Weekly Test 07 _ Test Paper __ Lakshya JEE AIR Advanced (2025)
Weekly Test 07 _ Test Paper __ Lakshya JEE AIR Advanced (2025)
MAIN
Weekly Test - 07
DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 27/02/2025 M.MARKS : 300
Topics Covered
Physics: Full Syllabus
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are of
Objective Type and Last 5 questions are integers type and all 25 questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area
may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
[1]
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 5. Moment of inertia of a uniform hexagonal plate
1. If a particle have velocity and acceleration given about an axis LL’ is ‘I’ as shown in the figure. The
( ) ( )
3iˆ + 4 ˆj ms −1 , 4iˆ + 3 ˆj ms −2 respectively. What moment of inertia (about axis XX’) of an
equilateral uniform triangular plate of thickness
would be the rate of change of speed at that double that of the hexagonal plate is (Ratio of
instant?
(1) 4.8 ms–2 (2) 5 ms–2 specific gravity t = 3) :
–2 h
(3) 3 ms (4) 4 ms–2
4. A spring block system with mass of block m and 8. An elastic wire of length l , area of cross-section A
spring constant K (all the surfaces of block are and Young’s modulus Y having left end fixed and
perfectly absorbing and smooth) is placed on a the other end is pulled by a constant force F, and
smooth horizontal plane as shown in the diagram the point of application of force is displaced by
at rest. A light beam of intensity I is switched on Δl. Then:
its right side. Find the amplitude of oscillations of F l
the block. (face area of block is A and c is the (1) Work done by force is
2
speed of light in vacuum)
(2) Elastic potential energy stored in the wire
FΔl
(3) Elastic potential energy stored in the wire
I 2I
(1) A (2) A 1
Kc Kc F l
3
4I
(3) A (4) Zero (4) Work done by force is FΔl
Kc
[2]
9. Two identical blocks of metal are at 20°C and C C
80°C respectively. The specific heat of the (1) (2)
L 2L
material of the two blocks increases with
2C C
temperature. Which of the following is true about (3) (4)
the final temperature Tf when the two blocks are L 3L
brought into contact? (assuming that no heat is
lost to the surroundings) 13. Electric potential is varying with x and y as V = 2
(1) Tf will be 50°C (x2 – y2). The corresponding field pattern is:
(2) Tf will be more than 50°C
(3) Tf will be less than 50°C
(4) Tf can be either more than or less than 50°C (1) (2)
depending on the precise variation of the
specific heat with temperature.
(1) α, β and
(2) α, and β
(3) β, α and
(4) , α and β
[3]
17. E, L, p and r are the energy, angular momentum, 19. A plane progressive electromagnetic wave
linear momentum and orbital radius of an travelling in vacuum along +z direction has a
electron in a atom corresponding to the quantum wavelength of 6 mm. The variation in the electric
number n. Then EprL is field occurs in x-direction with amplitude 50Vm–1.
(1) proportional to n2 The equation of electric field and magnetic field
(2) proportional to n. as a function of position and time are given by
(3) proportional to 1/n respectively:
(4) independent of n. x
(1) (50 Vm –1 )cos(2 1011 s −1 ) t − iˆ,
c
18. A solid sphere of mass m = 80 kg and radius r =
5 −6 11 −1 x
0.2 m is released from height h = 5/4 meter.
3
(
10 T cos 2 10 s t − ˆj
c
)
Sphere is initially rotating about horizontal axis
z
passing through its centre of mass. It hits with a (2) (50 Vm –1 )sin( 1011 s −1 ) t − iˆ,
stationary cart of mass M = 200 kg exactly at the c
5 −7 11 −1 z
centre of cart. The cart can move smoothly on the
horizontal surface. The collision between sphere 3
( c
)
10 T sin 10 s t − ˆj
and cart occurs in such a way that sphere reaches x
at same vertical displacement after collision and (3) (50 Vm –1 )sin( 1011 s −1 ) t − iˆ,
c
falls back onto it again. It is found that sphere
y
starts pure rolling at the end of first collision. The ( )
(6 106 T)sin 1011 s −1 t − ˆj
c
coefficient of friction between sphere and cart is μ
z
= 0.1. Match the statement given in Column-I to (4) (50 Vm –1 )cos( 1011 s −1 ) t + iˆ,
the values given in Column-II. c
z
( )
(6 106 T)sin 108 s −1 t + ˆj
c
(1)
Column-I Column-II
A The minimum length (in P 172 (2)
meter) of cart to occur
second collision with the
sphere (3)
B Initial angular velocity ‘ω0’ Q 2.8
(in rad/sec) of sphere for
minimum length of cart (4)
C Magnitude of work done R 156
(in Joule) by sphere on the
cart during the process.
D Magnitude of work done S 19.5 Integer Type Questions
(in Joule) by cart on the 21. In a two slit experiment with monochromatic
sphere during the process light, fringes are obtained on a screen placed at
T 16 some distance from the plane of slits. If the
(1) A→Q; B→S; C→T; D→P screen is moved by 5 × 10–2 m towards the slits,
(2) A→P; B→R; C→P; D→R the change in fringe width is 3 × 10–5 cm. If the
(3) A→R; B→T; C→S; D→Q distance between the slits is 10–3 m, calculate the
(4) A→S; B→Q; C→S; D→P wavelength (in Å) of the light used.
[4]
22. A uniform disc of radius r and mass m is charged such that ball just complete one revolution after
uniformly with the charge q. This disc is placed x
the collision is m/s. Find the value of x.
flat on a rough horizontal surface having 27
coefficient of friction μ. A uniform magnetic field
is present in a circular region of radius a (> r) but
varying as kt3 as shown in figure. Find the time in
second after which the disc begins to rotate.
(Given r =1 m, m = 18 kg, q = 1C, μ = 0.1, k = 4,
g = 10 m/s2)
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 28. The major product of following reaction is
26. Match the pair of organic compounds given in
Column-I with the type of isomeric relation
shown by them given in Column-II
Column- I Column-II (1)
A CH – CH OH, CH – O – CH P Tautomers
3 2 3 3
B C H COC H , C H OCH Q Functional
2 5 2 5 3 7 3 isomers
C R Position
isomers
(2)
D CH CH CH OH, CH − CH − CH S Metamers
3 2 2 3 | 3
(3)
OH
(1) A→P; B→Q; C→R; D→S
(2) A→Q; B→S; C→P; D→R (4) None of these
(3) A→P; B→S; C→Q; D→R
(4) A→S; B→Q; C→R; D→P
29.
27. Acetone an heating with conc. H SO mainly
2 4
gives Compounds A and B can be differentiated by
(1) Mesitylene (1) 2, 4-DNP
(2) Mesityl oxide (2) Fehling solution
(3) Toluene (3) Lucas reagent
(4) Xylene (4) NaHSO3
[5]
33. The weight of a molecule of the compound
C60H122 is
30. (1) 1.4 × 10–21 g (2) 1.09 × 10–21 g
(3) 50.25 × 10–23 g (4) 16.023 × 10–23 g
2Zr
(2) Where a0 and Z are constants and = .
a
0
The minimum and maximum position of radial
nodes from nucleus are, respectively,
a
(1) a ,3a (2) 0 ,a
(3)
0 0 2 0
a a
(3) 0 ,3a (4) 0 , 4a
2 0 2 0
31. Given below are two statements: 36. The set of species in which all show sp3d
hybridisation is
Statement-1: Para methoxy aniline undergoes
(1) PF5 , IF5 , XeF4 (2) ClO−4 , IF7 , CO32−
faster diazotization than aniline.
Statement-2: Electron releasing group stabilizes (3) I3− , XeF2 ,SF4 (4) XeF6 , PF6− , ICl2+
diazonium salts
In the light of above statements, choose the 37. The number of electrons gained in the following
correct option ( )3
reaction Fe2 SO4 → Fe2+ + SO2 is
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(1) 2 (2) 1
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for (3) 5 (4) 8
Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; 38. If the enthalpy of combustion of benzene, carbon
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation and hydrogen are Q1 , Q2 and Q3 respectively,
for then what will be the enthalpy of formation of
Statement-1. benzene?
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement -2 is False (1) Q1 + 6Q2 + Q3 (2) 6Q1 + Q 2 + 3Q3
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True. (3) 6Q 2 − 3Q3 + Q1 (4) 6Q 2 + 3Q3 − Q1
[6]
40. Iron exhibits + 2 and +3 oxidation states. Which k k
2 1
one of the following statements about iron is k k1 − k 2
(3) [A]t 1
incorrect ? k 2
(1) Ferrous oxide is more basic in nature than k k
2 1
the ferric oxide k k1 − k 2
(4) [A]0 1
(2) Ferrous compounds are relatively more ionic k 2
than the corresponding ferric compounds
(3) Ferrous compounds are less volatile than the
corresponding ferric compounds 45. The correct expression of standard cell potential
involving the given cell reaction, is
(4) Ferrous compounds are more easily
hydrolysed than the corresponding ferric In 2 + + Cu +2 → In +3 + Cu + , at 298 K
compounds.
Given: E = X V, E 3+ + = X V
+2
Cu /Cu + 1 In /In 2
41. A mixture of two salts is not water soluble but E 2+ + = X V
In /In 3
dissolves completely in dilute HCl to form a
colourless solution. The mixture could be (1) X1 + X3 − X 2
(1) AgNO3 and KBr
(2) BaCO3 & ZnS
(2) ( X1 + X3 − 2X2 ) / 3
(3) FeCl3 and CaCO3 (3) X1 + X3 − 2X 2
(4) Mn(NO3)2 + MgSO4 (4) X1 + X3 + 2X 2
[7]
SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 57. Match the following Column-I with Column-II
102 Column-I Column-II
51. 0 ( x − 1)( x − 2)( x − 100)
A f ( x) − 3 P 15
If lim =1 then
1 1 1 x →3 x − 2
+ + dx = p − q then
x − 1 x − 2 x − 100 lim f ( x) is equal to
x →3
p + q is equal to
(1) 203 (2) 201 B The number of order pairs of Q 11
(3) 202 (4) 204 integers (x, y) satisfying the
equation x2 + 6x + y2 = 4 is
C Consider the graphs of y = R 8
52. Let z1 and z2 be roots of the equation z2 + 8(i – 1)z
sin x, y = cos x, y = tan x, y =
+ 63 – 16i = 0 where i2 = –1. The area of triangle
cot x, y=sec x and y = cosec x
formed by O, z1 and z2 (where O being origin) is
Let
equal to
(1) 24 (2) 26 R = ( x, y ) |0 x ,0 y 100
2
(3) 28 (4) 30
Number of points of R which
be on atleast two of the
53. If the complex number z = x + iy moves in argand
graph, is
plane such that 1 ≤ |x + iy| ≤ 2 and x – y ≤ 0 D Suppose that 2 − 95 is a S 7
where x, y ∈ R determines a region with area k
root of x2 + ax + b = 0 where
2 k /3
then value of the definite integral 0 {sin x}dx is b is negative real number and
a is a integer. The largest
equal to (where {k} represents fractional part of k)
possible value of a, is
(1) 0 (2) 1
T 4
(3) 2 (4) 3
(1) A → S; B → T; C → R; D → S
(2) A → T; B → R; C → Q; D → S
54. A circle passes through A (0, 4) and B (8, 0) has its
(3) A → S; B → P; C → R; D → T
centre on x-axis. If point C lies on the
(4) A → P; B → Q; C → Q; D → S
circumference of the circle and m is the greatest
area of triangle ABC, then m is equal to
58. Consider the circle C : x2 + y2 = 1 and the line L : y
(1) 10( 5 − 1) (2) 10( 5 + 1) = m(x+2). If L intersect C at P and Q, then locus of
(3) 20( 5 + 1) (4) 20( 5 − 1) middle point of PQ is
(1) (x + 1)2 + y2 = 1
55. If x, y, z are integers in AP, lying between 1 and 9, (2) x2 + (y – 1)2 = 1
and x51, y41 and z31 are three-digit numbers then (3) (x – 1)2 + y2 = 1
5 4 3 (4) x2 + (y + 1)2 = 1
the value of x51 y 41 z31 is
2x
x y z 59. If 2 tan −1 x + sin −1 is independent of x then
1 + x2
(1) x+y+z (1) x [1, ]
(2) x–y+z
(2) x [−1, 1]
(3) 0
(3) x [−,0]
(4) None of these
(4) None of these
sin x 2sin 2 x 10sin10 x
56. Let f ( x) = + + + 60. The vertex of a parabola is (a, 0) and the directrix
x x x
is x + y = 3a. The equation of the parabola is
where [y] is the greatest integer function. The value
(1) x2 + 2xy + y2 + 6ax + 10ay + 7a2 = 0
of lim f ( x) is equal to
x →0 (2) x2 – 2xy + y2 + 6ax + 10ay + 2a2 = 0
(1) 55 (2) 164 (3) x2 – 2xy + y2 – 6ax + 10ay = 2a2
(3) 165 (4) 375 (4) None of these
[8]
61. Let g : R → R be a differentiable function such that 68. Rajdhani express stops at six intermediate stations
4 between Kota and Mumbai. Five passengers board
g (2 − x 2 ) x2 at Kota. Each passenger can get down at any
g(2) = – 40 and g′(2) = –5 then lim
x→0 station till Mumbai. The probability that all five
g (2) passengers will get down at different stations, is
is equal to 6 6
P5 C5
(1) e32 (2) e (1) 5
(2)
1 6 65
(3) (4) e–5 7
P5 7
C5
e (3) (4)
5
7 75
62. Let f : [0, 1] → R be a differentiable function with f
1/ n 69. If [.] denotes the greatest integer function then the
(0) = 0, then lim n 2 f (t )dt equals domain of the real valued function
n→ 0
1 log[ x +1/2] | x − x − 2 | is
2
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[9]