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Weekly Test 07 _ Test Paper __ Lakshya JEE AIR Advanced (2025)

The document outlines the details for a JEE Advanced weekly test scheduled for February 27, 2025, with a duration of 180 minutes and a maximum score of 300 marks. It includes instructions for candidates regarding the test format, marking scheme, and OMR sheet guidelines, as well as a series of physics, chemistry, and mathematics questions. The test consists of 75 questions divided into three sections, each containing objective and integer-type questions.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
115 views

Weekly Test 07 _ Test Paper __ Lakshya JEE AIR Advanced (2025)

The document outlines the details for a JEE Advanced weekly test scheduled for February 27, 2025, with a duration of 180 minutes and a maximum score of 300 marks. It includes instructions for candidates regarding the test format, marking scheme, and OMR sheet guidelines, as well as a series of physics, chemistry, and mathematics questions. The test consists of 75 questions divided into three sections, each containing objective and integer-type questions.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Lakshya JEE AIR Advanced (2025) JEE

MAIN
Weekly Test - 07

DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 27/02/2025 M.MARKS : 300

Topics Covered
Physics: Full Syllabus

Chemistry: Full Syllabus

Mathematics: Full Syllabus

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are of
Objective Type and Last 5 questions are integers type and all 25 questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area
may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number: _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number: ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature: _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

[1]
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 5. Moment of inertia of a uniform hexagonal plate
1. If a particle have velocity and acceleration given about an axis LL’ is ‘I’ as shown in the figure. The
( ) ( )
3iˆ + 4 ˆj ms −1 , 4iˆ + 3 ˆj ms −2 respectively. What moment of inertia (about axis XX’) of an
equilateral uniform triangular plate of thickness
would be the rate of change of speed at that double that of the hexagonal plate is (Ratio of
instant? 
(1) 4.8 ms–2 (2) 5 ms–2 specific gravity t = 3) :
–2 h
(3) 3 ms (4) 4 ms–2

2. In the figure shown pulley string and spring are


massless and the system is in equilibrium. If the
string connected to the ground is cut, the
instantaneous acceleration of m1 mass is
I I
(1) (2)
5 10
(3) I (4) Zero

6. The dominant mechanisms for motion of charge


carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon p-n
junctions are
(1) drift in forward biased, diffusion in reverse
biased.
g g (2) diffusion in forward biased, drift in reverse
(1) (2)
2 3 biased.
m1 g (m2 − m1 ) g (3) diffusion in both forward and reverse biased.
(3) (4) (4) drift in both forward and reverse biased.
m2 m1

7. An air bubble of radius r rises steadily through a


3. In a nuclear reactor, moderators slow down the
liquid of density ρ at the rate of v. Neglecting density
neutrons which come out in a fission process.
of air, the coefficient of viscosity of liquid is
The moderators used have light nuclei. Heavy
nuclei will not solve the purpose because
(1) The net weight of the reactor would be
unbearably high.
(2) Heavy nuclei will break generating
unwanted smaller nuclei.
(3) Elastic collision of neutrons with heavy  r 2g 1 r 2g
(1) (2)
nuclei will not slow them down. 9 v 3 v
(4) Substances with heavy nuclei do not occur in 1 r 2g
liquid or gaseous state at room temperature. (3) (4) None of these
9 v

4. A spring block system with mass of block m and 8. An elastic wire of length l , area of cross-section A
spring constant K (all the surfaces of block are and Young’s modulus Y having left end fixed and
perfectly absorbing and smooth) is placed on a the other end is pulled by a constant force F, and
smooth horizontal plane as shown in the diagram the point of application of force is displaced by
at rest. A light beam of intensity I is switched on Δl. Then:
its right side. Find the amplitude of oscillations of F l
the block. (face area of block is A and c is the (1) Work done by force is
2
speed of light in vacuum)
(2) Elastic potential energy stored in the wire
FΔl
(3) Elastic potential energy stored in the wire
I 2I
(1) A (2) A 1
Kc Kc F l
3
4I
(3) A (4) Zero (4) Work done by force is FΔl
Kc
[2]
9. Two identical blocks of metal are at 20°C and C C
80°C respectively. The specific heat of the (1)  (2) 
L 2L
material of the two blocks increases with
2C C
temperature. Which of the following is true about (3)  (4) 
the final temperature Tf when the two blocks are L 3L
brought into contact? (assuming that no heat is
lost to the surroundings) 13. Electric potential is varying with x and y as V = 2
(1) Tf will be 50°C (x2 – y2). The corresponding field pattern is:
(2) Tf will be more than 50°C
(3) Tf will be less than 50°C
(4) Tf can be either more than or less than 50°C (1) (2)
depending on the precise variation of the
specific heat with temperature.

10. An ideal gas is taken through a process PT3 =


constant. The coefficient of thermal expansion of (3) (4)
the gas in the given process is (symbols have their
usual meaning)
(1) 1/T (2) 2/T
(3) 3/T (4) 4/T 14. Consider the circuits drawn below:

11. Consider a particle P moving on a circle of radius


‘A’ with a constant angular speed ‘ω’. RP and PQ
are ⊥ to X and Y axes respectively:

All the capacitors are identical, then


(1) CCD > CEF = CAB
(2) CCD > CEF > CAB
(3) CCD > CAB > CEF
(4) CEF > CCD > CAB
(1) The x-coordinate of the particle at time t is A
sin ωt 15. The mass of the three wire of copper are in the
(2) The particle has a non-zero displacement in a ratio 1 : 3 : 5, and their lengths are in ratio 5 : 3 :
time interval 2π/ω 1. The ratio of their electrical resistance is
(3) R and Q execute simple harmonic motion and (1) 1 : 3 : 5 (2) 5 : 3 : 1
their phases differ by π/2 (3) 1 : 15 : 125 (4) 125 : 15 : 1
(4) If the radius of the circle is doubled, the
phase difference between R and Q would also 16. The radiations emitted from a radioactive material
double separate into three distinct groups A, B and C
when a magnetic field is directed into the plane of
12. In the adjacent circuit, initially capacitors A and B
the paper. The names of radiations A, B and C,
are charged by voltage 2ε and ε respectively.
respectively, are (see figure)
Initial current through the inductor is zero and
switch ‘S’ is closed at t = 0. The maximum current
through the inductor is

(1) α, β and 
(2) α,  and β
(3) β, α and 
(4) , α and β

[3]
17. E, L, p and r are the energy, angular momentum, 19. A plane progressive electromagnetic wave
linear momentum and orbital radius of an travelling in vacuum along +z direction has a
electron in a atom corresponding to the quantum wavelength of 6 mm. The variation in the electric
number n. Then EprL is field occurs in x-direction with amplitude 50Vm–1.
(1) proportional to n2 The equation of electric field and magnetic field
(2) proportional to n. as a function of position and time are given by
(3) proportional to 1/n respectively:
(4) independent of n.  x
(1) (50 Vm –1 )cos(2  1011 s −1 )  t −  iˆ,
 c
18. A solid sphere of mass m = 80 kg and radius r =
5 −6  11 −1  x
0.2 m is released from height h = 5/4 meter.
3 
(
  10 T  cos 2  10 s  t −  ˆj
 c
)
Sphere is initially rotating about horizontal axis
 z
passing through its centre of mass. It hits with a (2) (50 Vm –1 )sin(  1011 s −1 )  t −  iˆ,
stationary cart of mass M = 200 kg exactly at the  c
5 −7  11 −1  z
centre of cart. The cart can move smoothly on the
horizontal surface. The collision between sphere 3 
(  c
)
  10 T  sin   10 s  t −  ˆj
and cart occurs in such a way that sphere reaches  x
at same vertical displacement after collision and (3) (50 Vm –1 )sin(  1011 s −1 )  t −  iˆ,
 c
falls back onto it again. It is found that sphere
 y
starts pure rolling at the end of first collision. The ( )
(6  106 T)sin   1011 s −1  t −  ˆj
 c 
coefficient of friction between sphere and cart is μ
 z
= 0.1. Match the statement given in Column-I to (4) (50 Vm –1 )cos(  1011 s −1 )  t +  iˆ,
the values given in Column-II.  c
 z
( )
(6  106 T)sin   108 s −1  t +  ˆj
 c

20. Choose the correct ray diagram of a thin equi-


convex lens which is cut as shown in the figure.

(1)

Column-I Column-II
A The minimum length (in P 172 (2)
meter) of cart to occur
second collision with the
sphere (3)
B Initial angular velocity ‘ω0’ Q 2.8
(in rad/sec) of sphere for
minimum length of cart (4)
C Magnitude of work done R 156
(in Joule) by sphere on the
cart during the process.
D Magnitude of work done S 19.5 Integer Type Questions
(in Joule) by cart on the 21. In a two slit experiment with monochromatic
sphere during the process light, fringes are obtained on a screen placed at
T 16 some distance from the plane of slits. If the
(1) A→Q; B→S; C→T; D→P screen is moved by 5 × 10–2 m towards the slits,
(2) A→P; B→R; C→P; D→R the change in fringe width is 3 × 10–5 cm. If the
(3) A→R; B→T; C→S; D→Q distance between the slits is 10–3 m, calculate the
(4) A→S; B→Q; C→S; D→P wavelength (in Å) of the light used.

[4]
22. A uniform disc of radius r and mass m is charged such that ball just complete one revolution after
uniformly with the charge q. This disc is placed x
the collision is m/s. Find the value of x.
flat on a rough horizontal surface having 27
coefficient of friction μ. A uniform magnetic field
is present in a circular region of radius a (> r) but
varying as kt3 as shown in figure. Find the time in
second after which the disc begins to rotate.
(Given r =1 m, m = 18 kg, q = 1C, μ = 0.1, k = 4,
g = 10 m/s2)

25. Uniform annular disc of inner radius 3R and outer


radius 4 3R and mass m, is placed directly above
a uniform hollow sphere of same mass and radius
2R. The centre of disc directly above the centre of
23. A force F = (3iˆ + 4 ˆj ) Newton acts on a particle the hollow sphere at a distance 4R as shown in
moving along a line 4y + kx = 3. The work done figure. The gravitational force exerted by the
by the force is zero if the value of k is Gm 2
hollow sphere on the disc will be . Find the
xR 2
24. An elastic ball of mass ‘m’ is suspended from a value of x
fixed point ‘O’ by an inextensible string of length
2m. A small particle of mass m moving downward
at angle of 37° with the vertical hits (head on) the
ball with v0. The coefficient of restitution for
collision is 4/5. The velocity of the particle v0

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 28. The major product of following reaction is
26. Match the pair of organic compounds given in
Column-I with the type of isomeric relation
shown by them given in Column-II
Column- I Column-II (1)
A CH – CH OH, CH – O – CH P Tautomers
3 2 3 3
B C H COC H , C H OCH Q Functional
2 5 2 5 3 7 3 isomers
C R Position
isomers
(2)

D CH CH CH OH, CH − CH − CH S Metamers
3 2 2 3 | 3
(3)
OH
(1) A→P; B→Q; C→R; D→S
(2) A→Q; B→S; C→P; D→R (4) None of these
(3) A→P; B→S; C→Q; D→R
(4) A→S; B→Q; C→R; D→P
29.
27. Acetone an heating with conc. H SO mainly
2 4
gives Compounds A and B can be differentiated by
(1) Mesitylene (1) 2, 4-DNP
(2) Mesityl oxide (2) Fehling solution
(3) Toluene (3) Lucas reagent
(4) Xylene (4) NaHSO3
[5]
33. The weight of a molecule of the compound
C60H122 is
30. (1) 1.4 × 10–21 g (2) 1.09 × 10–21 g
(3) 50.25 × 10–23 g (4) 16.023 × 10–23 g

34. The Schrodinger wave equation for hydrogen


The correct structure of A is
atom is
3/2
 Z
( )
(1) 1
 (r) =   ( − 1)  2 − 8 + 12  e − /2
n, 16 4  a 0   

2Zr
(2) Where a0 and Z are constants and  = .
a
0
The minimum and maximum position of radial
nodes from nucleus are, respectively,
a
(1) a ,3a (2) 0 ,a
(3)
0 0 2 0
a a
(3) 0 ,3a (4) 0 , 4a
2 0 2 0

(4) 35. Boron shows diagonal relationship with


(1) Li (2) Al
(3) Si (4) Mg

31. Given below are two statements: 36. The set of species in which all show sp3d
hybridisation is
Statement-1: Para methoxy aniline undergoes
(1) PF5 , IF5 , XeF4 (2) ClO−4 , IF7 , CO32−
faster diazotization than aniline.
Statement-2: Electron releasing group stabilizes (3) I3− , XeF2 ,SF4 (4) XeF6 , PF6− , ICl2+
diazonium salts
In the light of above statements, choose the 37. The number of electrons gained in the following
correct option ( )3
reaction Fe2 SO4 → Fe2+ + SO2 is
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(1) 2 (2) 1
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for (3) 5 (4) 8
Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; 38. If the enthalpy of combustion of benzene, carbon
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation and hydrogen are Q1 , Q2 and Q3 respectively,
for then what will be the enthalpy of formation of
Statement-1. benzene?
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement -2 is False (1) Q1 + 6Q2 + Q3 (2) 6Q1 + Q 2 + 3Q3
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True. (3) 6Q 2 − 3Q3 + Q1 (4) 6Q 2 + 3Q3 − Q1

32. Consider the following statements about lactose:


39. For the following equilibrium in a close container
(A) Lactose on hydrolysis yields equimolar
PCl ( g) PCl ( g) + Cl ( g)
5 3 2
mixture of D-glucose and D-galactose.
At constant temperature, the volume of the
(B) Lactose is a poly-saccharide.
container is halved suddenly. Which of the
(C) Lactose is a reducing sugar.
following is correct for K p and α?
(D) In lactose, the glycosidic linkage is between
C-1 of galactose and C-4 of glucose unit. (1) Both K p and α changes
Which of the above statements are correct? (2) Neither K p nor α changes
(1) B and D only (3) K p changes but α does not change
(2) A and D only
(4) α- changes but K p does not change
(3) B and C only
(4) A, C and D only

[6]
40. Iron exhibits + 2 and +3 oxidation states. Which k k
2 1
one of the following statements about iron is  k  k1 − k 2
(3) [A]t   1 
incorrect ?  k 2 
(1) Ferrous oxide is more basic in nature than k k
2 1
the ferric oxide  k  k1 − k 2
(4) [A]0   1 
(2) Ferrous compounds are relatively more ionic  k 2 
than the corresponding ferric compounds
(3) Ferrous compounds are less volatile than the
corresponding ferric compounds 45. The correct expression of standard cell potential
involving the given cell reaction, is
(4) Ferrous compounds are more easily
hydrolysed than the corresponding ferric In 2 + + Cu +2 → In +3 + Cu + , at 298 K
compounds.
 Given: E = X V, E 3+ + = X V 
 +2
Cu /Cu + 1 In /In 2 
 
41. A mixture of two salts is not water soluble but  E 2+ + = X V
In /In 3 
dissolves completely in dilute HCl to form a
colourless solution. The mixture could be (1) X1 + X3 − X 2
(1) AgNO3 and KBr
(2) BaCO3 & ZnS
(2) ( X1 + X3 − 2X2 ) / 3
(3) FeCl3 and CaCO3 (3) X1 + X3 − 2X 2
(4) Mn(NO3)2 + MgSO4 (4) X1 + X3 + 2X 2

42. Which of the following is a tetrahedral and


Integer Type Questions
paramagnetic complex?
2− 46.
(1)  NiCl4 
2−
(2)  Ni(CN)4 
How many sp3 hybridized atoms are present in
2+
(
(3) Cu NH3 
 )4  one molecule of the above hypothetical
compound?
(4)  Ni(CO)4 
47. The bond enthalpies of A2, AB and B2 are in the
ratio. 1 : 1 : 0.5 and the enthalpy of formation of
43. A solution of A and B with 30 mole percent of A
AB from A2 and B2 is –100 kJmol–1. If the bond
is in equilibrium with its vapour which contains
enthalpy of A2 is y × 102 kJ/mol then the value
60 mole percent of A. Assuming ideality of the
of y is _______.
solution and the vapour, the ratio of vapour
pressure of pure A to that of pure B will be
(1) 7 : 2 (2) 7 : 4 48. The number of stereoisomers possible for the
compound
(3) 4 : 7 (4) 1 : 2
CH − CH = CH − CH(OH) − CH is ________.
3 3
44. For the consecutive reaction
k k
A ⎯⎯
1
→ B ⎯⎯→
2
C 49. How many maximum number of products can
[B] will be equal to be formed in the following reaction?
max
HI
CH OC H ⎯⎯→ Products
k 3 2 5
2
 k  k1 − k 2
(1) [A]t   2 
 k1 
50. (
For the complex compound  Pt Br Cl NH3 Py 
 ) 
k
2
 k  k1 − k 2 total number of geometrical isomers will be
(2) [A]0   2
 ______.
 1 
k

[7]
SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 57. Match the following Column-I with Column-II
102 Column-I Column-II
51. 0 ( x − 1)( x − 2)( x − 100)
A f ( x) − 3 P 15
If lim =1 then
 1 1 1  x →3 x − 2
 + +   dx = p − q then
 x − 1 x − 2 x − 100  lim f ( x) is equal to
x →3
p + q is equal to
(1) 203 (2) 201 B The number of order pairs of Q 11
(3) 202 (4) 204 integers (x, y) satisfying the
equation x2 + 6x + y2 = 4 is
C Consider the graphs of y = R 8
52. Let z1 and z2 be roots of the equation z2 + 8(i – 1)z
sin x, y = cos x, y = tan x, y =
+ 63 – 16i = 0 where i2 = –1. The area of triangle
cot x, y=sec x and y = cosec x
formed by O, z1 and z2 (where O being origin) is
Let
equal to
  
(1) 24 (2) 26 R = ( x, y ) |0  x  ,0  y  100 
 2 
(3) 28 (4) 30
Number of points of R which
be on atleast two of the
53. If the complex number z = x + iy moves in argand
graph, is
plane such that 1 ≤ |x + iy| ≤ 2 and x – y ≤ 0 D Suppose that 2 − 95 is a S 7
where x, y ∈ R determines a region with area k
root of x2 + ax + b = 0 where
2 k /3
then value of the definite integral 0 {sin x}dx is b is negative real number and
a is a integer. The largest
equal to (where {k} represents fractional part of k)
possible value of a, is
(1) 0 (2) 1
T 4
(3) 2 (4) 3
(1) A → S; B → T; C → R; D → S
(2) A → T; B → R; C → Q; D → S
54. A circle passes through A (0, 4) and B (8, 0) has its
(3) A → S; B → P; C → R; D → T
centre on x-axis. If point C lies on the
(4) A → P; B → Q; C → Q; D → S
circumference of the circle and m is the greatest
area of triangle ABC, then m is equal to
58. Consider the circle C : x2 + y2 = 1 and the line L : y
(1) 10( 5 − 1) (2) 10( 5 + 1) = m(x+2). If L intersect C at P and Q, then locus of
(3) 20( 5 + 1) (4) 20( 5 − 1) middle point of PQ is
(1) (x + 1)2 + y2 = 1
55. If x, y, z are integers in AP, lying between 1 and 9, (2) x2 + (y – 1)2 = 1
and x51, y41 and z31 are three-digit numbers then (3) (x – 1)2 + y2 = 1
5 4 3 (4) x2 + (y + 1)2 = 1
the value of x51 y 41 z31 is
2x
x y z 59. If 2 tan −1 x + sin −1 is independent of x then
1 + x2
(1) x+y+z (1) x [1, ]
(2) x–y+z
(2) x [−1, 1]
(3) 0
(3) x [−,0]
(4) None of these
(4) None of these
 sin x   2sin 2 x  10sin10 x 
56. Let f ( x) =   +  + +   60. The vertex of a parabola is (a, 0) and the directrix
 x   x   x 
is x + y = 3a. The equation of the parabola is
where [y] is the greatest integer function. The value
(1) x2 + 2xy + y2 + 6ax + 10ay + 7a2 = 0
of lim f ( x) is equal to
x →0 (2) x2 – 2xy + y2 + 6ax + 10ay + 2a2 = 0
(1) 55 (2) 164 (3) x2 – 2xy + y2 – 6ax + 10ay = 2a2
(3) 165 (4) 375 (4) None of these

[8]
61. Let g : R → R be a differentiable function such that 68. Rajdhani express stops at six intermediate stations
4 between Kota and Mumbai. Five passengers board
 g (2 − x 2 )  x2 at Kota. Each passenger can get down at any
g(2) = – 40 and g′(2) = –5 then lim  
x→0  station till Mumbai. The probability that all five
 g (2)  passengers will get down at different stations, is
is equal to 6 6
P5 C5
(1) e32 (2) e (1) 5
(2)
1 6 65
(3) (4) e–5 7
P5 7
C5
e (3) (4)
5
7 75
62. Let f : [0, 1] → R be a differentiable function with f
1/ n 69. If [.] denotes the greatest integer function then the
(0) = 0, then lim n 2  f (t )dt equals domain of the real valued function
n→ 0
1 log[ x +1/2] | x − x − 2 | is
2

(1) f (0) (2) f ′(0)


2 3  3 
(1)  ,   (2)  , 2   (2, )
(3) 2 f ′(0) (4) 0 2  2 
1 
x (3)  , 2   (2, ) (4) None of these
63. If f ( x) = be a real-valued function 2 
x +1 − x
then 70. The minimum value of the function
(1) f (x) is continuous, but f ’ (0) does not exist
x d  /2 d   
f ( x) = 
0 cos  x sin 
(2) f (x) is differentiable at x = 0 + where x   0,  , is
(3) f (x) is not continuous at x = 0  2
(4) f (x) is not differentiable at x = 0 (1) 2ln( 2 + 1) (2) ln(2 2 + 2)
(3) ln(2 + 3) (4) ln(3 + 2)
 r (r − 1) ( 10 Cr ) = k  29 , then k is equal to
10
64. If
r =1 Integer Type Questions
(1) 10 (2) 45  
1 1 3a
(3) 90 (4) 100 71. If a =  2 , b =  , then is equal to
r =1 (2r − 1)
2 b
r =1 r
65. If A and B are square matrices of order 3 where ________.
|A| = –2 and |B| = 1 then |(A–1) adj (B–1) adj (2A–1)|
is equal to 72. Let f : R → R defined by f (x) = sin x + x if
(1) 8 (2) –8  2
(3) 1 (4) –1 0 f −1 ( x)dx = − k , then the value of k is ____.
2
66. If f (x) = a loge |x| + bx2 + x has extremums at x = 1
73. The figures 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 are written in every
and x = 3 then
possible order. The number of numbers greater
3 1 3 1
(1) a = − , b = − (2) a = , b = − than 56000 is equal to ________.
4 8 4 8
3 1 74. Let y = g(x) be the image of f (x) = x + sin x about
(3) a = − , b = (4) None of these
4 8 the line x + y = 0. If the area bounded by y = g(x),
A
x-axis, x = 0 and x = 2π is A, then 2 is
x2 y 2 
67. A point P on the ellipse + = 1 has the
25 9 ________.
 x2 y 2
eccentric angle . The sum of the distance of P 75. The foci of the ellipse + = 1 and the
8 16 b2
from the two foci is x2 y2 1
(1) 5 (2) 6 hyperbola − = coincide. Then the value
(3) 10 (4) 3 144 81 25
of b2 is

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