America extended financial aid
III. Influence of Regional Organisation III. European Union under :
such as SAARC or ASEAN IV. European Economic Community (A) Maastricht Treaty
IV. Support of NATO members Choose the correct answer from the (B) Marshall Plan
V. The sanctions from the United options given below : (C) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
Nations (A) II, I, IV, III (D) Molotov Plan
Choose the correct answer from the (B) II, IV, I, III
options given below : (C) I, II, IV, III 13. Which of the following statements are
(A) III and V Only correct with regard to the European
(D) III, IV, I, II
(B) I and II Only Union (EU)?
(C) II and V Only Directions (Q No. 11 to 13)
I. The European Union has its own
(D) III and IV Only Read the passage and answer the questions. flag, anthem and founding date.
7. The US response to the 9/11 attack was European integration after 1945 was aided II. The Schengen visa may be taken
launching of : by the Cold War. America extended massive from any one EU country but it
(A) Operation Enduring Freedom financial help for reviving Europe's economy permits visitors entry into most EU
(B) Operation Dessert Storm under what was called the 'Marshall Plan'. countries.
(C) Operation Infinite Reach The US also created a new collective security III. Euro is a common currency accepted
(D) Operation Iraqi Freedom structure under NATO. Under the Marshall by all EU members.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 19

 IV. The EU flag has a circle of 10 gold 16. India conducted its Nuclear Tests in : Choose the correct answer from the
stars representing solidarity and (A) Chagai Hills options given below :
harmony between the people of (B) Sri Harikota (A) III, IV and V Only
Europe. (C) Pokhran (B) II, I and IV Only
V. As a Supranational organisation, (D) Vishakhapatnam (C) I, II and V Only
the EU is able to exert economic,
17. India has dispute with which country over (D) I, III and V Only
political and diplomatic and military
the demarcation of Sir Creek Island? 23. UN Day is celebrated annually on:
influence
(A) Pakistan (A) January 1
(A) I, II and III Only
(B) Sri Lanka
(B) I, II and V Only (B) September 11
(C) Maldives
(C) III, IV and V Only (C) October 24
(D) Bangladesh
(D) II, III and IV Only 18. The Indus river water dispute between (D) April 13
14. Which of the following statements India and Pakistan was resolved with the 24. Which of these is not a Principal Organ
regarding the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka mediation of : of the United Nations?
are incorrect? (A) International Monetary Fund (A) United Nations Security Council
I. The neglect of Tamil concerns led the (B) United States of America (B) United Nations Children's Fund
LTTE to demand a separate 'Tamil (C) Soviet Union (C) Economic and Social Council
Eelam'. (D) World Bank
(D) International Court of Justice
II. The minority Sinhala community did 19. WTO is serving as the successor to one
25. Match List-I with List-II :
not want to give any concessions to of the following organizations :
List-I
the Tamils. (A) General Agreement on Trade and
Tariffs (1) Franklin River
III. India signed an accord with Sri
(B) General Arrangement on Trade and (2) Western Mining Corporation
Lanka and sent troops to stabilise
Tariffs (3) Narmada Bachao Andolan
relations between the Tamils and the
(C) World Health Organisation (4) Euphrates river
Sri Lankan Government.
(D) UN Development Programme List-II
IV. The scandinavian countries such
as Norway and Iceland tried to 20. The acronym ASEAN stands for : I. Turkey
bring the warring groups back to (A) Accumulation of South European II. India
negotiations. Atomic Nations
III. Australia
(B) Association of South East Alliance
V. In 1989, the Indian peace keeping IV. Philippines
Nationals
force pulled out of Sri Lanka after Choose the correct answer from the
(C) Association of South East Atlantic
attaining its objective. options given below :
Nations
(A) II and III Only (B) IV and V Only (D) Association of South East Asian (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
(C) II and V Only (D) I and III Only Nations (B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
15. Match List-I with List-II : 21. The phrase 'ASEAN WAY' reflects : (C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-III
List-I (A) The lifestyle of ASEAN States (D) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV
(1) The first country in South Asia to (B) An informal and non confrontationist 26. Which of the following is not a feature of
liberalise its economy. form of interaction cultural heterogenisation?
(2) The country which witnessed (C) The security policy adopted by the (A) It enlarges consumers choices
a triangular conflict among the ASEAN States and modifies cultures without
monarchist, the democrats and the (D) The way of Celebrating Social overwhelming the traditional
maoists. festivals by the ASEAN member (B) Each culture becomes more different
(3) A constitutional monarchy with a states and distinctive
multi party democracy. 22. Which of the following statements are not (C) The outcome of outside influences
(4) A country which has experienced correct?
is a new combination that is unique
both military and civilian rulers. I. The secretary General heads the
(D) It leads to the shrinking of the rich
List-II Security Council.
cultural heritage of the entire globe.
I. Nepal II. The Security Council has five
27. Which of the following statements about
II. Pakistan permanent and ten non permanent
Globalisation is incorrect?
III. Sri Lanka members.
(A) Globalisation is a concept
IV. Bhutan III. The discussion of the General
which promotes worldwide
Assembly are binding on UN
Choose the correct answer from the interconnectedness.
members.
options given below : (B) It is a multi-dimensional concept.
IV. The Trusteeship Council has
(A) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II suspended its operation since 1 (C) It has a uniform impact on all
(B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV November, 1994. countries.
(C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I V. All members of the Security Council (D) It deals with flows of commodities,
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV enjoy veto power. capital, people and ideas.

Page 20  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 28. Match List-I with List-II : 33. Choose the incorrect statement with Directions (Q No. 39 to 41)
List-I reference to the IndiaµChina War (1962). Read the passage and answer the questions.
(1) Standstill Agreement (A) China claimed Aksai Chin in
Ladakh and Sikkim in North east On 12 June 1975, Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha
(2) Instrument of Accession after India's of the Allahabad Court passed a judgement
independence India.
declaring Indira Gandhi's election to the Lok
(3) Merger Agreement (B) The chinese government protected
Sabha invalid. This order came on an election
(4) Plebiscite against India giving asylum to Dalai
petition filled by Raj Narain, a socialist leader
Lama.
List-II and a candidate who had contested against her
(C) While the superpowers were
I. Junagarh in 1971.
II. Manipur engaged in Cuban missile crisis, On June 24, the Supreme Court granted her a
III. Jammu and Kashmir China launched a massive attack partial stay on the High Court order- till her
IV. Hyderabad on India. appeal was decided, she could remain an MP
(D) The Soviet Union remained neutral but could not take part in proceedings of the
Choose the correct answer from the
during the conflict and India had to Lok Sabha.
options given below :
approach the Americans and British The stage was not set for a big political
(A) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-II for military assistance. confrontation. The opposition political parties
(B) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I
34. India signed the Treaty of Friendship with led by Jayaprakash Narayan pressed for Indira
(C) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III Gandhi's resignation and organised a massive
the Soviet Union in 1971 because :
(D) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-II (A) India did not want to follow the demonstration in Delhi's Ramlila ground
29. Identify the three main challenges faced principle of Non-Alignment on 25 June 1975. Jatyaprakash announced a
after Independence by India. anymore. nationwide satyagrah for her resignation and
I. Achieving integration of the asked the army, the police and government
(B) India was cultural closer to USSR
territory of India post partition of employees not to obey "illegal and immoral
than any other country of the world.
the country given the diversities in orders." This too threatned to bring the activites
(C) India needed diplomatic and military
our society. of the government to a standstill.
support during the Bangladesh
II. Focusing the development of NE The response of the government was to declare
crisis.
states. a state of emergency. On 25 June, 1975, the
(D) India wanted to trade with the government declared that there was a threat
III. Developing democratic practices in USSR.
accordance with the constitution. of internal distrubances and therefore, it
IV. Promoting the marine life of the 35. The Panchsheel Agreement was onvoked Article 352 of the Constituion. Under
southern region. signed between India and which other the provision of this article the government
V. Establishing the principle of equality country? could declare a state of emergency on grounds
and special protection to socially (A) Pakistan (B) Bangladesh of external threat or a threat of internal
disadvantaged groups and religious (C) Myanmar (D) China disturbances. The government decided that
and cultural communities. 36. The strategy of Non-Congressism is a grave crisis had arisen which made the
Choose the correct answer from the proclamation of a state of emergency necessary.
associated with :
options given below : 39. Under which Article of the Constitution
(A) K. Kamraj was emergency imposed on 25 June
(A) I, II and III Only (B) Morarji Desai 1975?
(B) II, III and IV Only (C) Ram Manohar Lohia (A) Article 352
(C) III, I and V Only
(D) S. K. Patil (B) Article 356
(D) IV, V and I Only
37. The first Non-Congress Prime Minister (C) Article 360
30. The Congress dominance in the first three
general elections (1952-1962) was not of India was : (D) Article 370
due to : (A) Jagjivan Ram 40. The Allahabad High Court gave its
(A) Legacy of the National Movement (B) Morarji Desai judgement on a petition filed by :
(B) Charismatic leadership of Indira (C) Ch. Charan Singh (A) Indira Gandhi
Gandhi (D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (B) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(C) A well organized party base 38. Arrange in chronological order of their (C) Raj Narain
(D) Its all inclusive nature occurrence. (D) Jagmohan Lal Sinha
31. Who was the architect of the Second Five I. Railway strike
Year Plan? 41. On June 25, 1975, the proclamation of
II. Appointment of Shah Commission emergency was issued by :
(A) P. C. Mahalanobis
of inquiry (A) Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha
(B) Charan Singh
III. Call for Total Revolution (B) Jayaprakash Narayan
(C) K.N Raj
IV. Allahabad Hight Court Judgement (C) Indira Gandhi
(D) J.C. Kumarappa
32. What was the attitude of the Soviet Union Choose the correct answer from the (D) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
in the Sino- Indian war of 1962? options given below :
(A) III, I, IV, II 42. Article 51 of the Indian Constitution
(A) It took China's side
relates to Proclamation of :
(B) It took India's side (B) I, III, IV, II
(A) Financial Emergency in the country
(C) It was neutral (C) II, III, I, IV
(B) Centre state relations, defining power
(D) It mediated between India and China (D) IV, I, II, III of the states

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 21

 (C) Reservation policy as given by the (B) Reserving 27% seats for the OBC's 49. In which year did Jammu and Kashmir
Mandal Commission in educational institutions and become a Union territory?
(D) Directive Principles of State policy Government jobs. (A) 2017 (B) 2018
with respect to India's foreign policy (C) Bringing about land reforms
(C) 2019 (D) 2020
43. National Emergency was imposed in 1975 (D) Strict implementation of New 50. Match List-I with List-II :
on the grounds of : Economic Reforms of formation of
List-I
(A) War with Pakistan political parties for the OBC's.
(1) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(B) Internal Disturbances 46. Kanshi Ram is the founder of :
(2) Manmohan Singh
(C) Terrorist attack (A) Bhartiya Janata Party (3) Vishwanath Pratap Singh
(D) Armed Rebellion (B) Bahujan Samaj Party (4) H.D. Deve Gowda
44. On 12 June 1975, Indira Gandhi's election (C) Praja Socialist Party List-II
to the Lok Sabha was declared invalid by (D) Samajwadi Party I. United Progressive Alliance
Justice J.L. Sinha from which following
47. Which of the following North East State II. United Front
High Court?
was formed in 1963? III. National Democratic Alliance
(A) Delhi (B) Kolkata
(A) Manipur (B) Nagaland IV. National Front
(C) Allahabad (D) Bombay
(C) Meghalaya (D) Mizoram Choose the correct answer from the
45. Which of these is not a recommendation
48. Which two states were created in 1987? options given below :
given by the Mandal Commission in
1980? (A) Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram (A) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
(A) 'Backward Classes' should be (B) Mizoram and Tripura (B) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV
understood to mean 'Backward (C) Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland (C) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
Castes'. (D) Nagaland and Tripura (D) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-III, 4-I

Solutions
1. (B) Germany, Italy and Japan 4. (C) Multipolar impose Nuclear Non Proliferation Treaty
Explanation: In the Second World Explanation: After the disintegration on the rest of the world.
War, the Allied Forces included the US, of the USSR, Russia and India share a Related Theory
Soviet Union, Britain and France while multipolar vision of world order.
 It is a landmark international treaty whose
the Axis Powers included Germany, Related Theory objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear
Italy and Japan. The Allied Forces  Multipower system is one where there is no weapons and weapons technology, to pro-
defeated the Axis Powers thus ending sole power to dominate. mote cooperation in the peaceful uses of
nuclear energy and to further the goal of
the Second World War (1939- 1945). 5. (B) Tajikistan
achieving nuclear disarmament and general
Explanation: In Central Asia, Tajikistan and complete disarmament.
2. (A) 1979
witnessed a civil war that went on for ten  The Treaty was brought into force in 1970
Explanation: The Soviet Union years till 2001. and on 11 May 1995, the Treaty was ex-
invaded Afghanistan in 1979 and 6. (A) III and V Only tended indefinitely. Presently, a total of 191
immediately assumed complete military States have joined the Treaty.
Explanation: The institutional archi-
and political control of Kabul and large
tecture, domestic nature of American 9. (D) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
portions of the country.
power, the open nature of the American Explanation: The correct match is as
3. (C) Michail Gorbachev society and the role of NATO are those follows :
factors which act as constraints to the
Explanation: The reforms like Resisted the Maastricht Treaty— Sweden
hegemonic power of the US.
'Perestroika' and 'Glasnost' were One who did not join the 'Coalition of
7. (A) Operation Enduring Freedom
introduced in the Soviet Union by the Willing' during Iraq invasion in
Michail Gorbachev. Explanation: The US response to the 2003—Germany
9/11 attack was launching of "Operation
Related Theory A nuclear power state—France
Enduring Freedom" and this operation
 Perestroika was a political movement for re- An erstwhile member of the socialist
was launched against all those suspected
form within the Communist Party of the So-
to be behind this attack, mainly Al-Qaeda bloc—Poland
viet Union (CPSU) during the late 1980s.
and the Taliban regime in Afghanistan. 10. (A) II, I, IV, III
 Glasnost was introduced to bring increased
8. (D) Nuclear Non Proliferation Treaty Explanation: The correct chronological
openness and transparency in government
institutions and activities in the Soviet Union Explanation: In 1968, the Permanent oerder of the events is Organisation
(USSR). members of the Security Council tried to of European Economic Cooperation

Page 22  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 (1948), Council of Europe (1949), and the Tamils. Eventually, the Indian Army 20. (D) Association of South East Asian
European Economic Community (1957) got into a fight with the LTTE. The presence
Nations
of Indian troops was also not liked much by
and European Union (1992). the Sri Lankans. They saw this as an attempt Explanation: The acronym ASEAN
by India to interfere in the internal affairs of stands for Association of South East
11. (C) Bring about social and cultural
Sri Lanka. Asian Nations. It is an organisation
development
15. (A) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II formed by the governments of Malaysia,
Explanation: The initial objectives of Indonesia, the Philippines, Thailand,
the European Union were a common Explanation: The correct match is as
follows : and Singapore in 1967 to promote
foreign and security policy, cooperation
economic growth, peace, security, social
on justice and home affairs, and the  T
he first country in South Asia to progress and cultural development in the
creation of a single currency. liberalise its economy—Bhutan Southeast Asian region.
12. (B) Marshall Plan  T
he country which witnessed
21. (B) An informal and non confrontationist
a triangular conflict among the
Explanation: For the revival of the monarchist, the democrats and the form of interaction
European economies after the Second
maoists—Nepal Explanation: The phrase 'ASEAN
World War, the United States of America
 A
 constitutional monarchy with a WAY' reflects an informal and non
extended financial aid under Marshall
multi party democracy- Sri Lanka confrontationist form of interaction. It
Plan. Later European Economic
Cooperation, Council of Europe,  A
 country which has experienced is a form of interaction that is informal,
European Economic Community and both military and civilian rulers— nonconfrontationist and cooperative.
the European Union were established in Pakistan. The respect for national sovereignty
1948, 1949, 1957 and 1992 respectively. 16. (C) Pokhran is critical to the functioning of

Explanation: India conducted its ASEAN.

13. (A) I, II and III Only
Nuclear Tests in Pokharan on 18 May, 22. (A) III, IV and V Only
Explanation: European Union (EU) 1974. It was codenamed as "Smiling
was established on 07 Feb 1992. It Explanation: Security Council has
Buddha".
has its own flag, anthem and founding fifteen members out of which five
Later on 11 and 13 May, 1998, Nuclear members are permanent (with veto
date. The Schengen visa may be taken
test were again conducted at Pokharan. It rights) and ten members are elected by
from any one EU country but it permits
was codenamed as "Shakti". the General Assembly for two µ year
visitors entry into most EU countries.
Euro is a common currency accepted by 17. (A) Pakistan terms. Its decisions are binding on all
all EU members. Explanation: India has dispute with UN members. The secretary General is
14. (C) II and V Only Pakistan over Sir Creek issue. This the head of the Security Council.

Explanation: After its independence, demarcation line in Sir Creek is situated 23. (C) October 24
politics in Sri Lanka (it was then known in Rann of Kutch.
Explanation: UN Day is celebrated
as Ceylon) was dominated by forces that annually on October 24.
18. (D) World Bank
represented the interest of the majority
Sinhala community. They were hostile Explanation: The Indus River waters 24. (B) United Nations Children's Fund
to a large number of Tamils who had dispute between India and Pakistan was Explanation: Security Council,
migrated from India to Sri Lanka and resolved with the meditation of World International Court of Justice, General
settled there. In 1989, the Indian Peace Bank in 1960. Both the coountries had Assembly, Secretariat, Economic and
Keeping Force (IPKF) pulled out of Sri this dispute over the sharing of river Social Council and Trusteeship Council
Lanka without attaining its objective. water.
are principal organs of the United
Related Theory 19. (A) General Agreement on Trade and Nations. Hence it is clear that United
 The neglect of Tamil concerns led the LTTE Tariffs Nation's Children Fund is not a Principal
to demand a separate 'Tamil Eelam'. Explanation: WTO is serving as the Organ of the UN.
 From 1983 onwards, the militant organisa- successor to General Agreement on
tion, the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
25. (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
Trade and Tariffs (GATT).
(LTTE) has been fighting an armed struggle Explanation: The correct match is as
with the army of Sri Lanka and demanding Related Theory
follows :
‘Tamil Eelam’ or a separate country for the  The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is an
Tamils of Sri Lanka. international organisation which sets the  Franklin Riverµ Australia
 In 1987, the government of India for the first rules for global trade. This organisation was  Wetsern Mining Corporation—
time got directly involved in the Sri Lankan set up in 1995 as the successor to the Gen- Philippines
Tamil question. India signed an accord with eral Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT)
Sri Lanka and sent troops to stabilise rela- created after the Second World War. It has
 Narmada Bachao Andolan—India
tions between the Sri Lankan government 164 members.  Euphrates River—Turkey

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 23

26. (D) It leads to the shrinking of the rich 31. (A) P. C. Mahalanobis
cultural heritage of the entire globe Related Theory
Explanation: P. C. Mahalanobis was
 Henry Kissinger, the adviser to the US Presi-
Explanation: When globalisation leads the architect of the Second Five Year dent Richard Nixon , made a secret visit to
to each culture becoming more different Plan (1956µ61). The Second FYP China via Pakistan in July 1971. Thus to
and distinctive. It is called cultural stressed on heavy industries. This plan counter the US - Pakistan - China axis, India
heterogenisation. signed Peace treaty with Soviet Union.
wanted to bring about quick structural
Related Theory transformation by making changes si- 35. (D) China
 It enlarges consumers choices and modifies
multaneously in all possible directions.
cultures without overwhelming the tradition-
Explanation: Panchsheel Principles
al. Each culture becomes more different and 32. (C) It was neutral were signed between India and China.
distinctive. The outcome of outside influences Explanation: The attitude of the The joint enunciation of Panchsheel , the
is a new combination that is unique. Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence,
Soviet Union in the Sino- Indian war
27. (C) It has a uniform impact on all of 1962 was neutral. It induced a was signed by the Indian Prime Minister
countries. sense of national humiliation and at Jawaharlal Nehru and the Chinese
the same time strengthened a spirit of Premier Zhou Enlai on 29 April, 1954.
Explanation: Globalisation is a
concept which promotes worldwide nationalism. 36. (B) Morarji Desai
interconnectedness. It is a multi- Related Theory Explanation: The strategy of Non-
dimensional concept. It deals with  China launched an attack in Ladakh region Congressism is associated with
flows of commodities, capital, people and Arunachal Pradesh (NEFA) in October Moraraji Desai. Please note that "Non
and ideas. 1962. µ Congressism" referred to the coming
28. (B) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I 33. (A) China claimed Aksai Chin in Ladakh together of non µ Congress parties of
Explanation: The correct match is as different programmes and ideologies
and Sikkim in North east India.
follows : and to form an anti - Congress front. This
Explanation: The reason behind Indo- name was given by Ram Manohar Lohia.
 Standstill Agreement—Hyderabad
China war of 1962 was that China
 Instrument of Accession after 37. (B) Morarji Desai
claimed two areas within the Indian
India's independence—Jammu and Explanation: The first Non µ Congress
territory : Aksai µ chin area in the Ladakh
Kashmir Prime Minister of India was Morarji
region of Jammu and Kashmir and much
 Merger Agreement—Manipur Desai. In 1977 elections, Janata Party
of the state of Arunachal Pradesh in what
 Plebiscite—Junagarh emerged victorious defeating Congress
was then called NEFA (North Eastern
and Moraraji Desai was elected the
29. (C) III, I and V Only Frontier Agency).
Prime Minister.
Explanation: Achievement of Related Theory
38. (A) III, I, IV, II
integration of the territory of India  In 1950, China annexed Tibet and thus
removed a historical buffer between the Explanation:The correct order is as
post partition of the country given the
diversities in our society, development two countries. Later, the Tibetan spiritual follows :
of democratic practices in accordance leader, the Dalai Lama, sought and obtained Call for Total Revolution (March 1974),
political asylum in India in 1959. Railway strike (May 1974), Allahabad
with the constitution and establishment
 This was the time when the super-powers
Hight Court Judgement (1975) and the
of the principle of equality and special
were engaged in Cuban missile crisis and
protection to socially disadvantaged Appointment of Shah Commission of
China launched a massive attack on India.
groups and religious and cultural inquiry (1977).
The Soviet Union remained neutral during
communities were the challenges faced
the conflict and India had to approach 39. (A) Article 352
after Independence by India.
the Americans and British for military
Explanation: Under Article 352 of the
30. (A) Legacy of the National Movement assistance.
Constitution was emergency imposed
Explanation: The Congress dominance 34. (C) India needed diplomatic and military on 25 June, 1975.
in the first three general elections
support during the Bangladesh crisis. 40. (C) Raj Narain
(1952µ1962) was not due to legacy
of the National Movement rather it Explanation: India signed the 20 µYear Explanation: The Allahabad High
was due to the charismatic leadership Treaty of Peace and Friendship with the Court gave its judgement on a petition
of Indira Gandhi, a well organized Soviet Union in August 1971 because filed by Raj Narain, a socialist leader
party base and all inclusive nature of India needed diplomatic and military and a candidate who had contested
Congress. support during the Bangladesh crisis. against her in 1971.

Page 24  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

41. (D) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 45. (D) Strict implementation of New 48. (A) Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram
Economic Reforms of formation of
Explanation: On June 25, 1975, the Explanation: Mizoram and Arunachal
political parties for the OBC's.
proclamation of emergency was issued Pradesh became separate states only in
by Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed. Explanation: The recommendations of
1987.
the Mandal Commission (1980) were as
42. (D) Directive Principles of State policy follows: 49. (C) 2019
with respect to India's foreign policy  'Backward Classes' should be Explanation: In 2019, Jammu and
Explanation: Article 51 of the Indian understood to mean 'Backward
Kashmir became a Union Territory.
Constitution relates to Proclamation of Castes'.
Directive Principles of State policy with  Reservation of 27% seats for the 50. (C) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
respect to India's foreign policy. OBC's in educational institutions
and Government jobs. Explanation: The correct match is as
43. (B) Terrorist attack  Bringing about land reforms. follows :
Explanation: National Emergency was 46. (B) Bahujan Samaj Party  Atal Bihari Vajpayee — National
imposed in 1975 on the grounds of Democratic Alliance
Explanation: Kanshi Ram is the
internal disturbances. founder of Bahujan Samaj Party. He  Manmohan Singh — United Pro-
44. (C) Allahabad founded BSP in 1984.
gressive Alliance
Explanation: On 12 June 1975, Indira 47. (B) Nagaland
 Vishwanath Pratap Singh — Na-
Gandhi's election to the Lok Sabha was Explanation: Nagaland State was tional Front
declared invalid by Justice J.L. Sinha of created in 1963; Manipur, Tripura and
Allahabad High Court. Meghalaya in 1972.  H.D. Deve Gowda — United Front

qq

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 25

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-1
SELF-ASSESSMENT

General Instructions:
•• For every correct answer, 5 marks will be awarded.
•• 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
•• 40 Questions to be attempted out of 50.
Time Allowed: 45 Minutes Maximum Marks: 200 Marks
1. Which of the following event took place 6. Match List-I with List-II : 10. EURATOM is known as :
in 1961? List-I (A) Europe Atom Efficiency Community
(A) The unification of Germany (1) Warsaw (B) Europe Aviation Energy Center
(B) Vi e t n a m e s e I n t e r v e n t i o n i n (2) Shock Therapy (C) European Atomic Energy Community
Cambodia (3) Russia (D) European Ariel Energetic Center
(C) The construction of the Berlin wall (4) Boris Yeltsin
(D) Soviet intervention in Afghanistan Directions (Q. No. 11 to 15)
List-II Read the following passage and answer the
2. After Second World War, the world was
I. Successor of U.S.S.R. questions that follow:
divided into the blocks of :
II. Military pact The concept of common property resource
(A) USSR and China
III. President of Russia signifies that natural resources are common
(B) U.S.A and USSR
IV. Economic model property for the group. The underlying norm is
(C) Japan and Korea that members of the groups have both rights and
Choose the correct answer from the
(D) U.S.A. and U.K. duties with respect to the nature, levels of use and
3. Which of the following persons opposed options given below :
the maintenance of a given resource. Through
neo-colonialism? (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I mutual understanding and centuries of practices,
(A) Churchill (B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III many village communities in India, e.g., have
(B) Brezhnev (C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-III defined member rights and responsibilities. A
(C) Kwame Nkrumah (D) 1-I, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-III combination of factors including privatisation,
(D) Khrushchev agricultural intensification, population growth
7. US Operation in Iraq was called _______.
and ecosystem degradation have caused
4. Which among the following statements (A) Opertation Desert Qaeda
common property to dwindle in size, quality
that describe the nature of the Soviet (B) Operation Desert Hamas and availability to the poor in most parts of
economy is wrong ?
(C) Operation Desert Suicide the world. The sacred groves refer to a system
(A) Socialism was the dominant ideology.
(D) Operation Desert Strom that forces traditional communities informally
(B) State ownership/control existed over
8. Which British Prime Minister was to harvest natural resources in an ecologically
the factors of production.
America's partner in the Iraq invasion of sustained fashion. In India, the sacred groves
(C) People enjoyed economic freedom. in state- owned forest land appropriately fit the
2003?
(D) Every aspect of the economy was description of a common property resource.
(A) John Major (B) Theresa May
planned and controlled by the State. Along the forest belts of South India, sacred
5. Arrange the following in chronological (C) Tony Blair (D) James Callaghan
groves have been traditionally managed by the
order : 9. During the initial year of the People's village communities. Sacred groves are found
I. Soviet invasion of Afghanistan Republic of China after 1949, its in Rajasthan, Western Ghats of Karnataka,and
II. Fall of the Berlin Wall economy was based on the Soviet model. Maharashtra, Meghalaya and Madhya Pradesh.
III. Disintegration of the Soviet Union Considering the given information: What 11. According to the concept of common
was the primary source of capital for the property resource, the members of the
IV. Russian Revolution
state-owned heavy industries sector in groups have both rights and duties with
Choose the correct answer from the
communist China during this period? respect to :
options given below :
(A) Foreign Investment (A) the nature
(A) IV, I, II, III
(B) Soviet aid (B) levels of use
(B) I, II, III, IV
(C) Capital from agriculture (C) the maintenance of a given resource
(C) I, IV, II, III
(C) III, II, I, IV (D) Private enterprise (D) All of the above

Page 26  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

12. Which of the following has not caused the 21. The concept of becoming more "modern" Choose the correct answer from the
common property to dwindle? is : options given below :
(A) Privatisation (A) Adopting western capitalist model (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
(B) Agricultural Intensification of economy (B) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
(C) Population Stability (B) Adopting globalisation to a higher (C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-III
(D) Ecosystem Degradation extent (D) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV
(C) Industrialised countries in the west 26. First Prime Minister of India, Jawaharlal
13. Sacred groves are found in :
(D) Developing like an own identity of Nehru passed away in _______.
(A) Rajasthan
developed nation (A) 1961 (B) 1962
(B) Western Ghats of Karnataka
(C) 1963 (D) 1964
(C) Meghalaya 22. Which one of the following commissions
was formed for the planned development 27. What was trigerred off by the economic
(D) All of the above
situation of 1967 ?
14. Sacred groves are managed by: of India, just after independence ?
(A) Price rise
(A) Central Government (A) Planning Commission
(B) Deflation (price fall)
(B) State Government (B) Election Commission
(C) Stability in economy
(C) Village Communities (C) Shah Commission
(D) None of the above
(D) Individuals (D) NITI Aayog
28. Which of the given statements is correct?
15. The concept of the common property 23. The Shimla Agreement with Pakistan was (A) V.V. Giri was the President elected
resource signifies that ............................ signed in : after the death of Dr. Zakir Husain.
are common property for the group. (A) 1970 (B) 1971 (B) K. Kamraj was the former Chief
(A) natural resources Minister of Tamil Nadu.
(C) 1972 (D) 1973
(B) man-made resources (C) Both (A) and (B)
24. Given below are two statements marked
(C) renewable resources as Assetion (A) and Reason (R). (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(D) non- renewable resources Assertion (A) : India was opposed to the 29. Consider the policy and programmes of
16. In Nepal who was in violent conflict with indefinite extension of NPT is 1995 and Bharatiya Jana Singh given below.
the armed forces of the King? refused to sign NPT and CTBT both. I. It emphasised on the ideology of one
(A) Maoist Guerrillas Reason (R) : India considers these treaties party, one culture, one nation.
(B) Political Activists to be discriminatory and is against the II. This called for a reunion of India and
(C) People's Representatives monopoly of five nuclear weapon powers. Pakistan in Akhand Bharat.
Choose the correct option : III. It was a consistent advocate of India
(D) Armed Military Forces
to develop nuclear weapons.
17. Which of the following countries is (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
IV. It advocated no cultural and education
Bhutan’s biggest source of development are correct and Reason (R) is the
rights as this party opposed the
aid ? correct explanation of Assertion (A). granting of concessions to religious
(A) USA (B) Russia (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and cultural minorities.
(C) India (C) Maldives are correct , but Reason (R) is not Choose the correct answer from the
the correct explanation of Assertion options given below :
18. The South Asian leaders signed the (A) I, II and III Only
(A).
SAARC Charter on :
(C) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but (B) II, III and IV Only
(A) 5th December, 1988 (C) III, I and V Only
Reason (R) is correct.
(B) 8th December, 1985 (D) I, II, III and IV
(D) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason
(C) 7th November, 1985 30. Which of the following were one of those
(R) is incorrect.
(D) 9th January, 1987 objectives with which DMK made entry
25. Match List-I with List-II : into politics ?
19. A review of the implementation of the
List-I (A) Demand of the restoration of the
agreements at the Earth Summit in Rio
was undertaken by India in : (1) First Non-Congress PM original name of Kallakudi railway
(2) Leader of 1975 march to Parliament station.
(A) 1997 (B) 1998
(3) Presidential Candidate who defeated (B) Against the education scheme of the
(C) 1999 (D) 2000 State government
20. Which document of the Earth Summit in congress candidate in 1969
(C) Both (A) and (B)
1992 is called the principle of ' common (4) Leader of Railway Strike of 1974
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
but differentiated responsibilities'? List-II
31. Defection can cause :
(A) UNFCCC I. George Fernandes (A) Political Instability
(B) Rio Declaration II. Morarji Desai (B) Lack of support to Party Ideology
(C) HDI III. Jaiprakash Narayan (C) Fall of Government
(D) None of the above IV. V.V. Giri (D) All of these

Mock Paper- 1 Page 27

 32. Which of the following did not play an 39. In what type of development did Nehru (A) India and China formed a strategic
important role for Indira Gandhi to be always believe in for fast development of alliance in 1976
seen as a popular leader ? India ? (B) D i p l o m a t i c r e l a t i o n s w e r e
(A) She was able to overcome the (A) Scientific Development downgraded until 1976
challenge put forward by the
Syndicate. (B) Technological Development (C) Both nations successfully settled the
(B) She introduced positive programmes. (C) Both (A) and (B) border dispute
(C) Victory in 1965 Indo-Pak War. (D) Neither (A) nor (B) (D) The 'Hindi-Chini-Bhai- Bhai' slogan
(D) Her slogan of "Garibi Hatao". 40. The Nuclear Programme of India started gained popularity
33. Which of the following was not a program under the guidance of : 47. Look at the given picture and tell which
launched by Indira Gandhi? (A) Homi J. Bhabha of the following organisations is walking
(A) Ceiling on Urban Property on the tight rope ?
(B) A.P.J. Abdul kalam
(B) Ceiling on Land Holdings
(C) Public Distribution System (C) C.V. Raman
(D) Jan Arogya Yojana (D) None of the above
34. The Student Movement in India started 41. Nehru emphasised on the use of atomic
in : energy for :
(A) 1970 (B) 1971
(A) battles and wars
(C) 1974 (D) 1973
(B) peaceful purposes
35. In which Lok Sabha elections did
(C) Both (A) and (B)
Congress win as many as 415 seats ?
(A) 1969 (B) 1992 (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(A) SAARC (B) ASEAN
(C) 1989 (D) 1984 42. When did China test its nuclear wepon ? (C) NATO (D) UNSC
36. The alliance formed by BJP in 2014 is (A) 1961 (B) 1962
known as : 48. SAARC seeks to :
(C) 1963 (D) 1964
(A) United Progressive Alliance (A) promote the welfare of the people of
43. When did India oppose the NPT?
(B) National Democratic Alliance South Asia.
(A) 1994 (B) 1995
(C) Majority Coalition (B) promote active collaboration and
(C) 1996 (D) 1997
(D) Democratic Coalition mutual assistance in various fields.
44. Indira Gandhi was known as "Goongi
37. The fullform of VHP is : Gudiya" in Indian Politics because : (C) cooperate with international and
(A) Vishva Hindu Parishad (A) she lost the elections and there was regional organizations
(B) Vishnu Hindu Parishad a rift in the party (D) All of the above
(C) Vivek Hindu Parishad (B) people believed that she was a puppet 49. During whose Prime Ministership, the
(D) Vishal Hindu Parishad of powerful leaders. country faced no major challenges?
38. Which of the following was the first (C) She remained an inactive PM at that
(A) Indira Gandhi
coalition government to complete its time.
(B) Moraraji Desai
five-year tenure ? (D) None of the above
(C) Lal Bhadur Shastri
(A) NDA govt. led by Atal Bihari 45. What is the key to growing India-Israel?
Vajpatyee (A) Religion (B) Trade (D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(B) UPA Govt. led by Dr. Manmohan 50. With which of the following does North-
(C) Defence (D) Politics
Singh 46. What was the consequence of the millitary East region share boundary?
(C) Janata govt. led by Moraraji Desai conflict between China and India in 1962 (A) Taiwan (B) Japan
(D) None of the above over territorial claims? (C) China (D) Mongolia
qq

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Page 28  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-2
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. Who among the following led the Warsaw 9. Which of the following statements related 11. Since when, India and Bhutan are sharing
Pact ? to the Iraq invasion by the US is incorrect ? ties ?
(A) Soviet Union (B) Britain (A) The US lost over 3000 military (A) 1910 (B) 1920
personnel in the war. (C) 1930 (D) 1940
(C) Italy (D) Japan
(B) The invasion was to prevent Iraq 12. The length of border between India and
2. Which of the following countries was not
from developing weapons of mass Bhutan is :
a NATO member ?
destruction.
(A) Czech Republic (A) 105 Km (B) 699 Km
(C) The UN had given consent to invade
(B) Germany (C) 4500 Km (D) 1051 Km
Iraq.
(C) India (D) More than forty other countries were 13. Who among the following spread
(D) France involved in this invasion. Buddhism in Bhutan and cementing
3. Which of the following was the head of 10. What is the name given to the 13 members traditional ties between India and
the Western Alliance ? of the European Union who have adopted Bhutan ?
(A) United States Euro ? (A) Mahavira Swami
(B) Brazil (A) Euro zone (B) Mahatma Buddha
(C) Soviet Union (B) Euro alliance (C) Ashoka
(D) Balkan countries (C) Euro association (D) Guru Padmasambhava
4. Which among the following Is NOT an 14. When were diplomatic relations between
(D) Euro league
Outcome of the disintegration of the Bhutan and India established?
Directions (Q. No. 11 to 15)
U.S.S.R.? (A) 1947 (B) 1971
Read the passage below and answer the
(A) End of the ideological war between following questions. (C) 1968 (D) 1966
the U.S and U.S.S.R India and Bhutan have been sharing ties since 15. When did Bhutan embank on the process
(B) Birth of CTS 1910 when Bhutan became a protectorate of of development?
British India, allowing the British to "guide" (A) 1947 (B) 1968
(C) Change in the balance of power in
its foreign affairs and defence. Besides sharing (C) 1967 (D) 1910
the world order a 699 kilometres border, India and Bhutan
(D) Crises in the Middle East also share deep religious- cultural links. Guru 16. In the political field Pakistan lacks :
5. In which year Gorbachev became Padmasambhava, a Buddhist saint played an (A) Genuine international support for
General Secretary of the Communist influential role in spreading Buddhism and democracy
Party of U.S.S.R.? cementing traditional ties between people in (B) Educated leaders
(A) 1989 (B) 1990 both nations. Diplomatic relations between (C) A strong human rights movement
(C) 1987 (D) 1985 India and Bhutan were established in 1968
(D) A courageous and relatively free
6. Russia took over the U.S.S.R. seat in the with the establishment of a Special Office
press
U.N. in : of India in Thimphu (capital of Bhutan).
Bhutan and India enjoy strong bonds of 17. Nepal was a constitutional monarchy till :
(A) December 1991 friendship based on genuine goodwill, trust and (A) 2006 (B) 2005
(B) November 1989 mutually beneficial cooperation. India provides (C) 2004 (D) 2003
(C) December 1990 significant assistance to Bhutan's socio- 18. In East Pakistan the popular struggle
(D) October 1992 economic development, which have grown against West Pakistan domination was
7. The root of the word 'hegemony' lies in : substantially since 1961 when Bhutan em- led by :
barked on the process of planned development. (A) General Yahya Khan
(A) Greek (B) Spanish Example, Cooperation in the development (B) Sheikh Mujib Mohammed
(C) French (D) Latin of the hydropower sector in Bhutan is the (C) Sheikh Mujib Ur Rahman
8. Who among the following launched the centrepiece of the mutually beneficial economic (D) Sheikh Mujib Ali Rahman
Operation Enduring Freedom ? cooperation between Bhutan and India. Today, 19. Global Commons include :
(A) Donald Trump India is Bhutan's largest and most important
(A) The Earth's Atmosphere
trading partner both as a source and market for
(B) George W. Bush (B) Antarctica
its trading goods and commerce . Examples
(C) Bill Clinton electricity, dolomite, ferrosilicon, and semi- (C) Ocean Floor
(D) Barack Obama finished products. (D) All of the above

Mock Paper- 2 Page 29

20. Which of the following are those 29. India and Israel established diplomatic 37. Which of the following is not a cause of
environmental concerns which have relations on : unrest in Jammu and Kashmir ?
become the issues of Global Politics ? (A) 31 May, 1991 (A) Claims by Tibet
(A) Non-expansion of cultivatable area, (B) 31 January, 1991 (B) Article 370
(B) Scarcity of safe drinking water (C) 29 January, 1992
(C) Violence by militants
(C) Global Warming (D) 26 January, 1992
30. Bandung Conference was held in : (D) separatist movements
(D) All of the above 38. Who among the following was never a
(A) 1955 (B) 1956
21. The Treaty of Friendship and Cooperation (C) 1957 (C) 1958 Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir ?
signed between India and Bhutam was 31. Consider the following statements abot (A) Rajiv Gandhi
revised in : the NDC. (B) Sheikh Abdullah
(A) 2005 (B) 2006 I. It prescribes guidelines for the
(C) Farooq Abdullah
(C) 2007 (D) 2008 formulation of national plan.
II. It considers the national plan (D) Omar Abdullah
22. The 1965 Indo-Pak War broke out over
formulated by the NITI Aayog. 39. The Assam Movement or the Assam
the issue of : Agitation was held in :
III. It makes the assessment of the
(A) Kashmir resources. (A) 1970-980 (B) 1979-1985
(B) Arunachal Pradesh IV. It suggest measures to augment the (C) 1980-1982 (D) 1990-1992
(C) Both (A) and (B) resources.
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) Choose the correct answer from the 40. Who among the following were the
options given below : signatories of Assam Accord ?
23. Janata party splitted because :
(A) I, II, III and IV (B) I, II and III (A) leaders of AASU-AAGSP
(A) there was a lack of direction,
leadership, common Ideology and (C) II, III and IV (D) I, II and IV (B) Government of India under Rajiv
programme 32. Which of the following is not correctly Gandhi
matched ?
(B) It could not bring a fundamental (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) First Five Year Plan: 1951-56
change in its policies (D) Neither (A) Nor (B)
(B) Second Five Year Plan: 1956-61
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Third Five Year Plan: 1961-66 41. The fundamental aspect of the Assam
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) (D) Fourth Five Year Plan: 1967-1972 Accord was: foreigners who came to
24. Which decade is known as the "Dangerous
33. Which of the following is not correct about Assam on or after _______ shall continue
Decade"?
environmental movements ? to be detected; deleted and practical steps
(A) 1940s (B) 1960s (A) These raise new ideas. shall be taken to expel such foreigners.
(C) 1950s (D) 1970s (B) These provide long term vision.
25. In which year was the Operation Blue Star (C) These are not diverse in nature. (A) August 25, 1971
launched ? (D) None of the above (B) February 25, 1971
(A) 1983 (B) 1984 34. Which of the following is true regarding (C) May 25, 1971
(C) 1985 (D) 1986 according to the Human Development (D) March 25, 1971
Report 2006 of the United Nations
26. Who among the following helped in 42. Given below are two statements marked
Development Programme ?
getting statehood to Mizoram ? (A) In developing countries, around 663 as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(A) Laldenga million people had no access to safe
Assertion (A) : While globalisation is not

(B) Angami Zaphu Phizo water.
(B) 2.4 billion people had no access to caused by any single factor, technology
(C) Nehru remains a critical element.
sanitation.
(D) Indira Gandhi (C) Both (A) and (B) Reason (R) : The ability of ideas, capital,
27. Under which of the following article was (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
commodities and people to move more
the state of Jammu and Kashmir given the 35. From which of the following threats, an easily from one part of the world to
autonomy ? individual must be protected ?
another has been made possible largely
(A) Article 371 (B) Article 375 (A) Global Warming
(B) AIDS by technological advancement.
(C) Article 370 (D) Article 150 Choose the correct answer from the
(C) Health Epidemics
28. Which of the following is true about the
(D) All of the above options given below :
Nuclear Policy of India ? 36. Which of the following is not one of the (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is
(A) It supported the use of atomic energy dangers faced by the people of the Third
for peaceful purposes. the correct explanation of (A).
World ?
(B) It refused to sign CTBT. (A) Poverty (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
(C) It supported the complete elimination (B) Hunger the correct explanation of (A).
of nuclear weapons. (C) Health Hazards (C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(D) All of the above (D) Human Rights (D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

Page 30  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 43. What is the cartoonist trying to show in 46. The flow of resources through loans or 50. Match List-I with List-II.
this picture? business investments among the countries
List-I List-II
is known as :
(1) Syndicate I. 
Leader of ‘Congress
(A) Trade Flow for Democracy
(B) Labour Flow An elected repre-
(C) Capital Flow sentative leaving
(D) None of the above the party on whose
47. The reduction in cultural diversity through ticket he has been
elected
(A) Water scarcity the popularization and diffusion of a wide
array of cultural symbols like customs, (2) Defection II. 
A group of powerful
(B) Global warming and influential
ideas and values is known as :
(C) Global poverty leaders within the
(A) Political Homogenisation
(D) Environmental degradation congress
(B) Cultural Homogenisation
44. On 12 June, 1975, Indira Gandhi's (3) Slogan III. P a r t i e s w i t h
(C) Economic Homogenisation different ideological
election to the Lok Sabha was declared
invalid by Justice J.L. Sinha from which (D) None of the above positions coming
following High Court. 48. What was the protest at World Trade together to oppose
(A) Delhi (B) Kolkata Organisation Ministerial Meeting , 1999? Congress and its
(A) Unfair trade practices by the policies
(C) Allahabad (D) Bombay
45. Which of the following can be regarded economically powerful states (4) Anti- IV. A catchy phrase
as the consequence of Globalisation ? (B) Deteriorating cultural practices Congress that attracts public
attention
(A) An erosion of powers of the state. (C) The decreasing job opportunities by
developed nations Choose the correct answer from the
(B) It does not always reduce state
capacity. (D) The threat of pandemic options given below :
(C) It involves greater economic flows (A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III
49. First World Social Forum Meeting was
among different countries of the convened in : (B) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II
world. (C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I
(A) 2001 (B) 2002
(D) All of the above
(C) 2003 (C) 2004 (D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV
qq

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Mock Paper- 2 Page 31

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-3
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. The island country that received both 8. What is the name of the operation then President of Bangladesh was overthrown
diplomatic and financial aid from the launched to retaliate Al Qaeda's bombings by people and democracy was established in
Soviet Union was : of US embassies in Nairobi, Kenya and 1991. Since then Bangladesh is a democratic
(A) Japan (B) Cuba Dar-es-Salaam ? nation.
(C) Sri Lanka (D) Norway (A) Operation Desert Reach 11. Until when was Bangladesh a part of
2. By which name the rivalry between USA Pakistan ?
(B) Operation Desert Strom
& USSR during the post-second world (A) 1971 (B) 1972
(C) Operation Infinite Strome
war period is known as ? (C) 1973 (D) 1974
(A) Apartheid (D) Operation Infinite Reach
9. The US Hegemony began in which year? 12. The people of Bangladesh always resented
(B) Cold War
western Pakistan due to :
(C) Policy of Non-Alignment (A) 1993 (B) 1991
(D) Hot war (A) Its domination
(C) 1992 (D) 1990
3. Korea was a colony of : (B) Its policy of imposing Urdu language
10. The European Economic Community was
(A) Japan (B) US on them
formed in 1958 by :
(C) Poland (D) Britain (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) 10 countries (B) 12 countries
4. Which one of the following was NOT (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(C) 5 countries (D) 6 countries
given primacy by the makers of the Soviet 13. Soon after the independence (1947),
Directions (Q. No. 11 to 15)
System ? protests in Bangladesh started for :
Read the passage and answer the question.
(A) Abolition of private property (A) preserving Bangla culture
Bangladesh was a part of Pakistan from 1947
(B) Society based on the principle of (B) Preserving language
to 1971. The people of Bangladesh always
equality (C) fair representation in administration
resented western Pakistan on its domination
(C) No opposition party to be allowed (D) All of the above
and policy of imposing Urdu language on
(D) No state control over the economy
them. Soon after the independence (1947), 14. Who led the unpopular struggle against
5. On which ideology was the Soviet
protests in Bangladesh started for preserving West Pakistan?
political system based on ?
Bangla culture and language, fair representation (A) Yahya Khan
(A) Communist (B) Socialist
in administration and fair share in political (B) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
(C) Capitalist (D) Democratic power. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman led the
6. In which year did Mikhail Gorbachev (C) Ershad
unpopular struggle against West Pakistan and (D) Jinnah
introduce the reforms in the USSR ?
eventually, won all the seats in the election of
(A) 1980 (B) 1981 15. When was democracy established in
East Pakistan (now Bangladesh). Mujib soon
(C) 1985 (D) 1982 Bangladesh?
got arrested on the orders of Yahya Khan.
7. This memorable picture of Indian Political Thousands of people were killed by Pakistani (A) 1971 (B) 1990
history reminds us the event of: army resulting in large scale migration of (C) 1991 (D) 1947
these people in India. Considered about huge 16. IPKF stands for :
refugee problem, India got involved in the issue. (A) Indian Peace Keeping Forum
India supported the demand of the freedom of (B) Indian Peace Keeping Force
Bangladesh and provided them with the military (C) Indian Peaceful Knight Foundation
and financial aid. This resulted in the war (D) Indian Peace Keeping Federation
between India and Pakistan in 1971. Pakistani
army surrendered to India and formation of 17. UNDP's 1994 _______ reflected the
(A) Partition of India Bangladesh was successfully completed. Initial concern about human security.
(B) Independence of India political tensions disturbed the Bangladesh for (A) Human Lifetime Report
(C) Nehru’s first speech in United Nation achieving democracy. But soon after people's (B) Human Activity Report
(D) First meeting of constituent assembly support and demand for democracy and their (C) Human Lifespan Report
of India protests brought some fruits for them. Ershad, (D) Human Development Report

Page 32  CUET Supplementary Book | CBSE Students

 18. The concept of security has for too long 26. Given below two statement marked as 34. Who among the following helped India
been interpreted narrowly as being been Assertion (A) and Reason (R). to establish industries during the Second
more related to nation states than : Assertion (A) : Our leaders were Five Year Plan ?
(A) Weapon Development conscious of the critical role of politics (A) US (B) China
(B) Economics in any democracy (C) Soviet Union (D) Israel
(C) People Reason (R) : They did not see politics as
a problem ; they saw it as a way of solving 35. The ASEAN Community comprising
(D) Politicians three pillars, namely :
the problems.
19. Which of the following was a reason that (A) The ASEAN Security Community
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
is responsible for the split in the Congress (B) The ASEAN Economic Community
the correct explanation of (A).
Party in 1969 ? (C) The ASEAN Socio Cultural
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
(A) Rigid attitude of the Syndicate. Community
not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Presidential candidate was announced (D) All of the above
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
by the Syndicate without consulting 36. OEEC was established in :
the Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi. (D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(A) 1946 (B) 1947
(C) Syndicate assumed PM Indira Gandhi 27. Fifth General Elections in India were held
as puppet in its hand which provoked in : (C) 1948 (D) 1949
her to revolt. (A) 1964 (B) 1971 37. When did India become the first non-
(D) All of the above (C) 1984 (D) 1999 socialist country to establish diplomatic
28. Which of the following was not an effect relations with China ?
20. In how many notions, the concept of
of Globalisation in India ? (A) 1948 (B) 1950
security can be divided ?
(A) More IT professionals got job in (C) 1951 (C) 1952
(A) 01 (B) 02
Silicon Valley. 38. Who was the Indian Prime Minister,
(C) 03 (D) 04
(B) Increased GDP when an agreement on the maintenance
21. How India became an exporter of primary (C) Increased FDI of Peace and Tranquility was signed ?
goods and raw materials and a consumer (D) Local markets were not at all (A) Rajiv Gandhi
of finished goods ? affected. (B) P.V. Narsimha Rao
(A) Because of its riches in agriculture.
29. Which of the following is not a component (C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(B) During the Mughal period, its of worldwide interconnectedness ?
exports increased. (C) None of the above
(A) Capital Flow 39. How many countries were instrumental
(C) As a consequence of Britain's
(B) Trade Flow in establishing the ASEAN ?
imperial ambitions its exports
(C) Cultural Flow (A) 02 (B) 03
started.
(D) Labour Flow (C) 04 (D) 05
(D) None of the above
30. Which of the following was not a
22. Whom would you like to identify the consequence of the ethnic conflict in Sri 40. ASEAN was established by signing :
slogan 'Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan' with ? Lanka ? (A) Rio Declaration
(A) Indira Gandhi (A) Violent clashes between the Army (B) Bangkok Declaration
(B) Syndicate and the LTTE (C) Shimla Accord
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri (B) Indian negotiations with Sri Lanka (D) None of the above
(C) Nehru (C) Movement of IPKF to Sri Lanka
(D) Friendship and loyalty of Tamil 41. The objectives of ASEAN were primarily
23. Which of the following explains that to accelerate economic growth through :
people was earned.
Indira Gandhi had inclination towards
31. In which year, did the King of Nepal (A) Social Progress
socialism ?
accepted the demand for a new Democratic (B) Cultural Development
(A) Nationalisation of Banks Constitution ? (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Introduction of Ten Point Program (A) 1950 (B) 1990 (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) 1995 (D) 1980
(C) Neither (A) nor (B) 32. What was the duration of IPKF operation 42. ASEAN aims to promote regional peace
24. First President to die in the office was : in Sri Lanka ? and stability based on :
(A) Zakir Hussain (A) 1980-85 (B) 1980-82 (A) the rule of law
(B) S. Nijalingappa (C) 1987-90 (D) 1990-95 (B) the principles of the United Nations
(C) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan 33. The negative aspect between India- Charter
(D) None of the above Bangladesh relation can be attributed (C) Both (A) and (B)
25. Why Shastri resigned from the position to : (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
of Railway Minister ? (A) Dispute over the sharing of Ganga 43. The first military rule in Pakistan was
and Brahmaputra river waters. established under :
(A) He was not willing to serve
(B) The illegal migration of Bangladesh (A) General Ayub Khan
(B) He lost elections is in India.
(C) Accepting moral responsibility for (C) Opposite ideology of Islamic (B) General Yahya Khan
railway accident Fundamentalist Groups. (C) Gen Zia-ul-Haq
(D) He was asked by Nehru (D) All of these (D) General Parvez Musharraf

Mock Paper- 3 Page 33

 44. Which of the following princely states did II. Jammu and Kashmir comprises three List-I List-II
not join the Indian union after the Indian social and political regions. Jammu,
Kashmir and Ladakh. (4) Verghese IV. Industrialisation
Independence ?
III. Before 1947, Jammu and Kashmir Kurien
(A) Manipur (B) Junagarh
was a Princely State. Choose the correct answer from the
(C) Kashmir (D) All of these
IV. In October 1947, Pakistan sent tribal options given below :
45. Which of the following events did leave infiltrators from its side to capture
a long-lasting impact on Indian politics ? Kashmir. (A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III
(A) The defeat of the Congress party in V. Due to infiltration, Raja Hari Singh (B) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II
the elections held in 1989. sought Indian help. (C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I
(B) Mandal Issue Which of the above statements are (D) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
correct ?
(C) Babri Masjid Demolition 49. Bharatiya Kisan Union was an association
(A) I, II and III Only
(D) All of the above of the farmers of :
(B) I, II , III, IV and V
46. In which year did the National Conference (C) III, IV and V Only (A) Uttar Pradesh and Haryana
government was replaced by the PDP (D) II, III and IV Only (B) Rajasthan and Haryana
government in Jammu and Kashmir ? 48. Match List-I with List-II. (C) Delhi and Haryana
(A) 2000 (B) 2001
List-I List-II (D) None of the above
(C) 2002 (D) 2003
(1) Charan Singh I. 
Zoning 50. Chipko Movement in Uttarakhand started
47. Consider the following statements.
(2) P.C. II. 
Milk in :
I. The ‘Kashmir issue’ is always seen
Mahalanobis Cooperatives (A) 1971 (B) 1972
as a major issue between India and
Pakistan. (3) Bihar Famine III. Farmers (C) 1973 (D) 1974
qq

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Mock Papers

Page 34  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-4
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. In which country are the cities of 9. In which year did the Kosovo crisis 15. In which year did India defeat Pakistan
Hiroshima and Nagasaki located ? occur ? under the leadership of Shastri ji?
(A) China (B) Japan (A) 1997 (B) 1996 (A) 1965 (B) 1971
(C) France (D) Italy (C) 1966 (D) 1962
(C) 1998 (D) 1999
2. When USSR placed nuclear missiles in 16. India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto
Cuba ? 10. When China became member of WTO ?
Protocol in :
(A) 1960 (B) 1961 (A) 1991 (B) 1998
(A) August, 2002
(C) 1962 (D) 1963 (C) 2001 (D) 2005 (B) August, 2004
3. What is the full form of ‘SEATO’? Directions (Q. No. 11 to 15) (C) August, 2006
(A) South East Asian Task Organisation Read the passage and answer the question.
(D) August, 2008
(B) South East Asian Treaty Organisation Lal Bahadur Shastri was unopposed and
(C) South East Asian Tally Organisation unanimously chosen as the leader of the 17. Given below are two statement marked
(D) South East Asian Team Organisation Congress Parliamentary Party. He became the as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
4. Which of the following event symbolised second Prime Minister of India (1964-1966). Assertion (A) : It was not just the size
the end of Cold War ? Prior to becoming Prime Minster, he was a of the country and the electorate that
cabinet member for many years and belonged to made this election unusual. The first
(A) Construction of Berlin War
the state of Uttar Pradesh. India faced the after general election was also the first big
(B) Fall of Berlin War test of democracy in a poor and illiterate
(C) Collapse of USSR effects of the economic crisis that arose during
country.
the Sino-Indian War of 1962. India defeated
(D) None of the above Reason (R) : At that time , there were 17
Pakistan under his courageous leadership in
5. In which year did the Socialist revolution crores eligible voters , who had to elect
take place ? 1965. His tenure also witnessed many droughts
about 3,200 MLAs and 489 Members
and famines making the lives of the farmers
(A) 1917 (B) 1920 of Lok Sabha. Yet, the elections were
miserable. This led to the criticism of his slogan conducted successfully.
(C) 1925 (D) 1930
'Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan' as the problems of the
6. The collapse of ________ is known as the (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
farmers remained unsolved. He passed away the correct explanation of (A).
collapse of ‘Second World’.
in January 1966 during his visit to Tashkent
(A) USA (B) Japan (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
(erstwhile USSR) to sign peace treaty with not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) Korea (D) USSR Pakistan.
7. In which of the following cities did an (C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
11. Lal Bahadur Shastri was the Prime
airline crash NOT occur on 9/11 ? Minister of India from : (D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
(A) New York (B) Arlington 18. Which of the following security challenges
(A) 1960-1964 (B) 1964-1966
were faced by the newly independent
(C) Washington (D) Pennsylvania (C) 1966-1967 (D) 1967-1969 countries of Asia and Africa ?
8. In the picture shown below, the old lady 12. India defeated Pakistan in the war of 1965. (A) Military conflict with neighbouring
is using …………….. to cast her vote. Who was the Prime Minister of India countries
during this war ? (B) Internal conflicts
(A) Lal Bahadur Shastri (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(C) Indira Gandhi 19. The sources of threats to security are :
(D) None of the above (A) Terrorism
13. Where did Lal Bahadur Shastri pass away (B) Global Poverty
in 1966 ? (C) Health Epidemics
(A) Serbia (B) Pakistan (D) All of the above
(C) Tashkent (D) Mosco 20. The Grand Alliance was a :
14. Why did Lal Bahadur Shastri go to (A) Combination of all non-Congress
Tashkent in 1966? parties
(A) Magnetic Voting Machine (A) To sign peace treaty with Pakistan (B) Political and ideological programme
(B) Electronic Voting Machine (B) To sign peace treaty with Bangladesh (C) Combination of Non-Communist
(C) Electric Voting Machine (C) To sign peace treaty with China Non-Congress parties
(D) None of the above (D) To sign peace treaty with USSR (D) None of the above

Mock Paper- 4 Page 35

21. Who among the following founded the (C) Voluntary service by devotees of Which of the above mentioned statements
Congress Socialist Party ? SGPC is correct ?
(A) C. Natarajan Amadurai (D) None of the above (A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV
(B) Ram Manohar Lohia 30. Which of the following parties dominated (C) I, II and IV (D) I, II, III and IV
(C) K. Kamraj in the first three general elections (1952- 35. What do you mean by Qualitative Gap ?
1962) ?
(D) S. Nijalingappa (A) US superiority in technology
(A) Janata Party (B) Soviet superiority in technology
22. Which of the following was not a
(B) Congress (C) Indian superiority in technology
constituent of Janata Party ?
(C) Bahujan Samaj Party (D) None of the above
(A) Jan Sangh
(C) Jana Sangh 36. The naval power of hegemony that
(B) Bharatiya Lok Dal
31. Consider the following statements. underwrites the law of the sea and ensures
(C) Samajwadi Party
I. Enabling newly decolonized freedom of navigation in international
(D) Bahujan Samaj Party
countries to pursue independent waters is known as :
23. Who was the president of Janata Party in policies.
1977 ? (A) Qualitative Gap
II. Not to joining any military alliances.
(A) Chandra Shekhar (B) Sea Lanes of Communication
III. Following a policy of neutrality on
(B) Ram Manohar Lohia (C) Manufacturing Consent
global issues.
(C) Jai Prakash Narayan (D) None of the above
Which of the above mentioned statements
(D) None of the above does (do) not reflect the objectives of 37. Which of the following was established as
24. For the acceptance of which of the NAM ? an alternative to the Bandung Conference
following demands, the BKU pressurised (A) Only I (B) Only II and the Non-Aligned Movement ?
the state in early 1990s ? (A) ASEAN (B) SEATO
(C) Only III (D) I, II and III
(A) Social Demands (C) NATO (C) UNESCO
32. Which of the following factors culminated
(B) Economic Demands into the formation of NAM ? 38. By which year, China has been projected
(C) Political Demands (A) Cooperation among these five to overtake the US as the world’s largest
(D) Cultural Demands countries economy ?
25. Which of the following organisation was (B) Growing Cold War tensions and its (A) 2025 (B) 2030
established in 1990 in Rajasthan ?
widening arenas (C) 2040 (D) 2050
(A) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan
(C) The dramatic entry of many newly 39. India and China were great powers in
(B) Bharatiya Kisan Union decolonised African countries into before the advent of :
(C) Dalit Panthers the inter national arena (A) Eastern imperialism
(D) None of the above (D) All of the above (B) Western imperialism
26. Which of the following state is one of the (C) Northern imperialism
"Seven Sisters" ? 33. Consider the following statements and
choose one which is not correct about the (D) Southern imperialism
(A) Haryana
nature of Soviet economy ? 40. Which of the following was one of the
(B) Bihar
(A) People had economic freedom consequences of the conflict of 1962 ?
(C) Himachal Pradesh (B) Socialism was the dominant (A) India suffered heavy military
(D) Tripura ideology reverses.
27. Which of the following was the leader of (C) The factors of production were (B) Indo-China relations had long term
SGPC ? under state control repercussions.
(A) Master Tara Singh (D) Every aspect of the economy was (C) Diplomatic relations between the
(B) Ram Manohar Lohia under state control two countries were downgraded
34. Consider the following statements about until 1976.
(C) Jai Prakash Narayan
"Shock Therapy". (D) All of the above
(D) Giani Jail Singh
28. During eighties, which of the following I. The dissolution of the USSR was 41. Whose visit to China provided the impetus
was one of those events that made long correlated with the downfall of for an improvement in Indo-China
lasting impact on indian politics ? communism in the countries which relations ?
(A) Defeat of Congress Party were members of the socialist bloc. (A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Mandal Issue II. Post-Soviet countries underwent (B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Economic Policies followed by a process of transition from an (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
different governments authoritarian socialist system to a (D) Rajiv Gandhi
(D) All of the above democratic capitalist system. 42. Who among the following came with the
29. What do mean by "Karseva" ? III. This model of transition came to be slogan "Indira Hatao"?
(A) Voluntary service by devotees of called ‘Shock Therapy’. (A) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Babri Masjid IV. It was facilitated by the World (B) The Grand Alliance
(B) Voluntary service by devotees for Bank and IMF, the Bretton Woods (C) Smt. Indira Gandhi
building Ram Temple in Ayodhya institutions. (D) Rajiv Gandhi

Page 36  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 43. The first Non-aligned Summit was held 47. Which of the following parties is (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
in : associated with the term "One Party the correct explanation of (A).
(A) 1961 (B) 1964 Dominance" ? (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
(C) 1970 (D) 1973 (A) Bharatiya Janata Party not the correct explanation of (A).
44. Who among the following stated that, (B) Communist Party of India (C) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
“The foreign policy of a country is the (C) Indian national Congress (D) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
outcome of her economic policy”? (D) None of the above 50. Match List-I with List-II :
(A) Rajiv Gandhi 48. In 1952, the general elections and List-I
(B) Indira Gandhi the elections for were conducted (1) Mapping of boundaries of religious
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru simultaneously. grounds
(D) Lal Bahadur Shastri (A) Rajya Sabha (2) Mapping of boundaries on grounds
45. Which of the following ideas was one (B) State Assemblies of a different language
of the parts of the early phase of India’s (C) The President of India (3) Demarcating boundaries within a
development policy?
(D) The Prime Minister country by geographical zones
(A) Cooperative Farming
49. Given below are two statement marked (4) Demarcating within a country on
(B) Planning
as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). administrative and political grounds
(C) Self-sufficiency
List-II
(D) All of the above Assertion (A) : In 1991, responding to

I. India and Pakistan
46. Which of these statements about the a financial crisis and to the desire for
II. Pakistan and Bangladesh
Bombay Plan is incorrect ? higher rates of economic growth, India
III. Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand
(A) It supported strongly the idea of embarked on a programme of economic
IV. Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh
plànning. reforms that has sought increasingly to
de-regulate various sectors including Choose the correct answer from the
(B) It was a blueprint for India’s
trade and foreign investment. options given below :
economic future.
(A) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
(C) It supported state ownership of Reason (R) : This deregulation opened

industry. up the new opportunities of local as (B) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV
(D) It was made by some leading well as foreign trade. Hence, the hope of (C) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
industrialists. creating new employment opportunities. (D) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
qq

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Mock Paper- 4 Page 37

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-5
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. What is the full form of ‘CENTO’? 9. Which of the following statements are 11. Who among the following played a crucial
(A) The Central Task Organisation incorrect about the contemporary world in setting national agenda ?
(B) The Central Treaty Organisation order? (A) Indira Gandhi
(C) The Central Tally Organisation (A) There is an absence of a world
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
government, which could regulate
(D) The Central Team Organisation (C) Rajiv Gandhi
the state’s behaviour.
2. Which two ideologies were involved in a (D) Lal Bahadur Shastri
conflict during the Cold War era ? (B) The U.S. is the predominant player
(A) Communism and Capitalism in world affairs. 12. During which period, did Nehru
(B) Monarchism and Capitalism (C) States are using force against one profoundly influenced the formulation
(C) Communalism and Capitalism another. of Indian Foreign Policy ?
(D) None of the above (D) States which violate international
(A) 1947-64 (B) 1950-55
3. Which one of the following is an law, are severely punished by the
U.N. (C) 1960-64 (D) 1955-60
agreement signed between the two
superpowers starting in the 1960s ? 10. Who among the following adopted the 13. The three major objectives of Nehru's
(A) Berlin Pact ‘Open door’ policy ? foreign policy were :
(B) Limited Test Ban Treaty (A) China (B) E.U. (A) To preserve the hard earned
(C) Moscow Agreement (C) Japan (D) U.S.A. sovereignty.
(D) Warsaw Pact Directions (Q. No. 11 to 15) (B) To protect territorial integrity.
4. Warsaw Pact was disbanded on ______. Read the passage and answer the question.
(C) To p r o m o t e r a p i d e c o n o m i c
(A) July 1, 1991 (B) July 1, 1993 The first Prime Minister of India, Pt. Jawaharlal
development
(C) July 1, 1995 (D) July 1, 1998 Nehru, played a crucial role in setting the
5. When did the U.S.S.R. come into being ? national agenda. He was also the Foreign (D) All of these
(A) after the Fall of Berlin Wall Minister. He exercised profound influence in 14. Consider the following statements about
(B) after the end of Cold War the formulation and implementation of India's Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru:
(C) after the October Revolution of foreign policy from 1947 to 1964. The three I. He was the Foreign Minister
1917 major objectives of Nehru's foreign policy II. He implemented the foreign policy
(D) None of the above were to preserve the hard earned sovereignty, from 1947 to 1965.
6. Gorbachev became General Secretary of protect territorial integrity and promote rapid III. He wished to achieve the objectives
the Communist Party of U.S.S.R. in : economic development. Nehru wished to of Foreign policy through the strategy
(A) 1991 (B) 1975 achieve these objectives through the strategy of non-violence.
(C) 1980 (D) 1985 of non-alignment. Lal Bahadur Shastri equally Choose the statement which is incorrect
7. The US shares ___% of the world emphasised the need to follow genuine non about the NITI Aayog :
economy. - alignment . He gave a slogan of 'Jai Jawan - (A) Only I (B) Only II
(A) 28 (B) 30 Jai Kisan' during 1965 war with Pakistan and (C) Only III (D) Only I and II
(C) 20 (D) 25 during the problem of severe food shortage
15. Which of the following statements are
8. Which among the following statements in India. With the changing national interest,
correct ?
about hegemony is incorrect ? Indira Gandhi brought a revolutionary change
I. Indira Gandhi signed the treaty of
(A) The word implies the leadership or in Indian foreign policy. She signed a Treaty
Peace and Friendship in 1947.
predominance of one state. of Peace & Friendship in 1971 with Soviet
Union. It was signed in the backdrop of crisis II. Lal Bahadur Shastri gave the slogan
(B) It was used to denote the
in East Pakistan and the threat that India faced of 'Jai Jawan- Jai Kisan'.
predominance of Athena in ancient
from the then emerging nexus between US III. The Treaty of Peace & Friendship in
Greece.
China-Pakistan. Since then, the tilt towards 1971 was signed with Pakistan.
(C) The country has a hegemonic
position will possess unchallenged Soviet Union in Indian foreign policy was Choose the correct answer from the given
military power. quite evident. In spite of this, India technically options.
(D) Hegemonic position is fixed. Once remained non aligned throughout the Cold (A) Only I (B) Only II
a hegemon. always a hegemon. War period. (C) Only III (D) All of these

Page 38  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 16. Public sectors help in : 22. Which of the following statements are not 28. Truman ignored his advisors and officially
(A) Capital Formation correct ? recognize Israel as a new and independent
I. The first democratic elections to nation in 1948 because :
(B) Balanced Employment Generation
Sikkim assembly were held in 1967. (A) He wanted Jewish-American votes
(C) Development across the regions
II. The first democratic elections (B) The American public sympathized
(D) All of the above
to Sikkim were won by Sikkim with Jews after the Holocaust
17. Which of the following is correct about Congress. (C) He wanted to keep the USSR out of
the criticism of India's Non-Alignment Israel
III. The assembly first sought the status
Policy ? (D) All of the above
of 'associate state'.
(A) India was against signing any
friendship treaty with the US. IV. In April 1975 assembly passed a 29. Who among the following was in power
resolution asking for full integration in 1992 ?
(B) India's policy was unprincipled in the
name of pursuing national interests. with India. (A) V.P Singh
(C) Both (A) and (B) V. The Indian Parliament accepted this (B) PV Narasimha Rao
request immediately and Sikkim (C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
became the 25th State of the Indian (D) Chandra Shekhar
18. Match List-I with List-II.
union. 30. Hindutva refers to :
List-I
(1) DMK was formed Choose the correct answer from the
(A) Complete Brotherhood
options given below :
(2) Fourth General Elections were held (B) Hinduism
(3) V.V. Giri served as the President of (A) Only I and IV
(C) One State
India (B) Only II and III
(C) None of the above
(4) Fifth General Elections were held (C) Only III and IV
31. When was the Anandpur Sahib Resolution
List-II (D) Only I and V was passed at the conference of Akali
(I) 1967 23. Which of the following organisations Dal ?
(II) 1949 started movement against the outsiders? (A) 1972 (B) 1973
(III) 1971 (A) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (C) 1974 (D) 1975
(IV) 1969-74 (MKSS) 32. Anti-Arrack Movement was associated
Choose the correct answer from the (B) Bharatiya KIsan Union (BKU) with the ban on the :
options given below : (C) Assam Student's Union (AASU) (A) sale of alcohol
(A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III (D) All of the above (B) construction of dam
(B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-III 24. A political Party can resolve its internal (C) practice of untouchability
(C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I differences through : (D) falling of trees
(D) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV (A) Following the foot steps of Party
19. After the 1967 General Elections, the 33. Which of these statements are correct
President
breakaway Congress legislators played an regarding the Chipko Movement ?
(B) Listening to the Majority group
important role in installing non-Congress (A) It was an environmental movement
(C) Secret Ballot Voting on every issue to prevent cutting down of trees.
governments in :
(A) Haryana (D) All of the above (B) It raised questions of ecological and
25. Which of these statements about the 1967 economic exploitation.
(B) Madhya Pradesh
elections is/are correct ? (C) It demanded that local communities
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(A) Congress won the Lok Sabha should have control over their
(D) All of the above
elections but lost the Assembly natural resources.
20. What did Indira Gandhi want to achieve elections in many states. (D) All of the above
through Ten Point Program ? (B) Congress lost majority in the
(A) She wanted to show her as Pro-Poor. 34. Identify the name of the union to which
Lok Sabha but formed a coalition this given flag belongs.
(B) She wanted to sideline the syndicate. government with the support of
(C) She wanted to regain the ground lost some other parties.
in 1967. (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) All of the above (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
21. Which of the following can be considered 26. In which year, did the Government of
as the advantage of democratic approach India created the State Food Trading
to diversity ? Corporation ?
(A) It allows parties and groups to (A) 1965 (B) 1966 (A) SAARC (B) ASEAN
address the people on the basis of (C) 1967 (D) 1968 (C) BRICS (D) UN
their regional identity.
27. The agreement signed between the two 35. Match List-I with List-II.
(B) It strengthens the regional
superpowers starting in the 1960s was : List-I
aspirations.
(C) Regional problems and issues (A) Berlin Pact (I) J.P. Narayan
receive adequate attention and (B) Limited Test Ban Treaty (2) Morarji Desai
accommodation. (C) Moscow Agreement (3) Ch. Charan Singh
(D) All of the above (D) Warsaw Pact (4) Jagjiwan Ram

Mock Paper- 5 Page 39

 List-II 41. In which year did Bangladesh came into was necessary to control the deteriorating
(I) Leader of ‘Congress for Democracy’ existence ? condition of the country politics.
(II) Remained Prime Minister for four (A) 1970 (B) 1971 Reason (R) : The Communist Party
months only (C) 1972 (D) 1973 of India supported Emergency due
to international interference by using
(III) First prime minister belonged to 42. Match List-I with List-II. students as weapons for destroying
non-congress List-I democracy of the country , such bans on
(IV) Call for ‘Total Revolution’ (I) The goal of India’s foreign policy in protest to some extent were necessary .
Choose the correct answer from the the period 1950-1964
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is
options given below : (2) Panchsheel
the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Bandung Conference
(A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is
(4) Dalai Lama
(B) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II not the correct explanation of (A).
List-II
(C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I (I) Preservation of territorial integrity, (C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV sovereignty, and economic (D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
36. Which of the following is a negative development 47. Which of the following statement is
aspects of India's relations with (II) Led to the establishment of NAM correct about the emergency of 1975?
Bangladesh : (III) Five principles of peaceful (A) Emergency was declared in 1975 by
coexistence Indira Gandhi.
(A) Illegal migration of Bangladeshis in
(IV) Tibetan spiritual leader who crossed (B) All the fundamental rights were
the states of India.
over to India suspended.
(B) Dispute over sharing of the Ganga Choose the correct answer from the
and Brahmaputra river waters. (C) Many opposition leaders were arrested
options given below :
during the Emergency.
(C) Bangladeshi government has felt (A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III
Indian government as regional bully. (B) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II (D) All of the above
(C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I 48. Which Congress is referred as to "New
(C) All of the above Congress"?
37. ______ is that country in Central Asia, (D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV
43. Which of the following organisations (A) Congress of Rajiv Gandhi
which witnessed a civil war that went on
started Jan Sunwais in 1994 and 1996? (B) Congress of Indira Gandhi
for ten years.
(A) Bharatiya Kisan Union (C) Congress of Nehru
(A) Uzbekistan (B) Turkmenistan
(B) National Council for People's Rights (D) Congress of Rahul Gandhi
(C) Azerbaijan (C) Tajikistan (C) Dalit Panthers 49. Which of the following is correct about
38. When did Rajiv Gandhi join active (D) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan
politics after : 44. Which of the following is not correctly the socio-economic conditions during the
(A) 1978 (B) 1979 matched ? Fourth general elections ?
(A) Minoo Masani- Swatantra Party (A) Successive failure of monsoons
(C) 1980 (C) 1981
(B) Ashoka Mehta- Praj Social Party (B) Widespread drought and decline in
39. When was "Operation Vijay" conducted ? agricultural production
(C) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee- Congress
(A) 1997 (B) 1998 (D) S.A. Dange- Communist Party of (C) Serious food shortages and depletion
(C) 1999 (D) 2000 India of foreign exchange reserves
45. When was Article 370 removed from the
40. The bone of contention between India and (D) All of the above
Indian Constitution ?
Pakistan is : 50. Who was the official Congress Candidate
(A) 2020 (B) 2019
(A) Issue of control of the Siachen in the elections of 1969 ?
(C) 2018 (D) 2017
glacier (A) Indira Gandhi
46. Given below are two statements marked
(B) Issue of sharing of river waters as Assertion (A) and reason (R). (B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Both (A) and (B) Assertion (A) : According to few of the (C) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) political parties in India , the emergency (D) None of the above
qq

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Page 40  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)
OFFICIAL PAPER
31st May 2023, Slot-1
SOLVED

General Instructions:
•• For every correct answer, 5 marks will be awarded.
•• 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
•• 40 Questions to be attempted out of 50.

Time Allowed: 45 Minutes Maximum Marks: 200 Marks

1. Identify the correct statement. 5. Arrange the following in a chronological 9. Match List-I with List-II.
I. By the 1930s, the Congress had order:
List-I List-II
accepted that Hindustani ought to I. Santhal Rebellion
be the national language. 1. Agha I. Wives who
II. Permanent Settlement in Bengal came from
II. Durgabai wanted Hindi to be III. Regulating Act royal families
declared as national language. IV. Ryot Rebellion in Deccan 2. Begum II. Concubine
III. Mahatma Gandhi retained his V. First Revenue Settlement in
faith in the composite character 3. Aghacha III. Slave Eunuchs
Bombay Deccan
Hindustani. 4. Khwajasara IV. Other wives
Choose the correct answer from the who were not
IV. Each province was to be allowed to
option given below: of noble birth
choose one of the regional language
(A) III, II, V, I, IV Choose the correct answer from the
for official work within the region.
(B) II, III, IV, V, I options given below:
V. R.V. Dhulekar was against
Hindi be used as the language in (C) III, II, I, V, IV (A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
Constitution making. (D) II, I, V, IV, III (B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II
Choose the correct answer from the 6. What does a ‘Stupa’ represent as a
options given below: (D) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II
symbol of worship in sculpture?
(A) I, III, IV only (B) I, IV, V only 10. Archaeologists have classified some of
(A) Birth of Budha
(C) II, IV, I only (D) II, I, III only the artefacts discovered from Harappan
(B) Enlightenment site as luxuries, these were rare or made
2. What is the term used in 'Ain-i-Akbari' (C) Mahaparinibbana from costly, non-local materials or with
to describe land that has been lain (D) First Sermon complicated technologies. ‘Faience’ was
fallow for three or four years? a luxurious material used to make:
7. At burials in Harappan sites the dead (A) Precious ornaments
(A) Parauti (B) Chachar
were generally laid in pits. Which of the (B) Religious sculpture
(C) Banjar (D) Polaj following item has not been found in the (C) Little pots
3. After which officer were the sculptural excavations of the graves at Harappa? (D) Unique agricultural tools
panels of Amravati Stupa named? (A) Micro beads and pottery 11. Arrange the establishment of the
(A) Colin Mackenzie (B) Copper mirrors European companies in a chronological
(B) H. H. Cole (C) Shell rings and beads order.
(C) Walter Elliot (D) Pile of gold coins I. French in Pondicherry
II. British in Bombay
(D) Alexander Cunningham
8. “Hindustani should be neither III. Dutch in Masulipatnam
4. Who amongst the following made an Sanskritised Hindi or Persianised Urdu IV. British in Madras
attempt to modernize the equipment of but a happy combination of both.” To V. Portuguese in Panaji
the army? whom is this statement attributed? Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(A) Henry Hardinge (A) Mahatma Gandhi
(A) V, III, II, IV, I
(B) Henry Lawrence (B) Jawahar Lal Nehru (B) V, III, IV, II, I
(C) Henry Havelock (C) R. V. Dhulekar (C) V, IV, III, I, II
(D) Thomas J. Barker (D) Govind Ballabh Pant (D) II, I, IV, III, V

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 43

12. Arrange the following major 16. Match List-I with List-II. 23. Which of the following is NOT correct
developments in Harappan archaeology of the Ryotwari Settlement in the
List-I List-II
in a chronological order: Deccan?
1. Shah Mal I. Arrah
I. B.B. Lal begins excavations at (A) Average income from different
Kalibangan. 2. Kunwar Singh II. Kanpur types of soil was estimated.
II. Report of Alexander Cunningham 3. Nana Sahib III. Lucknow (B) Revenue paying capacity of ryot
on Harappan Seal. 4. Birjis Qadr IV. Barout was assessed.
III. R.E.M. Wheeler excavates at (C) A proportion of the revenue was
Harappa. Choose the correct answer from the fixed as share of the state.
options given below:
IV. S. R. Rao begins excavations at Lothal. (D) The amount of revenue demanded
(A) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
V. M.S. Vats begins excavations at was permanently fixed.
(B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
Harappa.
(C) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I 24. Which of the following places is NOT
Choose the correct answer from the
(D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV related to Buddha’s life?
options given below:
(A) Lumbini (B) Bodhgaya
(A) II, III, V, IV, I 17. Who was B. N. Rau?
(C) Mysore (D) Kusinagara
(B) III, II, V, I, IV (A) Lawyer
(C) II, V, III, IV, I (B) Chief Draughtsman 25. Match List-I with List-II.
(D) V, II, III, I, IV (C) Constitutional Advisor
List-I List-II
(D) Cabinet Member
13. Match List-I with List-II. 1. 1947 I. Last meeting of the
18. Who was responsible for proposing a Interim Government
List-I List-II Policy of Pacification in the 1780s after
1. Sutta Pitaka I. Rulers and a period of Brutal Extermination of 2. 1949 II. Cabinet Mission
regulation 1770s? Scheme is presented
of Buddhist (A) Lord Wellesley 3. 1946 III. Constitution is
‘Sangha’ (B) Augustus Cleveland signed
2. Abhidhamma II. The chronicle (C) Francis Buchanan 4. 1945 IV. Labour Government
Pitaka of the island (D) William Hodges in Britain
3. Vinaya III. Philosophical 19. Arrange the following paintings Choose the correct answer from the
Pitaka matters and illustrations related to 1857, options given below:
4. Dipavamsa IV. Buddha’s according to their production date in a
(A) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV
chronological manner.
teachings (B) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV
I. Justice
Choose the correct answer from the (C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
II. In Memorium
options given below: (D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II
(A) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-I, 4-III III. The Clemency of Canning
(B) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV IV. Execution of Mutinous Sepoys 26. The ‘Gajalakshmi’ sculpture is
(C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II Choose the correct answer from the represented as:
(D) 1-I, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-III options given below:
(A) Surrounded by elephants
(A) IV, III, I, II (B) II, I, IV, III
14. Whose teachings are often known as the (B) Surrounded with lions
(C) I, IV, III, II (d) III, IV, I, II
‘Bhagavati dharma’? (C) Surrounded with tigers
(A) Shankaradeva (B) Sundarar 20. The practice of a woman having several (D) Surrounded with two lotus flowers
husbands is known as:
(C) Sambandar (D) Basavanna
(A) Endogamy (B) Exogamy 27. Who amongst the following showed
15. Match List-I with List-II. (C) Polygyny (D) Polyandry keen interest in designing the ‘bazaar’
of Chandni Chowk in Shahjahanabad?
List-I List-II 21. Who said, “can you show me one (A) Roshanara
1. Meluhha I. Oman free country where there are separate
(B) Jahanara
electorates?”
2. Dilmun II. Haja-bird (C) Gulbadan Begum
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
3. Magan III. Bahrain (D) Nadira Begum
(B) Govind Ballabh Pant
4. Shortughai IV. Afghanistan (C) Vallabhbhai Patel 28. Who described the kingdom of Awadh
Choose the correct answer from the (D) N.G. Ranga as “a cherry that will drop into our
options given below: mouth one day”?
22. According to Ibn Battuta, what was a
(A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV postal system in India, wherein horses (A) Lord William Bentinck
(B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV were stationed at every four miles? (B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV (A) Dawa (B) Dola (C) Henry Hardinge
(D) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV (C) Uluq (D) Gul (D) Henry Lawrence

Page 44  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

29. Which of the following region is a V. The Citadel at Lothal was walled 40. In which year did the English East
site that is NOT related to major Rock off, though built at a lower surface India Company acquired the 'Diwani' of
Edicts of the Asokan period? level. Bengal?
(A) Sopara (B) Jaugada Choose the correct answer from the (A) 1763 (B) 1762
(C) Mansehra (D) Maski options given below: (C) 1764 (D) 1765
30. Which of the following Sufi teachers' (A) III, IV, V only (B) I, IV, V only
Directions (Q. No. 41 to 45)
‘dargahs’ are located in Delhi? (C) I, II, III only (D) II, III, V only Read the passage and answer the questions.
I. Shaikh Muinuddin Sijzi 35. When was the ‘Hindu Mahasabha’ The king made a tank. at the mouth of two
II. Khwaja Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar founded? hills so that all the water which comes from
Kaki either one side or the other collects there;
(A) 1915 (B) 1916
III. Shaikh Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar and besides this, water comes to it from
(C) 1917 (D) 1918 more than three leagues (approximately
IV. Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya
15 kilometers) by pipes which run along
V. Shaikh Nasiruddin Chiragh-i-Delhi 36. Who amongst the following artists
the lower parts of the range outside. This
Choose the correct answer from the accompanied Humayun to Delhi? water is brought from a lake which itself
options given below: I. Bihzad overflows into a little river. The tank has
(A) I, II, III only (B) I, III, IV only II. Mir Sayyid Ali three large pillars handsomely carved with
(C) II, IV, V only (D) III, IV, V only III. Muhammad Hussain figures; these connect above with certain
pipes by which they get water when they
31. Which of the following statements is IV. Abdus Samad have to irrigate their gardens and rice
NOT true of land grants in the early V. Sadullah Khan fields. In order to make this tank, the said
centuries of Common Era? Choose the correct answer from the king broke down a hill. In the tank, I saw
(A) Land grants give us an idea of the options given below: so many people at work that there must
regional variations in the sizes of have been fifteen or twenty thousand men,
(A) I, III only (B) II, IV only
land donated. looking like ants.........
(C) V, II only (D) III, IV only
(B) Land grants gives us an idea of the 41. Who among the following is the author
rights given to donors. 37. Which of the following sentences of this passage?
(C) Land grants give us an idea about are true of zamindars in the 18th-19th (A) Colin Mackenzie
rural populations–these includes centuries? (B) Domingo Paes
Brahmans and Peasants. I They gave out loans to ryots and (C) Abdur Razzaq
(D) Land grants describe wild animals sold their produce. (D) Duarte Barbosa
and hunter gatherers. II They cultivated some land and
42. Who amongst the following is the king
32. In which year did James Prinsep gave out rest to under-ryots.
to whom this tank is attributed?
deciphered the Brahmi Script? III They paid revenue to the English (A) Harihara
(A) 1838 (B) 1835 East India Company.
(B) Rama Raya
(C) 1848 (D) 1847 IV They distributed the ‘jama’ over (C) Krishnadeva Raya
the villages. (D) Bukka
33. Which of the following is NOT a
V Zamindars paid rents to the ryots.
principal centre of the Revolt of 1857? 43. Vijayanagara is located in a natural
(A) Ambala (B) Gwalior Choose the correct answer from the
basin formed by which river?
option given below:
(C) Jabalpur (D) Kochi (A) Kaveri (B) Pennar
(A) III, IV only (b) II, III only
(C) Tungabhadra (D) Tirunelveli
34. Which of the following statements (C) I, IV only (d) II, V only
about Harappan culture are correct? 44. What was the name of the most
I. Most Harappan sites are located in 38. Who among the following travellers important tank that was built in the 15th
semi-arid lands, where irrigation provided a detailed account on the century under the Vijayanagara Empire?
was required for agriculture. working of the imperial ‘Karkhanas’? (A) Hiriya
II. Traces of canals have been found, (A) Ibn Battuta (B) Kamalapuram
at the Harappan site of Shortughai (B) Al-Biruni (C) Amuktamalyada
in Afghanistan, but not in Punjab (C) Francois Bernier (d) Mahanavami Dibba
or Sind.
(D) Duarte Barbosa 45. Arrange the following dynasties in their
III. Mohenjodaro is the most well-
correct chronological order.
known site of Harappan culture, 39. Who is the author of the treaties ‘Kashf-
however the first site to be I. Aravidu II. Tuluvas
ul-Mahjub’?
discovered, was Harappa. III. Sangama IV. Saluva
(A) Abu'l Hossanal Hujuiri
IV. The Citadel was an extension of Choose the correct answer from the
(B) Amir Hassan Sijzi Dehlavi options given below:
the lower town at the same surface
level and was never separated (C) Mir Khurd Kismani (A) IV, II, I, III (B) I, II, IV, III
physically from the lower town. (D) Abdul Haqq Muhaddu Dehlavi (C) III, II, IV, I (D) III, IV, II, I

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 45

 Directions (Q. No. 46 to 50) arrested? This movement is based on the II. It was first nationalist activity in
Read the passage and answer the question. faith that when a whole nation is roused which Muslims participated in
“Tomorrow we shall break the salt tax law” and on the march no leader is necessary. large numbers.
[CWMG, VOL.49]
On 5 April 1930, Mahatma Gandhi spoke III. It made the British to realise that
at Dandi: When I left Sabarmati with my 46. The famous Dandi March began on 12 their rule was not forever.
companions for the seaside hamlet of Dandi. IV. It made the British to realise that
I was not certain in my mind that we would March 1930. Gandhiji began walking
from his ashram at ............... towards they would have to devolve some
be allowed to reach this place. Even while
power to the Indians.
I was at Sabarmati there was a rumour that Dandi.
I might be arrested. I had thought that the V. Salt March was widely covered by
(A) Kheda (B) Sabarmati European and American press.
Government might perhaps let my party
(C) Ahmedabad (D) Champaran Choose the correct answer from the
come as for as Dandi, but not me certainly.
If someone says that this betrays imperfect options given below:
47. The proclamation of commitment
faith on my part, I shall not deny the charge. (A) I, II, III, IV only
That I have reached here is in no small to ‘Purna Swaraj’ or Complete
(B) II, III, IV, V only
measure due to the power of peace and non- Independence was passed in Congress
(C) I, III, IV, V only
violence: that power is universally felt. The session of ................ .
(D) I, II, IV, V only
Government may, if it wishes, congratulate (A) Lahore, 1929
itself on acting as it has done, for it could 50. Mahatma Gandhi illustrated his tactical
(B) Nagpur, 1920
have arrested every one of us. In saying wisdom by picking on salt monopoly.
that it did not have the courage to arrest this (C) Madras, 1927 Which of the following statements are
army of peace, we praise it. I felt ashamed (D) Calcutta, 1928 correct to prove this?
to arrest such an army. He is a civilised man
I. State monopoly over salt was
who feels ashamed to do anything which 48. Mahatma Gandhi had given advance
deeply unpopular.
his neighbours would disapprove. The notice of his ‘Salt March’ to which
Government deserves to be congratulated II. People were forbidden from
Viceroy of India? making salt for even domestic use.
on not arresting us, even if it desisted only
(A) Lord Wavell III. Salt was not an essential item.
from fear of world opinion.
(B) Lord Irwin IV. Government destroyed the salt that
Tomorrow we shall break the salt tax law.
Whether the Government will tolerate that (C) Lord Dalhousie it could not sell profitably.
is a different question. It may not tolerate (D) Lord Mountbatten Choose the correct answer from the
it, but it deserves congratulations on the options given below:
patience and forbearance it has displayed in 49. The Salt March was notable for various (A) I, III, IV only
regard to this party……. reasons. Identify the correct ones: (B) II, III, IV only
What if I and all the eminent leaders in I. It brought Mahatma Gandhi to (C) I, II, III only
Gujarat and in the rest of the country are world attention. (D) I, II, IV only

Solutions
1. (A) I, III, IV only V. It was R. V. Dhulekar who pleaded Caution
that Hindi should be the official  In order to understand the agrarian history of
Explanation:
language and wanted that Hindi the sixteenth and early seventeenth centuries,
I. Congress and Mahatma Gandhi should be used as the language for students must be familiar with the most
accepted Hindustani as National constitution-making. important chronicle, the Ain-i Akbari (in
language by 1930s. Caution short, the Ain).
II. 
Durgabai proposed Hindustani  The students must not confuse Hindustani as
(Hindi+Urdu) to be the national Hindi because Hindustani is a blend of Hindi 3. (C) Walter Elliot
and Urdu.
language of India. Explanation: The Amaravati sculptures
III. 
To Mahatma Gandhi, Hindustani 2. (B) Chachar were also referred as the Elliot Marbles
was a language that the common Explanation: Chachar is the name for on account of their association in with
people could easily understand. To the land that has been lain fallow for Sir Walter Elliot who had excavated
three or four years during the Mughal them.
him it was a composite language
rule, as mentioned in Ain-i- Akbari.
enriched by the interaction of
diverse cultures. Related Theory
IV. The Language Committee of the Related Theory  Sculptural form in Amaravati is
Constituent Assembly had produced  The Ain-i-Akbari, also called the characterised by intense emotions. The
its report and it was decided that "Administration of Akbar", is a 16th- figures here are slender, with a lot of
century document with detailed recording
each province would be allowed movement, bodies are shown with three
of the administration of the Mughal Empire
to choose one of the regional under Emperor Akbar. It was written by his bents (i.e. tribhanga), and the sculptural
languages for official work within court historian, Abu'l Fazl in the Persian composition is much more complex than at
the province. language. Sanchi.

Page 46  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 4. (A) Henry Hardinge 2. Wives who came from royal 14. (A) Shankaradeva
Explanation: Henry Hardinge, the families were known as Begum. Explanation: Shankaradeva was a
governor-general of India, 1844–1848, 3. Concubine was known as Aghacha. Vaishnava saint of Assam, devotee of
had attempted to modernise the army's Vishnu and Bhagavati Dharma was his
4. 
Slave Eunuchs were known as teachings.
equipment.
Khwajasara.
5. (A) III, II, V, I, IV
10. (C) Little pots Related Theory
Explanation:
Explanation: Faience, discovered from  A unique aspect of most of the saints of the
I. The Santhal Revolt had taken place Bhakti Movement is that all their works were
in 1855-56. Harappan site, was used to make little
composed in regional languages that could
II. The Permanent Settlement pots. They were probably considered be sung.
of Bengal was an agreement precious because they were difficult to
make. 15. (C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV
introduced by the East India
Company under Governor- Explanation: A myth of Mesopotamian
11. (B) V, III, IV, II, I says of Meluhha: “May your bird be the
General Lord Cornwallis in 1793.
Explanation: The European trading haja-bird, may its call be heard in the
III. 
The Regulating Act, in June royal palace.”; Dilmun is the Sumerian
1773, was passed in the British companies established bases in India:
name of an ancient independent
Parliament. I. The French in Pondicherry is 1673. kingdom on Bahrain Island;
IV. The Deccan peasants uprising in II. British in Bombay in 1661. Mesopotamian texts refer to copper
May and June 1875 was directed coming from a region called Magan,
III. The Dutch in Masulipatnam, 1605.
mainly against the heavy taxation which might be present-day Oman;
on the Ryots under the Ryotwari IV. The British in Madras in 1639. Shortugai is an Indus Valley Civilisation
system. V. The Portuguese in Panaji in 1510. site in Afghanistan.
V.  In 1818, the British East India 16. (B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
Company conducted the first
Related Theory Explanation: Shah Mal was the
revenue settlement in Bombay
leader of a ferocious rebellion in
Deccan.  With the expansion of commercial activity, Barout pargana; Kunwar Singh led
towns grew around these trading centres. the rebellion from Arrah, Bihar; the
6. (B) Enlightenment
revolt was driven by Nana Saheb in
Explanation: A 'Stupa' represents as Caution Kanpur; Begum Hazrat Mahal and her
a symbol of worship in sculptures,  It is important to remember the dates of advisor Birjis Qadr, Ahmadullah were
the path to enlightenment, the body of important events to answer such questions the leaders of the Lucknow during the
Buddha and the universe as a whole. accurately. revolt.
7. (D) Pile of gold coins 12. (C) II, V, III, IV, I 17. (C) Constitutional Advisor
Explanation: Micro beads, pottery, Explanation: In formulating the Indian
Explanation: Major developments in
copper mirrors, shell rings and beads, Constitution in 1946, B. N. Rau was
along with many other objects were Harappan Archaeology are:
appointed as the Constitutional Advisor
found at the Harappan burial sites but I. 
1960, B.B. Lal and B.K. Thapar
to the Constituent Assembly.
gold was rare, sometimes found in begin excavations at Kalibangan.
jewellery and hoards. II. 
1875, Report of Alexander
Cunningham on Harappan seal. Related Theory
III. 1946, R.E.M. Wheeler excavates at  S. N. Mukherjee was the Chief Draughtsman,
Related Theory was capable of putting complex proposals in
 The dead were generally laid in pits at Harappa 1955 S.R. clear legal language.
burials in Harappan sites. There were IV. Rao begins excavations at Lothal.
differences sometimes in the way the burial 18. (B) Augustus Cleveland
V. 1921, M.S. Vats begins excavations
pit was made, as in some instances, the Explanation: Augustus Cleveland
hollowed-out spaces were found lined with at Harappa. was responsible for proposing a
bricks. Policy of Pacification in the 1780s
13. (C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II
8. (A) Mahatma Gandhi after a period of Brutal Extermination
Explanation: The teachings of the of 1770s.
Explanation: It was Mahatma Buddha were included in the Sutta
Gandhi who had always advocated Pitaka; the Abhidhamma Pitaka was 19. (C) I, IV, III, II
that Hindustani “should be neither Explanation:
for philosophical matters; the Vinaya
Sasnkritised Hindi nor Persianised I. Justice, Punch, 12 September 1857;
Urdu, but a happy combination of Pitaka included rules and regulations;
Dipavamsa literally meant the chronicle II. “In Memorium”, by Joseph Noel
both”.
of the island. Paton, 1859;
9. (B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III III. 
“The Clemency of Canning”,
Explanation: Caution Punch, 24 October 1857;
1. Other wives who were not of noble  Students must go through the three Tipitaka IV. 
Execution of Mutinous Sepoys
birth were known as Agha. to avoid confusion in the exams. 3 October 1857

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 47

20. (D) Polyandry 26. (A) Surrounded by elephants – these includes Brahmans and Peasants
Explanation: The practice of a woman Explanation: The goddess Gajalakshmi but wild animals and hunter gatherers
having more than one husbands is is depicted seated on a lotus, flanked on were often beyond the reach of officials
known as polyandry. both sides by an elephant. or samantas and such groups generally
did not keep detailed records of their
Caution lives and transactions.
Related Theory  Students should not ignore the paintings
 Polygamy has been defined as marriage and illustrations as they contain important
between one person and two or more information related to the topic. Related Theory
spouses simultaneously. The two main  An agrahara was a piece of land granted to
forms are: polygyny, where one man is 27. (B) Jahanara
a Brahmana. He was usually exempted from
married to several women, and polyandry, Explanation: Jahanara Begum, the paying land revenue and other dues to the
where one woman is married to several king. Also, and was often given the right to
favourite daughter of Shah Jahan,
men. collect these dues from the locals.
designed the 'bazaar' of Chandni Chowk
21. (C) Vallabhbhai Patel in Shahjahanabad. 32. (A) 1838
Explanation: Sardar Vallabh Bhai Explanation: James Prinsep deciphered
Patel said "Can you show me one 28. (B) Lord Dalhousie
the Brahmi Script in March 1838.
free country where there are separate Explanation: It was Lord Dalhousie
electorates?" 33. (D) Kochi
who described the kingdom of Awadh
as "a cherry that will drop into our Explanation: Kochi was NOT a
22. (C) Uluq principal centre of the Revolt of 1857.
mouth one day".
Explanation: According to Ibn Battuta,
the postal system in India, wherein
horses were stationed at every four Related Theory Related Theory
miles was known as uluq.  Five years later, in 1856, Awadh was
 The important centres where the revolt
of 1857 took place were Delhi, Kanpur,
23. (D) 
The amount of revenue demanded annexed to the British Empire. Lucknow, Bareilly, Jhansi and Arrah.
was permanently fixed
29. (D) Maski 34. (C) I, II, III only
Explanation: The revenue demand was
Explanation: Sopara, Jaugada and Explanation: The Harappan cities
no longer permanent under the Ryotwari
Mansehra are among the 14 major rock were divided into two parts. While one
Settlement in the Deccan.
edicts of Emperor Ashoka. Whereas, part was smaller and raised above the
Maski is a minor rock edict. ground called the citadel, the other part
Related Theory was bigger and called the lower-town.
 The Permanent Settlement of Bengal that
Caution
The Citadel in Lothal was not walled
was brought into effect by the East India off and was built at a height.
Company, was an agreement between the
 Students need to go through the list of
major and minor rock edicts to avoid any
company and the Zamindars to fix the land
confusion.
revenue. Related Theory
30. (C) II, IV, V only  Students must remember that the citadel was
24. (C) Mysore
Explanation: The dargah of the major always built on a raised platform.
Explanation: The important Buddhist
teachers of the Chishti are located as
places are: 35. (A) 1915
follows:
1. 
Lumbini, the birthplace of Lord Explanation: The 'Hindu Mahasabha'
1.  Shaikh Muinuddin Sijzi Ajmer
Buddha. was founded in the year 1915.
(Rajasthan)
2. Bodh Gaya, the place where he got 2. Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki 36. (B) II, IV only
his enlightenment. Delhi Explanation: Mir Sayyid Ali and Abdus
3. Sarnath, where he delivered his first 3.  Shaikh Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar Samad accompanied Humayun to Delhi.
sermons after the enlightenment. Pakpattan, Punjab, Pakistan
37. (A) III, IV only
4. 
Kushinagar, the death place of 4. Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya Delhi
Gautam Buddha. 5. Shaikh Nasiruddin Chiragh-i-Dehli Explanation: The work of the zamindar
Delhi was to collect rent from the different
25. (A) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV villages, pay the revenue to the
Explanation: Last meeting of the 31. (D) Land grants describe wild animals Company, and retain the difference as
Interim Government was in 1947, and hunter gatherers. his income. Jotedars had acquired vast
Constitution was signed in 1949, Explanation: Land grants give us an areas of land and controlled local trade
Cabinet Mission Scheme was presented idea of the regional variations in the as well as moneylending, exercising
in 1946, Labour Government came into sizes of land donated, of the rights immense power over the poorer
power in Britain in 1945. given to donors, about rural populations cultivators of the region.

Page 48  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

38. (C) Francois Bernier 47. (A) Lahore, 1929
Explanation: Francois Bernier, who Related Theory Explanation: On 19 December 1929, the
was a French traveller, wrote about  Several travellers visited the city of Indian National Congress (INC) passed
Vijayanagara wrote about it. Duarte
imperial Karkhanas and occupational the historic "Purna Swaraj resolution". It
Barbosa, Domingo Paes and Fernao Nuniz
groups. from Portugal, came in the sixteenth century. was passed at its Lahore session.

Related Theory 43. (C) Tungabhadra

Related Theory
 Descriptions of social life in the Indian Explanation: Vijayanagara is located
 The resolution was a short 750-word
subcontinent have been provided by in a natural basin formed by the
document that called for severing ties with
travellers who visited the subcontinent. Tungabhadra River. the British and claimed 'Purna Swaraj' or
Three such important accounts are of Al-
complete independence.
Biruni from Uzbekistan (eleventh century), 44. (B) Kamalapuram
Ibn Battuta from Morocco, in northwestern
Africa (fourteenth century) and the
Explanation: The name of the most 48. (B) Lord Irwin
Frenchman François Bernier (seventeenth important tank that was built in the 15th Explanation: On 2 March 1930, it was
century). century under the Vijayanagara Empire Lord Irwin to whom Mahatma Gandhi
is Kamalapuram. wrote a long letter informing him about
39. (A) Ali Bin Usman Hujuiri
45. (D) III, IV, II, I his intention to break the unjust salt
Note: The correct spelling is Ali Bin
laws that were imposed on Indians by
Usman Al-Hajveri. Explanation: The right chronological
order of the dynasties of Vijaynagar the British government.
Explanation: Ali Bin Usman Al-Hajveri
wrote a book in Persian that was called Empire is as follows: 49. (C) I, III, IV, V only
the Kashful-Mahjub (The Revelation of III. Sangama- 1336-1485 Explanation: The Salt March
the Veiled). He wrote it to explain the IV. Saluva- 1485-1505 brought Mahatma Gandhi to world
meaning of tasawwuf, and those who attention. It was the first nationalist
II. Tuluva- 1491-1570
practised it, that is, the Sufi. activity in which women participated
I. Aravidu- 1542-1652.
40. (D) 1765 in large numbers. The march also
Caution made the British to realise that their
Explanation: The English East India
 It is important for students to remember the rule was not forever and that they
Company acquired the 'Diwani' of Vijaynagar Empires in the right chronological
Bengal in 1765. would have to devolve some power
order to avoid making mistakes.
to the Indians. Salt March was widely
41. (B) Domingo Paes 46. (B) Sabarmati covered by European and American
Explanation: Domingo Paes, a traveller Explanation: The famous Dandi press.
from Portugal, who came in the March which began on 12 March
50. (D) I, II, IV only
sixteenth century, is among many others 1930 was a march in which Gandhiji
who wrote about the inscriptions of the began walking from his ashram at Explanation: State monopoly over
kings of Vijayanagara and their nayakas Sabarmati towards Dandi. salt was deeply unpopular. People
recording donations to temples. were forbidden from making salt

42. (C) Krishnadeva Raya Related Theory for even domestic use. As salt was
 Gandhiji began walking from his ashram at an essential item, the government
Explanation: Paes visited Vijayanagara
Sabarmati towards the ocean on 12 March destroyed the salt that it could not
during the rule of King Krishnadeva 1930. Three weeks later, he reached his sell profitably to impose tax on the
Raya. destination and made a fistful of salt.
nation's vital necessity.
qq

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 49

 NTA CUET (UG)
OFFICIAL PAPER
19th August 2022, Slot-1
SOLVED
1. At which Harappan settlement, the town 6. Match the composition with the writers: 10. The term used when descent from father
was separated by walls? List-I List-II to son, grandson and so on:
(A) Harappa (B) Mohenjodaro (Composition) (Writers) (A) Patriliny (B) Matriliny
(C) Lothal (D) Rakhigarhi (C) Polygyny (D) Polyandry
(1) Arthashastra I. Banabhatta
2. The remains of which of the following 11. Arrange the following sentence in
(2) Harshacharita II. Megasthenese meaningful and grammatically correct
crop are rarely found at the Harappan
site? (3) Prayag III. Kautilya order.

(A) Chickpeal (B) Lentil Prashashti List-I List-II

(Religion/Sect) (Founder)
(C) Rice (D) Sesame (4) Indica IV. Harishena
Choose the correct answer from the (1) Arthashastra I. Banabhatta
3. Terracotta models of plough have been
options given below: (2) Harshacharita II. Megasthenese
reported from:
(A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II (3) Prayag Prashashti III. Kautilya
I. Kalibangan (B) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II (4) Indica IV. Harishena
II. Banawali (C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I Choose the correct answer from the
III. Cholistan (D) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV options given below:
IV. Rakhigarhi 7. Whom did Ashoka appointed to spread (A) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II
the message of 'Dhamma"? (B) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-II
V. Lothal
(A) Dhamma Dandadhikari (C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
Choose the correct answer from the
(B) Dhamma Mahamatya (D) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II
options given below: 12. Out of the given options, choose the
(C) Amatya Pradhan
(A) I and II Only most appropriate information about the
(D) Dhamma Pradhan
(B) II and III Only Ajivikas.
8. According to Dharmashastras and I. Ajivikas are also known as fatalists.
(C) III and IV Only Dharmasutras ideal occupation
II. Ajita Kesakambalin belonged to
(D) IV and V Only performed by shatriya was _______ Ajivika sect.
4. The new kingdoms that emerged in the (A) To teach and study Vedas
III. Ajivika monks and nuns took five
Deccan during Sangam period includes (B) To engage in warfare and protect
vows.
which of the followings: others
IV. Ajivikas believed that everything is
(C) To engage in trade
I. Cholas predetermined.
(D) To perform sacrifices
Choose the correct answer from the
II. Cheras 9. Point out the difference between
Endogamy and Exogamy from the below options given below:
III. Pandyas
given options. (A) I and IV only (B) II and III only
IV. Satvahanas
(A) Endogamy is practices of a man (C) I and III only (D) I and II only
V. Vakataks having several wives and Exogamy 13. Choose the most appropriate explanation
Choose the correct answer from the is practice of a woman having for the reason Buddhism grew rapidly
several husbands. both during the lifetime of Buddha and
option given below:
(B) Endogamy is practice of woman after his death.
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III, IV having several husbands and (A) He was very handsome and people
(C) I, II, IV (D) III, IV, V Exogamy is practice of a man having flocked to see him.
5. Krishnadeva Raya the most famous ruler several wives.
(B) There was absence of other religions
of the Vijayanagara Empire belonged to (C) Endogamy is marriage within a unit at that time.
__________ dynasty. and Exogamy is marriage outside the
(C) It appealed to many people who were
(A) Tuluva Dynasty unit.
dissatisfied with religious practices
(B) Sangam Dynasty (D) Endogamy is marriage outside the
and rituals.
(C) Aravidu Dynasty unit and Exogamy is marriage within
a unit. (D) The king told his subjects to follow
(D) Saluva Dynasty
Buddha.

Page 50  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 14. Arrange the travellers who left written (A) I, II, III, IV, V 22. Name the prince who was involved in
accounts in chronological order. (B) IV, I, II, III, V
the conspiracy against Abul Fazl, a court
I. Ibn Battuta (C) III, IV, V, I, II
writer of Akbar:
II. Al-Biruni (D) II, III, I, IV, III
(A) Prince Dara Shikoh
III. Lothal 20. The Emperor Akbar classified the lands
and fixed a different revenue to be paid by (B) Prince Khurram
IV. Duarte Barbosa (C) Prince Azam
each. Find out the incorrect match below.
V. Marco Polo (D) Prince Salim
(A) Polaj - Annually cultivated for each
(A) II, V, I, IV, III
crop in succession and never allowed
(B) I, II, III, IV, V 23. Point out the difference between Ain-i-
to be left fallow
(C) III, II, I, IV, V Akbari and Akbar Nama:
(D) II, V, IV, I, III (B) Chachar- Is a land that has lain fallow (A) One is biography while another is
15. To describe the Ultimate Reality, Kabir for three or four years autobiography.
used the terms Alakh (unseen) and (C) Parauti - Never allowed to lie fallow (B) Both the treatises written by two
Nirakar (formless). These philosophy for cultivation different writers.
belongs to: (D) Banjar - A land uncultivated for five (C) The first two portions are known as
(A) Yogic Tradition years Akbar Nama and the last as Ain-i-
(B) Tantric Tradition Direction (Q No. 21 to 25) Akbari.
(C) Vedantic Tradition (D) One text belongs to Akbar while
Read the following passage and answer the another during Jahangir period.
(D) Buddhist Tradition questions.
16. Name the poet saints who belonged to 24. The first volume of Akbar Nama
The author of the Akbar Nama, Abu'l Fazl
Nirgun Bhakti tradition. contained the information about:
grew up in the Mughal capital of Agra. He
I. Mirabai (A) Forty sixth regnal year of Akbar
was widely read in Arabic, Persian, Greek
II. Kabir (B) Early life of Akbar
philosophy and Sufism. Moreover, he was
III. Guru Nanak (C) Bureaucratic system only
a forceful debater and independent thinker
IV. Surdas (D) Adam to one celestial cycle of
who consistently opposed the views of the Akbar's life
V. Ravidas conservative ulama. These qualities impressed
Choose the correct answer from the Akbar, who found Abu'l Fazl ideally suited as 25. Abu'l Fazl, a great court writer of Akbar
options given below: an adviser and a spokesperson for his policies. began his journey of writing in 1589 and
(A) I, II and III only took ______ years to complete Akbar
One major objective of the emperor was to
(B) II, III and V only Nama.
free the state from the control of religious
(C) I, III and V only (A) 11 (B) 13
(D) III, IV and V only orthodoxy. In his role as court historian, Abu'l
(C) 12 (D) 14
Fazl both shaped and articulated the ideas
17. Which of the following term given below 26. The British encouraged forest clearance
is not related to Sufism? associated with the reign of Akbar. for a number of reasons. Which of the
(A) Qalandar (B) Khanqah Beginning in 1589, Abu'l Fazl worked on the following is incorrect?
(C) Ziyarat (D) Mlechchha Akbar Nama for thirteen years, repeatedly
(A) To enlarge sources of land revenue
18. Which of the following travellers visited revising the draft. The chronicle is based on a
range of sources, including actual records of (B) To acquire animals from forests
Vijayanagara in the 16th Century?
events (waqai), official documents and oral (C) To produce crops for export
I. Abdur Razzaq
testimonies of knowledgeable person. (D) To tame and civilize forest dwellers.
II. Fernao Nuniz
The Akbar Nama is divided into three books 27. Arrange the following events in
III. Nicolo Conti
of which the first two are chronicles. The third chronological order:
IV. Domingo Paes
book is the Ain-i-Akbari. The first volume I. Acquiring of Diwani of Bengal by
V. Duarte Barbosa
contains the history of mankind from Adam to English East India Company
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below: one celestial cycle of Akbar's life (30 years). II. Santhal Rebellion
(A) I, II and III only The second volumes closes in the forty-sixth III. Rebellion by peasants in Deccan
(B) II, IV and V only regnal year (1601) of Akbar. The very next year
villages
(C) I, II and IV only Abu'l Fazl fell victim to a conspiracy hatched
(D) III, IV and V only by Prince, Salim, and was murdered by his IV. Permanent Settlement in Bengal
19. Arrange the following events of Indian V. Regulating Act passed by the British
accomplice, Bir Singh Bundela.
history in chronological order: 21. The central purpose of Ain-i-Akbari was Parliament
I. Vijayanagara Empire related to which ruler? Choose the correct answer from the
II. Gajapati Kingdom options given below:
(A) Jahangir's Vision
III. Conquest of Goa by the Portuguese (A) II, IV, III, I, V
(B) Akbar's vision
IV. Establishment of Delhi Sultanate (B) III, IV, II, V, I
V. Emergence of the Sultanate of (C) Humayun's vision (C) IV, V, II, I, II
Golconda (D) Shah Jahan's vision (D) I, V, IV, II, III

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 51

 28. The Summary Settlement undermined the Choose the correct answer from the 38. Correctly match leader with their
position and authority of the Taluqdars. options given below: countries.
Find out the other information from the (A) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II List-I List-II
below given options. Which support (B) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III (Nationalist (Countries)
undermining the position and authority Leaders)
(C) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
of the Taluqdars under the summary
(C) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II (1) Mahatma Gandhi I. America
settlement.
I. Taluqdars were not having any 32. Rumours of greased cartridges spread like (2) Garibaldi II. Vietnam
permanent stakes in land. wild fire across cantonments as: (3) Ho Chi Minh III. India
II. British wanted to remove Taluqdars (A) Cantonments were connected
(4) George Washington IV. Italy
whenever possible. through telegraphic lines.
Choose the correct answer from the
III. British wanted to settle the land with (B) Cantonments published their own
options given below:
actual land owners. newspapers. (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II
IV. Revenue was fixed by the Britisher. (C) News was broadcasted on televi- (B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-I
V. The Summary Settlement later sion.
(C) 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I
helped Taluqdars. (D) News spread through British of-
(D) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
ficials.
Choose the correct answer from the 39. Related to Provincial elections of 1937 in
options given below: 33. Which one is not a correct cause for the India, choose the incorrect option.
(A) II, III and IV Only Revolt of 1857? (A) There were fifteen provinces where
(B) I, III and V Only (A) Import of British manufactures into the elections were held
(C) I, II, III Only India (B) Only 10-12% Indians were eligible
(D) III, II, IV Only to vote
(B) Disrespect of Indians on public
29. The Santhals led their revolt against (C) Muslim League won more than
places
'Dikus'. The term dikus was used for 80% of the seats reserved for
(C) Recognition of the Right to adopt muslims
which of the following people? an heir (D) Congress won absolute majority in
(A) Paharias (D) Conversion of Indians to Christianity five provinces
(B) Settled peasants 34. The close link existed between the 40. Which NWFP leader was known as
(C) Nationalist leaders Sepoys and the rural world of North 'Frontier Gandhi'?
(A) Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) Money lenders India during 1850s as the large number
(B) M. A. Jinnah
of Sepoys were being recruited in Bengal
30. Arrange the following historical incidents (C) Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Army. Name the region which is called
in chronological order- (D) Abdul Latif
as the 'Nursery of the Bengal Army'.
I. Sepoys of Meerut Cantonment Direction (Q No. 41 to 45)
(A) Bareilly (B) Kanpur
started mutiny.
(C) Awadh (D) Jhansi Read the following passage and answer the
II. Annexation of Awadh by East India
questions.
Company. 35. Name the ruler who had been defeated
III. Sati custom was abolished. For several years after the Non-cooperation
in the Battle of Plassey in 1757 by the
IV. Subsidiary Alliance had been Movement ended, Mahatma Gandhi focused
British Officer Robert Clive?
on his social reform work. In 1928, however he
imposed on Awadh. (A) Mir Jafar (B) Mir Bakshi
began to think of re-entering politics. That year
Choose the correct answer from the (C) Mir Qasim (D) Sirajuddaula
there was an all India campaign in opposition
options given below: 36. In Francis Buchanan's survey of Dimajpur to the all- White Simon Commission, sent
(A) I-II-III-IV (B) IV-III-II-I district, the class of rich peasants is from England to enquire into conditions in the
(C) II-III-I-IV (D) IV-II-III-I reported as: colony. Gandhiji did not himself participate
(A) Mansabdars (B) Jotedars in this movement, although he gave it his
31. Match the Rebel leader with their region:
(C) Subedars (D) Lathyals blessings, as he also did to a peasant Satyagraha
List-I
List-II
37. 'In Memoriam' is a painting dedicated in Bardoli in the same year.

(Rebel Leaders) (Region) by the artist to the Christian heroism of In the end of December 1929, the Congress
(1) Shah Mal I. Singhbhoom British ladies in India during the revolt of
held its annual session in the city of Lahore.
(2) Kunwar Singh II. Chinhat 1857. Select the correct name of the artist
from the given options. The meeting was significant for two things;
(3) Gonoo III. Barout (A) Henry Lawrence the election of Jawaharlal Nehru as President,
(4) Maulavi IV. Arrah (B) Thomas Jones Barker signifying the passing of the baton of leadership
Ahmadullah (C) Joseph Noel Paton to the younger generation; and the proclamation
Shah of commitment to 'Purna Swaraj', or complete
(D) Francie Grant
independence. Now the pace of politics

Page 52  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

picked up once more. On 26 January 1930, (A) Equality 47. Who proposed that the National Flag
'Independence Day' was observed, with the (B) Liberty of India should be in horizontal tricolor
national flag being hoisted in different venues, (C) Purna Swaraj of saffron, white and green in equal
and patriotic songs beings sung. Gandhiji (D) Simon Go Back proportion with a wheel in Navy blue at
himself issued precise instructions as to how the 45. There was an all India campaign to oppose the Centre?
days should be observed. "It would be good," the all-white Simon Commission, sent (A) Vallabh Bhai Patel
from England in: (B) Rajendra Prasad
he says "if the declaration of Independence is
(A) 1927 (B) 1928
made by whole villages, whole cities even .... (C) Mahatma Gandhi
It would be well if all the meetings were held (C) 1929 (D) 1930
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
at the Identical minute in all the places. 46. Match the personalities with their roles/
responsibility. 48. ______ of Bombay demanded justice for
41. In December 1929, who was appointed
List-I women, not reserved seats or separate
as the President of the Indian National electorate.
(Personalities)
Congress? (A) Dakshayani Velayudhan
(1) K.M. Munshi
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) A. Ramaswamy Mudaliar
(2) B.N. Rao
(B) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel (C) Balakrishna Sharma
(3) Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (D) Hansa Mehta
(4) S.N. Mukherjee
(D) Jawaharlal Lal Nehru 49. Name the Constituent Assembly member
List-II
42. The Purna Swaraj was observed on: who played vital role in reconciling
(A) 26 January, 1930 (Their Role/Responsibilities)
different opposing points of view in
(B) 29 January,1930 I. Lawyer from Madras
assembly:
(C) 28 January, 1930 II. Chief Draughtsman
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) 27 January, 1930 III. Constitutional Advisor to the Govern-
(B) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
ment of India
43. The annual session of the Indian National (C) B. N. Rao
Congress was held at which place in IV. Layer from Gujarat
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
December 1929? Choose the correct answer from the
50. The Constitution of India was framed and
(A) Delhi (B) Lucknow options given below:
signed between:
(C) Lahore (D) Bombay (A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III
(A) November 1946 to December 1949
44. What proclamation of commitment had (B) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II (B) November 1946 to December 1950
been taken in Indian National Congress (C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II (C) December 1946 to November 1949
session in December 1929? (D) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I (D) December 1946 to December 1949

Solutions
1. (A) Harappa new tools such as plough. It was used Coastal Andhra Pradesh. This dynasty
Explanation: On the basis of to dig earth for planting the seeds and was built up on the ruins of the Maurya
excavation evidence, it has been found turning the soil. Lentils are little or not Empire and around 1st century AD,
that the majority of the Harappan cities found at Harappa. they were the most prominent in the
and towns are composed of a series Modern Andhra Pradesh Region. Chola
3. (B) II and III Only
of walled mounds or sectors oriented and chras could be called to be emerged
Explanation: Terracotta models of in Deccan slightly through geographical
in different directions. Harappa and
Mohen-jo-Daro are those sites which plough have been reported from location but answer code is not clear.
have rectangular mound on the west Banawali and Cholistan.
5. (A) Tuluva Dynasty
Representations on seals and terracotta
and extensive mounds to the north,
sculpture indicate that the bull was Explanation: Krishnadeva Raya the
south and east whereas the settlement of known, and it has been extrapolated that most famous ruler of the Vijayanagara
Kalibangan is confined to two separate xen were used for ploughing. Empire belonged to Tuluva dynasty.
mounds with the citadel on the west, The evidence of a ploughed field have He was an author of telugu text
represented by a smaller mound and the been found at Kalibangan (Rajasthan). ‘Amuktamalyada'.
lower city towards the east, marked by 4. (A) I, II, III
a fairly extensive mound. 6. (B) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
Explanation: Satavahana followed the
2. (B) Lentil Mauryas in Deccan of India and thus Explanation:
Explanation: Harappans grew wheat, built up on the ruins of the Maurya l Arthashastra- Kautilya (Chanakya)
barley, pulses, peas, rice, sesame, linseed, Empire. Second century BC onwards, l Harshcharita- Banabhatta
and mustard. They also developed some they ruled from Pune (Maharashtra) to l Prayag Prashasti- Harishena

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 53

 l Indica- Megasthnese 13. (C) It appealed to many people who Duarte Barbosa was Portuguese Writer,
7. (B) Dhamma Mahamatya were dissatisfied with religious scrivener and explorer. He is known for
practices and rituals. giving a vivid account of Vijaynagara
Explanation: Dhamma Mahamatya
was appointed by Ashoka to spread the Explanation: Buddhism grew rapidly governance under Krishna Deva Raya.
message of 'Dhamma". They used to both during the lifetime of Buddha and Domingo Paes was a Portuguese
go from place to place teaching people after his death because it appealed to merchant, writer and explorer. He
many people who were dissatisfied with visited India and gave most detailed
about dhamma.
religious practices and rituals. accounts of all historic descriptions of
8. (B) To engage in warfare and protect 14. (D) II, V, IV, I, III ancient city Hampi which was governed
others Explanation: by Vijaynagar Empire under Krishna
Explanation: According to l Al-Biruni (1017) Deva Raya.
Dharmashastras and Dharmasutras ideal l Marco Polo (1245-1324) Fernao Nuniz was a Portuguese traveller,
occupation performed by shatriya was to l Ibn Battuta (1304-1368/69) chronicler and horse trader. He visited
engage in warfare and protect others. l Duarte Barbosa (1516-1517) India during the reign of Achyutaraya.
l Francois Bernier (1620)
9. (C) Endogamy is marriage within a unit He spent three years in Vijayanagara.
15. (C) Vedantic Tradition
and Exogamy is marriage outside 19. (B) IV, I, II, III, V
the unit. Explanation: To describe the Ultimate
Explanation: Establishment of Delhi
Explanation: Endogamy (In-marriage) Reality, Kabir used the terms Alakh
sultanate (1206)
is the tradition when one marries within (unseen) and Nirakar (formless).
These philosophy belongs to Vedantic Vijyanagra (1336-1646)
one's own group but in case marriage
takes place in an outside group, it is tradition. Gajapati Kingdom (1434-66)

referred to as exogamy. The terms with mysticalconnotations Conquest of Goa by the Portuguese
such as shabda (sound) or shunya (1510)
10. (A) Patriliny
(emptiness) were drawn from yogic
Explanation: Patriliny is the term which Emergence of Sultanate of Golconda
traditions.
is used in case of descent from father to (1487-1543)
son, grandson and so on. In such kind of 16. (B) II, III and V only 20. (C) Parauti - Never allowed to lie fal-
society, male gender remains extremely Explanation: Kabir, Gurunanak and low for cultivation
important. Ravidas were associated with the Explanation: Parauti land was allowed
Under patriliny, sons could claim the Nirguna Bhakti Tradition. to lie fallow for a year or two to recover
resources (including the throne in the This tradition refers to the devotion to its strength.
case of kings) of their fathers when the an all-encompassing, formless God.
latter died. The word 'nirgun' means 'without Related Theory
11. (C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III traits,' and refers to God's lack of
 Polaj land was always cultivated and was
Explanation: corporeal attributes. Nirguna bhakti is
never left fallow.
considered by some to be the ultimate
l Buddhism- Siddhartha (Buddha)  Chachar land had to be left uncultivated for
kind of bhakti. Nirguna bhakti is an
l Jainism- Vardhamana Mahavira
unmanifested expression of absolute a period of three to four years, whereas the
l Ajivakas- Makkhali Gosala
devotion to God. Banjar land had to be kept fallow for five
l Lokayatas- Ajita Kesakambalin
years or longer.
12. (A) I and IV only 17. (D) Mlechchha
21. (B) Akbar's vision
Explanation: The Ajivika school Explanation: Mleccha (from Vedic
Sanskrit mlecchá, meaning "non- Explanation: The central purpose of
believes in the Niyati ("Fate") doctrine
Vedic", "foreigner" or "barbarian") Ain-i-Akbari was related to Akbar's
of absolute fatalism or determinism. So,
Ajivakas are also known as fatalists. is not associated with Sufism. It is a Vision.
It believes that there is no free will Sanskrit term, initially referring to those 22. (C) Prince Azam
and everything that has happened, is of an incomprehensible speech, later Explanation: Prince Khurram was
happening and will happen is entirely foreign or barbarous invaders as contra- involved in the conspiracy against
preordained and a function of cosmic distinguished from elite groups. Abul Fazl, a court writer of Akbar. He
principles. 18. (B) II, IV and V only also rebelled during the last years of
They believe that everything is Explanation: Fernao Nuniz, Domingo Jehangir's reign.
predetermined by fate (niyati), and hence Paes and Duarte Barbosa were those 23. (C) The first two portions are known as
human actions have no consequence travellers who visited Vijaynagara in Akbar Nama and the last as Ain-i-
one way or the other. the 16th century. Akbari.

Page 54  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 Explanation: Akbarnama was composed the assumption that the taluqdars were l Maulavi Ahmadullah Shah was
by Abul Fazl. It is a three-volume history interlopers with no permanent stakes in born in 1787. He was more
of Akbar's reign. Its first two portions are land. famously known as Maulavi of
known as Akbarnama while the third one Faizabad. He was one of the
29. (D) Money lenders prominent personalities of the great
is known as Ain-i-Akbari.
Explanation: The Santhals led their Indian revolt of 1857.
24. (D) Adam to one celestial cycle of Ak-
revolt against 'Dikus'. The term dikus 32. (A) Cantonments were connected
bar's life
was used for moneylenders or traders. through telegraphic lines.
Explanation: The first volume of Basically the term "Diku" means Explanation: Rumours of greased
Akbarnama deals with Akbar’s
outsiders. cartridges spread like wild fire across
ancestors.
30. (B) IV-III-II-I cantonments as these cantonments were
25. (B) 13 connected through telegraphic lines. In
Explanation:
Explanation: Abu'l Fazl, a great court 1857, the rumours of the rifle cartridges
l Subsidiary Alliance was imposed
writer of Akbar began his journey of greased with pig and cow fat spread
in Awadh in 1801 by the British.
writing in 1589 and took 13 years to across the cantonmment and it caused
Subsidiary Alliance was basically a
complete Akbar Nama. discontent among the sepoys..
treaty between the British East India
33. (A) Import of British manufactures into
26. (A) To enlarge sources of land revenue Company and the Indian princely
India
Explanation: The British encouraged states, by virtue of which the Indian
kingdoms lost their sovereignty to Explanation: Import of british
forest clearance in order to acquire
the English. manufactures to India was not the cause
animals from forests, to produce crops of the revolt of 1857. Rather disrepect
l The Bengal Sati Regulation
for export and to tame and civilize of Indians on public places, recognition
(Regulation XVII) was passed by
forest dwellers. of the right to adopt heir and conversion
the then Governor- General of India,
27. (D) I, V, IV, II, III Lord William Bentinck. This act
of Indian to Christianity were some of
Explanation: the reasons behind the Revolt of 1857.
made the practice of Sati illegal in all
l The Diwani right of Bengal were of British India. This act was passed 34. (C) Awadh
acquired by the British in 1765. on December 4, 1829. Explanation: The close link existed
These rights were acquired after l On 13th February, 1856, Awadh was between the Sepoys and the rural
the company defeated the combined annexed to the British Empire on world of North India during 1850s as
army of Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud-daula the grounds of maladministration. the large number of Sepoys were being
and Shah Alam II. Nawab Wajid Ali Shah was thus recruited in Bengal Army. A majority
dethroned by the British. of the sepoys of the Bengal Army
l The Regulating Act of 1773 was
used to be recruited from the villages
passed by the British Parliament to l Indian Mutiny, also called Sepoy
of Awadh and eastern Uttar Pradesh.
overhaul the management of the East Mutiny or First War of Independence,
Many of them were Brahmins or from
India Company's rule in India. widespread but unsuccessful
the "upper" castes. That's why Awadh
l The Permanent Settlement of Bengal rebellion against British rule in India
was called as the "nursery of the Bengal
was brought into effect under the in 1857-59.
Army".
leadership of Governor-General Lord 31. (D) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II
35. (D) Sirajuddaula
Cornwallis in 1793. Explanation:
l The Santhal Revolt took place in
Explanation: On 23 June ,1757, Siraj-
l In the Revolt of 1857, Shah Mal ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Bengal,
1855-56 under the leadership of (1797- 18 July, 1857) was a rebel was defeated in the Battle of Plassey.
Sidhu and Kanhu. from the village of Bijrol, Uttar In this battle, Robert Clive was the
l The Deccan Riots of 1875 targeted Pradesh. The Jats of Baraut under Commander-in-Chief of the East India
conditions of debt peonage (kamiuti) his leadership revolted against the
to moneylenders. Company troops.
British East India Company.
28. (A) II, III and IV Only l In the Revolt of 1857, Kunwar Singh 36. (B) Jotedars
Explanation: The Summary Settlement led the movement in Bihar. In 2017, Explanation: In Francis Buchanan's
of 1856 is also known as the first the Veer Kunwar Singh Setu, also survey of Dimajpur district, the class
British land-revenue settlement in known as the Arrah-Chhapra Bridge, of rich peasants is reported as Jotedars.
Awadh. It further undermined the power was inaugurated to connect north and At the end of the 18th Century, a group
and position of the taluqdars who had south Bihar. of rich peasants known as jotedars were
established their hold through force l In 1857, the Kol tribals of Singhbhum strengthening their position in villages
and fraud. The Summary Settlement in the Chotanagpur revolted under while at the same time that many
removed the taluqdars wherever the leadership of Gonoo, a tribal zamindars were going through a crisis
possible. This settlement was based on farmer. (under the British East India Company).

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 55

37. (C) Joseph Noel Paton also known as Frontier Gandhi or Bacha l Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar- Lawyer
Explanation: 'In Memoriam' is a Khan, or Badshah Khan. He was born from Madras
painting dedicated by the artist to the to Behram Khan on February 6, 1890. l S.N. Mukherjee- Chief Draughtsman
Christian heroism of British ladies 47. (D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
41. (D) Jawaharlal Lal Nehru
in India during the revolt of 1857.
This painting was made by Paton. Explanation: In December 1929, Explanation: Pundit Nehru proposed
The painting's original version, which Jawaharlal Nehru was appointed as that the National Flag of India should be
potrayed Indian sepoy troops breaking the President of the Indian National in horizontal tricolor of saffron, white
through the door in 1858, was displayed Congress and green in equal proportion with a
at the Royal Academy of Art in London. 42. (A) 26 January, 1930 wheel in Navy blue at the Centre. He
Explanation: The Purna Swaraj was proposed this falg on 22 July, 1947
Related Theory in the Constituent Assembly. He also
observed on 26 January, 1930. This
 The painting sparked criticism right away is the reason why Republic Day is presented two flags, one in Khadi-silk
since it was believed to depict British women and the other in Khadi- cotton, to the
celebrated on 26 January every year.
assembly.
going to be raped by Indian soldiers. 43. (C) Lahore
48. (D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
38. (D) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I Explanation: The annual session of the
Explanation: Hansa Mehta of Bombay
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi- India Indian National Congress was held at
demanded justice for women, not
Garibaldi- Italy Lahore in December 1929.
reserved seats, or separate electorates.
Ho Chi Minh - Vietnam 44. (C) Purna Swaraj
She never supported the special
Explanation: The commitment towards privileges to be given to women but
George Washington- America
Purna Swaraj was taken in Indian argued for equal status for men and
39. (A) There were fifteen provinces where National Congress session in December women. She was an advocate of women
the elections were held 1929. This session was held in Lahore. education and also supported them for
Explanation: This option seems wrong. On this day, the flag of India was also
Provincial elections in British India financial independence.
hoisted by Jawaharlal Nehru on the
(1937) were held under the provisions 49. (D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
banks of Ravi river, in Lahore.
of the Government of India Act 1935. Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
These elections were held in eleven 45. (B) 1928
was an important member of the
provinces, including Madras, Bihar, Explanation: There was an all India Constituent Assembly. He was the one
Orissa. Indian National Congress campaign to oppose the all-white played vital role in reconciling different
emerged vitorious in eight provinces Simon Commission, sent from England opposing points of view in assembly.
but performed poor in three provinces in 1928. Simon Commission was a He served as the the Chairman of the
i.e. Bengal, Punjab, and Sindh. Congress group of seven members of British Constitutional Drafting Committee. He
won an absolute majority in five out of Parliament under the chairmanship of was the one who was crucial in bringing
eleven provinces. The All- India Muslim Sir John Simon. This commission was disparate points of view together in the
League won 106 seats about 80% of constituted to review the working and assembly.
total Muslim seats. Untouchables were progress of the Government of India
allowed to vote. Around 30.1 million 50. (A) November 1946 to December 1949
Act 1919.
people, including 4.25 million women, Explanation: The Constitution of
had the right to vote which was 12% of 46. (C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II India was framed between December
the total population. Explanation: 1946 and November 1949. During
40. (C) Abdul Ghaffar Khan l K.M. Munshi- Lawyer from Gujarat this period the draft of the constitution
Explanation: Abdul Ghaffar Khan, an l B.N. Rao- Constitutional Advisor to was discussed clause by clause in the
NWFP leader and a freedom fighter, is the Government of India Constituent Assembly of India.
qq

Page 56  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)
OFFICIAL MOCK PAPER
15th March 2022
SOLVED
1. On the given map of Early Harappan sites, IV. Metal scale-pans have been found 9. Which of these is an aspect of Buddhist
the correct combination of site location is: and seem to have been used for Philosophy?
weight measurement. (A) Righteous actions
Choose the correct answer from the (B) Follow the caste system diligently
options given below:
(C) Penance is essential
(A) I and III only (B) II and III only
(D) Rules for Samanas
(C) III and IV only (D) I and IV only
s
Indu

2
4 10. Who were Samanas?
Direction (Q No. 6 to 10) (A) Those who are equals in the society
3
Read the following excerpt titled "Buddhism (B) Those who have wealth in the society
1 in practice" and answer the five questions (C) Those who have denounced the world
that follow: (D) Those who have education in the
This is an excerpt from the Sutta Pitaka and world
contains the advice given by Buddha to a
11. Prabhavati Gupta, who had independent
wealthy household named Sigala:
access to land, was the daughter of :
In five ways should a master look after his
(A) 1-Kot Diji, 2-Siswal, 3-Amri Nal (A) Shrigupta
servants and employees ... by assigning them to
4-Damb Sadaat work according to their strength by supplying (B) Chandragupta I
(B) 1-Siswal, 2-Damb Sadaat, 3-Kot Diji them with food wages by tending them in (C) Chandragupta II
4-Amri Nal sickness; by sharing delicacies with them by (D) Samudragupta
(C) 1-Damb Sadaat, 2-Amri Nal, granting leaves at times...
12. Vijaynagar city was situated between
3-Siswal, 4-Kot Diji In five ways should the clansmen look after the
needs of samanas and Brahmanas : by affection which of the following rivers?
(D) 1-Amri Nal, 2-Damb Sadaat, 3-Kot
in act and speed and mind, by keeping open (A) Tungabhadra in North and Krishna
Diji, 4-Siswal
house to them supplying their worldly needs. in South
2. The stone used to make Harappan seals
There are similar instructions to sigala's about (A) Cauvery in the North and Tungabhadra
was :
how to behave with his parents, teacher & wife. in the South
(A) Steatite (B) Talc 6. Which of the pieces of advice was not (C) Krishna in the South and Cauvery in
(C) Jasper (D) Carnelian given by Buddha to Sigala regarding the the North
3. Mature Harappan culture shared common relationship between a master and his
elements with early harappan cultures, (D) Krishna in North and Tungabhadra
servants or employees?
including subsistence strategies, which in South
(A) Tending them in sickness
means that people in both cultures had 13. Match List-I with List-II :
similar : (B) Being regular in payment of salaries
(C) Granting leaves at times List-I
(A) Occupations 1. Endogamy
(B) Well planned Settlements (D) Sharing delicacies with them
7. Which of the instruction was given by 2. Exogamy
(C) Dietary Practices 3. Polygamy
Buddha to the clansmen for taking care
(D) Social Structure of the needs of samans and Brahmans? 4. Polyandry
4. The paintings of Ajanta depict stories (A) By affection in act and speech and List-II
from the : mind I. Refer to marriage outside the unit
(A) Mahabharata (B) Rig Veda (B) Being regular in payment of salaries II. Refer to the practice of a man having
(C) Upanishads (D) Jatakas (C) Granting leave at a time
several wives
5. Which of the following are true about (D) By assigning their work according
to their strength III. Refer to practice of a woman having
the weights that were used to regulate
exchange? 8. What did Buddha advocate regarding several husband
I. They were made of steatite, just like duties towards parents and teachers? IV. Refer to marriage with into unit
the seals. (A) Assigning work according to their Choose the correct answer from the
II. They were always cubical and had strength options given below :
markings to identify the weight. (B) Being regular in payment of salaries (A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-III
III. The lower denominations were (C) By affection in act and speech and (B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
binary and the higher denominations mind (C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
followed the decimal system. (D) Supplying food (D) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 57

 14. Match List-I with List-II: Choose the most appropriate answer (A) The nobility under the Mughals
List-I from the options given below : was a composite one comprising
1. Empty Seat (A) I Only Iranis, Turanis, Afghans, Rajputs,
2. Stupa (B) I and II Only Deccans.
3. Wheel (C) I and IV Only (B) All Mughal emperors gave grants to
4. Tree (D) II and IV Only supports the building and maintenance
List-II 19. Bhakti traditions are further classified of places of worship.
I. Dharm Chakra Pravartana into two broad categories. Which of the
(C) Akbar abolished tax on pilgrimage.
II. Meditation following pair is correct?
(A) Sagun and Durgun (D) Jizya was imposed during the reign
III. Enlightenment
IV. Mahaparinirbana (B) Sagun and Vigun of Aurangzeb.
Choose the correct answer from the (C) Sagun and Nirgun 24. The Santhals came into Bengal in the
options given below: (D) Nirgun and Migun 1780s. What about Santhals is not true,
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV 20. Arrange the following religious teachers choose the incorrect from the following :
(B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III in chronological order : (A) Santhals cleared forests and cut
(C) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-I down timber.
I. Appar
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I (B) They ploughed land and grew rice
II. Andal
15. The European commercial companies had and cotton.
set up base in different places early during III. Mirabai (C) They settled down cultivating a
mughal era. Identify the incorrect match. IV. Kabir range of commercial crops for the
(A) Portuguese in Panaji market.
V. Basavanna
(B) British in Madras
Choose the most appropriate sequence (D) Santhals used to get tributes from the
(C) French in Pondichery traders as protection money.
(D) Dutch in Bombay from the options given below:
16. With what do you most associate Daya (A) I, II, V, IV, III 25. Damin-i-Koh was formed for :
Ram Sahni, Rakhal Das Banerji and John (B) I, II, III, IV, V (A) Santhals
Marshall? (C) II, I, IV, III, V (B) Paharias
(D) V, II, III, IV, I
(A) They were all archaeologists (C) Zamindars
whose work helped emphasize the 21. Consider the following historical events
(D) Mahajans
historicity and ancientness of the in correct chronological order :
Harappan civilization. 26. Consider the following Statement : The
I. Works of astronomy and Non- Co- operation Movement led to the
(B) They were all part time historians mathematics by Aryabhata &
whose focus was on the Mauryan following :
Varahamihira I. Lawyers refused to attend court
era.
(C) They were specialist historians but II. Natyashastra of Bharata II. G r o w t h o f H i n d u M u s l i m
not archaeologists who presented III. Ashtadhyani of Panini Unity
views to counter the ancientness of III. Removal of fear of British might
IV. Charak & Sushruta Samhita
the Harappan civilization. from the minds of the people
V. Early Buddhist texts including the
(D) They were archaeologists whose IV. British Govt. willingness to grant
work helped in determining the Tripitakas
political concession to Indians
historicity of Ashokan edicts. Choose the most appropriate sequence
Choose the correct answer from the
17. Which traveller called the 'Mahanavmi from the options given below :
Dibba' as the 'House of Victory"? (A) I, II, III, IV, V options given below :
(A) Domingo Paes (B) II, I, IV, III, V (A) I and II Only
(B) Abdur Razzaq (C) V, II, III, IV, I (B) I, II and III Only
(C) Duarte Barbosa (D) III, V, IV, II, I (C) III and IV Only
(D) Fernao Nuniz 22. Hierarchy of females in the Mughal (D) IV Only
18. Which of the following statement is imperial household was : 27. The objective of the pictorial images
INCORRECT about Kabir? (A) Aghas, Aghacha & Begums made in Britain depicting the events of
I. He was supported by scriptural (B) Begums, Aghas & Aghachas the revolt of 1857 was :
knowledge. (C) Begum. Aghachas & Aghas
(A) To glorify Indian rebels
II. He rejected differences based on (D) Aghas, Begums & Aghacha
caste and religion (B) To reflect feat of the Revolt of 1857
23. The ideal of sulh-i-kul was implemented
III. He advocated a philosophy of through the State polices of Mughal (C) To create a sense of the time of
devotion and labour emperor. Which of the following does trouble was past and rebellion was
IV. He rejected adherence to empty not hold true regarding sulh-i-kul over with the British as victors.
ritual. implementation? (D) To ignore the revolt of 1857

Page 58  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

28. 'During the course of the Revolt of 1857, 33. Who among the following was active in and as a result of this agitation we are now a
moneylenders became the target of rebel'. underground resistance during Quit India separate nation ... Can you show me one free
Which one of the following is the possible Movement?. country where there are separate electorates?
reason for the above assertion? (A) Subhash Chandra Bose If so , I shall be prepared to accept it . But
(A) Moneylenders refused to provide in this unfortunate country , if this separate
(B) Aurobindo Ghosh
arms to the sepoys. electorate is going to be persisted , even after the
(C) Jai Prakash Narayan
(B) Moneylenders were rich and lived division of the country ; it is not worth living in
(D) Sachindra Sanyal . Therefore , I say , it is not for my good alone
a luxurious life.
34. In which of the following year elections : it is for your own good that I say it , forget
(C) Moneylenders were oppressive and
to the provincial legislatures were held the past . One day , we may be united ... The
allied with the British.
for the first time? British element is gone , but they have left the
(D) Moneylenders did not provide loans
(A) 1919 (B) 1935 mischief behind . We do not want to perpetuate
to the sepoys.
(C) 1937 (D) 1939 that mischief . ( Hear , hear ) . When the British
29. Which one is not true about Deccan Riots
35. A series of 'Praja Mandals' was established introduced this element they had not expected
Commission?
to promote the nationalist movement in : that they will have to go so soon . They wanted
(A) Recorded statements of
(A) Princely States it for their easy administration . That is all right.
Ryots, Sahukars and eyewitnes
But they have left the legacy behind . Are we
es. (B) Merchant community
to get out of it or not ?
(B) Recorded prices and interest rates (C) Government servants
in different regions. (D) Peasants 39. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel denounces
(C) Collated report sent by District separate electorates because :
Collectors. 36. Who among the following made a (A) Gandhi ji asks him to
(D) Was set up by Government of powerful replacement plea for continuing (B) It will result in the further partition
Madras. a separate electorate in 1947? of the country
(A) Sardar Patel (C) British promote separate electorates
30. Match List I with List II:
(B) Govind Ballabh Pant (D) He thought, it was good for us
List-I List-II
(C) B. Pocker Bahadur
(1) Nana Sahib I. Bihar 40. As the passage goes, how are British
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
related to separate electorates? Choose
(2) Kunwar Singh II. Kanpur
37. In 1946, there was a mutiny of Indian the correct option.
(3) Gonoo III. Chotanagpur
Naval Ratings in : (A) It is mischief left behind by the
(4) Bijris Qadir IV. Awadh (A) Bombay (B) Calcutta British
Choose the correct answer from the (C) Madras (D) Visakhapatnam (B) British wanted it for easy administra-
options given below: tion
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV 38. Match List-I with List-II :
(C) British wanted to leave, after divid-
List-I
(B) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II ing us
1. Lord Mountbatten became Viceroy
(C) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV (D) British not wanted to India united
2. Formation of drafting committee
(D) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II 3. Poona Pact 41. Besides Jinnah which other leader
31. Arrange the following events in chrono- 4. Declaration communal decision demanded separate electorates?
logical order : List-II (A) Sardar Patel
I. Santhal Rebellion I. 29 August 1947
II. American Civil war (B) B. Pocker Bahadur
II. 24 March 1947
III. Fifth Report (C) R. V. Dhulekar
III. 16 August 1932
IV. Permanent Settlement (D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
IV. 24 September 1932
V. First Revenue Settlement in Bombay 42. "They have left the legacy behind" what
Choose the correct answer from the
Deccan area options given below: is the legacy left behind by the British that
Choose the most appropriate sequence (A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III Sardar Patel is referring to?
from the options given below: (B) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I (A) Railways
(A) III, V, IV, II, I (C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II (B) Divisional Politics
(B) I, II, III, IV, V (D) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV (C) Poverty
(C) IV, III, II, I, V (D) Constitutional politics
(D) V, IV, II, III, I Direction (Q No. 39 to 43)
Read the following passage carefully and 43. In which Act was the separate electorate
32. Khilafat agitators demanded the
answer the five questions that follow : introduced?
restoration of the power of :
(A) Mughal emperor Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel said : It is no use (A) Government of India Act, 1909
(B) German emperor saying that we ask for separate electorates (B) Government of India Act, 1919
(C) Shahi imam of Delhi because it is good for us . We have heard it (C) Government of India Act, 1935
(D) Ottoman ruler long enough . We have heard it for years , (D) Government of India Act, 1947

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 59

 44. For how much time English was to be (A) I, II, III, IV, V 50. Match List-I with List-II:
continued for all official purposes as (B) II, I, IV, V, III List-I
per recommendations of the language (C) IV, II, V, III, I
1. B. N. Rau
committee? (D) II, V, III, IV, I
(A) 10 years (B) 15 years 2. B. R. Ambedkar
47. What proclamation of commitment had
(C) 20 years (D) 25 years 3. S. N Mukherjee
been taken in Indian National Congress
4. Rajendra Prasad
45. The permanent settlement in Bengal session in December 1929?
contained : List-II
(A) Equality (B) Liberty
(A) Sunset law (B) Evening law I. Chairman of the drafting committee
(C) Purna Swaraj (D) Simon Go Back
(C) Ryot law (D) Afternoon law of the constitution
48. How many sessions of the Constituent II. President of the Constituent Assem-
46. Write the following events in chronologi- Assembly were held? bly
cal order : (A) 7 (B) 9 III. Prepared a series of background
I. Quit India Movemen (C) 11 (D) 13 papers on the political systems
II. Jallianwala Bagh Massa- 49. Separate electorate will be "self- IV. Chief Draughtsman
cre Choose the correct answer from the
destructive" for the minorities. The
III. Simon Commission (Simon go
opinion in the statement is by: options given below:
back)
IV. Dandi March (A) Begum Aizaas Rasul (A) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-I, 4-III
V. Chauri-Chaura (B) Durga Bai (B) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV
Choose the correct answer from the (C) Noor Jahan (C) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
options given below: (D) Sarojini Naidu (A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV

Solutions
1. (D) 1-Amri Nal, 2-Damb Sadaat, 3-Kot Related Theory Explanation: Regarding the duties
Diji, 4-Siswal towards parents and teachers, Buddha
 The Ajanta consists of thirty caves, each advocated that the work should be
Explanation: On examining the map
dedicated to the life of the Buddha. assigned according to the strengths.
given in the question, the names of the
sites as per assigned number are follows 5. (B) II and III only
9. (D) Rules for Samanas
1. Amri Nal Explanation: In Harappan Culture,
Explanation: Rules of Samanas is an
2. Damb Sadaat exchanges were regulated by a precise aspect of the Buddhist philosophy.
system of weights, usually made of a
3. Kot Diji 10. (C) Those who have denounced the
stone called chert and generally cubical,
4. Siswal world
with no markings.
2. (A) Steatite Explanation: Samanas were those who
Explanation: The stone used to make
Related Theory had denounced the world.
Harappan seals was steatite.  They were always cubical and had 11. (C) Chandragupta II
markings to identify the weight. The lower
Related Theory Explanation: Prabhavati Gupta was a
denominations were binary (1, 2, 4, 8,
Vakataka queen. She was a daughter of
 Harappan seal is possibly the most 16, 21, etc. upto 12,800) and the higher
Chandragupta II and she had the access
distinctive artefact of the Harappan or denominations followed the decimal system.
to land.
Indus valley civilisation. These seals often 6. (D) Sharing delicacies with them
contained animal motifs and signs from a 12. (D) Krishna in North and Tungabhadra
script that still has not been deciphered. Explanation: Regarding the relationship
in South
between a master and his servants or
3. (B) Well planned Settlements Explanation: Vijaynagar city was
employees, Buddha advised Sigala that a
Explanation: Mature Harappan culture master should look after his servants and situated between Krishna in North and
developed in some of the areas occupied Tungabhadra in South. This dynasty
employees by assigning them to work
by the Early Harappan cultures. was founded by Harihara and Bukka in
according to their strength, by supplying
1336 AD.
Related Theory them with food, wages by tending them in
sickness; by sharing delicacies with them 13. (B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
 These cultures also shared certain common by granting leaves at times. Explanation:
elements including subsistence strategies. It
means that the people in both cultures had 7. (A) By affection in act and speech and l Endogamy- Refers to the marriage
similar well planned settlements. mind with into unit.
4. (D) Jatakas Explanation: According to Buddha a l Exogamy- Refer to marriage outside
clansmen should take care of the needs the unit.
Explanation: The paintings of Ajanta
depict stories from the Jatakas. The of samans and Brahmans by affection in l Polygamy- Refer to the practice of
Jatakas were stories composed by act and speech and mind. a man having several wives.
ordinary people and preserved by 8. (A) Assigning work according to their l Polyandry- Refer to practice of a
Buddhist monks. strength woman having several husband.

Page 60  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

14. (A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV 19. (C) Sagun and Nirgun 22. (B) Begums, Aghas & Aghachas
Explanation: Explanation: Bhakti traditions have Explanation: (Kings and Chronicles)
l Empty Seat- Dharm Chakra been further classified into two broad Hierarchy of females in the Mughal
Pravartana categories i.e. Saguna (with attributes) imperial household was Begums, Aghas
l Stupaµ Meditation and Nirguna (without attributes). & Aghachas.
l Wheelµ Enlightenment Related Theory Related Theory
l Treeµ Mahaparinirbana
 Saguna tradition included traditions that  Begums were the wives who came from royal
15. (D) Dutch in Bombay focused on the worship of specific deities families and Aghas were the wives who were
such as Shiva, Vishnu and his avatars not of noble birth. The concubines (aghacha
Explanation: The European commercial
(incarnations) and forms of the goddess or the lesser agha) occupied the lowest
companies had set up base in different or Devi, all often conceptualised in position in the hierarchy of females intimately
places early during mughal era. The anthropomorphic forms. Nirguna tradition related to royalty. They all received monthly
Portuguese, British and French established on the other hand was worship of an abstract allowances in cash, supplemented with gifts
their commercial companies in Panaji form of god. according to their status.
(1500), Madras (1639) and Pondicherry 20. (A) I, II, V, IV, III 23. (D) Jizya was imposed during the reign
(1674) respectively. Explanation: The correct chronological of Aurangzeb.
16. (A) They were all archaeologists order of the religious teachers given in Explanation: (Kings and Chronicles)
whose work helped emphasize the the question is Appar, Andal, Basavanna, Abua’l Fazl describes the ideal of sulh-i
historicity and ancientness of the Kabir and Mirabai. - kul (absolute peace) as the cornerstone
Harappan civilization. Related Theory of enlightened rule. The ideal of sulh-
Explanation: (Bricks, Beads and Bones) i-kul was implemented through the
 Appar was a relligious tecaher in Tamilnadu State polices of Mughal emperor. The
Daya Ram Sahni, Rakhal Das Banerji region in 500-800 CE while Andal (a woman following is true about Sulh-i-kul:
and John Marshall were archaeologists Alwar) was a religious teaher in 800-900 CE
whose work helped emphasize the l The nobility under the Mughals
in the same region. Andal saw herself as the
historicity and ancientness of the beloved of Vishnu; her verses express her was a composite one comprising
Harappan civilization. love for the deity. Iranis, Turanis, Afghans, Rajputs,
Deccans.
Related Theory Basavanna (1106-08), a Brahmana,
l All Mughal emperors gave grants
was a religious tecaher in Karnataka.
 Dayaram Sani excavated Harappa in 1921and He was a minister in the court of to supports the building and
Rakhal Das banerjee excaated Mohenjodaro Kalachuri ruler. His followers were maintenance of places of worship.
in 1922. John Marshall was the Director known as Virashaivas (heroes of Shiva) l Akbar abolished tax on pilgrimage.
General of ASI from 1902 to 1928. He was the or Lingayats (wearers of the linga). 24. (D) Santhals used to get tributes from
one who announced the the discovery of a new the traders as protection money.
civilisation in the Indus valley to the world. Kabir was one of the most prominent
religious teachers of 14-15th Century. Explanation: (Colonialism and the
17. (A) Domingo Paes Countryside). The Santhals came into
The verses ascribed to him have
Explanation: (An Imperial Capital: been compiled in three distinct but Bengal in the 1780s. Santhals are a
Vijayanagara) Domingo Paes called the overlapping traditions. The Kabir Bijak tribal group concentrated in the state of
'Mahanavmi Dibba' as the 'House of is preserved by the Kabirpanth (the Jharkhand. They cleared forests and cut
Victory". path or sect of Kabir) in Varanasi and down timber. They ploughed land and
elsewhere in Uttar Pradesh; the Kabir grew rice and cotton. They also settled
Related Theory Granthavali is associated with the down cultivating a range of commercial
 The King's palace in Vijayanagara had two of Dadupanth in Rajasthan, and many of crops for the market. Please note that the
the most impressive platforms, usually called his compositions are found in the Adi Santhal Revolt took place in 1855-56.
the “audience hall” and the “mahanavami Granth Sahib. 25. (A) Santhals
dibba”. Mahanavami Dibba was located on Mirabai (c. fifteenth-sixteenth centuries) Explanation: (Colonialism and the
the highest point of the city. is perhaps the best-known woman poet Countryside) Damin-i-Koh was the land
18. (D) II and IV Only within the bhakti tradition. She was a of Santhals situated in the Rajmahal
Explanation: (Bhakti-Sufi Traditions) Rajput princess from Merta in Marwar hills. The Santhals were persuaded by
Kabir was supported by scriptural and was a devotee of Krishna. the British to settle in the Rajmahal
knowledge. He also advocated a 21. (B) II, I, IV, III, V foothills by giving land to them. By
philosophy of devotion and labour. 1832, a sizable portion of the territory
Explanation: The correct chronological
had been designated as Damin-i-Koh
Related Theory order of the events given in the question
and identified as Santhals' territory
 Kabir was one of India's most important is as follows :
l Natyashastra of Bharata
26. (B) I, II and III Only
saints during the 15th and 16th centuries.
He was brought up in a Muslim weaving l Works of astronomy and Explanation: (Mahatma Gandhi and
household near Banaras. His teachings mathematics by Aryabhata & the Nationalist Movement) Non-
were based on complete indeed vehement Varahamihira cooperation movement was started
and rejection of major religious traditions. by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 A.D. in
l Charak & Sushruta Samhita
He rejected the external form of worship of order to protest against the cruelties
both brahminical Hinduism and in Islam. He l Ashtadhyayi of Panini committed on the people of Punjab
also criticised the dominance of the priestly l Early Buddhist texts including the at Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar and to
classes and the caste system. Tripitakas redress the injustice done to Turkey.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 61

 32. (D) Ottoman ruler 37. (A) Bombay
Related Theory Explanation: (Mahatma Gandhi and Explanation: In 1946, there was a
 During the Non-Cooperation Movement, the Nationalist Movement) The Khilafat mutiny of Indian Naval Ratings in
Lawyers refused to attend court and the Movement (1919-1924), a pan-Islamic, Bombay. It is also known as Bombay
working class went on strike in many towns protest campaign, was launched by Uprising. This mutiny was started as
and cities. It led to the Hindu-Muslim unity a strike by ratings of the Royal Indian
Muslims in British India to influence the
and the fear of British might get removed Navy on 18 February in protest against
British Government and to protect the
from the minds of the people general conditions.
Ottoman empire during the aftermath of
27. (C) To create a sense of the time of 38. (A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III
First World War. The Khilafat agitators
trouble was past and rebellion was Explanation: The correct match is as
demanded the restoration of the power
over with the British as victors. follows :
of Ottoman ruler.
Explanation: The objective of the l Lord Mountbatten became Viceroyµ
33. (C) Jai Prakash Narayan
pictorial images made in Britain 24 March 1947
depicting the events of the revolt Explanation: (Mahatma Gandhi and
l Formation of drafting committeeµ 29
of 1857 was to create a sense that the Nationalist Movement) Jai Prakash
August 1947
the time of trouble was past and the Narayan was active in underground
l Poona Pact µ 24 September 1932
rebellion was over; the British were the resistance during Quit India Movement.
l Declaration communal decision µ 16
victors.“Relief of Lucknow”, painted by He is also known as JP. He was the
August 1932
Thomas Jones Barker in 1859, is one of one who led the opposition parties to
demonstrate against the emergency 39. (B) It will result in the further partition
such examples.
decklared by Indira Gandhi in 1975. of the country
28. (C) Moneylenders were oppressive and Explanation: Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
allied with the British. 34. (C) 1937
denounces separate electorates because
Explanation: 'During the course of the Explanation: It was 1937, when the he believed that It will result in the
Revolt of 1857, moneylenders became the elections to the provincial legislatures were further partition of the country.
target of rebel' because moneylenders were held for the first time. These elections were
40. (A) It is mischief left behind by the Brit-
oppressive and allied with the British. conducted in 11 provinces and Congress ish
made government in 07 provinces i.e.
29. (D) Was set up by Government of Ma- Explanation: The British are related
Bombay, UP, Madras, Orisa, Central to separate electorates because it is
dras.
Provinces, Bihar, NWFP. In Bengal, NWFP, mischief left behind by the British.
Explanation: (Colonialism and the
Assam and Bombay, Congress emerged as
Countryside) The Deccan Riots Commission 41. (B) B. Pocker Bahadur
the single largest party.
was set up by the Government of Bombay. Explanation: Besides Jinnah, B. Pocker
It was setup to investigate the Deccan riots 35. (A) Princely States Bahadur was that leader who had demanded
of 1875. The commission produced a report Explanation: A series of 'Praja and supported separate electorates.
that was presented to the British Parliament Mandals' was established too promote 42. (B) Divisional Politics
in 1878. the nationalist movement in Princely Explanation: About British, Sardal
States.
30. (C) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV Patel had mentioned that "They have
Explanation: The correct match is as
Related Theory left the legacy behind". Here legacy
 refers to the divisional politics.
follows : Praja Mandals were those political
l Nana Sahib µ Kanpur organisations, which were formed to establish 43. (A) Government of India Act, 1909
a responsible government in the princely Explanation: Seperate Electorate in
l Kunwar Singh µ Bihar states, to oppose atrocities and exploitation India was introduced by the Government
l Gonoo µ Chotanagpur by the feudals, to induct political awareness of India Act 1909. This act is also
l Bijris Qadir µ Awadh in the princely states and to provide fuel to
known as the "Morley-Minto Reforms".
the nationalistic movements being conducted
31. (C) IV, III, II, I, V in the country. 44. (B) 15 years
Explanation: The correct chronological 36. (C) B. Pocker Bahadur Explanation: (Framing the Constitution)
order is as follows: As per recommendations of the language
Explanation: (Framing the Constitution)
l Permanent Settlement- 1793 committee, English was to be continued
On 27 August 1947, B. Pocker Bahadur for all official purposes for 15 years.
l Fifth Report - 1813 from Madras made a powerful plea
Related Theory
l First Revenue Settlement in Bombay for continuing separate electorates.
Deccan area - 1820 He stated that "The minorities exist  The committee proposed Hindi in the
in all lands; they could not be wished Devanagari script to be the official language.
l Santhal Rebellion - 1855-56
Besides, each province was to be allowed
l American Civil war-1861-65 away, they could not be erased out of to choose one of the regional languages for
existence". official work within the province.

Page 62  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

45. (A) Sunset law l Simon Commission (Simon go back) 49. (A) Begum Aizaas Rasul
Explanation: (Colonialism and the µ 1928 Explanation: Begum Aizaas Rasul
Countryside) The permanent settlement l Dandi March µ 1930 did not support the concept of separate
in Bengal Contained the Sunset Law. electorate and thus said that the separate
l Quit
India Movement µ 1942
Related Theory 47. (C) Purna Swaraj electorate will be "self-destructive" for
the minorities because they will be
 According to Permanent Settlement of Land,
Explanation: During the Lahore
Session of Congress in 1929, the isolated from the majority.
it was necessary for the Zamindars to pay the
revenue punctually. But according to Sunset proclamation of commitment towards 50. (C) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
Law, if any Zamindar was unable to pay the Purna Swaraj was taken. On 26 January Explanation: The correct match is as
revenue by sunset of the specified date, then 1930, Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the follows-
the Zamindari was bound to be auctioned by indian flag and that's why Republic Day
the government to recover the dues. l
B. N. Rau µ Prepared a series of
is celebrated on 26 January every year
46. (D) II, V, III, IV, I background papers on the political
in India.
system
Explanation: (Mahatma Gandhi and 48. (C) 11
l B. R. Ambedkarµ Chairman of the
the Nationalist Movement) The correct Explanation: Constituent Assembly
chronological order is as follows: drafting committee of the constitution
was established to frame a constitution
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre µ 13 l S. N Mukherjee µ Chief Draughtsman
l for India. In a total 11 sessions of this
April 1919 assembly were held. Dr. Rajendra Prasad l Rajendra Prasad µ President of the
l Chauri-Chaura µ 1922 was the chairman of this assembly. Constituent Assembly.
qq

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 63

 NTA CUET (UG)-2024
MOCK PAPER-1
SELF-ASSESSMENT

General Instructions:
•• For every correct answer, 5 marks will be awarded.
•• 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
•• 40 Questions to be attempted out of 50.
Time Allowed: 45 Minutes Maximum Marks: 200 Marks

1. Which of these is the other name of 7. Given below are two statements, one a decisive agent in shaping agrarian relations.
Harappan Civilisation? labelled as Assertion (A) and the other The Mughal state tried to first acquire specific
(A) Indus Valley Civilisation labelled as Reason (R): information about the extent of the agricul-
(B) Aryan Civilisation Assertion (A): There are limits to what tural lands in the empire and what these lands
(C) Vedic Civilisation epigraphy can reveal. produced before fixing the burden of taxes on
(D) None of these Reason (R): It is not always easy to be people. The land revenue arrangements and
2. Which of these sites of Harappan sure about the exact meaning of the words
then actual collection. The jama was the amount
Civilisation belong to Haryana? used in inscriptions.
assessed as opposed to hasil, the amount col-
(A) Shortugai (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A). lected. In his list of duties of the amil – guzar
(B) Banawali or revenue collector. Akbar decreed that while
(C) Kalibangan (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A). he should stive to make cultivators pay in cash,
(D) Lothal the option of payment in kind was also to be the
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
3. Which of these is the feature of Harappan state was to maximize its claims. The scope of
(D) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.
Civilisation?
8. How many verses are there in Mahabharata? actually realizing these claims was, however,
(A) Citadel and Lower town
(A) One Lakh sometimes thwarted by local conditions. Both
(B) Drainage system
(B) More than one lakh cultivated and cultivable lands were measured
(C) Urban planning
(C) 20 thousand in the each province. The Ain compiled the
(D) All of these
(D) 50 thousand aggregates of such lands during akbar,s rule.
4. What are big rocks kept on the burial in
9. Who emerged victorious in the battle of Efforts to measure lands continued under
central and south India called?
Mahabharata? subsequent emperors. For instance, in 1665
(A) Megaliths
(A) Kaurvas Aurangzeb expressly instructed his revenue
(B) Northern Black Polished Ware
(B) Salvahanas officials to prepare annual records of the number
(C) Boulders
(C) Mauryans of cultivators in each village. Yet not all areas
(D) Pillars
(D) Pandavas were measured successfully. As we have seen,
5. Who was Dhamma Mahamatta?
10. Which of the following is the most impor- forests covered huge areas of the subcontinent
(A) Special officers appointed by Ashoka
tant dharmashastra? and thus remained immeasurable.
for maintaining law and order in the
(A) Mahabharata 11. What was the economic mainstay of
kingdom.
(B) Manusmriti Mughal Empire?
(B) Special officers appointed by Ashoka
(C) Rigveda (A) Agriculture
to spread the message of dhamma.
(D) None of these
(C) Special revenue officers appointed by (B) Land Revenue
Ashoka for tax collection. Directions (Q. No. 11 to 15) (C) Animal Husbandry
(D) Special officer appointed by Ashoka Read the following passage and answer the (D) None of these
to stop the spread of dhamma. questions that follow: 12. In case of revenue, which of the following
6. The sixth century BCE often considered a
During Mughal age, the revenue from the land was vital in Mughal empire?
major turning point in Indian history due
to the: was the economic mainstay. It was therefore (A) to create an administrative apparatus
vital for the state to create an administrative to ensure control over agricultural
(A) Emergence of Buddhism and Jainism,
Extensive use of Copper apparatus to ensure control over agricultural production.
(B) Dominance of Hinduism; Use of iron production and to fix and collect revenue from (B) to fix and collect revenue from across
(C) Emergence of states, cities, and towns; across the length and breadth of the rapidly the length and breadth of the rapidly
Use of iron expanding empire. The Mughal state tried to expanding empire
(D) Emergence of states, cities, and towns; first acquire specific information about the (C) Both (A) and (B)
Dominance of Hinduism extent of the agricultural domain and became (D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Page 64  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

13. What used to be decided before fixing the 24. Ahom kings were from: Choose the correct answer from the
taxes? (A) Orissa options given below:
(A) the extent of the agricultural lands (B) Andhra Pradesh (A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I
(B) Production from these lands (C) Madhya Pradesh (B) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Assam (C) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) 25. Which of the following crops was an
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
14. What were the two stage of fixing land important Jins-i-Kamil of Central India?
35. In which year, Bombay was given to the
revenue in Mughal state? (A) Cotton company as dowry?
(A) Land Revenue Arrangement (B) Sugarcane (A) 1690 (B) 1661
(B) Actual Collections (C) Both (A) and (B) (C) 1639 (D) 1680
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B) 36. In which year, the first census survey of
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) 26. From father's side the Mughals were the India was conducted?
15. In which year did Aurangzeb expressly descendants of: (A) 1872 (B) 1882
instruct his revenue officials to prepare (A) Genghis Khan (B) Ibn Battuta (C) 1892 (D) 1852
annual records of the number of cultivators (C) Safavids (D) Timur 37. Among the British population, Madras was
in each village? 27. Rigveda was compiled between .............. . basically known as:
(A) 1665 (B) 1670 (A) 1000 BCE - 500 BCE (A) Fort Augustus
(C) 1656 (D) 1565 (B) 1500 BCE - 1000 BCE (B) Fort Saint George
16. Who was the author of the book ‘Kitab-ul- (C) 700 BCE - 400 BCE (C) Fort William
Hind’?
(D) 1200 BCE - 500 BCE (D) None of these
(A) Abdul Samad Lahori
28. Who among the following is considered 38. Where did Gandhi Ji use Satyagraha for
(B) Al-Biruni the greatest Mughal Emperor? the first time?
(C) Callin Mcenzie
(A) Jehangir (B) Akbar (A) England
(D) lbn-Battuta
(C) Shahjehan (D) Aurangzeb (B) South Africa
17. Vishnu devotees were known as:
29. The permanent settlement in Bengal was (C) India
(A) Nayanar introduced:
(B) Zimmi (D) South America
(A) 1905 (B) 1764
(C) Virshaiv 39. Who among the following was the moder-
(C) 1793 (D) 1785
(D) Alvar ate leader of the Congress?
30. Which of the following was the reason
18. Alwar saints used to worship________ (A) Lala Lajpat Rai
behind the suspension of the Non-
(A) Laxmi Cooperation Movement? (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Vishnu (A) Chauri-Chaura Incident (C) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Indra (B) Khilafat Movement (D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Shiva (C) Direct Action Day 40. When did Gandhi ji take back the Non-
19. Non-Muslim had to pay a religious tax, (D) None of the above Cooperation Movement?
which was known as: 31. The year when the Fifth Report was (A) January 1922 (B) February 1922
(A) Shukrana introduced in the British Parliament: (C) February 1921 (D) January 1921
(B) Zakat (A) 1795 (B) 1770 41. Consider the following events.
(C) Zajiya (Jizya) (C) 1813 (D) 1858 1. Direct Action Day
(D) Chari tax 32. From which of the following places, the 2. Cabinet Mission
20. Vijayanagara city was also known as: Revolt of 1857 was started? 3. Wavell Plan
(A) Nagalparam (A) Meerut (B) Ambala 4. Formation of Interim Government
(B) Hampi (C) Delhi (D) Lucknow
(C) Hastinapur (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 4, 3, 2, 1
33. Who among the following was forced to (C) 3, 2, 1, 4 (D) 1, 3, 4, 2
(D) Fatehpur Sikri lead the Revolt of 1857?
21. The Vijayanagara kingdom was established 42. In this picture ‘A Reservoir ’ is shown.
(A) Bahadur Shah Zafar
in: This reservoir belongs to which area of
(B) Kunwar Singh
(A) 1336 the Harappan Civilization?
(C) Peshwa Bazi Rao II
(B) 1346 (D) Nawab Shaukat Ali
(C) 1350
34. Match the following:
(D) 1361
List-I (Book)
22. Who founded the Vijayanagara Kingdom?
1. Badshahnama
(A) Krishadeva Raya
(B) Prantak I 2. Ain-i Akbari
3. Rihla .
(C) Harihara and Bukka
(D) Hasan Gangu 4. Humayun Nama (A) Mohenjodaro (B) Dholavira
23. Who was the author of Ain-i-Akbari? List-II (Author) (C) Banawali (D) Lothal
(A) Abul Fazal I. Gulbadan Begum 43. The number of members in the Constituent
(B) Abdur Razzaq II. Abdul Hamid Lahori Assembly of Independent India was:
(C) Al Idrisi III. Abu'l-Fazl (A) 290 (B) 389
(D) Al-Biruni IV. Ibn Battuta (C) 300 (D) 380

Mock Paper - 1 Page 65

 Directions (Q. No. 44 to 48) 45. According to Mahatma Gandhi which 49. Consider the following events and choose
Read the following passage and answer the language would be an ideal language of the correct chronological order of these
questions that follow: communication between diverse commu- events.
By the 1950s, the Congress had accepted that nities 1. Introduction of Permanent settlement
Hindustani ought to be the national language. (A) Multicultutal Language 2. American Civil war
Mahatma Gandhi felt that everyone should (B) English 3. Fifth report in the British Parliament
speak in a language that common people could (C) Hindi 4. Santhals arrived in the hilly area of
(D) Any language chosen by the assembly Rajmahal
easily understand. Hindustani – a blend of
Hindi and Urdu – was a popular language of a 46. Hindustani language was a blend of: (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
large section of the people of India, and it was (A) Hindi and English (B) 4, 3, 2, 1
a composite language enriched by the interac- (B) Hindi and Urdu (C) 1, 4, 3, 2
tion of diverse cultures. Over the years it had (C) Urdu and English (D) 1, 3, 4, 2
incorporated words and terms from very many (D) None of these 50. Which of the following statements is/are
different sources, and was therefore understood 47. In India, which of the following language correct?
by people from various regions. This multi – could be understood by the people of vari- 1. Badshahnama was written by Shah
cultural language, Mahatma Gandhi thought ous regions? Jahan.
would be the ideal language of communication (A) English 2. Gulbadan Begum was the daughter of
between diverse communities: it could unify (B) Urdu Babur.
Hindus and Muslims, and people of the north (C) Hindustani 3. Abul Fazl was the Prime Minister of
and south. (D) Hindi Akbar.
44. By when, the Congress started to feel that 48. Which of the following was a popular 4. Jahanara was the daughter of Shah
Hindustani must be the national language? language of a large section in India? Jahan.
(A) 1960 (A) Hindustani (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 1947 (B) Hindi (B) 1, 2, 4
(C) 1950 (C) Urdu (C) 2, 3, 4
(D) None of these. (D) English (D) 1, 3, 4
qq

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 NTA CUET (UG)-2024
MOCK PAPER-2
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. Harappans used to get gold from: 8. According to Shastras, who could rule the places peasants deserted their villages and
(A) Chotta Nagpur region country? migrated to new regions. In areas of poor
(B) Central India (A) Kshatriyas soil and fluctuating rainfall the problem
(C) Himalayan Region (B) Brahmins was particularly acute. When rains failed
(D) South India (C) Shudras and harvests were poor, peasants found it
2. Which of these was the source of copper (D) Vaishyas impossible to pay the revenue. However, the
for Harappans? 9. Which of these rulers followed the collectors in charge of revenue collection were
(A) Gujarat endogamy type of marriage? keen on demonstrating their efficiency and
(B) Banawali (A) Pandavas (B) Satvahanas pleasing their superiors. So they went about
(C) Rajasthan (C) Mauryas (D) All of these extracting payment with utmost severity. When
(D) Karnataka 10. Who among the following was the wife of someone failed to pay, his crops were seized
3. Which of these was the cause of decline Pandavas? and a fine was imposed on the whole village.
of Harappan civilisation?
(A) Dithya 11. When was the first revenue settlement was
(A) Deforestation
(B) Gautami made in Bombay?
(B) Climatic Change
(C) Draupadi (A) 1820s (B) 1830s
(C) Floods
(D) Pradevi Gupta (C) 1840s (D) 1850s
(D) All of these
4. Who composed the Prayag Prashasti in Directions (Q. No. 11 to 15) 12. In which year did the movement begin is
praise of Samudragupta? Read the following passage and answer the Supa village?
(A) Banabhatta questions that follow: (A) 1857 (B) 1895
(B) Kautilya (C) 1858 (D) 1875
In 1875, the movement began at Supa, a large
(C) Harisena
village in Poona (present-day Pune) district. It 13. The revenue system that was introduced
(D) Prabhavati Gupta
was a market centre where many shopkeepers in the Bombay Deccan was known as:
5. Which of the following is not one of the
and moneylenders lived. On 12 May1875, (A) Ryotwari Settlement
main features of Ashoka’s dhamma?
ryots from surrounding rural areas gathered (B) Permanent Settlement
(A) Gahapati should respect members
of the family, relatives, servants, the and attacked the shopkeepers, demanding their (C) Mahalwari Settlement
poor, and the slaves. bahi khatas (account books) and debt bonds. (D) None of the above
(B) Follow non-violence. They burnt the khatas, looted grain shops, and
14. In Bengal the revenue of directly settled
(C) Consider your religion superior to the in some cases set fire to the houses of sahukars.
by:
other religions. As British rule expanded from Bengal to other
(A) Zaindars and Ryots
(D) Respect the elders and be generous to parts of India, new systems of revenue were
imposed. Since the revenue demand was fixed (B) Mahals
the Brahmins.
under the Permanent Settlement, the colonial (C) Zamindars
6. What were the guilds of the merchants and
craftsmen called? state could not claim any share of this enhanced (D) Ryots
(A) Uzhavar income. Keen on expanding its financial 15. Which of the following was done for lad
(B) Adimai resources, the colonial government had to revenue by the British?
(C) Ur think of ways to maximise its land revenue. (A) The average income from different
(D) Shrenis The revenue system that was introduced in types of soil was estimated.
7. Consider the following statements the Bombay Deccan came to be known as the (B) The revenue-paying capacity of the
regarding Magadha. ryotwari settlement. Unlike the Bengal system,
ryot was assessed.
1. Initially Pataliputra was the capital of the revenue was directly settled with the ryot.
(C) A proportion of it fixed as the share
Magadha and later it was shifted to The average income from different types of soil
of the state.
Rajagriha. was estimated, the revenue-paying capacity of
2. Magadha was the most powerful the ryot was assessed and a proportion of it fixed (D) All of the above
mahajanapada. as the share of the state. The revenue demand 16. ______ is a form of Hinduism in which
3. Elephants were found in abundance in was no longer permanent. Vishnu was worshipped as the principal
the forests of Magadha. The first revenue settlement in the Bombay deity.
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 1 and 2 Deccan was made in the 1820s. The revenue (A) Shaivism (B) Vaishnavism
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 that was demanded was so high that in many (C) Brahmanism (D) Bhagavatism

Mock Paper - 2 Page 67

17. Islamic Law is known as ________ 30. Urdu is the mixture of________ languages. The correct chronological order of these
(A) Shariya (B) Ulema (A) Persian and Bengali events is:
(C) Samr (D) Jizya (B) Hindi and Bengali (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
18. For how many years did Ibn Battuta remain (C) Hindi and Persian (B) 1, 3, 4, 2
in India? (D) Hindi and Tamil (C) 4, 3, 2, 1
(A) 12 (B) 14 31. Damin-i-koh was associated with: (D) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 16 (D) 18 (A) Santhals 36. Consider the following events:
19. According to Ibn-Battuta, _______ was (B) British 1. Awadh was captured by the British
the largest city? 2. Soldiers revolted at Meerut
(C) Paharias
(A) Agra (B) Delhi 3. Relief of Lucknow was painted by
(D) Zamindari
(C) Surat (D) Daulatabad Thomas Jones Barker
32. Which of the following was the major 4. Bahadur Shah Zafar declared the
20. Which of these was a part of Chishti wor-
source of cotton for the British till 1862? leader of Barker
ship?
(A) America The correct chronological order of these
(A) Dance (B) Music
(B) Japan events is:
(C) Qawali (D) All of these
(C) India (A) 1, 2, 3, 4
21. Who among the following was the guru of
Mirabai? (D) China (B) 1, 3, 4, 2
33. Match the following: (C) 4, 3, 2, 1
(A) Ramananda (B) Saint Ravidas
List-I (Events) (D) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) Saint Kabir (D) Saint Farid
1. Labour Government comes into power 37. For whom, the Civil lines were estab-
22. Which of the following was the capital of
in Britain lished?
Akbar?
2. Muslim League announces Direct Ac- (A) Labourers (B) Clerks
(A) Delhi (B) Lahore
tion Day (C) Kings (D) British
(C) Multan (D) Fatehpur Sikri
3. Constituent Assembly begins its ses- 38. In which year, the Lottery committee was
23. Which of the following was the first
sions established?
dynasty that ruled over Vijayanagara
4. Jinnah elected President of the Con- (A) 1795 (B) 1800
Empire?
stituent Assembly of Pakistan (C) 1817 (D) 1805
(A) Suluva dynasty
List-II (Date) 39. The American Civil war started in:
(B) Sangama dynasty
I. 16 August, 1946 (A) 1867
(C) Tuluva dynasty
II. 26 July, 1945 (B) 1861
(D) Aravidu dynasty
III. 11 August, 1947 (C) 1835
24. Which of the following was the local
IV. 9 December, 1946 (D) 1776
Goddess of Vijayanagara?
Choose the correct answer from the 40. The Peasant Satyagraha at Bardoli was
(A) Pampadevi (B) Durga
options given below: started in:
(C) Parvati (D) Laxmi
(A) 1928
25. ________ was the major source of water (A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I
(B) 1917
for Vijayanagara. (B) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV
(C) 1942
(A) Kaveri (B) Krishna (C) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III
(D) 1931
(C) Tungabhadra (D) Mahanadi (D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I 41. Who among the following was the con-
26. To which of the following regions did 34. In this picture the clothes worn by the gress President at its Lahore Session.?
Ahom kings belong to? members of the assembly have their origin (A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(A) Madhya Pradesh from which region? (B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Orissa (D) Sardar Patel
(D) Assam 42. Dandi March was an attempt to bring forw-
27. How many daftars (parts) were there in the ward:
Ain? (A) Quit India Movement
(A) Three (B) Four (B) Civil Disobedience Movement
(C) Five (D) Six (C) Non-Cooperation Movement
28. Which type of coins were more prevalent (D) Rowlatt Satyagraha
during the Mughal Empire? 43. Which of the following is not correct?
(A) Tin (B) Copper (A) Arab (B) Iran
(A) Muslim League demanded Pakistan
(C) Gold (D) Silver (C) Greece (D) Europe in 1946.
29. A scriptorium where the emperor’s 35. Consider the following events: (B) Cabinet Mission came to India in
collection of manuscripts was preserved, 1. Queen’s Proclamation March 1946.
is known as: 2. The beginning of the revolt (C) Lord Mountbatten arrived in India in
(A) Fort (B) Kitabkhana 3. Passing of Widow Remarriage Act 1947.
(C) Library (D) Karkhana 4. Abolition of sati (D) Bardoli Satyagraha was held in 1928.

Page 68  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 Directions (Q. No. 44 to 48) his feet. Between the latter two classes there is 47. Kshtriyas were created by the ______ of
Read the following passage and answer the no very great distance. Much, however, as these Brahma.
questions that follow: classes differ from each other, they live together (A) hands (B) shoulders
in the same towns and villages, mixed together (C) feet (D) None of these
This is Al-Biruni’s account of the system of
48. Vaishyas were created by the ______ of
varnas: The highest caste is the Brahmana, of in the same houses and lodgings.
Brahma.
whom the books of the Hindus tell us that they 44. According to Al-Biruni, the highest caste
(A) hands (B) shoulders
were created from the head of Brahma. And was: (C) thigh (D) None of these
as the Brahman is only another name for the (A) Shudra 49. When was the first session of all India
force called nature, and the head is the highest (B) Kshatriya States People’s Conference held?
part of the 30……body, the Brahmana are the (C) Brahmana (A) 1930
choice part of the whole genus. (D) None of these (B) 1927
Therefore, the Hindus consider them as the very 45. Brahmans were created by the hands of: (C) 1946
best of mankind. The next caste is the Kshatriya (D) None of these
(A) Shiva (B) Vishnu
who was created, as they say, from the shoulders 50. Who was the chairman of the Drafting
(C) Brahma (D) None of these
and hands of Brahma. Their degree is not much Commitee?
46. Shudras were created by the ______ of (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
below that of the Brahmana. After them follow
Brahma. (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
the Vaishya, who were created from the thigh
(A) hands (B) shoulders (C) Subhash Chandra Bose
of Brahman. The Sudra who were created from
(C) feet (D) None of these (D) Jawaharlal Nehru
qq

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Mock Paper - 2 Page 69

 NTA CUET (UG)-2024
MOCK PAPER-3
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. Which of these was not worshipped by the 6. Who issued the first coins bearing the Directions (Q. No. 11 to 15)
Harappan? names of rulers? Read the following passage and answer the
(A) Pashupatinath questions that follow:
(A) Guptas
(B) Goddess (B) Indo-Greeks I"WITHOUT A SHOT BEING FIRED"
(C) Nature This is what moon wrote:
(C) Mauryas
(D) Indra For over twenty-four hours riotous mobs were
(D) Satavahanas allowed to rage through this great commercial
2. Which of these is the other name of
7. Why King Ashoka was considered as city unchallenged and unchecked. The finest
Harappan Civilisation?
‘Devanampiya’ and ‘Piyadassi’ by his bazaars were burnt to the ground without a
(I) Aryan civilisation shoot being fired to disperse the incendiaries
subjects?
(II) Vedic Civilisation (i.e. those who stirred up conflict). The . . .
(III) Indus Valley Civilisation (A) Epigraphists have concluded him as District Magistrate marched his (large polices)
(IV) Early Civilisation devanam priya. force into the city and marched it out again
(A) Only (I) and (II) are true (B) He did well being of society through without making any effective use of it at all.
Dhamma. 11. Which event has been described in the
(B) (III) and (IV) Only
passage?
(C) Only (I) and (III) are true (C) He adopted the title of ‘Devaputra’.
(A) Events held at the time of partition
(D) Only (II) and (IV) are true (D) Asoka commissioned the edicts (B) Events held during Direct Action Day
3. Consider the following statements. himself (C) Events held during Non Cooperation
1. Rulers had an important role in 8. In Mahabharata, Duryodhana and his Movement
Harappan civilisation. brothers were known as: (D) None of the above
2. After independence, most of the 12. Why did Amritsar became the scene of
(A) Pandavas (B) Nishada
bloodshed later in 1947?
Harappan civilisation centres went (C) Malechhes (D) Kauravas (A) The British officials did not act to
over to Pakistan.
9. Given below are two statements, one stop these unlawful and violent
3. Dead were buried in Harappa. activities.
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
4. The Harappan script has been (B) The district administration had no
labelled as Reason (R):
deciphered. control over the city.
Assertion (A): Women were expected to
Choose the correct statements. (C) Both (A) and (B)
give up their father’s gotra and take up their
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
husband’s gotra after marriage. 13. What was the attitude of the soldiers and
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 3 and 4
Reason (R): Women who married policeman towards the mob?
4. What is James Prinsep’s contribution in the
development of the Indian epigraphy? Satavahana rulers retained their father’s (A) The Indian soldiers had started
gotras instead of adopting names derived behaving as Hindu, Muslims or
(A) He deciphered the Brahmi script used Sikhs.
in most of the Ashokan inscriptions. from their husband’s gotra name.
(B) They were helping the people of their
(B) He deciphered the Kharoshthi (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) community only.
script used in most of the Ashokan is the correct explanation of (A). (C) Both (A) and (B)
inscriptions. (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(C) Both (A) and (B) is not the correct explanation of (A). 14. How did Gandhiji try to bring about
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. communal harmony?
5. Ventures of which of the following traders (A) He advised the people of Hindu
(D) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.
were risky but highly profitable? and Muslim communities to stay
10. Who rebuilt the Sudarshan Lake? together during movement.
(A) Seafarers
(A) Rudradaman (B) He advised the people of Hindu and
(B) Merchants with caravans of bullock Muslim communities to maintain
(B) Chandragupta II
carts and pack-animals trust on each other.
(C) Samudragupta
(C) Peddlers (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) All of the above (D) Asoka
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Page 70  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

15. What was the mob described here doing? 24. Who among the following was the last 33. What does the third part of Ain, ‘Mulk-
(A) Raging through the city unchallenged Nawab of Awadh? Abadi’ deal with?
(B) Protesting peacefully (A) Muhammad Ali Shah (A) Social Side of the empire
(C) Trying to maintain harmony (B) Muhammad Muqim (B) Fiscal side of the empire
(D) Supporting the British (C) Birjis Qadr (C) Administrative side of the empire
(D) Wajid Ali Shah (D) None of the above
16. Which policy encouraged Sir Syed Ahmed
Khan to fight for the right of the Muslims. 25. Which English lady defended herself 34. The huge lands held by Zamindars were
bravely against the Indian rebels in Kan- known as:
(A) Divide and Rule
pur? (A) Milkiyat (B) Zamin
(B) Addition and Rule
(A) Miss Wheeler (C) Grih (D) Bhumi
(C) Do or Die
(B) Miss Julliett 35. Which of the following ancient cities was
(D) None of the above
(C) Miss Emma founded by Colin Meckenzie?
17. ______ was called by Jinnah to press the
(D) Miss Olivia (A) Bijapur (B) Golconda
League’s demand for Pakistan.
(A) Civil Disobedience Day 26. The group of rich farmers were known as (C) Kamalapuram (D) Hampi
____. 36. Find out which one of the following is not
(B) Quit India Day
(C) Direct Action Day (A) Zamindars correctly matched:
(D) Rowlatt Day (B) Grihpatis (A) Amara-Nayaka System – Vijay-
18. Which movement was launched by (C) Bhoomipatis anagara Empire
Mahatma Gandhi after the failure of the (B) Hazara Rama Temple – New Delhi
(D) Jotedars
Cripps Mission? (C) Mahanavami Dibba – King’s
27. The ___________ was set up to investigate
(A) Civil Disobedience Movement the riots of Deccan’s farmer in 1875. palace
(B) Quit India Movement (A) Deccan riots commission (D) Harihara and Bukka – Founded
(C) Non Cooperation Movement (B) Hyderabad riots commission Vijayanagara
(D) None of the above (C) Bengal riots commission 37. Who among the following were the reason
19. What was the significance of Lahore Ses- (D) Chota Nagpur Plateau riots commission behind the disturbance of Krishnadeva
sion of Congress? 28. ______ were the tribes living in the Raya's successors?
(A) Gandhiji postponed Civil Disobedi- foothills of Rajmahal hills. (A) Bijapur (B) Naykas
ence movement. (A) Gonds (C) Cholas (D) Cheras
(B) Declaration of poorna Swaraj (B) Garo 38. Which of the following means a chain
(C) Oppose Rowlatt Act (C) Santhals which signifies a continuous link between
(D) Support the Khilafat Movement (D) Mundas master and disciple?
20. In 1817, the work of town planning in 29. Which of the following refers to the (A) Gathjod
Calcutta was carried on by ______ with showing of the emperor to the public from (B) Silsila
the help of the government. the palace balcony? (C) Saidev
(A) The Lottery Committee (A) Jharokha Darshan (D) Nirantar
(B) The Bombay Committee (B) Ankhon Darshan 39. Lingayats were majorly based in which of
(C) The Cornwalis Committee (C) Drishti Darshan the following states?
(D) The Bentick Committee (D) Chasme Darshan (A) Maharashtra
21. Which of the following became the nucleus 30. In which year, the Constitution of India (B) Karnataka
of the White Town where most of the was passed in: (C) Punjab
Europeans lived? (A) 1942 (D) Uttar Pradesh
(A) Mehrangarh Fort (B) 1950 40. Which of the following groups challenged
(B) Fort St George (C) 1945 the idea of caste and the pollution attrib-
(C) Fort William (D) 1949 uted to certain groups by Brahmanas?
(D) Gomsi Fort 31. What is meant by Kitabkhana, literally? (A) Alvars
22. Which of the following refers to a small (A) Book of Philosophy (B) Lingayats
fixed market? (B) Book of Politics (C) Nayanars
(A) Ganj (B) Bazar (C) Library (D) Puaravar
(C) Rahis (D) Bahis (D) None of the above 41. Whose account was used by the French
23. When the government passed the Hindu 32. In Mughal times, _____ was the amount philosopher Montesquieu to develop the
property law under which even after con- assessed. idea of oriental despotism?
verting to Christianity one could inherit (A) Milkiyat (A) Al-Biruni
one's ancestral property.? (B) Jama (B) Abdur Razzaq Samarqandi
(A) 1848 (B) 1849 (C) Hasil (C) Bernier
(C) 1850 (D) 1851 (D) Grih (D) Ibn Battuta

Mock Paper - 3 Page 71

42. Bernier’s works were published in France agriculture. Traces of canals have been found at 48. Which of the following Harappan site is
in _____. the Harappan site of Shortughai in Afghanistan. situated in Afghanistan?
(A) 1668-69 It is also likely that water drawn from wells was (A) Shortughai
(B) 1669-70 used for irrigation. Besides, water reservoirs (B) Rakhigarhi
(C) 1670-71 found in Dholavira may have been used to store (C) Lothal
(D) 1672-74 water for agriculture. (D) Mohenjodaro
43. Al-Biruni was born in 973, in ________ 44. Which was the chief occupation of Harap- 49. Given below are two statements, one
(A) Syria pans? labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
(B) Kabul (A) Agriculture labelled as Reason (R):
(C) Ghazni (B) Animal husbandry Assertion (A): There are limits to what
(D) Khwarizm (C) Mining epigraphy can reveal.
(D) None of the above Reason (R): It is not always easy to be sure
Directions (Q. No. 44 to 48) about the exact meaning of the words used
Read the following passage and answer the 45. Agriculturists have found the evidence of
________ at kalibangan. in inscriptions.
questions that follow: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
Agriculture was the chief occupation of the (A) coins
is the correct explanation of (A).
Harappans. The prevalence of agriculture is (B) ploughed field
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
indicated by finds of grains. But it is more (C) port
is not the correct explanation of (A).
difficult to reconstruct actual agricultural (D) None of these
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
practices. Archaeologists have found evidence 46. Which of the following was used by Harap- (D) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.
of ploughed field at Kalibangan. Representations pans for ploughing?
50. Which one of the following statements was
on seals and terracotta sculpture indicate (A) Buffalo not a justified reason for Magadha being a
that the bull was known, and archaeologist (B) Cow powerful mahajana pada?
extrapolate from this that oxen were used for
(C) Oxen (A) Magadha was drained by several rivers
ploughing. Terracotta models of the plough
(D) None of these which made the land very fertile.
have been found at sites in Cholistan and at
47. Terracotta models have been found at: (B) In Magadha there were rich deposits
Banawali. The field had two sets of furrows
at right angles to each other, suggesting that (A) Cholistan of iron ore.
two different crops were grown together. Most (B) Banawali (C) Pataliputra, the capital of Magadha,
Harappan sites are located in semi-arid lands, (C) Both (A) and (B) was fortified.
where irrigation was probably required for (D) Neither (A) nor (B) (D) Magadha was ruled by powerful kings.

qq

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Page 72  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)-2024
MOCK PAPER-4
SELF-ASSESSMENT
Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. Consider the following statements 6. Who founded the Mauryan Empire in c. consolidation. Krishnadeva Raya is credited
regarding Indus Valley Civilisation and 321 BCE? with building some fine temples and adding
choose the correct statement(s). (A) Bindusara impressive gopurams to many important south
1. The Harappan seal is probably (B) Chandragupta Maurya Indian temples. Strain began to show within
the most distinctive feature of the (C) Bimbisara the imperial structure following Krishnadeva
Harappan Civilisation. (D) None of the above Raya’s death in 1529. His successors were
7. Which of the following materials was troubled by rebellious nayakas or military
2. Copper was brought from Kolar region
used for the earliest inscriptions? chiefs. During this period, as indeed earlier,
of Karnataka.
(A) Paper the military ambitions of the Deccan Sultanates
3. Mohenjodaro was a city laid in an
(B) Stones resulted in shifting alignments. Eventually
unplanned manner.
(C) Both (A) and (B) this led to an alliance of the Sultanates against
4. Evidences of canal irrigation have Vijayanagara. Although the armies of the
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
been found at a site called shortughai. Sultans were responsible for the destruction
8. One of the occupations of Kshatriyas was:
(A) 2 and 3 of the city of Vijayanagara, relations between
(A) trade
(B) 2 and 4 the Sultans and the rayas were not always or
(B) agriculture
(C) 1 and 3 inevitably hostile. In fact the Vijayanagara
(C) performing sacrifices and giving gifts
(D) 1and 4 kings were keen to ensure the stability of the
(D) to teach Vedas
2. Which of the following things were found Sultanates and vice-versa.
9. Which of the following is not correct about
at craft production centres in Harappan 11. Until when Sangama dynasty exercised
the duties which have been laid down in
civilisation? power?
Manusmriti for the Chandalas?
1. Crystal (A) It was their duty to serve as executioner (A) 1485 (B) 1505
2. Quartz and dispose of the bodies of those who (C) 1460 (D) 1529
3. Jasper had no relatives. 12. Sangama dynasty was replaced by:
4. Carnelian (B) They had to live on the outskirts of (A) Aravidu Dynasty
the village. (B) Suluva Dynasty
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 4
(C) They had to live on the outskirts of (C) Tuluva Dynasty
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1and 4
the village. (D) None of the above
3. Which of the following items has not been
(D) They were supposed to wear old 13. Krishnadeva Raya is credited with:
found in the Harappan graves?
clothes of the villagers and ornaments (A) building some fine temples
(A) Iron hand axe made from shells.
(B) Drainage system (B) adding impressive gopurams to many
10. The New Constitution of India was signed
important south Indian temples
(C) Jewellery in:
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Copper mirrors (A) July 1949
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
4. Ashoka is mentioned by which titles in his (B) January 1950
14. Krishadeva Raya died in:
inscriptions? (C) August 1948
(A) 1529 (B) 1505
(A) Masattuvan, Ashoka (D) December 1948
(C) 1540 (D) 1520
(B) Devaputra, Piyadassi
Directions (Q. No. 11 to 15) 15. After the death of Krishnadeva Raya, his
(C) Ashoka, Piyadassi Read the following passage and answer the succesors were troubled by:
(D) Devanampiya, Piyadassi questions that follow: (A) Sultans (B) Mughals
5. Name the languages in which the Ashokan The first dynasty, known as the Sangama (C) Nayakas (D) None of thes
inscriptions were written. dynasty, exercised control till 1485. They
16. Charkha was chosen as a national symbol
(A) Prakrit, Aramaic, and Greek were supplanted by the Saluvas, who were
because it was a:
(B) Pali, Sanskrit, and Greek replaced by the Tuluvas in 1503. Krishnadeva
(A) Symbol of anger and self-confidence.
(C) Pali, Prakrit, and Greek Raya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty. His
(B) Symbol of nationalism and self-
(D) Pali, Sanskrit, and Aramaic rule was characterised by expansion and
confidence.

Mock Paper - 4 Page 73

 (C) Symbol of self-reliance and patriotism. 25. Which of the following dynasties ruled 36. Consider the following statements
(D) Symbol of self-reliance and self- India during 1526 to 1707? regarding gendered access to the
confidence. (A) Lodi Dynasty property.
17. In 1916, the annual session of Indian Na- (B) Mughal Dynasty I. Stridhana could be inherited by the
tional Congress was held at (C) Tughlaq Dynasty children and husband of the woman.
(A) Lahore (D) Maurya Dynasty II. Paternal estate was divided equally
(B) Lucknow 26. Who used the term 'Mughal' for Timurid amongst sons after the death of the
(C) Nagpur rulers in sixteenth century? parents.
(D) Surat (A) Arabs (B) Europeans III. Women had no right to the paternal
18. In which year did Mahatma Gandhi leave estate.
(C) Portuguese (D) Iranians
India for South Africa? Which of the statement(s) above is/are
27. The Zamindars had huge lands called
(A) 1893 (B) 1889 correct?
_____.
(C) 1885 (D) 1905 (A) I and II (B) II and III
(A) Milkiyat (B) Zamin
19. Pasturelands and agricultural fields around (C) I and III (D) II only
(C) Grih (D) Bhumi
the older towns were cleared, and new 37. Which of the following statements is not
28. Which of the following is correct meaning
urban spaces called ______ were set up. correct regarding the duties of chandalas?
of Jins-i-Kamil?
(A) New Lines (A) They had to live outside the village.
(A) Perfect corps
(B) Tested Lines (B) They had to use discarded utensils and
(B) Perfect crops
(C) Civil Lines wear clothes of the dead and ornaments
(C) Perfect Sepoy
(D) Real Lines of iron.
(D) Perfect administrator
20. In 1857, at which place the first spinning (C) They could walk about in villages and
and weaving mill was established? 29. Hampi town is located on the bank of cities only at night.
(A) Madras. (B) Lahore. ________.
(D) They had to dispose of the bodies of
(C) Goa. (D) Bombay (A) Ganges River those who had no relatives.
21. Which of the following Governor-Generals (B) Tunghbhadra River 38. Consider the following statements regard-
introduced the Subsidiary Alliance? (C) Satluj River ing Jatis and social mobility.
(A) Lord Lytton (D) Godavari River I. Just like varnas the number of jatis was
(B) Lord Cornwalis 30. Karaikkal Ammaiyar was the greatest fixed.
(C) Lord Wellesley figure of which tradition? II. Jatis with different occupations
(D) Lord William Bentinck (A) Alvars (B) Mayunar sometimes organised into shrines or
(C) Nayanars (D) Puaravar guilds.
22. Match the following:
31. The major anthology composed by the III. Jatis like varna was based on birth.
List-I (Centre of revolt)
Alvars was the ___________.
1. Lucknow Which of the statement(s) above is/are
(A) Nalayira Divyaprabandham
2. Kanpur correct?
(B) Nalayira Purabandham
3. Faizabad (A) I and II (B) II and III
(C) Nalayira Alvabandham
4. Arrah (C) III only (D) I only
(D) None of the above
List-II (Leader) 39. Given below are two statements, one
32. Which one of the following is written by
I. Begum Hazrat Mahal labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
Ibn Battuta.?
II. Maulavi Ahmadullah labelled as Reason (R):
(A) Kitab-ul-Hind
III. Nana Sahib Assertion (A): There are limits to what
(B) Rihla
IV. Kunwar Singh epigraphy can reveal.
(C) Dihal
Choose the correct answer from the (D) Deccan-e-Hind Reason (R): It is not always easy to be sure
options given below: about the exact meaning of the words used
33. Who was the first woman to be ordained
(A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I as a bhikkhuni? in inscriptions.
(B) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV (A) Mahapajapati Gotami (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
(C) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-I (B) Mahapajapati Bodhi is the correct explanation of (A).
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I (C) Mahapajapati Grishma (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R)
23. Who among the following introduced (D) None of the above is not the correct explanation of (A).
Permanent Settlement? 34. Mahavira and the Buddha, questioned the (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(A) Lord William Bentinck authority of _______. (D) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.
(B) Lord Cornwalis (A) The Jataka 40. Which one of the following statements was
(C) Lord Northbrook (B) The Ganas not a justified reason for Magadha being a
(D) Lord Lytton (C) The Vedas powerful Mahajanapada?
24. Who was the commander of the British (D) The Yajnas (A) Magadha was drained by several rivers
forces during the American War of inde- 35. On which of the following was the internal which made the land very fertile.
pendence? function of the Sangha based on? (B) In Magadha there were rich deposits
(A) Lord Charles Cornwallis (A) Traditions of Jataka of iron ore.
(B) Lord Canning (B) Traditions of Ganas (C) Pataliputra, the capital of Magadha,
(C) Lord Mayo (C) Traditions of Grihapatis was fortified.
(D) Lord Dufferin (D) Traditions of Yajnas (D) Magadha was ruled by powerful kings.

Page 74  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

41. Traces of canals have been found at the protagonists of partition of the country were the 46. According to Mahatma Gandhi, the The
Harappan site of ________ in Afghanistan. enemies of both Islam and India. He considered protagonists of partition of the country
(A) Shortughai partition as wrong. He appealed to the Muslim were against _______
(B) Harappa League not to regard any Indian as its enemy. (A) Islam
(C) Mohenjodaro The Hindus and the Muslims belong to the same (B) India
(D) Lothal land. They eat the same food and drink same (C) Both (A) and (B)
42. Which town of the Harappan Civilisation water. They speak the same language. They do
that literally means ‘Mound of Dead’? (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
everything with mutual consultation. So they
(A) Banawali 48. According to mahatma Gandhi, Hindu and
cannot be seprated from each other.
(B) Harappa Muslims cannot be seperated because:
44. Mahatma Gandhi was a supporter of _____
(C) Mohenjodaro among various communities of the country. (A) They belong to the same land.
(D) Lothal (A) Unity (B) Love (B) They eat the same food.
43. Harappan script was written from _______ (C) Hatred (D) None of these (C) They speak the same language.
(A) Right to Left 45. Who among the following said that the (D) All of the above
(B) Left to Right country could be divided over his dead 49. The partition of India was a holocaust
(C) Up to Down body? because:
(D) Down to Up (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(A) A large number of people were killed.
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Directions (Q. No. 44 to 48) (B) Lakhs of people had became refugees.
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
Read the following passage and answer the (C) Both (A) and (B)
questions that follow: (D) Sardar Patel
46. According to Mahatma Gandhi, the de- (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Mahatma Gandhi was a supporter of unity
mand for Pakistan was _____. 50. Lucknow Pact was signed in:
among various communities of the country so
(A) Unislamic (A) 1920
he was deadly against the partition of India. He
used to say that the country could be divided (B) Sinful (B) 1916
over his dead body. He stated that the demand (C) Both (A) and (B) (C) 1930
for Pakistan was un-Islamic and sinful. The (D) Neither (A) nor (B) (D) 1911
qq

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Mock Paper - 4 Page 75

 NTA CUET (UG)-2024
MOCK PAPER-5
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. Consider the following statements about 1. Women were allowed to give land century BCE onwards, Brahmanas began
the seals of Proto-Shiva. grants. composing Sanskrit texts known as the
1. Depiction of Pashupati does not match 2. Societies were patriliny in nature. Dharmasutras. These laid down norms for rulers
the mention of Rudra in Rigveda. 3. Sons were considered important for (as well as for other social categories), who
2. Rudra is not mentioned as Pashupati the continuity of the family. were ideally expected to be Kshatriyas some
in Rigveda. (A) 1 and 4 (B) 1 and 2 states acquired standing armies and maintained
3. Later on Rudra word was used for (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 regular bureaucracies. Others continued to
Shiva. 8. In _______ type of marriage does a woman depend on militia, recruited, more often than
4. There is a mention of a diety ‘Rudra’ have several husbands. not, from the peasantry.
in ancient religious texts. (A) Exogamy 11. Sixteen states during 6th century BC were
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) Polyandry known as:
(B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) Polygyny (A) Janpadas
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) Endogamy (B) Mahajanpadas
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 9. Shakas were regarded as _________ by (C) Vish
2. Harappa is located on the banks of which the Brahmanas. (D) None of the above
river? (A) Mlechchhas 12. The 6th Century BC i.e. the Age of maha-
(A) Chenab (B) Ravi (B) Dasas janpadas is known for:
(C) Jhelum (D) Indus (C) Untouchables (A) the growing use of iron
3. The ‘Great Bath’ was found in which town (D) Aryans (B) the development of coinage
of the Indus Valley Civilisation? 10. Which of the following statements is (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Rangpur correct about the classification of people
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
in terms of ‘gotra’ under Brahmanical
(B) Lothal 13. From c. sixth century BCE onwards, Brah-
practice around 1000 BCE onwards?
(C) Harappa manas began composing Sanskrit texts
(A) Another important rule was that
(D) Mohenjodaro members of the same gotra could not known as:
4. Harisena was the courtpoet of: marry. (A) the Dharmasutras
(A) Samudragupta (B) After marriage women were expected (B) the Dharmashastra
(B) Chandragupta II to give up their father’s gotra. (C) the Puranas
(C) Chandragupta I (C) They were supposed to adopt the gotra (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above of their husband.
14. Dharmasutras laid down norms for:
5. Match List-I with List-II (D) All of these
List-I List-II (A) rulers (B) peasants
(1) Gahapati (I) Slaves Directions (Q. No. 11 to 15) (C) ministers (D) None of these
(2) Vellalar (II) Ploughman Read the following passage and answer the 15. Which of the following was a Mahajanpada
(3) Uzhavar (III) Landowner questions that follow: during the 6th century BC?
(4) Adimai (IV) Head of The sixth century BCE is an era associated with (A) Vajji (B) Magadha
household early states, cities, the growing use of iron, the (C) Koshala (D) All of these
(A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I development of coinage, etc. Early Buddhist 16. Who among the following nationalists
(B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV and Jaina texts mention, amongst other things, prepared the Draft Constitution of India?
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II sixteen states known as mahajanapadas.
(A) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II Although the lists vary, some names such as
(B) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar
6. Prabhavati Gupta was the daughter of: Vajji, Magadha, Koshala, Kuru, Panchala,
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(A) Harisena Gandhara and Avanti occur frequently. Clearly,
these were amongst the most important (D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Chandragupta II
mahajanapadas. While most mahajanapadas 17. Which political group viewed the Constitu-
(C) Asoka
were ruled by kings, some, known as ganas or ent Assembly as a British institution?
(D) None of the above
7. Which of the following statements is sanghas, were oligarchies where power was (A) Socialists
correct about the importance of gender shared by a number of men, often collectively (B) Muslim League
differences in the early societies from c. called rajas. Each mahajanapada had a capital (C) Indian National Congress
600 BCE to 600 CE? city, which was often fortified. From c. sixth (D) Depressed Classes

Page 76  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

18. Which event brought the British Raj in 28. In which area was the Ryotwari system 39. The ninth Guru, whose compositions were
India to its knees? implemented mainly? compiled in the Guru Granth Sahib was:
(A) Pakistan Resolution (A) Bombay and Deccan (A) Guru Tegh Bahadur
(B) Quit India Movement (B) Calcutta and Northern India (B) Baba Guru Nanak
(C) Second World War (C) Northern India only (C) Guru Gobind Singh
(D) Provincial elections (D) Bihar and Assam (D) Guru Arjan
19. The picture given below is related to which 29. The jotedars were most powerful in: 40. Whose account has been compared with
religion? that of Marco Polo?
(A) East Bengal
(B) North Bengal (A) Al-Biruni
(C) South Bengal (B) Ibn Battuta
(C) Ibn Khaldun
(D) West Bengal
(D) Abdur Razzaq Samarqandi
30. Professionally, Buchanan was a/an:
41. The chief of the merchant community, in
(A) archaeologist
urban centres, was known as:
(B) physician (A) Nagarsheth
(A) Hinduism (C) philosopher (B) Mahajans
(B) Islam (D) viceroy (C) Mullas
(C) Buddhism 31. Whose aunt was Gulbadan Begum? (D) Vaids
(D) Jainism (A) Babur 42. Which of the following consists of hymns
20. In the context of politics, communalism (B) Humayun in praise of a variety of deities, especially
refers to the idea of unifying communities (C) Akbar Agni, Indra and Soma?
on the basis of: (D) Sher Shah (A) The Rigveda
(A) race 32. When did the first Jesuit mission leave (B) The Yajurveda
(B) religion the Mughal court at Fatehpur Sikri? (C) The Samaveda
(C) caste (A) 1580 AD (B) 1581 AD (D) The Atharvaveda
(D) language (C) 1582 AD (D) 1583 AD 43. Who was the last tirthankara of Jainsim?
21. When did the Dandi march end? 33. Which foreign traveller wrote in his (A) Makkhali Gosala
(A) April 6, 1930 account that " untouchables " had to (B) Siddhartha
(B) January 26, 1930 sound a clapper in the streets so that (C) Mahavira
(C) August 13, 1931 people could avoid seeing them."? (D) Ajita Kesakambalin
(D) September 30, 1931 (A) Fa - Hien
Directions (Q. No. 44 to 48)
22. Who is known as the Father of the Nation? (B) Hiuen - Tsang
Read the following passage and answer the
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (C) Marco Polo
questions that follow:
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Megasthenes
(C) Mahatma Gandhi 34. In 18th century, in which area were the The ruins at Hampi were brought to light in
(D) Bhagat Singh women zamindars known? 1800 by an engineer and antiquarian named
(A) Bengal (B) Rajasthan Colonel Colin Mackenzie. An employee of the
23. By which year did the British become the
English East India Company, he prepared the
rulers of Bengal? (C) Punjab (D) Gujarat
first survey map of the site. Much of the initial
(A) 1747 (B) 1750 35. What is the subject of Mulk-Abadi, the information he received was based on the
(C) 1757 (D) 1760 third book of the Ain-i Akbari? memories of priests of the Virupaksha temple
24. Which of the following pairs is not cor- (A) administration of the empire. and the shrine of Pampadevi.
rectly matched ? (B) civil administration of the empire. According to tradition and epigraphic evidence
(A) Ekalavya - Chandala (C) cultural traditions of the empire. two brothers, Harihara and Bukka, founded
(B) Suvarnakaras - Goldsmith (D) fiscal side of the empire. the Vijayanagara Empire in 1336. This empire
(C) Pandavas - Sons of Pandu 36. In which year were the ruins of Hampi included within its fluctuating frontiers peoples
(D) Kouravas - Son of Gandhari brought into light? who spoke different languages and followed
25. What does the Sanskrit word 'Kula' de- (A) 1800 different religious traditions. The Vijayanagara
fine? (B) 1845 kings competed with contemporary rulers –
(A) Families (B) Neighbours including the Sultans of the Deccan and the
(C) 1856
(C) Deities (D) None of these Gajapati rulers of Orissa – for control of the
(D) 1858 fertile river valleys. The rulers of Vijayanagara,
26. When was Delhi finally captured by the 37. In which year was Hampi recognised as a who called themselves rayas.
British? site of national importance? 44. Who brought the riuns of Hampi to light?
(A) June 1857 (B) July 1857 (A) 1976 (B) 1969 (A) Makenzie
(C) August 1857 (D) September 1857 (C) 1972 (D) 1966 (B) John Marshall
27. Who among the following was the artist 38. Earliest Bhakti movements were led by (C) Alexander Cunnigham
of the painting “Relief of Lucknow”? _______.
(D) None of the above
(A) Thomas Jones Barker (A) Alvars and Mayunar 45. In which year Vijayanagara empire was
(B) Henry Lawrance (B) Alvars and Puaravar founded?
(C) Henry Havelock (C) Alvars and Nayanars (A) 1347 (B) 1336
(D) Joseph Noel (D) Lingayats and Nayanars (C) 1349 (D) 1332

Mock Paper - 5 Page 77

46. Who among the following founded the (A) for control of the fertile river valleys List-II
Vijayanagara empire? (B) for supremacy I. March 1931
(A) Harihara (C) for checking the strength of army II. March 1930
(B) Bukka (D) None of these III. August 1930
(C) Both (A) and (B) 49. Match the following: IV. December 1929
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) List-I Choose the correct answer from the
47. Kings of Vijayanagara competed with: 1. Ambedkar established the Depressed options given below:
(A) Sultans of Deccan Classes Association (A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I
(B) Gajapati rulers of Orissa 2. Gandhiji began the civil disobedience (B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
movement (C) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-I
(C) Both (A) and (B)
3. Congress adopted the demand for (D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) ‘Purna Swaraj’
48. Why Vijayanagara empire was in conflict 50. Battle of Rakshasi-Tangadi was fought in:
4. Gandhiji ended the civil disobedience (A) 1540 (B) 1530
with the deccan sultans? movement
(C) 1565 (D) 1590
qq

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Page 78  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)
OFFICIAL PAPER
6th June 2023, Slot-3
SOLVED

General Instructions:
•• For every correct answer, 5 marks will be awarded.
•• 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
•• 40 Questions to be attempted out of 50.

Time Allowed: 45 Minutes 

Maximum Marks: 200 Marks

1. Arrange the following regional trade 4. Which one of the following is known as 7. The World Trade Organisation came
blocks on the basis of number of transport city? into existence from ............... .
member nations in descending order. (A) Ambala (B) Jharia
(C) Kandla (D) Digboi (A) 1st January 1995
I. North American Free Trade
(B) 1st June 1995
Association (NAFTA)
5. The canal connecting the Atlantic Ocean
II. EU (European Union) (C) 1st July 1995
and the Pacific Ocean is ............... .
III. OPEC (Organisation of Petroleum (D) 1st March 1995
(A) The Panama Canal
Exporting Countries) (B) The Suez Canal 8. In which stage of demographic
IV. SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade (C) The Mexico Canal transition, fertility remains high in the
Agreement) (D) The Gulf Canal beginning but it declines with time?
Choose the correct answer from the 6. Match List-I with List-II.
options given below: (A) First stage
List-I List-II (B) Second stage
(A) II, IV, I, III
Approaches Characteristics
(B) II, I, IV, III to Human (C) Third stage
(C) II, IV, III, I Development (D) Last stage
(D) II, III, IV, I 1. Income I. Oldest
9. Canberra city was planned by ................
2. The yields of pulses are low and approach approach
to human (A) Walter Burley Griffin
fluctuate from year to year because they
development (B) Lewis Mumford
are ............. .
(A) in great demand in market 2. Welfare II. Proposed by (C) Patrick Geddes
(B) wetland crops approach International (D) Jean Gottmann
Labour
(C) rainfed crops of drylands
Organisation 10. Which one of the following major ports
(D) cultivated only in one season (ILO) was developed to cater to the needs of
3. Arrange following causes of female 3. Basic III. Associated with the Western and North Western parts of
migration in India as per more effective needs Prof. Amartya the country?
to less effective according to 2011 approach Sen (A) Mumbai Port
census. 4. Capability IV. Higher (B) Kandla Port
I. Work employment approach government
(C) Marmagao Port
II. Moved with household expenditure
III. Moved after birth on health and (D) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
IV. Marriage education
11. The ‘Atal Tunnel’ has been built by
Choose the correct answer from the Choose the correct answer from the
............... .
options given below: options given below:
(A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I (A) National Highways Authority of India
(A) IV, II, I, III
(B) IV, II, III, I (B) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV (B) Border Road Organisation
(C) II, IV, III, I (C) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III (C) Central Public Works Department
(D) II, IV, I, III (D) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV (D) State Public Works Department

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 81

12. Match List-I with List-II. 16. Which of the following is NOT the III. Highly labour intensive
objective of the Namami Gange IV. Mainly practised near urban and
List-I List-II
Programme? industrial centers
Field of Human Interface discipline
(A) Development of river front. Choose the correct answer from the
Geography
(B) Monitoring of industrial effluents. options given below:
1. Social I. Demography
(C) Afforestation along the bank of (A) I, II, III only
Geography
river. (B) I, II, IV only
2. Political II. Anthropology
(D) Development of Ganga Gram in (C) I, III, IV only
Geography
Himachal Pradesh. (D) II, III, IV only
3. Population III. Agricultural
Geography science 17. A watershed development project 22. Identify the correct points about
sponsored by the Central Government is problems of urban settlements.
4. Economic IV. Military science
............... .
Geography I. Shortage of housing
(A) Neeru Meeru
Choose the correct answer from the II. Vertical expansion of housing
(B) Arvary Pani Sansad
options given below: (C) Jal Kranti Abhiyan III. Growth of slums
(A) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II (D) Haryali IV. Very high level of social bonding
(B) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II Choose the correct answer from the
18. Which one of the following river basins options given below:
(C) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III has the highest replenishable ground
(A) I, II, III only
(D) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV water resource in the country?
(B) I, II, IV only
(A) The Indus basin
13. Which of the following points about (C) I, III, IV only
(B) The Ganga basin
push factors of people migration are
(C) The Brahmaputra basin (D) II, III, IV only
correct?
(D) The Godavari basin
I. Political turmoil 23. Which one of the following is NOT a
II. Better job opportunities 19. Match List-I with List-II. crop of rice in West Bengal?
III. Unemployment List-I List-II (A) Aus (B) Zaid
IV. Economic backwardness Trans Continental Location (C) Aman (D) Boro
Choose the correct answer from the Railways
24. Which one of the followings is NOT the
options given below: 1. Trans-Siberian I. United
part of definition of urban area in India?
(A) I, II, III only Railways States of
America (A) Minimum population of 5000
(B) I, II, IV only
2. Trans- II. Europe persons.
(C) I, III, IV only
Canadian (B) At least 75 per cent of female
(D) II, III, IV only
Railways workers are engaged in non-
14. The Kobe-Osaka region of Japan is 3. The Union III. Russia agricultural activity.
thickly populated because of ............... . Pacific (C) Density of population is at least
(A) fertile soil and water availability Railway 400 persons per square kilometer.
(B) pleasant climate 4. The Orient IV. Canada (D) Cantonment board and notified
Express town area.
(C) varied landforms
(D) industrialisation Choose the correct answer from the
options given below: 25. Match List-I with List-II.
15. Match List-I with List-II. (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I List-I List-II
List-I List-II (B) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II Major Crop Climatic Region
Railway Zone Headquarter (C) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II 1. Wheat I. Tropical Humid
1. North Western I. Chennai (D) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I 2. Rice II. Sub-Topical
2. East Coast II. Kolkata 20. Which one of the following towns 3. Cotton III. Temperate
3. South Eastern III. Jaipur has been developed as administrative 4. Gram IV. Tropical Semi-
4. Southern IV. Bhubaneshwar headquarter after independence? arid
Choose the correct answer from the (A) Bhopal (B) Dispur
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below: (C) Jaipur (D) Imphal options given below:
(A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV 21. Which of the following points about (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
(B) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III dairy farming are correct? (B) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
(C) 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I I. Highly capital intensive (C) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV
(D) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I II. High yield per acre of land (D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II

Page 82  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

26. Which of the following is the largest 33. A natural harbour situated at the entrance 39. Arrange the following developments in
slum in Asia? of the Zuari estuary is ................ . radio services in India in chronological
(A) Khora (B) Dharavi (A) Mumbai Port order.
(C) Lal Bagh (D) Gandhinagar (B) Kandla Port I. All India Radio changed to
Akashvani
(C) Marmagao Port
27. To compensate the loss of Chittagong II. Radio broadcasting was started by
(D) Mangalore Port
port after partition ............... port was Radio Club of Bombay.
developed. 34. Identify the correct statements with III. Government brought the radio-
(A) Haldia reference to the objective of irrigation. broadcasting under its control.
(B) Paradip I. Protective irrigation is for IV. The Radio-Broadcasting was changed
protecting the crops. to All India Radio (AIR).
(C) Diamond harbour
II. Productive irrigation is for Choose the correct answer from the
(D) Vishakhapatnam
providing sufficient moisture to options given below:
28. Arrange the following towns and cities soil for cropping. (A) II, III, I, IV
on the basis of their evolution from III. Providing irrigation to bajra, (B) II, III, IV, I
ancient to present. moong and gram come under (C) III, II, IV, I
I. Delhi II. Patna productive irrigation. (D) III, II, I, IV
III. Surat IV. Bhubaneswar IV. In productive irrigation, water
40. Which of the following points about the
Choose the correct answer from the utilization per unit area is higher
objectives of Industrial Policy 1991 are
options given below: than protective irrigation. correct?
(A) II, I, IV, III (B) II, I, III, IV Choose the correct answer from the I. Gainful employment
(C) I, II, IV, III (D) I, II, III, IV options given below: II. Attain international competitiveness
(A) I, II, III only III. Maintain a sustained growth in
29. Arrange the following approaches of (B) I, III, IV only productivity
Human Geography in ascending order. (C) I, II, IV only IV. Immediately provide better economic
I. Areal differentiation (D) II, III, IV only opportunities to people
II. Exploration and description Choose the correct answer from the
III. Spatial organisation 35. The study of relationship between
options given below:
natural and human worlds is called:
IV. Regional analysis (A) I, II, III only
(A) Human Geography
Choose the correct answer from the (B) I, II, IV only
(B) Physical Geography
options given below: (C) I, III, IV only
(C) Regional Geography
(A) IV, II, I, III (D) II, III, IV only
(B) IV, II, III, I (D) Systematic Geography Direction (Q. No. 41 to 45)
(C) II, IV, I, III 36. Which of the following is an example Read the given passage carefully and answer
(D) II, IV, III, I of agri-business on industrial scale following five (5) questions.
considered as secondary activity? Agriculture is practised under multiple
30. Road transport is preferred over (A) Rice cropping combinations of physical and socio-economic
railways as it ............... . conditions, which gives rise to different types of
(B) Wheat cultivation
(A) provides door to door services agricultural system.
(C) Tea planation and processing
(B) cover long distances (D) Cultivation of pulses Based on methods of farming, different types
(C) can carry lot of weight of crops are grown and livestock is raised.
(D) takes less time to reach long 37. The population increase by difference Subsistence agriculture is one in which the
distances between births and death in a particular farming areas consume all, or nearly so of the
region between two points of time is products locally grown. It can be grouped in two
31. According to Human Development referred to as ............... . categories—Primitive Subsistence Agriculture
Report 2020 which one of the following (A) Actual Growth of Population and Intensive Subsistence Agriculture. Primitive
countries is on top? (B) Natural Growth of Population subsistence agriculture or shifting cultivation is
(A) UK (B) Germany (C) Ageing of Population Growth widely practised by many tribes in the tropics,
(D) Negative Growth of Population especially in Africa, South and Central America
(C) Norway (D) China
and South East Asia.
38. People living in very cold areas of
32. The land left without cultivation for The vegetation is usually cleared by fire and
higher latitudes by artificial heating
one or less than one agricultural year is keep their homes and offices warm. It is the ashes add to the fertility of the soil. Shifting
known as ............... . an example of .............. . cultivation is thus, also called slash and burn
(A) Barren and wasteland (A) Humanisation of Nature agriculture. The cultivated patches are very small
(B) Fallow other than Current Fallow (B) Naturalization of Humans and cultivation is done with very primitive tools
(C) Current Fallow (C) Environmental Determinism such as sticks and hoes. After sometime (3 to 5
(D) Stop and Go Determinism years) the soil loses its fertility and the farmer
(D) Culturable Wasteland

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to another part and clears other patch of the 44. Which one of the following is NOT as a civilised one. The Government of India
forest for cultivation. The farmer may return a characteristic of Slash and Burn has duly acknowledged the adverse impacts of
to the earlier patch after sometime. One of the agriculture? these discriminations and launched a nationwide
campaign called "Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao."
major problems of shifting cultivation is that the (A) Large areal coverage
The number of female workers is relatively high
cycle of Jhum becomes less and less due to loss (B) Use primitive tools in primary sector, though in recent years there has
of fertility in different parcels. It is prevalent in (C) Produce consumed locally been some improvement in work participation of
tropical region in different names i.e., Jhuming women on secondary and tertiary sectors.
(D) Parcel of cultivated land changes
in north eastern states of India, Milpa in Central
after some years 46. Which of the following year UNDP
America and Mexico and Ladang in Indonesia and
Malaysia. Plantation agriculture was introduced 45. Which of the following is NOT report mentioned "If development is not
by the Europeans in colonies situated in the applicable to plantation agriculture? engendered it is endangered"?
tropics. Some of the important plantation crops (A) Scientific method of cultivation (A) 1993 (B) 1995
are tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil palm, (B) Large capital investment (C) 1997 (D) 1999
sugarcane, bananas and pineapples. (C) Requirement of cheap labour 47. The number of female workers is
The characteristic features of this type of farming (D) Multiple cropping relatively high in ............... .
are large estates or plantation, large capital Direction (Q. No. 46 to 50) (A) primary sector
investment, managerial and technical support, (B) secondary sector
Read the given passage carefully and answer
scientific methods and technical support, scientific
following five (5) questions. (C) tertiary sector
methods of cultivation, single crop specialisation,
The division of the society into male, female and (D) quaternary sector
cheap labour, and a good system of transportation
transgender is believed to be natural and biological.
which links the estates to the factories and But, in reality, there are social constructs and 48. The division of society into male,
markets for the export of the products. roles assigned to individuals which are reinforced female and transgender is believed to be
by social institutions. Consequently, these ............... .
41. ‘Slash and Burn Agriculture’ is known as: biological differences become the basis of social (A) natural and biological
(A) Plantation agriculture differentiations, discriminations and exclusions. The
(B) social and biological
exclusion of over half of the population becomes
(B) Primitive subsistence agriculture (C) social and natural
a serious handicap to any developing and civilised
(C) Intensive subsistence agriculture society. It is a global challenge, which has been (D) physical and social
(D) Extensive commercial grain farming acknowledged by the UNDP when it mentioned
that. "If development is not engendered, it is 49. Gender discrimination is a crime against
42. Milpa: a type of primitive subsistence endangered'' (HDR UNDP 1995). Discrimination, ................ .
agriculture is practised in ............... . in general, and gender discrimination, in particular, (A) male (B) female
(A) India (B) Mexico is a crime against humanity. (C) humanity (D) transgender
All efforts need to be made to address the denial
(C) Indonesia (D) Malaysia
of opportunities of education, employment, 50. 'Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao' is a ............. .
43. Which one of the following is NOT a political representation, low wages for similar (A) psychological campaign
types of work, disregard to their entitlement to
plantation crop? (B) women empowerment campaign
live a dignified life, etc. A society, which fails
(A) Cotton (B) Tea to acknowledge and take effective measures to (C) political campaign
(C) Sugarcane (D) Wheat remove such discriminations, cannot be treated (D) economic campaign

Solutions
1. (D) II, III, IV, I 3. (A) IV, II, I, III 5. (A) The Panama Canal
Explanation: The EU is a regional Explanation: India is a patriarchal Explanation: The Panama Canal cuts
trade and political bloc that comprises society where girls go and live in across the Isthmus of Panama in Central
27 member countries. OPEC is an their husband’s house after getting America. It connects the Atlantic Ocean
intergovernmental organisation of 13 oil- to the Pacific Ocean. It facilitates the
married. So, marriage is a primary
producing countries. SAFTA is a regional ships by reducing the time and distance
reason for female migration in
trade agreement among the South Asian they take to travel between the two
India followed by moving with the major oceans
Association for Regional Cooperation
household, work employment and
(SAARC) member countries. NAFTA Related Theory
migration after birth.
was a regional trade agreement between  The Suez Canal connects the Mediterranean Sea
the United States, Canada, and Mexico. 4. None of the options fit. The correct to the Red Sea, serving as a crucial waterway for
trade between Europe and Asia. The Mexico Canal
2. (C) rainfed crops of drylands ans is: Mumbai. and Gulf Canal do not exist.
Explanation: Pulses are mostly grown in Explanation: Mumbai is known for its 6. (C) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III
rain-fed areas, which depend on natural best transport facilities in India. It has a Explanation: The income approach
rainfall for water supply. So, their yields great network of local trains, autos and is the oldest approach to human
are low and fluctuate from year to year buses. Therefore, Mumbai is known as development. The welfare approach
due to variations in water availability. the 'transport city'. is related to higher government

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 expenditure on health and education. 9. (A) Walter Burley Griffin
The basic needs approach was proposed Explanation: He is an American Related Theory
by the International Labour Organisation architect. He won an international  Political turmoil causes instability and unrest
(ILO), and the capability approach is design competition for the plan of among people and they want to go to a politically
Australia's new capital city, Canberra, stable place. Unemployment is one of the major
associated with Prof. Amartya Sen. reasons for migration. Many people migrate
in 1912. Walter Burley Griffin played
Related Theory from rural areas to urban areas because of
a significant role in planning and
unemployment in rural areas. Economic
 The income approach primarily focuses on developing the city.
backwardness is also closely related to this. People
increasing people's income and economic well-
10. (B) Kandla Port have very scant opportunities in economically
being as a means of improving their overall quality
backward areas and they migrate to get better
of life. The welfare approach emphasizes the Explanation: Kandla Port in the Kutch opportunities in terms of health and education.
importance of social welfare policies and labour (Gujarat) was developed to serve the
protections to enhance human development and Western and Northwestern regions of 14. (D) industrialisation
well-being. The basic needs approach seeks to the country. It caters to the states of Explanation: Kobe-Osaka region is a
ensure that individuals have access to essential Gujarat, Rajasthan, and northwestern major industrial and economic hub in
necessities such as food, shelter, healthcare, and India.
education. The capability approach focuses on
Japan, which has attracted a significant
expanding people's capabilities and freedoms population due to employment
by addressing various dimensions of human opportunities and economic
Related Theory development. While fertile soil, water
development beyond just income, such as
 This port handles various types of cargo, including availability and varied landforms can
education and health. bulk cargo, containers, and petroleum products.
It is close to industrial and commercial centers contribute to population distribution,
in North India and is well connected to major industrialisation is a more dominant
Caution transportation networks. It facilitates international factor in this specific region.
 It is important for students to remember the trade and plays a significant role in boosting the
significance of each approach in order to answer economy of the region. 15. (D) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
such questions correctly.
11. (B) Border Road Organisation Explanation: The headquarter of the
7. (A) 1st January 1995 North Western Railway Zone is in
Explanation: The tunnel, officially
Jaipur. The East Coast Railway Zone
Explanation: The World Trade known as the "Atal Tunnel, Rohtang,"
is headquartered in Bhubaneswar.
Organisation (WTO) officially came is a key infrastructure project that
provides all-weather connectivity to The headquarter of the South Eastern
into existence on 1st January 1995. It
the Lahaul-Spiti Valley in Himachal Railway Zone is in Kolkata, and that
was established to replace the General of the Southern Railway Zone is in
Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) Pradesh, India. It was inaugurated in
October 2020 and is named after the Chennai.
and to serve as the global international
former Indian Prime Minister, Atal
organisation overseeing and regulating 16. (D) Development of Ganga Gram in
Bihari Vajpayee.
international trade. Himachal Pradesh.
12. (C) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III Explanation: The Namami Gange
Related Theory
Explanation: Social geography is Programme aims at cleansing and
 The WTO's primary objective is to promote and
facilitate the smooth flow of goods and services the study of societies and people’s rejuvenation of Ganges River. It focuses
across international borders, while also addressing behaviour, which is closely related on reducing pollution, improving water
trade-related disputes and negotiations among its to anthropology. Political geography quality, and promoting sustainable
member countries. It sets rules for international is the study of borders, territories, development along the river. The
trade, enforces trade agreements, and provides a and geopolitical interests that guide development of Ganga Grams (Ganga
forum for member countries to discuss and resolve military actions. Population geography villages) is aimed at promoting
trade-related issues. The organisation plays a is the study of the spatial distribution sanitation and hygiene in villages along
significant role in shaping global trade policies and of people and their inter-relationships, the Ganges but may not necessarily
fostering economic cooperation among its member while demography is the study of be a part of the program in Himachal
nations. the statistical characteristics of those
Pradesh specifically.
populations, such as birth rates, death
8. (B) Second Stage rates, and age structures. 17. (D) Haryali
Explanation: The second stage leads Explanation: Haryali is the watershed
to lower death rates due to improved Caution development projects sponsored by the
sanitation and health conditions. So,  Students must remember the scope of each branch Central Government. It is an initiative
the birth rate stays high at first, then of geography in order to correctly associate it with
that aims to enhance tree cover, water
other subjects.
gradually drops. resources, and overall environmental
13. (C) I, III, IV only conservation.
Related Theory Explanation: Political Turmoil,
18. (B) The Ganga basin
 The First stage of demographic transition Unemployment and Economic
experiences high birth rate and high death rate. backwardness act as push factors and Explanation: The Ganga basin has
In the second stage, the death rate starts declining compel people to leave the place and the highest replenishable groundwater
while the birth rate remains high. Birth rate starts migrate to some other place. Better job resource in India. The groundwater
declining over time and the last stage experiences opportunities are a pull factor which utilisation level is high in north-western
low birth rate and low death rate. attract people to a place. and parts of south of the country.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 85

19. (B) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II unhygienic surroundings. Though, the 26. (B) Dharavi
Explanation: The Trans-Siberian population in the cities is huge, the Explanation: Dharavi is considered
Railway connects St. Petersburg in the level of social bonding is not very high. the largest slum in Asia. It is one of
west to Vladivostok in Russia and is the Urban people mostly remain busy in
the most densely populated urban areas
world's longest railway line. The Trans- their own life and chores.
in the world and is often regarded as
Canadian Railway is in Canada which
23. (B) Zaid the largest slum in Asia. Khora is a
connects Halifax in the east to Vancouver
Explanation: In West Bengal, rice slum in the National Capital Region
in the west. The Union Pacific Railway
cultivation primarily includes Aus, (NCR) of India, located in Ghaziabad,
is in America and has been a significant
contributor in the expansion of the United Aman and Boro. Zaid is associated with Uttar Pradesh. Lal Bagh is a slum in
States. The Orient Express is a historic non-rice crops. Lucknow, Gandhinagar is the capital
train service known for its international city of Gujarat and is not a slum area.
travel between European cities, providing Related Theory 27. (C) Diamond harbour
a unique and iconic travel experience for
 Aus rice is typically sown in February-March and
affluent passengers. Explanation: At the time of partition
harvested in July-August. It's an early-season rice
after Independence of the country,
Caution crop. Aman rice is sown during June-July and
harvested in December-January. Boro rice is, sown Chittagong port was taken by the East
 It is important for students to remember the
locations of all railway routes to answer such in November-December and harvested in May- Bengal (now Bangladesh). After that,
questions correctly. June. the Indian government developed the
Diamond Harbour in Kolkata.
20. (B) Dispur 24. (B) 
At least 75 per cent of female
Explanation: Dispur has been workers are engaged in non- 28. (B) II, I, III, IV
developed as an administrative agricultural activity. Explanation: Patna is one of the oldest
headquarters after India gained Explanation: Census of India defines towns not only in India but in the world.
independence. It serves as the capital certain criteria for declaring a place Delhi became popular during medieval
of the state of Assam and here the times, and Surat was developed
as urban area. It includes, minimum
government of Assam operates.
population of 5000 persons; density as a port town during the British
21. (C) I, III, IV only of population is at least 400 persons colonisation period. Bhubaneswar was
Explanation: Dairy farming is highly per square kilometer or it should be a developed as an administrative town
capital intensive as one needs to cantonment board and notified town after independence.
spend money on animal sheds, storage area. It also defines that 75 per cent
29. (C) II, IV, I, III
facilities for fodder, feeding and of total workers including males and
milching machines. Dairy farming is females should be engaged in non- Explanation: The exploration and
often labor-intensive, as it involves the agricultural activity. description approach was prominent
daily care, milking, and management of during the early colonial period. The
dairy cows. It is mainly practiced near 25. (B) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II later colonial period was marked by
urban and industrial centers to meet Explanation: A temperate climate regional analysis. Areal differentiation
the demand for dairy products in these is best suited for growing wheat, as became popular in the 1930s, during
areas. But it does not have high yield it requires cold winters and warm the inter-war period, and spatial
per acre land as it is about yield of milk
summers for optimum growth. Rice is organisation became popular in the late
and other dairy products per cow rather
a staple crop in regions with tropical, 1950s and late 1960s.
than per acre of land.
humid climates. Rice requires high
30. (A) provides door to door services
22. (A) I, II, III only temperatures and abundant rainfall for
Explanation: Urban areas have a ideal growth. Cotton is the crop of Explanation: Roadways are preferred
huge population which has to live in a tropical semi-arid climates, which have over railways as they provide door
compact area. It becomes a problem for a pronounced dry season required for to door services. Railways are well
the administration to provide houses cotton production. Gram is commonly equipped to cover long distances, carry
to all. So, there is always a shortage cultivated in regions with a sub-tropical a lot of weight. Superfast trains take less
of houses. Since horizontal expansion climate. time to reach long distances.
is limited, there is vertical expansion
of housing in order to accommodate 31. (C) Norway
Caution
its large population. Poor people, who  Students must remember the climatic conditions Explanation: According to the Human
cannot afford the expensive houses of all crops in order to relate them to the correct Development Report 2020, Norway
in the cities live in the slums in the climate. ranked on top in terms of human

Page 86  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 development. Norway has consistently human environment comes under the 39. (B) II, III, IV, I
been among the countries with the scope of human geography. Other Explanation: Radio broadcasting was
highest human development index options do not study the relationship
started by Radio Club of Bombay in 1923.
(HDI) in the world. between natural and human worlds.
Then, the Government brought radio
32. (C) Current Fallow Related Theory broadcasting under its control in 1930.
Explanation: Barren and wasteland is  Physical geography is the study of the The Radio-Broadcasting was changed to
unproductive land which is not suitable natural features of the Earth's surface, All India Radio (AIR) in 1936. All India
for agriculture. The soil quality of this including landforms, climate, vegetation,
and ecosystems. Regional geography
Radio changed to Akashvani in 1957.
land is poor. Fallow other than current
involves the study of specific regions or
fallow includes land that has not been 40. (A) I, II, III only
areas on the Earth's surface, examining their
cultivated for more than a year but less characteristics, development, and unique Explanation: Industrial policy of
than five years. Culturable wasteland features. Systematic geography is a more 1991 was aimed at industrial growth
is the land which has not been put generalised approach to geography that
which would increase employment
under agriculture but can be reclaimed looks at the spatial patterns and processes
common to various regions and areas. opportunities for people. It also
and made suitable for cultivation with
aimed at attaining international
appropriate soil and water management 36. (C) Tea plantation and processing
practices. Current fallow is the land competitiveness by making Indian
Explanation: Tea plantation and
which is left without cultivation for one industries more competitive on a
processing involve large-scale
or less than one agricultural year. global scale. It also maintained a
agricultural operations and industrial
processes to produce a marketable sustained growth in productivity and
Caution
 It is important for the students to remember the product, which is tea. Tea plantations focused on productivity and efficiency
types of land use and their meanings in order to typically use modern machinery and in Indian industries. However, this
answer such questions correctly. processing techniques to produce tea would provide better economic
for the market, making it a secondary opportunities to people in the long run
33. (C) Marmagao Port
economic activity.
Explanation: Marmagao Port is located and not immediately.
in the state of Goa and it is one of the Caution
 Students must try to understand the processes 41. (B) Primitive subsistence agriculture
major ports on the western coast of the
associated with each type of cultivation. It would Explanation: Primitive subsistence
country. Mumbai Port is a major seaport
help you answer such questions correctly.
in the city of Mumbai, whereas, Kandla agriculture is done using old techniques
Port is a prominent seaport in Gujarat. 37. (B) Natural Growth of Population of growing crops and the final product
Mangalore Port is a port in Karnataka. Explanation: Natural growth of is grown for self-consumption and not
population refers to the increase in for selling in the market. Slash and burn
34. (C) I, II, IV only
population due to births and deaths in agriculture meets both the criteria - it is
Explanation: Protective irrigation aims a particular region between two points
to protect crops from water stress during done by tribals in forests using old farming
of time. Actual Growth of Population
critical periods, such as droughts or dry practices for their self-consumption. Other
is when migration is also taken into
spells. Productive irrigation is aimed at account along with birth rate and death techniques are not suitable to define slash
providing the soil with the necessary rate. Ageing of population growth and burn agriculture.
moisture to support crop growth and means that there are more people in the
increase agricultural productivity. 42. (B) Mexico
old age while less people in the young
Productive irrigation uses more water age. Negative growth of population Explanation: Milpa is another name
because it aims to optimise crop yields means a decline in the number of people for jhum cultivation which is popular in
through efficient water management. in a place between two points in time. Central America and Mexico.
Providing irrigation to bajra, moong,
and gram can be either productive 38. (A) Humanisation of Nature 43. (D) Wheat
irrigation or protective irrigation, Explanation: Humanisation of nature Explanation: Tea, coffee and cotton are
depending on the aim and quantity of refers to the impact of human on the
cash crops which are grown as plantation
water used. natural environment. Use of artificial
crops in the large estates for profit.
heating in cold climates shows how
35. (A) Human Geography humans have made adjustments and However, wheat is a food crop which is
Explanation: The study of the escaped the cold effect of nature. Other mostly grown along with other crops on
relationship between the natural and options do not describe it well. the same farm.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 87

44. (A) Large areal coverage 46. (B) 1995 49. (C) humanity

Explanation: In slash and burn Explanation: Human Development Explanation: Gender discrimination is
Report published in 1995 by United a crime against humanity as although
agriculture, a small patch of land in the Nations Development Programme females are discriminated the most,
forest is burned for agriculture. It uses mentioned that "If development is not
discrimination is faced by every
primitive technology for growing crops engendered it is endangered."
gender at some point. Mostly females
which are consumed by the locals only. 47. (A) primary sector denied opportunities of education and
Explanation: Primary sector involves employment which cause suffering and
45. (D) Multiple cropping activities related to the extraction and violation of human rights.
production of natural resources, such
Explanation: Multiple cropping refers 50. (B) women empowerment campaign
as farming, fishing, mining etc. These
to the practice of growing two or more activities require minimal skills and are Explanation: ‘Beti Bachao, Beti
crops on the same land in a single year. low paid jobs. So, female participation Padhao’ is a campaign launched by
is highest in the primary sector. the India government. Its main aim
On the other hand, Plantation agriculture
48. (A) natural and biological is to address the declining child sex
is a large-scale farming system which
Explanation: Humans are biologically ratio and promote the education and
involves growing cash crops such as tea,
born as males, females or transgender. empowerment of girls. The campaign
coffee, rubber etc. It uses extensive labour It is nature's way of dividing human focuses on saving and educating girls to
and requires large capital investment. society. promote gender equality.
qq

Page 88  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)
OFFICIAL PAPER
20th August 2022, Slot-2
SOLVED
1. Griffith Taylor introduced which concept II. This approach was initially proposed have come searching for them in the wilds.
of human geography? by the International Labour In a single fluid motion Benda and his friends
(A) Environmental determinism Organisation. disappear behind the thick canopy of trees and
(B) New determinism III. This approach is associated with Prof become one with the spirit of the forest.
(C) Possibilism Amartya Sen. 8. To which one of the following ‘Benda’
(D) Dualism IV. Access to resources is the key to represents as given in the passage?
increasing human development. (A) Tribe living in the area
2. Identify scholar, who voiced his concern
about the growing scarcity of resources Choose the correct answer from the (B) Cultivator
as compared to the human population? options given below: (C) Trader
(A) Griffith Taylor (B) Robert Malthus (A) III and I Only (D) Hunter
(C) Ratzel (D) Karl Marx (B) III and IV Only 9. To which one of the following ‘Penda’ is
(C) I and II Only referred in the text?
3. Identify the push factors of migration from
the following: (D) I and IV Only (A) A tribe (B) A hut
I. Unemployment Direction (Q. No. 8 to 12) (C) Forest (D) Succulent leaves
II. Political Turmoil Read the given passage carefully and 10. Benda went to the forest for:
III. Peace and Stability answer following five (5) questions. (A) For hunting
IV. Socio-economic Backwardness Benda lives in the wilds of the Abujh Maad (B) For bringing wood
area of central India. His village consists of (C) For collecting herbs
V. Security of life and property
three huts deep in the wilds. Not even birds (D) For cultivating land
Choose the correct answer from the
or stray dogs that usually crowd villages can 11. Which one of the following products were
options given below:
be seen in these areas. Wearing a small loin collected by Benda?
(A) I, II and III Only
cloth and armed with his axe he slowly surveys (A) Loi-Lungi
(B) III, IV and V Only the penda (forest) where his tribe practices a (B) Gajjhara and Kuchla
(C) I, III and IV Only primitive form of agriculture called shifting (C) Mahua and Palash
(D) I, II and IV Only cultivation. Benda and his friends burn small
(D) Sal and Neen
4. Which one of the following approaches patches of forest to clear them for cultivation.
12. At which of the following places, Benda
was proposed by the International Labour The ash is used for making the soil fertile. Benda
exchanges collected herbal parts?
Organisation? is happy that the mahua trees around him are
(A) Mathai tribal fair
(A) Capability Approach in bloom. How lucky I am to be a part of this
beautiful universe, he thinks as he looks up to (B) Madhai tribal fair
(B) Welfare Approach
see the Mahua, Palash and Sal trees that have (C) Mithai tribal fair
(C) Basic Needs Approach
shelfered him since childhood. Crossing the (D) Midhai tribal fair
(D) Income Approach
penda in a gliding motion, Benda makes his 13. Match List-I with List-II.
5. Continuity in the availability of
way to a stream. As he bends down to scoop List-I (Agriculture System)
opportunities is related to which concept
up a palmful of water, he remembers to thank 1. Mixed farming
of Human Development?
Loi-Lugi, the spirit of the forest for allowing 2. Dairy farming
(A) Sustainability (B) Equity him to quench his thirst. Moving on with his 3. Mediterranean Agriculture
(C) Productivity (D) Empowerment friends, Benda chews on succulent leaves and 4. Viticulture and North Africa
6. Which one of the following is not a roots. The boys have been trying to collect
significant aspect of human development? List-II (Region/Countries)
Gajjhara and Kuchla, from the forest. These are
(A) Decent Standard of Living I. Mediterranean Region
speical plants that Benda and his people use.
(B) Living a long and healthier life He hopes the spirits of the forest will be kind II. North-Western Europe
(C) Guaranteed human rights and and lead him to these herbs. These are needed III. New Zealand and Tasmania
personal self respect to barter in the madhai or tribal fair coming up IV. Southern coast of Europe
(D) Leisure and recreation with luxurious the next full moon. He closes his eyes and tries Choose the correct answer from the
mobility hard to recall what the elders had taught him options given below:
7. Identify the main features of the capability about these herbs and the places they are found (A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-III
approach to Human Development. in. He wishes he had listened more carefully. (B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
I. This is the oldest approach to Human Suddenly there is a rustling of leaves. Benda (C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
Development. and his friends know it is the outsiders who (D) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 89

 14. Match List-I with List-II. other than paddy. Due to the difference in relief, 22. The Silicon valley near San Francisco and
List-I (Regions) climate soil and some of the other geographical Silicon Forest near Seattle are example of
1. Tropical Africa factors, it is not practical to grow paddy in many which type of industry?
parts of monsoon Asia. Wheet, soyabean, barley (A) Iron and Steel
2. Sahara and Asiatic Desert
and sorghum are grown in northern China, (B) Cotton Textile
3. Mountainous areas of Tibet and
Manchuria, North Korea and North Japan. In
Andes (C) Information technology
India wheat is grown in western parts of the
4. Arctic and Sub Arctic Areas Indo-Gangetic plains and millets are grown in (D) Chemical
List-II (Animals) dry parts of western and southern India. Most 23. Which one of the following activity is not
I. Sheep, goat and camels of the characteristics of this type of agriculture a tertiary activity?
II. Reindeer are similar to those dominated by wet paddy (A) Trade activities
III. Yak and Llamas except that irrigation is often used. This activity (B) Services in Government offices
is labour intensive on small Pieces of land. (C) Dairy farming
IV. Cattle
16. Which one of the following is the most (D) Transport activities
Choose the correct answer from the
important crop is western part of Indo- 24. Choose the correct option for the
options given below:
Gangetic plain? availability of specialised goods and
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
(A) Soyabean (B) Sorghum services.
(B) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II
(C) Wheat (D) Barley (A) Periodic Market
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II
17. Which one of the following is an (B) Rural Market
(D) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II appropriate reason for low productivity
15. Match List-I with List-II. (C) Urban Market
per labour in intensive subsistence
List-I (Regions Production Places) farming? (D) Retail Market
1. Appalachian (A) More labour is used on small piece 25. Identify the country from the below given
of land options, where milk is supplied through
2. Great Lake
pipelines from farms to factories:
3. The Atlantic Coast (B) More labour is used on large piece
of land (A) Denmark (B) USA
4. Southern State
(C) Less labour is used on large piece (C) Australia (D) New Zealand
List-II (Iron and Steel Industries)
of land 26. Arrange the events in order of land
I. Morrisville transport development:
(D) Less labour is used on small piece
II. Cleveland I. Animals were used as beasts of
of land
III. Pittsburgh burden.
18. Which one of the following crop grown
IV. Alabama in intensive subsistence agriculture in wet II. Invention of wheel, use of carts and
Choose the correct answer from the regions of monsoonal Asia? wagons.
options given below: (A) Wheat (B) Sorghum III. Railway line development and
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV (C) Paddy (D) Barley transport.
(B) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II 19. Intensive Subsistence Agriculture means: IV. Human beings as carriers.
(C) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV (A) growing crops for export Choose the correct answer from the
(D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV (B) growing crops for own consumption options given below:
Direction (Q. No. 16 to 20) (C) growing crops for selling in the (A) IV, I, II, III (B) I, IV, II, III
Study the passage and answer questions market (C) IV, II, I, III (D) I, IV, III, II
numbered. (D) growing crops for food industries 27. Match List-I with List-II.
Intensive Subsistence Agriculture is largely 20. Which one of the following is NOT a List-I (Terms)
found in densely populated regions of monsoon characteristic of intensive subsistence 1. Network links
Asia where crops are grown for personal agriculture? 2. Nodes
consumption Basically, there are two types (A) Largely found in densely populated 3. Developed Network
of intensive subsistence agriculture. Intensive region
subsistence agriculture dominated by wet 4. Link
(B) Categorized into paddy and other
paddy cultivation: This type of agriculture is List-II (Meaning)
than paddy cultivation
characterised by dominance of the rice crop. I. Well-connected through
(C) Found only in those region where high
Land holdings are very small due to the high II. Made up of nodes and link
rainfall in dominant
density of population. Farmers work with the III. Every road that joins two nodes
help of family labour leading to intensive use (D) More people are involved in
agriculture IV. Meeting point of two or more routes
of land. Use of machinery is limited and most
21. Paper industry is associated with which Choose the correct answer from the
of the agricultural operations are done by
of the following industries? options given below:
manual labour. Farm yard manure is used to
maintain the fertility of the soil. In this type (A) Forest-based (A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III
of agriculture, the yield per unit area is high (B) Mineral-based (B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
but per labour productivity is low. Intensive (C) Agro-based (C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV
subsidence agriculture is dominated by crops (D) Chemical-based (D) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II

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28. Which one of the following does not fall Choose the correct answer from the 39. Where do we find Linear Rural Settlement
on trans-Siberian Railway Route? options given below: Pattern?
I. Irkutsk (A) I and II Only (A) Mountain Valleys
II. Baku (B) I, III and IV Only (B) Along Rivers
III. Moscow (C) I and III Only (C) Around Lakes
IV. Khabarovsk (D) II, III and IV Only (D) Near big water Bod
V. Ulan Bator 33. The first complete population census in 40. Identify the type of settlement which are
India was conducted in which one of the fragmented and separated?
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below: following years? (A) Clustered settlements
(A) II and IV Only (A) 1881 (B) 1872 (B) Semi-clustered settlements
(C) 1891 (D) 1951 (C) Hamleted settlements
(B) III and IV Only
(D) Dispersed settlements
(C) II and V Only 34. Arrange the following states in ascending
order in terms of their literacy rate 41. Green Revolution is successful in North
(D) IV and V Only
Western part of the country, select the
29. Which of the following continent has according to (census 2011):
reasons.
highest "Highways" road density? I. Gujarat
I. Ample rainfall
(A) Europe (B) North America II. Uttar Pradesh
II. Use of high yielding varieties of
(C) Australia (D) Asia III. Bihar seeds
30. Arrange the following Radio broadcasting IV. Punjab III. Easily available labour
development in chronological order: Choose the correct answer from the IV. More employment pressure on
I. Radio broadcasting started by the options given below: agriculture
Radio club of Bombay. (A) I-IV-II-III (B) I-IV-III-II V. 85% not shown area is cultivated
II. Changed to Akashwani (C) III-II-IV-I (D) III-II-I-IV through irrigation
III. Changed to All India Radio 35. Which one of the following option is NOT Choose the correct answer from the
IV. Broadcasting system adopted true for the transformation of previously options given below:
thinly populated areas into moderate to (A) II and V only
Choose the correct answer from the
high concentration of population areas (B) I, II and III only
options given below:
currently? (C) I, II and IV only
(A) IV, I, II, III
(A) Development of irrigation in (D) III and IV only
(B) I, IV, III, II 42. The highest proportion of the total water
Rajasthan
(C) IV, I, III, II used in the country is in which one of the
(B) Mining of mineral and energy
(D) I, II, III, IV resources (Jharkhand) following sectors?
31. Match List-I with List-II. (C) Increase in irrigation in Arunachal (A) Industries
List-I (Regional Trade Blocks) Pradesh (B) Irrigation
1. ASEAN (D) Development of transport network in (C) Domestic use
2. OPEC Peninsular states (D) Electricity production
3. EU 36. Identify the major cause of female 43. Match List-I with List-II.
4. LAIA migration in India: List-I (Water Resource of India)
List-II (Headquarter Hosting Countries) (A) Employment (B) Education 1. India's percentage of World's Water
Resource
I. Belgium (C) Marriage (D) Health care
2. Annual volume of available water
II. Uruguay 37. Arrange the trend of migration from India
from precipitation
III. Indonesia in chronological order.
3. Availability from surface water and
IV. Austria I. Highly qualified professionals replenishable ground water
Choose the correct answer from the II. Professional artisans and traders 4. Total utilisable water
options given below: III. Indentured labourers List-II (Characteristics)
(A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I IV. Out flow of entrepreneurs I. 1,869 cubic km
(B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-III Choose the correct answer from the II. 4 percent
(C) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV options given below: III. 4,000 cubic km
(D) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II (A) III-II-IV-I (B) III-IV-I-II IV. 1,122 cubic km
32. Which one of the following are types of (C) IV-II-III-I (D) III-I-II-IV Choose the correct answer from the
international trade? 38. In which one of the following states, options given below:
I. Bilateral trade people live in compact villages for (A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV
II. Unilateral trade security and defence purposes? (B) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III
III. Multi-lateral trade (A) Nagaland (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-I, 4-III
IV. Collateral trade (C) Bihar (D) Maharashtra (D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV

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 44. Which one of the following is not a part 47. Match List-I with List-II. 48. From the given options below, identify
of watershed management programme in List-I (Mineral belts in India)
the programme NOT directed for spatial
India? target areas development:
1. North-Eastern Plateau Region
(A) Haryali (A) Marginal Farmers Development
(B) Neeru-Meeru 2. South-Western Plateau Region Programme
(C) Khushhali 3. North-Western Plateau Region (B) Desert Development Programme
(D) Arvary Pani Sansad 4. The Himalayan Region (C) Command Area Development
45. Which one of the following is not a broad List-II (Minerals)
Programme
belt of mineral mines? (D) Hill Area Development Programme
I. Copper, Zinc, Lead, Cobalt
(A) The North Eastern Plateau Region 49. Which one of the following is not a part
II. Iron Ore, Coal, Manganese
(B) The South-Western Plateau Region of Indian railway lines?
III. Copper, Zinc, Sandstone, Granite
(C) The South Eastern Plateau Region (A) Broad Gauge (B) Narrow Gauge
IV. Iron Ore, Manganese, Limestone,
(D) The North Western Plateau Region (C) Nano Gauge (D) Meter Gauge
Bauxite
46. Which of the following sector is labour- 50. Which one of the following roads
Choose the correct answer from the
intensive and provide employment to constitute highest percent of total road
semi-skilled workers? options given below:
length in country?
(A) Handloom sector (A) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV (A) National Highways
(B) Power loom sector (B) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II (B) Rural Roads
(C) Mill sectors (C) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-I (C) State Highways
(D) Joint sector (D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV (D) Major District Roads

Solutions
1. (B) New determinism Unemployment, Political turmoil and 7. (B) III and IV Only
Explanation: The concept of Neo Socio-economic backwardness, Poverty, Explanation: The Capability Approach
Determinism (New determinism) overburdened agriculture, natural to Human Development is associated
was presented by Griffith Taylor. It disasters (drought and floods) are some with Prof Amartya Sen. In this approach,
emphasises on the middle ground, of its examples.
along with Martha Nussbaum, they
or madhyam marg, between the two 4. (C) Basic Needs Approach combined a variety of concepts that
extremes of environmental determinism Explanation: The ILO report for the had previously been left out of (or
and possibilism. 1976 World Employment Conference poorly expressed in) traditional welfare
defined basic needs in terms of food, economics approaches.
Related Theory clothing, housing, education, and public
 Environmental determinism is a theory which transportation.
explain the relation-ship between humans and Related Theory
the environment.  It is a normative approach to human welfare
Related Theory that focuses on the actual capability of people
 Possibilism is theory that people can adjust or
overcome an environment.  It is important to note that the ILO was to achieve lives they value rather than solely
founded in October 1919. It's headquar is
 Dualism in geography refers to parallel having a right or freedom to do so.
located at Geneva, Switzerland.
theories of the same subject but exist in two  This approach was conceived in the 1980s as
different forms. An example of dualism in 5. (A) Sustainability
an alternative approach to welfare economics.
geography is when studying the environment, a Explanation: Sustainability means
researcher will look at the physical geography  The core focus of this approach is on
continuity in the availability of
and how it was formed naturally. improving access of people to the resources to
opportunities. In order to have sustainable
2. (B) Robert Malthus live a fulfilling life.
human development, each generation
Explanation: British economist must have the same opportunities. Every 8. (B) Cultivator
Thomas Malthus (Robert Malthus) was resource—environmental, financial, and 9. (C) Forest
the person who had coined the term
human—must be used with the long 10. (C) For collecting herbs
overpopulation in the late 1700s. He also
term in mind. Future generations will
voiced his concern about the growing Explanation: While surveying the
scarcity of resources as compared to the have less opportunities if any of these
forest, Benda gathered edible plants and
human population. He also suggested resources are misused.
food. In addition, he expressed gratitude
that the rate of the growth of the world's 6. (D) Leisure and recreation with luxurious to the forest spirit Loi-Lugi for giving
population is more than the rate of mobility
him such a long life, feeling truly blessed.
food production, and as a result, mass Explanation: A decent standard of
starvation would occur. 11. (B) Gajjhara and Kuchla
living; living a long and healthier life;
3. (D) I, II, and IV only and guaranteed human rights and persona Explanation: Benda and his friends
Explanation: Push factors cause people self-respect are significant aspects of had been trying to collect Gajjhara and
to leave their residence or place of origin. human development. Kuchla.

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 12. (B) Madhai tribal fair Due to its ideal growth conditions and heavy South San Francisco Bay Area territory
Explanation: Benda exchanges collected reliance on family labour, rice cultivation is the is referred known as Silicon Valley.
herbal plants from Madhai tribal fair. dominant industry. The cultivation of wheat, Since this area has connection to the
13. (C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I sorghum, and barley is more prevalent in areas silicon transistor, which is utilised in
where paddy cultivation is impractical because all contemporary microprocessors, this
14. (C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II
of variations in climate and other geographical name was originally used in the early
Explanation: Cattle is found in Tropical 1970s. The area is notable for the vast
factors.
Africa while Sahara and Asiatic desert are number of technology companies that
known for a good number of sheep, goat l The sentence, “Due to the difference
are headquartered there.
and camels. Meanwhile, Mountainous in relief, climate soil and some of
the other geographical factors, it is 23. (C) Dairy farming
areas of Tibet and Andes are famous for
Yaks and llamas, while reindeer is found not practical to grow paddy in many Explanation: Dairy farming is a primary
in arctic and sub-arctic regions. parts of monsoon Asia" shows that activity and not tertiary.
intensive subsistence agriculture l Tertiary activity are those which
15. (C) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV
is not found only in high monsoon by themselves do not produce
Explanation: Cleveland, which is the
regions. goods, but support the production
largest city on Lake Erie and one of the
19. (B) growing crops for own consumption process. Examples- commerce,
largest cities in the Great Lakes region,
Explanation: Growing crops for own administration, transport, financial
is the 54th-largest city in the United
consumption is a characteristic of and real estate activities, business
States.
and personal services, education,
l Morrisville is located in the northeast Intensive Subsistence agriculture.
health and social work.
central region of North Carolina, 20. (C) found only in those region where
24. (C) Urban Market
where the North American Piedmont high rainfall is dominant.
and Atlantic Coastal Plain regions Explanation: Urban market is the one
Explanation: While it is stated in the
meet. This region is referred to as the for the availability of specialized goods
paragraph that intensive subsistence
“Fall Line” because it designates the and services.
agriculture is typically found in monsoon
height within the interior at which 25. (D) New Zealand
regions. It is not made clear that these
creeks and rivers start to exhibit 26. (A) IV, I, II, III
regions are the only places where this
waterfalls. Therefore, the majority practice takes place. Based on the Explanation: Earlier, human beings used
of Morrisville is made up of gently information, option (C) is therefore not to carry goods by themselves. Afterwards
undulating hills that slope eastward a characteristic that is well supported. animals became the beasts of burden.
toward the plain coastal region of the Later due to the invention of wheel,
21. (A) Forest-based
state. the carts and wagons were used for
Explanation: Forest based industries transportation. After that railway lines
l Due to its long history of acting as
are those industries which utilise were developed for transportation
the Appalachian region's cultural
forest produce as raw materials. These purposes.
hub, Pittsburgh is occasionally
industries include- the paper industry,
referred to as The Paris of the 27. (B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
match industry, silk industry, lac industry,
Appalachians. 28. (C) II and V Only
sports goods industry and handicraft.
l Alabama is a state in the South- Explanation: The Trans-Siberian
eastern region of the United States, Related Theory Railway connects major cities such as
bordered by Tennessee to the north; Moscow, Ufa, Novosibirsk, Irkutsk,
 The mineral-based industries are those
Georgia to the east; Florida and the industries which use minerals as raw material. Chita, and Khabarovsk. It runs from St.
The products of mineral-based industries Petersburg in the west to Vladivostok in
Gulf of Mexico to the south; and
are used in other industries as well such as the east. Being the world's longest double-
Mississippi to the west.
machines are the prdoct of mineral based tracked and electrified transcontinental
16. (C) Wheat railway, it connects Russia's Asian region
industry and used in other industries also.
Explanation: Wheat is grown in western and West European markets by passing
 Agro-based Industries are those which have
part of Indo-Gangetic Plains. agricultural produce as raw materials.
through the Yenisei, Ob, and Ural rivers
Examples- Cotton, jute, silk, woollen textiles, and connecting important cities like
17. (A) More labour is used on small piece Irkutsk, a fur centre, and Chita, an agro
of land sugar and edible oil, etc. industries.
center.
 Chemical based Industries are those which
Explanation: The high population density use natural chemical minerals, e.g. mineral- 29. (B) North America
results in extremely small land holdings. An oil (petroleum) which is used in petrochemical Explanation: North America has the
intensive use of land is achieved by farmers industry. highest highway road density, about
through the use of family labour. 22. (C) Information technology 0.65 km per sq km. Every place is within
18. (C) Paddy Explanation: Silicon Valley near San 20 km distance from a highway. Cities
Explanation: Rice, also known as paddy, Francisco and Silicon Forest near Seattle located on the Pacific coast (west) are
is the main crop of intensive subsistence are examples of Information Technology well-connected with those of the Atlantic
agriculture in Asia's wet monsoonal regions. industries. Coast (east).

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 30. (B) I, IV, III, II l Multi-lateral trade: As the term migrations were covered under the
Explanation: India's first radio program suggests multi-lateral trade is time-bound contract known as Girmit
was broadcast in 1923 by the Radio Club conducted with many trading Act (Indian Emigration Act) and their
of Bombay. countries. The same country can trade living conditions were not better than
with a number of other countries. The the slaves.
l By using the Indian Broadcasting
System, the government took country may also grant the status of l The second wave of migrants
control over this widely used form of the “Most Favoured Nation” (MFN) ventured out into the neighbouring
communication in 1930. In 1936, it on some of the trading partners. countries in recent times as
became All India Radio, and in 1957, 33. (A) 1881 professionals, artisans, traders
it was named as Akashwani. and factory workers, in search of
Explanation: The first population
economic opportunities to Thailand,
31. (D) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II Census in India was conducted in 1872
Malaysia, Singapore, Indonesia,
Explanation: ASEAN (Association of and the first complete Census was Brunei and African countries, etc.
Southeast Asian Nations) is a political conducted only in 1881.
l Third wave, of migrant was
and economic union which promotes
34. (A) I-IV-II-III comprised professionals like
intergovernmental cooperation and
Explanation: Correct order is as doctors, engineers (1960s onwards),
facilitates economic, political, security,
follows: software engineers, management
military, educational, and sociocultural
Gujarat-78.03% consultants, financial experts,
integration between its members and
Punjab-75.84% media persons (1980s onwards), and
countries in the Asia-Pacific. Brunei
Uttar Pradesh-67.68% others migrated to countries such as
Darussalam, Cambodia, Indonesia,
Bihar-61.80% USA, Canada, UK, Australia, New
Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines,
Zealand and Germany, etc.
Singapore, Thailand and Vietnam are 35. (C) Increase in irrigation in Arunachal
its members. It is headquartered in l Lat stream of migrants included the
Pradesh.
Indonesia. entrepreneurs.
Explanation: Development of irrigation 38. (A) Nagaland
OPEC (The Organization of the (Rajasthan), availability of mineral
Petroleum Exporting Countries) is a Explanation: In India compact or
and energy resources (Jharkhand) and
cartel of Algeria, Indonesia, Iran, Iraq, development of transport network clustered village of a few hundred houses
Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Qatar, Saudi (Peninsular States) have resulted is a rather universal feature.
Arabia, U.A.E. and Venezuela. It was in moderate to high concentration l In this settlement, people live
founded on 14 September 1960 in of population in areas which were in a small, densely populated
Baghdad by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi previously very thinly populated. area of houses with an exterior
Arabia, and Venezuela. Since 1965, 36. (C) Marriage of pastures, barns, and farms.
been headquartered in Vienna, Austria,
Explanation: Marriage is the biggest Residents typically live in distinct,
although Austria is not an OPEC member
reason why women migrate from one segregated neighbourhoods within
state.
place to another. the settlement.
European Union (EU) is an international
l In India, during 2011, out of 455.0 39. (C) Around Lakes
organization that comprises 27 European
million migrants, enumerated on
countries. It is headquartered in Belgium. Explanation: Linear Rural settlement
the basis of the last residence, 141.9
Latin American Integration Association million had changed their place of plan is found along a road, railway line,
(LAIA) was established by the Treaty residence in the last ten years. Out of river, canal edge of a valley or along a
of Montevideo (August 1980) and these, 118.7 million were intra-state levee.
became operational in March 1981. It migrants. The stream was dominated 40. (C) Hamleted settlements
seeks economic cooperation among its by female migrants and the marriage Explanation: Sometimes settlement is
members. It is headquartered in Uruguay. was the reason behiund this type of
fragmented into several units physically
32. (C) I and III Only migration.
separated from each other bearing a
Explanation: Bilateral and Multi-lateral 37. (D) III-I-II-IV common name. These units are locally
trade are the examples of international Explanation: The chronological order called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani,
trade. of migration trends in India is as follows: etc. in various parts of the country.
l Bilateral trade: Bilateral trade is Indentured labourers were sent to Such villages are more frequently found
done by two countries with each Mauritius, Caribbean islands (Trinidad, in the middle and lower Ganga plain,
other. They enter into agreement Tobago and Guyana), Fiji and South Chhattisgarh and lower valleys of the
to trade specified commodities Africa by British from Uttar Pradesh and Himalayas.
amongst them. For example, country Bihar; to Reunion Island, Guadeloupe,
41. (A) II and V only
A, may agree to trade some raw Martinique and Surinam by French and
material with agreement to purchase Dutch and by Portuguese from Goa, Explanation: Use of high yielding
some other specified item to country Daman and Diu to Angola, Mozambique varieties of seeds as well as as well as
B or vice versa. to work as plantation workers. All such majority of net sown area being under

Page 94  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 cultivation through irrigation are the l The North-Eastern Plateau Region and bauxite minerals. This region is
reasons for successful green revolution has variety of minerals viz. iron ore also famous for high grade iron ore,
in the country. coal, manganese, bauxite, mica. manganese and limestone.
l The South-Western Plateau Region North-western Region: This belt
l
Related Theory is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite. is spread along Aravali in Rajasthan
 Green Revolution is associated with It also contains high grade iron ore, and part of Gujarat. This region is
agricultural production. It is the period when manganese and limestone. known for the minerals associated
agriculture of the country was converted with the Dharwar system of rocks.
into an industrial system due to the adoption l The North-Western Region has
Copper, zinc are some important
of modern methods and techniques like the Copper, zinc as major minerals.
minerals of this region. Rajasthan
use of high yielding variety seeds, tractors, 46. (A) Handloom Sector
irrigation facilities, pesticides, and fertilizers. is rich in building stones such as
Explanation: Handloom industry sandstone, granite, marble.
42. (B) Irrigation
is labour intensive and provides
Explanation: Irrigation by far is the The
l Himalayan Region: The
employment to semi-skilled labour
largest user of India's water reserve with Himalayan region is known for
force. The handloom sector of India is
hooping usage of 78% of total water the presence of copper, lead, zinc,
one of the biggest unorganized economic
reserve, followed by domestic sector cobalt and tungsten minerals. These
activities. The handloom industry in
(6%) and industrial sector (5%) (PIB minerals are found on on both the
India has a long tradition of outstanding
2013). eastern and western parts of this
artisanship that represents and preserves
region.
43. (D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV vibrant Indian culture.
44. (C) Khushhali 49. (C) Nano Gauge
48. (A) Marginal Farmers Development
Explanation: Khushhali is not a part of Programme Explanation: On the basis of the width
the watershed management Programme. Explanation: Target areas development of track of the Indian Railways, three
does not include the Marginal Farmers categories have been made:
l Haryali is a watershed development
project sponsored by the Central Development Program, but it does include Broad gauge: The distance between
l
Government which aims at enabling the Marginal Farmers Development rails in broad gauge is 1.676 metre.
the rural population to conserve Agency (MFDA) along with other The total length of broad gauge lines
water for drinking, irrigation, mentioned development programmes.
was 63950 km (2019-20).
fisheries and afforestation. 47. (C) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-I
Metre gauge: The distance between
l
l Neeru-Meeru (Water and You) Explanation: rails is one metre. Its total length was
programme (in Andhra Pradesh) North Eastern plateau Region:
l 2402 km (2019-20).
and Arvary Pani Sansad (in This belt covers the areas of Narrow
l gauge: The distance
Alwar, Rajasthan) have taken up Chhotanagpur (Jharkhand), Odisha between the rails in this case is
constructions of various water- Plateau, West Bengal and some 0.762 metre or 0.610 metre. The total
harvesting structures such as parts of Chhattisgarh. This region is length of narrow guage was 1604 km
percolation tanks, dug out ponds known for the existence of iron ore (2019-20). It is generally confined to
(Johad), check dams, etc., through coal, manganese, bauxite, mica. hilly areas.
people's participation. South-western
l Plateau Region: 50. (B) Rural Roads
45. (C) The South Eastern Plateau Region This belt covers the areas of
Explanation: The rural roads are vital
Explanation:The South-Eastern plateau Karnataka, Goa and contiguous
Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala. for providing links in the rural areas.
region does not have broad belt of
minerals. This belt is known for ferrous metals About 80 per cent of the total road length
in India are categorised as rural roads.
qq

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 95

 NTA CUET (UG)
OFFICIAL MOCK PAPER
28th March 2022
SOLVED
1. Match List-I with List-II: List-II (H.D.I. Ranking Group) (A) Puducherry and Andaman & Nicobar
List-I (Approaches) I. High Islands
1. Regional Analysis II. Low (B) Lakshadweep and Andaman &
2. Areal Differentiation III. Very High Nicobar islands
IV. Medium (C) Daman & Diu and Andaman &
3. Spatial Organization
Choose the correct answer from the Nicobar islands
4. Postmodernism Geography
options given below: (D) Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar
List-II (Broad Features) Haveli
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
I. Identify the uniqueness of any region 10. Read the following table and answer the
(B) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II
II. Marked by the use of computers and question that follows:
(C) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
sophisticated statistical tools
(D) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV Decadal Growth Rates in India, 1901-2011
III. The grand generalisation and the
6. Gathering as a primary economic activity Census Total Absolute %
applicability of universal theories to Year Population Number Growth
is not practiced in:
explain the human condition
(A) Norther Eurasia, Northern Canada 1901 238396327 -- --
IV. Elaborate description of all aspects
and Southern Chile 1911 252093390 (+)13697063 (+)5.75
of region
(B) Amazon basin 1921 251321213 (–)772117 (–)0.31
Choose the correct answer from the
(C) Interior parts of South east Asia 1931 228977238 (+)27636023 11.6
options given below:
(D) Switzerland and Singapore 1941 318660580 (+)39683342 14.22
(A) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-I, 4-III
7. Identify the incorrect fact regarding the
(B) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III 1951 361083090 (+)42420485 13.31
Trans-Canadian Railways.
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III (A) It is 7050 km long rail line in Canada
1961 439234771 (+)77682871 21.51
(D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV (B) It connects Halifax in the east to 1971 548159652 (+)106924882 24.8
2. Which one of the following is NOT a Vancouver on the Pacific coast 1981 083329097 (+)135163645 24.06
branch of Social Geography? (C) It was constructed in 1886 1991 856302688 (+)162973391 23.85
(A) Cultural Geography (D) It passes through Cleveland, 2001 1028010328 (+)182307640 21.54
(B) Medical Geography Chicago, Omaha, Evans, Odgen and 2011 1210193422 (+)181583094 17.64
(C) Historical Geography Sacramento
Decadal growth rate = [(p2-p1)/p]×100
(D) Agricultural Geography 8. Match List-I with List-II:
Where p1= population of the base year
3. Which of the following school of thought List-I (Type of Rural Settlement Pattern)
p2= population of the present year
is concerned with the different aspects of 1. Rectangular
Source: Census of India, 2011 (Provisional)
social well-being? 2. Circular
3. Starlike How much did the total population of
(A) Welfare school of thought
India increases between 1901 to 2011?
(B) Radical school of thought 4. Cruciform
(A) 776516938 (B) 790214001
(C) Behavioural school of thought List-II (Features)
(C) 958100032 (D) 971797095
(D) Development school of thought I. Roads converge on crossroads
II. Develops in plain areas 11. The census years recorded highest and
4. Choose the region which is sparsely
lowest population growth rate respectively
populated: III. Develop around lakes and tanks
in:
(A) Equatorial Region IV. Several loads converge
(A) 1921 and 1971 respectively
(B) South-East Asia Choose the correct answer from the
(B) 1981 and 1911 respectively
options given below:
(C) North-Eastern USA (C) 1971 and 1921 respectively
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
(D) North-Western Europe (D) 1911 and 1981 respectively
(B) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
5. Match List-I with List-II: 12. Match List-I with List-II:
(C) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III
List-I (Name of the country) List-I
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
1. Norway 1. Economic consequence of migration
9. As per the Census 2011, of the following
2. Nepal Union Territories, which has the 2. Demographic consequence of
3. Iran maximum and the minimum population migration
4. Niger density, respectively? 3. Social consequence of migration

Page 96  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 4. Environmental consequence of Choose the correct answer from the (C) They have the ability to experiment
migration options given below: in one store and apply the result to
List-II (A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV many
I. Redistribution of the population (B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III (D) These are quasi-urban centers
II. Intermixing of the population (C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I 21. Identify the category(ies) which is/are
III. Remittances (D) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, D-IV not included as land-use categories in the
IV. Depletion of natural resources 17. Match List-I with List-II: Land Revenue Records.
Choose the correct answer from the List-I I. Forests
options given below: 1. Nagaland, Bundelkhand region II. Barren and Wastelands
(A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I 2. Gujarat plains and parts of Rajasthan III. Never Fallow
(B) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II 3. Lower valleys of Himalayas IV. Culturable Non-Agricultural
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II Chhattisgarh V. Area under Permanent Pastures and
(D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV 4. Meghalaya, Uttarakhand and Kerala Grazing Lands
13. Which of the following statements are List-II Choose the correct answer from the
true? options given below:
I. Hamleted Settlement
I. Push and pull factors influence (A) I, III and IV only
II. Dispersed Settlement
human migration. (B) I, II and V only
III. Clustered Settlement
II. Push factors force people to leave (C) II, IV and V only
IV. Semi-clustered Settlement
their place of residence. (D) III and IV only
Choose the correct answer from the
III. Pull factors never bring people from options given below: 22. India has three cropping seasons, viz,
different places into a city. (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II Kharif, Rabi and Zaid. Which of the
IV. Much of the migration takes place (B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III following are true for Zaid?
due to push factors. I. It is a short duration summer
(C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
Choose the most appropriate answer cropping season which begins after
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
from the options given below: the planting of the rabi crops
(A) I and III Only 18. Match List I with List II. II. It is a short duration summer
(B) I, II and IV Only List I cropping season which begins after
(C) III and IV Only 1. Ancient town the harvesting of rabi crops
(D) I, II, III and IV 2. Medieval town III. It exists as well marked cropping
3. Modern town season in South Mons India as the
14. Which of the following tribe is inhabited temperature variation is very high
in the Bahamas tribal region of Himanchal 4. Satellite town
List II IV. In northern India's irrigated areas,
Pradesh?
watermelons, vegetables and fodder
(A) Gaddi I. Jaipur
crops are grown in this season
(B) Santals II. Chennai
Choose the correct answer from the
(C) Banjara III. Gurgaon
options given below
(D) Gonds IV. Varanasi
(A) A and C only
Choose the most appropriate answer from
15. Each state prepares the state level Human (B) A and D only
the options given below:
Development Reports, using which of the (C) B and D only
following as the units of analysis? (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II
(D) B and C only
(A) Talukas (B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
(C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV 23. Match List I with List II.
(B) Ward
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I List-I
(C) Constituencies for legislative
1. Rice
assembly elections 19. The correct way to calculate Physiological
2. Wheat
(D) District Density is:
3. Bajra
16. Match List I with List II. (A) Total Population/ Net Cultivated Area
4. Maize
List-I (Fundamental classification of (B) Total Agricultural Population/Net
Cultivated Area List-II
towns)
(C) Total Population/Net Cultivatable I. Temperate conditions
1. Transport towns
Area II. Semi-arid conditions
2. Mining towns
(D) Total Agricultural Population/Net III. Tropical humid conditions
3. Tourist towns
Cultivable Area IV. Hot and dry conditions
4. Industrial towns
20. Identity the incorrect statement about Choose the most appropriate answer from
List-II (Examples)
chain stores: the options given below;
I. Bhilai, Salem
(A) They are able to purchase (A) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III
II. Kandla, Kochi
merchandise economically (B) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-III, 4-I
III. Raniganj, Jharia
(B) They employ highly skilled (C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV
IV. Nainital, Shimla specialists (D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 97

 24. HYV seeds can increases production. 30. The two main types of iron ores found in 34. Which of the following iron ore mines are
India registered significant growth in India are located in Chhattisgarh State of India?
production of cereals during the 1960- (A) Pisolitic ironstone and Titano- (A) Durg and Baliadila
70s. Which one of the following countries magnetic (B) Kendujhar and Chandrapur
developed high yielding varieties of rice (B) Hematite and Titanomagnetite (C) Bellari and Chitradurga
in the 1960s? (C) Magnetite and Titanomagnetite
(D) Mayurbhanj and Sundargarh
(A) Mexico (B) Philippines (D) Haematitie and Maganetite
(C) USA (D) Japan 35. Identify the iron ore exporting parts in
31. Tidal and Wave Energy
sequentially order from East to West
25. Which programme was launched by the I. Ocean currents are the store house of direction
Government of India in 2015-2016 to infinite energy.
I. Vishakhapatnam
ensure water security through per capita II. Tidal Waves are related to
availability of water? gravitational pull of moon II. Paradeep
(A) Jal Kranti Abhiyan III. Large tidal waves occur in West III. Mormagao
(B) Jal Bachao Jeewan Bachao Abhiyan Coast of India IV. Mangaluru
IV. Tidal Wave Energy contributes 10% Choose the correct answer from the
(C) Jal Hi Jeewan Abhiyan
of total energy requirement of India options given:
(D) Jal Hai To Kal Hai Abhiyan
V. Rajasthan states has huge potential (A) I, III, IV (B) I, II, III
26. Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) aims of Tidal Wave energy.
(C) II, III, I (D) III, I, II
at a pollution free environments. Its Choose the correct answer from the
objectives are: options given below: 36. Which is the nearest iron-ore exporting
I. Making India open defecation-free (A) II, III and V only part for Ratnagiri iron ore mine?
II. Achieving 50 per cent scientific (B) I, II and V only (A) Vishakhapatnam
management of municipal solid (C) I, II and III only (B) Paradeep
waste to reduce the dumping of (D) I, III and V only (C) Marmagao
untreated sewage into rivers 32. Uranium deposits are NOT found in (D) Mangaluru
III. Construction of individual household which one of the following locations? 37. Which state has combination of iron ore
latrines (IHHL), community toilet (A) Udaipur, Rajasthan and manganese. mines?
(CT) seats and public toilet (PT) seats (B) Bhandara, Maharashtra (A) Chhattisgarh (B) Jharkhand
IV. Supply of clean energy fuel, LPG to (C) Mahanandi river delta, Odisha (C) Bihar (D) Karnataka
all household in urban India to reduce (D) Durg, Chattisgarh
domestic population 38. Which iron-ore mine located nearest to
33. Where and when was the first successful Kolkata city?
Choose the correct answer from the attempt to tap geothermal energy made in
options given below: the world? (A) Durg (B) Bhandara
(A) I and IV only (A) Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA), (C) Mayurbhanj (D) Ballari
(B) I, III and IV only USA, 1933 39. Identify the incorrect fact/statement
(C) I and II only (B) Mosfellssveit near Reykjavik, regarding household industries or cottage
(D) II and IV only Iceland, 1908 manufacturing.
(C) Boise, Idaho, USA, 1890 (A) It is the smallest manufacturing unit
27. Which of the following statement is NOT
true about Non-Conventional Energy (D) Bepphu, Japan, 1924 (B) The artisans produce everyday goods
Resources? Direction (Q No. 34 to 38) in their homes with the help of their
(A) They are sustainable Study the Map carefully and answer the family members or part-time labour
(B) More equitably distributed question. (C) Capital and transport wield much
(C) Eco-friendly influence due to its high commercial
significance
(D) Non-Renewable Energy Resources
(D) Finished products are consumed
28. Bulk of the valuable minerals found in in the same household or the local
India are products of the (village) market
(A) Mesozoic age
40. Industries using weight-losing raw
(B) Pre-Palaezoic age materials are located in the regions where
(C) Jurassic age raw materials are located. Which of the
(D) Cenozoic age following are such industries?
29. The minerals that are both metallic and I. Sugar manufacturing
non-ferrous are II. Automotive
I. Copper III. Copper smelting
IV. Nitrogen manufacturing
II. Manganese
Choose the most appropriate answer from
III. Bauxite
the options given below:
IV. Limestone
(A) II and III only
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below: (B) I, II and IV only
(A) I and IV only (B) I and II only (C) II and III only
(C) I and III only (D) II and III only (D) I and III only

Page 98  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 41. The integrated steel plant that is well taken place in Daurala, near Meerut. These 46. The environmental problems that has
known for producing specialised steels efforts are now bearing fruits after a span of
been addressed in the above passage is
and alloys is three years, when a Merrut based NGO had
developed a model for ecological restoration. (A) Poisoning of food chain
(A) Rourkela Steel Plant
The meeting of the Daurala Industries officials, (B) Destruction of soil
(B) Bokaro Steel Plant
NGOS, Government officials and other
(C) The Indian Iron and Steel Company (C) Groundwater pollution
stakeholders at Merrut has brought out results.
(D) Visvesvaraiya Iron and Steel Works The powerful logic, authentic studies and the (D) Air pollution
Ltd
pressure of people have brought a new lease
42. As per Planning Commission of India: 47. Based on the paragraph, one can say, to
of life to the twelve thousand residents of this
India National Human Development village. It was in the year 2003 that the pitiable address environmental issues anywhere
Report, 2011, which one of the following condition of Dauralaites drew the attention (A) NGOs alone can make a difference
is the correct sequence, in decreasing of the civil society. The groundwater of this
order, of the given states HDI ranks? (B) Government alone can do what is
village was contaminated with heavy metals.
(A) Delhi > Goa > Punjab > Himachal The reason was that the untreated wastewater needed
Pradesh of Daurala industries was leaching into the (C) All stakeholders - civil society,
(B) Delhi > Himachal Pradesh > Goa groundwater table. The NGO conducted a industry, community and the
Punjab door to door survey of the health status of government have to work together
(C) Punjab > Delhi > Himachal Pradesh the residents and came out with a report.
> Goa The organisation, the village community and (D) Industry is usually the culprit and it
(D) Delhi > Goa > Punjab > Himachal people's representatives sat together to find out should be shut to address that root
Pradesh sustainable solutions to the health problem. The cause of the problem
43. Match List I with List II industrialists showed a keen interest towards
48. To find a sustainable solution to the
List I (Name of the port) checking the deteriorating ecology. The
overhead water tank’s capacity in the village problems of Daurala, few measures were
1. Kandla
was enhanced and a 900m extra pipeline was adopted by the NGO and civic authorities.
2. Mumbai
laid to supply potable water to the community. Which of the following steps was NOT
3. Marmugao
The silted pond of the village was cleaned and part of the scheme?
4. New Mangalore
recharged by desilting it. Large quantity of
List II (State located in) (A) Overhead water tank constructed
silt was removed paving way to large quantity
I. Goa of water so that it recharged the aquifers. (B) 900 m pipeline was laid
II. Karnataka Rainwater harvesting structures have been
III. Maharashtra (C) Pond was constructed
constructed at different places which has helped
IV. Gujarat in diluting the contaminants of the groundwater
(D) Rainwater harvesting structure
Choose the correct answer from the after the monsoons. 1000 trees have also been constructed
options given below: planted which have improved the environment.
49. Which of the following was done in
(A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II
45. Analyze the meaning of the ‘Polluter
(B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV Daurala village?
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III Pays’ principle and identify the correct
I. Plantation of 10000 trees
(D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I statements.
II. The overhead water tank's capacity
44. As per the Census 2011, which of I. The party responsible for producing
was enhanced
the following states contribute, more pollution is responsible for paying
for the damage done to the natural III. 900 m extra Pipeline was laid
than 76% share of the total national
population? environment. IV. Construction of rainwater harvesting
I. Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, II. As an application of this principle, structure
Rajasthan retailers are no longer allowed to give Choose the most appropriate answer from
II. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Gujarat, UP away free plastic bags; customers the options given below:
III. Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal must either pay for one or take
IV. Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Mizoram, Goa (A) II and III only
along their own bag. Customers are
Choose the correct answer from the recognized as the polluters. (B) II, III and IV only
options given below: (C) I, II, III and IV only
III. As a consequence of this principle,
(A) I, II and III only
the government is expected to bear (D) I, II and IV only
(B) II and III only
the costs of both preventing and
(C) III and IV only 50. Which of the following mode of
remedying the cause of pollution and
(D) IV only communication does NOT come under
passing on all the associated costs
Direction (Q. No. 45 to 49) telecommunication?
that he taxpayers
Read the given passage and answer the (A) Radio
Choose the correct answer from the
question that follows:
options given below: (B) Television
Based on the universal law “Polluter pays”,
effort to restore the ecology and safeguard the (A) I and III only (B) I and II only (C) Newspaper
human health with people’s participation has (C) II and III only (D) I, II and III (D) Mobile Phone

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 99

 Solutions
1. (C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III l Radical school of thought explains the Region and the Coniferous Forest region
Explanation: basic cause of poverty, deprivation in the north.
l Regional Analysis: Elaborate de- and social inequality. 8. (B) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
scription of all aspects of a region l Behavioural school of thought Explanation:
were undertaken. The idea was that emphasises experience and also on l Rectangular: Such patterns of rural
all the regions were part of a whole, the perception of space by social settlements are found in plain areas
i.e. (the earth); so, understanding the categories based on ethnicity, race or wide inter montane valleys. The
parts in totality would lead to an un- and religion, etc. roads are rectangular and cut each
derstanding of the whole. 4. (A) Equatorial Region other at right angles.
l Areal Differentiation: The focus
Explanation: Out of the given options, l Circular: Circular villages develop
was on identifying the uniqueness of
Equatorial Region is sparsely populated. around lakes, tanks and sometimes
any region and understanding how
Please note that polar regions are also the the village is planned in such a way
and why it was different from others.
regions of sparse population. South East that the central part remains open and
l Spatial Organisation: Marked by
Asia, North-Western Europe and North- is used for keeping the animals to
the use of computers and sophisticat-
Eastern USA accomodate sufficient protect them from wild animals.
ed statistical tools. Laws of physics
population. l Star-like: Where several roads
were often applied to map and anal-
yse human phenomenI. 5. (B) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II converge, star shaped settlements
This phase was called the quantitative Explanation: The Human Development develop by the houses built along the
revolution. The main objective was to Index (HDI) is an index that measures roads.
identify mappable patterns for differ- the three key dimensions of human l Cruciform: T-shaped settlements
ent human activities. development i.e. access to knowledge, a develop at tri-junctions of the roads
l Post-modernism: The grand gener- decent standard of living, and long and while Y-shaped settlements emerge
alisations and the applicability of uni- healthy life. as the places where two roads
versal theories to explain the human l As per the HDI Rankings, Norway converge on the third one and houses
conditions were questioned. The im- (Rank-01), Nepal (Rank-142), Iran are built along these roads. Cruciform
portance of understanding each local (Rank-70) and Niger (Rank-189) settlements develop on the cross-
context in its own right was empha- roads and houses extend in all the
belong to very High, Medium, High
sised. four direction.
and Low HDI Ranking groups.
2. (D) Agricultural Geography 9. (A) Puducherry and Andaman & Nicobar
6. (A) Norther Eurasia, Northern Canada
Explanation: Islands
and Southern Chile
l Cultural Geography, Medical Geogra- Explanation: As per the Census 2011,
Explanation: Economic activities are
phy and Historical Geography are the of the given Union Territories, Pucherry
broadly grouped into primary, secondary,
branches of Social Geography while and Andaman & Nicobar Islands have the
tertiary and quaternary activities. Primary
Agricultural Geography is the branch maximum and the minimum population
activities are directly dependent on
of Human Geography. density, respectively.
environment as these refer to utilisation
l Agricultural geography is concerned l Population Denisty of Andaman
of earth’s resources such as land, water,
with the spatial relationships found and Nicobar: 46 persons per sq. km.
vegetation, building materials and
between agriculture and humans. l Population Denisty of Daman and
minerals. It, thus includes, hunting and
l Cultural Geography focuses upon Diu: 2,191 persons per sq. km.
gathering, pastoral activities, fishing,
the patterns and interactions of Population Denisty of Puducherry:
forestry, agriculture, and mining and l
human culture in relation to the 2,598 persons per sq. km.
quarrying.
natural environment and the human
Gathering is practised in regions l Population Denisty of Lakshdweep:
organization of space. l
with harsh climatic conditions. It is 2,013 persons per sq. km.
l Medical Geography is concerned
practised in high latitude zones which l Population Denisty of Dadra and
with the analysis of spatial patterns
include northern Canada, northern Nagar Haveli: 698 persons per sq.
of disease and health care provision.
Eurasia and southern Chile, low km.
l Historical geography is the study of
latitude zones such as the Amazon 10. (D) 971797095
the geographies of the past and how
the past is represented in geographies Basin, tropical Africa, Northern fringe Explanation: Total Increase in
of the present. of Australia and the interior parts of population from 1901 to 2011
3. (A) Welfare school of thought Southeast Asia. = Population in 2011 – Population in
Explanation: Welfare or humanistic 7. (D) It passes through Cleveland, 1901
school in human geography was: Chicago, Omaha, Evans, Odgen and = 1210193422 – 238396327
Sacramento = 971797095
l Mainly concerned with the different
aspects of social well - being of the Explanation: Trans-Siberian Railway 11. (C) 1971 and 1921 respectively
people. These aspects can be housing, connects the Quebec-Montreal Industrial Explanation: It is clear from the given
health and education. Region with the wheat belt of the Prairie table that the population growth was the

Page 100  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 highest and minimum in 1971 (24.8%) l Lower valleys of the Himalayas and 22. (C) B and D only
and 1921 [(–) 0.31] respectively. Chhattisgarh are Hamleted Settle- Explanation: Zaid is a short duration
The population growth in 1921 was ments. These settlements are frag- summer cropping season which begins
negative [(–) 0.31] due to the effects of mented into several units physically after the harvesting of the rabi crops.
famine. Hence the year 1921 is known as separated from each other bearing a These crops are sown and harvested
the “Year of the Great Divide”. common name. in March-July (between Rabi and
12. (D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV l Meghalaya, Uttarakhand and Kerala Kharif). In northern India's irrigated
Explanation: are part of Dispersed Settlements as areas, watermelons, vegetables and
they appear in the form of isolated fodder crops are grown in this season.
l Economic consequence of migration:
Remittances huts or hamlets of few huts in remote Examples: Seasonal fruits, vegetables,
jungles, or on small hills with farms fodder crops etc.
l Demographic consequence of or pasture on the slopes.
migration: Redistribution of the
18. (B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III Related Theory
population
Explanation:  Rabi crops are sown in October-December
l Social consequence of migration: and harvested in April-June. Examples-
Intermixing of the population l Trans- Siberian Railway Ancient Wheat, barley, peas, gram, mustard etc.
l Environmental consequence of
town: Ancient towns in India are  Kharif crops are sown in June-July and
migration: Depletion of natural those with a history extending back to harvested in September-October. Examples-
resources over 2000 years ago. The majority of Rice, maize, jowar, bajra, tur, moong, urad,
13. (B) I, II and IV Only them evolved as hubs of culture and cotton, jute, groundnut, soybean etc.
religion. 23. (D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
Explanation: The Push and pull factors
l Medieval town: About 100 of the 24. (A) Mexico
influence human migration. Push factors
force people to leave their residences existing towns have their roots in the Explanation: HYV seeds increases
while Pull factors bring people from medieval period. Most of them devel- production. India registered significant
different places into a city in the hope of oped as headquarters of principalities growth in production of cereals during
better opportunities. and kingdoms. Important among the 1960-70s. Mexico is the country that
them are Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, developed high yielding varieties of rice
Examples of push factors include war,
Lucknow, Agra and Nagpur. in the 1960s.
political instability, famine, and drought,
among others while the examples of pull l Modern town: The British and other 25. (A) Jal Kranti Abhiyan
factors include political stability, lots of Europeans have developed a num-
Explanation: Jal Kranti Abhiyan was
jobs, natural resources, better learning ber of towns in India. Later, they
launched by the Government of India
institutions, and better climate. consolidated their hold around three
in 2015-2016 to ensure water security
14. (A) Gaddi principal nodes - Mumbai (Bombay),
through per capita availability of water.
Chennai (Madras), and Kolkata (Cal-
Explanation: Out of the given options, 26. (B) I, III and IV only
Gaddi tribe belongs to Himachal Pradesh. cutta) - and built them in the British
style. Explanation: Swachh Bharat Mission
l Santhal tribe belongs to Bihar,
l Satellite town: These are smaller (SBM) aims at a pollution free
Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Orissa. environment. Its objectives are making
municipalities that are adjacent to a
l Banjara tribe belongs to Rajasthan, India open defecation-free, construction
principal city which is the core of a
North-West Gujarat, and Western of individual household latrines (IHHL),
metropolitan area.
Madhya Pradesh. community toilet (CT) seats and public
19. (A) Total Population/ Net Cultivated
l Gond tribe belongs to Madhya toilet (PT) seats and supply of clean
Area
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, energy fuel, LPG to all households
Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, and Odisha. Explanation: The correct way to calcu-
in urban India to reduce domestic
15. (D) District late Physiological Density is Total Popu-
population.
lation/Net Cultivated Area.
Explanation: Each state prepares the 27. (D) Non-Renewable Energy Resources
l The physiological density or real popu-
state level Human Development Reports, Explanation: N o n - C o n v e n t i o n a l
using districts as the units of analysis. It lation density is the number of people
per unit area of arable land that has a Energy Resources are sustainable, more
is done on the same pattern as the NITI equitably distributed and eco-friendly.
Aayog does for the country using States lower physiological density.
and Union Territories as the unit of 20. (D) These are quasi-urban centers
Related Theory
analysis. Explanation: Chain stores can easily buy  Non-conventional sources are also known
16. (C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I merchandise. They work with highly quali- as renewable sources of energy. Examples of
17. (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II fied experts. They can test something in non-conventional sources of energy include
Explanation: Nagaland, Bundelkhand one store and use the outcome in several. solar energy, bioenergy, tidal energy and
21. (D) III and IV only wind energy.
region comes under clustered Settlement
as it includes the compact or closely Explanation: In the Land Revenue Re- 28. (B) Pre-Palaezoic age
built-up areas of houses. cords forests, barren and wastelands, Explanation: India is endowed with a
l Gujarat plains and parts of Rajasthan Area under Permanent Pastures and rich variety of mineral resources due to
is a part of Semi-Clustered Grazing Lands are included as land-use its varied geological structure. Bulk of
Settlements which have resulted categories. Never Fallow and Culturable the valuable minerals are products of
from the tendency of clustering in a Non-Agricultural are not included in pre-palaezoic age (65-245 Million years
restricted area of dispersed these categories. before present).

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 101

29. (C) I and III only 42. (B) Delhi > Himachal Pradesh > Goa >
Explanation: Copper and Bauxite are Related Theory Punjab
minerals which are both metallic and  In Odisha, iron ore occurs in a Explanation: As per Planning
series of hill ranges in Sundergarh,
non-ferrous. Commission of India: India National
Mayurbhanj and Jhar. The important
mines are Gurumahisani, Sulaipet, Human Development Report, 2011,
Related Theory Badampahar (Mayurbhaj), Kiruburu “Delhi > Himachal Pradesh > Goa
 Metallic minerals are the sources of metals. (Kendujhar) and Bonai (Sundergarh). Punjab” is the correct sequence, in
Iron ore, copper, gold produce metal and are  Dalli, and Rajhara in Durg are the decreasing order, of the given states HDI
included in this category. Metallic minerals important mines of iron ore in the country. ranks.
are further divided into ferrous and non- In Karnataka, iron ore deposits occur in 43. (A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II
ferrous metallic minerals. Ferrous refers Sandur-Hospet area of Ballari district,
to iron. All those minerals which have iron Baba Budan hills and Kudremukh in
44. (A) I, II and III only
content are ferrous such as iron ore itself Chikkamagaluru district and parts of Explanation: As per the Census 2011,
and those which do not have iron content are Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumakuru Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka,
non-ferrous such as copper, bauxite, etc. districts. Gujarat, UP, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, West
30. (D) Haematitie and Maganetite  The districts of Chandrapur, Bhandara and Bengal are those states that contribute,
Explanation: India is endowed with Ratnagiri in Maharashtra, Karimnagar and more than 76% share of the total national
Warangal district of Telangana, Kurnool, population.
fairly abundant resources of iron ore and Cuddapah and Anantapur districts of Andhra
has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia. Pradesh, Salem and Nilgiris districts of 45. (A) I and III only
The two main types of ore found in our Tamil Nadu are other iron mining regions. 46. (C) Groundwater pollution
country are haematite and magnetite. It 35. (C) II, III, I Explanation: In the above passage
has great demand in international market the Groundwater pollution is the
Explanation: From East to West, the
due to its superior quality. environmental problem that has been
correct directions of iron ore exporting
l The iron ore mines occur in close parts is Paradeep, Marmagao and addressed.
proximity to the coal fields in the Vishakhapatnam. 47. (C) All stakeholders - civil society,
northeastern plateau region of the 36. (C) Marmagao industry, community and the
country which adds to their advantage. government have to work together
Explanation: Marmagao is the nearest
About 95 per cent of total reserves Explanation: According to the paragraph,
iron-ore exporting part for Ratnagiri iron
of iron ore is located in the States ore mine. cooperation between all parties including
of Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, the government, business community,
37. (D) Karnataka
Karnataka, Goa, Telangana, Andhra civil society, and community is
Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Explanation: Karnataka state has a
combination of iron ore and manganese necessary to address environmental
31. (C) I, II and III only issues everywhere.
mines.
Explanation: Ocean currents are the 38. (C) Mayurbhanj 48. (A) Overhead water tank constructed
storehouse of infinite energy. Tidal Explanation: To find a sustainable
Explanation: Mayurbhanj iron-ore mine
Waves are related to gravitational pull solution to the problems of Daurala,
is located nearest to Kolkata city.
of moon and the large tidal waves occur few measures were adopted by the NGO
in West Coast of India. India has great 39. (C) Capital and transport wield much
influence due to its high commercial and civic authorities. The construction
potential for the development of tidal of the overhead tank was not a part of
significance.
energy along the coasts but so far these the scheme but the construction of pond,
have not yet been utilised. Explanation: The artisans create
laying down of 900 m pipeline and
common items in their homes using
32. (C) Mahanandi river delta, Odisha construction of rainwater harvesting
inexpensive tools and locally sourced
Explanation: Uranium deposits occur structure were the part of the scheme.
raw materials. Since most of the tools
in the Dharwar rocks. Geographically, are created locally and this kind of 49. (B) II, III and IV only
uranium ores are known to occur in manufacturing has little commercial Explanation: In Daurala village, the
several locations along the Singbhum significance, capital and transportation overhead water tank's capacity was
Copper belt. It is also found in Udaipur, have very little impact. enhanced, a 900 m extra Pipeline was
Alwar and Jhunjhunu districts of 40. (D) I and III only laid and the construction of a rainwater
Rajasthan, Durg district of Chhattisgarh, harvesting structure was done.
Explanation: Industries using weight-
Bhandara district of Maharashtra and 50. (C) Newspaper
losing raw materials are located in the
Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh. regions where raw materials are located. Explanation: Newspaper is not a means
33. (C) Boise, Idaho, USA, 1890 Sugar manufacturing and Copper of telecommunications but Radio,
Explanation: The first successful (1890) smelting are such industries. televison and mobile phones are the
attempt to tap the underground heat was 41. (D) Visvesvaraiya Iron and Steel Works means of telecommunications.
made in the city of Boise, Idaho (U.S.A.), Ltd l Telecommunication is the
where a hot water pipe network was built Explanation: Visvesvaraya Iron and transmission of information by
to give heat to the surrounding buildings. Steel Works Ltd is the integrated steel various types of technologies
This plant is still working. plant that is well known for producing over wire, radio, optical, or other
34. (A) Durg and Baliadila specialised steels and alloys. electromagnetic systems.
qq

Page 102  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-1
SELF-ASSESSMENT

General Instructions:
•• For every correct answer, 5 marks will be awarded.
•• 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
•• 40 Questions to be attempted out of 50.
Time Allowed: 45 Minutes Maximum Marks: 200 Marks

1. Match List-I with List-II: List-II (Example) 11. Which criterion was used in the early
List-I (Field of Human Geography) I. Availability of water period to measure development?
1. Social Geography II. Minerals (A) Industrial growth
III. Religious Importance (B) Agricultural growth
2. Political Geography
Choose the correct answer from the (C) Economic growth
3. Population Geography
options given below: (D) Population growth
4. Settlement Geography (A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III 12. Match List-I with List-II:
List-II (Sub Field) (B) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II List-I (Port)
I. Psephology (C) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I 1. Kandla Port
II. Demography (D) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III 2. Jawaharlal Nehru Port
III. Psychology 6. In which year did Thomas Malthus 3. Marmagao Port
IV. Urban/Rural Planning mentioned that the number of people 4. New Mangalore Port
Choose the correct answer from the would increase faster than the food
List-II (Location)
supply.
options given below: I. Gulf of Kutch
(A) 1795 (B) 1796
(A) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-I, 4-III II. Karnataka
(C) 1797 (D) 1798
(B) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III 7. Which attribute does not distinguish III. Nhava Sheva
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III people? IV. Goa
(D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV (A) Age (B) Sex Choose the correct answer from the
2. Which one of the following statements (C) Occupation (D) Industries options given below:
does not describe Geography? 8. Match List-I with List-II: (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
(A) An integrative discipline List-I (Type of Pollution) (B) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II
(B) Study of the inter-relationship 1. Air Pollution (C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II
between humans and environment 2. Water Pollution (D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV
(C) Subjected to dualism 3. Land Pollution 13. Which one of the following is not a
4. Noise Pollution plantation crop?
(D) Not relevant in the present time due
List-II (Sources) (A) Coffee (B) Sugarcane
to the development of technology
I. Combustion of coal (C) Wheat (D) Rubber
3. Which one of the following is not a source
II. Sewage disposal 14. In which one of the following countries
of geographical information?
III. Improper human activities co-operative farming was the most
(A) Traveller’s Accounts successful experiment?
(B) Old Maps IV. Aircrafts
(A) Russia (B) Denmark
Choose the correct answer from the
(C) Samples of rock materials from the (C) India (D) The Netherlands
options given below:
moon 15. Which one of the following statements is
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
(D) Ancient epics wrong?
(B) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
4. What was world population at the (C) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III (A) Cheap water transport has facilitated
beginning of the 21st century? the jute mill industry along with the
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I Hugh.
(A) 4 billion (B) 6 billion 9. The average world sex ratio is:
(C) 8 billion (D) 10 billion (B) Sugar, cotton, textiles, and vegetable
(A) 970 (B) 980 oils are footloose industries
5. Match List-I with List-II: (C) 990 (D) 995 (C) The development of hydroelectricity
List-I (Factor affecting distribution of 10. Development means: and petroleum reduced, to a great
population) (A) Qualitative change extent, the importance of coal energy
1. Geographical Factors (B) Negative change as a locational factor for the industry
2. Economic Factors (C) Increase in quality (D) Port towns in India have attracted
3. Social and Cultural Factors (D) Simple change. industries

Mock Paper - 1 Page 103

 16. Match List I with List II. 21. Which one of the following activities is Choose the correct answer from the
List-I (Type of Road) NOT a secondary sector activity? options given below:
1. National Highways (A) Iron smelting (A) I, II and III
2. State Highways (B) Catching fish (B) I, II and IV
3. District Roads (C) Making garments (C) II, III and IV
4. Rural Roads (D) Basket weaving
(D) I, III and IV
22. Which of the following is not true about
List-II (Percentage of total road length) 27. Which element of India’s International
Drought Prone Area Programme?
I. 80% trade has changed?
I. This programme was initiated during
II. 2% the Fifth Five Year Plan. (A) Amount (B) Composition
III. 4% II. This programme was initiated with the (C) Direction (D) All the above
IV. 14% objectives of providing employment 28. What is India’s share in world trade?
Choose the correct answer from the to the people in drought-prone areas. (A) 1% (B) 2%
options given below: III. This programme was initiated with
(C) 3% (D) 4%
(A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV the objectives of creating productive
assets. 29. The minerals that are both metallic and
(B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III non-ferrous are
IV. Initially, this programme laid
(C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I I. Copper
emphasis on the construction of
(D) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, D-IV labour-intensive civil works. II. Manganese
17. Match List I with List II. Choose the correct answer from the III. Bauxite
List-I (Event) options given below
IV. Limestone
1. Indira Gandhi Canal Project was (A) I, II and III
Choose the correct answer from the
launched (B) I, III and IV
options given below:
2. Irrigation in Stage-I command area (C) II, III and IV
(A) I and IV only
of the canal was introduced (D) I, II and IV
3. Command area of Stage-II began 23. Match List I with List II. (B) I and II only
receiving irrigation List-I (Towns) (C) I and III only
List-II (Year) 1. Ancient Towns (D) II and III only
I. 1958 2. Medieval Towns 30. Which settlement pattern is found along
II. Early 1960s 3. Modern Towns coasts?
III. Mid-1980s List-II (Examples) (A) Rectangular (B) Linear
Choose the correct answer from the I. Hyderabad (C) Triangular (D) Star-like
options given below: II. Mumbai 31. Tidal and Wave Energy
(A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I III. Prayag I. Ocean currents are the store house of
(B) 1-I, 2-III, 3-II Choose the most appropriate answer from infinite energy.
(C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III the options given below; II. Tidal Waves are related to
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III gravitational pull of moon
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I
(B) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I
18. Consider the following statements about III. Large tidal waves occur in West
the NITI Aayog. (C) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III
Coast of India
(D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II
I. It was formed on 01 January, 2016. IV. Tidal Wave Energy contributes 10%
24. Which mode provides door to door
II. The responsibility of plan formulation of total energy requirement of India
service?
was with the Planning Commission. . V. Rajasthan states has huge potential
(A) Rail (B) Road
III. NITI Aayog has been set up with the of Tidal Wave energy.
(C) Airways (D) Pipelines
objective of involving the states in Choose the correct answer from the
25. Which mode carries high-value light
economic policy making for India. options given below:
goods?
Choose the correct answer from the (A) II, III and V only
(A) Railways (B) Roads
options given below:
(C) Airways (D) Waterways (B) I, II and V only
(A) Only I and II
26. Consider the following statements. (C) I, II and III only
(B) Only II and III I. The rural settlements are associated (D) I, III and V only
(C) Only I and III with the primary economic activities. 32. The term “Megalopolis” was popularise
(D) All of the above II. Urban settlements, depend on by:
19. In which one of the following types of processing of raw materials and
manufacturing of finished goods. (A) La Blache
economy are the factors of production
owned individually? III. Villages act as nodes of economic (B) Laplace
(A) Capitalist (B) Mixed growth. (C) Semple
(C) Socialist (D) None IV. Cities provide goods and services (D) Jean Gottman
20. Which one of the following is a tertiary not only to urban dwellers but also 33. The average density of population of
activity? to the people of the rural settlements India (2011) is per km.
(A) Farming (B) Trading in their hinterlands in return for food (A) 216 (B) 382
(C) Weaving (D) Hunting and raw materials. (C) 221 (D) 324

Page 104  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 Direction (Q No. 34 to 38) Choose the most appropriate answer from Choose the correct answer from the
Study the Map carefully and answer the the options given below: options given below:
question. (A) II and III only (A) I and II (B) II and III
(B) I, II and IV only (C) III and IV (D) I and IV
(C) II and III only
Direction
(D) I and III only Read the given Passage and answer the
41. Which of the following statement most question that follows:
closely relates to this line? Land-use in a region, to a large extent,
“SAR ZAMIN-E-HIND PAR AQWAM- is influenced by the nature of economic
EALAM KE CARVAN BASTE GAYE, activities carried out in that region.
HINDOSTAN BANTA GAYA.” However, while economic activities
(A) Human Geography change over time, land, like many other
(A) Human Settlement in India natural resources, is fixed in terms of its
area. At this stage, one needs to appreciate
(C) Population Density
three types of changes that an economy
(D) None of the above undergoes, which affect land-use.
42. In the following question, a statement The size of the economy (measured
of assertion followed by a statement of in terms of value for all the goods and
reason is given. services produced in the economy)
Assertion (A): Post 1981 to till present, grows over time as a result of increasing
the growth rate has started down population, change in income levels,
34. Which of the following ports is located gradually. available technology and associated
in Andhra Pradesh State of India? Reason (R): It has happened due to the factors. As a result, the pressure on land
(A) Kandla downward trend in the birth rate. will increase with time and marginal
(B) Marmagao Choose the correct answer out of the lands would come under use.
(C) Mangaluru following choices: Secondly, the composition of the economy
(D) Vishakhapatnam (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the would undergo a change over time.
correct explanation of A. In other words, the secondary and the
35. Which of the following ports is not
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the tertiary sectors usually grow much faster
located on the western coast of India?
correct explanation of A. than the primary sector, specifically the
(A) Kandla (B) Paradwip agricultural sector. This type of change
(C) A is true but R is false.
(C) Mumbai (D) Kochi is common in developing countries,
(D) A is false but R is true.
36. Which of the following two ports are like India. This process would result in
43. Match List I with List II. a gradual shift of land from agricultural
located in Tamil Nadu?
List I (Waterways) uses to non-agricultural uses. Such
(A) Paradwip and Vishakhapatnam
1. NW-1 changes are sharp around large urban
(B) Tuticorin and Kochi
2. NW-2 areas. The agricultural land is being used
(C) Chennai and Tuticorin for building purposes.
3. NW-3
(D) Kandla and Paradwip Thirdly, though the contribution of the
4. NW-4
37. Which of the following port is not situated agricultural activities reduces over time,
List II (Stretch)
on the East coast of India? the pressure on land for agricultural
I. Allahabad-Haldia
(A) Haldia (B) Kolkata activities does not decline.
II. Sadiya-Dhubri
(C) Paradwip (D) Kandla 45. Which of the following statements is
III. Kottapuram-Kollam correct?
38. Which of the following port is situated
IV. Godavari and Krishna rivers along I. Land-use in a region is influenced
close to Kolkata? with Kakinada Puducherry stretch by the nature of economic activities
(A) Haldia (B) Mangaluru of canals carried out in that region.
(C) Kochi (D) Vishakhapatnam Choose the correct answer from the II. Economic activities in a region can
39. Which state has the largest population? options given below: change over time but Land remains
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) West Bengal (A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II fixed in terms of its area.
(C) Kerala (D) Punjab (B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV Choose the correct answer from the
40. Industries using weight-losing raw (C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III options given below:
materials are located in the regions where (D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I (A) Only I (B) Only II
raw materials are located. Which of the 44. Which of the following is not correctly (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II
following are such industries? matched? 46. The size of an economy is a result of:
I. Sugar manufacturing I. Class I City: 1,00,000 and more (A) increasing population
II. Automotive II. Class II City: 50,000 – 99,999 (B) change in income levels
III. Copper smelting III. Class III City: 10,000 – 19,999 (C) available technology
IV. Nitrogen manufacturing IV. Class IV City: 5,000 – 9,999 (D) All of the above

Mock Paper - 1 Page 105

 47. Which of the following statements is 48. Which of the following statements is 49. In what type of countries, the secondary
correct? correct? and the tertiary sectors usually grow
I. The size of the economy is measured I. The contribution of the agricultural much faster than the primary sector?
in terms of value for all the goods and activities reduces over time. (A) Developed Countries
services produced in the economy. II. The pressure on land for agricultural
(B) Developing Countries
II. The secondary and the tertiary sectors activities declines over time.
usually grow much faster than the (C) Underdeveloped Countries
Choose the correct answer from the
primary sector, specifically the (D) None of the above
options given below:
agricultural sector.
(A) Only I 50. When was the first Human Development
Choose the correct answer from the Report published by the UNDP?
options given below: (B) Only II
(A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I and II (A) 1970 (B) 1980
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II (D) Neither I nor II (C) 1990 (D) 1995
qq

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Page 106  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-2
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the 10. How much freshwater is there out of total
List-I (Field of Human Geography)
options given below: resources?
1. Social Geography (A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III (A) 0.5% (B) 1.0%
(B) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II (C) 2.5% (D) 3.0%
2. Urban Geography
(C) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I 11. Solar energy is _______% more effective
3. Political Geography
than coal.
4. Population Geography (D) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III
(A) 7 (B) 10
List-II (Sub Field)
6. Which type of farming is known as Slash
(C) 15 (D) 22
and Burn agriculture?
I. Urban Studies and Planning 12. Match List-I with List-II:
(A) Primitive subsistence
II. Military Science List-I (Port)
(B) Intensive subsistence
III. Demography 1. Kandla Port
(C) Plantation
IV. Welfare Economics 2. Jawaharlal Nehru Port
(D) Commerical 3. Marmagao Port
Choose the correct answer from the
7. India is the second-largest producer of 4. New Mangalore Port
options given below:
which crop in the world? List-II (Associated Facts)
(A) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-I, 4-III
(A) Tea (B) Coffee I. The largest container port in India
(B) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III
(C) Rice (D) Cotton II. Caters to the needs of the export of
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III 8. Match List-I with List-II: iron-ore and iron-concentrates.
(D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV List-I III. Gained significance after its
2. The human development index (HDI) 1. Growth of Population remodelling in 1961
ranks the countries based on their 2. Growth Rate of Population IV. cater to the needs of western and
performance in the key areas of: north western parts of the country
3. Natural Growth of Population
(A) health Choose the correct answer from the
4. Positive Growth of Population
(B) education options given below:
List-II

(C) access to resources (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
I. The change of population expressed (B) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II
(D) all of the above in percentage.
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II
3. Which types of settlements are found in II. Change of population in particular
(D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV
alluvial plains? area between two points of time is
13. Which one of the following is a ferrous
(A) Clustered (B) Semi-clustered known as growth of population
mineral?
(C) Hamleted (D) Dispersed III. When the birth rate is more than the (A) Bauxite (B) Iron ore
4. In which valley were Harappa and death rate between two points of time
(C) Mica (D) Coal
Mohanjodaro towns located? IV. the population increased by 14. Which one of the following industries
(A) Ganga (B) Narmada difference between births and deaths uses limestone as a raw material?
in a particular region between two (A) Aluminium (B) Cement
(C) Indus (D) Brahmaputra
points of time.
5. Match List-I with List-II: (C) Sugar (D) Jute
Choose the correct answer from the 15. Which one of the following agencies,
List-I (Factor affecting distribution of
options given below: market steel for the public sector plants?
population)
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV (A) HAIL (B) SAIL
1. Geographical Factors (B) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I (C) TATA Steel (D) MNCC
2. Economic Factors (C) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III 16. Match List I with List II.
3. Social and Cultural Factors (D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I List-I (Type of Road)
List-II (Example)
9. How much part of the earth is covered 1. National Highways
I. Urbanisation with water? 2. State Highways
II. Cultural Importance (A) 51% (B) 61% 3. District Roads
III. Landforms (C) 71% (D) 81% 4. Rural Roads

Mock Paper - 2 Page 107

 List-II (Purpose) 19. In which Five Year Plan, special area 26. Consider the following statements.
I. Connecting link between District programmes were designed to develop I. Good quality minerals are more in
Headquarters and the other important infrastructure in hill areas? quantity as compared to low quality
nodes in the district. (A) 1st (B) 8th minerals.
II. Connect the state capitals, major (C) 2 nd (D) 5th II. All minerals are exhaustible over
cities, important ports, railway 20. In which state in Bharmaur Tribal Region time.
junctions, etc. situated? III. Minerals take long to develop
III. Connect rural areas and villages with (A) Uttarakhand geologically and they cannot be
towns (B) Jammu & Kashmir replenished immediately at the time
IV. Connect the state capitals with district (C) Himachal Pradesh of need.
headquarters and other important Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(D) Uttar Pradesh
towns. correct?
21. Which mode provides door to door
Choose the correct answer from the (A) I and II only
service?
options given below: (B) II and III only
(A) Rail (B) Road
(A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV (C) I and III only
(C) Airways (D) Pipelines
(B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III (D) All of the above
22. Consider the following statements.
(C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I 27. Which of the following is a Kharif crop
I. In Punjab, Haryana and western
(D) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, D-IV of southern states?
Uttar Pradesh, more than 85 per
17. Match List I with List II. cent of their net sown area is under (A) Groundnut
List-I irrigation. (B) Wheat
1. Nagaland, Bundelkhand region II. Of the total net irrigated area 76.1 per (C) Vegetables
2. Gujarat plains and parts of Rajasthan cent in Punjab and 51.3 per cent in (D) Fodder
3. Lower valleys of Himalayas Haryana are irrigated through wells 28. What is the main source of pollution?
Chhattisgarh and tubewells. (A) Solid waste
4. Meghalaya, Uttarakhand and Kerala Choose the correct answer from the (B) Crops
List-II options given below (C) Animals
I. Hamleted Settlement (A) Only I (D) Forests
II. Dispersed Settlement (B) Only II 29. Consider the following statements.
III. Clustered Settlement (C) Both I and II I. After Independence, twenty-year
IV. Semi-clustered Settlement (D) Neither I nor II road plan was introduced in 1961 to
23. Match List I with List II. improve the conditions of roads in
Choose the correct answer from the
List-I (Mineral Region) India.
options given below:
1. The North-Eastern Plateau Region II. India has one of the second largest
(A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II
road networks in the world.
(B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III 2. The South-Western Plateau Region
III. The first serious attempt towards road
(C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV 3. The North-Western Region
transport in India, was made in 1943
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I List-II (Mineral) when ‘Nagpur Plan’ was drawn.
18. Match List I with List II. I. Manganese Choose the correct answer from the op-
List-I (Pollution) II. Thorium tions given below:
1. Air Pollution III. Dolomite (A) I and III only
2. Water Pollution Choose the most appropriate answer from (B) I and II only
3. Land Pollution the options given below: (C) II and III only
4. Noise Pollution (A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III (D) All of the above
List-II Pollutants Involved) (B) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I 30. Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq created the Human
I. High level of noise above tolerance (C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I Development Index in:
level (D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II (A) 1987 (B) 1988
II. Coliform MPM (bacterial count) 24. The world’s total motorable road length (C) 1989 (D) 1990
sulphates and sulphides is only about: 31. Consider the following statements.
III. Radio-active substances (A) 13 Million km (B) 14 Million km I. The National Highways Authority of
IV. Aldehydes asbestos and beryllium (C) 15 Million km (D) 16 Million km India (NHAI) was operationalised in
Choose the most appropriate answer from 25. The land which may be classified as a 1995.
the options given below: wasteland is known as: II. It is an autonomous body under the
(A) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III (A) Forests Ministry of Surface Transport.
(B) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-III, 4-I (B) Mountains III. It is entrusted with the responsibility
(C) Plateaus of development, maintenance and
(C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV
operation of National Highways.
(D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II (D) Barren hilly terrains

Page 108  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 IV. This is also the apex body to improve 36. Which of the following state has the 43. What role does harvesting rainwater play
the quality of the roads designated as population density between 401-800? in coastal areas?
National Highways. (A) West Bengal (B) Bihar (A) Increasing saltwater intrusion
Choose the correct answer from the op- (B) Decreasing soil erosion
(C) Jharkhand (D) Karnataka
tions given below: (C) Preventing flooding
37. The population density in Uttar Pradesh
(A) II, III and IV only (D) Arresting saltwater intrusion in
is:
(B) I, II and IV only coastal areas
(A) between 801-1200 44. Consider the following statements.
(C) I, II and III only
(B) between 401-800 I. Horses are used as a draught animal
(D) All of the above
(C) below 1201 even in the Western countries.
32. Which one of the following is the most
important factor in the interaction be- (D) below 100 II. Dogs and reindeer are used in North
tween people and the environment? 38. Which of the following north-eastern America, North Europe and Siberia
(A) human intelligence states have the population density below to draw sledges over snow-covered
(B) people’s perception 100? ground.
(C) technology (A) Arunachal Pradesh aur Nagaland
III. Mules are preferred in the
(B) Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram mountainous regions.
(D) human brotherhood
(C) Nagaland and Mizoram IV. Camels are used for caravan
33. Which one of the following is not an ap-
(D) Assam and Manipur movement in deserts.
proach in human geography?
39. In which year, the data about migration Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(A) Areal differentiation
was first recorded by the Census of India? correct?
(B) Spatial organisation
(A) 1881 (B) 1872 (A) I, II and III only
(C) Regional Analysis
(B) II and III only

(D) All of the above (C) 1895 (D) 1809
(C) III and IV only
40. Consider the following statements.
Direction (Q No. 34 to 38)
(D) All of the above
Study the Map carefully and answer the I. All economic activities revolve
question. around obtaining and utilising Direction (Q. No. 45 to 48)
resources necessary for survival. Read the given passage and answer the
II. Primary activities add value to question that follows:
natural resources by transforming Most of the movement of goods and services
raw materials into valuable products. takes place over land. In early days, humans
III. Secondary activities are concerned themselves were carriers. In north India, four
with manufacturing, processing persons (Kahars) used to carry a bride on a
and construction (infrastructure) palanquin (palki/doli). Later animals were used
industries. as beasts of burden. With the invention of the
Which of the above statement(s) is/are wheel, the use of carts and wagons became
correct? important. The revolution in transport came
about only after the invention of the steam
(A) I and II only
engine in the eighteenth century. Perhaps the
(B) II and III only
first public railway line was opened in 1825
(C) I and III only between Stockton and Darlington in northern
(D) None of the above England and then onwards, railways became
41. How many times has the world population the most popular and fastest form of transport in
increased during the last 500 years? the nineteenth century. It opened up continental
(A) 4 (B) 6 interiors for commercial grain farming, mining
34. How many states of India have the and manufacturing in U.S.A. The invention of
(C) 8 (D) 10
population density between 101-400? the internal combustion engine revolutionised
42. “Asia has many places where people are
(A) 12 (B) 13 road transport in terms of road quality and
few and few places where people are very
(C) 14 (D) 16 vehicles (motor cars and trucks) plying over
many” Who among the following has
35. Which of the following states has the them. Among the newer developments in land
remarked this regarding the population
transportation are pipelines, ropeways and
population density less than 100? of the world?
cableways. Liquids like mineral oil, water,
(A) Arunachal Pradesh (A) Thomas Roberts
sludge and sewers are transported by pipelines.
(B) Delhi (B) George B. Cressey The great freight carriers are the railways,
(C) Uttar Pradesh (C) Gopikrishna ocean vessels, barges, boats and motor trucks
(D) Punjab (D) None of the above and pipelines.

Mock Paper - 2 Page 109

 45. Most of the movement of goods takes 47. The revolution in transport came about (D) All of the above
place on: only after the invention of: 49. The idea of human development is
(A) Land (A) wheel supported by:
(B) Water (B) cart (A) equity
(C) Air (C) steam engine
(B) sustainability
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
(C) productivity
46. First public railway line was opened in: 48. The great freight carriers are:
(A) 1824 (D) All of the above
(A) the railways
(B) 1825 50. The lowest sex ratio is found in:
(C) 1826 (B) ocean vessels (A) Egypt (B) Qatar
(D) 1827 (C) barges (C) Kuwait (D) Iran
qq

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Page 110  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-3
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the 11. Which one of the following sectors
List-I (Industry) options given below: provides most of the employment in
1. Agro Based Industry (A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata?
2. Mineral Based Industry (B) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II (A) Primary (B) Quaternary
3. Chemical Based Industry (C) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I (C) Secondary (D) Service
4. Animal Based Industry (D) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III 12. Match List-I with List-II:
List-II (Example) 6. Growing of flowers is called: List-I (Port)
I. Iron and Steel (A) Truck farming 1. Kochi Port
II. Petrochemical (B) Factory farming 2. Kolkata Port
III. Cotton Textile
(C) Mixed farming 3. Haldia Port
IV. Wool
(D) Floriculture 4. Paradwip Port
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below: 7. Which one of the following types of List-II (Associated Facts)
cultivation was developed by European I. Faced the problem of silt accumulation
(A) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-I, 4-III
colonists?
(B) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III II. It has the deepest harbour specially
(A) Kolkoz (B) Viticulture
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III suited to handle very large vessels.
(C) Mixed farming (D) Plantation
(D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV III. Constructed to reduce the congestion
2. Favourable sex ratio is found in how 8. Match List-I with List-II: at Kolkata port
many countries. List-I (Animals) IV. Popularly known as the ‘Queen of
(A) 109 (B) 119 1. Horses the Arabian Sea’
(C) 129 (D) 139 2. Dogs Choose the correct answer from the
3. Which is not a part of the Human 3. Mules options given below:
development of people? 4. Camels (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
(A) Opportunities List-II (Associated Regions) (B) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II
(B) Freedom I. Deserts (C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II
(C) Health II. Western Countries
(D) Number of people (D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV
III. North America 13. Jobs that involve high degrees and levels
4. Who observed an increase in freedom as
IV. Mountainous Regions of innovation are known as:
the main objective of development?
Choose the correct answer from the (A) Secondary activities
(A) Amartya Sen
options given below:
(B) Karl Marx (B) Quaternary activities
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
(C) John Maynard Keynes (C) Quinary activities
(D) Milton Friedman (B) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
(D) Primary activities
5. Match List-I with List-II: (C) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III
14. Which mode is suited for carrying a large
List-I (Stores) (D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
volume of bulky materials?
1. Consumer Cooperatives 9. Which one of the following types of
(A) Reads (B) Railways
2. Departmental Stores industries produces raw materials for
other industries? (C) Airways (D) Pipelines
3. Chain Stores
(A) Cottage Industries 15. When was the first public railway line
List-II (Facts)
(B) Small-scale Industries opened?
I. The first of the large-scale innovations
(C) Basic Industries (A) 1815 (B) 1825
in retailing.
II. Delegate the responsibility and (D) Footloose Industries (C) 1830 (D) 1835
authority to departmental heads 10. Which one of the following pairs is 16. Match List I with List II.
for purchasing of commodities and correctly matched? List-I (Railway Zone)
for overseeing the sale in different (A) Automobile industry: Los Angeles 1. Central
sections of the stores.
(B) Shipbuilding Industry: Lusaka 2. Eastern
III. They have the ability to experiment
in one store and apply the results to (C) Aircraft Industry: Florence 3. East Central
many. (D) Iron and Steel industry: Pittsburg 4. East Coast

Mock Paper - 3 Page 111

 List-II (HQs) 19. What was the reason for the decline of 26. Consider the following statements.
I. Mumbai CST import of foodgrains? I. Compact or Nucleated settlements
II. Kolkata (A) Green revolution develop along river valleys and in
III. Hajipur (B) Decline in population fertile plains.
IV. Bhubaneswar (C) Decrease in the birth rate II. In dispersed settlements, houses
Choose the correct answer from the (D) Import duty are spaced far apart and often
options given below: 20. Which country is the largest trading interspersed with fields.
partner of India? III. Rural settlements are most closely
(A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV
(A) Britain (B) China related to land and are dominated by
(B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
(C) USA (D) Pakistan primary activities.
(C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
21. Which of the following is not covered Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(D) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, D-IV correct?
under the hinterland of Kolkata port?
17. Match List I with List II. (A) I and II only
(A) Bihar (B) Jharkhand
List-I (Trains) (B) II and III only
(C) Gujarat (D) Sikkim
1. Australian Trans–Continental (C) I and III only
22. Consider the following statements.
Railway
I. The settlements can be differentiated (D) All of the above
2. The Orient Express in terms of rural and urban. 27. Which state has the highest sex ratio?
3. The Union and Pacific Railway II. The population size is not a universal (A) Kerala
4. Trans–Canadian Railways criterion for such classification. (B) Himachal Pradesh
List-II (Connecting Cities) Which of the above statements are (C) Odisha
I. Perth to Sydney correct?
(D) Tamil Nadu
II. Paris to Istanbul (A) Only I
28. What was the reason for migration from
III. New York to San Francisco (B) Only II India to Middle-East?
IV. Helifax to Vancouver (C) Both I and II
(A) Agriculture
Choose the correct answer from the (D) Neither I nor II
(B) Mining
options given below: 23. Match List I with List II
(C) Increase in oil
(A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II List I (Event)
(D) Favourable climate
(B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III 1. Air transport in India was launched
29. Considered the following statements-
(C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV between Allahabad and Naini.
I. N u m e r o u s t o w n s h a v e b e e n
2. Development of air transportation
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I developed as administrative hubs
was started.
18. Match List I with List II. since the country's independence.
3. Airport Authority of India.
List I (Sea Route) II. With increasing investment in rural
4. Pawan Hans is the helicopter service.
1. The Northern Atlantic Sea Route areas, a large number of medium and
List II (Year)
2. The Mediterranean–Indian Ocean small towns have developed all over
I. providing safe, efficient air traffic the country.
Sea Route
II. operating in hilly areas
3. The Cape of Good Hope Sea Route Choose the correct answer from the
III. post-Independent period options given below:
4. The Southern Atlantic Sea Route
IV. 1911 (A) I only
List II (Connecting Places)
Choose the correct answer from the (B) Both I and II
I. Connects the highly industrialised options given below:
Western European region with West (C) II only
(A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II
Africa, South Africa, South-east Asia (D) None of the above
(B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
II. Connects West European and West 30. In which stream, female migration is
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
African countries highest?
(D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
III. Links North-eastern U.S.A. and (A) Rural to Rural
24. Approximately 10 per cent of the world's
Northwestern Europe (B) Rural to Urban
land area is used by ____ per cent of its
IV. Passes through Port Said, Aden, population. (C) Urban to Urban
Mumbai, Colombo and Singapore (A) 50% (B) 60% (D) Urban to Rural
Choose the most appropriate answer from (C) 90% (D) 40% 31. Modern manufacturing is characterised
the options given below: by:
25. Which of the factors is not an economic
(A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II factor affecting the distribution of I. a complex machine technology
(B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III population? II. vast capital
(C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV (A) Minerals (B) Industrialisation III. large organisations
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I (C) Urbanisation (D) Soils IV. executive bureaucracy

Page 112  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 Choose the correct answer from the 37. The growth rate of population in Uttar 44. Consider the following statements.
options given below: Pradesh is: I. The degradation of the quality of water
(A) II, III and IV only (A) above 25 (B) 20-25 has resulted from indiscriminate use
(B) I, II and IV only (C) 15-20 (D) 10-15 of water by increasing population
(C) I, II and III only 38. Which of the following north-eastern and industrial expansion.
(D) All of the above states have a growth rate above 25?
II. Surface water available from rivers,
32. Why countries having higher economies (A) Arunachal Pradesh aur Nagaland
also experienced a speedy rise in poverty? canals, lakes, etc. is never pure
(B) Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya
(A) Because of unequal distribution because it contains small quantities
(C) Nagaland and Mizoram
(B) Because of financial crises (D) Assam and Manipur of suspended particles, organic and
(C) Because of excessive use of resources 39. Which is the most ancient town In India? inorganic substances.
(D) Because of unlimited growth and (A) Hyderabad (B) Varanasi Which of the above statement(s) is/are
development (C) Agra (D) Chennai correct?
33. In which stage of population composition, 40. Consider the following statements about (A) Only I
do both fertility and mortality decline Semi-clustered settlements. (B) Only II
considerably? I. Semi-clustered or fragmented settle-
(A) First Stage (C) Both I and II
ments may result from tendency of
(B) Second Stage clustering in a restricted area of (D) Neither I nor II
(C) Third Stage dispersed settlement.
Direction
(D) None of the above II. This pattern may also result from
Read the given Passage and answer the
segregation or fragmentation of a
Direction (Q No. 34 to 38) question that follows:
Study the Map carefully and answer the large compact village.
question. Which of the above statement(s) is/are Noise pollution refers to the state of unbearable
correct? and uncomfortable to human beings which
(A) Only I is caused by noise from different sources.
(B) Only II The main sources of noise pollution are
(C) Both I and II various factories, mechanised construction
(D) Neither I nor II and demolition works, automobiles and
41. Which is a medieval town? aircraft, etc. There may be added periodical but
(A) Pataliputra (B) Delhi polluting noise from sirens, loudspeakers used
(C) Mumbai (D) Chandigarh in various festivals, programmes associated
42. Which state is the largest producer of with community activities. The level of steady
Jowar in India?
noise is measured by sound level expressed in
(A) Punjab (B) Maharashtra
terms of decibels (dB). Of all these sources,
(C) Karnataka (D) Rajasthan
the biggest nuisance is the noise produced by
43. Match List I with List II.
traffic, because its intensity and nature depend
List-I (Pollution)
upon factors, such as the type of aircraft,
1. Air Pollution
vehicle, train and the condition of road, as well
2. Water Pollution
as, that of vehicle (in case of automobiles). In
3. Land Pollution
sea traffic, the noise pollution is confined to the
4. Noise Pollution
34. How many states of India have a growth harbour due to loading and unloading activities
rate above 25? List-II Pollutants Involved)
being carried. Industries cause noise pollution
(A) 12 (B) 13 I. High level of noise above tolerance
level but with varying intensity depending upon the
(C) 14 (D) 03
II. Oil and grease type of industry.
35. Which of the following states has a
III. Pesticides and fertiliser-residue 45. The main sources of noise pollution is:
growth rate less than 10?
alkalinity I. factories
(A) Nagaland (B) Delhi
IV. carbon monoxide II. mechanised construction
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab
Choose the most appropriate answer from
36. Which of the following state has a growth III. demolition works
the options given below;
rate between 10-15? Choose the correct answer from the
(A) Maharashtra (A) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III
(B) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-III, 4-I options given below:
(B) Bihar
(C) Andhra Pradesh (C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV (A) Only I (B) Only II
(D) Kerala (D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II (C) Only III (D) All of the above

Mock Paper - 3 Page 113

 46. The level of steady noise is measured by (B) In sea traffic, the noise pollution 49. Which of the following is the oldest
sound level expressed in terms of: is confined to the harbour due to economic activity known so far?
(A) Hertz (Hz) loading and unloading activities (A) Gathering
being carried.
(B) Ampere (Amp) (B) Hunting
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Decibels (dB) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(D) Metre (m) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
48. The earliest human beings subsisted on:
47. Based on the paragraph, which of the
(A) animals which they hunted 50. India is the leading producer of which
following option is correct? crop in the world?
(A) Industries cause noise pollution but (B) the edible plants which they gathered
(A) Jute (B) Rice
with varying intensity depending
(C) Both (A) and (B)
upon the type of industry. (C) Tea (D) Coffee
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
qq

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Page 114  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-4
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the List-II (Associated Facts)
List-I (Period) options given below:
I. A land-locked harbour
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
1. Early colonial period II. Deals with a variety of cargo,
(B) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
2. Late 1950’s to the late 1960’s including coal, salt etc.
(C) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
3. Later colonial period (D) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV III. An artificial harbour
4. 1930’s through the inter-war period 6. Which one of the following is a famous IV. Constructed to relieve the pressure at
List-II (Approach) Copper mine? Chennai port
I. Exploration & Description (A) Bastar (B) Khetri Choose the correct answer from the
II. Regional Analysis (C) Nellore (D) Jharia options given below:
7. Which of the following industry uses (A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
III. Aerial Differentiation
bauxite as a raw material?
IV. Spatial Organization (A) Aluminium (B) Cement (B) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-II
Choose the correct answer from the (C) Jute (D) Steel (C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II
options given below: 8. Match List-I with List-II: (D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV
(A) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-I, 4-III List-I (Cities) 13. Setubharatam Pariyojana is a part of:
(B) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III 1. Prayag (Allahabad) (A) Narmada Bachao Aandolan
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III 2. Lucknow
(B) Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao
(D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV 3. Kolkata
(C) Bharatmala Project
4. Mumbai
2. Which of the following is not one (D) Sarv Shiksha Abhiyan
List-II (Basis of Development)
of the factors influencing population
I. On religious and cultural basis 14. Which of the following periods is
distribution?
II. On industrial basis associated with the areal differentiation?
(A) Mineral
III. On cultural basis (A) 1970s
(B) Tourism IV. In the form of commercial port (B) 1990s
(C) Availability of water Choose the correct answer from the (C) 1930s through the inter-War period
(D) Climate options given below:
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV (D) None of the above
3. The total useful water resources of India
are: (B) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I 15. India has ______ major ports.
(A) 1122 cubic km (C) 1-II, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-III (A) 6 (B) 8
(B) 1222 cubic km (D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I (C) 10 (D) 12
9. Which one of the following industries 16. Match List I with List II.
(C) 1322 cubic km
manufactures telephones, computers, etc?
(D) 1422 cubic km List-I (Railway Zone)
(A) Steel
4. What other kind of iron ore is there in our (B) Aluminium 1. Northern
country besides magnetite? (C) Electronic 2. North Central
(A) Heamatite (B) Sulphide (D) Information Technology 3. North Eastern
(C) Magnesium (D) Iron oxide 10. On which factor does the economic 4. North East Frontier
5. Match List-I with List-II: development of a region depends? List-II (HQs)
List-I (Cities) (A) Relief (B) Climate I. Maligaon (Guwahati)
(C) Population (D) Resources II. Gorakhpur
1. Jamshedpur
11. What should be the height of an area in
2. Bhubaneshwar the hill area development programme? III. Allahabad
3. Ghaziabad (A) 500 metres (B) 600 metres IV. New Delhi
4. Mussoorie (C) 700 metres (D) 800 metres Choose the correct answer from the
List-II (Type) 12. Match List-I with List-II: options given below:
I. Summer resort List-I (Port) (A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV
II. Satellite town 1. Visakhapatnam Port (B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
2. Chennai Port
III. Industrial town 3. Ennore Port (C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
IV. Administrative Town 4. Tuticorin Port (D) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, D-I

Mock Paper - 4 Page 115

 17. Match List I with List II 22. ”Each community occupies a well- 28. Which one of the following is not a fact?
List-I (Event) identified territory as a matter of (A) Human population increased more
1. Radio broadcasting started in India tradition”. Above mentioned line is an than ten times during the past 500
important characteristic of which of the years
2. Government took radio under its
control following activity? (B) Nearly 80 million people are added
(A) Subsistence agriculture to the world population each year
3. Radio Broadcasting names as All
(B) Collective farming (C) It took 100 years for the population
India Radio
to rise from five billion to six billion
4. Radio Broadcasting names as (C) Plantation agriculture
(D) Population growth is high in the first
Akashwani (D) Nomadic herding stage of demographic transition
List-II (Year) 23. Match List I with List II. 29. Consider and evaluate the following
I. 1936 List-I (Pollution) statements than choose correct options
II. 1957 1. Air Pollution for them from the given options.
III. 1930 2. Water Pollution I. Many species now have become
IV. 1923 extinct or endangered due to illegal
3. Land Pollution
Choose the correct answer from the hunting
4. Noise Pollution
options given below: II. The early hunters used primitive
List-II Pollutants Involved) tools made of stones, twigs or arrows
(A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II
I. High level of noise above tolerance so the number of animals killed were
(B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV limited.
level
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III Which of the above statement(s) is/are
II. Nitrate and nitrites
(D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I correct?
III. Human and animal excreta
18. Match List I with List II. (A) Only I
IV. Oxides of sulphur
List-I (River) (B) Only II
Choose the most appropriate answer from
1. Yamuna (C) Both I and II
the options given below:
2. Kali (D) Neither I not II
(A) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III
3. Gomati 30. Which of the following is not a push
(B) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-III, 4-I factor:
4. Ganga
(C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV (A) Water shortage
List-II (Polluted Place)
(D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II (B) Unemployment
I. Lucknow
24. Land degradation is not the result of: (C) Medical/Educational facilities
II. Kanpur
(A) Erosion (B) Salinity (D) Epidemics
III. Delhi
(C) Alkalinity (D) Forests 31. Consider the following statements and
IV. Muzaffarnagar
25. Which element is called ‘Mother Nature’? choose the correct option for the same:
Choose the most appropriate answer from
(A) Physical Environment I. Grape cultivation is the specialty of
the options given below: the Mediterranean agriculture.
(A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II (B) Cultural Environment
II. Wines are produced from high quality
(B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III (C) Political Environment grapes and the inferior grapes are
(C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV (D) Industrial Environment dried into raisins and Currants.
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I 26. Consider the following and choose the Which of the above statement(s) is/are
19. In which of the following continents, correct answer from the given options. correct?
subsistence gathering is not practised? I. Number of manual workers are (A) Only I
(A) Asia (B) North America needed to perform the subsistence or (B) Only II
(C) Australia (D) Africa near subsistence economic activities (C) Both I and II
20. Which of the following is not a drought II. Work participation rate tend to be (D) Neither I not II
prone area? higher in the areas of lower levels of 32. Consider the following statements:
(A) Rajasthan economic development. I. Living in places with easy access
Which of the above statement(s) is/are to fresh water is not something that
(B) Uttar Pradesh
correct? people choose.
(C) Gujarat
(A) Only I II. River valleys are some of the world's
(D) Karnataka most densely populated regions
21. In the Census of India migration is (B) Only II
Which of the following statements is/are
enumerated on the basis of: (C) Both I and II not correct?
(A) place of birth (D) Neither I nor II (A) I, and II Only
(B) place of residence 27. The basin of Brahmputra does not include: (B) I Only
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Assam (B) Bihar (C) II Only
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) (C) Meghalaya (D) Sikkim (D) I and II are both incorrect

Page 116  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 33. The functional relations between rural and 39. Which one of the following scholars II. They are found in Gujarat plains and
urban areas can be established through: introduced the concept of Human some parts of Rajasthan.
(A) supply of raw material Development? III. More often such a pattern may
(B) exchange of finished products in rural (A) Prof. Amartya Sen also result from segregation or
areas (B) Ellen C. Sein pie fragmentation oflarge compact
(C) transport and communications (C) Dr. Mahabub-Ul-Haq village.
(D) consumption of products produced Choose the correct answer from the
(D) Ratzel
in rural areas options given below:
40. Which of the following is not correctly
(A) Isolated Settlements
Direction (Q No. 34 to 38) matched?
(B) Clustered Settlements
Study the Map carefully and answer the
(A) Truck Farming: Growing of
Vegetables (C) Semi-clustered or fragmented
question.
(B) Viticulture: Rearing of Fishes (D) Hamleted Settlement

(C) Market Gardening: Growing of Direction

Flowers Read the given Passage and answer the
question that follows:
(D) Factory Farming: Rearing of Poultry
and Cattle Water is a recyclable resource but its availability
41. Which one of the following best describes is limited and the gap between supply and
development? demand will be widening over time. Climate
(A) An increase in size change at the global scale will be creating water
(B) A constant in size stress conditions in many regions of the world.
(C) A positive change in quality India has a unique situation of high population
(D) A simple change in the quality growth and rapid economic development with
42. Denmark is known for: high water demand. The Jal Kranti Abhiyan
launched by the Government of India in
(A) Mixed farming (B) Cattle rearing
2015–16 with an aim to ensure water security
(C) Dairy farming (D) Grain farming
through per capita availability of water in the
43. Match List I with List II
34. At which of the following places iron ore country. People in different regions of India
List-I (Cities)

is found? had practised the traditional knowledge of
1. Ambala
(A) Durg water conservation and management to ensure
2. Aligarh
(B) Chandrapur water availability. The Jal Kranti Abhiyan aims

3. Shimla
(C) Bailadila at involving local bodies, NGOs and cititzens,
4. Saharanpur

(D) All of the above at large, in creating awareness regarding its
List-II (Functional Specification)
35. For which of the following, marmagao is objectives. Under the Jal Kranti Abhiyan
I. Commercial Town
known for? several activities have been proposed such as
II. Tourist Town
(A) Iron ore Mine the selection of one water stressed village in
III. Educational Town
(B) Iron Ore Field each 672 districts of the country to create a ‘Jal
IV. Garrison Town
(C) Manganese Mine Gram’, the identification of model command
Choose the correct answer from the
(D) Iron Ore Exporting Ports area of about 1000 hectares in different parts
options given below:
36. Which of the following is an iron ore of the country, for example, UP, Haryana

(A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I
field? (North), Karnataka, Telangana, Tamil Nadu
(B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
(A) Gua (South), Rajasthan, Gujarat (West), Odisha
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
(B) Mayurbhanj (East), Meghalaya (North-East), abatement
(D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
(C) Tumakuru of pollution, water conservation and artificial
44. Consider the following features and
(D) All of the above recharge, reduction groundwater pollution,
choose the correct title after associating
37. Which state has combination of iron ore construction of Arsenic-free wells in selected
them.
and manganese. mines? areas of the country, creating mass awareness
I. The land- owning and dominant
(A) Chhattisgarh (B) Jharkhand through social media, radio, TV, print media,
community occupies the central part
(C) Bihar (D) Karnataka of the main village whereas people poster and essay writing competitions in
38. Goa is known for: of lower strata of society and menial schools. Jal Kranti Abhiyan is designed to
(A) Iron Ore (B) Manganese workers settle on the outer flanks of provide livelihood and food security through
(C) Mica (D) Lead the village. water security.

Mock Paper - 4 Page 117

 45. Present day world is experiencing acute (D) Not being concerned with food 49. Which areas are taken into consideration
water paucity due to: security and livelihood of the people when choosing model command areas for
47. The Ja Kranti Abhiyan was launched in: the Jal Kranti Abhiyan?
(A) Climate Change
(B) Industrial Pollution
(A) 2015-16 (B) 2014-15 (A) Industrialised states

(C) Rising Sea level (C) 2016-17 (D) 2017-18 (B) Agricultural states

(D) Forest Depletion 48. Which of the following activities is NOT (C) Coastal states
46. _______ is not a characteristic feature of recommended by Jal Kranti Abhiyan? (D) Urbanised states
Model Command Area in India? (A) Identification of model command 50. Fazendas are used for growing:
(A) Water conservation and artificial areas (A) Tea
recharge (B) Reduction of groundwater pollution
(B) Reducing groundwater pollution (B) Coffee
(C) Construction of Arsenic-free wells (C) Cocoa
(C) Construction of Arsenic-free wells in
selected areas of the country (D) Promotion of industrial growth (D) Sugarcane
qq

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Page 118  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-5
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. Match List I with List II Choose the correct answer from the 9. Which one of the following crops is not
List I (Event) options given below: cultivated under dryland farming?
1. T.V. service started in national (A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV (A) Ragi (B) Jowar
capital (C) Groundnut (D) Sugarcane
(B) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II
2. Other centers became operational 10. In which of the following group of
(C) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II countries of the world, HYVs of wheat
3. TV was delinked from All India (D) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III, 4-IV and rice were developed?
Radio (AIR)
6. Agriculture accounts for most of the (A) Japan and Australia
4. The IRS satellite system became
surface and groundwater utilisation, it (B) The U.S.A. and Japan
operational
accounts for ________% of the surface (C) Mexico and the Philippines
List II (Year)
water. (D) Mexico and Singapore
I. 1976
(A) 59 (B) 69 11. In which one of the following environments
II. 1988 does one expect the presence of dispersed
(C) 79 (D) 89
III. 1972 rural settlements?
IV. 1959 7. Which of the following statements is (A) Alluvial plains of Ganga
correct about landforms? (B) Arid and semi-arid regions of
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below: (A) People prefer living on flat plains Rajasthan
(A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II and gentle slopes because such areas (C) Lower valleys of Himalayas
(B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV are favourable for the production of (D) Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, Himachal
crops. Pradesh
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
(B) The mountainous and hilly areas 12. The functional relations between rural
(D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
and urban areas can be established
2. Kobe-Osaka region is located in: hinder the development of transport
through:
(A) Japan (B) China network and thus tend to be less
(A) supply of raw material
populated.
(C) USA (D) Taiwan (B) exchange of finished products in
3. Which out of the following states has
(C) Both (A) and (B) rural areas
major oil fields?
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) (C) transport and communications
(A) Assam (B) Bihar 8. Match List-I with List-II: (D) consumption of products produced
(C) Rajasthan (D) Tamil Nadu List-I (Colonist)
in rural areas
4. First atomic station was set up in: 13. According to Occupational categories,
1. French
the working population of India can be
(A) Kalpakkam 2. British categorised into:
(B) Narora 3. Spanish (A) Marginal Workers, Household
(C) RanaPartapSagar 4. Dutch Industrial Workers, Non Workers
(D) Tarapur List-II (Region)
(B) Cultivators, Agricultural Labourers
5. Match List-I with List-II: and Household Industrial Workers
I. Tea garden in Sri Lanka
List-I (Name of the Grassland) (C) Agricultural Labourers, Marginal
II. Coffee plantation in west Africa Workers, Non Workers
1. Velds
III. Sugarcane in Indonesia (D) Main Workers, Marginal Workers,
2. Canterbury
IV. Coconut in Philippines Non Workers
3. Pampas
Choose the correct answer from the 14. When the birth rate is more than the
4. Prairies
death rate between two points of time, it
List-II (Country) options given below:
is known as:
I. New Zealand (A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
(A) Negative Growth of Population
II. South Africa (B) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I (B) Positive Growth of Population
III. Argentina (C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III (C) Natural Growth of Population
IV. Canada (D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I (D) None of the above

Mock Paper - 5 Page 119

 15. The Pan-American Highway will connect 19. Which one of the following streams are 24. Which one of the following is the largest
the countries of: dominated by male migrants in India? linguistic group of India?
(A) South America (B) Central America (A) Rural-rural (A) Sino-Tibetan (B) Austric
(C) U.S.A. (D) All of the above (B) Urban-rural (C) Indo-Aryan (D) Dravidian
16. Match List I with List II. (C) Rural-urban 25. How many of the following cities in India
List-I (Railway Zone) (D) Urban-urban have attained the million status at the
1. North Western beginning of 2011?
20. Which one of the following urban
2. Southern (A) 40 (B) 42
agglomeration has the highest share in
3. South Central (C) 54 (D) 43
migrant population?
4. South Eastern 26. Which one from the following is not
(A) Mumbai UA (B) Delhi UA
List-II (HQs) correctly matched?
(C) Bengaluru UA (D) Chennai UA
I. Secunderabad (A) Sub-Arctic: Giraffe
21. The core region of Pastoral nomadism is:
II. Jaipur (B) Tropical Africa: Cattle
(A) From the Atlantic shores of North
III. Kolkata (C) North America: Reindeer
Africa eastwards across the Arabian
IV. Chennai (D) Thar Desert: Camel
peninsula into Mongolia and Central
Choose the correct answer from the 27. Sufficiency of which type of resources
China
options given below: can help to create adequate social
(B) Over the tundra region of Eurasia infrastructure catering to the needs of
(A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV
(C) South-west Africa the large population in the developing
(B) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
(C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV (D) On the island of Madagascar countries?
(D) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, D-I 22. Consider the following statements about (A) Financial (B) Human
17. Match List I with List II. transhumance. (C) Natural (D) Social
List-I (Country) I. It is the migration from urban area to 28. Which one of the following is a landlocked
1. North East India rural area on mountains. harbour?
2. Mexico II. It is the process of gathering on (A) Vishakhapatnam
3. Indonesia higher mountain. (B) Mumbai
4. Sri Lanka III. It is the process of hunting on higher (C) Ennor
List-II (Name of Shifting Cultivation) altitude. (D) Haldia
I. Milpa IV. It is the process of seasonal migration 29. Which of the following sectors must
II. Ladang from plain to pasture on mountains be preferred by the government for
vice-versa. improvement in HDI rank?
III. Podu
Which of the above statement(s) is/are (A) Social Sector
IV. Jhuming
correct? (B) Defence
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below: (A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Paramilitary
(A) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-II (C) Only III (D) Only IV (D) All of the above
(B) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III 23. Match List I with List II. 30. Most of India’s foreign trade is carried
(C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV through:
List-I (River)

(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I (A) Land and sea
1. Ganga
18. Match List I with List II. (B) Land and air
2. Yamuna
List I (C) Sea and air
3. Godavari
1. Health (D) Sea
4. Krishna
2. Education 31. Which type of land is owned by the
List-II (Associated Polluting Cities)
village ‘Panchayat’ or the Government?
3. Access to resources
I. Nashik (A) Area under Permanent Pastures and
List II
II. Kolkata Grazing Lands
I. Purchasing Power
III. Delhi (B) Net Area Sown
II. Adult Literacy Rate
III. Life Expectancy IV. Satara (C) Fallow other than Current Fallow
Choose the most appropriate answer from Choose the most appropriate answer from (D) None of the above
the options given below: the options given below: 32. The Big Inch pipeline transports:
(A) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I (A) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-III (A) Milk
(B) 1-II, 2-I, 3-III (B) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-III, 4-I (B) Liquid petroleum gas (LPG)
(C) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III (C) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV (C) Water
(D) 1-II, 2-III, 3-I (D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II (D) Petroleum

Page 120  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 33. Which one pair of the following places is II. Plain areas are favourable for the II. Freidrich Ratzel stated that " Human
linked by Channel Tunnel? production of crops and to built roads Geography is study of changing
(A) London – Berlin and industries. relationship between unresting man
(B) Paris – London Which of the above statement(s) is/are and the unstable earth."
correct? Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(C) Berlin – Paris
(A) Only I (B) Only II correct?
(D) Barcelona – Berlin
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II
(A) Only I
Direction (Q No. 34 to 38) (B) Only II
39. Which are the fastest means of
Study the Map carefully and answer the (C) Both I and II
communication?
question. (D) Neither I nor II
(A) Telegraph
(B) Telex Direction
(G) Radio Read the given passage and answer the

(D) Mobile Telephones question that follows:
40. Who among the following defined Human Winters in the town of Trondheim mean fierce
Geography as the study of relationship winds and heavy snow. The skies are dark
for months. Kari drives to work in the dark
between human societies and earth’s
at 8 am. She has special tyres for the winter
surface? and keeps the headlights of her powerful car
(A) Ratzel (B) Semple switched on. Her office is artificially heated at
(C) La Blache (D) Griffith Taylor a comfortable 23 degrees Celsius. The campus
41. A tax consultant belongs to: of the university she works in is built under a
huge glass dome. This dome keeps the snow out
(A) Primary Sector
in winter and lets in the sunshine in the summer.
(B) Secondary Sector The temperature is controlled carefully and
34. According to the graph, the natural
(C) Tertiary Sectot there is adequate lighting. Even though fresh
growth of population can be expressed as: vegetables and plants don’t grow in such harsh

(D) Quaternary Sector
(A) Death Rate + Birth Rate weather, Kari keeps an orchid on her desk and
42. Where is Silicon Valley located?
(B) Birth Rate – Death Rate enjoys eating tropical fruits like banana and
(A) Near New York kiwi. These are flown in from warmer areas
(C) Growth Rate- Birth Rate
(B) Near Montreal regularly. With a click of the mouse, Kari can
(D) Birth Rate + Migration network with colleagues in New Delhi. She
(C) Near San Francisco
35. The transition from high fluctuating stage frequently takes a morning flight to London
(D) Near Boston
to low fluctuating stage indicates: and returns in the evening in time to watch her
43. Match List I with List II favourite television serial. Though Kari is fifty-
(A) Shift from Rural Agrarian economy
List-I (Type of Pollution)
eight years old, she is fitter and looks younger
to Urban Industrial economy than many thirty-year-olds in other parts of the
1. Air Pollution
(B) Migration from Urban to Rural areas world.
2. Water Pollution
(C) Low Birth and Death Rate to High 45. Human beings are controlling climatic

3. Land Pollution conditions through:
Birth and Death Rate
4. Noise Pollution (A) making glass house
(D) All of the above
List-II (Sources) (B) using air conditions
36. Which stage will experience gradual de- I. Disposal of untreated industrial waste (C) Both (A) and (B)
cline in the mortality rate?
II. Advertising media (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(A) Stage I 46. Despite being fifty-eight years old, Kari
III. Urban run-off
(B) Stage II IV. Industrial processes looks younger than many thirty-year-olds
(C) Stage III in other parts of the world because of:
Choose the correct answer from the
(A) Medicine
(D) Stage IV options given below:
(B) better living standard
37. The population explosion takes place in: (A) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-I, 4-II
(C) surgery
(A) Stage-I (B) Stage-II (B) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV (D) All of the above
(C) Stage-III (D) Stage-IV (C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III 47. The human beings change nature by:
38. Consider the following statements. (D) 1-I, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I (A) organization
I. Mediterranean region have been 44. Consider the following statements. (B) rule
inhabited from early period in I. Griffith Taylor presented the concept (C) using technology
history. of Neo-Determinism. (D) none of the above

Mock Paper - 5 Page 121

48. Which of the following is a component (A) Agricultural irrigation II. In this period, elaborate description of
of natural environment? (B) Urban farming all aspects of region were undertaken.
(A) Mountains
(C) International trade Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(B) Lakes
(C) Rivers (D) Environmental conservation correct?
(D) All of the above 50. Consider the following statements. (A) Only I
49. Which sister discipline of human (B) Only II
I. In the later colonial period, the
geography is contributing to Kari's ability
to access tropical fruits like bananas and Regional analysis approach was used (C) Both I and II
kiwis in a cold climate? to study geography. (D) Neither I nor II
qq

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Page 122  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)
OFFICIAL PAPER
27th May 2023, Slot-1
SOLVED

General Instructions:
 For every correct answer, 5 marks will be awarded.
 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
 40 Questions to be attempted out of 50.
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes Maximum Marks: 200 Marks

1. Choose the correct statement. 4. Which of the following statements are 6. An increase in exchange rate implies
(A) Based on HDI Ranks, India is ahead correct? that the price of foreign currency
of China with 125th rank in India. (I) Subsidies will reduce inequality in terms of domestic currency has
(B) Based on HDI ranks, Pakistan is between rich and poor farmers. increased. This is called:
ahead of India with 86 th rank in (II) Subsidies are given to the farmers (A) Appreciation (B) Revaluation
Pakistan. who does not do agricultural work. (C) Depreciation (D) Interest Rate
(C) Based on HDI ranks, Pakistan is (III) Subsidies are given to the farmers, 7. Which of the following means avoiding
ahead of China with 130th rank in daughters to continue education. imports of those goods which could be
Pakistan. (IV) Subsidies needed to encourage produced in India itself?
(D) Based on HDI ranks, India is ahead
farmers to test the new technology. (A) Modernisation
of Pakistan with 130th rank in India.
(V) Subsidies needed for the landless (B) Self-reliance
2. Match List I with List II. labours. (C) Structural Composition
List-I List-II Choose the correct answer from the (D) Equity
(a) Animal (I) Farmers pool option given below: 8. Name the state of India that witnessed
Husbandry their milk (A) (I) and (V) only a decline in the dependence of the
according (B) (I) and (IV) only workforce on the agricultural sector
to different (C) (IV) and (II) only during the colonial period.
grading (D) (II) and (III) only (A) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Operation (II) West Bengal 5. Match List I with List II. (B) Punjab
Flood and Andhra (C) Orissa
Pradesh List-I List-II (D) Rajasthan
(c) Horticulture (III) Mixed crop- (a) Fixed (I) Capital 9. Which of the following is not the merit
livestock part of of organic farming?
forming production
system (A) It generates more income through
(b) Human (II) Organisation exports.
(d) Major Fish (IV) Golden power in (Entrepreneur)
Producing Revolution production (B) It has a shorter shelf-life.
State (C) It has more nutritional value.
(c) Machine (III) Labour
and (D) It provides healthy food.
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below: power in 10. The scarcity of resources gives rise to
production one of the following problems. Choose
(A) (a)-(III) (b)-(I), (c)-(IV), (d)-(II)
(B) (a)-(III), (b)-(II), (c)-(IV), (d)-(I) (d) Art of (IV) Land the correct option.
getting (A) Interest (B) Use
(C) (a)-(IV), (b)-(I), (c)-(III), (d)-(II)
production (C) Choice (D) Technique
(D) (a)-(I), (b)-(II), (c)-(IV), (d)-(III) done
3. When tax collection ____________ the 11. Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the
required expenditure, the budget is said
to be in ____________. options given below: List-I List-II
(A) exceeds, surplus (A) (a)-(IV) (b)-(III) (c)-(I) (d)-(II) (a) Receipts > (I) Balance of
(B) less than, surplus (B) (a)-(III) (b)-(II) (c)-(IV) (d)-(I) Payments Payment
(C) exceeds, deficit (C) (a)-(I) (b)-(II) (c)-(IV) (d)-(III) Deficit
(D) equal to, surplus (D) (a)-(III) (b)-(I) (c)-(II) (d)-(IV)

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 125

 List-I List-II 17. Consuming each additional unit of a 22. The government sector affects personal
commodity declines its: disposable income by collecting taxes
(b) Reserve (II) Current (A) Marginal utility through which it can change the
Change < O Account (B) Uses
Deficit distribution of income. The redistribution
(C) Goods
objective is fulfilled by the following tax.
(c) Receipts < (III) Balance of (D) Capital
(A) Wealth Tax (B) Gift Tax
Payment Payments 18. (I) 
Positive Economics – Trying to
(C) Income Tax (D) Sales Tax
Surplus understand mechanism is desirable
or not. 23. The government provides certain goods
(d) Reserve (IV) Current (II) Positive Economics – Trying to and services which cannot be provided
Change > O Account understand mechanism functions. by the market mechanism i.e., by the
Surplus (III) Positive Economics – Trying to exchange between individual consumers
understand mechanism is India and producers. These goods and
Choose the correct answer from the made or not. services are referred to as:
options given below: (IV) Positive Economics – Trying to (A) Private Goods
(A) (a)-(IV) (b)-(III) (c)-(II) (d)-(I) understand mechanism is bio-
(B) Public Goods
(B) (a)-(IV) (b)-(II) (c)-(III) (d)-(I) degradable or not.
(C) Superior Goods
(C) (a)-(I) (b)-(III) (c)-(II) (d)-(IV) (V) Positive Economics – Trying to
understand the mechanism is costly (D) Inferior Goods
(D) (a)-(I) (b)-(II) (c)-(III) (d)-(IV)
or cheap. 24. Arrange in chronological order:
12. Chronologically arrange the following
Choose the correct answer from the (I) Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution
events.
options given below: (II) People’s Republic of China
(I) Niti Aayog established
(A) (I) only (B) (II) only (III) Great Leap forward
(II) Industrial Policy resolution
(C) (IV) only (D) (V) only (IV) China’s Reform period
(III) Green Revolution started in India
19. In the calculation of GDPMP by (V) One Child norm of China ended
(IV) 1st Five-Year Plan introduced in
Expenditure Method, what should be Choose the correct answer from the
India
added. GDPMP=C+I+G+?
(V) Set up of Planning Commission options given below
(A) Net Imports
Choose the correct answer from the (A) (II), (III), (I), (IV), (V)
(B) Net Exports
options given below: (C) Net Factor Income from Abroad (B) (II), (IV), (III), (I), (V)
(A) (I), (IV), (II), (III), (V) (D) NIT (Net Indirect Tax) (C) (III), (IV), (II), (I), (V)
(B) (I), (IV), (III), (II), (V) 20. Which among the following equations (D) (III), (II), (IV), (V), (I)
(C) (V), (IV), (III), (II), (I) is correct? 25. Identify the correct sequence in order of
(D) (V), (IV), (II), (III), (I) (A) NDPFC = GNPMP–Depreciation– occurrence.
13. Identify which of the following concepts NFIA–NIT (I) MGNREGA
can be negative. (B) GDPMP = NDPFC + Depreciation– (II) WTO
NIT
(A) APC (B) MPC (III) Green Revolution
(C) NDPFC = NNPFC + NFIA–NIT
(C) APS (D) MPS (IV) Planning Commission
(D) GNPFC = NNPMP + Depreciation +
14. Which is not a component of the Capital NIT (V) GATT
Account in the balance of payments? 21. Need to implement Monetary and Fiscal Choose the correct answer from the
(A) FDI Policy. Arrange in sequence. options given below:
(B) Portfolio Investment (I) Demand is more than the level of (A) (I), (II), (III), (IV), (V)
(C) External Assistance output produced at full employment. (B) (II), (V), (IV), (III), (I)
(D) Net Factor Income (II) It leads to a rise in prices in the long (C) (V), (IV), (III), (II), (I)
15. The close example of a central planned run. (D) (IV), (III), (II), (IV), (I)
(III) Equilibrium level of output is more
economy is one among the following in 26. Match List I with List II.
the major part of the twentieth century, than full employment.
(IV) Monetary policy and fiscal policy List-I List-II
choose the correct option.
implemented to control price-rising. (a) British introduced (I) 1932
(A) Poland (B) China
(V) This situation is called excess Railways in India
(C) Russia (D) Ukraine
demand.
16. Identify which type of consumption will Choose the correct answer from the (b) Tata Airlines, (II) 1907
be there even at zero level of Income. options given below: a division of
(A) Induced Consumption (A) (I), (III), (II), (V), (IV) Tata & Sons,
(B) Consumption (B) (IV), (V), (II), (III), (I) inaugurating the
(C) National Consumption (C) (III), (I), (V), (II), (IV) aviation sector in
(D) Autonomous Consumption India
(D) (IV), (I), (III), (II), (V)

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 List-I List-II Where d is the demand and p is the 37. The time period of a financial year in
price. India is:
(c) Second stage of (III) 1850 Calculate the market demand when the (A) 1 January – 31 December
the demographic price is `2. (B) 13 April – 13 March
transition began (A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 1 April – 31 March
after (C) 20 (D) 10 (D) 14 January – 31 December
(d) Tata Iron and (IV) 1921 33. Identification of Poverty Line used in 38. Match List I wish List II.
Steel Company India, arrange in chronological order:
(I) Taskforce on minimum needs List-I List-II
incorporated
(II) Sen Index (a) Pakistan’s First (I) 1949
Choose the correct answer from the
(III) Monthly per capita Expenditure Five – Year Plan
options given below:
(IV) Jail cost of living (b) China’s First Five (II) 1953
(A) (a)-(III), (b)-(I), (c)-(IV), (d)-(II)
Choose the correct answer from the – Year Plan
(B) (a)-(II), (b)-(I), (c)-(III), (d)-(IV)
options given below. (c) People’s Republic (III) 1951
(C) (a)-(III), (b)-(II), (c)-(I), (d)-(IV)
(A) (III), (II), (I), (IV) of China
(D) (a)-(II), (b)-(III), (c)-(IV), (d)-(I) (B) (I), (IV), (III), (II)
27. The downward sloping of the demand (d) India’s First Five (IV) 1956
(C) (IV), (I), (III), (II) – Year Plan
curve indicates that its slope is............. . (D) (II), (III), (I), (IV)
Choose the correct answer from the
(A) Positive (B) Negative 34. Choose the correct statements. options given below:
(C) Neutral (D) Not defined (I) WTO was founded in 1995. (A) (a)-(I), (b)-(II), (c)-(IV), (d)-(III)
28. In the balance of payment account, (II) WTO is expected to establish a (B) (a)-(IV), (b)-(I), (c)-(II), (d)-(III)
portfolio investment is a part of: rule-based trading regime. (C) (a)-(I), (b)-(II), (c)-(III), (d)-(IV)
(A) Post Office Account (III) WTO has 23 countries as its (D) (a)-(IV), (b)-(II), (c)-(I), (d)-(III)
(B) Capital Account member. 39. Name the person who has introduced
(C) Current Account
(IV) GATT was established in 1948. commune system in China.
(D) Bank Account
(V) GATT has 23 member countries. (A) William Digby
29. If the equation of the demand curve (B) Dr. Roa
Choose the correct answer from the
takes the form pq = e, where e is (C) Mao
options given below:
constant. If expenditure is always the (A) (I), (II), (III) and (V) only (D) Verghese Kurien
same and equal to e, then the demand (B) (I), (III), (IV) and (V) only 40. GATT was established to:
curve will be in the shape of: (C) (I), (II), (IV) and (V) only (A) Administer all multilateral trade
(A) Rectangular Cyperbola (D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV) only agreements by providing equal
(B) Triangular Cyperbola 35. Identify the correct statements. opportunities to all countries in the
(C) Triangular Hyperbola International market
(I) GDPMP is the monetary value of all
(D) Rectangular Hyperbola final goods and services produced (B) To cover trade in all goods and
30. Among the following identify the within a domestic territory of a services to facilitate international
intermediate goods. country measured in a year. trade
(I) Straw used for sipping cold drinks (II) GDPMP = C + I + G + X – M, where (C) Sell part of the equity of PSEs to
(II) Blackboard used for teaching C is consumption expenditure, ‘I’ the public
(III) Copper used for making utensils is investment expenditure, ‘G’ is (D) To hire regular commercial service
(IV) Bicycle used for going to school Government expenditure, ‘X’ is Direction for (Q. 41-45)
(V) Steel sheet used for automobiles exports and ‘M’ is imports. Read the following case study paragraph
Choose the correct answer from the (III) GDPMP = GDPFC – NIT carefully and answer the questions based
options given below: (IV) GDPMP is the income earned by on the same.
(A) (III) and (V) only the factors in the form of wages,
The Central Bank of India (Reserve Bank
(B) (I) and (II) only profit, rent, interest, etc., within the
of India) is the apex institution that controls
(C) (II) and (IV) only domestic territory.
the entire financial market. The one of its
(V) GDPMP is the market value of all
(D) (IV) and (I) only major functions is to maintain the reserve
final goods and services produced
31. Select which of the following is not within the domestic territory of a of foreign exchange. Also, it intervenes in
one of the components of Aggregate country measured in a year. the foreign exchange market to stabilise the
demand for final goods. excessive fluctuations in the foreign exchange
Choose the correct answer from the
(A) Ex-ante consumption rate. In other words, it is the central bank’s
options given below:
(B) Ex-ante investment (A) (II) and (V) only job to control's a country's economy through
(C) Ex-post consumption (B) (I) and (II) only monetary policy.
(D) Government spending (C) (II) and (III) only If the economy is moving slowly or going
32. The Demand equations of the two (D) (III) and (IV) only backward, there are steps that the central
consumers are given as: 36. In which year Pakistan announced its bank can take to boost the economy. These
d1 ( p ) = 10 − 2 p  First Five – Year Plan? steps, whether they are asset purchases or
 (A) 1953 (B) 1951 printing more money, all involve injecting
d 2 ( p ) = 20 − 8 p 
(C) 1954 (D) 1956 more cash into the economy. The simple

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 127

supply and demand economic projection 44. Suppose there is inflation in the in reducing the price risks of farmers and
occurs and currency will devalue. When the economy, then the central bank can: would also expand the markets for farm
opposite occurs, and the economy is growing, (A) Increase the Reverse Repo Rate products.
the central bank will use various methods to (B) Decrease the Bank Rate 46. The agricultural market in rural areas is
keep that growth steady and in line with other (C) Purchase Government Securities mainly dominated by moneylenders to
economic factors such as wages and prices. (D) Decrease in Margin Requirement avoid alternative marketing channels. It
Whatever the central bank does or in fact 45. Name the tool/policy which is used by started mainly:
doesn’t do, will affect the currency of that the Central Bank to control the flow of (A) To increase their Income
country. Sometimes, it is within the central money in the domestic economy. (B) To get money from moneylender
bank’s interest to purposefully affect the value (A) Monetary Policy (C) To improve education status
(B) Fiscal Policy (D) To increase political Intervention
of a currency. For example, if the economy is
heavily reliant on exports and their currency
(C) Foreign Policy 47. Apni Mandi, Hadaspur Mandi, Rythu
(D) Public Debt Policy Bazar in these form of markets farmers
value becomes too high, importers of that
country’s commodities will seek cheaper Direction for (Q. 46-50) sell their products:
Read the following case study paragraph (A) Directly to the customers
supply, hence directly affecting the economy.
carefully and answer the questions based (B) Directly to the wholesaler
41. Money supply is a ............... concept. (C) Directly to the hawker
on the same.
(A) Flow (D) Directly to the houses
Emerging Alternate Marketing Channels:
(B) Stock
It has been realised that if farmers 48. ‘Uzhavar Sandies’ is an alternative
(C) Supply directly sell their produce to consumers, marketing channel that works in which
(D) Ratio of flow and stock it increases their incomes. Some examples state?
42. The Central Bank will choose which of these channels are Apni Mandi (Punjab, (A) Punjab (B) Tamil Nadu
Haryana and Rajasthan); Hadaspur Mandi (C) Kerala (D) Telangana
step if there is an excessive rise in the
foreign exchange rate? (Pune); Rythu Bazars (vegetable and fruit 49. In the alternatives marketing channels
(A) Supply foreign exchange from its markets in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana) farmers enter contracts with multinational
and Uzhavar Sandies (farmers markets in fast food chains, this will avoid/reduce
stock
Tamil Nadu). Further, several national ............... .
(B) Demand more of other currency
and multinational fast-food chains are (A) Fire Risk (B) Flood Risk
(C) Allow commercial banks to work
increasingly entering into contracts/ (C) Insect Risk (D) Price Risk
under a less strict environment
alliances with farmers to encourage them 50. National and Multinational fast food
(D) Allow more people of the domestic
to cultivate farm products (vegetables, chains enter contracts with farmers and
country to visit a foreign country
fruits, etc.) of the desired quality by provide the following items.
43. Central Bank of India was set up in the providing them with not only seeds and (A) Food and drinks
year: other inputs but also assured procurement (B) Dress
(A) 1951 (B) 1950 of the produce at pre-decided prices. It is (C) Seeds and Inputs
(C) 1953 (D) 1935 argued that such arrangements will help (D) Books and Pens

Solutions
1. (D) 
Based on HDI ranks, India is revolutionise dairy production
ahead of Pakistan with 130th rank and distribution. Farmers pool Related Theory
in India. their milk according to different  In government budgeting, revenue receipts
Explanation: The Human Development grading and produce a variety of are regular and non-debt, including taxes,
Index is a measure that assesses the products. non-tax revenue, and grants-in-aid. On
overall development of a country, taking (c)-(IV) T he “Golden Revolution” in the other hand, capital receipts are non-
into account factors like life expectancy, horticulture refers to a period recurring and can come from borrowings
education and per capita income. Pakistan of significant growth and or disinvestment. They create liabilities or
has a lower HDI Rank Compared to modernisation in India’s fruit reduce assets. This distinction is important in
India which can imply differences in the and vegetable sector, aimed at government financial planning.
development indicators between the two increasing productivity. 4. (B) (I) and (IV) only
countries. (d)-(II) The major fish–producing states Explanation: Only (I) and (IV) are
2. (A) (a)-(III), (b)-(I), (c)-(IV), (d)-(II). in India are West Bengal and correct statements.
Explanation: Andhra Pradesh.
(I) The government provides subsidies
(a)-(III) Animal husbandry is a mixed 3. (A) exceeds, surplus to marginal farmers. So that
crop-livestock farming system. Explanation: Tax is a major source
It is the science and practice of they can get the advantage of
breeding raising and caring for of revenue receipt for the government. new technology i.e., HYV seeds,
livestock to produce food fiber When it exceeds the required expenditure, insecticides and pesticides. It
and other products. budget is said to be in surplus. helps in raising the income of
(b)-(I)  O peration Flood was a All other options are incorrect as per poor farmers which shall reduce
major initiative in India to the statement given in the Question. income inequality.

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 (IV) Subsidies are needed to encourage 11. (A) (a)-(IV), (b)-(III), (c)-(II), (d)-(I)
farmers so that they can test and Related Theory Explanation:
adopt the new technology such
 Self-reliance is a long term goal of planning a-(IV) Receipts = Current Account
as HYV seeds, insecticides and
in India. > surplus. Here
pesticides, etc.
The Five-Year Plans in India aimed to Payments receipts means
Caution achieve another goals which are:
revenue receipts
and payment
 Students usually do not read all the options (1) Economic Growth
means revenue
of Statement based questions. (2) Modernisation
payments.
5. (A) (a)-(IV), (b)-(III), (c)-(I), (d)-(II) (3) Equity and social justice
b-(III) Reserve = It suggests
Explanation: These goals guided the nation’s development
that a negative
Change
(a)-(IV) L a n d i s a f i x e d f a c t o r o f efforts.
<0 change in
production because it’s quantity 8. (A) Andhra Pradesh reserve means
cannot be changed readily or Explanation: It is true that Andhra that a country’s
increased in the short-run. foreign
Pradesh witnessed a decline in
(b)-(III) H u m a n p o w e r u s e d i n exchange
workforce depending on agriculture. reserve has
production is called labour.
It can be attributed to various increased and
(c)-(I) Machinery and power used
factors, including urbanisation and indicates BoP
in the production process
mechanisation of agriculture and surplus
are referred to as capital in
economics. shift towards non-agricultural sectors. c-(II) Receipts = It suggests
< a current
(d)-(II) The art of getting production This trend often reflects the broader
Payments account deficit
done by an organisation is transformation of economies from when revenue
often described as Operational agrarian–based to industrial and receipts are less
management. This involves than revenue
service-oriented economies.
p l a n n i n g , o rg a n i s i n g a n d Expenditure.
overseeing all the activities 9. (B) It has a shorter shelf-life.
d-(I) Reserve = It suggests a
necessary to produce goods or Explanation: The statement that “It has
Change positive change
services. a shorter shelf-life”. is not a merit of >0 in reserve. It
6. (C) Depreciation organic farming. It is a demerit indeed. means that
Explanation: When there is an increase The reasons are: a country’s
in the exchange rate due to forces foreign
(1) Lack of preservation (2) limited exchange
of demand and supply in the foreign
exchange market, the value of domestic processing (3) Variability reserves have
currency decreases which is called the decreased and
depreciation of currency. Related Theory hence indication
 Demerits of organic farming include lower BoP deficit.
Related Theory yields, higher costs, susceptibility to pests 12. (D) (V), (IV), (II), (III), (I)
 Currency appreciation refers to an increase and diseases, limited shelf life, greater Explanation: The chronologically
in the value of one currency concerning
arrangement of the given events are
resource requirements, higher market prices,
another in the foreign exchange market.
here as under:
certification challenges, quality variability,
It means that one unit of a currency can (V) Set up of Planning – 1950
transition difficulties, and restrictions on
buy more of another currency. This can Commission
synthetic inputs.
occur due to various factors, including
a strong economy, high-interest rates, or 10. (C) Choice (IV) 1st Five Year Plan – 1951
increased demand for a particular currency. Introduced in India
Currency appreciation can have both Explanation: The scarcity of resources
(II) Industrial Policy – 1956
positive and negative effects on a country’s has given rise to the problem of choice
Resolution
economy, affecting trade balances, export which is considered an economic
competitiveness, and foreign investments. (III) Green Revolution – Mid-
problem. When resources are scarce, started in India 1960
7. (B) Self–reliance
an individual or an entity has to choose
Explanation: Self-reliance means (I) Niti Aayog – 2015
the best alternative for using scarce established
reducing dependence on foreign
goods and promoting domestic resources. This problem of choice arises Caution
production to strengthen a country’s due to the following factors:  Students must remember the chronological
economic independence and security. order of the events.
(1) Resources are scarce
This approach can involve policies 13. (C) APS
(2) Resources have alternative uses
and initiatives to encourage local Explanation: Only APS can be
manufacturing and reduce imports. (3) Wants are unlimited negative. APS (Average Propensity

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 129

 to Saving) is simply a ratio between phenomena by focusing on objective more than the level of output at
saving and income. As initially due to and verifiable facts, data, and the cause full employment.
autonomous consumption, at a zero and effect relationships that drive (V) 
After that situation of excess
level of income, saving is negative economic mechanisms and functions. demand arises.
hence APS can be negative.
Related Theory (II) 
Due to the pressure of excess
Related Theory  Normative economics is a branch of demand, price starts to increase
economics that deals with value judgments, in the long run.
 Average Propensity to Save (APS): This is
opinions, and prescriptions about what (IV) When price starts rising, monetary
the ratio between saving and income. APS
can be expressed as APS = savings/income economic policies or outcomes “should” be.
policy and fiscal policy are
 Average Propensity to Consume (APC): Unlike positive economics, which focuses
on describing and explaining economic implemented to control inflation.
This is the ratio between consumption and
income. APC can be expressed as APC = phenomena as they are, normative economics Monetary policy is implemented
Consumption / Income. is concerned with how things ought to be. by Central Bank i.e., RBI and
14. (D) Net Factor Income 19. (B) Net Exports fiscal policy i.e., Government
Explanation: The formula for the Budget is implemented by
Explanation: Net factor income is not
a component of the capital account calculation of GDPMP by expenditure Government of a country.
in the balance of payment. It is a method is as follows 22. (C) Income Tax
component of the current account in GDPMP = Private Consumption Explanation: By levying progressive
BoP as the current account includes Expenditure
(C) income taxes, where individuals
factor incomes. Factor income refers with higher incomes pay a larger
to the income earned from factors of + Investment by
Producers proportion of their earnings as taxes,
the Production. Rent/Royalty, Interest, (I)
Profit, Wages, etc. the government can redistribute income
+ Government Consumption
to support social equity and address
15. (B) China and Investment expenditure
(G) income inequality.
Explanation: China, during a major
part of the 20th century, was a prime + (Export - Import)
example of a centrally planned Hence in the given Question, (Export- Related Theory
economy. The Chinese Government import) or net export should be added.  Progressive Income Tax: Tax rate increases
under the leadership of the Communist as income rises, designed to tax higher
Party, implemented central planning 20. (A) NDPFC = GNPMP – Depreciation – earners more to reduce income inequality.
where the state had significant control NFIA – NIT  Regressive Income Tax: Tax rate decreases
over the allocation of resources, Explanation: “NDPFC = GNPMP – as income rises, placing a higher tax burden
production and distribution of goods Depreciation – NFIA-NIT” is correct on lower-income individuals, potentially
and services. only. worsening income inequality.
16. (D) Autonomous Consumption 23. (B) Pubic Goods
(a) Gross – = Net (N)
Explanation: The consumption that Deprecation Explanation: Public goods are goods
exists even at a zero level of income is or services that are non-excludable and
known as Autonomous Consumption. (b) Domestic = National – (D) non-rivalrous, meaning that they are
In other words, it is called minimum NFIA available for everyone to use and one
level of consumption. person’s use of them does not diminish
17. (A) Marginal utility (c) MP – NIT = FC (P)FC
their availability for others. These
Explanation: Marginal utility refers to To obtain net value, Deprecation is goods are provided by the Government
the additional satisfaction that a person reduced which is correct to obtain income because they are not efficiently
derives from consuming an additional at the domestic level, NFIA is reduced provided by the private market.
unit of a good or service. According from the National level of income which Examples: National defense, street
to the law of diminishing marginal is also correct.
utility, when a person consumes a good lighting, public parks, etc.
To obtain income at factor cost, NIT is
continuously then his/her desire for such 24. (A) (II), (III), (I), (IV), (V)
reduced from the market price which is
goods tends to decline, consequently Explanation:
correct.
marginal utility declines.
21. (C) (III), (I), (V), (II), (IV) (II) People's Republic of – 1949
Related Theory Explanation: The correct sequence is China
 The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility as follows: (III) Great Leap Forward – 1958
is a fundamental concept in economics that
states: “As a person consumes more units of (III) Equilibrium level of output is
more than full employment. It (I) Great Proletarian – 1966
a product, the additional satisfaction or utility
derived from each successive unit decreases, means the economy has already Cultural Revolution
assuming that other factors remain constant. utilised its resources fully. Hence,
(IV) China’s Reform – 1970
18. (B) (II) only supply cannot be increased.
Period
Explanation: Positive economics is (I) As discussed in point (III) above,
an approach in economics that aims supply cannot be increased. (V) One Child Norm of – 2015
to understand and analyse economic Hence, at this point demand is China Ended

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 31. (C) Ex-post consumption
Related Theory Related Theory Explanation: Ex-post consumption is
 Great Leap Forward: An ambitious, but  Downward-Sloping Curve: Represents meant for actual consumption and it is not
ultimately disastrous, effort to transform a negative relationship; as one variable the component of Aggregate Demand for
China’s economy in 1958 increases, the other decreases. final goods. As per the given information
Cultural Revolution: A tumultuous period in
Upward-Sloping Curve:
Represents a AD will include:
the 1966 that aimed to preserve communism positive relationship; as one variable AD = C + I + G
but led to widespread chaos and persecution. increases, the other also increases.
Reform Period: Economic reforms since the 28. (B) Capital Account Ex-ante Ex-ante Government
late 1970s that opened China to the global
market, spurring economic growth. Explanation: Portfolio investment is a Consumption Investment Spending
One-Child Policy: A population control
part of the Capital Account of Balance Ex-ante means ‘Planned’ AD include
policy initiated in 1979, which was relaxed of Payments. Capital account of BoP planned consumption and investment
in stages over the years. record only those foreign transactions only.
25. (C) (V), (IV), (III), (II), (I) which effect assets and liabilities of a
country. Portfolio Investment (Financial 32. (D) 10
Explanation: Institutional Investment) is a type of Explanation: If the Price is `2 then
(V) GATT – 1947 investment in which securities of the Market Demand = d1(p) + d2(p)
company of the home country are = 10 – 2p + 20 – 8p
(IV) Planning – 1950 bought by a foreign individual or an
Commission = (10 – 2 × 2) + (20 – 8 × 2)
institution. Portfolio investment affects
assets and liabilities of a country and = 6 + 4
(III) Green Revolution – 1960
hence recorded in the capital account. = 10
(II) WTO – 1995 33. (C) (IV), (I), (III), (II)
(I) MGNREGA – 2005 Related Theory Explanation:
 FDI (Foreign Direct Investment): Involves (IV) Dadabhai Naoroji introduced the
a long-term investment in a foreign business, concept of Jail cost of living as a
Related Theory giving the investor control or influence. measure to assess the minimum
 Certainly, here’s a very brief overview: It’s about owning a stake in a company or daily food needs for an adult in
1. The Planning Commission in India was a physical assets. India.
key institution responsible for formulating FII (Foreign Institutional Investment):
five-year plans to guide the nation’s Involves short-term investments in financial (I)  In 1979, the poverty line was
economic and social development. markets like stocks and bonds, typically established by the task force
2. Green Revolution: Boosted Indian without control or influence over the invested on the projection of minimum
agriculture in the 1960s through high-yield companies. It’s about portfolio investments. needs and effective consumption
crops and modern techniques. 29. (D) Rectangular Hyperbola demand. According to it per
3. WTO (World Trade Organization): capita consumption is required
Oversees global trade rules and Explanation: When the demand can be
to meet the average daily calorie
agreements; India is a member. expressed as PQ=e with e as a constant,
needs of 2400 kcal daily in rural
4. GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs regardless of the specific value of P and
areas and 2100 kcal daily in
and Trade): Precursor to WTO, aimed to Q. it forms a rectangular hyperbola.
reduce trade barriers and promote global urban areas.
This means that for every point along
trade. India played a key role In GATT the demand curve, the endorsed area (III) The poverty line at the national
negotiations. remains constant. level is suggested to be a
26. (A) (a)-(III), (b)-(I), (c)-(IV), (d)-(II) 30. (A) (III) and (V) only monthly per capita consumption
Explanation: expenditure of `972 in rural and
Explanation: Only (III) and (V) are
`1407 in urban areas.
a-(III) 
British introduced Railways in intermediated goods.
India in 1850. (I)  Straw used for sipping cold (II)  The Sen Poverty Index is a
drinks is a final consumer good. comprehensive measure of
b-(I) TATA Airlines, a division of Tata poverty that takes into account
& Sons, inaugurated the aviation (II) Blackboard used for teaching is a
final producer good. both the occurrence and
sector in India in 1932. severity of poverty along with
(III) Copper used for making utensils
c-(IV) Second stage of the demographic is an intermediate good as copper the income distribution among
transition began after 1921. 1921 is used as raw material. those vulnerable to poverty. It
is the known as The Year of (IV) Bicycle used for going to school is determined by averaging the
Great Divide. is a final consumer good. square of the poverty gap ratio.
d-(II) TATA Iron and Steel Company (V) Steel sheet used for automobiles 34. (C) (I) , (II), (IV), and (V) only
was incorporated in 1907. is an intermediate good as steel is Explanation:
27. (B) Negative used as raw material. (I) WTO was founded on 1st January
Explanation: The downward slope 1995.
of the demand curve indicates that its
Related Theory
(II) 
WTO is expected to establish
slope is Negative. The slope of the  Final Goods: Products that are ready for
consumption by end-users and are not used
a rule-based trading regime. A
demand curve is downward (Negative) as inputs for further production. rule-based trading system ensures
due to the inverse/opposite relationship Intermediate Goods: Products used as inputs that governments, businesses and
between the price of a commodity and in the production of other goods and services individuals know about the rules
its demand. and not meant for direct consumption. of trade around the world.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2023 Page 131

 (IV) 
GATT was established in 1948 Explanation: The GATT (General money in the economy and useful
for liberalising trade by reducing Agreements on Tariffs and Trade) to tackle when there is deflation.
tariffs and quotas among member was created to oversee all multilateral (4) Decrease in Margin Requirement:
countries. trade agreements, ensuring equal If a Bank decrease its margin
(V) GATT had 23 member countries. opportunities for all countries in the requirement, the money supply
35. (A) (II) and (V) only international market. increase. It is useful in the case of
Explanation: Only (II) and (V) are 41. (B) Stock deflation.
correct. Explanation: Money Supply means the 45. (A) Monetary Policy
Incorrect statements stock of money in an economy with the Explanation: Monetary policy is
public in the form of paper currency prepared by the Central Bank to
(I) GDPMP is not the money value.
and coins. Demand deposits and other correct inflation or deflation which has
It is the market value of all final
deposits at a particular point of time. Quantitative and Qualitative tools- the
goods and services produced
within a domestic territory within In other words, we can say money Central Bank controls the supply of
a year. supply means the volume of money money in economy at time of inflation.
(III) GDPMP = GDPFC – NIT is with the public at a particular point of Money flow in the economy is tried
incorrect. NIT should be added to time. to be reduced and at time of deflation,
factor cost to obtain market price. As it is measured at a particular point of Central Bank tries to increase the
(IV)  When income is measured by time, it is a stock concept. money flow is the economy.
income method then GDP is 42. (A) Supply foreign exchange from its 46. (A) To increase their Income
obtained at factor cost not at stock Explanation: Moneylenders dominated
market price. Explanation: If there is an excessive agricultural market in rural areas.
36. (D) 1956 rise in the foreign exchange rate it Farmers started alternative marketing
Explanation: Pakistan unveiled its first means demand for foreign currency channels to increase their income.
five-year plan in 1956—now known as is more than its supply for reducing 47. (A) Directly to the customers
the Medium Term Development Plan. the pressure of excessive demand on
Explanation: Farmers sell their
the foreign exchange rate, RBI supply
products to customers directly in
foreign exchange from its stock of
Related Theory APNA MANDI, HADASPUR
official reserves. This reduces the
 Pakistan’s first five-year plan was indeed MANDI, RYTHU BAZAAR, etc.
pressure of demand and exchange rate
announced in 1956. This plan was These markets are emerging marketing
gets controlled. This act of RBI is also
formulated to guide the country’s economic channels for formers and are helping
development and set priorities for various
known as Managed floating.
them to increase their income.
sectors. The plan aimed to address issues 43. (D) 1935
such as agriculture, industry, infrastructure,
48. (B) Tamil Nadu
Explanation: Central Bank of India,
and human development. Explanation: “Uzhavar Sandies” an
also known as the Reserve Bank of
37. (C) 1 April – 31 March emerging maret channel works in Tamil
India, plays a pivotal role in shaping the
Nadu. Apart from this, there are other
Explanation: The Indian government country’s economy and fiscal policies.
creates its budget for a single fiscal emerging market channels also.
It was established in the year 1935.
year, which runs from April 1 to (1) Apna Mandi – Punjab, Haryana and
44. (A) Increase the Reverse Repo Rate
March 31 of the following year. Rajasthan
Explanation: If there is inflation, it
38. (D) (a)-(IV), (b)-(II), (c)-(I), (d)-(III) means there is excess money supply. To (2) Hadaspur Mandi – Pune
Explanation: tackle this situation, RBI uses its tools (3)  Rythu Bazar – Andhra Pradesh
(a)-(IV)  Pakistan’s First Five–Year of Monetary Policy. and Telangana
Plan was launched in 1956. (1) Increase the Reverse Repo Rate: 49. (D) Price Risk
(b)-(II)  China’s First Five–Year If the Central Bank increases this Explanation: The Prices are pre-
Plan was launched in 1953. rate, more money is deposited decided in the contract in which farmers
(c)-(I)  The People’s Republic of by Commercial Banks with RBI. enter with a multinational fast–food
China was established in It reduces the credit creation chain. Hence it helps in reducing the
1949. capacity of banks and hence price risk for farmers.
(d)-(III) India’s First Five–Year Plan reduces the money supply. Due to 50. (C) Seeds and Inputs
was launched in 1951. decrease of money supply level
Explanation:
39. (C) Mao of AD declines and prices are
controlled. Farmers are benefited by entering into a
Explanation: Mao Zedong initiated contract with multinational and national
a campaign aimed at transforming the (2)  Decrease the Bank Rate:
fast-food chains, in many ways.
nation from an agrarian economy into Decreasing the Bank Rate will
an industrial economy by establishing increase the level of AD by (1)  These chains provide seeds and
people’s communes. increasing money supply. It is inputs to farmers in advance.
40. (A) Administer all multilateral trade used at the time of deflation. (2)  Prices are pre-decided between
agreement by providing equal (3) Purchase Government Securities: food chains and farmers
opportunities to all countries in the Purchase of Government Hence, there is no risk of price
International market Securities will increase the reduction.
qq

Page 132  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)
OFFICIAL PAPER
18th May 2022, Slot-1
SOLVED
1. The main aim of economic policies (B) Individual consumers of education Female Workers
pursued by the colonial government in Casual
and health care services do not have
India was: complete information about quality 56% Self
(A) Development of the Indian economy of service & cost. Employment
(B) Protection and promotion of the (C) Large section India's population
economy interests of their home
lives below its poverty line.
country Regular
(D) Basic education and health care
(C) To transform India into exporter of
is not considered as a right of the Observe the pie chart and identify the
finished goods
citizens. major source of livelihood for both men
(D) To promote Indian handicrafts.
2. Which of the following is not a goal of 6. The process which involves assembling and women.
storage processing, transporting, (A) Casual wage labourers
the five year plans?
packaging, grading and distribution of (B) Hired workers
(A) Self reliance (B) Land ceiling
(C) Self employed
(C) Equity (D) Modernisation different agriculture products across the
(D) Regular salaried employees
3. In 1991, India approached the — and country is known as ................ .
(A) TANWA 10. AYUSH stands for:
............... and received $ 7 billion as
(A) Alloevera, Yoga, Unity, Siddha,
loan to manage the economic crises. (B) Agriculture marketing
Naturopathy and Homeopathy
(A) World Bank, World Trade (C) Diversification
(B) Ayurveda, Yin Yan, Unani,
Organisation (D) Cooperative marketing
Spirituality and Homeopathy
(B) International Monetary Fund, OPEC 7. Which of the following is not a feature of (C) Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha,
(C) World Bank, International Monetary unorganised sector. Naturopathy and Homeopathy
Fund
(A) No job security (D) Allovera, Yin Yan, Unani, Siddha
(D) World Trade Organisation,
(B) Social security schemes and Homeopathy
International Monetary Fund
(C) Irregular payment 11. An indicator used by experts to gauge
4. Arrange the following in Chronological (D) No fixed working hours the number of people dying prematurely
order:
8. All the public sector establishments due to a particular disease as well as
(I) Foundation of World Trade
the number of years spent by them in a
Organisation (WTO) and those private sector establishments
state of disability owing to the disease is
(II) Establishment of General Agreement which employ 10 hired workers or more
called .................. .
on Trade and Tariff (GATT) are called .................. . (A) Grief of burden of disease
(III) India's New Economic Policy (NEP) (A) Informal sector establishments (B) Goal burden of disease
(IV) Introduction of Goods and Service (B) Formal sector establishments (C) Global burden of disease
Tax (GST) (D) Great burden of disease
(C) Public sector establishments
Choose the correct option: 12. Infrastructure contributes to economic
(D) Private sector establishments
(A) (IV), (II), (I), (III) development of a country by:
(B) (I), (III), (II), (IV) 9. Distribution of employment by gender.
(A) Increasing the productivity
(C) (II), (III), (I), (IV) Male Workers
of factors of production and
Casual
(D) (III), (II), (IV), (I) improving the quality of life of its
29%
5. Identify the incorrect statement relating 51% Self people.
to need for government intervention in Employment (B) By improving quality of life and
education and health sector. increasing transportation facilities.
(A) Expenditure in education and health (C) lncreasing housing facilities.
have long term impact and cannot be 20% Self (D) Increasing banking facilities and
easily reversed. Regular educational opportunities.

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 133

 13. The ability of the environment to absorb 17. Sales for a firm is calculated as: 22. Match the List I with List II.
degradation is called: (A) Value of output + Intermediate List-I List-II
(A) Carrying capacity consumption
(a) CRR (I) Buying and
(B) Global warming (B) Value of output – Intermediate selling of
(C) Ozone depletion consumption government
(C) Value of output + Change in stock securities by
(D) Absorptive capacity RBI from/to
(D) Closing stock + Value of output
14. Arrange the following in sequence to the public and
18. Arrange the following steps in commercial
show how supply-demand reversal of banks.
calculation of National Income, by
environment resources happen.
Income Method in correct sequence: (b) SLR (II) Percentage of
(I) The demand for resources for both (I) Add net factor income form abroad deposits which
production and consumption went a bank must
to arrive at National Income
keep as reserves
beyond the rate of regeneration of (II) Estimate the factor income paid by with RBI.
resources each sector (c) Repo rate (III) Rate at which
(II) Before industrialisation and (III) Identify and classify the income RBI lends
increase in population, demand for generating units money to
(IV) Calculating domestic factor income commercial
environmental resource was less banks to meet
than their supply. Choose the correct answer from the their short term
(III) There was reversal of supply options given below: needs
(A) (II), (IV), (I), (III) (d) Open (IV) Percentage of
demand relationship.
(B) (IV), (II), (III), (I) market deposits which
(IV) Industrial Revolution and operations a bank must
(C) (III), (II), (IV), (I)
population explosion took place. keep as reserves
(D) (III), (I), (II), (IV) in liquid form
Choose the correct option:
19. Which of the following are not with itself.
(A) (I), (II), (III), (IV)
macroeconomics variables:
(B) (II), (IV), (I), (III) (A) (a)-(I), (b)-(II), (c)-(III), (d)-(IV)
(I) Aggregate output
(C) (III), (II), (IV), (I) (B) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(I), (d)-(III)
(II) General price level
(D) (II), (III), (IV), (I) (III) Employment of workers in a leather (C) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(III), (d)-(I)
15. Identify the correct sequence for factory. (D) (a)-(IV), (b)-(II), (c)-(III), (d)-(I)
computing National Income: (IV) Producer's equilibrium 23. Match the List I with list II
(I) Add NFIA to calculate NNPFC Choose the correct answer from the List-I List-II
options given below:
(II) Add sales and change in stock to (a) Direct (I) Sale of shares
(A) (I) and (II) only
get value of output(VO) tax of public sector
(B) (II) and (III) only
(III) Value of intermediate consumption undertaking.
(C) (III) and (IV) only
to be deducted from value of output (D) (I) and (IV) only (b) Non-Tax (II) Corporate Tax
20. Identify which of the following is a flow Revenue
to calculate GVA at MP.
(IV) Deduct value of depreciation and variable: (c) Indirect (III) Customs duties
(I) Inventory Tax
Net Indirect Taxes to get NVAFC.
(II) Wealth (d) Capital (IV) Cash grants in-
Choose the correct answer from the (III) Income Receipts aid from foreign
options given below: (IV) Change in inventories countries
(A) (III), (IV), (I), (II) Choose the correct option: Choose the correct answer from the
(B) (II), (III), (IV), (I) (A) (I) and (III) only options given below:
(B) (II) and (IV) only (A) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(III), (d)-(I)
(C) (IV), (III), (II), (I)
(C) (III) and (IV) only
(D) (III), (II), (I), (IV) (B) (a)-(I), (b)-(II), (c)-(III), (d)-(IV)
(D) (I) and (II) only
(C) (a)-(III), (b)-(II), (c)-(I), (d)-(IV)
16. A person whose stay in a country is at 21. Which of the following components is (D) (a)-(IV), (b)-(III), (c)-(II), (d)-(I)
least for one year and whose economic not included in M1 measure of money
supply. 24. If marginal propensity to save (MPS)
interest lies in that country is called a:
(A) Currency and coins held by public is 0.5 and initial change in investment
(A) Non-resident is ` 250 crore, then the final change in
(B) Demand deposits of public
(B) Normal-resident income, is:
(C) Inter bank deposits of commercial
(C) Normal citizen banks (A) ` 125 crore (B) ` 1250 crore
(D) Domestic citizen (D) Other deposits of banks (C) ` 600 crore (D) ` 500 crore

Page 134  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

25. If the consumption function is C = 300 Choose the correct answer from the 33. The Great Leap Forward (GLF)
+ 0.6Y, then the savings function will be options given below: campaign in China aimed at Increasing
(A) S = 300 – 0.6 Y (A) (I), (II), (III), (IV), (V) ............... in the country on a massive
(B) S = (–) 300 + 0.6Y (B) (V), (IV), (III), (II), (I) scale.
(C) S = (–) 300 + 0.4Y (A) industrial sector output
(C) (III), (V), (I), (IV), (II)
(B) agriculture sector output
(D) S = 300 – 0.4Y (D) (III), (II), (I), (V), (IV)
(C) service sector output
26. Match the List I with list II 29. Match the List I with List II (D) cyber security
List-I List-II List-I List-II 34. If there is no change in demand of good
X with the change in price of good X,
(a) Marginal (a) Investments (I) Credit side
C then price elasticity of demand for good
propensity to (I) made of current
Y X is:
consume abroad account of (A) Perfectly elastic
BOP (B) Perfectly inelastic
(b) Marginal
DC (C) Unitary elastic
propensity to save (II) (b) Remittances (II) Debit side
DY to a relative of current (D) Greater than 1
(c) Average staying account of 35. Identify the normative statement:
S abroad BOP (A) Govt. has doubled the expenditure
propensity to save (III)
Y on education in this year's budget.
(c) Borrowing (III) Debit side
from IMF Capital (B) Recently RBI has increased
(d) Average propensity DS
(IV) repo rate to regulate inflation in
to consume account of
DY economy.
BOP
(C) Rise in diesel prices causes rise in
Choose the correct answer from the (d) Export (IV) Credit side transportation cost.
options given below: of cotton of Capital (D) Environmental regulation must be
(A) (a)-(I), (b)-(II), (c)-(III), (d)-(IV) clothes account of tough to protect the environment
(B) (a)-(IV), (b)-(III), (c)-(II), (d)-(I) BOP. 36. The means of production are under the
(C) (a)-(III), (b)-(II), (b)-(IV), (d)-(I) Choose the correct answer from the control of the State in which type of
(D) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(III), (d)-(I) options given below: economy?
27. From the options given below identify (A) (a)-(III), (b)-(II), (c)-(IV), (d)-(I) (A) Capitalist Economy
the intermediate good/goods. (B) (a)-(I), (b)-(II), (c)-(III), (d)-(IV) (B) Mixed Economy
(I) Printer purchased by dealer for (C) (a)-(IV), (b)-(III), (c)-(II), (d)-(I) (C) Socialist Economy
(D) (a)-(II), (b)-(III), (c)-(I), (d)-(IV) (D) Market Economy
supplying in the school.
(II) Car purchased by a cab driver. 30. A ............... function describes the 37. Which of the following is a positive
economics statement?
(III) Fruits and vegetables purchased by functional relationship between
(A) People should take C0VID-19
shopkeeper. consumption and income.
vaccines
(IV) Smart boards purchased by the (A) Income (B) Production
(B) Every child should pursue one
University for teaching. (C) Consumption (D) Cost sport in school
Choose the correct answer from the 31. Excess demand is a situation in which, (C) Government provides subsidies. It
options given below: (A) AD > AS at full employment level increases their financial burden
(A) (I) and (III) only (B) AD < AS at full employment level (D) Government should provide basic
(B) (II) and (IV) only (C) AD > AS at under employment healthcare to the public.
(C) (II) and (III) only level 38. From the given below items identify the
(D) (IV) only (D) AD < AS at under employment stock variable:
level (A) Amount of bank deposits as on
28. Identify the correct sequence relating to 31.03.2022
32. Choose correct statements about utility:
equilibrium in an economy: (B) Investment expenditure
(I) As consumption increases marginal
(I) Inventories in hand with the (C) Number of deaths due to
utility increases.
producers start falling. communicable diseases during Jan
(II) As consumption increases marginal
(II) This process continued till 2022
utility decreases. (D) Speed of a car.
aggregate demand becomes equal (III) Utility does not differ from person
to aggregate supply. 39. Calculate GDP mp.
to person.
(III) When planned demand exceeds (a) Private final consumption
(IV) Total utility is the sum of marginal expenditure = ` 200cr
planned output. utilities. (b) Indirect Tax = ` 50 cr
(IV) Producers will plan to raise Choose the correct option: (c) Government final consumption
production and employment. (A) (I) and (II) only expenditure = ` 100 cr
(V) It means buyers are planning to (B) (II) and (III) only (d) Net Exports = ` 50 cr
buy more goods and services than (C) (III) and (I) only (e) Gross Domestic Capital formation
producers are planning to produce. (D) (II) and (IV) only = ` 50 cr

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 135

 (f) Depreciation = ` 20 cr (C) (II) and (III) only 46. Which state has the lowest population
(A) 370 (B) 400 (D) (I) and (II) only of poor in 2011-2012.
(C) 320 (D) 270 42. Value added by the oil refinery will be (A) Madhya Pradesh
40. Which of the following comes under equal to:
financial sector reforms? (A) Value of output – intermediate cost (B) Andhra Pradesh
(A) Taxation (B) Banking (B) Value of output + intermediate cost (C) Odisha
(C) Delicensing (D) Devaluation (C) Crude oil only (D) Bihar
(D) Amount of oil it refines and crude
Directions (Q. No. 41 to 45) 47. Which state has the highest population
oil
Read the following passage and answer
the questions that follow: 43. Oil refinery polluting nearby area is an of poor in 1973-74.
example of: (A) Odisha
There is an oil refinery which refines crude (A) Non-monetary exchanges
petroleum and sells it in the market. The (B) Tamil Nadu
(B) Positive externalities
output of the refinery is the amount of oil (C) Negative externalities (C) Andhra Pradesh
it refines. We can estimate the value added (D) GDP externalities (D) Rajasthan
of the refinery by deducting the value of
intermediate good used by the refinery from
44. In the above case study GDP is 48. Which state has the highest population
the value of its output. The value added of ............... actual welfare
(A) underestimated of poor in 2011-12?
the refinery will be counted as part of the
(B) overestimated (A) Odisha
GDP of the economy. But in carrying out the
production the refinery may also be polluting (C) accurately estimating (B) Bihar
the nearby river. This may cause harm to the (D) equal to
(C) Maharashtra
people who use the water of the river. Hence 45. A rise in GDP will .............. .
(A) reduce welfare (D) Madhya Pradesh
their well being will fall. Pollution may also
kill fish or other organisms of the river on (B) always increase welfare 49. Which two states has the same
which fish survive. (C) may or may not increase welfare proportion of people below the poverty
41. Which of the following is correct? (D) not affect welfare
line in 1973-74?
(I) If the GDP of the country is rising,
Directions (Q. No. 46 to 50) (A) Odisha and West Bengal
the welfare will always rise.
(II) Externalities refer to the benefits Read the following passage and answer
(B) Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh
a firm or an individual cause to the questions that follow:
(C) Bihar and Madhya Pradesh
another for which they are not paid. Population Below Poverty Line in Some

(III) Non-monetary exchanges can not

Large States, 1973-2012%
(D) Gujarat and West Bengal
70 66
be excluded in estimation of GDP. 60
62
55
62
53 55 57
63
50. ................. state reduced poverty level
49
(IV) Adding the value of final goods 50
48
46

once leads to problem of double 40 31 36

32 33 much better than other states.
30 29

counting. 20 17
21
15
11
20
(A) Tamil Nadu
9
Choose the correct answer from the 10
0
1973-74
2011-12
(B) Odisha
options given below:
Bihar

Uttar
Odisha
Andhra

Gujarat

Pradesh
Madhya
Pradesh

Pradesh
Karnataka

Tamilnadu

West Bengal
Rajasthan
Maharashtra

(A) (I) and (III) only (C) Bihar

(B) (III) and (IV) only (D) Madhya Pradesh

Solutions
1. (B) Protection and promotion of the supplier of raw materials and later it There is a separate law needed for land
economy interests of their home turned into a consumer of finished ceiling and it is not just a five year plan
country industrial products from Britain. to be followed rather it continues for
long.
Explanation: The british raj or the Thus, Development of the Indian
economy to transform India into an 3. (C) World Bank, International Monetary
colonial government in India were
exporter of finished goods both are Fund
mainly concerned in serving the
economic interests of their home wrong. Also the colonial government Explanation: India had to reach
country and to carry India’s wealth to didn't took any steps for welfare and out to the International Bank for
their home country through various promotion of Indian handicrafts. So, the Reconstruction and Development
means.They were highly reluctant with correct option is B. (IBRD), popularly known as World
the development of the Indian economy 2. (B) Land ceiling Bank as well as International Monetary
and whatever development they did in Explanation: The main objective of Fund (IMF), to manage the crisis during
India was with the motive to serve their five-year plans is that the Government 1991 and received $7 billion as loan to
own interest like Indian railways . Such of India prepares a document with all its manage the crisis during 1991.
policies brought about a significant income and expenditure for five years For lending the loan, these international
change in the functioning of the Indian to focus on growth, modernisation, self- agencies kept some conditions to
economy for eg. earlier India was a reliance economy. India, major one being liberalising and

Page 136  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 opening up the economy by removing down the market system from its origin Ayurveda is considered as the oldest
certain restrictions on the private sector place. The efficiency of this system system with documented historical
as well as to reduce the role of the directly impacts our everyday lives. evidences of its practice since more
government in many sectors. These The agricultural market system refers to than 5000 years whereas Homeopathy
conditions also included removing the the system through which agricultural has been in practice in India for more
trade restrictions between India and products reach our home, from their than 100 years.
other countries. origins place and spread all over parts of The practice of Unani System is largely
4. (C) (II), (III), (I), (IV) the country. prevalent in regions of Karnataka,
Explanation: The General Agreement Agricultural marketing refers to the Andhra Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir,
on Trade and Tariffs was signed by mechanism through which these goods Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
23 countries in 1947, as an aftermath reach different places depending on the Maharashtra, Delhi and Rajasthan.
of World War II, and it became law marketplaces. Agricultural marketing is
on Jan. 1, 1948. The New Economic Homoeopathy is mostly practised in
the process that involves assembling,
Policy (NEP) of India was launched Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Orissa,
storage, processing, transportation,
under the leadership of P. V. Narasimha Maharashtra, Punjab, Tamil Nadu,
packaging, grading and distribution
Rao in the year 1991. The World Bihar, and the North Eastern States and
of different agricultural commodities
Trade Organization (WTO), came into the Siddha system is practised in Tamil
across the country.
existence in 1995, is an international Nadu, Kerala, Pondicherry,etc.
institution that maintains rules for 7. (B) Social security schemes
11. (C) Global burden of disease
global trade among nations. The Goods Explanation: The unorganised sector
has following characteristics: Explanation: The Global Burden of
and Services Tax was implemented in
India recently in July 2017. Disease Study (GBD) is a systematic
(1) There are rules and regulations but
and scientific effort to measure the
5. (D) Basic education and health care these are not followed.
magnitude of all major diseases,
is not considered as a right of the (2) Jobs in these sectors are low-paid
risk factors and intermediate clinical
citizens. and often not regular ones.
outcomes in a highly standardised
Explanation: Government intervention (3) There is no provision for overtime, manner to allow for the comparisons
is needed for different forms reforms in paid leave, holidays, leave etc in
education and health sectors due to the over time across the populations and
these sectors. between the various health problems.
following reasons:
8. (B) Formal sector establishments 12. (A) Increasing the productivity of
(1) Expenditures on education
and health is maintained Explanation: All the public sector factors of production and improving
simultaneously by all the three tiers enterprises and those private sector the quality of life of its people.
of the government i.e. the Central establishments which generally employ
Explanation: It is a well known fact
Government, the State Government IO hired workers or more are referred
The life of people is highly modernised
and Local Government in India to as the formal sector establishments
if the infrastructure is well maintained.
as per the federal structure of and those who work in such firms are
The productivity of the country or
Government in India. called formal sector workers. Those who
commodity will automatically rise
(2) Private sector is mainly governed are working in the formal sector enjoy
because of perfect labour.
by profit motive and hence they various benefits, major one being social
don't provide education and health security benefits. They generally earn Infrastructure plays a very important
facilities at a reasonable cost more than those working in the informal role in a state's development along
(3) Standard of education and health sector. with economic growth. Agriculture is
needs to be maintained in order 9. (C) Self employed one of the highly dependent sectors on
to develop human resources infrastructure.
Explanation: As shown in the two pie
effectively It contains elements like the airport, the
charts, about 51 per cent of male and
(4) Education and health is also essential railways, the roads, etc. Therefore the
56 per cent of female workforce in
for social upliftment of backward infrastructure plays a very important
India are self employed which is more
class and weaker sections of the role in developing a nation.
than the number of casual workers
society thus government policy 13. (D) Absorptive capacity
and provision of infrastructure is and regular salaried employees when
combined together. Explanation: Environment includes the
required following; The sun, the soil, the water
(5) Government Intervention at all 10. (C) Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha,
and air which are the basic essential
levels regional disparities are Naturopathy and Homeopathy
ingredients for the sustenance of human
prevalent in education and health in Explanation: AYUSH is an acronym life. The capacity of carrying the
India. for Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, environment implies that the resource
6. (B) Agriculture marketing Unani, Siddha & Sowa Rigpa, and which is the source of extraction is
Explanation: The daily usage of Homeopathy is the oldest system of not above the rate of regeneration of
agricultural produce that we consume medicine including Indian systems of the resources and the waste which
reaches us after a very long journey medicine and Homeopathy. is generated by human activities are

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 137

 within the assimilating capacity of the living in India) as well as foreigners Explanation: The money supply is
environment. The carrying capacity of (non-nationals living in India). For also known as the total value of money
the environment helps us to sustain life. example, Nepalese who lived in India for available in an economy at a time
In the Absence of the carrying capacity about an year and performed economic period. Money Supply is also known as
of the environment there can be no life. activities related to production, Money Stock.
14. (B) (II), (IV), (I), (III) consumption and investment in India, Money supply includes the money
are treated as normal residents of India which is held by the public in an
Explanation: Back in the early days
when the civilisation just began the 17. (C) Value of output + Change in stock economy. Here, the term ‘public’
population, and before countries Explanation: Value of the Output The means that sector of the country, which
ultimately took to industrialisation the goods and services that are produced by is money-using, for example firms and
environmental demand for resources an enterprise during a year constitute individuals. It does not include the
as well as the services were much less its output (that Output is also known as money-creating sector of a country
than their supply. This simply meant that gross output because output includes at times, as the money amount or
the growing pollution was within the depreciation.) Value of this output cash held by them does not mean the
absorptive capacity of the environment product is the market value of all the actual circulation of money within the
and the rate of extraction of the resource goods and services which are produced country, The money-creating sector of
was less than the rate of regeneration of by an enterprise during a year. any country includes the following-
these resources. Hence the problems of 18. (C) (III), (II), (IV), (I) Banking system and Government.
the environment did not arise. But with Explanation: The Income Method 22. (C) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(III), (d)-(I)
growing population and with the advent of measures the income of the nation Explanation: Repo Rate also decides
industrial revolution to meet the growing from the side of payments made to the the rate of liquidity in the banking
needs of the expanding population primary factors of production in the system. If RBI wants to increase the
things changed in a very devastated form of rent, or the wages, or interest rate of liquidity in the economy, they
manner. As a result the demand for and profit for their productive services will reduce the Repo Rate and also they
resources for both consumption as well in a year. Thus we can say that the will encourage the banks to sell their
as the production went beyond the rate national income is calculated by adding securities.
of regeneration of the resources. Along up factor incomes generated by all the
And if the central bank wants to control
with that the pressure on the absorptive producing units ultimately which are
liquidity then they can increase the rate
capacity of the environment increased located within the domestic economy
by discouraging banks to borrow easily.
tremendously and this trend continues during a period of account.
23. (A) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(III), (d)-(I)
even till date. Thus we can assume what 19. (C) (III) and (IV) only
Explanation: Non-tax revenue is referred
has happened is a reversaL of supply- Explanation: Microeconomics is
known as the study of economics at an to the government revenue from all the
demand relationship for environmental
individual or a group, or company level. sources excluding the taxes. These come
quality.
On the other hand the macroeconomics under the category of incomes, which the
15. (B) (II), (III), (IV), (I) government gets by way of the goods
is known as the study of a national
Explanation: The net value which is sale and services rendered by government
economy as a whole. Microeconomics
computed by adding each produced unit Different departments. A direct tax is said
Generally focuses on issues that affect
in the economy is estimated from the individuals and Companies as well. to be paid directly by the same person
gross value of the output produced which Macroeconomics usually focuses on on whom it has been levied. It can be
is generally calculated by multiplying issues that affect nation's as well as understood as a tax in which impact and
the total volume of produced goods with the world economy. Aggregate output incidence of tax falls on the same persons
their prices. After that the sum of the which is the General price level fall then it is known as direct tax. When there
value of intermediate goods (IG), the into Macroeconomics this way. The is a liability to pay a tax that is the Impact
depreciation as well as the net indirect employment of workers in a leather of tax is on one person and along with
taxes (NIT) from the value of output we factory or the producer equilibrium are that the burden of that tax (Incidence of
get net value added at FC of the units examples of microeconomics. tax), falls on the other person then it is
which are produced is computed. The 20. (C) (III) and (IV) only Known as indirect tax. It is referred to
Net National Product at the factor cost a tax in which impact and incidence of
Explanation: A flow variable is also
is then obtained by adding the net factor tax both lie on two different Persons. In
known as the quantified variable that is
income from ROW to the net domestic measured over a specified time period. such a case it is termed as indirect tax.
product at the factor cost. It is time bounded and it is expressed as The receipts of Government that either
16. (B) Normal-resident per unit of time. The investment of the creates liabilities of payment of loan or
Explanation: A normal resident is national income in the economy and it either reduce assets on disinvestments
a person who ordinarily resides in aggregate supply- all are the variables are known as the capital receipts.
a country as his centre of economic that flow since they relate to a period of 24. (D) ` 500 crore
interest mainly lies in that particular time. Explanation: Marginal propensity to save
country. Normal residents generally 21. (C) Inter bank deposits of commercial (MPS) is defined as the proportion of
include both nationals (such as Indians banks an aggregate rise in the income that a

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 consumer saves rather than spending on (i.e., supply). In this situation, In another way when aggregate demand
the consumption of goods and services. inventories start falling and exceeds what is also known as aggregate
1 come below the desired level, the
supply at full employment level, then
K= producers expand production.
MPS the demand is known as excess demand
This raises the income level, which
keeps on rising till AD and AS are and the gap is known as the inflationary
1
K= =2 equal again. gap because it causes inflation which
0.5 (2) When AD < AS, it means that the means a continuous rise in prices in the
∆Y buyers are planning lo buy less than economy.
K= what the producers are planning to
∆1
produce. As a result, inventories
32. (D) (II) and (IV) only
∆Y start rising and move above the Explanation: The power or the capacity
2= = 500 crores desired level. So the producers
250 of a commodity to satisfy human wants
cut back on production and lay off
is known as utility. We can define it
25. (C) S = (–) 300 + 0.4Y workers. This reduces the income
level i.e., AS. This downward trend as utility of a commodity means the
Explanation: C = c + bY
continues till AD and AS once again maximum satisfaction amount that a
Savings (S) = Income (Y) - Consumption (C)
become equal. person gets from consumption of a
S =Y – C
29. (A) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) service or goods.
Saving function: (–)300 + 0.4Y
Explanation: All the forms of current
26. (D) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(III), (d)-(I) economic transactions of the country
Total utility is defined as the total
Explanation: The measure of percentage like import, export, service, incomes, psychological satisfaction a person or
change after-tax, in other words the transfer (remittance, donations, etc) are purchaser obtains from consuming a
disposable income that households use to counted here. given amount of goods. We can say that
buy various goods and services is termed Trade in goods (Import and export) as the total utility is the sum of marginal
as the average propensity to consume well as trade in services are counted in
(APC) . This can also be defined as the utilities obtained or gained from the
the current account. In the case of India,
amount of the total money spent over we are usually a net importer of goods consumption of commodities. It is
any given period of time as compared and a net exporter of services and usually measurable in utils.
to the disposable income earned during there is a deficit in the current account. 33. (A) industrial sector output
that period of time. Also, the transfer in the form of
remittance, donation or gifts is are Explanation: The Great Leap Forward
27. (A) (I) and (III) only
counted in the category of current (GLF) campaign was initiated in 1958
Explanation: Intermediate goods
account. India is one of the highest which aimed at countries industrialising
are referred to as those semi-finished
remittance receiving countries in the
products that are used as inputs to on a massive scale. The people were
world. The net total volume of money
become part of the finished product. entering or leaving the country through encouraged to set up industries.
Intermediate goods are also termed as the visible (import and export of goods) and The areas which were rural there
products that are used in the production invisible (services, income, transfers, communes were started. People under
process to make other goods, which are etc) transactions is called balance of
ultimately sold to consumers through current account. the Commune system cultivated lands.
the marketplace. The intermediate 30. (C) Consumption There were 26,000 communes covering
goods are sold industry-to-industry for In 1958, almost all the farm population.
Explanation: The consumption function
resale or to produce other products.
shows the willingness of customers 34. (B) Perfectly inelastic
28. (C) (III), (V), (I), (IV), (II) to spend on consumer goods and
Explanation: It refers to the whole
Explanation: AD-AS Model-The AD services at different levels and different
(Aggregate Demand) & AS (Aggregate incomes. The functional relationship commodities demand curve. The demand
Supply) model is one of the basic tools which exists between the income as curve usually shows the relationship
in economics as it provides a general well as the consumption is expressed as between the quantity demanded of the
framework for bringing economic C = f(Y) Where C = Consumption BY
= Income Here, C is the dependent same on the assumption that all other
factors together in one diagram. Define
aggregate demand as the total demand variable and Y is the independent variables affecting demand remain
for an economy’s output (production of variable. constant and the price of a commodity.
goods and services) over a given period 31. (A) AD > AS at full employment level However, the term quantity demanded is
of time. Explanation: In an economy when a very small and narrow term. It generally
(1) When AD > AS, it means that there is an excess of aggregate demand
the buyers are planning to buy that is when the aggregate supply is at refers to a particular point of the curve.
more goods and services than the full employment level, then the demand 35. (D) Environmental regulation must be
producers are planning to produce is known as an excess demand. tough to protect the environment

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 139

 Explanation: The Normative 38. (A) Amount of bank deposits as on 41. (C) (II) and (III) only
economics deals with The perspective 31.03.2022 Explanation: GDP or the Gross Domestic
or the theory. This Economical division Explanation: The term stock refers Product is known as the monetary value
has a more subjective approach. It to any quantity that is measured at a of all goods and services produced within
focuses on the ideological, Perspective- particular point in a particular time. a country’s geographical boundaries that
based statements towards activities of Stock is Also known as the accumulated too during a given period of time. It is
economic. The aim here is to summarise or available quantity of any commodity also known as the indicator of the ‘size of
the quotient desirability among quote at a particular time. The measurement an economy’. A Gross Domestic Product
factors and individuals like 'what can of the stock generally performed at a which is rising is a sign of an expanding
happen' or suppose what ought to be'. The particular time and so it usually indicates market and it is also very encouraging to
statements of Normative economics are the quantity present at that point in time, companies to invest in the country.
subjective and rely on values originating for example March 31, 2020. 42. (A) Value of output – intermediate cost
from opinions of individuals. These 39. (B) 400 Explanation: By the method of value
statements are really rigid and perceptive add the total value of all the final goods
Explanation: The Gross Domestic
as well. Therefore we can conclude that and services which are produced in an
Product at Market Prices also known as
they are considered political. economy during a given period of time
GDP-MP- measures the wealth created
36. (C) Socialist Economy are estimated to obtain the value of
by all governments as well as the private
Explanation: In a society that is domestic income as well. The formula
agents in a given country over a specified
socialist the government decides what is:
time. It is also known as the most
goods are to be produced in accordance The added value or addition value
important national account aggregate, it
with the needs of the society. It is = Value of Output – Intermediate
usually depicts the maximum outcome
generally assumed by the people that Consumption.
of resident producing unit's that is
the government knows what is good
productive activity. In this answer 43. (C) Negative externalities
for the people of the country and so Explanation: Negative externalities
we will explain to you the concepts
the desires of people or the consumers really exist when an individual bears
related to the Gross Domestic Product
are not given much importance. The a portion of the associated cost with
at Market Prices (GDP-MP) which
government solely decides how goods a production of good’s without having
will be really very helpful in Economy
will be produced and how they should any of the influence over the related
concepts. The Private final consumption
be distributed as well. In principle the production decisions. For instance
That is expenditure + Government final
distribution under socialism is to be if parents may have to pay higher
consumption expenditure + Net exports
based on what the individuals need and health-care costs that are too related
+ Gross domestic capital formation.
not on what they can afford to purchase. to pollution-induced asthma among
37. (C) Government provides subsidies. It 40. (B) Banking
their children just because of increased
increases their financial burden Explanation: The Financial sector levels of industrial activity in their
Explanation: The steam of economics reforms are the reforms in the capital neighbourhood. The Producers usually
that has an objective approach, relied on market and the banking system. do not consider those costs to others in
facts is known as the positive stream of A banking system which is efficient their decisions. In turn they produce
economics. It usually concentrates on the and a well-functioning capital market more goods with negative externalities
description that is of the Quantification are essential to mobilise savings of than is efficient which in the end leads
along with the clarification of economic the channel and the households to to more environmental degradation than
Developments and allied matters. productive uses. The high rate of is socially desirable.
This economical subdivision relies on productive investment and saving are 44. (B) overestimated
the objective analysis of the data and very essential for economic growth. Explanation: Activities which are
relevant facts and figures. Prior to 1991, while the banking system resulting in benefits are known as
Therefore it tries to establish a along with the capital market had shown positive externalities and increase in
relationship of cause-and-effect or very impressive growth in the volume of welfare activities which are resulting
behavioural relationship at times that operations they had suffered from many in harm are known as the negative
can help determine as well as test the deficiencies also with regard to their externalities resulting in decrease in
advancement Of theories of economics. efficiency and the quality. welfare. The country's GDP does not

Page 140  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 take into account such externalities. 46. (B) Andhra Pradesh 49. (C) Bihar and Madhya Pradesh
Thus even if we depend only on the Explanation: The state of Andhra Explanation: This is a list of union
GDP, we are indirectly underestimating Pradesh has the lowest population of territories and states of our country
the welfare economy. ranked according to poverty as of
poor in 2011 - 12. It was approx 9% in
2022 (2021-22) as hosted by NITI
45. (C) may or may not increase welfare the year 2011-2012. Aayog's Sustainable Development
Explanation: The gross domestic 47. (A) Odisha Goals dashboard and along with that
product which is also known as GDP Explanation: The state of Odisha has the Reserve Bank of India's 'Handbook
is the measurement of all the goods the highest population of poor in 1973- of Statistics on Indian Economy' The
state of Bihar and Madhya Pradesh has
and services which are produced by an 74. It was approx 66% in comparison to
the same proportion of people below
economy such as a national as well as the other states. poverty line in 1973-74. It was 62%
the state economy. The GDP for any 48. (D) Madhya Pradesh 50. (A) Tamil Nadu
country is the output measured over one Explanation: There are roughly over Explanation: In terms of poverty
year of an economy. Gross domestic 2.5 crore people in Madhya Pradesh alleviation. The state of Tamil Nadu is
product that is the GDP is considered to which are poor. Alirajpur has the only one of eight states that recorded
be the broadest measurement of all the highest population of – 71.31% under poverty deduction at a rate higher than
the all India average.
economic activities. In countries like the poverty bracket which is followed
The state of Tamil Nadu has reduced
U.S., the Bureau of Economic Analysis by 68.86% population which is under
the poverty level much better as
that is BEA measures the U.S. GDP poverty in the neighbouring Jhabua and compared to other states. It has reduced
and reports it quarterly on the economic 61.60% in Barwani, a place with most from almost 55% in 1973 - 74 to 11%
size. malnourished children still existing. in 2011 -12 with respect to other states.
qq

NTA CUET (UG) Official Paper - 2022 Page 141

 NTA CUET (UG)
OFFICIAL MOCK PAPER
13th March 2022
SOLVED
1. Progressive income Taxation is a way (B) Cost of purchase of the given (D) Economic Survey, Ministry of
to achieve which objective of the basket is calculated in the base year Finance, Government of India.
Government Budget? as well as in the current year.
(A) Allocation Function
10. Match List I with List II
(C) Consumer Price Index does not
(B) Redistribution Function include price of imported goods. List I List II
(C) Stabilisation Function (D) The weights are constant in
(a) Tamil Nadu (I) Apni Mandi
(D) Managing Public Enterprise Consumer Price Index
2. Match List I with List II 6. In a Government Budget, Primary (b) Punjab, (II) Uzhavar
Haryana, Sandies
Deficit is ` 10,000 crore and the Interest
List I List II Rajasthan
Payment is ` 8000 crore. Its Fiscal (III) Rythm Bazars
(a) Total (I) Revenue Deficit (in crores) is: (c) Pune
Expenditure – Deficit (IV) Hadapsar
(A) ` 15,000 crore
Total Receipts (II) Primary (d) Andhra Mandi
(B) ` 2,000 crore
excluding Deficit Pradesh
(C) ` (–)2,000 crore
borrowings (III) Fiscal Deficit (D) ` 18,000 crore Choose the correct answer from the
(b) Revenue (IV) Deficit
7. Match List I with List II options given below:
Expenditure Financing (A) (a)-(IV), (b)-(III), (c)-(II), (d)-(I)
– Revenue List I List II (B) (a)-(II), (b)-(I), (c)-(IV), (d)-(III)
Receipts (a) GNPMP (I) GNPFC – (C) (a)-(IV), (b)-(I), (c)-(III), (d)-(II)
(c) Fiscal Deficit Depreciation
(b) NNPFC (D) (a)-(II), (b)-(III), (c)-(I), (d)-(IV)
– Interest
(II) GDPMP + Net 11. India’s health infrastructure is made
Payment
(c) NDPMP factor income up of a three tier system—Primary,
(d) Taxation,
from abroad
Borrowings, Secondary and Tertiary. The Indian
Printing (d) GDPFC (III) GDPMP – Net systems of medicine does NOT include:
Money Indirect Taxes
(A) Naturopathy (B) Allopathy
Choose the correct answer from the (IV) GDPMP – (C) Unani (D) Siddha
options given below: Depreciation
12. If demand increases and supply
(A) (a)-(I), (b)-(II), (c)-(III), (d)-(IV) Choose the correct answer from the
(B) (a)-(III), (b)-(I), (c)-(II), (d)-(IV) decreases, the price will:
options given below:
(C) (a)-(IV), (b)-(I), (c)-(III), (d)-(II) (A) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(III), (d)-(I) (I) rise sharply
(D) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(I), (d)-(III) (B) (a)-(I), (b)-(III), (c)-(II), (d)-(IV) (II) fall sharply
3. Interest receipts on account of loans by (C) (a)-(IV), (b)-(I), (c)-(III), (d)-(II) (III) rise moderately
the Central government, is an example (D) (a)-(II), (b)-(I), (c)-(IV), (d)-(III) (IV) remains constant
of: 8. Value of the multiplier directly depends Choose the most appropriate answer
(A) Non-Tax Revenue upon:
from the options given below:
(B) Tax Revenue (A) Marginal Efficiency of Capital
(C) Capital Receipts (B) Marginal Income of Capital (A) (I) only (B) (II) only
(D) Debt Creating Receipts (C) Marginal Propensity to Consumer (C) (III) only (D) (IV) only
4. The labour which is sold and purchased (D) Marginal propensity to Save 13. Given below are two statements:
against wages is referred to as: 9. An unemployed person is one, who is Statement 1: 
Fixed costs include
(A) Wage Rate not able to get employment of even one the expenses incurred
(B) Labour Services hour, in half a day. Identify which of the
(C) Work Force on fixed factors of
following is NOT a source of data on
(D) Wage Labour production.
unemployment.
5. The Consumer Price Index, is the (A) Reports of Census of India Statement 2: Even if there is no
index of prices of a given basket of (B) National Sample Survey Office’s production at a time,
commodities which are bought by the Report of Employment and these costs will have to
representative consumer. Which of the Unemployment Situation be incurred.
following statements is NOT true about (C) Annual Reports of Periodic
Consumer Price Index? Labour Force Survey and Data In the light of the above statements,
(A) Consumer Price Index is generally of Registration with Employment choose the most appropriate answer
expressed in percentage terms. Exchanges from the options given below:

Page 142  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 (A) Both the Statements are true 17. Match List I with List II Choose the correct alternatives from the
(B) Both the Statements are false following:
List I List II
(C) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(a) WTO (I) provides short-term (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
is false
loans to solve balance correct explanation of Assertion
(D) Statement 2 is true and Statement
of payments problems (A).
2 is false
(b) RBI (II) Is a multilateral trade (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
14. Which one of the following negotiating body (R) are true and Reason (R) is
statements is NOT correct? not the correct explanation of
(c) IMF (III)Facilitates rendering
(A) Related commodities may either Assertion (A).
for reconstruction and
by complementary goods or (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
development
substitute goods (R) is false.
(B) If the demand of main commodity (d) IBRD (IV) Is the Central Bank of
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
India
decreases the demand of substitute (R) is true.
Choose the correct answer from the
commodity will also decrease
options given below:
20. “Chine has the second largest GDP
(C) If the demand of main commodity (PPP) of $19.8 trillion, whereas
(A) (a)-(II), (b)-(I), (c)-(III), (d)-(IV)
increases, the demand of substitute India’s GDP (PPP) is $8.07 trillion
(B) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(III), (d)-(I)
commodity will decrease and Pakistan’s GDP is $ 0.94 trillion,
(C) (a)-(II), (b)-(III), (c)-(IV), (d)-(I)
(D) If the demand of main commodity (D) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(I), (d)-(III)
roughly about 12 percent of India’s
decreases, the demand of GDP. India’s GDP is about 40 percent
18. Given below are two statements one is of China’s GDP.”
substitute commodity will increase labelled as Assertion A and the other is
15. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Reason R India’s GDP is around $7.13 trillion
labelled as Assertion A and the other is more than Pakistan’s GDP. .......... and
Assertion (A): Every year, the
labelled as Reason R ........... have been the reasons behind
Government fixes a
the declining growth rate in Pakistan.
Assertion (A): Effective Demand target for disinvestment
of public sector (A) reform processes political
manifests itself in the instability
spending of income. enterprises (PSEs)
(B) dependence on agriculture
Reason (R): Effective Demand Reason (R): Disinvestment is an handicrafts
consists of desire for excellent tool for (C) manufacturing service sector
discarding the loss- (D) less cultivable area climatic
product and resources to
incurring public sector conditions.
purchase the product. enterprises (PSEs)
Choose the correct alternatives from In the light of the above statements, 21. Match List I with List II
the following: choose the most appropriate answer List I List II
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason from the options given below : (a) Quota (I) Q u a n t i t y o f
(R) are true and Reason (R) is the (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason goods that can
correct explanation of Assertion (R) are true and Reason (R) is the be imported
(b) Land
(A). correct explanation of Assertion (II) Seeds that give
Rerorms
(A). large proportion
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (c) HYV
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason of output
(R) are true and Reason (R) is (R) are true and Reason (R) is Seeds
not the correct explanation of (III)I m p r o v e m e n t
not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A). (d) Subsidy in the f ield of
Assertion (A).
agriculture
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
to increase
(R) is false. (R) is false. productivity
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
(R) is true. (IV) M o n e t a r y
(R) is true. assistance given
16. Choose the correct chronological order: 19. Given below are two statements one is by government
(I) India’s first official census labelled as Assertion A and the other is for production
labelled as Reason R activities
(II) Opening of the suez canal
(III) Introduction of Railways in India Assertion (A): The major policy Choose the correct answer from the
initiatives, i.e. land options given below:
(IV) Green Revolution
reforms and green (A) (a)-(IV), (b)-(III), (c)-(II), (d)-(I)
(V) Set up of the Planning Commission revolution, helped India (B) (a)-(I), (b)-(III), (c)-(IV), (d)-(II)
Choose the correct answer from the become self-sufficient in (C) (a)-(I), (b)-(III), (c)-(II), (d)-(IV)
options given below: food grains production. (D) (a)-(I), (b)-(II), (c)-(III), (d)-(IV)
(A) (II), (I), (III), (IV), (V) Reason (R): The proportion of people 22. The official data on poverty is made
(B) (III), (II), (I), (V), (IV) depending on agriculture available to the public by the ............
(C) (I), (II), (III), (IV), (V) did not decline, as on the basis of consumption expenditure
(D) (I), (III), (II), (V), (IV) expected. data, collected by ............. .

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 143

 (A) National Sample Survey recession and said that India will not be The values of the two components of
Organization, Planning immune. It all depends on how India the Consumption function when the
Commission (NITI AYOG) responds to the situation. Aggregate economy is in equilibrium are ...............
(B) Economic Survey, Ministry of Demand may weaken and core inflation. and ................
Finance (A) ` 100 cr., ` 640 crore
Besides reduction in CRR and Repo
(C) Planning Commission (NITI
Rate, what other measures can be taken (B) ` 100 cr., ` 740 crore
AYOG), National Sample Survey
by the Government of India through (C) ` 100 cr., ` 160 crore
Organization
(D) National health Profile, National budgetary policy to combat recession? (D) ` 100 cr., ` 260 crore
Commission on Macroeconomics (A) Decrease the Bank Rate 36. Given below are two statements:
and Health and Family Welfare (B) Self-Government Securities Statement 1: For every 100 persons,
23. Which of the following was NOT a (C) Increase margin Requirement about 35 are workers in
Common Goal of various Five Year (D) Decrease Taxes and Increase India.
Plans in India: Government Expenditure
Statement 2: Compared to females,
(I) Growth 30. An example of a ‘Maharatna’ is: more males are found
(II) Industrialization (A) Steel Authority of India Limited
(III) Self-sufficiency to be working. The
(B) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited difference in participation
(IV) Modernisation
(C) Mahanagar Telephone Nigam rates is very large in
(V) Equity
Limited urban areas.
Choose the correct answer from the
(D) Indian Railway Catering and
options given below: In the light of the above statements,
Tourism Corporation Limited
(A) (IV) only (B) (II) only choose the most appropriate answer
(C) (V) only (D) (III) only 31. Value of Money Multiplier ............. from the options given below:
24. The architect of Indian planning is: with an increase in Cash Reserve Ratio. (A) Both the Statements are true
(A) V. K. R. V Rao (A) increases
(B) Both the Statements are false
(B) P. C. Mahalanobis (B) decreases
(C) Statement 1 is true but Statement 2
(C) R. C. Desai (C) remains unchanged
is false
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji (D) becomes Zero
(D) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2
25. ............... is defined with respect to a 32. Average Fixed Cost ............... is true
particular value or action and is equal (A) goes on increasing with an increase
37. Analyse the table and answer
to the value of the foregone alternative in production
choice or action. (B) goes on declining with an increase
Country Annual Sex Ratio
(A) Gratuity in production in short run Growth Rate
(C) remains constant at all the levels of (Per
(B) Disinvestment of Population Thousand
(C) Opportunity Cost production (2019)
(D) either increases or decreases with Males)
(D) Equity
an increase in production India 1.03% 924
26. An obligation of the banks to maintain
a minimum proportion of the total
33. If in an Economy the consumption and China 0.46% 949
savings curves are parallel to each other,
deposits and reserves in liquid form, as The preference for sons. prevailing in
the value of the Multiplier will be:
per the regulations of RBI: both the countries, has directly resulted
(A) 1 (B) 0
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio in a low ................... in the year 2019.
(C) 2 (D) –1
(B) Currency Deposit Ratio (A) annual Growth Rate
34. In International trade, if the domestic
(C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (B) sex Ratio
price of some goods is more than the its
(D) Time Deposits (C) density
price in the world
27. Decrease in CRR will lead to: (I) the country will become an (D) fertility Rate
(A) Fall in Aggregate Demand exporter of the goods 38. The growth of Revenue Deficit, as
(B) Rise in Aggregate Demand (II) the country will become an a percentage of Fiscal Deficit points
(C) No change in Aggregate Demand importer of the goods to deterioration in the quality of
(D) Fall in General Price Level (III) the country will neither import nor .................... involving lower capital
28. Primary Deficit can be zero, if: export formation.
(A) Fiscal Deficit = Interest Payments (IV) additional information is required (A) Government Expenditure
(B) Fiscal Deficit < Interest Payments Choose the correct answer from the (B) Net Exports
(C) Fiscal Deficit > Interest Payments options given below: (C) Private Consumption Expenditure
(D) Revenue Deficit < Fiscal Deficit (A) (II) only (B) (I) only (D) Investment Expenditure
29. Due to Covid-19, the Reserve Bank of (C) (V) only (D) (IV) only 39. A gift to foreigners is recorded on
India cut Repo Rate to 4.4%, the lowest 35. Given the Consumption function of an which side of the BOP?
in at least, 15 years. Also, it reduced the Economy (A) Credit Side of Current Account
CRR by 100 basis points. Previously, C = ` 100 crore + 0.8 Y (B) Debit Side of Current Account
it was 4%. The RBI Governor, Dr. The equilibrium level of income is ` (C) Credit Side of Capital Account
Shaktikanta Das, predicted a big global 800 crore. (D) Debit Side of Capital Account

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 40. Identify the stock variable: 43. Given below are two statements: One is The objective of the DMS is to ensure that
(A) Profits (B) Inventory labelled as Assertion A and the other is the governments financing requirements and
(C) Income (D) Output labelled as Reason R payment obligations are met at the lowest
Assertion (A): As an important member possible cost.
Directions (Q. No. 41 to 45) Significance of managing Government Debt:
of WTO, India has
Read the following passage and answer The level of Government Debt affects investor
been at the forefront
the questions that follow: confidence, impacts fiscal capabilities of the
of framing fair global
WTO is expected to establish a rule-based rules, regulations government and leads to crowding-out effect
trading regime in which nations cannot place and safeguards and on the private sector, fiscal repression of
arbitrary restrictions on trade. In addition, advocating the interests commercial banks alongside other impact like
its purpose is also to enlarge production of the developing world. inflationary pressure exchange rate issued
and trade of services to ensure optimum and higher taxes in the future.
Reason (R): India's share in
utilization of world resources and to protect international trade is 46. Debt Management Strategy is required
the environment. The WTO agreements large enough that it in India:
cover trade in goods as well as services to can affect the decision- (A) to make more expenditure so that
facilitate international trade (bilateral and making in WTO. fiscal deficit should increase in
multilateral) through removal of tariff as well future
In the light of the above statements,
as non-tariff barriers and providing greater (B) to contract current fiscal deficit and
choose the most appropriate answer to reduce it further in the future
market access to all member countries. As an from the options given below: (C) to improve tax collection in the
important member of WTO, India has been (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason future
at the forefront of framing fair global rules, (R) are true and Reason (R) is the (D) both (a) and (c)
regulations and safeguards and advocating correct explanation of Assertion
47. Government Debt includes:
the interest of the developing world, India has (A).
(A) Internal Debt only
kept its commitments towards liberalization (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(B) External Debt only
of trade, made in the WTO, by removing (R) are true and Reason (R) is (C) Other borrowing liabilities of the
quantitative restrictions on imports and not the correct explanation of Government like provident funds,
reducing tariff rates. Some scholars question Assertion (A). deposits etc. only
the usefulness of India being a member of (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (D) Internal as well as external debt
the WTO as a major volume of international (R) is false. and other borrowing liabilities of
trade occurs among the developed nations. (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason Government
They also say that while developed countries (R) is true.
48. Find out the INCORRECT option for
file complaints over agricultural subsidies 44. The purpose of WTO is to: Government Debt:
given in other countries developing countries (A) place restrictions on trade (A) It invites inflation in an Economy
feel cheated as they are forced to open their (B) establish a rules-based trading (B) It discourages private investment
markets for developed countries but are not regime (C) The current generation has to bear
allowed access to the markets of developed (C) facilitate only bilateral trade the burden of tax for repayment of
countries. (D) enlarge production and trade of government debt
good only (D) It depreciates the domestic
41. Which among the following is true
about the WTO? 45. The WTO was founded in the year, currency
(A) Nations can place arbitrary 1995, as the successor organization to 49. Identify the objective that the
restrictions on trade the : government wants to fulfill by its
(A) World Health Organization DMS. The Government seeks to:
(B) Cover trade in goods as well as
(B) World Bank (A) to borrow at lower interest rates
services
(C) General Agreement on Tariffs and (B) lend internationally at lower
(C) Removal of only tariffs and not non
Trade (GATT) interest rates
tariff barriers
(D) Foreign Institution of Investment (C) reduced the public investment in an
(D) Providing greater market access to economy
developed countries in developing Directions (Q. No. 46 to 50) (D) create inflationary pressure in an
countries Read the following passage and answer economy
42. Developing countries feel cheated by the questions that follow: 50. Impacts of Government Debt are
the WTO. The reason is: Recently, the Central Government release multifaceted.
(A) They are forced to open their the Ninth Edition of the Status Paper on the Identify which of the following is NOT
markets for developed countries Government Debt. an impact of Government Debt:
(B) They are not allowed access to the It contains Debt Management Strategy (DMS) (A) Exchange Rate Risks
markets of developed countries of the Central Government for the financial (B) Fiscal Repression
(C) Only (a) years from 2019-20 to 2021-22, which guides (C) Reduced Taxes
(D) Both (a) and (b) the borrowing plan of the Government. (D) Inflationary Pressure

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 145

 Solutions
1. (B) Redistribution Function 8. (D) Marginal propensity to Save Explanation :
Explanation: It is the proportion of 1. The WTO operates the global
Explanation: It is sought to be
system of trade rules and helps
achieved through progressive income an increased income that gets saved
developing countries build their
taxation, in which higher the income, instead of spending on consumption. trade capacity
higher is the tax rate. Firms are taxed 9. (A) Reports of Census of India 2. The Reserve Bank of India is the
on a proportional basis, where the tax Explanation: Census of India is central bank of the country.
rate is a particular proportion of profits. conducted in every 10 years. It show 3. The IMF provides financial
assistance and works with
2. (B) (a)-(III), (b)-(I), (c)-(II), (d)-(IV) data on the status of population number
governments to ensure responsible
Explanation : and other variables. spending.
(1) Revenue Deficit = Revenue 10. (B) (a)-(II), (b)-(I), (c)-(IV), (d)-(III) 4. The IBRD was founded in 1944
expenditure - Revenue receipts. Explanation: with the goal of helping war-torn
1. Uzhavar Sandhai (mohana santhai) European countries rebuild their
(2) Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit - infrastructure and their economies.
Interest payment. is a scheme of the Government of
Tamil Nadu 18. (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
(3) Fiscal deficit: Fiscal deficit =
2. Apni Mandi is functional in Punjab (R) is false.
Total expenditure - Total receipts
and Haryana Explanation: The government sale
(excluding borrowings). part of share of public sector to the
3. Rythu bazaar, or raithu bazaar, or
(4) Deficit financing: Taxation, raitubazar, is a type of farmers' private sector so as that the sick public
Borrowings, Printing Money market in Indian states of Andhra sector enterprises is well maintained by
3. (A) Non-Tax Revenue Pradesh and Telangana. private sector professionals.
Explanation: The amount received 4.  Hadapsar is a developed town in 19. (B) 
Both Assertion (A) and Reason
in the form of interest on loan do not eastern Pune City, Maharashtra. (R) are true and Reason (R) is
11. (B) Allopathy not the correct explanation of
create liability or reduces assests. Thus
Assertion (A).
it is a non-tax revenue. Explanation: A system in which
medical doctors and other healthcare Explanation: The green revolution has
4. (A) Wage Rate made India slef-sufficient in food gains
professionals (such as nurses,
Explanation: Wage labour usually India has adoped a new strategy in the
pharmacists, and therapists) treat
referred to as paid work, paid field of agriculture. In this insecticides
symptoms and diseases using drugs, and pesticides were used which resulted
employment, or paid labour, refers to radiation, or surgery. in great production of wheat and rice.
the socioeconomic relationship between 12. (A) (I) only
a worker and an employer in which 20. (A) 
reform processes political
Explanation: An increase in demand instability
the worker sells their labour power
and a decrease in supply will cause an Explanation: The lack of political
under a formal or informal employment increase in equilibrium price, but the
contract. stability demanded huge public
effect on equilibrium quantity cannot be
expenditure for maintaining law and
5. (B) Cost of purchase of the given basket determined.
order in the country. This huge public
is calculated in the base year as 13. (A) Both the Statements are true. expenditure acted as a drain on the
well as in the current year. Explanation: Both of the given country's economic resources.
Explanation: According to the statements are true as if there are
expenses incured on fixed factor such 21. (C) (a)-(I), (b)-(III), (c)-(II), (d)-(IV)
consumer price index, the cost of goods
as land, building (dep.) etc. The cost Explanation:
is calculated according to the base year
has to borne even if there is no output 1. A quota is a government-imposed
as well as current year. produced. trade restriction that limits the
6. (D) ` 18,000 crore 14. (B) If the demand of main commodity number or monetary value of goods
Explanation: Fiscal deficit = Primary decreases the demand of substitute that a country can import or export
Deficit + Interest Payments commodity will also decrease during a particular period.
= 10,000 + 8,000 Explanation: If the main goods demand 2. Land reforms improvement in
decrease than the substitute goods the field of agriculture to increase
= `18,000 crores. demand will increase e.g. if the price productivity
7. (D) (a)-(II), (b)-(I), (c)-(IV), (d)-(III) of the coca cola decrease than the fanta 3. HYV seeds are important in the
Explanation: demand also decrease. large production
(1) NNPFC = GNPFC – Depreciation 15. (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason 4. Subsidy is the monetary assistance
(2) GNPMP = GDPMP + Net factor (R) are true and Reason (R) is the given by government for
income from abroad correct explanation of Assertion production activities.
(3) GDPFC = GDPMP – Net Indirect (A). 22. (A) 
National Sample Survey
Taxes 16. (B) (III), (II), (I), (V), (IV) Organization, Planning
(4) NDPMP = GDPMP – Depreciation 17. (D) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(I), (d)-(III) Commission (NITI AYOG)

Page 146  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 Explanation: National Sample Survey 31. (B) decreases 41. (B) 
Cover trade in goods as well as
Organization (NSSO) collects data on Explanation: Because there is an services
poverty in India. It is estimated on the Explanation: They spell out the
inverse relationship between CRR and
basis of consumption expenditure data principles of liberalization, and the
collected by Planning Commission money multiplier.
permitted exceptions. WTO agreement
23. (B) (II) only 32. (B) goes on declining with an increase cover trade in good as well as services
in production in short run to facilitate international trade through
Explanation: A common goal of
various five-year plans were as follows: Explanation: fixed cost that does not removal of tariff as well as non tariff
1. Economic Growth change with the change in the number barries.
2. Economic Equity and Social Justice of goods and service produced by a 42. (D) Both (a) and (b)
3. Economic Self-Reliance company. 43. (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
33. (C) 2 (R) is false.
4. Modernisation
44. (D) 
enlarge production and trade of
24. (B) P. C. Mahalanobis Explanation: Then the value of
good only
Explanation: P. C. Mahalanobis was a investment multiplier will be 2.
Explanation: WTO is the only
well-known statistician and the architect 34. (A) (II) only international organization dealing
of planning in India.
Explanation: If a country allows trade with the global rules of trade. Its main
25. (C) Opportunity Cost and the domestic price of a good is purpose is to ensure that trade flows
Explanation: Opportunity cost is higher than the world price, the country as smoothly, predictably and freely as
the cost of the next best alternative possible.
will become an importer of the good.
foregone. 45. (C) General Agreement on Tariffs and
35. (B) ` 100 cr., ` 740 crore
26. (C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio Trade (GATT)
Explanation: Statutory Liquidioty Explanation: Consumption Function is Explanation: The WTO is the
Ratio (SLR) is a specified minimum C = 100 + 0.8 Y successor to the General Agreement on
fraction of total deposit of customers, where Y in the income in the economy. Tariffs and Trade (GATT) established in
which commercial banks have to hold the wake of the Second World War.
At equilibrium level of income,
as reserves in cash with themselves. 46. (D) both (a) and (c)
27. (B) Rise in Aggregate Demand C = 100 + 0.8 ( 800) Explanation: The answer given
Explanation: A drop in the CRR would = 100 + 640 is incorrect. The correct answer is
enhance aggregate demand if all other = ` 740 crores not given in the option. The correct
factors were equal. option is both (b) and (c). Fiscal
36. (D) Statement 1 is false but Statement 2
28. (A) Fiscal Deficit = Interest Payments is true.
deficit is a situation when total
Explanation: At the point when the expenditure exceeds total receipts of the
37. (A) annual Growth Rate government (excluding borrowings).
primary deficit is zero, the fiscal deficit
38. (C) Private Consumption Expenditure Debt management strategy must be
becomes equivalent to the interest
installment. This implies that the public 39. (B) Debit Side of Current Account framed to contract fiscal deficit and to
improve government revenues through
authority has turned to borrowing just Explanation: Transfer of funds to
to take care of the interest payments. tax collection.
relatives abroad is recorded on the
29. (D) Decrease Taxes and Increase 47. (D) 
Internal as well as external debt
DEBIT side of the CURRENT account
Government Expenditure and other borrowing liabilities of
as it is a one way transaction. It includes Government
30. (A) Steel Authority of India Limited gifts, donations, personal remittances 48. (B) It discourages private investment
Explanation: By decreasing taxes and etc.
increasing government expenditure, 49. (A) to borrow at lower interest rates
40. (B) Inventory 50. (C) Reduced Taxes
money supply in the economy will
increase. This can be effective in Explanation: Stock variable also Explanation: Due to government debt
reducing recession. known as inventory. taxes burden tends to increase.
qq

NTA CUET (UG) Official Mock Paper - 2022 Page 147

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-1
SELF-ASSESSMENT

General Instructions:
•• For every correct answer, 5 marks will be awarded.
•• 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
•• 40 Questions to be attempted out of 50.
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes Maximum Marks: 200 Marks

1. In a hypothetical economy, Mr. Neeraj 5. From the statements given in column Choose the correct alternatives given
has deposited ` 100 in the bank. If I and II choose the correct pair of below :
it is assumed that there is no other statements: (A) Both the statements are true
currency circulation in the economy, (B) Both the statements are false
Column I Column II (C) Statement 1 is true and statement
then the total money supply in the
(A) Income (I) Invisible items 2 is false
economy will be ............ . from tourists (D) Statement 2 is true and statement
(Fill up the blank with correct (B) Exports of (II) Credit 1 is false
alternative) goods side of BOP
(A) zero (B) ` 100 8. Read the following statements
(C) Investment (III) Balance
carefully:
(C) not defined (D) ` 120 from abroad of payment
Statement 1: Deficit in balance of
(D) Systematic (IV) Visible goods payment occurs
2. Which of the following is the correct record of when autonomous
definition of self-employed? all transactions payments are more
(A) Not able to find jobs during some than autonomous
Choose the correct option:
months of the year receipts.
(B) Own and operate their own (A) (A)-(I) (B) (B)-(II) Statement 2: Deficit in balance
enterprises (C) (C)-(III) (D) (D)-(IV) of payment
occurs when
(C) Receive wages on a regular basis 6. Which of the following is not a ‘factor accommodating
by the employer payment’? payments are more
(D) Casually engaged in other (A) Interest paid to the shareholders than accommodating
individual's enterprises of LIC receipts.
(B) Salaries to the government Choose the correct alternative from
3. Which type of economy gives rise teachers the following data:
to the most efficient allocation of (C) Rent paid to the owner of a (A) Both the statements are true.
resources and capital in the standard building (B) Both the statements are false.
macroeconomics framework? (D) Pension given to the retired (C) Statement 1 is true but statement
(A) Free market economy employee 2 is false.
(B) Controlled market economy 7. Read the following the statements (D) Statement 1 is false but statement
(C) Regulated market economy carefully: 2 is true.
(D) Command market economy Statement 1: Reserve Bank of 9. National Income is the sum of factor
India grants credit incomes accruing to:
4. Supply of money refers to to the banks that are
……................. (Choose the correct (A) nationals
facing temporary
alternative) liquidity problems. (B) economic territory
(A) currency held by the public Statement 2: Reserve Bank of (C) residents
India provides (D) both residents and non-residents
(B) currency held by Reserve Bank of
short term loans to
India (RBI) 10. Which of the following is true,
central and state
(C) currency held by the public and according to Robbins?
governments,
demand deposits with commercial whenever necessary (A) Means are undefined
banks and also manages (B) Means are scarce
(D) currency held in the government the public debt of the (C) Means are unlimited
account country. (D) All of the above

Page 148  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

11. In 1965, Mao introduced the 17. Which of the following is true 21. India's announcement of the New
.................. under which students and regarding sustainable development? Economic Policy (NEP) was the
professionals were sent to work and (A) Involves sharing of development agreement of the country to the
learn from country side. conditions of ............... .
opportunities between generations
(A) Great Proletarian Cultural (A) Swiss Bank and International
Revolution (B) Involves sharing of development
opportunities between all social Monetary Fund
(B) Great Leap Forward
classes (B) International Monetary Fund and
(C) SEZ
World Bank
(D) Economic reform (C) Involves sharing of development
opportunities between rural and (C) World Bank and Swiss Bank
12. Which of the following is a source of urban areas (D) International Monetary Fund and
capital receipt? Swiss Bank
(A) Foreign donations (D) None of these
(B) Dividends 22. Which of the following is not included
18. In the early 1980s, textile mills all
(C) Disinvestment in economic infrastructure?
over the country began to close down.
(D) Indirect taxes (A) Telecommunication systems
In some places, such as Mumbai, the
(B) Waterways
13. People's Republic of China was mills closed rapidly. In Ahmedabad,
established in: the process of closure was long drawn (C) Airways
(A) 1945 (B) 1947 out and spread over 10 years. (D) Sanitation facilities
(C) 1949 (D) 1951 Over this period, approximately over 23. Read the following statements
14. If the income is ` 600 crore and 80,000 permanent workers and over carefully:
consumption 50,000 non-permanent workers lost Statement 1: Fiscal Policy focuses
is ` 450 crore, what will be the APC? their jobs and were driven to the on economic stability
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.65 informal sector. and economic
(C) 0.75 (D) 0.87 Identify the concept state above. growth.
Statement 2: Excess demand
15. Mr. Ravi, an economics teacher, was (A) Formalisation
can be corrected
explaining a concept in the class that (B) Informalisation
‘It is a measure of the effect of change by decreasing
(C) Both (a) and (b) the government
in the initial investment on change in
final income’. (D) Neither (a) nor (b) expenditure.
From the following, choose the Choose the correct alternatives given
19. Read the following statements
correct alternative which specifies below:
carefully:
towards the concept explained by (A) Both the statements are true.
him? Statement 1: The problem of
unemployment (B) Both the statements are false.
(A) Investment multiplier
means the problem (C) Statement 1 is true and Statement
(B) Aggregate demand
of voluntary 2 is false.
(C) Aggregate supply
unemployment. (D) Statement 2 is true and Statement
(D) Investment expenditure
Statement 2: Under deflationary 1 is false.
16. Read the following statements gap, voluntary
carefully: 24. Which of the following workers is a
unemployment regular salaried employee?
Statement 1: The British
occurs in the
followed a policy (A) Nurse in a government hospital
of systematic de- economy.
(B) Owner of a salon
industrialisation Choose the correct alternatives given (C) Worker in a rice mill
by creating below:
circumstances (D) A handloom weaver
(A) Both the statements are true.
conducive to the 25. Read the following statement.
decay of handicraft (B) Both the statements are false.
(C) Statement 1 is true and Statement Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
industry.
Statement 2: The traditional 2 is false. Assertion (A) : The percentage
handicraft industry of education
(D) Statement 2 is true and Statement
in India enjoyed expenditure of
w o r l d w i d e 1 is false.
total government
reputation. 20. The law of demand states that expenditure indicates
Choose the correct alternative from with increase in price there is the importance of
the following: education.
............................, keeping other
(A) Both the statements are true. Reason (R) : In the scheme of
things constant.
(B) Both the statements are false. expenditure and
(A) Increase in demand
(C) Statement 1 is true and Statement the share taken
2 is false. (B) Decrease in demand by elementary
(D) Statement 2 is true and Statement (C) Increase in quantity demanded educations is the
1 is false. (D) Decrease in quantity demanded least.

Mock Paper - 1 Page 149

 From the given alternatives choose The above-mentioned statement was 35. ...................... is a tax in which the
the correct one : given by Sindhu, identify the type of impact and incidence falls on the
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason measure was she talking about? same person.
(R) are true and Reason (R) is the (A) Monetary (A) Indirect tax (B) Direct tax
correct explanation of Assertion (B) Fiscal (C) Progressive tax (D) None of these
(A). (C) Both (A) and (B)
36. .............. is the population density, the
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
.............. is the pressure of population
(R) are true and Reason (R) is
30. Read the following statements on land and the more the economic
not the correct explanation of problems.
Assertion (A). carefully:
Statement 1: Full employment (A) Lower, higher (B) Higher, lower
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
implies zero (C) Higher, higher (D) Lower, lower
(R) is false
unemployment
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason 37. Though there is no change in the
when nobody is ever
(R) is true. demand of foreign currency, the
unemployed in the
supply of foreign exchange increases
26. What is the formula of Consumer economy.
leading to fall in the exchange rate. It
Equilibrium in case of Two Statement 2: There is always implies that there is:
Commodities ? some minimum level
(A) Appreciation of domestic
of unemployment
(A) MUx /Px = Muy/ Py = MUm currency
called natural
(B) MUx / Px = MUm unemployment (B) Depreciation of domestic
(C) Both (a) and (b) or voluntary currency
(D) None of these unemployment. (C) No change in domestic currency
Choose the correct alternatives given (D) None of these
27. Suppose that the Balance of Trade
below: 38. ................. income is the value of
(BOT) of a nation, exhibits a surplus
of ` 20,000 crores. The import of (A) Both the statements are true. current income at base-year prices.
merchandise of the nation is half of (B) Both the statements are false. (A) Real
the exports of merchandise to the rest (C) Statement 1 is true and Statement (B) Nominal
of the world. 2 is false. (C) Both (A) and (B)
The value of exports would be ` (D) Statement 2 is true and Statement (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
.............. crores. 1 is false.
39. Read the following statment carefully:
(Fill up the blank with correct 31. Which of the following is true Statement 1: Money multiplier is
alternative) regarding depreciation? the process by which
(A) ` 30,000 (B) ` 40,000 (A) Loss of value of fixed assets in the commercial
(C) ` 24,000 (D) ` 35,000 use due to normal wear and tear. banks create credit,
(B) Loss of value of fixed capital based on the reserve
28. From the following given sets of assets during sale. ratio and initial
statements in column I and II, choose (C) Loss of value of current assets due deposits.
the correct pair of statements. to unforeseen obsolescence. Statement 2: There exists an
inverse relation
Column I Column II (D) Loss of value of current assets
due to normal rate of accidental between reserve and
(a) Land (I) Money flow credit creation.
damage.
(b) Wages (II) Real flow Choose the correct alternatives given
32. This is a revenue receipt of the below:
(c) Interest (III) Money flow
government. (A) Both the statements are true.
(d) Depreciation (IV) Real flow (A) Grants received from UNO (B) Both the statements are false.
Choose the correct option: (B) Income Tax (C) Statement 1 is true and statement
(A) (A)-(I) (B) (B)-(II) (C) Donations made from Italy 2 is false.
(C) (C)-(III) (D) (D)-(IV) (D) All of these (D) Statement 2 is true and statement
1 is false.
29. Two friends Mira and Sindhu were 33. Biggest contributor to India’s National
discussing the exchange rate systems. Income is: 40. Which of the following is not true
“To curb the deflationary gap (A) Agriculture (B) Industry regarding demographic indicator of
(C) Service (D) None of these Pakistan?
the government may increase its
expenditure. (A) The population of Pakistan is very
34. Which of the following is not a small.
This may increase the purchasing component of Macroeconomics? (B) The population growth is lowest
power in the hands of the people (A) Employment in Pakistan.
which in turn may increase the (B) General Price level (C) The fertility rate is very high in
Aggregate Demand in the economy
(C) Individual demand China.
to bring it equal to the Aggregate
Supply.” (D) Inflation (D) Urbanisation is high in Pakistan.

Page 150  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

41. Read the following statements Direction (Q. No. 46 to 50) ways of measuring poverty. One way is to
carefully and choose the correct Read the following passage and answer the determine it by the monetary value (per
alternative given below: question 46 to 50 on the basis of the same: capita expenditure) of the minimum calorie
Statement 1: In case of private intake that was estimated at 2,400 calories for
India has taken in the last seven decades and
goods, anyone a rural person and 2,100 calories for a person
the outcome of these policies with relation
who does not pay in the urban area. Based on this, in 2011-12,
for the goods can to the various developmental indicators.
Providing minimum basic needs to the the poverty line was defined for rural areas
be excluded from as consumption worth ` 816 per person a
enjoying its benefits. people and reduction of poverty have been
the major aims of independent India. The month and for urban areas it was ` 1,000.
Statement 2: In case of public
pattern of development that the successive The official data on poverty is now made
goods, there is no
five-year plans envisaged laid emphasis available to the public by the NITI Aayog.
feasible way of
excluding anyone on the upliftment of the poorest of the poor It is estimated on the basis of consumption
from enjoying the (Antyodaya), integrating the poor into the expenditure data collected by the National
benefits. mainstream and achieving a minimum Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) now
(A) Both the statements are true standard of living for all. Poverty is not only called as National Statistical Office.
(B) Both the statements are false a challenge for India, as more than one fifth 46. According to the given text,
(C) Statement 1 is true and statement of the world’s poor live in India alone; but .................... is a situation that people
2 is false also, for the world, where about 300 million want to escape.
(D) Statement 2 is true and statement people are not able to meet their basic needs.
(A) unemployment
1 is false Poverty has many faces, which have been
(B) poverty
changing from place to place and across time,
42. Choose the correctly matched pair (C) Both (A) and (B)
and has been described in many ways. Most
from Column A and Column B. (D) None of these
often, poverty is a situation that people want
Column A Column B to escape. So, poverty is a call to action — 47. In the light of the given text and
(a) Corporation (I) Capital receipts for the poor and the wealthy alike — a call common knowledge, identify the
tax to change the world so that many more may incorrect statement:
(B) Income tax (II) Revenue have enough to eat, adequate shelter, access
(A) Poverty can effectively be
receipts to education and health, protection from
eradicated only when the poor
violence, and a voice in what happens in their
(C) Borrowing (III) Revenue start contributing to growth by
receipts communities.
their active involvement in the
Push-cart vendors, street cobblers, women growth process.
(D) Machinery (IV) Revenue
expenditure who string flowers, rag pickers, vendors (B) It is necessary to identify poverty-
and beggars are some examples of poor and stricken areas and provide
(A) (a)—(I) (B) (b)—(II) vulnerable groups in urban areas. The poor infrastructure such as schools,
(C) (c)—(III) (D) (d)—(IV) people possess few assets and reside in kutcha roads, power, telecom, IT
hutments with walls made of baked mud and
43. Outsourcing helped in the growth of services, training institutions etc.
............... roofs made of grass, thatch, bamboo and
(C) Due to equal distribution of
sector. wood. The poorest of them do not even have
land and other assets, the
such dwellings. In rural areas many of them
(A) Agriculture benefits from direct poverty
are landless. Even if some of them possess
(B) Manufacturing alleviation programmes have been
land, it is only dry or waste land. Many do not
(C) Service appropriated by the non-poor.
get to have even two meals a day. Starvation
(D) All of these (D) Though the policy towards
and hunger are the key features of the poorest
poverty alleviation has evolved
44. When TU is increasing at a households. The poor lack basic literacy and
in a progressive manner, over
diminishing rate then MU ................. skills and hence have very limited economic
the last seven decades, it has
................. . opportunities. Poor people also face unstable
not undergone any radical
(A) Decreases but is positive. employment. Malnutrition is alarmingly
transformation.
(B) Increases. high among the poor. Ill health, disability or
(C) Negative. serious illness makes them physically weak. 48. Read the following statements -
(D) Becomes S Shaped. Economists identify the poor on the basis Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
of their occupation and ownership of assets. Assertion (A): The government
45. ............... determines credit creation
They state that the rural poor work mainly has a variety of
by commercial Banks.
as landless agricultural labourers, cultivators programmes to
(A) Legal Reserve ratio
with very small landholdings, or landless generate wage
(B) Initial deposits
labourers, who are engaged in a variety of employment for the
(C) Both (A) and (B) non-agricultural jobs and tenant cultivators poor unskilled people
(D) None of the above with small land holdings. There are many living in rural areas.

Mock Paper - 1 Page 151

 Reason (R): Under national 49. Read the following statements - (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
social assistance Assertion (A) and Reason (R): (R) is true.
programme, elderly Assertion (A): The official data
on poverty is now 50. Read the following statements
people who do not
made available to the carefully:
have anyone to take public by the NITI
care of them are Aayog. Statement 1: Economists identify
given pension to Reason (R): The aim of poverty the poor on the basis
sustain themselves. alleviation schemes of their occupation
should be to improve and ownership of
From the given alternatives choose
human lives. assets.
the correct one:
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason From the given alternatives choose Statement 2: Starvation and
(R) are true and Reason (R) is the the correct one: hunger are the
correct explanation of Assertion key features of the
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(A). poorest households.
(R) are true and Reason (R) is the
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason correct explanation of Assertion Choose the correct alternatives given
(R) are true and Reason (R) is (A). below:
not the correct explanation of (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (A) Both the statements are true.
Assertion (A). (R) are true and Reason (R) is (B) Both the statements are false.
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason not the correct explanation of (C) Statement 1 is true and Statement
(R) is false. Assertion (A). 2 is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (D) Statement 2 is true and Statement
(R) is true. (R) is false. 1 is false
qq

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Page 152  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-2
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. The components of current account of 4. Read the following statements - 6. Given below are two statements one is
Balance of Payments are .............. and Assertion (A) and Reason (R): labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
............. Assertion (A): Money supply is labelled as Reason (R).
(Fill in the blank with correct refers to the stock of Assertion (A): Housewife working
alternative) money available at a in the house is
(I) Borrowings from Abroad particular time. termed as non-
(II) trade balance Reason (R): Volume of money
economic activity.
held by public for
(III) balance on invisibles
transactions or Reason (R): there is no monetary
(IV) foreign investment settlement of debts. gain or salary paid
Choose the correct option: From the given alternatives choose to the housewife for
(A) (I) and (II) the correct one: working in the house.
(B) (I) and (III) (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason Choose the correct alternatives from
(C) (II) and (III) (R) are true and Reason (R) is the the following:
(D) (II) and (IV) correct explanation of Assertion (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(A). (R) are True and Reason (R) is the
2. Countries are trying to strengthen (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
their own correct explanation of Assertion
(R) are true and Reason (R) is (A)
domestic economies by: not the correct explanation of
(A) forming regional and global (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
Assertion (A).
economic groupings like SAARC, (R) are True and Reason (R) is
(C) Assertion (A) is true but
EU, ASEAN, G-8, G-20, etc. Reason(R) is false. not the correct explanation of
(B) by having economic reforms (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason Assertion (A)
(C) both (A) and (B) (R) is true. (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason
(D) neither (A) nor (B) (R) is False
5. Read the following statements -
3. Read the following statements - (D) Assertion (A) is False, but Reason
Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A) and Reason (R): Assertion (A): Demand Deposits (R) is True
Assertion (A): To curb the in the Commercial 7. The balance of trade shows a deficit
deflationary gap Banks are a part of of ` 200 crore. With the value of
the government M1. exports being ` 300 crore, what
may increase its Reason (R): M1 includes cash should be the value of imports ?
expenditure. with public, demand
Reason (R): Deficient Demand (A) ` 600 crores (B) ` 300 crores
deposits with the
means excess of banks and other (C) ` 500 crores (D) ` 200 crores
AS over AD at full deposits with the 8. Which economic reforms are
employment. bank. concerned with the reforms in the
From the given alternatives choose From the given alternatives choose government’s policies on taxation
the correct one: the correct one: and public expenditure, which are
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason collectively referred to as the fiscal
(R) are true and Reason (R) is the (R) are true and Reason (R) is the policy?
correct explanation of Assertion correct explanation of Assertion (A) Financial reforms
(A). (A). (B) Tax reforms
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (C) Industrial reforms
(R) are true and Reason (R) is (R) are true and Reason (R) is
not the correct explanation of (D) None of these
not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A). Assertion (A). 9. If GDP at factor cost = Rs. 24,250,
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason operating surplus = Rs. 11,250, mixed
(R) is false. (R) is false. income = Rs. 5,240 and consumption
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason of fixed capital = Rs. 670, then
(R) is true. (R) is true. compensation of employees will be:

Mock Paper - 2 Page 153

 (A) Rs. 8,430 Choose the correct pair of statements: 18. “If ex-ante investments are lesser than
(B) Rs. 7,760 (A) a–(I) (B) b–(II) ex-ante savings, it means buyers are
(C) Rs. 7,090 (C) c–(III) (D) d–(IV) planning to buy less than what the
(D) Rs. 13,000 producers are planning to produce.”
14. The main objective of Which of the following is true
10. Global warming is caused due to ............................. activity is to earn regarding effect of above situation?
increase in greenhouse gases through: money. (A) producers may plan to raise
(I) deforestation (A) Economic output
(II) burning of fossil fuels (B) Non-economic (B) the inventories-in-hand of
(C) Price theory producers may fall
(III) soil erosion
(D) None of these (C) producers may plan to reduce
(IV) land degradation output
Alternatives 15. Read the following statements - (D) none of these
(A) (I) and (II) only Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The major policy 19. Aggregate demand can be increased
(B) (II) and (III) only by:
initiatives i.e. land
(C) (III) and (IV) only (A) decreasing bank rate
reforms and green
(D) All of the above revolution helped (B) selling government securities by
India to become self- Reserve Bank of India
11. The multiplier is the ratio between
sufficient in food (C) increasing cash reserve ratio
the change in income and change in
grains production. (D) none of the above
................. .
Reason (R): The proportion of
(I) investment people depending on 20. Which of the following statements is
(II) saving incorrect?
agriculture did not
decline as expected. (A) The actual collections by
(III) consumption
Zamindars was much higher
(IV) propensity to consume Choose one of the correct alternatives than what they had to pay to the
Alternatives given below: Government.
(A) Only (I) (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (B) Zamindari system led to
(B) Only (I) and (II) (R) are true and Reason (R) is the multiplication of middlemen
correct explanation of Assertion between cultivators and the
(C) Only (II) and (IV)
(A). Government
(D) All (I), (II), and (III)
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (C) Both (A) and (B)
12. “An arrangement in which a worker (R) are true and Reason (R) is (D) None of these
uses his own resources to make a not the correct explanation of
living.” Assertion (A). 21. Which of the following is the
reason for the understanding the
Identify which type of worker is stated (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
neighbouring countries?
in the above mentioned line. (R) is false.
(A) It helps country to understand its
(A) Wage employment (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason competitors.
(B) Regular employment (R) is true.
(B) It allows country to better
(C) Casual employment 16. The main objective of comprehend their strengths and
(D) Self-employment ............................. activity is to earn weaknesses.
money. (C) It is required all major common
13. From the set of statements given in
(A) Economic economic activities in the
Column I and II:
region impinge on overall
Column I Column II (B) Non-economic human development in a shared
(C) Price theory environment
(a) Dirty floating (I) Managed (D) None of these (D) All of these
floating rate
system 17. Which of the following statement is 22. Those activities which contribute
(b) Includes only (II) Depreciation true? to the gross national product are
visible items (A) Loans from IMF are a revenue called economic activities. All those
receipt. who are engaged in ................., in
(c) Unilateral (III) Balance of
(B) Higher revenue deficit necessarily whatever capacity — high or low, are
transfers trade ..................... .
leads to higher fiscal deficit.
(d) Fall in value (IV) Current (I) economic activities
(C) Borrowing by a government
of domestic account of represents a situation of fiscal (II) business activities
currency in BOP deficit. (III) workers
relation to (IV) self-employed Alternatives
(D) Revenue deficit is the excess of
a foreign (A) (I) and (III) (B) (I) and (IV)
capital receipts over the revenue
currency (C) (II) and (III) (D) (II) and (IV)
receipts.

Page 154  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

23. Read the following statements - 28. Read the following Statement – From the given alternatives choose the
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A) and Reason (R) correct one:
Assertion (A): A g r i c u l t u r a l Assertion (A): Current account (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
marketing has come is the record of (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
a long way with trade in goods and
correct explanation of Assertion
services and transfer
the intervention of (A).
payments.
the government in (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Reason (R): Purchase of foreign
various forms. are true and Reason (R) is not the
goods or imports
Reason (R): In 2020, Indian decreases the correct explanation of Assertion
Parliament passed domestic demand for (A).
three laws to reform goods and services in (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
agriculture marketing our country. (R) is false.
system. From the given alternatives choose the (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
Choose one of the correct alternatives correct one:
(R) is true.
given below: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the 33. If the Real GDP is ` 500 and Price Index
correct explanation of Assertion (base = 100) is 125, calculate Nominal
(R) are true and Reason (R) is the
(A) GDP.
correct explanation of Assertion
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
(A). (A) 500 (B) 125
are true and Reason (R) is not the
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason correct explanation of Assertion (C) 625 (D) 200
(R) are true and Reason (R) is (A)
34. ..................... are receipts of the
not the correct explanation of (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
government which neither create any
Assertion (A). (R) is false
liabilities nor reduce any assets.
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
(R) is true (A) Revenue receipts
(R) is false.
(B) Capital receipts
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason 29. Which of the following is included in
(C) Revenue expenditure
(R) is true. the estimation of national income?
(A) Defence and security services (D) Capital expenditure
24. Sustainable development can be
(B) Unemployment allowances 35. Ex-ante saving refers to:
achieved by:
(C) Expenditure on second-hand (a) desired savings at different levels
(A) controlling pollution goods
of income in the economy
(B) controlling the growth of (D) Income from illegal activities
population (b) actual saving in the economy
30. ................... campaign initiated in 1958 during the period of one year
(C) restricting use of non renewable
aimed at industrialising the country on (c) Either (A) or (B)
resources a massive scale.
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)
(D) all of these (A) Great Leap Forward
25. The imposition of education cess (B) Great Proletarian Cultural 36. Expenditure

Revolution Factor Service

of ............... by the government of
(C) Economic reform
India on all Union taxes means that Households Firms
(D) SEZ
money so collected will be spent on
elementary education only. 31. In a hypothetical economy, the D

(A) 3 % (B) 2 % Liquidity Reserve Ratio (LRR) is 20% Goods and Services

(C) 4 % (D) 1 % and Mr. Rahul makes a fresh deposit of

` 10,000 in the bank. The total money Identify ‘D’ given in the above image.
26. Which of the following is the subject creation by the bank would be: (A) Factor income
matter of macro economic? (A) ` 10,000 (B) ` 20,000 (B) Land
(A) Wage rate (B) Monopoly (C) ` 50,000 (D) ` 1,00,000 (C) Labour
(C) Inflation (D) Market price 32. Read the following statements - (D) Consumption expenditure
Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
27. In the 1970s, .................. of capital Assertion (A): Infrastructure 37. ............... accepts deposits from the
goods industries took place in contributes to public and lend out this money to
Pakistan. economic development interest earning investment projects.
(A) privatisation of a country. (A) Commercial Bank
Reason (R): I n a d e q u a t e
(B) nationalisation (B) Central Bank
infrastructure can
(C) denationalisation have multiple adverse (C) RBI
(D) globalisation effects on health. (D) All of these

Mock Paper - 2 Page 155

 38. health care facilities, better education, 43. .............................. refers to change in
Male Workers Female Workers proper sanitation etc. to the poor people. quantity demanded of a commodity
29% 56%
The basic amenities positively affect when real income of the consumer
51%
31%
health, productivity, income earning changes owing to change in own price
20%
13% opportunities and, thereby alleviate of the commodity.
poverty.
(A) Income effect
Self-employed Regular Salaried Employees
A thorough analysis of the three dimensional
Casual Wage Labourers (B) Inferior goods
approach yields the following conclusions:
(C) Indifference curve
Workers like the civil engineer (I) Although there has been a reduction
working in the construction company in the percentage of absolute poor in (D) Marginal utility
account for ................... of India’s some of the states but still the poor
44. Land reforms introduced by the
workforce. people lack basic amenities, literacy and
colonial government led to which of
nourishment. Secondly, there has not
(A) 52 % (B) 30 % the following?
been significant change in the ownership
(C) 18 % (D) 56 % of income-earning assets and productive (A) Worsening of the situation
resources. (B) Interest to wards elites
39. An increase in aggregate demand
(II) Land reforms do not have high (C) Inequality of income
of equilibrium level of income and
successful records that further added to (D) Misallocation of resources
employment causes an increase in: the inequality of income from land.
(I) Employment (III) Improper implementation of poverty 45. Indifference curve is convex to the
(II) Production alleviation programmes by ill-motivated origin due to:
(III)Income and inadequately trained bureaucrats (A) Axiom of transitivity.
further worsened the situation. (B) Law of DMU.
Alternatives
Corruption along with the inclination
(A) Only (I) towards interest of elites led to an (C) Law of DMRS.
(B) Only (I) and (II) inefficient and misallocation of scarce (D) Axiom of non-satiety
(C) Only (II) and (III) resources.
46. Which of these leads to higher gains
(D) All (I), (II), and (III) 41. Which of the following does refer to from economic growth?
Alleviation of poverty. (A) Economic planning
40. When Aggregate Demand is greater
(A) To increase poverty (B) Equitable distribution of income
than Aggregate Supply at full
(B) To reduce poverty (C) Economic development
employment, such situation is called
(C) To reduce income inequality (D) All of these
.................... .
(D) To reduce the rich
(A) Excess demand 47. Read the following statements
(B) Deficient demand 42. Read the following statements carefully:
Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
(C) Deflationary gap Statement 1: Economic growth
Assertion (A): Growth oriented
(D) None of these refers to when
approach has helped
the production of
Direction for (Q. 41-45) in reducing poverty
in India. goods and services
Read the following case study paragraph consistently increases
Reason (R): The advantages
carefully and answer the questions based on over a period of time.
of India’s growth
the same. Statement 2: The benefits of
have reached to all
In order to alleviate poverty, government the sections of the equity-based
has adopted the following three dimensional society. economic growth
approaches: From the given alternatives choose the are shared by all
(I) Trickle down approach: This approach correct one: sections of society,
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason hence reducing the
is based on the expectation that the
(R) are true and reason (R) is the disparity of wealth
positive effects of economic growth will
correct explanation of assertion among the masses.
be trickled down or benefit all sections
(A). Choose the correct alternative from
of the society and also the poor people.
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) the following:
(II) Poverty alleviation approach: This are true but reason (R) is not the
(A) Both the statements are true.
approach aimed at the creation of correct explanation of assertion
income-earning assets and employment (A). (B) Both the statements are false.
generation opportunities. (C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) (C) Statement 1 is true but Statement
(III) Providing basic amenities: This is false. 2 is false.
approach aimed at providing the basic (D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (D) Statement 1 is false but statement
amenities like proper medical and (R) is true. 2 is true.

Page 156  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

48. The objective of economic planning is 50. Read the following statements (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
........... . Assertion (A) and Reason (R): (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
(A) economic growth Assertion (A): Economic growth correct explanation of Assertion
(B) economic development (A).
refers to rise in
(C) equitable development (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
national income over
(D) equal growth (R) are true and Reason (R) is
a long time span.
49. Growth does not guarantee which of not the correct explanation of
Reason (R): Equity is not
the following? Assertion (A).
necessary to achieve
(A) Welfare of the society (C) Assertion (A) is true but
social justice. Reason(R) is false.
(B) Higher income
(C) Economic development From the given alternatives choose (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
(D) None of these the correct one: (R) is true.
qq

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Mock Paper - 2 Page 157

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-3
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. If the value of currency with public (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason their health and old age. Identify
is ` 80,000, demand deposit with (R) are true and Reason (R) is the which of the following sector is stated
bank is ` 70,000 and other deposit correct explanation of Assertion in the above case.
with RBI is ` 5,000, then M1 will be (A). (A) Formal sector
...................... . (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (B) Informal sector
(A) 1,55,000 (B) 85,000 (R) are true and Reason (R) is (C) Both (a) and (b)
(C) 1,50,000 (D) 1,50,000 not the correct explanation of (D) Neither (a) nor (b)
2. Which of the following has least Assertion (A).
urban population. (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason 9. Which of the following statements is
(R) is false. false?
(A) India (B) China
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (A) Demand deposits are not legal
(C) Pakistan (D) None of these tender.
(R) is true.
3. Read the following statements
(B) Currency notes issued are not
carefully: 5. The seminal report —Our Common legal tender.
Statement 1: Most poverty Future—gave the definition that (C) Term deposits are not legal tender.
alleviation progra- ‘meeting the basic needs of all and
mmes implemented (D) Wheat is not legal tender.
extending to all the opportunity to
by the government satisfy their aspirations for a 10. Equilibrium income is that level of
prior to 2015 better life’. income where:
were based on the Identify the appropriate term from the (A) AD=AS (B) S=I
perspective of the given option for the above mentioned (C) C=Y (D) Both (a) and (b)
Five Year Plans definition.
Statement 2: Expanding self- 11. Identify the correctly matched items
(A) Sustainable development
e m p l o y m e n t of Column A to that of the Column B:
(B) Economic development
programmes and Column A Column B
wage employment (C) Economic growth
programmes are (D) Social development (I) Import of (A) Invisible
being considered as ships items
6. There is a .................. relationship
the major ways of between multiplier and MPC is: (II) Outsourcing (B) One sided
addressing poverty. companies transaction
(A) direct (B) indirect
Choose the correct alternative from
the following: (C) one-to-one (D) none of these (III) Interest (C) Income
(A) Both the statements are true. received on receipt from
7. India follows which system of Foreign
(B) Both the statements are false. loan given abroad
Exchange?
(C) Statement 1 is true and statement to Malaysia
(A) Fixed exchange rate
2 is false. (IV) Donation (D) Visible item
(B) Flexible exchange rate
(D) Statement 2 is true and statement given to the
(C) Managed floating exchange rate
1 is false. UNICEF
4. Read the following statements- (D) None of these
Choose the correct option:
Assertion (A) and Reason (R): 8. Ahmedabad is a prosperous city with (A) (I) – (A) (B) (II) – (B)
Assertion (A): Central Bank is its wealth based on the production (C) (III) – (C) (D) (IV) – (D)
a regulator of the of more than 60 textile mills with
commercial bank. a labour force of 1,50,000 workers 12. Under the ................., people
Reason (R): Commercial banks employed in them. These workers collectively cultivated lands.
work in accordance had, over the course of the century, (A) Commune system
to the regulations of acquired a certain degree of income (B) Great Proletarian Cultural
the central bank. security. They had secure jobs with Revolution
From the given alternatives choose a living wage; they were covered by (C) Economic reforms
the correct one: social security schemes protecting (D) None of these

Page 158  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 13. Which of the following is true (C) Education is an essential element 24. Annapurna scheme came into effect
regarding intermediate goods? of human resource development. from April 1, 2000 as a 100 per cent
(A) Intermediate goods are those (D) All of these ............... Sponsored Scheme.
goods which have not crossed the (A) state (B) locally
boundary line of production. 20. When basic consumption C = 40,
MPC = 0.6 and Y=600, the value of (C) centrally (D) none of these
(B) Intermediate goods are those
goods which are purchased by saving will be: 25. Identify the correct statement:
one firm from the other firm for (A) 270 (B) 640 (A) During the British rule, there were
resale. (C) 200 (D) 400 a large number of capital goods
(C) Intermediate goods are those industries.
21. Contraction in demand appears when:
goods which are not included in (B) There was low level of
the estimation of national product. (A) Price rises & demand falls
unemployment in the economy
(D) All of these (B) Prices rises & demand also rises
during the British rule.
(C) Price remains stable and demand
14. Machines are categorised in which of (C) Indian handicraft industry
falls
the following? was destroyed by the British
(D) Price falls but demand remains
(A) Invisible item (B) Visible item government by supplying raw
stable.
material to Britain and importing
(C) Unilateral item (D) None of these
22. Identify the correct statement from the their finished goods.
15. When the percentage change in following: (D) Exported finished goods from
quantity demanded is exactly equal (A) Poverty alleviation programmes India to Britain.
to the percentage change in price than have been introduced by 26. If MPS = 0, the value of multiplier
it is called a .................................. government to increase poverty.
demand. will be:
(B) Growth oriented approach is the (A) 1 (B) 0
(A) Unit elastic economic growth occurred in
(B) Relatively elastic (C) 0.5 (D) ∞
the economy which removed the
(C) Unitary elastic poverty of people from the poor 27. Read the following statements
(D) Relatively inelastic sections of the society and it was carefully:
successful. Statement 1: Though both men
16. The government uses .................. as (C) Minimum needs programme and women workers
proxy for income of households to includes Public Distribution are concentrated in
identify the poor. System (PDS) and Mid-day Meal the primary sector,
(A) monthly per capita expenditure scheme. women workers’
(B) monetary per capita expenditure (D) ‘Rural Employment Generation concentration is very
(C) minimum per capita expenditure Programme’ and ‘Prime Minister high there.
(D) none of these Rozgar Yojana’ are the wage Statement 2: About 63 per cent of
employment programmes. the female workforce
17. Success in the long-term battle against
diseases depends on education and 23. Read the following statements - is employed in
efficient .................. infrastructure. Assertion the primary sector
whereas less than half
(A) energy (A) and Reason (R):
of males work in that
(B) health Assertion (A): Profits earned by a
sector.
(C) education company in India,
which is owned by Choose the correct alternatives given
(D) water sanitation below:
a non-resident is in-
18. Which of the following is not a cluded in national in- (A) Both the statements are true.
component of aggregate demand in a come of India. (B) Both the statements are false.
two-sector economy? Reason (R): Company is generat- (C) Statement 1 is true and Statement
(I) Consumption expenditure ing profit within the 2 is false.
(II) Government Expenditure domestic territory of (D) Statement 2 is true and Statement
(III) Net exports India. 1 is false.
Alternatives From the given alternatives choose
(A) Only (I) the correct one: 28. In China great leap forward mission
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason started in ................... .
(B) Only (II)
(R) are true and Reason (R) is the (A) 1885 (B) 1958
(C) Only (I) and (II)
correct explanation of Assertion (C) 1991 (D) 1963
(D) Only (II) and (III)
(A). 29. Read the following statements
19. Identify the correct statement from the (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason carefully:
following: (R) are true and Reason (R) is
Statement 1: Repo rate is the
(A) Human capital formation not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A). rate at which
increases productivity of physical
capital. (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason the central bank
(B) Human capital and human (R) is false. lends money
development are related concepts, (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason to the commercial
but certainly not identical. (R) is true. banks.

Mock Paper - 3 Page 159

 Statement 2: Legal reserves refer 34. Read the following statements 36. Which of the following is included in
to cash reserves of carefully: real flow?
the commercial banks Statement 1: Money issued by the (A) Flow of Goods
with the central bank government under (B) Flow of Services
which are mandatory emergency condition
(C) Both (A) and (B)
reserves. is Fiduciary money.
Choose the correct alternatives given (D) None of the above
Statement 2: Broad money
below: consists of currency 37. From the set of statements given in
(A) Both the statements are true. in circulation with column I and column II:
(B) Both the statements are false. the public and vault Column I Column II
(C) Statement 1 is true and Statement cash of commercial
2 is false. banks and deposits (a) HYV (I) M o n e t a r y
(D) Statement 2 is true and Statement held by the seeds assistance
1 is false. Government of India given by the
30. The important factor influencing the and commercial government
propensity to save in an economy is: banks with RBI. (b) Land (II) Fixing of
(I) the level of investment Choose the correct alternative from ceiling maximum limit
(II) the level of income the following:
(III)the level of consumption of land holding
(A) Both the statements are true. for an individual
Alternatives:
(A) Only (I) (B) Both the statements are false. (c) Land (III) Seeds that give
(B) Only (II) (C) Statement 1 is true and statement reforms large proportions
(C) Only (I) and (II) 2 is false. of output
(D) Only (II) and (III) (D) Statement 2 is true and statement (d) Subsidy (IV) I m p r o v e m e n t s
31. Which of the statements given below 1 is false. in the field of
is correct? 35. From the following given sets of agriculture to
(A) Workers with skill and knowledge statements in column I and II, choose increase its
can use the resources available to the correct pair of statements. productivity
them more efficiently.
(B) Economic development can be Column I Column II Choose the correct option:
stimulated by making investment (a) Great Leap (I) Means to (A) (a)-(I) (B) (b)-(II)
in education. Forward strength then (C) (c)-(III) (D) (d)-(IV)
(C) Efficiency and productivity can their own 38. “Saving function is the functional
be increased through investment domestics relationship between saving (S) and
in education.
economies. income (Y).”
(D) All of these
32. Read the following statements - (b) Great Prole- (II) I n d u s t r i - Above mentioned statement implies
Assertion (A) and Reason (R): tarian Cul- alising the that saving is ................. related to
Assertion (A): Export is a flow tural Revo- country on income.
variable. lution a massive (A) positively (B) negatively
Reason (R): Export is measured scale. (C) inversely (D) none of these
at a point of time.
From the given alternatives choose (c) R e g i o n a l (III) People col- 39. An establishment with four hired
the correct one: and global lectively workers is known as ..................
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason economic cultivated sector establishment.
(R) are true and Reason (R) is the grouping’s lands. (A) Formal
correct explanation of Assertion such as the (B) Informal
(A). SAARC, (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason G–8, G–20, (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(R) are true and Reason (R) is ASEAN etc.
not the correct explanation of 40. A farmer produces one ton of wheat
Assertion (A). (d) C o m m u n e (IV) Students and and sells it for ` 400 in the market to
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason system in profession- a flour mill. The flour mill sells it for
(R) is false. China als were sent ` 600 to the baker. The baker sells to
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason to work and the bread shopkeeper for ` 800. The
(R) is true. learn from shopkeeper sells the entire bread to
the final consumers for ` 900. Thus,
33. What is the price elasticity of demand the country
total value of output becomes ` 2,700.
when the price of the commodity side.
Here, the value of wheat and value of
changes from ` 5 to ` 4 and demand the services of the miller and of the
for the commodity changes from 10 (A) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(I), (d)-(III)
baker have counted more than once. In
units to 15 units. (B) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(III), (d)-(I)
the above context Counting the value
(A) 3.5 (B) 4 (C) (a)-(III), (b)-(IV), (C)-(I), (d)-(II) of goods and services more than once
(C) (–)2.5 (D) 1 (D) (a)-(III), (b)-(I), (c)-(IV), (d)-(II) is called .................. .

Page 160  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 (A) None-monetary exchange 42. Capital receipts may come from: such as the industrial sector, financial sector,
(B) Transfer payment (A) market borrowings tax reforms, foreign exchange markets and
(C) Capital transaction (B) provident funds trade and investment sectors which received
(D) Double counting (C) recoveries of loans greater attention in and after 1991. The first
important reform in the external sector was
Direction for (Q. 41-45) (D) all of them
made in the foreign exchange market. Privat-
Read the following case study paragraph 43. Identify the objective of budget: ization implies shedding of the ownership or
carefully and answer the questions based on
(A) Activities to secure a reallocation management of a government owned enter-
the same.
of resources prise. Government companies are converted
2019- 2020- 2020 2021- (B) Redistributive activities into private companies in two ways (I) by
20 21 -21 22 (C) Stabilizing activities withdrawal of the government from owner-
Act- Bud- Revi- Bud- (D) All of these ship and management of public sector com-
panies and or (II) by outright sale of public
ual get sed get 44. Car and petrol are examples of sector companies.
Esti- Esti- Esti- ......................... demand.
mates Economic reforms did not benefit the agricul-
mates mates (A) Complementary
ture and the agricultural growth rate has been
A. Cen- (B) Competitive decelerating. Public investment in agriculture
t r e ' s (C) Substitute
Expen- sector has been reduced in the reform period
diture (D) Composite due to which irrigation, power, roads, market
I. Estab- 570244 609585 598672 609014 45. Read the following statements linkages and agricultural research have suf-
lishment
carefully: fered. Further, the removal of fertiliser sub-
Expendi-
sidy has led to increase in the cost of produc-
ture Statement 1: The transfers made by
centrally sponsored tion which has severely affected the small and
II. Cen- 757091 831825 1263690 1051703
t r a l schemes in the year marginal farmers. Globalisation and member-
Sector 2019 – 2020 is ` ship of WTO has resulted in policy changes
Schemes/ such as reduction in import duties on agricul-
Projects
3,09,553.
Statement 2: The value of other tural products, removal of minimum support
III. Other 727025 887574 826536 1011887
grants has increase price and lifting of quantitative restrictions on
Central
Sector from 2019 to 2020. agricultural products which have increased
Expendi-
Choose the correct alternatives international competition for Indian farmers
ture making their condition more miserable. There
given below:
Interest 612070 708203 692900 809701 has been a shift from production for the do-
payment (A) Both the statements are true.
mestic market towards production for the ex-
B. (B) Both the statements are false.
port market because of export oriented policy
Tr a n s - (C) Statement 1 is true and Statement
strategies in agriculture. This has shifted the
fers 2 is false.
focus on cash crops in place of production of
IV. Cen- 309553 339895 387900 381305 (D) Statement 2 is true and Statement
trally food grains which has led to a fall in supply
1 is false.
Spon- of food grains thereby creating pressure on
s o r e d Direction for (Q. 46-50) prices of food grains. Globalisation attempts
Schemes Read the following case study paragraph to establish links in such a way that the hap-
V. Fi- 123710 149925 182352 220843 carefully and answer the questions based penings in India can be influenced by events
nance on the same.
C o m - happening miles away. It is turning the world
mission The NEP consisted of wide-ranging econom- into one whole or creating a borderless world.
Grants ic reforms. The thrust of the policies was
VI. Other 198707 223427 191155 208484 towards creating a more competitive envi- 46. Read the following statements - As-
Grants/
ronment in the economy and removing the sertion (A) and Reason (R):
Loans/
Transfers barriers to entry and growth of firms. Rules Assertion (A): The first important
Grand 2686330 3042230 3450305 3483236 and laws which were aimed at regulating the reform in the external
Total economic activities became major hindrances sector was made in
in growth and development. Liberalisation the foreign exchange
41. The value of establishment expenditure was introduced to put an end to these restric- market.
has ............... crores between 2019- tions and open various sectors of the econ- Reason (R): In 1991, as an imme-
20 (Actual) and 2020-21 (Budget omy. Though a few liberalisation measures diate measure to re-
Estimate).
were introduced in 1980s in areas of industri- solve the balance of
(A) fallen by ` 39,341 al licensing, export-import policy, technology payments crisis, the
(B) risen by ` 39,341 upgradation, fiscal policy and foreign invest- rupee was devalued
(C) fallen by ` 39,431 ment, reform policies initiated in 1991 were against foreign cur-
(D) risen by ` 39,431 more comprehensive. Some important areas, rencies.

Mock Paper - 3 Page 161

 From the given alternatives choose the From the given alternatives choose the Statement 2: There has been a shift
correct one: correct one: from production for
Alternatives: Alternatives: the domestic market
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason towards production
(R) are true and Reason (R) is the (R) are true and Reason (R) is the for the export market.
correct explanation of Assertion correct explanation of Assertion Choose the correct alternatives given
(A). (A). below:
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
are true and Reason (R) is not the (A) Both the statements are true.
are true and Reason (R) is not the (B) Both the statements are false.
correct explanation of Assertion
correct explanation of Assertion
(A). (C) Statement 1 is true and Statement
(A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason 2 is false.
(R) is false. (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
(D) Statement 2 is true and Statement
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is false.
1 is false.
(R) is true. (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
47. Read the following statements - (R) is true. 50. In the light of the given text and
Assertion (A) and Reason (R): 48. According to the given text, economic common knowledge, identify the
Assertion (A): Government com- incorrect statement:
reforms did not benefit the ................ .
panies are converted
(A) agriculture (B) industries (A) In 1991, economic reforms were
into private compa-
nies by withdrawal introduced in India because 1991
(C) services (D) none of these
of the government was the year of crisis for the
from ownership and 49. Read the following statements Indian economy.
management of public carefully: (B) Rules and laws which were
sector companies. aimed at regulating the economic
Statement 1: Globalisation and
Reason (R): The purpose of the activities became major hindrance
sale, according to membership of WTO
has resulted in policy in growth and development.
the government, was
changes such as (C) Globalisation created conditions
mainly to improve fi-
nancial discipline and reduction in import for free movement of goods and
facilitate modernisa- duties on agricultural services from foreign countries.
tion. products. (D) None of these
qq

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Page 162  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-4
SELF-ASSESSMENT

Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. ...................................... is not a subject (A) gone up, fluctuation, declined 11. Two friends Kabir and Preeti were
matter of micro economics. (B) declined, fluctuation, increased discussing the tools of fiscal policy
(A) Unfavourable gender ratio (C) fluctuated, declined, increased of the government. Kabir said that
(B) Consumer behaviour (D) None of these “government may decrease the taxes.
(C) Factor pricing 5. To deal with the situation of .................. This may increase the purchasing power
(D) Effect on supply position due to reverse repo rate may be increased by in the hands of the people which in turn
reduction in market price the central bank. may increase the Aggregate Demand
2. In an economy the autonomous (A) deficient demand in the economy to bring it equal to the
investment is 240 and the marginal (B) excess demand Aggregate Supply.”
propensity to save is 0.6. If the (C) either (A) or (B)
Identify which of the following situation
equilibrium level of income is 1,000, (D) neither (A) nor (B)
will be corrected by above stated tool.
then the autonomous consumption will 6. There is a trade surplus when .............. .
(A) Deflationary
be: (A) exports exceed imports
(A) 580 (B) 150 (B) Inflationary
(B) imports exceed Exports
(C) 240 (D) 360 (C) revenue exceeds expenditure (C) Excess demand
(D) None of these
3. Read the following statements carefully: (D) expenditure exceeds revenue
Statement 1:  Money flows are 7. “The resource extraction is not above 12. Read the following statements - Assertion
opposite to real flows. the rate of regeneration of the resource (A) and Reason (R).
Statement 2:  Money flows are in
and the wastes generated are within Assertion (A): 
Central Bank regulates
the assimilating capacity of the and supervises the
response to the real
environment.” commercial banks.
flows.
Which of the following term is Reason (R): The central bank of India
Choose the correct alternatives given
associated with above definition? is Reserve Bank of India
below:
(A) Carrying capacity
(A) Both the statements are true. (RBI).
(B) Absorptive capacity
(B) Both the statements are false. From the given alternatives choose the
(C) Ecological capacity
(C) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 correct one:
(D) Conservation capacity
is false. (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
(D) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 8. In India, suppliers of money are:
(A) government of the country are true and Reason (R) is the correct
is false.
(B) banking system of the country explanation of Assertion (A).
4. On the basis of the below-mentioned (C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
information, answer the following are true and Reason (R) is not the
(D) None of these
question:
9. Firm A spent ` 200 on non-factor inputs correct explanation of Assertion
Growth of GDP and Major Sectors and produced goods worth ` 900. It sold (A).
(in %) goods worth ` 450 and ` 350 to Firm B (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R)
Sector 1980- 1992- 2002- 2007- 2012- 2013- 2014- and consumer households respectively. is false.
91 2001 07 12 13 14 15
Find out Gross value added by Firm A. (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
Agriculture 3.6 3.3 2.3 3.2 1.5 4.2 –0.2* (R) is true.
(A) ` 400 (B) ` 600
Industry 7.1 6.5 9.4 7.4 3.6 5 7.0* (C) ` 300 (D) ` 800 13. Which of the following is not a component
Services 6.7 8.2 7.8 10 8.1 7.8 9.8*
10. With the initial deposit being ` 200 of M1 measure of money supply?
Total 5.6 6.4 7.8 8.2 5.6 6.6 7.4 crores and the creation of total deposits (A) Total Deposits with the Post
During the reform period, the growth of ` 1,600 crores being caused from Offices
of agriculture has .................. while the it, what will be the legal reserve (B) Currency held with the public
industrial sector reported .................. ; requirements? (C) Demand deposits held with
the growth of the service sector has (A) 25% (B) 10.5 commercial banks
.................. . (C) 20% (D) 12.5% (D) None of the above

Mock Paper - 4 Page 163

14. If APS is 0.8, how much will be the 20. Mrs. Janhvi, an economics teacher, 27. All the support structures which
APC? was explaining that national income is facilitates development of a country
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.8 calculated through the method which constitute is called .................. .
(C) 0.5 (D) 1 measures national income from the side (A) Infrastructure (B) Agriculture
of payments made in the form of wages,
15. Read the following statements carefully: rent, interest, and profit to the primary
(C) Industries (D) Construction
Statement 1: Liberalization was factors of production in an accounting
28. Biggest contributor to India’s National
introduced to put an end year. Income is ................... sector.
to the restrictions and (A) Agriculture
Which of the following method of
open various sectors of calculating national income has been (B) Industry
the economy. stated above? (C) Service
Statement 2:  The only industries (A) Value added mathod (D) None of these
which are now reserved (B) Income method 29. Read the following statement Assertion
for the public sector are (C) Expenditure method (A) and Reason (R).
a part of atomic energy (D) None of these Assertion (A):  Import of API for the
generation and some 21. Which of the following does not manufacturing of the
core activities in railway represent the demographic condition of medicines for Covid-19
transport. Indian economy during the British rule? is to be recorded in the
(A) Low literacy rate
Choose the correct alternative from the debit side of the Current
(B) Infant mortality rate was high
following: account of the Balance of
(C) Low life expectancy
(A) Both the statements are true. (D) Low birth/death rate Payments.
(B) Both the statements are false. 22. “A statistic composite index of life Reason (R): Payment for imports are
(C) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 expectancy, education, and per capita written on the debit side
is false. income indicators, which are used to and receipts from exports
(D) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 rank countries into four tiers of human are written on the credit
is false. development.” side.
16. “Ownership and management of means Identify the index stated in the above From the given alternatives choose the
of production is in the hands of private line. correct one:
individuals.” This comes under which (A) GDP per capita (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
type of economy? (B) Liberty Index (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the
(A) Capitalistic economy (C) Human Development Index correct explanation of Assertion
(B) Socialistic economy (D) Physical Quality of Life Index (A).
(C) Mixed economy 23. “It supplies resources, resources here (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
(D) All of the above include both renewable and non- are true, but Reason (R) is not the
17. In order to address two major renewable resources.” correct explanation of Assertion
environmental concerns in India, viz. Above stated function is performed by: (A).
water and air pollution, the government (A) employment (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R)
set up the .................. in 1974. (B) environment is false.
(C) technology
(A) Central Practice Control Board (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason
(D) sustainable development
(CPCB) (R) is true.
24. “Method which measures the
(B) Central Pollution Control Board
contribution of each producing enterprise 30. Demand curve parallel to X axis signifies:
(CPCB) (A) perfectly elastic
to production in the domestic territory of
(C) Central Pollution Control Ban (B) perfectly inelastic.
the country.”
(CPCB) (C) elastic
Identify the method of measuring
(D) System Pollution Control Board (D) inelastic
national income stated above.
(SPCB)
(A) Value added method 31. The value of multiplier lies between:
18. In a system of flexible exchange rates (B) Income method (A) 0 and ∞ (B) 0 and 1
the exchange rate is determined by the (C) Expenditure method (C) – 1 and 1 (D) 1 and ∞
forces of: (D) None of these 32. Which of the following sources of energy
(A) market demand 25. Indian Systems of Medicine includes have adverse environmental impacts?
(B) market supply six systems, also known as AYUSH. (I) Thermal power
(C) Both (A) and (B) Which of the following is not a system (II) Hydro power
(D) None of these of medicine included in AYUSH?
(III) Wind power
19. ..................... is regarded as architect (A) Ayurveda (B) Homoeopathy
(IV) Solar power
of Indian Planning, responsible for (C) Allopathy (D) Naturopathy
26. When the level of saving increases by Choose the correct option:
formulating Five Years Plans.
(A) Prashant Chandra Mahalanobis 600, income increases by 1,000, the (A) (I) and (II) only
(B) J. C. Kumarappa value of multiplier will be: (B) (II) and (III) only
(C) I. G. Patel (A) 0.25 (B) 1.67 (C) (III) and (IV) only
(D) Amiya Kumar Bagchi (C) 3.8 (D) 2.5 (D) (I) and (IV) only

Page 164  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 33. Identify the correct pair by matching the 37. Identify the correct pair by matching the Choose the correct option:
items in Column A to that of Column B: items in Column A to that of Column B: (A) (I) only
Column A Column B Column A Column B (B) (I) and (II) only
(C) (I), (II) and (III) only
(A) Public (I) Problem in (A) Cars (I) Intermediate
(D) All (I), (II), (III), and (IV)
ownership public sector purchased by goods
a dealer of Direction (Q. No. 41 to 45 )
(B) Development (II) Role of public
second hand There are to be answered on the basis of the
of small-scale sector in
cars following data:
sector industralisation
(C) Lack of (III) Suggestion to (B) Tyres purchase (II) Final goods
Budget Budget
technical improve public by a transport
Estimates Estimates
efficiency sector company
2020-21 2021-22
(D) Test of (IV) Feature of (C) Computer (III) Intermediate
(` Crores) (` Crores)
efficiency public sector purchase by a good
student 1. Revenue 2020926 1788424
Choose the correct option: Receipts
(D) Seeds used by (IV) Final goods
(A) (A) – (I) (B) (B) –(II) 2. Tax Revenue 1635909 1545396
a farmer on
(C) (C) –(III) (D) (D) – (IV) his field (Net to
34. Electricity is an example of Centre)
Choose the correct option:
................................demand. (A) (A)-(I) (B) (B)-(II) 3. Non Tax 385017 243038
(A) Complementary demand Revenue
(C) (C)-(III) (D) (D)-(IV)
4. Capital 1021304 1694812
(B) Joint demand 38. Read the following statements carefully:
Receipts
(C) Composite demand Statement 1: Involuntary unemploy-
(D) Inferior demand 5. Recovery of 14967 13000
ment exists when willing
Loans
35. Read the following statements carefully: and ablebodied people
do not get employment 6. Other 210000 175000
Statement 1: Both India and Pakistan Receipts
at prevailing wage rate.
followed a mixed 7. Borrowings 796337 1506812
Statement 2: The excess of aggregate
economy approach. and other
demand over aggregate
Statement 2: Both countries created a Liabilities
supply at full employ-
large public sector and ment is called inflation- 8. Total 3042230 3483236
planned to raise public ary gap. Receipts
expenditure on social Choose the correct alternatives given 9. Total 3042230 3483236
development. below: Expenditure

Choose the correct alternatives given (A) Both the statements are true. Source: indiabudget.gov.in
below: (B) Both the statements are false. 41. The value of capital receipts has
(C) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 ……………… crores between 2020-21
(A) Both the statements are true.
is false. and 2021-22 budget estimates.
(B) Both the statements are false.
(D) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 (A) fallen by ` 673508
(C) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false. (B) Risen by ` 673508
is false.
39. Among factors that may be contributing (C) risen by ` 635708
(D) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 to global warming are: (D) fallen by ` 635708
is false. (A) burning of coal and petroleum
42. The percentage change in total
36. Identify the incorrect statement from the products
expenditure between 2020-21 and 2021-
following: (B) deforestation
22, taking 2020-21 as base, would be
(A) Self-reliance is avoiding imports (C) use of fossil fuels
(D) all of these ……………… .
of those goods which could be (A) 16.68% (B) 14.49%
produced in India itself. 40. Shirts are manufactured in a textile mill
(C) 15.76% (D) 14.82%
by using raw materials such as cloth,
(B) Equity implies equitable distribution 43. Identify which of the following is not
thread, and buttons. Here, the shirt is the
of income an example of capital receipts for the
final product for consumption. Identify
(C) Modernisation is to increase the government?
the value of which of the following will
production of goods and services to be included for calculating the Gross (A) Borrowings from France
producers with the adoption of new National Product. (B) Sale of Air India to private company
technology (I) Shirt (II) Cloth (C) Loan from World Bank
(D) None of these (III) Thread (IV) Buttons (D) Vaccination of Covid 19

Mock Paper - 4 Page 165

 44. Identify the correct formula to calculate growth rate in many developed countries 49. Due to distress in agricultural sector,
Primary deficit: is not even half of it. However, What is the government has to ……………
(A) Total Expenditure – Total Receipts most distressing is that the growth rate in agricultural loans and …………… the
(excluding borrowings) the agriculture sector was a negligible 0.2 procurement price of food grains.
(B) Revenue Expenditure – Revenue percent during the same period. As a majority (A) waive, decrease
Receipts of the people still depends on agriculture (B) waive, increase
(C) Total Expenditure – Total Receipts for their livelihood, the niggardly growth (C) increase, increase
(Excluding borrowings) – Interest rate is nothing but a national disaster. The (D) increase, decrease
agriculture sector is in distress and some of
Payments
the farmers are even forced to commit suicide
50. Read the following Statement –
(D) Total Expenditure – Revenue Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
is no news. It is also well known that the
Receipts Assertion (A): 
The growth rate in the
agricultural output has close relations with
45. Read the following statements carefully: the climatic conditions. The recent unseasonal agriculture sector was
Statement 1: 
Though the revenue rains in many parts of India, followed by negligible 0.2 percent
receipts have decreased, swearing heat wave conditions, have caused during the year 2020-21
the capital receipts have extensive damage to the crops. Eventually Reason (R): 
The agriculture sector
shown a significant the government has waive agricultural loans is in distress and some
increase and increase the procurement prices of food
of the farmers are even
grains.
Statement 2: The increase in capital forced to commit suicide
receipts is due to increased borrowings 46. The growth rate in agricultural sector is no news.
compared to other sectors contributes
Choose the correct alternatives given From the given alternatives choose the
………… to the India’s GDP.
below: (A) largely (B) very less correct one:
(A) Both the statements are true. (C) same (D) nothing (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(B) Both the statements are false. (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
47. Agricultural output is related to:
(C) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 (A) Financial credit given to farmers correct explanation of Assertion
is false. (B) Infrastructural development (A)
(D) Statement 2 is true and statement 1 (C) Government’s support given to (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
is false. farmers are true and Reason (R) is not the
Direction (Q. No. 46 to 49) (D) Climatic conditions correct explanation of Assertion
Read the given case study and answer the 48. What does the budget line indicate: (A)
questions on the basis of the same: (A) The income ratio (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
India’s Gross domestic product (GDP) (B) Ration of income to price (R) is false
grew by 7.3 percent during 2020-21. This is (C) The price ratio (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
certainly a creditable achievement when the (D) Ratio of price to income (R) is true

qq

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Page 166  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 NTA CUET (UG)- 2024
MOCK PAPER-5
SELF-ASSESSMENT
Same General Instructions as given in Mock Paper 1.

1. Which of the following statement is 4. Identify the correct formula from the 9. If the amount of LRR is 20% and the
incorrect? following: initial deposit is ` 1000 crore, then it
(A) MPC can be more than one. (A) Money Creation = 1/LRR will create the total amount of money in
(B) MPC of poor people is more than (B) Money Multiplier = 1/LRR the economy equal to ................ .
MPC of rich people. (C) Initial Deposit = 1/LRR (A) ` 6,000 crores
(C) MPC falls with increase in income. (D) Credit Creation = LRR × 100 (B) ` 5,000 crores
(D) MPC = ΔC/ ΔY Initial deposits (C) ` 7,000 crores
2. On the basis of following information, 5. Mr. Lakshit is a practicing lawyer. The (D) ` 8,000 crores
identify which of the following is fees charged by the lawyer is not only
correct. 10. Read the following statements -
his wages but also interest of capital Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
S. employed by him, rent of his office and
Assertion (A): Sustainable development
Particulars Value
No. profit of his entrepreneurship. Since
is important for well-
Autonomous no data is available to sub-divide the being of human society.
Consumption ₹ 700 lawyer’s fees into wages, rent, interest
1 Reason (R): Sustainable development
and Investment crore and profit, it is called ...................
is a kind of development
Expenditure (C) (A) mixed income of self-employed
that meets the needs
(B) operating surplus of the present without
Marginal
(C) domestic product compromising the ability
2 Propensity to 0.8
(D) compensation of employees of future generations to
Consume (MPC)
6. ................. and .................. adopted meet their own needs.
National Income ₹ 4,000
3 similar strategies, such as creating a From the given alternatives choose the
(Y) crore
large public sector and raising public correct one:
(A) Economy is in equilibrium. expenditure on social development. (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(B) Economy is not in equilibrium. (A) India, Pakistan (B) Pakistan, China (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
(C) AD > AS (C) India, China (D) None of these correct explanation of Assertion
(D) S=I (A).
7. If the goods are substitute then rise in
3. Read the following statements carefully: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
the price of one results in:
Statement 1: Under Mahatma are true and Reason (R) is not the
Gandhi National Rural (A) rise in demand for the other
correct explanation of Assertion
Employment Guarantee (B) fall in demand for the other
(A).
Act (MNREGA), all (C) rise in demand for both
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
those among the poor (D) fall in demand for both
who are ready to work at (R) is false.
8. Read the following statements carefully: (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
the minimum wage can
report for work in areas Statement 1: 
One child norm was (R) is true.
where this programme introduced in China 11. Borrowings from France will be
is implemented. in the late 1970’s to recorded in the .............. of Balance of
Statement 2:  The government has a check the problem of Payments Account?
variety of programmes population growth. (A) Capital Account
to generate wage
Statement 2: 
This measure led to a (B) Current Account
employment for the poor
unskilled people living decline in the sex ratio. (C) Both (A) and (B)
in rural areas. Choose the correct alternatives given (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Choose the correct alternatives given below: 12. It is planned to make a new investment
below: (A) Both the statements are true. of ` 1,400 crore in the economy. How
(A) Both the statements are true. (B) Both the statements are false. much will be the increase in national
(B) Both the statements are false.
(C) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 income if marginal propensity to save
(C) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2
is false. is false. is 0.4?
(D) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 (D) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 (A) ` 2,500 crore (B) ` 2,400 crore
is false. is false. (C) ` 1,700 crore (D) ` 3,500 crore

Mock Paper - 5 Page 167

13. Read the following statements carefully: Column I Column II (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Statement 1: Wheat produced during are true and Reason (R) is not the
(a) Water (I) Non-Renewable correct explanation of Assertion
a year is a flow variable. resource (A).
Statement 2: 
National wealth is a (b) Coal (II) Renewable (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
stock variable. resource (R) is false.
Choose the correct alternatives given (c) Fossil (III) Renewable (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
below: Fuel resource (R) is true.
(A) Both the statements are true. 21. Read the following statements -
(d) Natural (IV) Non-renewable
(B) Both the statements are false. Gas resource Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
(C) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 Assertion (A): Women constitute
Choose the correct pair of statements:
is false. approximately half of
(A) (a)-(I) (B) (b)-(II)
(D) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 Indian’s total population,
(C) (c)-(III) (D) (d)-(IV)
is false. but they suffer from
18. Read the following statements -
14. The branch of economics that deals with Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
many disadvantages in
the allocation of resources is ............... . health care.
Assertion (A): 
Festivals gifts to
(A) Econometrics Reason (R): Traditionally, women
employees are included
(B) Macroeconomics health care had been
in the estimation of
(C) Microeconomics on the back burner
national income.
(D) None of the above in India due to
Reason (R): 
Gifts are transfer social considerations
15. Which of the following workers is a payments. prevailing in the country.
regular salaried employee? From the given alternatives choose the From the given alternatives choose the
(A) Owner of a salon correct one: correct one:
(B) Rickshaw puller (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(C) Chartered accountant of M/s (R) are true and Reason (R) is the (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
Narang & Narang correct explanation of Assertion correct explanation of Assertion
(D) Vegetable vendor (A). (A).
16. Given below are two statements one is (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other are true and Reason (R) is not the are true and Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of Assertion correct explanation of Assertion
is labelled as Reason (R).
(A). (A).
Assertion (A): 
Elasticity of demand (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
explain that one variable (R) is false. (R) is false.
is influenced by another (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
variable. (R) is true. (R) is true.
Reason (R): The concept of elasticity 19. Who was the first person in India, to 22. In ...................., due to topographic and
of demand indicates discuss the poverty line? climatic conditions, the area suitable for
the effect of price and (A) P. C. Mahalnobis cultivation is relatively small-only about
change in other factor on (B) Dada Bhai Naroji 10% of its total land area.
demand. (C) W. C. Benerjee (A) India (B) China
Choose the correct alternatives from the (D) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Pakistan (D) None of these
following: 20. Read the following statements - 23. The Reserve Bank stands committed
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason Assertion (A) and Reason (R): to ensure the availability of ample
(R) are true and Reason (R) is the Assertion (A): 
AD over AS always liquidity in the system in order to foster
correct explanation of Assertion implies a situation of congenial financial conditions. On a
(A). inflationary gap. review of current liquidity and financial
Reason (R): 
Inflationary gap occurs conditions, therefore, the Reserve Bank
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
only when AD is more has decided to conduct purchase of
are true and Reason (R) is not the
than AS corresponding Government securities under for an
correct explanation of Assertion
to the full employment aggregate amount of `20,000 crore on
(A).
level of output. February 10, 2021.
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason
From the given alternatives choose the Identify the tool of credit control used
(R) is false.
correct one: by RBI.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (A) Cash reserve ratio
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
(R) is true. (R) are true and Reason (R) is the (B) Open market operations
17. From the following given sets of correct explanation of Assertion (C) Reverse repo rate
statements in column I and II. (A). (D) Moral suasion

Page 168  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

 24. Read the following statements – One the basis of the above case, choose Choose the correct alternative.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R): the correct option. (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
Assertion (A):  Medical tourism is a (A) Jared will be considered as worker. (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
(B) Jared will not be considered as correct explanation of Assertion
great opportunity for
(A).
India. worker.
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Reason(R):  Indian health services (C) Jared will be considered as a
are true and Reason (R) is not the
combine the latest selfemployed. correct explanation of Assertion
medical technologies with (D) Jared will be considered as a (A)
qualified professionals permanent employee. (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
and are cheaper for (R) is false
28. From the following given sets of
foreigners. By upgrading (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
statements in column I and II.
health services, it can be (R) is true
a great opportunity for Column I Column II 33. Thane city is acquiring a brand new
India. image—an environment friendly make
(A) First Five Year Plan (I) 1991
From the given alternatives choose the over. Large-scale use of solar energy,
correct one: (B) First Official Census (II) 1957 which was considered a somewhat
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason farfetched concept, has brought in real
(C) Second stage of (III) 1921
(R) are true and Reason (R) is the benefits and results in cost and energy
demographic tranition
correct explanation of Assertion saving. It is being applied to heat water,
(A). (D) New Economic Policy (IV) 1957
power traffic lights and advertising
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) hoardings. It has made compulsory for
Choose the correct pair of statements.
are true and Reason (R) is not the all new buildings in the city to install
(A) (A) – (I) (B) (B) – (II)
correct explanation of Assertion solar water heating system.
(A). (C) (C) –(III) (D) (D) – (IV)
Above stated case is an example of:
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason(R) 29. The Finance Minister, in a press (A) Sustainable development
is false. conference held on 13 May 2020, (B) Economic development
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason announced several measures aimed at (C) Political development
(R) is true. supporting Micro Small and Medium (D) Social development
25. Kerosene oil used by the firms to clean Enterprises (MSMEs), Non-Banking
34. MPC is always ................... .
their machinery is to be treated as Finance Companies (NBFCs), Housing
(A) positive
................. . Finance Companies (HFCs), Micro
(B) negative
(A) intermediate goods Finance Sector, Real Estate and Power
(C) both (A) and (B)
Sector, with specific focus on infusing
(B) capital goods (D) neither (A) nor (B)
liquidity where it is most needed.
(C) consumer goods 35. Which of the following can be recorded
(D) final goods Identify the policy on which GOI has
in the Current Account?
focused in the above para.
26. Read the following statements carefully: (A) Merchandise Transactions
(A) Fiscal policy (B) Invisible Trade
Statement 1:  Average propensity to (B) Monetary policy
save is always greater (C) One-sided Transactions
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) All of these
than zero. (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Statement 2:  Value of investment 36. Read the following statements -
30. Human capital is a ................... concept. Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
multiplier varies
between zero and (A) broader (b) narrow Assertion (A): Nominal GDP can never
infinity. (C) basic (d) none of these be less than Real GDP.
Choose the correct alternatives given 31. In the 1970s, nationalization of capital Reason (R): Prices in the current
below: goods industries took place in .................. . year can be less than the
(A) Both the statements are true. prices in the base year.
(A) India (B) China
(B) Both the statements are false. From the given alternatives choose the
(C) Pakistan (D) None of these correct one:
(C) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2
is false. 32. Read the following statements— (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). are true and Reason (R) is the correct
(D) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1
explanation of Assertion (A).
is false. Assertion (A): Poverty line for a person
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
27. Jared works for a local farmer in the in rural India is lower are true and Reason (R) is not the
summer while he's at home from than of urban areas. correct explanation of Assertion
college. Reason (R): National Sample Survey (A).
His job duties include watering the Organisation (NSSO) (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R)
fields, harvesting and cleaning crops conducts survey to is false.
and preparing orders to take to the estimate poverty line in (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
farmer's market. India. (R) is true.

Mock Paper - 5 Page 169

37. “Since independence, there has been Direction (Q. No. 41 to 45) 44. Identify the correct formula to calculate
a significant expansion in the physical There are to be answered on the basis of the Fiscal Deficit.
provision of health services.” following data:  (in ₹ Crores) (A) Total expenditure - Total Receipt
(other than borrowings)
Identify the type of infrastructure stated 2019- 2020-21
(B) Revenue Expenditure: Revenue
in the above line. 2020 Budget
Receipt
(A) Social infrastructure Actuals Estimates
(C) Capital Expenditure – Capital
(B) Economic infrastructure 1. Revenue 1684059 2020926 Receipt
(C) Both (A) and (B) Receipts (D) Revenue Expenditure + Capital
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) 2. Tax Revenue 1356902 1635909 expenditure – Revenue Receipt
38. Kushagrah said that Commercial Bank
(Net to 45. Read the following statements carefully:
Centre)
is the controller of credit. Jitendra said Statement 1:  Revenue and Capital
that the Central Bank is the controller 3. Non Tax 327157 385017 receipts are increasing
Revenue but borrowings and
of credit. Vinod said that both the
commercial bank and the central bank 4. Capital 1002271 1021304 other liabilities are
Receipts reducing.
are the controller of credit. Which of the
following is correct? 5. Recovery of 18316 14967 Statement 2:  Grants and aid for
Loans creation of capital assets
(A) Kushagrah and Jitendra
decreased from 2019 to
(B) Kushagrah and Vinod 6. Other 50304 210000
2021
Receipts
(C) Jitendra and Vinod Choose the correct alternatives given
(D) Only Jitendra 7. Borrowings 933651 796337 below:
and Other (A) Both the statements are true.
39. Read the following statements - Assertion Liabilities (B) Both the statements are false.
(A) and Reason (R):
8. Total 2686330 3042230 (C) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2
Assertion (A): 
A civil engineer of a Receipts is false
construction company (1+4) (D) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1
is an example of regular 9. Total 2686330 3042230 is false
salaried employee. Expenditure Direction (Q. No. 46 to 50)
Reason (R): When a worker is (10+13) There are to be answered on the basis of the
engaged by someone or 10. On Revenue 2350604 2630145 following data:
an enterprise and paid his Account India’s post-1990 economic strategy entailed
or her wages on a regular three important breaks with the past:
Source : indiabudget.gov.in
basis, they are known • To dismantle the vast network of controls
as regular salaried 41. The value of recovery of loans has ......................
and permits that dominated the economic
employees. crores between 2019-20 (Actual) and 2020-21
system.
(Budgeted Estimate).
From the given alternatives choose the • To redefine the role of the state as a
correct one: (A) fallen by ₹ 3349
facilitator of economic transactions and as
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) (B) risen by ₹ 3349 a neutral regulator rather than the primary
are true and Reason (R) is the correct (C) fallen by ₹ 3439 provider of goods and services.
explanation of Assertion (A). (D) risen by ₹ 3439 • To move away from a regime of import
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) substitution and to integrate fully with the
42. The percentage change in the Non-Tax
are true and Reason (R) is not the global trading system.
Revenue, between 2019-20 (Actual) and
correct explanation of Assertion 2020-21 (Budgeted Estimate), taking the The 1991 reforms unleashed the energies of
(A). Indian entrepreneurs and gave untold choice
2019-20 as base, would be ......................
to the consumers and changed the face of
(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason . the Indian economy. The reform agenda
(R) is false. (A) 15.02% (B) 16.20% constituted a paradigm shift, and has defined
(D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (C) 17.68% (D) 20.01% the broad contours of economic policymaking
(R) is true. for three decades.
43. Identify which of the following is
40. Which of the following concepts of not an example of tax revenue for the
Liberalisation was adopted as the guiding
National Income takes into consideration principle of governance and all governments
government? since 1991, have broadly stuck to that path.
the geographical boundaries of a country,
(A) Wealth Tax Today we don’t need a paradigm shift. We
rather than the origin of the Factors of
(B) Special Assessments need to look at individual sectors and see
Production?
which one of these needs, reforms to create
(A) Domestic (B) Gross (C) Income Tax a competitive environment and improve
(C) Net (D) National (D) Corporate Tax efficiency. The power sector, the financial

Page 170  CUET Mock Paper | CBSE Students

system, governance structures and even (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason Statement 2: 
Post pandemic reforms
agricultural marketing need reforms. (R) are true and Reason (R) is the in India require a
Today’s reforms also require much more correct explanation of Assertion paradigm shift.
discussion and consensus-building. The (A). Choose the correct alternatives given
central government needs to work in tandem (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below:
with state governments and consult different are true and Reason (R) is not the (A) Both the statements are true.
stakeholders impacted by reform decisions. correct explanation of Assertion (B) Both the statements are false.
Timing and sequencing are critically (A). (C) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2
important in the new reforms’ agenda. (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason is false
(R) is false. (D) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1
Source: Excerpts from ‘Like 1991, the 2021 crisis
presents an opportunity, by C.Rangarajan, 22nd (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason is false
January 2021 (livemint.com) (R) is true. 50. Read the following statements -
46. The addition of utilities obtained from 48. In the light of the above text and Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
all units of a goods is called: common knowledge, identify the Assertion (A): 
The 1991 reforms
(A) Marginal Utility incorrect statement: released the vitalities of
(B) Total Utility (A) A severe balance of payments Indian businesspersons.
problem triggered an acute
(C) Maximum Satisfaction Reason (R): The reform agenda esta-
(D) Additional Utility economic crisis in 1991.
blished a paradigm shift
(B) In 1991, the economic and political
47. Read the following statements - and defined the broad
leadership launched a multipronged outlines of economic
Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
reforms agenda to repair the policymaking for years
Assertion (A): India’s pre-1990 economic macroeconomic situation of the to come.
strategy dismantles nation.
the vast network of From the given alternatives choose the
(C) In post 1991 situation, the state was
correct one:
controls and permits that given the role of primary regulator
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
dominated the economic of the economy.
(R) are true and Reason (R) is the
system. (D) Post pandemic, individual sectors
correct explanation of Assertion
Reason (R): T h e 1 9 9 1 r e f o r m s should be looked closely. Sectors (A).
unleashed the energies that need reforms should be
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
of Indian entrepreneurs, identified and corrective action
are true and Reason (R) is not the
gave untold choice to should be taken.
correct explanation of Assertion
consumers and changed 49. Read the following statements carefully: (A).
the face of the Indian Statement 1: 
Timing and sequencing (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason
economy. are critically important (R) is false.
From the given alternatives choose the in the post-economic (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason
correct one: reform agenda. (R) is true.
qq

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