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Questions and Answers
SCIENCE
Class - X
(2024 - 25)
CONTENT
SL NO. TOPIC PAGE NO.
CHEMISTRY
1. Chemical Reactions and Equations ............................................ 01 - 23
2. Acids, Bases and Salts ............................................................... 24 - 49
3. Metals & Non-Metals ................................................................. 50 - 78
4. Carbon and its Compounds ......................................................... 79 - 110
BIOLOGY
5. Life processes ............................................................................. 111 - 127
6. Control and Coordination ............................................................ 128 - 146
7. How do Organisms Reproduce ................................................... 147 - 175
8. Heredity and Evolution ............................................................... 176 - 197
9. Our Environment ......................................................................... 198 - 215
PHYSICS
10. Light-Reflection and Refraction .................................................. 216 - 266
11. Human Eye and Colourful World ................................................ 267 - 289
12. Electricity ................................................................................... 290 - 331
13. Magnetic effect of electric current .............................................. 332 - 353
TOPIC : CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
Multiple-Choice Type Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
1. Some crystals of copper sulphate were dissolved in water. The colour of the solution obtained would be
(A) green (B) red (C) blue (D) brown.
A. (C) blue
2. When dilute HCl is added to zinc pieces taken in a test tube
(A) No change takes place
(B) the colour of the solution becomes yellow.
(C) A pungent smelling gas gets liberated.
(D) small bubbles of H2 gas appear on the surface of zinc pieces
A. (D) small bubbles of H2 gas appear on the surface of zinc pieces.
3. PbS reacts with ozone (O3) and forms PbSO4. As per the balanced equation, molecules of ozone required for
every one molecule of PbS is / are
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
A. (A) 4
4. Chemically rust is
(A) Hydrated ferrous oxide (B) hydrated ferric oxide
(C) only ferric oxide (D) none of these
A. (B) hydrated ferric oxide
5. Which of the following reactions is not correct
(A) Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu
(B) 2Ag + Cu(NO3)2 2AgNO3 + Cu
(C) Fe + CuSO4 FeSO4 + Cu
(D) Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2
A. (B) 2Ag + Cu(NO3)2 2AgNO3 + Cu
6. Copper displaces which of the following metals from its salt solution:
(A) ZnSO4 (B) FeSO4 (C) AgNO3 (D) NiSO4
A. (C) AgNO3
1
7. In an electrolytic cell where electrolysis is carried, anode has:
(A) Positive change (B) Negative charge
(C) Connected to negative terminal of the battery (D) None of these is correct.
A. (A) Positive change
8. The reaction H2 + Cl2 2HCl represents :
(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction (C) Decomposition (D) Combination
A. (D) Combination
9. In the reaction PbO + C Pb + CO
(A) PbO is oxidised (B) C act as an oxidising agent
(C) C act as a reducing agent (D) Reaction does not represent redox reaction.
A. (C) C act as a reducing agent
10. A substance which oxidizes itself and reduces other is known as
(A) Oxidising agent (B) reducing agent
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these.
A. (B) reducing agent
11. Take about 5 ml of dil. HCl in a test tube and add a few pieces of Zinc granules to it. Which gas is evolved?
(A) Chlorine (B) Hydrogen (C) HCl (D) Nitrogen
A. (B) Hydrogen
12. Dissolving sugar in water is an example of-
(A) Physical change (B) Chemical change (C) Redox Reaction (D) None of these.
A. (A) Physical change
13. Heat is evolved during
(A) Endothermic Reaction (B) Displacement Reaction
(C) Combustion Reaction (D) Combination Reaction
A. (C) Combustion Reaction
14. Which of the following is not a balanced equation?
(A) Fe + Cl2 FeCl3 (B) Mg + CuSO4 MgSO4 + Cu
(C) NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O (D) Zn + S ZnS
A. (A) Fe + Cl2 FeCl3
2
15. The reaction between lead nitrate and potassium iodide present in aqueous solutions is an example of
(A) Decomposition Reaction
(B) Displacement Reaction
(C) Double Displacement Reaction
(D) Neutralisation Reaction
A. (C) Double Displacement Reaction
16. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filling?
(A) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(B) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced
(C) No reaction takes place
(D) Iron salt and water are produced
A. (A) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
B. ASSERTION-REASONING
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
17. Assertion (A) : Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is an example of exothermic reactions.
Reason (R) : Exothermic reaction are those reactions in which heat is evolved.
A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
18. Assertion (A) : When HCl is added to zinc granules, a chemical reaction occurs.
Reason (R) : Evolution of a gas and change in colour indicate that the chemical reaction is taking place.
A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
19. Assertion (A) : Calcium carbonate when heated gives calcium oxide and water.
Reason (R) : On heating calcium carbonate, decomposition reaction takes place.
A. (d) A is false but R is true.
20. Assertion (A) : Brown fumes are produced when lead nitrate is heated.
Reason (R) : Nitrogen dioxide gas is produced as a by product due to the decomposition of lead nitrate.
A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
3
21. Assertion (A) : White silver chloride turns grey in sunlight.
Reason (R) : Decomposition of silver chloride in presence of sunlight takes place to form silver metal and
chlorine gas.
A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
22. Assertion (A): Pungent smelling gas is produced when sulphur burns in air.
Reason (R) : Sulphur trioxide is formed on reaction of sulphur with oxygen.
A. (c) A is true but R is false.
23. Assertion (A) : In a reaction of copper with oxygen, copper serves as a reducing agent.
Reason (R) : The substance which gains oxygen in a chemical reaction acts as a reducing agent.
A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
24. Assertion (A) : In electrolysis of water, the volume of hydrogen liberated is twice the volume of oxygen formed.
Reason (R) : Water (H,0) has hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 1:2 by volume.
A. (c) A is true but R is false.
25. Assertion (A): Corrosion of iron is commonly known as rusting.
Reason (R) : Corrosion of iron occurs in presence of water and air.
A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
26. Assertion (A) : The balancing of chemical equations is based on law of conservation of mass.
Reason (R) : Total mass of reactants is equal to total mass of products.
A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
27. Assertion (A): In a balanced chemical equation, total mass of the reactants is equal to the total mass of the
products.
Reason (R): Mass can neither be created nor destroyed during a chemical change.
A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
28. Assertion (A): Iron articles are painted so as to prevent them from rusting.
Reason (R): When the surface of iron is coated with paint, its surface does not come in contact with oxygen
and moisture therefore rusting does not take place.
A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
29. Assertion (A) : Chemical reaction changes the physical and chemical state of a substance.
Reason (R) : When electric current is passed through water (liquid), it decomposes to produce hydrogen and
oxygen gases.
A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
30. Assertion (A) : When calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes to give calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
Reason (R) : The decomposition reaction takes place on application of heat, therefore, it is an endothermic
reaction.
A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
4
31. Assertion (A) : Zinc reacts with sulphuric acid to form zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas and it is a displacement
reaction.
Reason (R) : Zinc reacts with oxygen to form zinc oxide.
A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
32. Assertion (A): Chips manufacturers usually Ilush bags of chips with gas such as nitrogen to prevent the chips
from getting oxidised.
Reason (R): This increase the taste ot the chips and helps in their digestion.
A. (c) A is true but R is false.
33. Assertion (A) : Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to the formation of
silver by decomposition of silver chloride.
Reason (R) : In this process, sublimation of silver chloride takes place.
A. (c) A is true but R is false.
34. Assertion (A) : Rusting of iron metal is the most common form of corrosion.
Reason (R) : The effect of rusting of iron can be reversed if they are left open in sunlight.
A. (c) A is true but R is false.
35. Assertion (A) : AgBr is used on photographic and X-ray film.
Reason (R) : AgBr is photosensitive and changes to Ag and bromine in presence of sunlight and undergoes
decomposition reaction.
A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
36. Assertion (A) : Magnesium ribbon keeps on burning in atmosphere of nitrogen.
Reason (R) : Magnesium reacts with nitrogen to form magnesium nitride and this reaction is combination
reaction.
A. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
37. Assertion (A) : A lead nitrate on thermal decomposition gives lead oxide, brown coloured nitrogen dioxide and
oxygen gas.
Reason (R) : Lead nitrate reacts with potassium iodide to form yellow ppt. of lead iodide and the reaction is
double displacement as well as precipitation reaction.
A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
38. Assertion (A) : The colour of aqueous solution of copper sulphate turns colourless when a piece of lead is
added to it.
Reason (R) : Lead is more reactive than copper, and hence displaces copper from its salt solution.
[2023]
A. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
C. Very Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks each)
1. What happens when a glass of milk is left at room temperature during summers? Is it a physical or chemical
change?
5
A. It undergoes curdling and converts into curd-cheese.
It is a chemical change.
2. What happens when magnesium ribbon burns in air?
A. It burns with a dazzling white flame and changes into a white powder.
3. Giving an example, list two informations which make a chemical reaction more useful (informative).
A. (a) Physical states of reactants and products in chemical reaction likes -
(a) for aqueous, (aq)
(s) for solid, (s)
(l) for liquid, ( )
(g) for gas, (g)
(b) Representation of precipitate formation () and gas formation ()
Ex- 2KI (aq.) + Pb(NO3)2 (aq.) 2KNO3 (aq.) + PbI2 ()
CaCO3(s)
CaO(s) + CO2 ()
4. Write a balanced chemical equation with state and symbols for following reactions :
(i) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble barium sulphate and the
solution of sodium chloride.
(ii) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with hydrochloric acid solution (in water) to produce sodium
chloride solution and water.
A. (i) BaCl2 (aq.) + Na2SO4 (aq.) BaSO4 () + 2NaCl (aq.)
(ii) NaOH (aq.) + HCl (aq.) NaCl (aq.) + H2O ()
5. (i) What happens when hydrogen gas burns in the presence of oxygen ?
(ii) What happens when calcium burns in the presence of chlorine? Write balanced chemical equation.
A. (i) H2 (g) reacts with O2 (g) to form H2O () and releases heat.
2H2 (g) O2 (g) 2H2O() Heat light
(ii) Calcium reacts vigorously with chlorine to obtain calcium chloride.
Ca (s) + Cl2 (g)
CaCl2 (s)
6. Aluminium burns in chlorine to form aluminium chloride, a solid. Write a balanced equation for the reaction.
A. 2Al (s) + 3Cl2(g) 2AlCl3(s)
6
7. Balance the given chemical equations :
(i) Al(s) + CuCl2(aq) AlCl3(aq) + Cu(s) (ii) FeSO4(s) Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + SO3(g)
A. (i) 2Al (s) + 3CuCl2 (aq.) 2AlCl3 (aq.) + 3Cu (s)
(ii) 2FeSO4 (s) Fe2O3 (s) + SO2 (g) + SO3 (g)
8. A white salt on heating decomposes to give brown fumes and a residue is left behind.
(i) Name the salt (ii) Write the equation for the reaction
A. (i) Lead nitrate
heat
(ii) 2Pb(NO3 )2 (s) 2PbO(s) 4NO2 (g) O2 (g)
Brown
9. A reddish brown metal ‘X’ does not react with dilute sulphuric acid but reacts with conc. H2SO4 on heating and
liberates a pungent smelling gas (Y) and the solution becomes blue in colour (Z). Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ and
write the balanced chemical equation involved.
A. Cu(s) 2H2SO 4 (aq.) CuSO 4 (aq.) SO2 (g) 2H2O( )
X Z Y
Hence,
X is Cu (Reddish brown metal)
Y is SO2 (Pungent smell)
Z is aqueous solution of CuSO4 (Blue in colour)
10. A black coloured solid ‘A’ reacts with conc. hydrochloric acid to form ‘B’ and a pungent smelling gas ‘C’.
Identify A, B and C. Which of them is oxidising and which one is reducing agent? Name the type of reaction.
A. MnO2 (solid) 4HCl(conc.) MnCl2 Cl2 2H2O
A (Black ) B C
Hence,
A is MnO2 (Black solid)
B is MnCl2
C is Cl2 (Pungent smell)
MnO2 is oxidising agent
HCl is reducing agent
This is a redox reaction as well as neutralisation reaction.
11. What happens chemically, when quick lime is added to water filled in a bucket ?
A. Quick lime (CaO) reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime [Ca(OH)2], releasing a large amount of
heat.
7
12. What change in colour is observed, when white silver chloride is left exposed to sunlight ? State the type of
chemical reaction in this change.
A. 2AgCl (s)
sunlight
2Ag (s) + Cl2 (g)
White Grey
It changes from white to grey colour.
It is a photodecomposition reaction.
13. In the electrolysis of water, why the volume of gas collected over one electrode is double than the gas collected
over the other electrode ?
A. Electrolysis of water produces two volumes of hydrogen and one volume of oxygen gas because the ratio of
hydrogen and oxygen in water is 2 : 1 by volume.
Electrolytic
2H2O ()
decomposition 2H2 (g) + O2 (g)
14. Name the reducing agent in the following reaction. 3MnO2 + 4AI 3Mn + 2AI2O3
State which is more reactive, Mn or AI and why ?
A. MnO2 is reduced by Al. So, Al is the reducing agent.
‘Al’ is more reactive because it displaces Mn from MnO2.
15. What is the colour of ferrous sulphate crystals? How does this colour change after heating ? Write the chemical
reaction involved.
A. Ferrous sulphate crystal is green coloured.
After heating it changes to colourless. Further heating changes colour to brown.
2FeSO 7H O( s)
4 2
14H2O
2FeSO4 (s) Fe2O3 (s) SO2 (g) SO3 (g)
Ferrous sulphate hydrated Anhydrous Ferric oxide Sulphur dioxide Sulphur trioxide
Green ferrous sulphate Reddish brown Colourless gas
16. Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following reactions :
(i) 4Na(s) + O2(g) 2Na2O(s) (ii) CuO(s) + H2(g) Cu(s) + H2O()
A. (i) Na is oxidised and O2 is reduced
(ii) H2 is oxidised and CuO is reduced
17. What is an oxidation reaction? Identify in the following reaction : ZnO + C Zn + CO
(i) The substance oxidised and (ii) the substance reduced
A. The additon of oxygen to a substance or removal of hydrogen from a substance in a chemical reaction, is
known as oxidation reaction.
(i) C is oxidised into CO
(ii) ZnO is reduced into Zn
8
18. Give an example of decomposition reaction. Describe an activity to illustrate such a reaction by heating.
A. When calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes to calcium oxide and carbon dioxide
heat
CaCO 3 (s) CaO(s) CO 2 g
Limestone Quick lim e
19. Identify the reducing agent in the following reactions :
(i) 4NH3 + 5O2 4NO + 6H2O (ii) H2O + F2 HF + HOF
(iii) Fe2O3 + 3CO 2Fe + 3CO2 (iv) 2H2 + O2 2H2O
A. (i) NH3
(ii) H2O
(iii) CO
(iv) H2
20. You are provided with two containers made up of copper and aluminium. You are also provided with solution of
dil HCl, dilute HNO3, ZnCl2 and H2O. In which of the above containers these solutions can be kept?
A. (i) Dilute HCl, ZnCl2 and H2O can be kept in copper container but dilute HNO3 can not be kept in copper
container.
(ii) Dilute HNO3 and water can be kept in aluminium container but dilute HCl and ZnCl2 cannot be kept in
aluminium container.
21. What is rancidity? Mention two ways by which rancidity can be prevented.
A. The condition produced by aerial oxidation of fats and oils in foods marked by unpleasant smell and taste is
called rancidity. Rancidity can be prevented by
(a) storing food away from light.
(b) storing food in air tight container.
22. Which of the following statements is correct and why ?
(a) Copper can displace silver from silver nitrate solution and (b) Silver can displace copper from copper
sulphate solution.
A. Statement (a) is correct because copper is more reactive or better reducing agent than silver.
23. What is observed when a solution of sodium sulphate is added to a solution of barium chloride taken in a test
tube ? Write equation for the chemical reaction involved and name the type of reaction in this case.
[Year - 2018]
A. When sodium sulphate (Na2SO4) is added to barium chloride (BaCl2) solution, a precipitate of barium sulphate
(BaSO4) and soluble Sodium Chloride (NaCl) is formed.
9
BaCl 2 Na 2SO4 BaSO 4 2NaCl
(Barium chloride) (Sodium sulphate) (Barium sulphate) (Sodium Chloride)
(Pr ecipitate)
This type of reaction is called as double displacement or precipitation reaction.
24. Silver articles become black when kept in open for some time, whereas copper vessels lose their shiny brown
surfaces and gain a green coat when kept in open. Name the substances present in air with which these metals
react and write the name of the products formed. [Year - 2019]
A. Silver reacts with hydrogen sulphide present in air to form silver sulphide, which forms a black coating on silver
articles whereas, copper reacts with CO2 , O2 and moisture present in air to form green coloured coating of
basic Copper Carbonate (CuCO3.Cu(OH)2)
25. What is observed after about 1 hour of adding the strips of copper and aluminium separately to ferrous sulphate
solution filled in two beakers ? Name the reaction if any change in colour is noticed. Also, write chemical
equation for the reaction.
A. Copper will not react with ferrous sulphate as Cu is less reactive than Fe.
When Al is added to ferrous sulphate solution, the green colour of ferrous sulphate disappears and the iron is
seen setting down as the reaction occurs. Al being higher in the reactivity series displaces the iron from FeSO4.
It is a displacement reaction.
Al FeSO 4 Al2 SO 4 3 Fe
( Aluminium) (Ferrous sulphate) (Iron)
( Aluminiumsulphate)
FeSO 4 Cu
No Reaction
(Ferrous sulphate) (Copper )
OR
A student wants to study a decomposition reaction by taking ferrous sulphate crystals. Write two precautions he
must observe while performing the experiment. [Year - 2019]
A The two precautions while studying decomposition reaction using FeSO4 crystals are :
(i) Hard boiling test tubes should be utilized.
(ii) Fumes coming out should not be inhaled directly.
26. What would you observe on adding zinc granules to freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution ? Give reason
for your answer. [Year - 2019]
A. Zinc displaces iron ferrous sulphate (FeSO4) solution as Zinc as more reactive than iron.
Zn FeSO 4 Fe ZnSO 4
(Zinc ) (Ferrous sulphate) (Iron) ( Zinc sulphate)
27. Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them:
i) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a precipitate of barium
sulphate.
ii) Aluminium metal reacts with steam to give aluminium hydroxide and hydrogen gas equation. [2024]
10
A. i) 3BaCl2+Al2(SO4)32AlCl3+3BaSO4
ii) 2Al+3H2OAl2O3+3H2
C. Short Type-II Questions and Answers : (3 marks each)
1. Write the balanced equations for the following chemical reactions :
(i) Hydrogen + Chlorine Hydrogen chloride
(ii) Barium Chloride + Aluminium sulphate Barium sulphate + Aluminium chloride
(iii) Sodium + Water Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
A. (i) H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g)
(ii) 3BaCl2 (aq.) + Al2(SO4)3(aq.) 3BaSO4 () + 2AlCl3 (aq.)
(iii) 2Na(s) + 2H2O() 2NaOH (aq.) + H2 ()
2. Write balanced chemical equations for the following reactions :
(i) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide
(ii) Barium chloride reacts with zinc sulphate to give zinc chloride and barium sulphate.
(iii) Natural gas burns in air to form carbon dioxide and water
A. (i) 2H2S(g) + 3O2(g)
2SO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
(ii) BaCl2 (aq.) + ZnSO4(aq.) ZnCl2(aq.) + BaSO4 ()
(iii) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O( )
3. Write chemical equation for the reactions taking place when carried out with the help of :
(i) Iron reacts with steam (ii) Magnesium reacts with dil HCl
(iii) Copper is heated in air
A. (i) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O (g) Fe3O4(s) + 4H2 ()
(ii) Mg(s) + 2HCl (dilute) MgCl2(aq.) + H2 ()
(iii) 2Cu(s) + O2(g)
2CuO(s)
4. Write the chemical equation of the reaction in which the following changes have taken place with an example of
each :
(i) Change in colour
(ii) Change in temperature
(iii) Formation of precipitate
11
A. (i) Fe(s) CuSO 4 (aq.) FeSO 4 (aq.) Cu(s)
Blue Light green Re ddish
brown
(ii) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2 () + 2H2O () + Heat + Light
(iii) AgNO3(aq.) + NaCl (aq.) AgCl() + NaNO3(aq.)
5. The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer the following questions :
Silver Chloride
(i) Identify the type of reaction that will take place and define it. How will the colour of the salt change?
(ii) Write the chemical equation of the reaction that takes place.
(iii) Mention the commercial uses of this salt.
A. (i) It is a photochemical decomposition reaction. If the energy of sunlight is used to carry out the decomposition
reaction, it is called photochemical decomposition reaction. Colour of salt changes from white to grey silver.
Sunlight
(ii) 2AgCl(s) 2Ag(s) Cl2 (g)
White Grey
(iii) Silver chloride is used to make photographic paper, photochromic lens etc.
6. On adding a drop of barium chloride solution to an aqueous solution of sodium sulphate, white precipitate is
formed.
(i) Write a balanced chemical equation of the reaction involved
(ii) What other name can be given to precipitation reaction?
(iii) On adding dilute hydrochloric acid to the reaction mixture, white precipitate disappears. Why ?
A. (i) Na2SO4 (aq.) + BaCl2 (aq.) BaSO4 () + 2NaCl (aq.)
(ii) This reaction can also be called as double displacement reaction.
(iii) Dilute HCl decomposes barium sulphate to produce barium chloride and sulphur dioxide and barium chloride
(BaCl2) is soluble in water, hence white precipitates disappears.
7. What happens, when zinc granules are treated with dilute solution of H2SO4, HCl, HNO3, NaCl and NaOH. Also
write the chemical equations involved, if reaction occurs.
A. Zinc reacts with dilute solution of H2SO4, HCl, HNO3 or NaOH but does not react with dilute solution of NaCl. The
reaction of zinc granules with
(a) Dilute HCl
Zn(s) + 2HCl(dil.) ZnCl2(aq.) + H2 ()
12
(b) Dilute H2SO4
Zn(s) + H2SO4(dil.) ZnSO4(aq.) + H2 ()
(c) Dilute HNO3
4Zn(s) + 10 HNO3(dil.) 4Zn(NO3)2(aq.) + 5H2O() + N2O ()
(d) Dilute NaCl
Zn(s) + NaCl(dil.) No reaction
(e) Dilute NaOH
Zn + 2 NaOH(dil.) Na2ZnO2 (aq.) + H2 ()
8. (i) Write one example for each of the decomposition reaction carried out with the help of :
(a) Electricity (b) Heat (c) Light
A. (a) Electrolysis of water.
2H2O()
Electricity
2H2(g) + O2(g)
(b) Decomposition of limestone.
CaCO3(s)
CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(c) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.
2H2O2()
light
2H2O() + O2(g)
9. Decomposition reactions require energy either in the form of heat or light or electricity for breaking down the
reactants. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of heat,
light and electricity. [Year - 2018]
A. Thermal decomposition.
heat
2FeSO 4 Fe2O3 SO2 SO 3
(Ferrous sulphate) (Ferric Oxide) (Sulphur dioxide) (Sulphur trioxide)
Photo chemical decomposition.
Light
2AgBr 2Ag Br2
(SilverBromide) (Silver ) (Bromine)
Electrochemical decomposition.
Electricity
2H2 O 2H2 O2
(Water ) (Hydrogen) (Oxygen)
10. 2 g of silver chloride is taken in a china dish and the china dish is placed in sunlight for sometime. What will be
your observation in this case ? Write the chemical reaction involved in the form of a balanced chemical equation.
Identify the type of chemical reaction. [Year - 2019]
A. We will see that AgCl (Silver chloride) turns grey in sunlight. This is due to the decomposition reaction through
sunlight that decomposes AgCl into silver and chlorine.
13
Sunlight
2AgCl 2Ag Cl2
(Silver Chloride) (Silver ) (Chlorine)
It is a decomposition reaction.
OR
Identify the type of reactions taking place in each of the following cases and write the balanced chemical
equation for the reactions.
(a) Zinc reacts with silver nitrate to produce zinc nitrate and silver.
(b) Potassium iodide reacts with lead nitrate to produce potassium nitrate and lead iodide. [Year - 2019]
A. (a) Zn + 2AgNO3
Zn NO3 2 Ag
(Zinc ) (Silver Nitrate) (Silver )
( Zinc Nitrate)
It is a displacement reaction.
(b) 2KI + Pb NO3 2 2KNO 3 PbI2
(Potassium Iodide) (Potassium nitrate) (Lead Iodide)
(Lead nitrate)
It is a double-displacement reaction.
11. (a) Classify the following reactions into different types :
(i) AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)
(ii) CaO(s) + H2O(l)Ca(OH)2(aq)
(iii) 2KClO3(s) 2KCl(aq) + 3O2(g)
(iv) Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu
(b) Translate the following statement into a balanced chemical equation :
“Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and barium sulphate.”
A. (a) (i) Double-Displacement reaction.
(ii) Combination reaction.
(iii) Decomposition reaction.
(iv) Displacement reaction.
(b) 3BaCl 2 + Al2 SO4 3 2AlCl 3 3BaSO 4
(Barium Chloride) ( Alu min ium sulphate) ( Aluminium Chloride) (Barium sulphate)
OR
(a) When potassium iodide solution is added to a solution of lead (II) nitrate in a test tube, a precipitate is
formed.
14
(b) What is the colour of this precipitate ? Name the compound precipitated.
(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(d) List two types of reactions in which this reaction can be placed. [Year - 2019]
A. (a) 2KI + Pb NO3 2
2KNO 3 PbI2
(Barium Chloride) (Potassium nitrate) (Lead Iodide)
(Lead Nitrate)
(b) The colour of the precipitate is yellow.
The compound precipitated is lead iodide (PbI2).
(c) 2KI + Pb NO3 2
2KNO 3 PbI2
(Barium Chloride) (Potassium nitrate) (Lead Iodide)
(Lead Nitrate)
(d) (i) Double displacement reaction.
(ii) Precipitation reaction.
12. 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube.
(a) List any two observations.
(b) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place.
(c) Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction and name the products formed.
A. (a) The two observations are :
(i) The colour of the compound changes to light green to white which on further heating changes to dark
brown.
(ii) A gas is emitted of a characteristic smell of burning Sulphur.
(b) It is an example of decomposition reaction.
(c) 2FeSO Fe2 O3
SO SO
4 2 3
(Ferrous sulphate) (Feeric Oxide) (Sulpher dioxide) (Sulpher trioxide)
OR
You might have noted that when copper powder is heated in a china dish, the reddish brown surface of copper
powder becomes coated with a black substance.
(a) Why has this black substance formed ?
(b) What is this black substance ?
(c) Write the chemical equation of the reaction that takes place.
(d) How can the black coating on the surface be turned reddish brown ? [Year - 2019]
15
A. (a) Upon heating, copper reacts with oxygen present in air and forms Copper (II) Oxide, which is black in
colour.
(b) The black coloured substance is Copper Oxide (CuO).
(c) 2Cu O
2CuO
2
(Copper ) (Oxygen) (Copper Oxide)
(d) This can be done by passing hydrogen gas on heated copper oxide which then turns to reddish brown
when Copper is formed.
2CuO H 2
Cu H2 O
(Coppe Oxide) (Hydrogen) (Copper) ( Water )
black reddish brown
13. (a) Identify the reducing agent in the following reactions :
i) 4NH3 + 5O24NO + 6H2O
ii) H2O + + HOF
iii) Fe2O3 + 3CO 2Fe + 3CO2
iv) H2+ O22H2O
(b) Define a redox reaction in terms of gain or loss of oxygen. [2023]
A. (a) i) NH3 gets oxidized to NO Removal of hydrogen addition of oxygen O2 gets reduced to H2O Addition of
hydrogen. Thus NH3 acts as reducing agent.
ii) F2 gets reduced to HF Addition of hydrogenH2O gets oxidized to HOF Removal of hydrogen Hence H2O
acts as reducing agent.
iii) Fe2O3 gets reduced to Fe Removal of oxygen CO gets oxidized to CO2 Addition of oxygen Hence CO
acts as reducing agent.
iv) H2 gets oxidized to H2O Addition of oxygen O2 gets reduced to H2O Addition of hydrogen Hence H2 acts
as reducing agent.
(b) Oxidation is gain of oxygen.
2H2+O22H2O
Reduction is the loss of oxygen from a substance. For example, copper oxide can be reduced to form
copper if it is reacted with hydrogen:
CuO+H2Cu+H2O
16
D. Long Type Questions and Answers : (5 marks each)
1. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions and identify the type of reaction in each
case.
(a) Nitrogen gas is treated with hydrogen gas in the presence of a catalyst at 773K to form ammonia gas.
(b) Sodium hydroxide solution is treated with acetic acid to form sodium acetate and water.
(c) Ethanol is warmed with ethanoic acid to form ethyl acetate in the presence of concentrated H2SO4.
(d) Ethene is burnt in the presence of oxygen to form carbon dioxide, water and releases heat and light.
catalyst
A. (a) N2(g) + 3H2(g)
773K
2NH3(g)
This is combination reaction as well as redox reaction
(b) NaOH (aq.) + CH3COOH(aq.) CH3COONa + H2O()
This is a neutralisation reaction or double displacement reaction.
(c) C2H5OH() + C2H5COOH()
conc.H2SO4
C2H5COOC2H5() + H2O()
This is a double displacement reaction or esterification reaction.
(d) C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 2H2O() + Heat + Light
This is a combustion reaction as well as redox reaction.
2. Balance the following chemical equations and identify the type of chemical reaction.
(a) Mg (s) + Cl2 (g)
MgCl2 (s)
1
(b) HgO (s)
Heat
Hg (l) + O (g)
2 2
(c) 2Na (s) + S (s)
Fuse
Na2S (s)
(d) TiCl4 (l) + 2Mg (s)
Ti (s) + 2MgCl2
(e) CaO (s) + SiO2 (s)
CaSiO3 (s)
A. (a) Mg(s) + Cl2(g) MgCl2 (s)
This is a combination reaction as well as redox reaction.
(b) 2HgO(s)
Heat
2Hg() + O2(g)
This is a decomposition reaction as well as redox reaction.
(c) 2Na(s) + S(s)
fuse
Na2S(s)
This is a combination reaction.
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(d) TiCl4 () + 2Mg(s) Ti(s) + 2MgCl2
This is a displacement reaction.
(e) CaO(s) + SiO2(s) CaSiO3(s)
This is a combination reaction
3. A shiny brown coloured element (A) on heating in air becomes black because of formation of (B). (B) on
reaction with hydrogen gas gets further converted to (A). Identify element (A) and compound (B) and write the
complete reaction.
A. A is copper and B is copper (II) oxide.
2Cu + Air (O2)
heat
2CuO
2H2
2Cu(s) + 2H2O()
Shiny brown (A) Black (B) (A)
4. What are the rules for writing chemical equations ?
A. Rules for writing chemical equation generally involves three steps –
Step - 1 : Writing basic skeletal equation
Calcium carbonate Calcium oxide + Carbon dioxide
Ex. - CaCO3 CaO + CO2
Step - 2 : Writing proper chemical equation
(i) The physical states of the reactants and the products are represented as:
(s) for solid, (l) for liquid, (g) for gas and (aq.) for aqueous.
(ii) Specify condition necessary for chemical reaction like heat (), pressure, light, catalyst etc.
(iii) Represent if precipitate is formed by () and if gas is released by ()
Ex. - CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) CO2 (g)
Ex. - AgNO3 (aq) NaCl(aq) AgCl NaNO 3 (aq)
(iv)The change in energy content before and after the reaction can also be represented
A + B C – Energy (Endothermic reaction)
A + B C + Energy (Exothermic reaction)
Step - 3 : Balance the chemical reaction if required:
It includes the equalisation of the number of atoms on both sides of the equation according to
“the law of conservation of mass”.
Ex.- CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) CO2 (g)
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Atom LHS RHS
Ca 1 1
O 3 3
C 1 1
5. What are the essentials of chemical reaction ?
A. A chemical reaction should include all the information regarding the reaction.
(i) It should represent a true chemical change.
i.e., the reaction should be possible to carry out, as represented by the equation.
(ii) It should be balanced.
i.e, the number of atoms of each element on both sides of the equation should be equal.
(iii) It should be molecular.
i.e. the elementary substances like hydrogen, oxygen etc should be represented as H2, O2, etc.
(iv) It should represent the change in temperature.
i.e. change in temperature before and after the reaction should be represented by a chemical equation.
6. How do you check whether a chemical reaction has taken place or not ?
A. The following observations help us to determine whether a chemical reaction has taken place –
(a) Change in state
2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O()
(b) Formation of precipitate
NaCl(aq.) AgNO3 (aq.) AgCl NaNO3 (aq.)
Whiteppt.
(c) Evolution of gas
Zn(s) + H2SO4 (dilute) ZnSO4 (aq.) + H2
(d) Change in temperature
CaO(s) + H2O() Ca(OH)2 (aq.) + Heat
(e) Change in colour
Fe(s) CuSO 4 (aq.) FeSO 4 (aq.) Cu(s)
Blue Green
7. What happens when a piece of
(a) zinc metal is added to copper sulphate solution ?
(b) aluminium metal is added to dilute hydrochloric acid ?
(c) silver metal is added to copper sulphate solution ?
Also, write the balanced chemical equation if the reaction occurs.
19
A. (a) Zinc displaces the copper from copper sulphate solution and forms ZnSO4.
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq.) ZnSO4(aq.) + Cu(s)
(b) AlCl3 is formed with liberation of hydrogen gas (H2)
2Al(s) + 6dil. HCl(aq.) 2AlCl3 (aq.) + 3H2()
(c) Reaction is not possible because silver is less reactive metal compare to copper
Ag(s) + CuSO4(aq.) No reaction
8. What is the difference between displacement reaction and double displacement reaction ? Give two examples
each of these reactions. [Year - 2018]
A. The difference between displacement and double-displacement reactions:
Displacement Reaction Double Displacement Reaction
(i) In this reaction, more reactive element In this reaction, two reactants exchange
displace less reactive element from its their ions chemically to form two
compound. products.
AB + C → AC + B
A B X Y AY XB
(ii) Colour change is observed Precipitute formation is observed
9. (a) What is a double displacement reaction ? Explain with an example.
(b) A small amount of quick lime is added to water in a beaker.
(i) Name and define the type of reaction that has taken place.
(ii) Write balanced chemical equation for the above reaction and the chemical name of the product formed.
(iii) List two main observations of this reaction.
A. (a) A double displacement reaction is a type of reaction where two reactants exchange the ions to form two
new compounds. For example,
BaCl 2 Na2SO4
BaSO 4 2NaCl
(Barium Chloride) (Sodium sulphate) (Barium sulphate) (Sodium chloride)
From the above example, it is clear that the reactants exchange the positively and negatively charged ions
to from 2 new compounds such as BaSO4 and NaCl.
(b) (i) The reaction taking place is combination reaction. Those reactions in which two or more substances
combine to form a single substance are called combination reactions.
(ii) CaO H2O Ca OH Heat
(Calcium oxide) 2
( Water ) (Calcium Hydroxide)
20
(iii) A large amount of heat is evolved, it is an exothermic reaction.
If water dripped slowly onto CaO, a hissing is heard as excess water is turned to steam by the heat
produced in the reaction.
OR
(a) Design an activity to demonstrate the decomposition reaction of lead nitrate.
(b) Draw labelled diagram of the experimental set-up. List two main observations.
(c) Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction stating the physical state of the reactant and the products.
[Year - 2019]
A. (a) Some white coloured lead nitrate (Pb(NO3)2 compound is taken in a test-tube. On heating, the compound
will decompose. If heated strongly. We can observe brown fumes of NO2.
(b) Reddish brown gas (NO2 )
Test tube
Pb(NO3)2
Bunsen Burner
The two observations are :
(i) Brown fumes of NO2 is liberated.
(ii) Yellow coloured PbO is formed.
(c) 2Pb NO3 ( s) 2PbO (s) 4NO 2 (g) O2 (g)
2 (Lead oxide)
(Lead nitrate) (Nitrogen dioxide) (Oxygen)
E. Case Study/Passage Based Questions
1. Corrosion is the phenomenon of deterioration of surface of metal in presence of air and moisture. It is a
natural process and in the presence of a moist atmosphere, chemically active metals get corroded. This is an
oxidation reaction. Rusting is the process where iron corrodes due to exposure to the atmosphere. The main
circumstance of corrosion occurs with iron because it is a structural material in construction, bridges, buildings,
rail transport, ships, etc. Aluminium is also an important structural metal, but even aluminium undergoes
oxidation reactions. However, aluminium doesn’t corrode or oxidize as rapidly as its reactivity suggests.
Copper (Cu) corrodes and forms a basic green carbonate.
(i) What is rusting?
(ii) Which two metals do not corrode easily? Why?
21
(iii) Write the chemical name of the compound formed on corrosion of silver.
(iv) Write the balanced chemical equation for the formation of rust.
A. (i) Rusting is the process where iron corrodes due to exposure to the atmosphere.
(ii) Gold and silver do not corrode easily as these metals are very less reactive.
(iii) Silver sulphide
(iv) 4Fe+3O2+x.H2O2Fe2O3.xH2O
2. A chemical reaction is a representation of chemical change in terms of symbols and formulae of reactants and
products. There are various types of chemical reactions like combination, decomposition, displacement,
double displacement, oxidation and reduction reactions. Reactions in which heat is released along with the
formation of products are called exothermic chemical reactions. All combustion reactions are exothermic
reactions.
(i) A white salt on heating decomposes to give brown fumes and yellow residue is left behind. Identify the
brown fumes and yellow residue.
(ii) Give two examples of oxidation reaction from your everyday life.
(iii) Why is decomposition reaction called opposite of combination reaction?
(iv) Write the oxidising and reducing agent in the following reaction:
CuO + H2 Cu + H2O
A. (i) Brown fumes = NO2 (nitrogen dioxide gas)
Yellow residue = PbO (Lead oxide)
(ii) Rusting of iron and rancidity of butter are two examples of oxidation reactions from daily life.
(iii) A decomposition reaction is breakdown or separation of a chemical compound into its elements or simpler
compounds while in composition reactions two or more elements or compounds combine to form a single
compound that is why decomposition reactions called the opposite of combination reactions.
(iv) oxidising agent = CuO (copper (II) oxide)
reducing agent = H2(Hydrogen)
Extra Questions. (1 mark each)
1. Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?
A. Magnesium ribbon should always be cleaned before burning so as to remove magnesium oxide or any impurities
on it.
22
2. State one basic difference between a physical change and a chemical change.
A. Physical change Chemical change
It is a temporary change and new It is a permanent change and new
product is not formed in this product is formed in this change.
change.
3. What is meant by a chemical reaction?
A. A chemical reaction is a process in which one or more substances are transformed into new substances, and
simply involves rearrangement of atoms.
4. AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)
FeS(s) + H2SO4(dil) FeSO4(aq) + H2S
What do these different arrows () and () indicate ?
A. Arrow () indicates precipitation and arrow () indicates gas evolution in the given reaction.
5. Why do fireflies glow at night?
A. Fireflies have a protein which in the presence of an enzyme undergoes aerial oxidation. This is a chemical
reaction which involves emission of visible light. Therefore, fireflies glow at night.
6. Balance the following chemical equation : Pb(NO3)2 PbO + NO2 + O2
A. 2Pb(NO3)2(s) 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
7. (i) Write a balanced chemical equation for the process of photosynthesis.
(ii) When do desert plants take up carbon dioxide and perform photosynthesis ?
A. (i) 6CO2 (aq.) 12H2 O()
Sunlight
Chlorophil
C6H12 O6 (aq.) 6O2 (aq.) 6H2 O( )
Carbondioxide Water Glucos e Oxygen
(ii) Desert plants open up their stomata during night and take in CO2 and they perform photosynthesis during
day time.
8. Why do we store silver chloride in dark coloured bottles?
A. Silver chloride is stored in dark coloured bottles because dark bottle interrupt the path of sunlight. Silver
chloride (AgCl) on exposure to sunlight may decompose and slowly change to silver metal and chlorine.
9. Why do we apply paint on iron articles?
A. Iron articles are painted to prevent them from rusting. After painting iron surface does not come in contact with
moisture and air which causes rusting.
10. Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why?
A. Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen to prevent them from getting oxidised. This will
protect them from becoming rancid.
23
11. An acid which is present in rancid butter is _______
(a) Acetic acid (b) Malic acid (c) Butyric acid (d) Lactic acid
A. (c) Butyric acid
12. Rancidity is caused by ______.
(a) Oxidation (b) Corrosion (c) Reduction (d) (a) and (b)
A. (a) Oxidation
13. Which gas is filled in food packets to prevent rancidity?
(a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen (c) Hydrogen (d) (a) and (b)
A. (b) Nitrogen
Balance the following equations :
14. HNO3 + NaHCO3 NaNO3 + H2O + CO2
A. HNO3 + NaHCO3 NaNO3 + H2O + CO2
15. C3H8 + O2 CO2 + H2O
A. C3H8 + 5O2 3CO2 + 4H2O
16. Ba3N2 + H2O Ba(OH)2 + NH3
A. Ba3N2 + 6H2O 3Ba(OH)2 + 2NH3
Give chemical equations :
17. Limestone burnt to obtain quick lime.
A. CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
18. Chlorine gas passed through sodium bromide solution.
A. Cl2(g) + 2NaBr(aq.) 2NaCl(aq.) + Br2(g)
Fill in the blanks :
19. Pb(NO3)2+2Kl Pbl2 + _______
A. Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI PbI2 + 2KNO3
20. FeCl3 + 3NaOH ______ +3NaCl
A. FeCl3 + 3NaOH Fe(OH)3 + 3NaCl
24
Choose the correct option :
21. In the experimental setup given below, it is observed that on passing the gas produced in the reaction in the
solution ‘X’ .The solution ‘X’ first turns milky and then colourless.
The option that justifies the above stated observation is that ‘X’ is aqueous calcium hydroxide and
a) it turns milky due to carbon dioxide gas liberated in the reaction and after some time it becomes colourless
due to formation of calcium carbonate.
b) it turns milky due to formation of calcium carbonate and on passing excess of carbon dioxide it becomes
colourless due to formation of calcium hydrogen carbonate which is soluble in water.
c) it turns milky due to passing of carbon dioxide through it. It turns colourless as on further passing carbon
dioxide, sodium hydrogen carbonate is formed which is soluble in water.
d) the carbon dioxide liberated during the reaction turns lime water milky due to formation of calcium hydrogen
carbonate and after some time it turns colourless due to formation of calcium carbonate which is soluble in
water. [2023]
A. b) it turns milky due to formation of calcium carbonate and on passing excess of carbon dioxide it becomes
colourless due to formation of calcium hydrogen carbonate which is soluble in water.
22. The emission of brown fumes in the given experimental set-up is due to
25
a) thermal decomposition of lead nitrate which produces brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide.
b) thermal decomposition of lead nitrate which produces brown fumes of lead oxide.
c) oxidation of lead nitrate forming lead oxide and nitrogen dioxide.
d) oxidation of lead nitrate forming lead oxide and oxygen. [2023]
A. b) thermal decomposition of lead nitrate which produces brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide.
23. Select from the following a decomposition reaction in which source of energy for decomposition is light:
a) 2FeSO4 Fe2 O3 + SO2 + SO3
b) 2H2O 2H2+O2
c) 2AgBr 2Ag+Br 2
d) CaCO3 CaO+CO2 [2024]
A. c) 2AgBr 2Ag+Br 2
26
TOPIC : ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
A. Multiple-Choice Type Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
1. HCl can react with
(A) AgCl (B) Na2CO3 (C) NaCl (D) MgCl2
A. (B) Na2CO3
2. Which of the following gives CO2 on heating?
(A) Slaked lime (B) Quick lime (C) Lime stone (D) Soda ash
A. (C) Lime stone
3. Plaster of Paris is made from
(A) Lime stone (B) Slaked Lime (C) Quick lime (D) Gypsum
A. (D) Gypsum
4. Which is a base and not alkali?
(A) NaOH (B) KOH (C) Fe(OH)3 (D) None of these
A. (C) Fe(OH)3
5. Chemical formula of baking soda is
(A) MgSO4 (B) Na2CO3 (C) NaHCO3 (D) MgCO3
A. (C) NaHCO3
6. The H+ ion concentration of a solution is high. The solution is
(A) Acidic (B) Alkaline (C) Neutral (D) Amphoteric
A. (A) Acidic
7. An aqueous solution with pH-zero is
(A) Acidic (B) Alkaline (C) Neutral (D) Amphoteric
A. (A) Acidic
8. Setting of Plaster of Paris takes place due to
(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction (C) Dehydration (D) Hydration
A. (D) Hydration
9. The difference of water molecules is gypsum and Plaster of Paris is
5 1 3
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D)
2 2 2
3
A. (D)
2
27
10. The odour of acetic acid resembles that of
(a) Rose (b) Burning Plastic (c) Vinegar (d) Kerosene
A. (C) Vinegar
11. Washing soda has the formula
(A) Na2CO3.7H2O (B) Na2CO3.10H2O (C) Na2CO3.H2O (D) Na2CO3
A. (B) Na2CO3.10H2O
12. Plaster of Paris hardens by
(A) Giving off (B) Changing into (C) Combining with water (D) Giving out water
A. (C) Combining with water
13. A drop of liquid sample was put on the pH paper, paper turned blue. The liquid sample must be of
(A) Lemon Juice (B) HCl (C) Sodium bicarbonate (D) Ethanoic acid.
A. (C) Sodium bicarbonate
14. If pH of solution is 13, it means that if is
(A) Weakly acidic (B) Weakly basic (C) Strongly acidic (D) Strongly Basic
A. (D) Strongly Basic
15. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 10
A. (D) 10
16. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution contains
(A) NaCl (B) HCl (C) LiCl (D) KCl
A. (B) HCl
17. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
(A) Antibiotics (B) Analgesic (C) Antacid (D) Antiseptic
A. (C) Antacid
B. Assertion- Reasoning:
18. Assertion (A): The acid must always be added to water with constant stirring.
Reason (R) : Mixing of an acid with water decreases the concentration of H+ ions per unit volume.
A. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
19. Assertion (A) : Copper sulphate crystals are wet because it contains water of crystallisation.
Reason (R) : Water of crystallisation is the fixed number of molecules of water present in one formula unit of
salt.
A. (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
28
20. Assertion (A) : The aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not show acidic character.
Reason (R) : Aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not give H+ ions.
A. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
21. Assertion (A) : HCl gas does not change the colour of dry blue litmus paper.
Reason (R) : HCl gas dissolves in the water present in wet litmus paper to form H+ ions.
A. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
22. Assertion (A) : Weak acids have low electrical conductivity.
Reason (R) : Strong acids and weak acids have equal concentration of hydrogen ions in their solutions.
A. (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
23. Assertion (A): Pure water is neither acidic nor basic.
Reason (R) : The pH of a solution is inversely proportional to the concentration of hydrogen ions in it.
A. (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
24. Assertion (A) : During electrolysis of concentrated aqueous solution of sodium chloride, hydrogen is produced
at anode and chlorine gas is produced at cathode.
Reason (R) : Ions get attracted to oppositely charged electrodes.
A. (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
25. Assertion (A) : Baking powder is used in making cake instead of using only baking soda.
Reason (R) : Baking powder contains tartaric acid which reacts with sodium carbonate and removes bitter
taste.
A. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
26. Assertion (A) : The chemical formula of bleaching powder is Ca(OCI)Cl.
Reason (R) : Calcium oxide reacts with chlorine to form bleaching powder.
A. (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
27. Assertion (A): Plaster of Paris is stored in a moisture proof container.
Reason (R) : Plaster of Paris sets into a hard mass on wetting with water to form anhydrous calcium sulphate.
A. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
28. Assertion (A): The chemical name of bleaching powder is calcium oxychloride.
Reason (R): Bleaching powder is used as an oxidising agent in chemical industries.
A. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
29. Assertion: The process of dissolving an acid or a base in water is highly exothermic reaction.
Reason: Water must always be added slowly to acid with constant stirring.
29
A. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
30. Assertion : Phenolphthalein is an acid-base indicator.
Reason: Phenolphthalein gives different colours in acidic and basic medium.
A. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
31. Assertion: Calcium sulphate hemihydrate, CaSO4.1/2 H20 is called plaster of Paris.
Reason: Plaster of Paris is used for producing moulds for pottery and ceramics and casts of statues.
A. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion
(A).
32. Assertion : pH = 7 signifies pure water.
Reason: pH of acetic acid is greater than 7.
A. (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
33. Assertion : HCl is a stronger acid than acetic acid.
Reason: On dissociation, HCl yields lesser hydrogen ions for the same concentration as compared to acetic
acid.
A. (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
34. Assertion : pH of ammonium nitrate solution is acidic.
Reason: Solution of a salt of weak base and strong acid is acidic.
A. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
35. Assertion : Phosphoric acid is a weak acid.
Reason : Phosphoric acid when dissolved in water dissociates partially and produces very little H+ ions.
A. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
C. Very Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks each)
36. Which bases are called alkalies? Give an example of alkali.
A. Those bases which are soluble in water are called alkalis. They are soapy to touch, bitter and corrosive. For
eg. NaOH, KOH.
37. How does the flow of acid rain water into river makes the survival of aquatic life in the river difficult?
A. Acid rain water in river makes the river water acidic and acidic water causes burn, irritation and harm to the
skin of aquatic animal.
38. Why should water be never added dropwise to concentrated sulphuric acid?
A. It is because the addition of water dropwise to the acid will cause release of enormous amount of heat suddenly.
39. There are two jars A and B containing food materials. Food in jar ‘A’ is picked with acetic acid, while ‘B’ is not.
Food of which jar will stale first?
A. Surely B because acid preserve food and also since the environment inside the jar A will be acidic, and thus the
30
bacteria/viruses won’t be able to grow.
40. What is the colour of phenolphthalein in (i) dil HCl, (ii) dil NaOH
A. Phenolphthalein in dil. HCl - Colourless.
Phenolphthalein in dil. NaOH - Pink Colour.
41. What is milk of magnesia? Is it strong or a mild base ?
A. Milk of magnesia is a suspension of Mg(OH)2. It is a mild base.
42. Do alkali react with metals? Give one example.
A. Alkali react with amphoteric metal. For example: Zn, Al etc.
2Al(s) + 2NaOH (aq) + 2H2O 2NaAlO2 + 3H2
soluble
43. Do basic solutions also contain H+(aq) ions. If yes, then why are they basic?
A. Yes, basic solution also contains H+ . But they are basic because the concentration of OH– is higher than that of
H+ in solution.
44. You have three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water and the other two contains an acidic and a basic
solution, respectively. If you are given red litmus paper ; how will you identify the contents of each test tube?
A. Firstly dip the litmus paper in all the three tube, the tube containing base will turn it into the blue.
Now, dip this blue litmus paper to two unidentified test tube. The tube which convert it into red will be acid and
other test tube will contain water.
Red litmus Blue litmus
(below pH 4.5) (above pH 8.3)
45. Metal compound ‘A’ reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes
a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction, if one of the compound formed is
calcium chloride.
A. CaCl2 aq CO2 (g) H2O
CaCO3 s 2HCl(aq)
46. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbon are taken in test tubes ‘A’ and ‘B’. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test
tube ‘A’ while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is added to test tube ‘B’. In which test tube, will the fizzing occur more
vigorously and why ?
A. Fizzing occur more vigorously in test tube A. Because HCl is strong acid and it will react more vigorously with
Mg.
47. How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) affected, when a solution of an acid is diluted ?
A. Concentration of H+ will decrease with dilution because molar concentration decreases with dilution.
Number of moles
Molarity = Volume of solution in litre
48. You have two solution, A and B. The pH of solution ‘A’ is 6 and pH of solution ‘B’ is 8. Which solution has more
hydrogen ion concentration ? Which of this is acidic and which one is basic?
31
A. Concentration of H + ions is more in Sol-A than Sol-B. Therefore, Sol-A is acidic (pH < 7) while
Sol-B is basic (pH > 7).
49. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion ? (a) Antibiotic, (b) Analgesic,
(c) Antacid, (d) Antiseptic
A. Antacids (like Mg(OH)2) are used to treat indigestion by neutralising excess acid.
50. What will be the action of the following substances on litmus paper ? Dry HCl gas, Moistened NH3 gas, Lemon
juice, Carbonated soft drinks, Curd, Soap solution.
A. In Dry HCl gas No change
In moistened NH3 gas Red litmus paper will turn blue
In lemon juice Blue litmus paper will turn red
In carbonated soft drink Blue litmus paper will turn red
In curd Blue litmus paper will turn red
In soap solution Red litmus paper will turn blue
51. (i) Define indicator. Name two indicators obtained from plants.
(ii) Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction that takes place when sodium oxide reacts with water.
How will this solution behave towards phenolphthalein and red litmus paper ?
(iii) State what happens when sodium hydroxide solution reacts with hydrochloric acid. What is this reaction
called ?
A. (i) Indicator is any substance that gives a visible sign, usually by colour change when come in contact with
acid or base.
(ii) Na2O + H2O 2NaOH
In basic medium, red litmus turns blue and phenolphthalein turns pink.
(iii) When NaOH reacts with HCl, it forms NaCl salt and H2O
NaCl aq H2O
NaOH aq HCl aq
It is called Neutralization reaction.
52. Describe an activity with diagram to illustrate that the reaction of metal carbonate and metal bicarbonate with
acids produce carbon dioxide. Write the relevant equations of all the reactions that take place. Name any two
forms in which calcium carbonate occur in nature.
32
A. Dil. HCl
Delivery tube
Stop cork
Thistle
funnel CO2
gas
Ca(OH)2 Solution
Test Stand
tube
turns milky initially & when
Na2CO3 NaHCO3 excess CO2 passes through
the solution, milky colour
disappear
Na2CO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) 2NaCl(aq) + CO2+ H2O()
NaHCO3(s) + HCl(aq) NaCl(aq) + H2O() + CO2(g)
CO2(g) + Ca(OH)2(aq) CaCO3(s) + H2O()
(Milky)
CaCO3(s) + H2O() + CO2(g) Ca(HCO3)2(aq)
Milkiness disappears due to formation of soluble colourless calcium bicarbonate.
Any two forms of Calcium carbonates are Lime Stone and Marble.
53. What will happen, if a solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated ? Give the equation of the reaction
involved.
A. 2 NaHCO3 s
Na2CO3 s CO2 g H2O
When sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated then it decomposes to Na2CO3 with evolution of gas CO2
54. Write the chemical equation to describe how baking soda is produced on a large scale. Also write chemical
name of the products in this reaction.
A. Baking soda is prepared by reaction of cold and concentrated solution of sodium chloride with ammonia and
carbon-dioxide.
Step - : NH3 + CO2 + H2O NH4HCO3
Step - : NH4HCO3 + NaCl NaHCO3 + NH4Cl
NaHCO3 can be separated from NH4Cl by filtration.
NaHCO3 Sodium bicarbonate
NH4Cl Ammonium chloride
33
55. A white coloured powder is used by doctors for supporting fractured bones.
(a) Write the chemical name and formula of the powder.
(b) When this white powder is mixed with water or hard solid mass is obtained, write the balanced chemical
equation for the change.
1
A. (a) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate CaSO4 H2 O
2
1 3
(b) CaSO4 H2O s H2O CaSO 4 2H2O S
2 2 Hard Solid Mass
56. What is neutralisation reaction? Give two example.
A. It is the reaction between acid and base to form salt and water as the product.
For example:
(i) NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O
(ii) 2NaOH + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + 2H2O
57. Compounds like alcohol and glucose also contain hydrogen, but are not categorised as acids. Discuss an
activity to prove it.
A. Even though glucose and alcohol also contains H, but glucose don’t ionize to give H+. So it is not acid.
Bulb doesn't glow
Beaker
Glucose solution
There is no electricity in this circuit as glucose solution don’t ionize to give H+ for the same reason bulb doesn’t
glow in case of alcohol also.
58. What is caustic soda and caustic potash? Write their chemical formula. Which of them is stronger base?
A. Caustic soda NaOH
Caustic potash KOH
KOH is stronger base than NaOH
59. Is food acidic or basic? What will happen if taken in excess and how it can be cured?
A. Spicy food is acidic. If spice is taken in excess then it will cause acidity. Acidity can be cured by consuming
antacid like Mg(OH)2.
34
60. Match the following columns
Column - Column -
A. Monobasic acid (i) Carbonic acid
B. Dibasic acid (ii) Phosphoric acid
C. Tribasic acid (iii) Hydrobromic acid
D. Double salt (iv) Alum
Select the correct option :
(a) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (b) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii (c) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
A. (A) Monobasic acid Hydrobromic acid (HBr H+ + Br–) : Strong acid
(B) Dibasic acid Carbonic acid (H2CO3 2H+ + CO32–) : Weak acid
(C) Tribasic acid Phosphoric acid (H3PO4 3H+ + PO43–) : Weak acid
(D) Double salt Alum (K2SO4 · Al2(SO4)3 · 24H2O)
61. Give two uses each of (a) NaOH, (b) baking soda, (c) washing soda, (d) bleaching powder, (e) plaster of paris.
A. Two uses
(a) NaOH (i) Used in making soap (ii) Used in metal processing
(b) NaHCO3 (i) Used as antacid (ii) Used in fire extinguisher
(c) Washing soda (i) As cleaning agent (ii) In glass and paper industry
(d) Bleaching powder (i) Used in laundry as bleaching agent (ii) Used as disinfectant for water
(e) Plaster of paris (i) It is used to make plaster casts to immobilize broken bones (ii) Used for false ceiling
62. Explain why is hydrochloric acid a strong acid and acetic acid, a weak acid? How can it be verified?
A. HCl is strong acid as it is almost 100% ionized in aqueous medium while CH3COOH is partially ionized in
aqueous medium.
It can be verified with the help of concentration of H+ ions i.e. pH.
63. What do you observe when you add a few drops of dilute acetic acid to a test-tube containing powdered sodium
bicarbonate ? Write the name and formula of the salt formed. [Year - 2017]
A. When dilute acetic acid is added to a test tube containing powdered sodium bicarbonate, sodium acetate,
water and carbon dioxide is produced.
CH3 COOH + NaHCO 3 CH3 COONa H2 O
CO 2
(acetic acid) (Sodium bicarbonate) (Sodium acetate) ( Water ) (Carbon dioxide)
The salt formed is sodium acetate (CH3COONa).
35
64. A student dips one pH paper in solution A and another pH paper in solution B and observes that the pH paper
turns blue in solution A and orange in solution B respectively. Identify solution A and B. Find the value of pH of
solutions A and B. [Year - 2018]
A. Solution A can be sodium carbonate and solution B can be acetic acid.
Solution A is a strong base having pH 9 and solution B is a weak acid having pH 4
65. What happens when you add few drops of acetic acid to a test tube containing powder of sodium hydrogen
carbonate ? List two observations. Write the name of the gas evolved and the method of its testing.
[Year - 2018]
A. When acetic acid reacts with NaHCO3:
(i) Salt and water is produced.
(ii) Carbon dioxide gas is liberated with brisk effervescence.
CH3 COOH + NaHCO 3 CH3 COONa H2 O
CO 2
(acetic acid) (Sodium bicarbonate) (Sodium acetate) ( Water ) (Carbon dioxide)
Carbon dioxide gas is evolved during the reaction. CO2 gas turns lime water milky.
66. Blue litmus solution is added to two test tubes A and B containing dilute HCI and NaOH solution respectively. In
which test tube a colour change will be observed? State the colour change and give its reason.
A. Test tube A containing dilute HCl will show the colour change.
Blue litmus solution will turn red because dilute HCl is a strong acid which changes the colour of litmus solution
from blue to red.
OR
What is observed when 2 m of dilute hydrochloric acid is added to 1 g of sodium carbonate taken in a clean
and dry test tube? Write chemical equation for the reaction involved. [Year - 2019]
A. When 2m of dilute HCl is added to 1g of Na2CO3, it leads to the formation of sodium chloride, water, with the
evolution of CO2 gas.
Na CO2 3 + HCl
NaCl H2O CO
2
(Sodium carbonate) (Hydrochloric acid) (Sodium chloride) ( Water ) (Carbon dioxide)
67. A teacher provided acetic acid, water, lemon juice, aqueous solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate and
sodium hydroxide to students in the school laboratory to determine the pH values of these substances using pH
papers. One of the students reported the pH values of the given substances as 3, 12, 4, 8 and 14 respectively.
Which one of these values is not correct ? Write its correct value stating the reason. [Year - 2019]
A. The pH value of water is not correct. It should be 7 because water is neutral, i.e, it is neither acidic or basic. For
acidic substances the pH value is less than 7, for basic substances the pH value is between 7-14 and for
neutral substances the pH value is 7.
36
68. What is observed when a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to 2 m of acetic acid taken in a test tube ?
Write chemical equation for the reaction involved in this case. [Year - 2019]
A. When dilute acetic acid is added to a test tube containing powdered sodium bicarbonate, sodium acetate,
water and carbon dioxide is produced.
CH3 COOH + NaHCO 3 CH3 COONa H2 O
CO 2
(acetic acid) (Sodium bicarbonate) (Sodium acetate) ( Water ) (Carbon dioxide)
The salt formed is sodium acetate (CH3COONa).
69. A solution ‘X’ gives orange colour when a drop of it falls on pH paper, while another solution ‘Y’ gives bluish
colour when a drop of it falls on pH paper. What is the nature of both the solutions ? Determine the pH of
solutions ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
[Year - 2019]
A. Solution A can be sodium carbonate and solution B can be acetic acid.
Solution A is a strong base having pH 9 and solution B is a weak acid having pH 4.
70. Out of HCl and CH3COOH, which one is a weak acid and why ? Explain with the help of an example.
A. CH3COOH is a weak acid as it partially dissociates in an aqueous solution, also, its pH value is higher than the
pH value of HCl.
Few drops of CH3COOH is put on the universal indicator paper, which reflects the pH value around 4. When
HCl is added to the universal indicator paper, the pH value is found to be 1.
OR
“Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a basic salt.” Justify this statement. How is it converted into washing soda ?
[Year - 2019]
A. NaHCO3 if formed by the neutralisation reaction between NaOH and H2CO3 is a weak acid. Therefore, the salt
(NaHCO3) formed is basic in nature.
On heating NaHCO3 decomposes to form Na2CO3, H2O and CO2. Na2CO3 is then re-crystallised.
heat
2NaHCO3 Na CO
2 3 CO 2 H2O
(Sodium bicarbonate) (Sodium carbonate) (Carbon dioxide) ( water )
Na CO
2 3 10 H2O
Na2CO3 .10H2 O
(Sodium bicarbonate) ( water ) (Washing soda)
71. How is the presence of an acid tested with a strip of red litmus paper ?
A. Acids will not change the colour of red litmus paper. To confirm the sample is an acid. It can be tested with blue
litmus paper which will change the colour to red.
OR
A student is performing an experiment to study the properties of acetic acid. Answer the following questions :
(i) Name the substance he must add to acetic acid to produce carbon dioxide.
(ii) Give the relevant chemical equation for the reaction.
37
(iii) How would he test CO2 gas in the laboratory ? [Year - 2019]
A. (i) Sodium bicarbonate can be added to CH3COOH to produce CO2.
(ii) CH COOH + NaHCO CH3 COONa H2 O
CO
3 3 2
(acetic acid) (Sodium bicarbonate) (Sodium acetate) ( Water ) (Carbon dioxide)
(iii) CO2 gas will turn lime water milky.
Ca(OH) 2 + CO 2 CaCO 3 H2 O
(Calcium Hydroxide) (Carbon dioxide) (Calcium Carbonate) (Water )
(milky)
72. What is brine ? What happens when an electric current is passed through it ? Write chemical equation for it.
A. Brine is a high-concentration solution of sodium chloride in water.
When an electric current is passed through the brine i.e., aqueous solution of sodium chloride then H2 gas
forms at negative electrode and Cl2 gas at the positive electrode.
2NaCl + 2H2 O 2Na 2OH– Cl2 H2
OR
List the changes that are observed when dil. HCl is added to a small amount of copper oxide in a beaker. Write
balanced chemical equation for the reaction. [Year - 2019]
A. Copper oxide is a weak base and it reacts with dilute HCl forming bluish green solution of copper chloride.
CuO + 2HCl CuCl 2 H2 O
(Copper oxide) (Hydro chloric acid) (Copper chloride) ( Water )
73. Name the acid present in ant sting and give its chemical formula. Also give the common method to get relief
from the discomfort caused by the ant sting.
A. Formic acid (HCOOH) is present in ant sting.
Baking soda (NaHCO3), which is a base, neutralizes the effect of acid injected by ant.
OR
A student prepared solutions of (i) an acid and (ii) a base in two separate beakers but forgot to label the
solutions and litmus paper is not available in the laboratory. Since both the solutions are colourless, how will he
distinguish between the two using (a) phenolphthalein and (b) methyl orange ? [Year - 2019]
A. Phenolphthalein remains colourless in an acidic medium and turns pink in basic medium.
Methyl orange shows red colour in acidic medium and yellow colour in basic medium.
C. Short Answer Questions : (3 marks each)
74. Name the acid present in the following :
(i) Tomato (ii) Vinegar (iii) Tamarind
A. (i) Tomato Oxalic acid, (ii) Vinegar Acetic acid, (iii) Tamarind Tartaric acid
38
75. (i) Define olfactory indicators. Name two substances which act as olfactory indicators.
(ii) Choose strong acids from the following : CH3COOH, H2SO4, H2CO2, HNO3
A. (i) Olfactory indicators: They are the substances whose odour changes in acidic or basic media. They smell
differently when come in contact with acid or base. Example - Onion and vanilla extract.
(ii) H2SO4, HNO3 are strong acids
76. Write the reaction of dilute hydrochloric acid on the following:
(i) Magnesium (ii) Sodium hydroxide (iii) Crushed egg shells
A. (i) Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) MgCl2(s) + H2
(ii) NaOH(aq) + dil.HCl NaCl + H2O()
(iii) CaCO3 + dil.2HCl CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O()
(Egg shell)
77. A compound which is prepared from gypsum has the property of hardening when mixed with proper quantity of
water.
(i) Identify the compound.
(ii) Write the chemical equation for its preparation.
(iii) Mention one important use of this compound.
1
A. (i) It is CaSO 4 H2 O (Plaster of paris)
2
1 3
(ii) CaSO 4 2H2 O s CaSO 4 H2O s H2O
120 C
2 2
(iii) It is used to make casts to immobilize broken bones to heal it.
78. Give three differences between baking soda and washing soda.
A. Difference between washing soda and baking soda :
Washing soda Baking soda
It is used in cleaning and It is used as an antacid.
washing of clothes (not edible).
Chemical formula: Na2CO3·10H2O. Chemical formula: NaHCO3.
The aqueous solution of it is highly basic. The aqueous solution of it is mildly or weakly-
basic or slightly acidic.
Washing soda contain water of crystallisation. It don’t have water of crystallisation.
Na2CO3 is very stable on heating. NaHCO3 decompose on heating.
79. You have four solution A, B, C and D. The pH of solution ‘A’ is 6, ‘B’ is 9, ‘C’ is 12 and ‘D’ is 7.
(a) Identify the most acidic and most basic solution.
39
(b) Arrange the four solutions in increasing order of H+ ion concentration.
(c) State the change in colour of pH paper on dipping in solution C and D.
A. (a) Most acidic solution is A (pH = 6).
Most Basic solution is C (pH = 12).
(b) Increasing order of H+ concentration - A > D > B > C
(c) In solution C Purple color.
In solution D pH paper will remain unaffect with colour as green.
80. 2 m of sodium hydroxide solution is added to a few pieces of granulated zinc metal taken in a test tube. When
the contents are warmed, a gas evolves which is bubbled through a soap solution before testing. Write the
equation of the chemical reaction involved and the test to detect the gas. Name the gas which will be evolved
when the same metal reacts with dilute solution of a strong acid
A. Zn + 2NaOH Na 2 ZnO2
H 2
(Zinc ) (Sodium Hydroxide) (Sodium Zincate) (Hydrogen)
H2 gas is evolved which is recognised by the ‘pop sound’ when it burns.
H2 gas is evolved with zinc reacts with dilute solution of a strong acid (like HCl)
Zn + 2HCl
ZnCl 2 H 2
(Zinc ) (Hydro Chloric acid) (Zinc Chloride) (Hydrogen)
OR
81. The pH of a salt used to make tasty and crispy pakoras is 14. Identify the salt and write a chemical equation for
its formation. List its two uses. [Year - 2018]
A. Baking soda (NaHCO3) is utilized to make crispy pakoras.
2NaCl + 2NH + H2 O +
3 CO 2 NaHCO3
2NH Cl
4
(Sodium Chloride) ( Ammonia ) ( Water ) (Carbon dioxide) (Baking soda) (Ammonium Chloride)
Uses of NaHCO3 are as follows:
a) It is used as an antacid in medicine to remove acidity of the stomach.
b) It is used in fire-extinguishers.
82. Write the name of the white powder generally added to besan to make soft and crisp pakoras. List two ingredients
of this powder and write function of each. Also give the equation for the chemical reaction that takes place
when this powder is heated.
A. Baking soda is added to besan to make soft and crisp pakoras.
Sodium Chloride (NaCl) and ammonia (NH3) is used to prepare baking soda.
Sodium chloride is used as a raw material for making large number of chemicals like NaOH, NaHCO3 etc.
NH3 is used in the preparation of various fertilizers.
40
heat
2NaHCO 3 Na CO2 3 CO 2 H2 O
(Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate) (Sodium Carbonate) (Carbon dioxide) ( Water )
OR
What is water of crystallization ? Name and give formula of two salts which contain water of crystallization.
[Year - 2018]
A. The water molecules which form an essential part of the structure of a crystal (of a salt) are called water of
crystallisation.
Two hydrated salts are:
(i) Gypsum (CaSO4 . 2H2O)
(ii) Washing soda (Na2CO3 . 10H2O)
83. Identify the acid and the base from which sodium chloride is obtained. Which type of salt is it? When is it called
rock salt? How is rock salt formed? [Year - 2019]
A. Sodium chloride (NaCl) is obtained from sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and Hydrochloric acid (HCl).
NaCl is a neutral salt.
Underground deposits of common salt is called rock salt.
Rock salt was formed when the ancient seas dried up by evaporation, thousands of years ago.
84. Identify the acid and base which form sodium hydrogen carbonate. Write chemical equation in support of your
answer. State whether this compound is acidic, basic or neutral. Also write its pH value. [Year - 2019]
A. NaHCO3 is formed from sodium hydroxide (NaOH), which is a strong base and carbonic acid (H2CO3) which is
a weak acid.
NaOH H2 CO3
NaHCO 3 H2 O
(Sodium Hydroxide) (Carbonic acid) (Sodium bicarbonate) ( Water )
Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a basic salt with pH value 9.
85. (a) While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the
acid ?
(b) Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not change the colour of dry litmus paper. Why ?
A. (a) When acid is added to water, then the heat is evolved gradually and easily absorbed by the large amount of
water.
If, however, water is added to concentrated acid to dilute it, then a large amount of heat is evolved at once.
This heat changes some of the water to steam explosively which can splash the acid and cause acid burns.
(b) Dry HCl gas does not contain any H+ ions in it, so it does not show acidic behaviour. Therefore, dry HCl gas
does not change the colour of dry litmus paper.
OR
41
86. How is sodium hydroxide manufactured in industries ? Name the process.
In this process a gas X is formed as by-product. This gas reacts with lime water to give a compound Y, which is
used as a bleaching agent in the chemical industry. Identify X and Y and write the chemical equation of the
reactions involved. [Year - 2019]
A. NaOH is produced when electricity is passed through a concentrated solution of NaCl (called brine), it
decomposes to form NaOH, Cl2 and H2.
The process is called electrolysis.
X is Chlorine gas.
Y is bleaching powder (CaOCl2).
Electricity
2NaCl 2H2O 2NaOH Cl2 H 2
(Sodium Chloride) ( Water ) (Sodium Hydroxide) (Chlorine) (Hydrogen)
Ca OH 2
Cl2
CaOCl 2 H2 O
(Calcium Hydroxide) (Chlorine) (Calcium Oxychloride) ( Water )
87. State the effect of concentration of H+(aq) ions on the nature of the solution. Do basic solutions also have
H+(aq) ions ? If yes, then why are these basic ? [Year - 2019]
A. Acidity of a solution increases with increases in concentration of H+ ions.
Yes, basic solution also has H+ ions. But the concentration of H+ ions in the basic solution is very less as
compared to OH– ions which are predominantly present in a base. Therefore, it shows basic characters in
solution.
88. A dry pellet of a common base B, when kept in open absorbs moisture and turns sticky. The compound B is also
a by-product of chlor-alkali process. Identify B. State the type of reaction that occurs when B is treated with an
acidic oxide, say sulphur dioxide. Also write chemical equation for the reaction involved. [Year - 2019]
A. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a commonly used base which is hygroscopic that absorbs moisture from the
atmosphere and becomes sticky.
Neutralisation reaction occurs when B is treated with an acidic oxide.
2 NaOH SO 2 Na SO
2 3 H2 O
(Sodium Oxide) (Sulphur dioxide) (Sodium sulphite) ( Water )
89. Write the chemical formula of washing soda. How can it be obtained from baking soda ? List two industries in
which washing soda is used for other purposes than washing clothes. [Year - 2019]
A. The formula of washing soda is Na2CO3.10H2O.
heat
2 NaHCO 3 Na CO2 3 CO 2 H2 O
(Sodium bicarbonate) (Sodium Carbonate) (Carbon dioxide) ( Water )
Na CO
2 3 10 H2 O Na2CO3 .10H2 O
(Sodium carbonate) (Water ) ( Washing soda)
Uses of washing soda are as follows :
i) Washing soda is used for removing permanent hardness of water.
ii) It is used in the manufacture of glass, soap and paper.
42
90. A white powder is added while baking cakes to make it soft and spongy. Name its main ingredients. Explain the
function of each ingredient. Write the chemical reaction taking place when the powder is heated during baking.
[Year - 2019]
A. Baking powder is added in breads and cakes to make them fluffy and soft.
The main ingredients are baking soda and potassium bitartrate.
Baking soda releases CO2 gas when heated and this makes the cake fluffy and soft.
Potassium bitartrate avoids the bitter taste by reacting with the Na2CO3 formed by the heating of NaHCO3, in the
preparation of cakes.
heat
2NaHCO3 Na CO
2 3 H2 O CO 2
(Baking Soda) (Sodium Carbonate) ( Water ) (Carbon dioxide)
91. In an industrial process used for the manufacture of sodium hydroxide, a gas ‘A’ is formed as a by-product. The
gas ‘A’ reacts with lime water to give a compound ‘B’ which is used as a bleaching agent in the chemical
industry. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’. Also give the chemical equations of the reactions involved. [Year - 2019]
A. NaOH is produced when electricity is passed through a concentrated solution of NaCl (called brine), it
decomposes to form NaOH, Cl2 and H2.
The process is called electrolysis.
X is Chlorine gas.
Y is bleaching powder (CaOCl2)
Electricity
2NaCl 2H2O 2NaOH Cl 2 H 2
(Sodium Chloride) ( Water ) (Sodium Hydroxide) (Chlorine) (Hydrogen)
Ca OH 2
Cl2
CaOCl 2 H2 O
(Calcium Hydroxide) (Chlorine) (Calcium Oxychloride) ( Water )
92. A metal X, which is used in thermite process, when heated with oxygen gives an oxide Y which is amphoteric in
nature. Identify X and Y. Write balanced chemical equations of the reactions of oxide Y with hydrochloric acid
and sodium hydroxide. [Year - 2019]
A. Metal ‘X’ is Aluminium (Al) which is used in thermite process.
Oxide ‘Y’ is Aluminium Oxide (Al2O3)
Al O
2 3 6 HCl
2AlCl 3 3 H2 O
( Aluminium Oxide) (Hydrochloric acid) ( Aluminium Chloride) (Water )
Al O2 3 2 NaOH
2NaAlO 2 H2 O
( Aluminium Oxide) (Sodium Hydroxide) (Sodium Aluminate ) (Water )
D. Very Long Type Questions and Answers : (5 marks each)
93. (i) State the chemical properties on which following uses of baking soda are based :
(a) as an antacid
(b) as a soda acid fire extinguisher
(c) to make bread and cake soft and spongy
(ii) How washing soda is obtained from baking soda? Write balanced chemical equation.
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A. (i) (a) Because NaHCO3 is mildly basic and it neutralises the acid in stomach during acidity.
(b) NaHCO3 on decomposition give CO2 which is used for extinguishing fire.
(c) NaHCO3 on decomposition give CO2 which can cause bread and cake to rise making them soft and
spongy.
(ii) 2NaHCO3 s
Na 2CO3 s H2O CO2
(Baking soda )
Crystallisation
Na2 CO3 s 10H2 O Na2 CO3 10H2 O s
94. (a) What are the importance of pH in everyday life ?
(b) How are sodium hydroxide and chlorine (Cl2) gas produced from common salt ? What is this process
called?
A. (a) (i) In our digestive system: HCl produced in our stomach helps the digestion of food.
(ii) Honey-bee injects an acid through its stings which causes pain and irritation.
(iii) Soil are generally acidic. Plants require definite pH range for their proper growth.
(iv) In morning, every person brush his teeth to make environment of mouth alkaline.
(b) The process is called chlor-alkali process which is carried out in Castner-Kellner Cell.
At cathode: 2H2O + 2e– H2 + 2OH–
At anode : 2Cl– Cl2 + 2e–
___________________________________________________
Net cell reaction : 2H2O + 2Cl– H2+Cl2 + 2OH–
95. Write an activity to show the reaction of acids with metal carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonate salts.
A. 1. Take a small amount of metal carbonate in test tube A and metal bicarbonate in test tube B.
2. Pour few drops of H2SO4 in both the test tubes. You will notice evolution of colourless gas.
3. Pass the evolved gas in both test tube through the lime water with the help of delivery tube.
4. You will notice that the lime water turns milky and then colourless in both the cases. This indicates that
evolved gas CO2.
Example: ZnCO3 + H2SO4 ZnSO4 + CO2 + H2O
96. (a) Define a universal indicator. Mention its one use.
(b) Solution A gives pink colour when a drop of phenolphthalein indicator is added to it. Solution B gives red
colour when a drop of methyl orange is added to it. What type of solutions are A and B and which one of the
solutions A and B will have a higher pH value ?
(c) Name one salt whose solution has pH more than 7 and one salt whose solutions has pH less than 7.
44
A. (a) Universal Indicator: It is a pH indicator made up of a solution of several compounds that exhibits several
smooth color changes over a wide range of pH values to indicate the acidity or alkalinity of solution.
At neutral point It is green.
In acid medium It ranges to yellow, orange, red.
In basic medium — It ranges to blue and purple.
(b) Solution A Basic solution
Solution B Acidic solution
Solution A will have higher pH
(c) An aqueous solution of Na2CO3 has pH > 7 at 25° because it is salt of strong base and weak acid.
NaOH(aq) + H2 CO3 (aq)
Na 2 CO3 (aq) + 2H2O
An aqueous solution of NH4Cl has pH < 7 at 25°C because it is salt of strong acid and weak base.
NH4OH(aq) + HCl(aq)
NH4Cl(aq) + H2O
97. A student dropped a few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid contained in a test tube. The evolved gas
was passed through lime water. What change would be observed in lime water ? Write balanced chemical
equations for both the changes observed. Write the formula of three strong acids and three strong bases.
A. (i) Lime water turns milky on passing the gas i.e. CO2
(ii) CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O()
CO2(s) + Ca(OH)2(aq) CaCO3(s) + H2O()
(iii) Three strong acid are HCl, HI and H 2SO 4 and three strong base are NaOH, KOH and Ba(OH) 2
respectively.
98. (i) What is a salt ?
(ii) Why aqueous solution of sodium carbonate is basic in nature ?
(iii) Why is an aqueous solution of ammonium chloride acidic in nature ?
A. (i) Salt: Any chemical compound formed from the reaction of an acid with a base with all or part of hydrogen
of the acid replaced by a metal or other cation. eg.- Na2CO3, NaHCO3, CaSO4, CaCl2 etc.
(ii) It is because Na2CO3 is salt of strong base and relatively weak acid.
(iii) It is because NH4Cl is salt of weak base and strong acid.
99. What are the chemical properties of acids ?
A. Chemical properties of acid:
(i) Dilute acid reacts with metal to form hydrogen gas and salt. for eg. Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) MgCl2(aq) + H2
(ii) Dilute acid reacts with metal carbonate to form salt, CO2 and H2O
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) CaCl2(aq) + H2O() + CO2
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(iii) Neutralisation Reaction: NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) NaCl(aq) + H2O()
(iv) Acid and metal sulphide forms salt and hydrogen sulphide.
Example: PbS(s) + Dil.HCl(aq) PbCl2(s) + H2S
(v) It turns blue litmus to red litmus.
100. What are the chemical properties of bases ?
A. Chemical properties of base:
(i) Neutralisation: NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) NaCl(aq) + H2O()
(ii) Amphoteric metal react with alkali to produce salt and H2
2Al 2NaOH 2H2O 2NaAlO2 3H2 (g)
(iii) NaOH(aq) + NH4Cl(aq) NaCl(aq) + NH3(s) + H2O()
(iv) Alkali in aqueous medium undergo dissociation and produces OH–
NaOH aq H2 O
Na aq OH aq
(v) Alkali turns phenolphthalein solution to pink colour.
101. (i) Distinguish between acid and alkali.
(ii) Distinguish between base and alkali.
(iii) 1 mole per litre of a solution (A) has pH equal to 13 and 1 mole per litre of another solution (B) has pH equal
to 11. Which is stronger? Are these bases or acids ?
A. (i) Acids are those substance which produces H+ in aqueous medium, while alkalies are those substance
which produces OH– in aqueous medium.
Acid Alkali
Turns blue litmus red Turn red litmus blue
Taste sour Taste bitter
pH is less than 7 pH is greater than 7
(ii) Base are all those substance that react with acid and neutralises them. For example metal oxide and metal
hydroxide.
Alkali are the water soluble bases . For eg. NaOH
(iii) A and B both are bases. A is stronger base as its pH is 13 greater than 11.
102. What is chlor-alkali process ? Name the products formed in this process and their uses.
A. Chlor-alkali process:
It is an industrial process for the electrolysis of sodium chloride. It is the technology to produce chlorine and
sodium hydroxide.
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Product formed: Cl2 ( at anode), H2 (at cathode), NaOH (near cathode)
Cl2 can be used as disinfectant.
H2 is used in Haber’s process to prepare ammonia.
NaOH It is used in oil refining and metal processing.
103. Write the main difference between an acid and a base. With the help of suitable examples explain the term
neutralization and the formation of -
(i) acidic,
(ii) basic and
(iii) neutral salts. [Year - 2019]
A. Differences between acid and base.
Acid Base
Acids dissociates in aqueous Bases dissociates in aqueous
1. 1.
solutions to liberate H+ ions. solutions to liberate OH– ions.
Ph of acidic substances is less Ph of acidic substances is less
2. 2.
than 7. than 7.
3. Sour in taste 3. Bitter in taste
Neutralisation is a chemical reaction in which an acid and a base react with each other to form salt and water.
(i) HCl NH OH
4 NH Cl
4 HO
2
(Hydrochloric acid) (Ammonium Hydroxide) (Ammonium Chloride) (Hydrogen)
(acidic salt)
(ii) 2NaOH H2 CO3 Na CO
2 3 2H2 O
(Sodium Hydroxide) (Carbonic acid) (Sodium carbonate) (Water )
(basic salt)
(iii) NaOH HCl NaCl H2 O
(Sodium Hydroxide) (Hydrochloric acid) (Sodium Chloride) ( Water )
(neutral salt)
E. CASE STUDY :
104. A scale for measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution, called pH scale has been developed. The p in
pH stands for ‘potenz’ in German, meaning power. On the pH scale we can measure pH generally from 0 (very
acidic) to 14 (very alkaline). pH should be thought of simply as a number which indicates the acidic or basic
nature of a solution. Higher the hydronium ion concentration, lower is the pH value.
Answer the following based on above paragraph:
(a) What does the scale represent when pH value increases from 7 to 14?
(b) What happens when the pH of mouth is lower than 5.5?
(c) Two solutions X&Y. The pH of X is 4 and the pH of Y is 7. What is the nature of two solution?
OR
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(d) Write down two importance of pH in everyday life?
A. (a) It represents an increase in OH- ions concentration in the solution i.e. the increment in the strength of alkali.
(b) Tooth decay starts in which the enamel gets corroded due to the much production of acids in mouth by
bacteria.
(c) Solution X is acidic in nature and the solution Y is neutral in nature.
OR
(i) The pH is important at different levels in the digestive system of the human body for the proper
digestion of food.
(ii) When a honeybee bites, it inserts an acidic substance Melittin in our body. To get relief from it,
an aqueous solution of a basic substance such as baking soda is applied around the place of
bite. It helps to neutralise the acidic poison.
105. Taj mahal, the seventh wonder of the world, is made of white stone. This white stone contains the same
substance ‘A’ that is present in chalk powder and limestone. It is turning yellow due to polluted air. If it is
cleaned by an acidic cleaner, a gas ‘B’ is released, which when passed through a solution ‘C’, forms the
same substance which is present in the white stone that was used to make Taj mahal.
(a) Which compound is solution C ?
(b) What is the nature of the substance A ?
(c) Write the formula of the compound A and B.
OR
(d) Write down the relevant reactions occurring in the above process.
A. (a)Ca(OH)2
(b) Basic
(c) CaCO3 and CO2
OR
CaCO3 + 2HCl CaCl2 + H2O+ CO2
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 CaCO3 + H2O
Additional Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
1. How will you test for the gas, which is liberated when hydrochloric acid reacts with an active metal ?
A. Zn (s) dil.HCl(aq) ZnCl2 (aq) H2 . It burns with a pop sound.
active
metal
2. Explain, why ethanoic acid is a weak acid ?
A. Because it is partially ionised in H2O.
3. Explain why hydrochloric acid is a strong acid ?
A. Because it is completely ionised in water.
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4. Name two organic acids which are weak.
A. Oxalic acid, Acetic acid.
5. Write a chemical reaction for the neutralisation reaction, mentioning the physical state of reactants and products.
A. NaOH(aq.) HCl(aq.) NaCl(aq.) H2O( )
6. What would be the colour of red litmus paper in a solution of sodium hydroxide?
A. NaOH(Basic) - Red litmus paper turns blue.
7. Curd is not kept in copper and brass utensils. Why?
A. Curd is not kept in copper because it will react with it.
8. Name the gas usually liberated, when a dilute acid reacts with a metal. What happens, when a burning candle
is brought near the gas?
A. The gas is H2. It burns with pop sound.
9. Do acids conduct electricity? Why ?
A. Yes they conduct electricity as they contain free ions in aqueous solution.
10. Does dry HCl gas conduct electricity? Why?
A. It does not conduct electricity due to absence of free ions.
11. On adding dilute hydrochloric acid to copper oxide powder, the solution formed is blue green. Predict the new
compound formed which impart blue green colour to the compound.
A. CuCl2 (aq) H2O()
CuO(s) dil.HCl(aq)
(Bluegreen)
12. Why does copper not react with dil H2SO4 or dil HCl ?
A. Cu(s) dil.H2SO4
Noreaction
Because copper is below Hydrogen in reactivity series, so it cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
13. Explain how antacids works.
A. Antacid (like Mg(OH)2) neutralises the excess gastric juice (HCl) produced in stomach.
14. What effect does the concentration of H+(aq) ions have on the nature of the solution?
A. Concentration of H ions determines whether a solution is acidic, basic or neutral. It determines pH of solution.
15. Name the gas evolved, when dilute sulphuric acid acts on sodium carbonate.
A. Na2SO4 (aq) CO2 (g) H2O()
Na2CO3 (s) H2SO4 (aq)
(Carbondioxide)
16. Which chemical is present in enamel?
A. Enamel is made up of calcium hydroxyapatite (a crystalline form of calcium phosphate Ca3(PO4)2.)
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17. What changes will take place in the pH of an acid, if you will go on adding alkali to it ?
A. pH will go on increasing, because H ions are neutralised by OH ions to form feebly dissociated H2O.
18. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be : (a) 1, (b) 4, (c) 5, (d) 10
A. As solution turns red litmus blue, it’s nature is basic i.e. pH > 7 at 25°C. So, pH = 10.
19. A solution ‘X’ reacts with crushed egg shells to give a gas which turns lime water milky. The solution contains:
(a) NaCl, (b) HCl, (c) LiCl, (d) KCl.
A. It should be acidic in nature because egg shell contains CaCO3.
CaCO3(s) + HCl(aq) CaCl2(aq) + H2O() + CO2
(egg shell) (Turns lime water milky)
20. A student detected pH of four unknown solutions A, B, C and D as follows :11, 5, 7, 2 at 25°C. Predict the nature
of solution.
A. pH = 11 (Basic), pH = 5 (Acidic), pH = 7 (Neutral), pH = 2 (Acidic).
21. What happens when nitric acid is added to egg shell ?
A. As we know that egg shell contains CaCO3 which reacts with HNO3 and produces CO2(g).
22. The pH of soil A is 7.5, while that of soil B is 4.5. Which of the two soils A or B should be treated with powdered
chalk, to adjust the pH and why ?
A. Soil B • pH = 4.5 means it is acidic. Chalk powder will neutralise excess acid in soil(B) and bring pH around
neutral.
23. Name the acid present in ant sting and its chemical formula. Also give the common method to get relief from the
discomfort caused by ant sting.
A. Acid present in ant sting is (HCOOH) formic acid and NaHCO3 is rubbed at the site of ant sting which will
neutralise HCOOH.
24. State reason for the following statements :
(i) Tap water conducts electricity, whereas distilled water does not.
(ii) Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus red, whereas dilute hydrochloric acid does.
(iii) During summer season, milkman adds very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(iv) For dilution of an acid, acid is added into water and not water into acid.
(v) Ammonia is a base, but it does not contain hydroxyl group.
A. (i) As tap water contains ions in the form of minerals.
(ii) Dry HCl does not turn blue litmus red because HCl is acid in aqueous form only. Dry HCl has no free ions,
whereas dil HCl contains free ions.
(iii) To neutralise excess of lactic acid.
(iv) If water is added to acid, highly exothermic reaction takes place and it may splash resulting in accident.
(v) Ammonia when dissolved in water forms ammonium hydroxide, which readily ionizes to form NH4+ and OH–
ions.
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25. What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?
A. Bleaching powder
26. Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder ?
A. Ca(OH)2 (aq) Cl2 (g) CaOCl2 (s) H2O( )
Calcium hydroxide
27. Name the sodium compound, which is used for softening hard water ?
A. Na2CO3(Sodium Carbonate), CaCl2 (aq) Na2CO3 CaCO3 (s) 2NaCl(aq)
(hardwater )
28. (i) Give the constituents of baking powder.
(ii) Why cake or bread swells on adding baking powder? Write the chemical equation.
A. (i) Constituent of baking powder - NaHCO3 + Tartaric acid
(ii) Cake or bread swells due to evolution of CO2 gas. 2NaHCO3 Na2CO3 H2O CO2
29. A gas ‘X’ reacts with slaked lime and forms a compound ‘Y’, which is used as a bleaching agent in chemical
industry. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Give the chemical equation of the reactions involved.
A. X = Cl2, Y = CaOCl2
Ca(OH)2 (aq) Cl2 (g) CaOCl2 (s) H2O( )
( X) (Y)
(Bleaching powder)
30. What will happen if we add phenolphthalein in NH4OH?
A. Phenolphthalein shows pink colour in basic medium.
31. What is the colour of CuSO4.5H2O and CuSO4?
A. CuSO4·5H2O (Blue), CuSO4 (White)
32. If a solution has pH = 2 then the solution is a strong or weak acid?
A. pH = 2 (Strong acid)
33. Why do soap solution turns methyl orange to yellow colour and turmeric to red colour?
A. Because the aqueous solution of soap is alkaline and methyl orange turns to yellow and turmeric to red in
colour in basic medium.
34. Which has more concentration of H+ ion, 1M HCl or 1M CH3COOH ?
A. 1M HCl has greater H+ ion as HCl is strong acid and is completely ionized.
35. How is bleaching powder prepared?
A. By passing Cl2 through lime water;
Cl2 g Ca OH2 aq CaOCl2 s H2 O
36. Why should we not take cold drink with meals?
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A. The cold drink will solidify the oily stuff that you have just consumed. It will slow down the process of digestion.
37. Explain why aqueous solution of an acid conducts electricity ?
A. Aqueous solution of acid contain ion of H+ .
38. When you add a few drops of acetic acid to a test-tube containing sodium bicarbonate powder, which one of
the following is your observation ?
(A) No reaction takes place
(B) A colourless gas with pungent smell is released with brisk effervescence
(C) A brown coloured gas is released with brisk effervescence
(D) Formation of bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas [Year - 2017]
A. (D) Formation of bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas.
39. A student requires hard water for an experiment in his laboratory which is not available in the neighbouring
area. In the laboratory there are some salts, which when dissolved in distilled water can convert it into hard
water. Select from the following groups of salts, a group, each salt of which when dissolved in distilled water will
make it hard.
(A) Sodium chloride, Potassium chloride
(B) Sodium sulphate, Potassium sulphate
(C) Sodium sulphate, Calcium sulphate
(D) Calcium sulphate, Calcium chloride [Year - 2017]
A. (D) Calcium sulphate, Calcium chloride
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TOPIC : METALS AND NON-METALS
A. Multiple-Choice Type Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
1. A mineral is known as ore if metal
(A) Cannot be produced from it (B) Can be produced from it
(C) Can be extracted from it profitably (D) Is very costly
A. (C) Can be extracted from it profitably
2. The earthy impurities associated with mineral used in metallurgy are called
(A) Slag (B) Flux (C) Gangue (D) Ore
A. (C) Gangue
3. Malachite is an ore of:
(A) Iron (B) Copper (C) Mercury (D) Zinc
A. (B) Copper
4. Metal always found in free state is:
(A) Gold (B) Calcium (C) Potassium (D) Sodium
A. (A) Gold
5. The common method for extraction of metals from the oxide ore is
(A) reduction with carbon (B) reduction with hydrogen
(C) reduction with aluminium (D) electrolytic method
A. (A) Reduction with carbon
6. An iron nail was suspended in CuSO4 solution and kept for a while the solution
(A) remained blue and coating was found on the nail.
(B) turned green and a coating was formed on the nail.
(C) remained blue and no coating was formed on the nail.
(D) turned green and no coating was formed on the nail.
A. (B) turned green and a coating was formed on the nail.
7. The sulphide ore among the following is
(A) haematite (B) bauxite (C) argentite (D) zinc blende
A. (D) zinc blende
8. Chemically rust is
(A) Hydrated ferrous oxide (B) Hydrated ferric oxide
(C) only ferric oxide (D) None of these
53
A. (B) Hydrated ferric oxide
9. Some copper sulphate crystals were dissolved in water. The color of the solution obtained would be
(A) Green (B) Red (C) Blue (D) Brown
A. (C) Blue
10. Most abundant metal on the surface of the earth is
(A) Iron (B) Aluminium (C) Calcium (D) Sodium
A. (B) Aluminium
11. In the thermite process, the reducing agent is
(A) Nickel (B) Zinc (C) Sodium (D) Aluminium
A. (D) Aluminium
12. In addition to iron, stainless steel contains:
(A) nickel and chromium (B) Copper and tin
(C) aluminium and magnesium (D) Carbon and magnesium
A. (A) nickel and chromium
13. The correct decreasing order of the metals in the activity series is:
(A) Ca, Mg, Ni, Fe (B) Ni, Ca, Mg, Fe
(C) Ca, Mg, Fe, Ni (D) Mg, Ca, Fe, Ni
A. (C) Ca, Mg, Fe, Ni
14. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in nature?
(A) N2O (B) MgO (C) CaO (D) Al2O3
A. (D) Al2O3
15. A student adds one big iron nail each in four test tubes containing solution of zinc sulphate, aluminium sulphate,
copper sulphate and iron sulphate. A reddish brown coating was observed only on the surface of iron nail which
was added in the solution of:
(A) Zinc sulphate (B) Iron sulphate (C) copper sulphate (D) Aluminium sulphate
A. (C) copper sulphate
16. Iron nail clipped in a solution kept in a test tube. After half an hour it was observed that the colour of the solution
was changed. The solution in test tube was that of:
(A) Zinc sulphate (B) Copper sulphate (C) Iron sulphate (D) Aluminium sulphate
A. (B) Copper sulphate
17. Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?
(A) NaCl solution and copper metal (B) NaCl solution and aluminum
(C) NaCl solution and silver metal (D) AgNO3 solution and copper
A. (D) AgNO3 solution and copper
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18. Which of the following method is suitable for preventing an iron fry pan from rusting?
(A) Applying grease (B) applying paint
(C) Applying coating of zinc (D) All of the above
A. (C) Applying coating of zinc
19. Which of the following compound is soluble in water?
(A) CuO (B) ZnCl2 (C) CCl4 (D) CH4
A. (B) ZnCl2
20. Food cans are coated with tin and not zinc because
(A) Zinc is costlier than tin (B) Zinc has higher melting point
(C) Zinc is more reactive than tin (D) Zinc is less reactive than tin
A. (C) Zinc is more reactive than tin
C. Assertion- Reasoning
21. Assertion: Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid.
Reason: Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
22. Assertion: Highly reactive metals are obtained by electrolytic reduction.
Reason : In the electrolytic reduction, metal is deposited at the cathode.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
23. Assertion : Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin.
Reason: Alloys are heterogeneous mixture of metals with other metals and non-metals.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
24. Assertion : Zinc oxide is amphoteric in nature.
Reason: Zinc oxide reacts with both acids and bases.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
25. Assertion : Copper displaces silver from silver nitrate solution.
Reason: Copper is more reactive than silver.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
26. Assertion : Aluminum oxide and zinc oxide are acidic in nature.
Reason: Amphoteric nature means that substance have both acidic and basic character.
A. (d) Assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
55
27. Assertion : Different metals have different reactivities with water and dilute acids.
Reason: Reactivity of a metal depends on its position in the reactivity series.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
28. Assertion : Iron is the most widely used metal. But it is never used in its pure state.
Reason: Pure iron is very soft and stretches easily when hot.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
29. Assertion: Gold occurs in native state.
Reason: Gold is a reactive metal.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
30. Assertion : The property of beating a metal into sheets is called ductility.
Reason: Gold and silver are most malleable metals.
A. (d) Assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
31. Assertion : Silver and gold do not react with oxygen even at high temperatures.
Reason: Silver and gold are less active metals.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
32. Assertion : The oxides of sulphur and phosphorus are acidic in nature.
Reason: Metal oxides are basic in nature.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
33. Assertion : MgO exists in liquid state.
Reason: The electrostatic forces of attraction between Mg2+ and 02- ions constitute ionic bond.
A. (d) Assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
34. Assertion : On reacting with water, calcium starts floating over water.
Reason: Calcium reacts with cold water at room temperature.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
B. Very Short Type Questions and Answers : (2 marks each)
35. You are given samples of three metals–sodium, magnesium and copper. Suggest any two activities to arrange
them in order of decreasing reactivity.
A. Activity 1 : Reaction with water
2Na(s) + 2H2O() (cold water) 2NaOH(aq) + H2
56
Mg(s) + 2H2O() (hot water) Mg(OH)2(aq) + H2
Cu(s) + H2O() (hot water) No reaction
Activity 2 : Reaction with air (oxygen)
4Na(s) + O2(g) 2Na2O(s)
Heating
2Mg(s) + O2(g) 2MgO(s)
Strong heating
2Cu(s) + O2(g) 2CuO(s)
The above two activities show reactivity as follows:
Na > Mg > Cu
36. Generally, when metals are treated with dilute mineral acids, hydrogen gas is liberated, but when metals (except
Mn and Mg) are treated with dilute HNO3, hydrogen is not liberated, why ?
A. Hydrogen gas is not liberated when a metal reacts with nitric acid (HNO3) because HNO3 is a strong oxidising
agent. HNO3 oxidises hydrogen liberated in the reaction to H2O and itself is reduced to an oxide of nitrogen like
NO, N2O or NO2.
37. A metal ‘M’ does not liberate hydrogen from acids but reacts with oxygen to form a black coloured product.
Identify ‘M’ and black coloured product and also explain the reaction of ‘M’ with oxygen.
A. Metal(M) is less reactive than hydrogen, because it does not liberate hydrogen from acid but reacts with oxygen
to form a black coloured product. So, metal(M) is copper and the black coloured product is copper (II) oxide.
2Cu(s) + O2(g) 2CuO(s)
Black
38. A solution of CuSO4 was kept in an iron pot. After few days, the iron pot was found to have holes in it. Explain
the reason in terms of reactivity. Write the equation for the reaction involved.
A. Iron is more reactive than copper. It reacts with CuSO4 and displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
Due to this displacement reaction, iron pot was found to have holes in it.
Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(Blue) (Light green) (Reddish brown)
39. Write one example each of :
(i) a metal which is so soft that it can be cut with knife and a non-metal which is the hardest naturally occuring
substance.
(ii) a metal and a non-metal which exist as liquid at room temperature.
A. (i) Soft metal is potassium (K) and the hardest non-metal is diamond (an allotrope of carbon)
(ii) Liquid metal is mercury(Hg) and liquid non-metal is bromine(Br2)
57
40. Give reason for the following:
(i) School bells are made up of metals.
(ii) Electric wires are made up of copper.
A. (i) Because metals have sonorous properties.
(i) Because copper is less expensive and has high electrical conductivity.
41. The way, metals like sodium, magnesium and iron react with air and water is an indication of their relative
position in the ‘reactivity series’. Is this statement true ? Justify your answer with example.
A. Yes, the statement is true. This is justified by following examples -
(i) Reaction of metals with O2 :-
Sodium reacts with oxygen at room temperature
4Na(s) + O2(g) Room temp. 2Na2O(s)
Magnesium reacts with oxygen upon heating in air and burns with a dazzling white flame.
Mg(s) + O2(g) Heating 2MgO(s)
Iron reacts with oxygen upon heating but does not burn
3Fe(s) + 2O2(g) Heating Fe3O4(s)
(ii) Reaction of metals with H2O :-
Sodium reacts with cold water.
2Na(s) + 2H2O( ) 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
Cold water
Magnesium reacts with hot water and steam.
Mg(s) + 2H2O( ) Mg(OH)2 + H2(g)
Hot water
Iron reacts with steam.
3Fe(s) + 4H2O( ) Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
Steam
The above examples indicates the relative reactivity of metals and the increasing order of reactivity is
Na > Mg > Fe.
42. X + YSO4 XSO4 + Y
Y + XSO4 No reaction
Out of two elements, ‘X’ and ‘Y’ which is more reactive and why ?
A. X is more reactive than Y because it displaces Y from its solution of YSO4.
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43. Name the iron compound in haematite. Write its chemical formula.
A. Iron compound is iron(III) oxide. Chemical formula of iron (III) oxide is Fe2O3
44. Sodium is more reactive than copper. Why? State any two examples in support of it.
A. Sodium is more reactive than copper because sodium is more electropositive metal than copper. Following two
examples support the reactivity of sodium and copper.
(i) Reaction with water :–
2Na(s) + 2H2O 2NaOH + H2
Cold water
Cu(s) + H2O() No reaction
(ii) Reaction with oxygen :–
4Na(s) + O2(g) 2Na2O(s)
Cu(s) + O2(g) 2CuO(s)
45. Name two metals which are found in nature in free state.
A. Silver(Ag) and Gold(Au) are found in free state in nature.
46. What are amphoteric oxide ? Give two examples.
A. Amphoteric oxides are those oxides which can react with acid as well as base.
Examples : Al2O3 and ZnO
47. Name two metals which will displace hydrogen from dilute acids and two metals which will not.
A. (a) Sodium(Na) and potassium(K) displace H2 from dilute acid
(b) Silver(Ag) and Copper(Cu) do not displace H2 from dilute acid
48. Choose the metal (from the list given below) which will displace zinc from zinc sulphate solution:
Lead, copper, magnesium, silver. Write the chemical equation.
A. Magnesium(Mg) is more reactive than zinc(Zn)
Mg(s) + ZnSO4(aq) MgSO4(aq) + Zn(s)
49. Explain how mercury is extracted from its sulphide ore (Cinnabar). Give equations for the reaction involved.
A. Mercury is directly extracted by roasting its pure ore cinnabar(HgS) in air. When cinnabar (HgS) is heated in
the presence of air, it is first converted into mercuric oxide. Mercuric oxide is then reduced to mercury on
further heating.
2HgS(s) + 3O 2 (g) 2HgO(s) + 2SO2
Roasting
Heat
2HgO(s) 2Hg() + O2
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50. Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the basis of their chemical properties.
A.
Metal Non-Metal
(1) Metals combine with oxygen to form (1) Non-metals combine with oxygen and
basic oxide or amphoteric oxide form acidic oxide or neutral oxide
4Na(s)+O2(g) Na2O(s) C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g)
Na2O(s) + H2O() 2NaOH(aq)
CO2(g) + H2O( ) H2CO3(aq)
(2) Metals react with dil acid like (2) Non-metals does react with dil acid
HCl or H2SO4 to liberate H 2 gas to displace H2
2Na + 2HCl 2NaCl + H 2
(dil.)
(3) Metals react with water to liberate (3) Non-metals don't react with
H2 gas water
2Na(s) + 2H2O() 2NaOH(aq) + H2
Mg(s) + H2O(g) MgO(s) + H2
(4) All metals react with chlorine (4) Non-metal react with chlorine gas to
to form ionic chloride form covalent chloride
Ca(s) + Cl2(g) CaCl2 (s) P4(s) + 6Cl2(g) 4PCl3()
(5) Metal have tendency to (5) Non-metals have tendency to
get oxidised by losing electrons get reduced by accepting electrons
+ – –
Na Na + e Cl + e Cl
–
2+ –
Mg Mg + 2e O + 2e
–
O2–
51. Two ores A and B were taken. On heating, ore ‘A’ gives CO2 whereas ore ‘B’ gives SO2. What steps will you take
to convert them into metal ?
A. Oxide of A + CO2
A
(Metal carbonate)
ZnCO3 (s) ZnO (s) + CO2 (g)
B Oxide of B + SO2
(Metal sulphide)
2HgS (s) + 3O2(g) 2HgO(s) + 2SO2 (g)
A and B are converted into their oxide.
Oxide of A is converted into metal by carbon reduction method.
1400°C
ZnO(s) + C(s) CO + Zn().
Oxideof B is converted into metal by heating.
2HgO (s) 2Hg() + O2(g).
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52. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.
A. Two ways to prevent rusting of iron :
(i) to coat with oil or grease or paint.
(ii) Galvanizing the iron with zinc.
53. Which metals do not corrode easily ?
A. Platinum(Pt) and Gold(Au) are very less reactive metals and do not react with air and moisture easily.
54. What are alloys ?
A. Alloys are solid solution made by combining two or more metals or metals with non-metals, especially to give
great strength or resistance to corrosion.
Ex : 22 carat gold is an alloy of gold with silver or copper.
55. Distinguish between the following:
(i) Electrolytic reduction and electrolytic refining.
(ii) Mineral and ore.
(iii) Alloys and amalgams.
A. (i) Electrolytic reduction :
It is the reduction of oxides of highly reactive metals like aluminium, sodium, etc. with the help of electricity.
Example : Reduction of aluminium oxide (Al2O3).
At cathode : 4Al3+() + 12e– 4Al(s)
2–
At anode : 6O (l) 3O2(g) + 12e–
_____________________________________
Overall reaction : 2Al2O3() Electrolysis 4Al(s) + 3O2(g)
Electrolytic refining :
It is the process of refining of impure metal into pure metal with the help of electricity.
In this process, impure metal is taken as anode while a thin strip of pure metal is taken as cathode and salt of
same metal is taken as electrolyte also.
Example : Electrolytic refining of Cu.
At cathode : Cu2+(aq) + 2e– Cu(s)
(Pure metal)
At anode : Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2e–
(Impure metal)
______________________________________________
Overall reaction : Cu(s) Electrolysis Cu(s)
(Impure metal) (Pure metal)
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(ii) Mineral are native form of inorganic solids containing metals and other elements in a crystalline structure
• An ore is the mineral from which metal and other element can be extracted economically and conveniently.
• All ores are minerals but all the minerals are not ores.
(iii) An alloy is a homogeneous solid solution of a metal with other metals or non-metals, with essentially
metallic properties.
• An amalgam is an alloy of a metal with the mercury.
56. (a) Write two differences between calcination and roasting.
(b) No reaction takes place when granules of a solid ‘A’ are mixed with a powder of solid ‘B’. However when the
mixture is heated, a reaction starts with evolution of much heat. Product ‘C’ of the reaction settles down as
a liquid metal and solid product ‘D’ keeps floating over the liquid ‘C’. This reaction is sometimes used for
making metals ready for use in odd places.
(i) Based on this information, identify ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’ and write a balanced chemical equation for the
reaction. Include in the chemical equation about physical states of the reactants and products, need of
heating for starting the reaction and the reaction being exothermic.
(ii) Name two types of chemical reactions to which this reaction can belong.
A. (a) Differences between roasting and calcination are –
(i) Roasting require presence of oxygen while calcination is carried out in the absence of oxygen.
(ii) Roasting is carried out for sulphide ore while calcination is carried out for carbonate ores.
Example of roasting -
2HgS (s) + 3O2(g) 2HgO(s) + 2SO2 (g)
Example of Calcination -
ZnCO3 (s) ZnO (s) + CO2 (g)
(b) (i) Description indicates about thermite process.
A = Fe2O3 B = Al
C = Al2O3 D = Fe
Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) Al2O3(s) + 2Fe() + Heat.
The above reaction is called thermite reaction.
(ii) It can be related to two type of reaction.
(1) Redox reacton.
(2) Displacement reaction.
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57. Name the ores of the following metals:
(a) Mercury, (b) Zinc, (c) Aluminium
A. (a) Cinnabar (HgS)
(b) Zinc blende(ZnS) and calamine(ZnCO3)
(c) Bauxite (Al2O3· ZH2O)
58. Give reasons :
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
(b) Metals like sodium and potassium are stored under oil. [Year - 2019]
A. a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery because these are low reactive metals, so rarely
corrosion occur and hence do not lost their shine and lustre.
b) Sodium and Potassium are stored in kerosene because they are very reactive elements and react vigorously
with the moisture and oxygen of the air.
59. What would a student report nearly after 30 minutes of placing duly cleaned strips of aluminium, copper, iron
and zinc in freshly prepared iron sulphate solution taken in four beakers ? [Year - 2019]
A. The student will observe displacement reaction in the beakers with metals ‘Al’ and ‘Zn’. There will be no reaction
in the test tubes containing Cu and Fe. In, the beaker containing ‘AI’ and ‘Zn’ the green colour of the solution
disappears with time.
60. Give reason :
(a) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction.
(b) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal; still it is widely used in making cooking utensils. [Year - 2019]
A. a) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction because it
is easy to extract metal from its oxide ore by reduction reaction when compared to carbonate or sulphide
ore.
b) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, still it is widely used in making cooking utensils because Al reacts with
oxygen present in air to form a their layer of aluminium oxide (Al2O3). This oxide layer is very stable and
prevents further reaction of Al with oxygen.
61. Name a metal of medium reactivity and write three main steps in the extraction of this metal from its sulphide
ore. [Year - 2019]
A. Zinc is extracted from its sulphide ore.
Method of is extraction:
Roasted in air to make Zinc oxide
Roasting
2ZnS 3O2 2ZnO 2SO 2
(Zinc Sulphide) (Oxygen) ( Zinc Oxide) (Sulphur dioxide)
Zinc Oxide is then reduced by carbon monoxide.
Re duction
2ZnO 2CO 2Zn 2CO 2
(Zinc Oxide) (Carbon monoxide) (Zinc ) (Carbon dioxide )
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62. Show the formation of magnesium oxide by the transfer of electrons. [Year - 2019]
A. Magnesium loses 2 elctrons from its outermost shell and becomes Mg2+, while Oxygen gains 2 electrons to
become O2–.
Mg – 2e– Mg
2+
(2, 8, 2) (2, 8)
O – 2e– O2–
(2, 6) (2, 8)
Mg O
Mg +O 2– MgO
2+
63. Show the formation of Na2O by the transfer of electrons. [Year - 2019]
A. Na – e– Na+
(2, 8, 1) (2, 8)
O + 2e– O2–
(2, 6) (2, 8)
×
Na 2–
+ ×
× + O 2Na ×O Na2O
Na
64. A student mixes sodium sulphate powder in barium chloride powder. What change would the student observe on
mixing the two powders ? Justify your answer and explain how he can obtain the desired change.
A. When Na2SO4 powder is mixed with BaCl2 power, no change is observed as no chemical reaction will take
place.
When the two chemicals are dissolved in water, white coloured barium sulphate (BaSO4) precipitates out and
sodium chloride (NaCl) remains in solution.
BaCl 2 Na SO2 4 BaSO 4 2NaCl
(Barium chloride) (Sodium Sulphate) (Barium Sulphate) (Sodium Chloride)
OR
(a) Arrange the following metals in the decreasing order of their reactivities :
Copper, Zinc, Aluminium and Iron
(b) List two observations you would record in your notebook 30 minutes after adding iron filings to copper
sulphate solution. [Year - 2019]
64
A. a) Metals in decreasing order of reactivity:
Aluminium > Zinc > Iron > Copper.
b) The two observations are as follows :
(i) Blue coloured copper sulphate solution will turn green due to the formation of FeSO4.
(ii) Reddish brown Cu will get deposited on the iron filings.
C. Short Type-II Questions and Answers : (3 marks each)
65. P, Q, R are three elements which undergo chemical reaction according to the following equations:
(i) P2O3 + 2Q Q2O3 + 2P
(ii) 3RSO4 + 2Q Q2(SO4)3 + 3R
(iii) 3RO + 2P P2O3 + 3R
Answer the following question with reasons:
(a) Which element is most reactive ?
(b) Which element is least reactive ?
(c) State the type of reactions involved.
A. According to given displacement reactions, order of reactivity will be Q>P>R
(a) Q is the most reactive, because Q displaces P and R from P2O3 and RSO4 respectively.
(b) R is the least reactive, because R is displaced by Q and P from RSO4 and RO respectively.
(c) Displacement reaction and redox reaction.
66. Write the balanced equations for the following reactions:
(i) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium power.
(ii) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
(iii) Carbon dioxide is passed through lime water.
A. (i) 2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(dilute) Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2
(ii) Na2CO3(s) + 2HCl(dilute) 2NaCl(aq) + CO2 + H2O()
(iii) CO2(g) + Ca(OH)2 (aq) CaCO3(s) + H2O()
67. Suggest a method of reduction for the following metals during the metallurgical process.
(i) Metal ‘A’ which is one of the last, second last, or third last position in the reactivity series.
(ii) Metal ‘B’ gives vigorous reaction even with cold water and air.
(iii) Metal ‘C’ which is kept in the middle of reactivity series.
A. (i) Thermal reduction.
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2HgO(s)
2Hg() + O2
(ii) Electrolytic reduction.
2NaCl()
Electrolysis
2Na(s) + Cl2(g)
(iii) Reduction by using coke or carbon monoxide as reducing agent.
2ZnO(s) + C(s) 2Zn(s) + CO2
68. Define the following terms: (i) Mineral, (ii) Ore, (iii) Gangue.
A. (i) Minerals – They are inorganic salt in crystalline structure containing metals and different elements.
(ii) Ore – It is the mineral from which metal can be extracted economically.
(iii) Gangue – Impurity present with the ore is called gangue.
69. What is an alloy ? State the constituents of solder. Which property of solder makes it suitable for welding
electrical wires ?
A. (i) Alloy : It is solid solution of two or more than two metals and different elements like carbon.
(ii) Solder : Pb(50%) and Sn(50%).
(iii) Low melting point and good electrical conductivity.
70. What is meant by rusting ? With labelled diagram, describe an activity to find out the necessary conditions for
rusting.
A. Rusting is a type of chemical change (Redox reaction) over the iron which causes the corrosion of iron due
to formation of hydrated Iron(III) oxide(Fe2O3.xH2O) in presence of oxygen and water or moisture present in
air.
Necessary conditions for rusting are presence of oxygen and moisture at the same time over the iron object.
Activity : -
– Take three test tubes (A, B and C) and place clean iron nails in each of them. Pour some water in test tube
A and cork it.
– Pour boiled distilled water in test tube B, add about 1 ml of oil and cork it. The oil will float on water and
prevent the air from dissolving in the water.
– Put some anhydrous calcium chloride (CaCl2) in test tube C and cork it. Anhydrous calcium chloride will
absorb the moisture.
– Leave these test tubes for a few days and then we will observe that iron nails rust in test tube A but they do
not rust in test tube B and C.
– This shows that oxygen and moisture both are required for rusting process.
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A A C
Air Air
Layer of oil Dry air
Rusty iron nails [prevent air to dissolve in water]
Nails are not rusted
Water Nails are not rusted
Boiled distilled water
[boil to remove dissolved air] Anhydrous CaCl2
(Dehydrating agent)
71. A metal ‘X’ acquires a green colour coating on its surface on exposure to air.
(i) Identify the metal ‘X’ and name the process responsible for this change.
(ii) Name and write the formula of green coating formed on the metal.
A. (i) Metal is copper (Cu). It is due to corrosion.
(ii) Green coating is basic copper carbonate, Cu(OH)2.CuCO3.
72. A metal (E) is stored under kerosene. When a small piece of it is left open in the moist air, it catches fire. When
the product formed is dissolved in water, it turns red litmus to blue.
(i) Name the metal (E).
(ii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction when it is exposed to air and when the product is dissolved in
water.
(iii) Explain the process by which the metal is obtained from its molten chloride.
A. (i) Sodium (Na).
(ii) 2Na(s) + O2(g) Na2O(s).
Na2O(s) + H2O() 2NaOH (aq).
(iii) Metal is obtained from its molten chloride by electrolysis.
At cathode : 2Na+ (l)+2e– 2Na(s)
At anode : 2Cl– (l) Cl2(g) + 2e–
Overall reaction : 2NaCl(l) 2Na(s) + Cl2(g)
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73. Explain with the help of diagram, how copper metal can be refined. Label the important arrangements in the
experimental set up.
+ -
A. Anode Cathode
(Impure (Pure copper)
copper)
Acidified
CuSO4 solution
Cu2+ Cu2+
Anode
mud
(Impurity)
Electrolyte - CuSO4(aq).
At anode :
Cu(s) Cu2+ (aq) + 2e–
Impure
With the time, the anode gets thinner and ultimately only anode mud remains which contains other elements.
At cathode :
Cu2+(aq) + 2e– Cu(s)
Pure
With time the cathode gets thicker and pure copper is obtained at cathode.
74. Explain the following :
(a) Sodium chloride is an ionic compound which does not conduct electricity in solid state where as it does
conduct electricity in molten state as well as in aqueous solution.
(b) Reactivity of aluminium decrease if it is dipped in nitric acid.
(c) Metals like calcium and magnesium are never found in their free state in nature. [Year - 2019]
A. a) In order to conduct electricity a substance must have charged particles, such as electrons and free ions,
that are free to move in solution. In the solid state, ionic compounds such as NaCl have their ions fixed in
position and therefore these ions cannot move so solid ionic compounds cannot conduct electricity.
b) When Al is dipped in HNO3, a layer of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) is formed on the metal. This happens
because HNO3 is a strong oxidizing agent. The layer of Al2O3 prevents further reaction of Al. Due to this, the
reactivity of Al decreases.
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c) Calcium and magnesium are reactive metals that readily react with atmospheric oxygen and other gases.
Therefore, they are found in nature to form their compounds.
75. During the reaction of some metals with dilute hydrochloric acid, the following observations were made by a
student :
(a) Silver does not show any change.
(b) Some bubbles of a gas are seen when lead is reacted with the acid.
(c) The reaction of sodium is found to be highly explosive.
(d) The temperature of the reaction mixture rises when aluminium is added to the acid.
Explain these observations giving appropriate reason. [Year - 2019]
A. a) Because Ag is a less reactive element, it cannot displace hydrogen from dil. HCl.
b) Bubbles of H2 gas are seen when lead reacts with dilute HCl.
c) As Na is very reactive element, so it reacts rigorously with HCl and is found to be explosive.
d) Because reaction of Al with HCl is exothermic in nature.
76. Given below are the steps for the extraction of copper from its ore. Write the chemical equation of the reactions
involved in each case.
(i) Roasting of copper (I) sulphide
(ii) Reduction of copper (I) oxide from copper (I) sulphide
(iii) Electrolytic refining [Year - 2019]
A. (i) Roasting
2Cu2 S 3O2 2Cu O 2 2SO 2
(Copper sulphide) (Oxygen) (Copper Oxide) (Sulphur dioxide)
(ii) 2Cu O Cu S Re duction
6Cu SO
2 2 2
(Copper Oxide) (Copper sulphide) (Copper ) (Sulphur dioxide )
(iii) Reactions for electrolytic refining:
At anode : Cu 2e – Cu2
At cathode : Cu2 +2e
Cu
77. Out of three metals P, Q and R, P is less reactive than Q and R is more reactive than P and Q both. Suggest an
activity to arrange P, Q and R in order of their decreasing reactivity.
A. Taking salt solution of metal P, metal Q and metal R. We know, when salt solution of a given metal is displaced by
another metal then, reactivity of that metal is higher than metal present in salt.
According to question,
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P is less reactive than Q, so Q > P ...(i)
Again, R is more reactive than P and Q.
So, R > P and R > Q ...(ii)
From equations, (i) and (ii)
R>Q>P
OR
Name the ore of mercury. With the help of balanced chemical equations, explain the process of extraction of
mercury from its ore. [Year - 2019]
A. Ore of mercury is Cinnabar.
Mercury is obtained through the extraction from its ore. The following processes are involved. Firstly, the
purified ore is roasted.
2HgS 3O2 2HgO 2SO 2
(Mercury Sulphide) (Oxygen) (Mercury Oxide) (Sulphur dioxide)
Secondly, HgO is heated at 300°C, when it decomposes to Hg and O2.
78. How is the method of extraction of metals high up in the reactivity series different from that for metals in the
middle ? Why can the same process not be applied for them ? Name the process used for the extraction of
these metals. [Year - 2019]
A. Metals high up in the reactivity series are so reactive that they are usually not found in free state and are
extracted by electrolytic reduction. Metals in the middle of the reactivity series are usually found in the combined
state as their sulphides and carbonates, which are first converted to their respective oxides and then reduced
by heating.
Electrolytic reduction is not employed for such metals as it is a more powerful and stronger method of reduction
and is not needed for these metals whereas, metals like Na and K cannot be obtained from their compounds by
heating with carbon.
Electrolysis is the process used for the extraction of these metals.
79. An ore on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid produces brisk effervescence. Name the type of ore with one
example. What steps will be required to obtain metal from the enriched ore ? Also write the chemical equations
for the reactions involved in the process. [Year - 2019]
A. Carbonate ores on reacting with HCl gives brisk effervescence, for example Zinc Carbonate (ZnCO3)
By the process of Calcination and reduction, metal can be obtained from its carbonate ore.
Calcination
ZnCO3 heat
ZnO + CO 2
(Zinc Carbonate) (Zinc Oxide) (Carbon dioxide)
Re duction
ZnO + C Zn + CO
(Zinc Oxide) (Carbon) ( Zinc ) (Carbon Monoxide)
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80. An ore on treatment with dil. HCl gives the smell of burnt sulphur. Name the type of this ore. How can the metal
be obtained from its concentrated ore ? [Year - 2019]
A. The smell of rotten egg is given by sulphide ores only as sulphur has the characteristic smell of burnt sulphur.
Metals can be obtained from its sulphide ore by the process of roasting and reduction of the oxides.
Roasting
ZnS + O2
heat
ZnO + SO 2
(Zinc Sulphide) (Oxygen) ( Zinc Oxide) (Sulphur dioxide)
Roasting
ZnO + C Zn + CO
(Zinc Oxide) (Carbon) ( Zinc ) (Carbon monoxide )
C. Very Long Type Questions and Answers : (5 Marks each)
81. Explain the following
(a) Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of Na or Mg.
(b) NaCl is not a conductor of electricity in solid state, whereas it does conduct electricity in aqueous solution
as well as in molten state.
(c) Iron articles are galvanised.
(d) Metals like Na, K, Ca and Mg are never found in their free state in nature.
A. (a) Sodium and Magnesium have a higher affinity towards oxygen than that of Carbon because these are
highly reactive metals. Hence, Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of Na or Mg.
(b) In aqueous solution and in molten state it exits as ions i.e. Na+ and Cl–. While in solid state there are not free
ions.
(c) Because Zn is more reactive than Iron (Fe).
(d) Because these metals are highly reactive and forms oxide which are very stable.
82. (i) Given below are the steps for extraction of copper from its ore. Write the reaction involved is each steps.
(a) Roasting of copper (I) sulphide
(b) Reduction of copper(I) oxide with copper (I) sulphide.
(c) Electrolytic refining.
(ii) Draw a neat and well labelled diagram for electrolytic refining of copper.
A. (i) (a) 2Cu2S(s) + 3O2(g) 2Cu2O(s) + 2SO2
(b) 2Cu2O(s) + Cu2S(s) 6Cu(s) + SO2
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(c) At anode : Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2e–
Impure
2+ –
At cathode : Cu (aq) + 2e Cu(s)
Pure
Overall Cu(s) Cu(s)
reaction : Impure Pure
+ -
(ii) Anode Cathode
(Impure (Pure copper)
copper)
Acidified
CuSO4 solution
Cu2+ Cu2+
Anode
mud
(Impurity)
Electrolyte - CuSO4(aq).
83. What is an alloy ? How is an alloy made ? List two purposes of making alloys. Mention the constituents and two
properties of each of the following alloys :
(i) Stainless steel (ii) Brass
A. An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a non metal like carbon.
It is made by first melting the primary metal, and then dissolving the other elements in it in definite proportions.
It is then cooled to room temperature.
Alloying is a very good method of improving the properties of metal. Purposes of making alloys are –
(a) to increase the hardness of metals
(b) to protect metals from corrosion
(i) Stainless steel : (Iron, Chromium, Nickel and Carbon)
• Resistant to corrosion.
• Poor conductor of electricity.
(ii) Brass : (Copper and zinc)
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• It has higher malleability than Cu and Zn.
• It has relatively low melting point which makes it easy material to cast and mould.
84. (a) Describe the ‘reactivity series of metals’ with example.
(b) What would you observe when you put.
(i) some zinc pieces into blue copper sulphate solution ?
(ii) some copper pieces into green ferrous sulphate solution ?
(c) Name a metal which combines with hydrogen gas ? Name the compound.
A. (a) The reactivity series is a list of metals arranged in the order of their decreasing activities. Metals are
arranged on the basis of displacement reactions.
Metal A + Salt solution of metal B Salt solution of A + Metal B
Here, metal A displaces metal B from its solution. So, metal A is more reactive than B.
Example :
Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
A More reactive (Zn)
Reactivity decreases
B Less reactive (Fe)
(b) (i) The blue colour of solution disappears and the solution becomes colourless.
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) ZnSO 4(aq) + Cu(s)
Blue Colourless
(ii) There is no change in colour
Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq) No reaction
(c) Reactive metal like calcium(Ca) easily combine with hydrogen and form calcium hydride(CaH2). The name
of calcium hydride(CaH2) is hydrolith.
85. (a) Explain any two physical properties of ionic compounds giving reason.
(b) List any two metals found in free state in earth’s crust. Where are they located in activity series ?
(c) Metals towards the top of the activity series cannot be obtained from their compounds by reducing with
carbon. Why ?
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A. (a) Two physical properties of ionic compounds are -
(i) Melting point and boiling point -
Melting points and boiling points of ionic compouds are very high. This is because a considerable
amount of energy is required to break the strong interionic attraction.
(ii) Solubility -
Ionic compounds are generally soluble in water but insoluble in solvent like kerosene, petrol etc.
This is because molecules of water interact with cations and anions of crystal and decrease the inter-
ionic attraction in the resulting solution.
(b) Gold(Au) and platinum (Pt) are found in free state. They are located at the bottom of reactivity series.
(c) This is because the metals at the top of reactivity series are very reactive and want to remain in oxidised
form. So they have very less affinity toward carbon.
86. (a) Write the steps involved in the extraction of pure metals in the middle of the activity series from their
carbonate ores.
(b) How is copper extracted from its sulphide ore ? Explain the various steps supported by chemical equations.
Draw labelled diagram for the electrolytic refining of copper. [Year - 2018]
A. a) The carbonate ore of Zinc (ZnCO3) is heated in the absence of oxygen by the process of calcination to form
Zinc oxide and CO2. Zinc oxide is then reduced with carbon to give the pure metal.
Calcination
ZnCO 3 heat
ZnO + CO 2
(Zinc Carbonate) (Zinc Oxide) (Carbon dioxide)
Re duction
ZnO + C Zn + CO
(Zinc Oxide) (Carbon ) (Zinc ) (Carbon monoxide)
b) The processes of Cu extration from its sulphide ore are as follows:
(i) Roasting of copper sulphide (Cu2S).
Roasting
2Cu S 2 + 3O2 2Cu O +
2 2SO 2
(Copper sulphide) (Oxygen ) (Copper Oxide) (Sulphur dioxide)
(ii) Copper oxide formed above reacts with the remaining Cu2S to form copper metal and SO2.
heat
Cu S2 + 2Cu2 O 6Cu + SO2
(Copper sulphide) (Copper Oxide ) (Copper ) (Sulphur dioxide)
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Battery
+ –
+ –
Impure Pure Copper
Cu as Cu2+ as Cathode
anode 2+
Cu Electrolytic tank
Acidified
Impurities
Copper sulphate
(Anode mud) solution as electrolyte
Fig: Electrolytic refining of Copper
87. Distinguish between metals and non-metals on the basis of
(i) two physical properties and (ii) three chemical properties.
A. (i) Differences in physical properties:
Metals Non-metals
Non-metals are non-malleable
Metals are malleable and
(i) (i) and non-ductile. Rather they are
ductile
brittle.
Metals are good conductors of Non-metals are bad conductors
(ii) (ii)
heat and electricity. of heat and electricity.
(ii) Differences in chemical properties.
Metals Non-metals
All metals react with oxygen to Non-metals react with oxygen to
(i) form metal oxides or basic (i) form non-metallic oxides or
oxides acidic oxides.
Metals react with water to form
Non-metals do not react with
(ii) metal oxide or metal hydroxide (ii)
water.
and H2 gas.
All metals react with Chlorine to Non-metals react with chlorine to
(iii) (iii)
form ionic metal chlorides. form covalent chlorides.
OR
(1) A non-metal ‘P’ which is the largest constituent of air, when heated with hydrogen in 1:3 ratio in the
presence of catalyst (Fe) gives a gas Q.
(2) On heating P with oxygen an oxide R is formed.
(3) If this oxide (R) is passed into water in the presence of air, an acid S is formed which acts as a strong
oxidizing agent.
(a) Identify P, Q, R and S, and give chemical equations of the reactions involved to justify your answer.
(b) To which group and period of modern periodic table does this non-metal P belong ? [Year - 2018]
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A. (a) P is nitrogen gas.
Q is ammonia (NH3).
R is nitric oxide (NO).
S is nitric acid (HNO3).
Fe
N
2 + 3H2
2NH3
(400 450) C
(Nitrogen) (Hydrogen ) 200 atm ( Ammonia)
heat
N
2 + O2 2NO
(Nitrogen) (Oxygen) (Nitric Oxide)
4NO + 3O 2 + 2H2 O 4HNO3
(Nitric Oxide) (Oxygen) ( Water ) (Nitric acid)
(b) Nitrogen (P) belongs to group 15 and second period of the modern periodic table.
88. (a) List in tabular form three chemical properties on the basis of which we can differentiate between a metal
and a non-metal.
(b) Give reasons for the following:
(i) Most metals conduct electricity well.
(ii) The reaction of iron (III) oxide [Fe2O3] with heated aluminium is used to join cracked machine parts.
[Year - 2019]
A. (a) Metals Non-metals
All metals react with oxygen to Non-metals react with oxygen to
(i) form metal oxides or basic (i) form non-metallic oxides or
oxides acidic oxides.
Metals react with water to form
Non-metals do not react with
(ii) metal oxide or metal hydroxide (ii)
water.
and H2 gas.
All metals react with Chlorine to Non-metals react with chlorine to
(iii) (iii)
form ionic metal chlorides. form covalent chlorides.
(b) (i) Metals conduct electricity because of the free moving electrons.
(ii) The reaction of Fe2O3 with Al to produce Fe is highly exothermic in which a large amount of heat is
evolved. The amount of heat evolved is so large that the metals are produced in the molten state. This
property of the reduction by Al is made use of in thermite welding for joining the broken pieces of
machine parts.
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89. (a) Write chemical equations for the following reactions:
(i) Calcium metal reacts with water.
(ii) Cinnabar is heated in the presence of air.
(iii) Manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium powder.
(b) What are alloys ? List two properties of alloys [Year - 2019]
A. (a) (i) Ca + 2H2 O Ca OH 2 + H2
(Calcium) (Water ) (hydroxide)
(Calcium hydroxide)
(ii) 2HgS + 3O2 Roasting
2HgO + 2SO 2
(Cinnabar ore) (Oxygen) (Mercuric Oxide) (Sulphur dioxide)
(ii) 3MnO 2 + 4Al 3Mn
+ 2Al O 2 3
(Manganese dioxide) (Aluminium) (Manganese) ( Aluminium Oxide)
(b) Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of metal with other metals or non-metals. Example - Solder, brass.
Two properties of alloys are as follows:
(ii) Alloys are stronger than the metals from which they are made.
(i) Alloys are more resistant to corrosion
90. Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, Magnesium and aluminium to their respective metals. Why?
Where are these metals placed in the reactivity series. How are these metals obtained from their ores?
Take an example to explain the process of extraction along with clinical equation. [Year - 2020]
A. Sodium, Magnesium and aluminium have a higher affinity for oxygen than that of Carbon because they are
highly reactive metals. Hence Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of Na, Mg, and M.
These metals are placed at the top of the reactivity series. These metals are obtained by electrolytic
reduction of their purified molten ore.
Extraction of ‘Na’ from molten NaCl:
Reaction at Cathode: 2Na+ + 2e– 2Na(s)
Reaction at Anode : 2Cl– – 2e– Cl2(g)
______________________
Electricity
Overall reaction : 2NaCl 2Na(s) Cl2 (g)
D. Case Study:
91. The metals in the middle of the activity series such as iron, zinc, lead, copper etc., are moderately reactive.
These are usually present as sulphides or carbonates in nature. It is easier to obtain a metal from its oxide, as
compared to its sulphides and carbonates. Therefore, prior to reduction, the metal sulphides and carbonates
must be converted into metal oxides. The sulphide ores are converted into oxides by heating strongly in the
presence of excess air. This process is known as roasting. The carbonate ores are changed into oxides by
heating strongly in limited air. This process is known as calcination.
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a) What is calcination?
b) Give a suitable example for the process roasting.
c) What is the process of converting metal oxide to metal?
d) Name some other reducing agent which can be used to extract metal from metal oxide?
A. a) Calcination is defined as the process of converting an ore into an oxide by heating it strongly in absence
of air or in limited supply. This method is commonly used for converting carbonates to their respective
oxides.
b) An example of roasting is when Zinc sulphide is converted into zinc oxide.
2ZnS + 3O2 2ZnO + 2SO2
c) Metal oxides are reduced by using a reducing agent which is carbon or highly reactive metals. The
chemical process used for obtaining a metal from its oxide is reduction. For example, metallic zinc is
obtained from the zinc oxide with the help of heating by carbon. The equation is given below;
ZnO(s)+C(s)Zn(s)+CO(g)
d) Active metals like sodium, aluminium etc., can be used as reducing agent for the extraction of metal oxide.
F. CASE STUDY 2
92. Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air. This is because it reacts with sulphur in the
air to form a coating of sliver sulphide. Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air and slowly loses its
shiny brown surface and gains a green coat. This green substance is copper carbonate. Iron is exposed to
moist air for a long time acquires a coating of a brown flaky substance called rust.
a) Write a chemical reaction which occur during the rusting of iron.
b) Give three methods to prevent the corrosion of metals.
c) What is amalgam?
d) Write down the chemical formula of the green substances formed over copper.
A. a) 4Fe + 3O2 + 2x H2O 2Fe2O3 . xH2O
b) Prevention of rusting can be done by methods such as:
i) Alloying
ii) Painting
iii) Galvanization
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c) Amalgam is an alloy of mercury with one or more metals.
The formula of the green substance formed over copper is Cu(OH)2.CuCO3 (basic copper carbonate).
Additional Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
1. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil ?
A. Sodium reacts with water and air vigorously. It catches fire if kept in the open. Hence, to protect sodium, it is
kept immersed in kerosene oil so that neither air nor moisture may come in its contact.
2. An element forms an oxide A2O3 which is acidic in nature. Identify ‘A’ as metal or non-metal.
A. A2O3 is acidic in nature. So, A will be non-metal.
3. Name two metals which react with very dilute HNO3 to evolve hydrogen.
A. Mg and Mn react with very dil. HNO3 to evolve H2.
4. What is the valency of silicon with atomic number 14 ?
A. Valency of silicon (Si) is 4.
5. What is the valency of phosphorus with atomic number 15 ?
A. Valency of phosphorus (P) is 3.
6. What is the valency of element with atomic number 35 ?
A. Atomic number 35. It means it is bromine. Valency of Br = 1
7. Arrange the following metals in the decreasing order of reactivity:
Na, K, Cu, Ag
A. The decreasing order of reactivity is : K > Na > Cu > Ag
8. Which gas is produced when a reactive metal reacts with water or dil acid ?
A. Hydrogen gas is produced.
9. Name a metal which is not hard and strong.
A. Metal like sodium is not hard and strong.
10. An element ‘X’ on reacting with oxygen forms an oxide X2O. This oxide dissolves in water and turns blue litmus
red. State whether ‘X’ is metal or non-metal.
A. Aqueous solution of X2O turns blue litmus to red, it means X2O is an acidic oxide. So, X is a non-metal
11. Name a non-metallic element which conducts electricity.
A. Graphite an allotropic form of carbon conducts electricity.
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12. What type of oxides are formed when metal combines with oxygen ?
A. Metals generally form basic oxides.
13. Give the reason why copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel (alloy of iron).
A. Copper does not react with cold water, hot water or steam while iron (in steel) reacts with hot water and steam.
14. Write chemical equations that show aluminium oxide reacts with acids as well as bases.
A. Al2O3(s) + 6HCl(aq) 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2O()
Al2O3(s) + 2NaOH(aq) 2NaAlO2(aq) + H2O()
15. Name the element which shows non-metallic properties but is also present in the reactivity series of metals.
A. Hydrogen is a non-metal. Actually it behaves like metals and forms positive ion (H+) by losing its only electron
present.
16. What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from its oxide ?
A. Metal is obtained from its oxide by reduction process.
17. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a high melting point. This compound is soluble in water.
The element is likely to be
(a) Calcium (b) Carbon (c) Silicon (d) Iron
A. Ionic compounds have high melting point and they are soluble in water. Reactive metal like calcium reacts with
oxygen and form a ionic compound (CaO). Hence, the element is calcium.
18. In the reaction between carbon and lead (II) oxide, which substance is oxidised ?
2PbO + C 2Pb + CO2
A. Carbon is oxidised into CO2.
19. When chromium (III) oxide is heated with aluminium, chromium and aluminium oxides are form. Which is more
reactive, chromium or aluminium ?
A. Cr2O3(s) + 2Al(s) 2Cr() + Al2O3(s)
Aluminium is more reactive than chromium. Because aluminium reduces Cr2O3 into chromium. This is mainly
metal displacement reaction.
20. In Fe(s) + CuO(s) FeO(s) + Cu(s), what is the reducing agent in this reaction ?
A. Fe is reducing agent.
21. Why is magnesium never found in the elemental state in nature ?
A. Magnesium is never found in the elemental state, because it reacts with air and forms MgO. So it is found in
oxide form.
22. Which gas is liberated on roasting ?
A. SO2 gas is liberated on roasting of metal sulphides (sulphide ores).
2ZnS(s) + 3O2(g)
Roasting
2ZnO(s) + 2SO2(g)
Zinc sulphide Sulphur dioxide
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23. Why do ionic compounds have high melting points ?
A. Ionic compounds have very strong electrostatic force of attraction which is nondirectional in nature and hence
they have very high melting points.
24. (i) Show the formation of KCl by transfer of electrons.
(ii) Name the ions present in the compound, KCl.
+ –
A. (i) K(19) K +e
2,8,8,1 2,8,8
Potassium
cation
Cl(17)+ e
–
Cl–
2,8,7 2,8,8
Chloride
anion
xx xx
+ –
K + x Cl xx [K] [x Cl
xx
x
x]
xx
(ii) Potassium cation (K+) and chloride anion (Cl–) are present in KCl.
25. (i) Show the formation of CaS by transfer of electrons.
(ii) Name the ions present in compound CaS (Atomic Number of Ca = 20, S = 16).
A. (i) Ca(20) Ca2+ + 2e–
2,8,8,2 2,8,8
Calcium
cation
–
S(16) + 2e S2–
2,8,6 2,8,8
Sulphide
anion
xx xx 2–
Ca + S xx [Ca]2+ S xx
xx xx
(ii) Calcium cation (Ca2+) and sulphide anion(S2–) are present in CaS.
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TOPIC : CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
A. Multiple-Choice Type Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
1. The functional group of butanone is
(A) Carboxyl (B) Ketonic (C) Aldehydic (D) Alcoholic
A. (B) Ketonic
2. The first organic compound to be prepared in the laboratory was
(A) Methane (B) Ethyl alcohol (C) Acetic acid (D) Urea
A. (D) Urea
3. The IUPAC name of CH3CHO is
(A) Acetaldehyde (B) Formaldehyde (C) Methyl formaldehyde (D) Ethanal
A. (D) Ethanal
4. Dilute alkaline KMnO4 solution is
(A) an oxidising agent (B) a reducing agent (C) a bleaching agent (D) None of these
A. (A) an oxidising agent
5. An example of soap is
(A) C15H31COONa (B) CH3COONa (C) C6H5COONa (D) C17H35OSO3Na
A. (A) C15H31COONa
6. The number of C-H bonds in ethane molecule are
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
A. (B) 6
7. The odour of acetic acid resembles that of
(A) Rose (B) Burning Plastic (C) Vinegar (D) Kerosene
A. (C) Vinegar
8. Diamond is not a good conductor of electricity because
(A) It is very hard
(B) Its structure is very compact
(C) It is not soluble in water
(D) It has no free electrons to conduct electric current.
A. (D) It has no free electrons to conduct electric current.
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9. The IUPAC name of CH3CHO is
(A) Acetaldehyde (B) Formaldehyde (C) Methyl formaldehyde (D) Ethanal
A. (D) ethanal
10. IUPAC name of first member of homologous series of ketones is
(A) Ethanone (B) Methanone (C) Propanone (D) Butanone
A. (C) Propanone
11. Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6
(A) 6 covalent bonds (B) 7 covalent bonds (C) 8 covalent bonds (D) 9 covalent bonds
A. (B) 7 covalent bonds
12. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessels is getting blackened on the outside, it means that
(A) the fuel is not cooked completely.
(B) the fuel is not burning completely.
(C) the fuel is wet.
(D) the fuel is burning completely.
A. (B) the fuel is not burning completely.
B. Very Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks each)
13. Name five things which contain carbon essentially.
A. (i) Alcohols (ii) LPG (iii) Cooking oil (iv) Butter (v) Soap
14. Give two characteristics of covalent compounds.
A. The characteristics of covalent compounds are -
(i) Melting point and boiling point: Covalent compounds consists of molecules which have weak intermolecular
force of attraction, therefore, they have low melting points and boiling points.
(ii) Electrical Conductivity: Non-polar covalent compounds do not conduct electricity because they consist of
molecules and do not form ions in aqueous solution. Polar covalent compounds can conduct electricity in
aqueous solution.
15. Which element exhibits the property of catenation to maximum extent and why ?
A. Carbon exhibits this property to maximum extent. Catenation property of carbon is maximum due to its small
size and high carbon – carbon bond energy or strength.
16. State two characteristic features of carbon which when put together give rise to large number of carbon
compounds.
A. Carbon forms large number of compounds due to following characteristic features of carbon -
(i) Catenation property: The property of atoms of an element to link with one another by stable covalent bond
to form straight chains, branched chains or rings is called catenation.
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(ii) Tendency to form multiple bonds / Tetravalency : Size of carbon atom is small and valence electrons of
carbon is four. Due to small size and presence of four valence electrons, a carbon atom can form multiple
bonds with other carbon atom as well as with other atoms like oxygen, nitrogen etc.
17. Give reason why carbon neither forms C4+ cations nor C4– anion but forms covalent compounds which are bad
conductor of electricity and have low melting and boiling points.
A. Carbon has small size, so losing four electrons or gaining four electron is very difficult. Due to this carbon
neither forms C4+ cations nor C4– anion but forms covalent compounds by sharing its valence electrons.
Conductor of electricity - No free electrons are available when carbon forms covalent compounds. So,
covalent compounds are bad conductors of electricity.
Low melting and boiling points - Individual covalent molecules are held together by weak vander Waal’s
forces, while in case of ionic compounds, it is held together by strong electrostatic forces. So, covalent
molecules have low melting and boiling points.
18. Carbon, group 14 element in the periodic table, is known to form compounds with many elements. Write an
example of a compound formed with (i) Chlorine, (ii) Oxygen.
A. (i) CCl4 or, carbon-tetrachloride
(ii) CO2 or, O = C = O carbon-dioxide
19. In electron dot structure, the valence shell electrons are represented by crosses or dots.
(i) The atomic number of chlorine is 17. Write its electronic configuration.
(ii) Draw the electron dot structure of chlorine molecule.
A. (i) Electronic configuration Cl (17) is 2(K), 8(L), 7(M).
(ii)
20. Compare the ability of catenation of carbon and silicon. Give reasons.
A. Carbon has more catenation property compared to silicon, due to its smaller size which makes the C–C bonds
stronger while the Si–Si bonds are comparatively weaker due to its large size.
21. Name any one molecule and one compound having triple bond.
A. Nitrogen molecule (N2 : N N)
and Ethyne (C2H2 ; H – C C – H)
22. Write the IUPAC name of the following compounds:
(i) C2H5Cl, (ii) C2H5OH
A. (i) CH3 CH2 Cl : Chloroethane, (ii) CH3 CH2 OH : Ethanol
23. Write the IUPAC name of the following compounds:
(i) CH3COCH3, (ii) C2H5CHO
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(i) (ii)
A.
Propanone Propanal
24. Write the name and formula of the second member of the carbon compounds having functional group –OH.
A. The name and formula of compound are ethanol and CH3CH2OH.
25. The molecular formula of two members of a homologous series are C3H4 and C6H10. Write the molecular
formula of a member of this family with five carbon atoms in a molecule.
A. The molecular formula of a member of this family with five carbon atom is C5H8, because the general formula
for this homologous series is CnH2n – 2.
26. Write the general formula of alkene. Write the name of the simplest alkene.
A. The general formula of alkene is CnH2n. The name of the simplest alkene is ethene (C2H4)
27. Write the name and structure of an aldehyde with four carbon atoms in its molecule.
H H H O
A. Butanal and H C C C C H
H H H
28. Alkanes generally burn with clean flame. Why ?
A. Saturated hydrocarbon (alkanes) undergoes complete combustion. So, it burns with clean flame.
29. Write the main difference between addition and substitution reactions. Which reaction is commonly followed in
the hydrogenation of vegetable oils ?
A. In addition reaction any functional group/hydrogen atom is inserted into a unsaturation present in the molecule
Example : CH2 = CH2 + HBr CH3 – CH2 – Br
Substitution reaction occurs when a functional group or a hydrogen atom is replaced by an another functional
group/atom.
Example : CH4 + Cl2 CH3Cl + HCl
Addition reaction is involved in hydrogenation of oil.
R R R
R
H2
C=C H C C H
Ni
R R R
R
Vegetable oil Vegetable ghee
(Unsaturated hydrocarbon) (Saturated hydrocarbon)
30. What change will you observe if you test soap with litmus paper (red and blue) ?
A. The soap is a salt of weak acid and strong base like NaOH. It is basic in nature. So, it will turn red litmus to blue.
31. Why do micelle formation take place when soap is added to water ? Will a micelle be formed in other solvents
like ethanol also ?
A. The micelle formation takes place when soap is added to water because the hydrocarbon chains of soap
molecules are hydrophobic (water repelling) which are insoluble in water but the ionic ends of the soap molecules
are hydrophilic (water attracting) and hence soluble in water. In a soap micelle, the uncharged ends of the
85
hydrocarbon chains are on the inside whereas the charged ionic ends are on the outside.
+
Na –
COO
Water
+
+ – Na
Na COO– COO
Micelle
+
Na
COO–
COO–
Na+
–
COO +
Na
A micelle will not be formed in other solvents such as ethanol because the hydrocarbon chains of soap
molecules are soluble in organic solvents like ethanol.
32. Complete the following equation:
(i) C3H6 + O2
A. (i) 2C3H6 (g) 9O 2 (g) 6CO 2 (g) 6H2O( )
33. What happens when methanoic acid and methanol react with sodium metal separately ? Write the chemical
reactions involved.
A. Hydrogen in evolved in both reactions.
2CH3OH + 2Na 2CH3ONa + H2 ,
Methanol Sodium methoxide
2HCOOH + 2Na 2HCOONa + H2
Methanoic acid Sodium methanoate
34. (i) What is soap ? Why are soaps not suitable for washing clothes when the water is hard ?
(ii) Explain the action of soap in removing oily spot from a piece of cloth.
A. (i) Soap is sodium or potassium salt of long chain fatty acid.
When water is hard, it contains high concentration of Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions, and hence lot of soaps is wasted
in precipitating out Ca+2 and Mg+2 ion present in hard water.
(ii) The oily spot present on clothes is organic in nature and insoluble in water. Therefore, it cannot be removed
by only washing with water. When soap is dissolved in water, its hydrophobic ends attach themselves to the
oily spot and remove it from the cloth. Then, the molecules of soap, arrange themselves in the form of
micelle and trap the dirt in the centre of the cluster. These micelles remain suspended in the water. Hence,
the oily spots are easily rinsed away by water.
35. A gas is evolved when ethanol reacts with sodium. Name the gas evolved and also write the balanced chemical
equation of the reaction involved.
A. Hydrogen gas is evolved.
86
2CH3CH2OH() 2Na s 2C2H5ONa aq H2
Ethanol Sodium
ethoxide
36. What is hydrogenation ? What changes occur during hydrogenation of vegetable oil ?
A. Addition of hydrogen to vegetable oil leading to formation of vegetable or vanaspati ghee is called hydrogenation
of oils.
A unsaturated hydrocarbon is converted into a saturated hydrocarbon during hydrogenation of oils.
R R R
R
H2
C=C H C C H
Ni
R R R
R
Vegetable oil Vegetable ghee
(Unsaturated hydrocarbon) (Saturated hydrocarbon)
37. A compound ‘X’ on heating with excess conc. sulphuric acid at 443 K gives an unsaturated compound ‘Y’. ‘X’
also reacts with sodium metal to evolve a colourless gas ‘Z’. Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Write the equation of the
chemical reaction of formation of ‘Y’ and also write the role of sulphuric acid in the reaction. [Year - 2018]
A. Compound ‘X’ is ethanol (C2H5OH).
Unsaturated compound ‘Y’ is ethene (C2H4).
Colourless gas ‘Z’ is hydrogen.
443K
C2H5 OH
Conc.H2 SO4
C2H4 + H2 O
(Ethanol) ( ethene) (Water)
Concentrated H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent, which removes water molecules from the ehanol molecules.
38. In three test tubes A, B, and C, three different liquids namely, distilled water, underground water and distilled
water in which a pinch of calcium sulphate is dissolved, respectively are taken. Equal amount of soap solution
is added to each test tube and the contents are shaken. In which test tube will the length of the foam (lather) be
longest ? Justify your answer. [Year - 2019]
A. The length of foam will be longest in test tube A because the soap added in distilled water will easily form foam
as it is free from soluble salts of Calcium and Magnesium.
In the underground water and the water with a pinch of CaSO4, the Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions react with sodium salts
presents in soap resulting in formation of scum/precipitate which in turn hinders the foam production.
39. Write the molecular formula of ethene and draw its electron dot structure. [Year - 2019]
A. Ethene – C2H4
87
H
H ×
×
C ××
×× C
×
×
H
H
Fig : Electron dot structure of ethene
40. Draw electron dot structure of carbon dioxide and write the nature of bonding between carbon and oxygen in its
molecule.
A.
× C × O
O × ×
Electron dot structure of CO2
Double covalent bonds are formed between the atoms, whose two electrons from each atom are shared making
4 bonding electrons in total.
OR
List two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds we see around us, giving
reason for each. [Year - 2019]
A. The two properties of Carbon are :
(i) Catenation – The property of Carbon due to which its atoms can join one another forming long carbon
chains.
(ii) Tetravalency - Carbon is capable of bonding with 4 other atoms of Carbon or atoms of other elements.
41. List two chemical properties on the basis of which ethanol and ethanoic acid may be differentiated and explain
how.
A. To distinguish ethanol and ethanoic acid :
(i) Adding sodium bicarbonate:
Ethanoic acid is an weak acid and shows almost all properties of acids. So, if bicarbonate salt is added to
it, it liberates CO2.
2CH3 COOH + Na CO
2 3 2CH3 COONa + H2 O + CO 2
(acetic acid) (Sodium Carbonate) (Sodium ethanoate) ( Water) (Carbon dioxide)
If Na2CO3 is added to ethanol, no reaction will take place.
C2H5 OH + Na2 CO3 No reaction
(ii) If a moist blue litmus is brought in contact with ethanoic acid, the litmus turns red, while no change is seen
when brought in contact with ethanol.
42. List the conclusions you will draw while studying the following properties of ethanoic acid :
(a) Odour
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(b) Solubility in water
(c) Effect on litmus paper
(d) Reaction with sodium hydrogen carbonate [Year - 2019]
A. (i) Pungent odour
(ii) When dissolved in water accetic acid undergoes dissociation to form H+ ion. However, it is a weak acid
because it doesnot completely dissociate in aqueous solution.
(iii) It turns blue litmus paper red.
(iv) On reaction with NaHCO3 it produces CO2 which turn lime water milky.
43. What happens when 5% alkaline potassium permanganate solution is added drop by drop to warm propyl
alcohol (propanol) taken in a test tube ? Explain with the help of a chemical equation. [Year - 2019]
A. When 5% alkaline KMnO4 is added to propanol, it gets oxidised to propanoic acid.
O
C 3H7 OH
Alkaline KMnO4
C 2H5 COOH + H2 O
(Pr opanol) (Pr opanoic acid) ( water )
44. Write the name and molecular formula of a carbon compound having its name suffixed with “-ol” and having two
carbon atoms in its molecule. With the help of a chemical equation indicate what happens when this compound
is heated with excess conc. H2SO4. [Year - 2019]
A. Molecular formaula — C2H5OH
Name : Ethanol
When it is heated with an excess of Conc. H2SO4, elimination of water molecule takes place to given ethene.
C2H5 OH + H2 SO4 CH2 =CH2 + H2 O
(ethanol) (Sulphuric acid) (Ethene) ( water )
45. “Conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid is an oxidation reaction.” Justify this statement giving the relevant
equation for the chemical reaction involved. [Year - 2019]
A. Conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid involves two steps : First step includes formation of ethanal, in which
removal of hydrogen from ethanol takes place. Secondly, ethanal is converted to ethanoic acid, which involves
additiion of oxygen.
H
[O]
H3C C OH CH3CHO + H2O
acidified K Cr O 2 2 7 (Water)
(ethanal)
H
(ethanol)
O O
[O]
CH3 C CH3 C
acidified K Cr O
2 2 7
H OH
(ethanal) (acetic acid)
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C. Assertion- Reasoning:
46. Assertion : Carbon is the only element that can form large number of compounds.
Reason : Carbon is tetravalent and shows the property of catenation.
A. (d) Assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
47. Assertion : If the first member of a homologous series is methanal, its third member will be propanal.
Reason : All the members of a homologous series show similar chemical properties.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
48. Assertion : Diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon.
Reason : Some elements can have several different structural forms while in the same physical state. These
forms are called allotropes.
A. (a)Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
49. Assertion : Soaps are not suitable for washing purpose when water is hard.
Reason : Soaps have relatively weak cleansing action.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
50. Assertion : Carbon compounds can form chain, branched and ring structures.
Reason : Carbon exhibits the property of catenation.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
51. Assertion (A) : Carbon monoxide is extremely poisonous in nature.
Reason : Carbon monoxide is formed by complete combustion of carbon.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
52. Assertion: Saturated hydrocarbons are chemically less reactive.
Reason : All the valencies of carbon atom are satisfied by single covalent bonds.
A. (a)Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
53. Assertion: Diamond and graphite do not have the same crystal structure.
Reason : Diamond is crystalline while graphite is amorphous.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
54. Assertion: Graphite is soft and slippery to touch.
Reason : Graphite has sheet like layered structure.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
55. Assertion: Both aldehydes and ketones contain carbonyl group.
Reason : In aldehydes, the functional group is attached to atleast one hydrogen atom.
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A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C. Short Questions and Answers : (3 marks each)
56. Write the molecular formula of the following compounds and draw the electron dot structures:
(i) Ethane, (ii) Ethyne
A. (i) Ethane - C2H6 (ii) Ethyne - C2H2
H H
× ×
H C C×H ×
× ×
H H
57. Write IUPAC names of
(i) CH3COCH2CH3, (ii) CH 3 – CH – CH 3 , (iii) HCOOH, (iv) CH3COOCH3
OH
3 2 1
O CH3 CH CH3 –: Propan-2-ol
A. (i) 1 2 3 4 (ii)
CH3 C CH2CH3 –: Butan-2-one OH
O
(iii) HCOOH : Methanoic acid (iv)
CH3 C O CH3 –: Methyl ethanoate
58. What is an oxidising agent ? What happens when an oxidising agent is added to propanol ? Explain with the
help of a chemical equation.
A. A substance which helps in oxidation of an another substance and itself gets reduced is called oxidising agent.
[O] [O]
CH3CH2CH2OH CH3 CH2CHO CH3CH2COOH
Alkaline Alkaline
Propanol Propanal KMnO4 Propanoic
KMnO4 acid
On addition of oxidising agent, propanol initially gets oxidised into CH3CH2CHO (Propanal) and which again
gets oxidised to CH3CH2COOH (Propanoic acid)
59. Complete the following equations:
(i) CH4 + O2 (ii) C2H5OH
Hot & Conc.H SO
2 4
A. (i) CH4 2O2
CO2 2H2O
Hot & Conc.H SO
(ii) C 2H5OH CH2 CH2 H2O
2 4
443K
Ethanol Ethene
60. A compound ‘C’ (molecular formula, C2H4O2) reacts with Na-metal to form a compound ‘R’ and evolves a gas
which burns with a pop sound. Compound C on treatment with an alcohol ‘A’ in presence of an acid forms a
sweet smelling compound ‘S’ (molecular formula C3H6O2). On addition of NaOH to C, it also gives ‘R’ and
water. ‘S’ on treatment with NaOH solution gives back ‘R’ and ‘A’.
Identify C, R, A, S and write down the reactions involved.
A. 2CH3COOH Na
2CH3 COONa H2
C R
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Ethanoic acid Sodium ethanoate
Conc.H SO
CH3COOH CH3CH2OH CH3COOC2H5 H2O
2 4
C A S
Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate
(Sweet smelling)
CH3 COOH NaOH CH3COONa H2O
C
Sodium ethanoate
Ethanoic acid
CH 3 COO C2H5 NaOH CH3 COONa C 2H5OH
(S) R A
Ethyl ethanoate Sodium ethanoate Ethanol
Hence, C is CH3COOH (Ethanoic acid)
R is CH3COONa (Sodium ethanoate)
A is C2H5OH (Ethanol)
and S is CH3COOC2H5 (Ethyl ethanoate)
61. Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in the following reactons:
A + NaHCO3 CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
B + Mg2+ (C17H35COO)2Mg + 2Na+
C + CuO (CH3COO)2Cu + H2O .
A. (i) CH3 COOH NaHCO3
CH3COONa H2O CO2
A
Ethanoic acid
(ii) 2 C17H35COONa Mg2 C17H35COO 2 Mg 2Na
B
Soap
CH3COO 2 Cu H2O
(iii) 2 CH3 COOH CuO
C
Ethanoic acid
62. Identify X, Y and Z in the following reactions:
C2H4 X C2H5OH Y CH3COOH Z CH 3COONa + H2
X is dilute H2SO4
Y is Alkaline KMnO4
Z is Na (active metal)
Dilute H2 SO 4 Alkaline KMnO4 Na
A. C2H4 C2H5 OH CH3 COOH CH3COONa H2
63. Identify A, B and C
(a) A + NaOH HCOONa + H2 O
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(b) B + MgCO3 (CH3 CH2COO)2Mg + H2 O + CO 2
K 2Cr2O7
(c) C
H2SO4
C2H5COOH + H2O
A. (a) HCOOH + NaOH
HCOONa + H2O
A
Methanoic acid
(b) CH3 CH2COOH + MgCO3
(CH3CH2COO)2Mg + H2O + CO 2
B
Propanoic acid
K 2Cr2O7 /H2SO 4
(c) CH3CH2CH2OH C2H5COOH + H2O
(C)
Propanol
64. Write the structural formula of ethanol. What happens when it is heated with excess of conc. H2SO4 at 443 K ?
Write the chemical equation for the reaction stating the role of conc. H2SO4 in this reaction. [Year - 2017]
A. H H
H — C — C — OH
H H
(ethanol)
When it is heated with an excess of Conc. H2SO4, elimination of water molecule takes place to given ethene.
C2H5 OH + H2 SO4 CH2 =CH2 + H2 O
(ethanol) (Sulphuri acid) (Ethene) ( water )
Conc. H2SO4 acts as dehydrating agent
65. Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions with the help of the chemical equations for
each. State one use of each (i) esters, and (ii) saponification process. [Year - 2017]
A. Esterification Saponification
When an organic acid reacts with an alcohol in
The alkaline hydrolysis of esters (using alkali
presence of a catalyst, it produces sweet
like NaOH) is known as saponification
smelting substance called ester. This reaction is
reaction.
called esterification reaction.
CH3 COOC2H5 + NaOH
CH3 COOH + C2H5 OH (ester ) (Sodium hydroxide)
(acetic acid) (ethanol)
heat
Conc CH3 COONa + C2H5 OH
H2 SO4
CH3 COOC2H5 + H2 O
(Sodium ethanoate) (ethanol)
(ester ) ( water )
Esters are used in making artificial perfumes. Saponification process is used for the preparation of soaps.
66. What happens when [Year - 2017]
(write chemical equation in each case)
(a) ethanol is burnt in air ?
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(b) a piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol ?
A. (a) When C2H5OH is burnt in air, H2O and CO2 is produced.
C 2H5 OH + 3O2 2CO 2 + 3H2 O
( ethanol) (Sulphuri acid) ( Carbon dioxide) ( water )
(b) A piece of Na, reacts vigorously to produce bubbles of a gas.
CH3 CH2 OH + Na
CH3 CH2 ONa + H 2
(ethanol) (Sodium) (Sodium ethanoate) (Hydrogen)
X Y
Product formed when ethanol is heated at 443K with excess conc. H2SO4 is ethene.
Structure : H H
C=C
H H
67. Explain esterification reaction with the help of a chemical equation. Describe an activity to show esterification.
[Year - 2017]
A. Reaction between an organic acid and an alcohol in the presence of a catalyst, produces sweet smelling
substance called ester. This reaction is called esterification reaction.
Conc
CH3 COOH + C2H5 OH
H2 SO4
CH3 COOC2H5 + H2 O
(acetic acid) (ethanol) (ester ) (Water )
Activity to show esterification.
(i) 1 ml of absolute alcohol is taken in a test tube and 1 ml of CH3COOH is added to it.
(ii) The test tube is warmed for about 5 minutes.
(iii) The contents of the test tube is poured in about 50 ml of water taken in another beaker and smelled.
(iv) A sweet smell is obtained indicating the formation of an ester.
68. When a small piece of sodium is dropped in a test-tube containing a carbon compound ‘X’ of molecular formula
C2H6O, a brisk effervescence is observed and a gas ‘Y’ is produced. On bringing a burning splinter at the
mouth of the test-tube, this gas burnt with a ‘pop’ sound. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Give the chemical equation for the
reaction. Write the name and structure of the product formed when the compound ‘X’ is heated at 443 K with
excess conc. H2SO4. [Year - 2017]
A. C2H5 OH Na
C2H5 ONa + H 2
(ethanol) (Sodium) (Sodium ethanoate) (Hydrogen)
Compound X is ethanol (C2H5OH) gas Y is hydrogen gas.
Conc. H2 SO4
C2H5 OH
170C dehydration
CH2 CH2 + H2 O
(ethanol) (Ethene) (Hydrogen)
Product formed when ethanol is heated at 443 K with excess conc. H2SO4, is ethene.
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Structure : H H
C=C
H H
69. When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of conc. H2SO4, a compound with fruity smell is
produced. [Year - 2017]
(a) Name the class of carbon compounds into which these fruity smelling compounds are classified.
(b) Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
(c) Write the common name of the product formed in the reaction.
(d) What happens when this product reacts with sodium hydroxide ? Write the common name of this reaction.
A. a) Ester
Conc. H2 SO4
b) C2H5 OH + CH3 COOH CH3 COOC2H5 + H2 O
(ethanol) (acetic acid) (Ethyl ethanoate) ( Water )
c) Ethyl acetate is the common of Ethylethanoate
d) CH3 COOC2H5 + NaOH CH3 COONa + C2H5 OH
(ethyl acetate) (Sodium hydroxide) (Sodium ethanoate) (ethanol)
When ethyl acetate reacts with NaOH, hydrolysis occus to form sodium ethanoate and ethanol. This
reaction is called saponification reaction.
70. (a) Why are most carbon compounds poor conductors of electricity? [Year - 2018]
(b) Write the name and structure of a saturated compound in which the carbon atoms are arranged in a ring.
Give the number of single bonds present in this compound.
A. (a) Carbon compounds are poor conductors of electricity as they form covalent bonds, so it does not give rise
to free electrons also a carbon compound does not dissociate itself into ions.
(b) Cyclohexane (C6H12)
H H H
C C H
H H
C C
H H
C C
H HH H
Number of single bonds = 18
71. What is a homologous series of carbon compounds ? Write its two characteristics. Giving reason select two
compounds from the following which belong to the same homologous series :
C2H2, C2H4, C2H6, C3H4, C4H5, C6H6 [Year - 2018]
A. Homologous series is the series of organic compounds, where successive members differ by CH2 unit.
Two properties are :
(i) The difference in the molecular masses of any two adjascent homologues is 14u.
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(ii) All the members (compounds) of a homologous series show similar chemical properties.
C2H2 and C3H4 belong to homologous series of alkynes as they differ by CH2 unit.
72. Which compounds are called (i) alkanes, (ii) alkenes and (iii) alkynes ? C4H10 belongs to which of these ? Draw
two structural isomers of this compound [Year - 2019]
A. Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CnH2n + 2.
Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons with general formula CnH2n.
Alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons with general formula CnH2n – 2.
C4H10 is an alkane.
H H H H H H H
H—C—C— C—C—H H—C—C— C—H
H H H H HH C H H
H
n-butane (C4 H10 )
Iso-butane (C4 H10 )
Isomers of butane
D. Very Long Type Questions and Answers : (5 marks each)
73. What are covalent compounds ? Why are they different from ionic compounds ? List three characteristic
properties.
A. Compounds which are formed when two or more atoms combine by sharing of their valence electrons are
known as covalent compounds.
These compounds do not contain cations and anions like ionic compounds.
Properties of covalent compounds:
(a) They have low melting point and boiling point.
(b) They have poor electrical and thermal conductivity.
(c) These are usually insoluble in polar solvents like water, but soluble in nonpolar solvents like benzene and
toluene.
74. An organic compound ‘A’ is essential constituent of wine and beer. Oxidation of ‘A’ yields an organic acid ‘B’
which is present in vinegar. Name the compound ‘A’ and ‘B’ and write their structural formulae. What happens
when ‘A’ and ‘B’ react in the presence of acid catalyst ? Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
H H
A. H C C OH Common name : Ethyl alcohol, IUPAC name : Ethanol
H H
Compound - A
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H O
H C C OH Common name : Acetic acid, IUPAC name : Ethanoic acid
H
Compound - B
When A and B react in the presence of acid catalyst it forms ethyl ethanoate (having sweet smell).
H
CH3 CH2OH CH3COOH CH3COOC2H5 H2O
A B Ethyl ethanoate
75. Observe the diagram and answer the following questions:
(a) Identify ‘A’. What happens to calcium hydroxide solution when gas ‘A’ is passed through it ?
(b) Name the functional group present in C2H4O2.
(c) Write chemical equation for the reaction of C2H4O2 with sodium carbonate.
(d) Write one property of C2H4O2 which differentiates it from ethanol
(e) The compound C2H4O2 reacts with ethanol in the presence of sulphuric acid. Write the chemical equation
involved.
A. (a) A is CO2. On passing CO2 through Ca(OH)2 solution turbidity appears in the solution due to formation of
CaCO3 and it turns milky.
Ca OH2 aq CO2 g CaCO3 s H2 O
Milky
(b) Carboxylic acid is present in C2H4O2 (CH3COOH)
(c) 2CH3COOH Na2CO3 2CH3 COONa CO2 H2O
Ethanoic acid Sodium ethanoate
(d) On adding Na2CO3, CH3COOH gives CO2 while ethanol does not react with Na2CO3
Conc.H SO
(e) CH 3 COOH C 2H5OH CH3COOC 2H5 H2O
2 4
Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate Water
76. Give reasons for the following:
(i) Element carbon forms compounds mainly by covalent bonding.
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(ii) Diamond has a high melting point.
(iii) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
(iv) Acetylene burns with a sooty flame.
A. (i) Element carbon has electronic configuration 2, 4 i.e., it has 4 electrons in its valence shell. So it share each
of 4 electrons with other elements forming covalent bond and forms a stable octet configuration for itself.
(ii) Each carbon atoms in diamond are sp3 hybridized and forms a very stable three dimensional network. The
breaking of network structure in diamond becomes very difficult. So, it has high melting point.
(iii) In graphite carbon atoms are sp2 hybridized. So, it has free electrons available in the structure which is
delocalised over the whole sheet. So, it is good conductor of electricity.
(iv) Acetylene (HC CH) contains triple bond, so it is an unsaturated hydrocarbon which on burning it undergoes
incomplete combustion. So, sooty flame is obtained.
77. The structural formula of five compounds are given below
H O H H H H H H H H H
H H
H–C–C–OH H–C–C=C–C–H H–C–H H–C–C–C–C–H
H–C=C–H
H H H OH H H H H
‘A’ ‘B’ ‘C’ ‘D’ ‘E’
(i) Which two compounds belong to the same homologous series ?
(ii) Which compound belongs to the same homologous series as ethanol ?
(iii) Which compound on hydrogenation produces E ?
(iv) Which compound when dissolved in water turns blue litmus red ?
(v) What will be the compound formed by reaction of ‘B’ with ‘D’ in the presence of sulphuric acid ? Write the
chemical reactions.
A. (i) A and C belong to same homologous series.
(ii) D belongs to the same homologous series as ethanol.
(iii) C on hydrogenation produces E.
(iv) B when dissolved in water turns blue litmus red.
(v) Methyl acetate is formed
H O H H O H
H C C O H + H C OH H C C O C H + H2 O
H H H H
(B) (D) (Methyl ethanoate)
78. Explain the following terms with example :
(i) Esterification
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A. (i) Esterification : The reaction of an alcohol with carboxylic acid in the presence of conc. H2SO4 to form
ester is known as esterification.
Conc.H2SO4
CH3CH2OH + CH3COOH CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
Ethanol Ethanoic acid Ethyl ethanoate
(Alcohol) (Carboxylic acid) (Ester)
79. An organic compound ‘X’ on heating with conc. H2SO4 forms a compound ‘Y’ which on addition of one molecule
of hydrogen in the presence of nickel forms a compound ‘Z’. One molecule of compound ‘Z’ on combustion
forms two molecules of CO2 and three molecules of H2O. Identify the compounds ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Write the
chemical equations for all the chemical reactions involved.
A.
Conc.H2 SO4
CH3 CH2OH CH2 CH2 H2O
X Y
Ethanol Ethene
CH2 CH2 H2 CH3 CH3
Y Z
Ethene Ethane
7
CH3 CH3 O 2 2CO 2 3H 2 O
2
Ethane
Hence, X is CH3CH2 OH (Ethanol),
Y is CH2 = CH2 (Ethene)
and Z is CH3 – CH3 (Ethane)
80. Draw the electron dot structure for the formation of (i) Ammonia molecule, (ii) Methane molecule and (iii)
Hydrogen cyanide molecule.
A. (i) (ii) C (iii)
81. Both soap and detergent are some type of salts. What is the difference between them ? Describe in brief the
cleansing action of soap. Why do soaps not form lather in hard water ? List two problems that arise due to the
use of detergents instead of soaps.
A. The differences between soaps and detergents are:
Soaps -
Soaps are the sodium salts (or potassium salts) of the long chain carboxylic acids (fatty acids).
Soaps are not suitable for washing purposes when the water is hard.
Soaps are biodegradable.
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Soaps have relatively weak cleansing action.
Detergents -
Detergents are the sodium salts of long chain benzene sulphonic acids or long chain alkyl
hydrogensulphates. The ionic group in a detergent is – SO3– Na+ or – SO4– Na+
Detergents can be used for washing even when the water is hard.
Some of the detergents are not biodegradable
Detergents have a strong cleansing action.
The long hydrocarbon part of soap is water repelling (hydrophobic) called tail and ionic part is water attacking
(hydrophilic) called head. When soap dissolved in water, molecules combine to form miselles in which tails are
towards centre and heads are outside in contact with water molecules. Hydrocarbon part dissolve the dirt or
grease and detach them from fabric. Thus an emulsion of dirt or grease in water is formed and clothes are
cleaned.
Lather is not formed by soap in hard water because hard water contains lots of calcium and magnesium ions
dissolved in it which reacts with the soap precipitate in presence of Ca2+, Mg2+ ion.
Problems that arise due to the use of detergents -
(a) Detergents causes soil and water pollution
(b) Detergents are not easily biodegradable.
82. (a) Name the products formed when ethane burns in air. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction
showing the types of energies liberated.
(b) Why is reaction between methane and chlorine in the presence of sunlight considered a substitution
reaction ?
A. (a) Carbondioxide and water is formed.
4CO2 g 6H2O Heat Light
2C2H6 g 7O2 g
(b) In the reaction between methane and chlorine, each hydrogen atom is replaced by chlorine atom in
successive steps. So it is a substitution reaction.
(i) CH4 Cl2 sunlight CH3Cl HCl
Sunlight
(ii) CH3 Cl Cl2 CH2Cl2 HCl
Sunlight
(iii) CH2Cl2 Cl2 CHCl3 HCl
Sunlight
(iv) CHCl3 Cl2 CCl4 HCl
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83. A carboxylic acid C2H4O2 reacts with an alcohol in the presence of H2SO4 to form a compound ‘X’. The alcohol
on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 gives the same carboxylic acid, C2H4O2. Write the name and structure of (i)
carboxylic acid, (ii) alcohol and (iii) the compound ‘X’.
A. (i) Name of carboxylic acid is ethanoic acid CH3 COOH
Ethanoic acid
H O
Structure : H – C – C – O – H
H
(ii) Name of alcohol is ethanol : C2H5 OH
H H
Structure : H – C – C – O – H
H H
H O H H
(iii) The compound X is CH3 COOC2H5 H–C–C–O–C–C–H
(Ethyl ethanoate )
H H H
84. An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative in pickles and has a molecular formula C2H4O2. This
compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet smelling compound ‘B’.
(i) Identify the compound ‘A’.
(ii) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form compound ‘B’.
(iii) How can we get compound ‘A’ back from ‘B’ ?
(iv) Name the process and write corresponding chemical equation.
(v) Which gas is produced when compound ‘A’ reacts with washing soda ? Write the involved chemical
equation.
(vi) Draw the structure of ‘A’.
A. (i) CH3COOH (A)
H
(ii) CH3 COOH C 2H5OH
CH3 COOC2H5 H2O
Ethanoic acid Ethanol (B)
A Ethyl acetate (sweet smelling)
(iii) By hydrolysing B, we will get A again.
H
CH3 COOC2H5 H2O CH3 COOH C2H5OH
Ethyl acetate B Ethanoic acid A Ethanol
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(iv) This process is known as hydrolysis of ester.
H
CH3 COOC2H5 H2O CH3 COOH C2H5OH
Ethanoic acid A Ethanol
(v) Carbon dioxide gas is liberated
2 CH3 COOH Na2 CO3
2CH3 COONa CO2 H2 O
(A)
H O
(vi) H C C O H
H
(A)
85. Write the difference between the molecules of soaps and detergents. Describe the cleansing action of soaps.
Soaps do not form lather (foam) with hard water. Why ? [Year - 2017]
A. Soaps are composed of Na or K salts of long chain carboxylic acids whereas detergents are Sodium salts of
long chain benzene sulphonic acid or ammonium salt with chloride or bromide ion.
Soaps donot lather with hard water because hard water contains Ca2+ and Mg+2 ions which react with soap to
form curdy white precipitate of calcium and magnesium salts of fatty acid.
86. Why are certain compounds called hydrocarbons ? Write the general formula for homologous series of alkanes,
alkenes and alkynes and also draw the structure of the first member of each series. Write the name of the
reaction that converts alkenes into alkanes and also write a chemical equation to show the necessary conditions
for the reaction to occur. [Year - 2017]
A. Certain compounds which contain only hydrogen and carbon are called hydrocarbons.
General formula for
alkanes : CnH2n + 2
alkenes : CnH2n
alkynes : CnH2n – 2
H
H H
H—C—H C=C H — C C — H
H H
H
Methane Ethene Ethyne
Hydrogenation reaction is used for conversion of alkenes into alkanes.
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H H
H H Nickel, 300°C
C=C H
H—C—C—H
2
H H
H H
(Ethene) (Ethane)
87. Write the chemical formula and name of the compound which is the active ingredient of all alcoholic drinks. List
its two uses. Write chemical equation and name of the product formed when this compound reacts with -
(i) sodium metal
(ii) hot concentrated sulphuric acid
A. Ethanol — C2H5OH
Uses of ethanol :
a) Manufacture of paints, varnishes etc.
b) Used in medicines such as tincture of iodine, cough syrups etc.
(i) 2C2H5 OH + 2Na
2C2H5 ONa + H 2
(Ethanol) (Sodium) (Sodium ethoxide) (Hydrogen)
(ii) 2C H OH
Conc. H2 SO4
C2H4 + H2 O
2 5 170 C
(Ethanol) (Ethene) ( Water )
OR
What is methane? Draw its electron dot structure. Name the type of bonds formed in this compound. Why are
such compounds:
(i) poor conductors of electricity ? and
(ii) have low melting and boiling points? What happens when this compound burns in oxygen? [Year - 2019]
A. Methane is the first member of the family of alkanes with moecular formula CH4.
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H
×
× C × H
H
×
Electron dot structure of methane. Single covalent bonds are formed between C and H when one pair of
electrons are shared.
(i) Alkanes are poor conductors of electricity as the electrons are shared to form covalent bonds and no
charged particles are formed in their solution.
(ii) Alkanes have low melting and boiling points because of very weak intermolecular forces between its
molecules.
When methane burns in O2 it gives CO2 and H2O.
heat
CH 4 + 2O2 CO 2 + 2H2 O
(Methane) (Oxygen) (Carbon dioxide) (Water )
88. What are structural isomers ? List any four characteristics of isomers. Draw the possible structures of butane.
[Year - 2019]
A. Structural isomers are molecules that have the same molecular formula but with the atoms connected in a
different order i.e. different structural formula.
Four characteristics of isomers:
(i) They posses different physical properties.
(ii) They have same atomic weight.
(iii) 2 isomers have different boiling point.
(iv) They show similar properties when they contain same functional group.
H H H H H H H
H—C—C— C—C—H H—C—C— C—H
H H H H H H C H H
n-butane H
Iso-butane
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89. (a) What is a hydrocarbon ? Give its one example.
(b) Give the structural difference between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons with two examples each.
(c) Name the following compounds :
(i) CH3 – OH
(ii)
(iii)
(iv) [Year - 2019]
A. (a) Hydrocarbons are compounds containing hydrogen and carbon only.
eg. - methane (CH4).
(b) Saturated hydrocarbons has single bonds between atoms.
H H H
eg. – H — C — H , H — C — C — H
H H H
Unsaturated hydrocarbons has double or triple bonds in between the carbon atoms.
H H
eg.– H — C = C — H , H — C C — H —
H H
(c) (i) Methanol
(ii) Ethanal
(iii) Acetone (Propanone)
(iv) Acetic acid (Ethanoic acid)
90. (a) State the reason why carbon can neither form C4+ cations nor C4– anions, but forms covalent bonds. Also
state reasons to explain why covalent compounds
(i) are bad conductors of electricity.
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(ii) have low melting and boiling points.
(b) Write the structural formula of benzene, C6H6.
A. (a) It is not possible to remove 4 electrons from a carbon atom or to add 4 electrons to the C atom due to
energy considerations. Thats why, carbon can neither from C4+ cations nor C4– anions.
(i) Covalent compounds are poor conductors of electricity as the electrons are shared to form covalent
bonds and no charged particles are formed in their solution.
(ii) Covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points because of very weak intermolecular forces
between its molecules.
H
(b)
C
H C C H
H C C H
C
H
Benzene (C6 H6 )
OR
(a) Define the term ‘isomer’.
(b) Two compounds have same molecular formula C3H6O. Write the name of these compounds and their
structural formula.
(c) How would you bring the following conversions :
(i) Ethanol to ethene
(ii) Propanol to propanoic acid [Year - 2019]
A. (a) The organic compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures are called isomers.
H H O H O H
(b) H — C — C — C — H , H — C — C — C — H
H H H H
(Propanal) (Propanone)
Conc. H2 SO4
H H
(c) (i) By dehydration : C2H5 OH
170C
C=C + H2O
(ethanol) H H (Water)
(Ethene)
[O]
(ii) By Oxidation : CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — OH
alkaline
CH3 — CH2 — COOH
(Pr opanol) KMnO 4 (Pr opanoic acid)
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E. Case Study:
The metals in the middle of the activity series such as iron, zinc, lead, copper etc., are moderately reactive.
These are usually present as sulphides or carbonates in nature. It is easier to obtain a metal from its oxide, as
compared to its sulphides and carbonates. Therefore, prior to reduction, the metal sulphides and carbonates
must be converted into metal oxides. The sulphide ores are converted into oxides by heating strongly in the
presence of excess air. This process is known as roasting. The carbonate ores are changed into oxides by
heating strongly in limited air. This process is known as calcination.
a) What is calcination?
b) Give a suitable example for the process roasting.
c) What is the process of converting metal oxide to metal?
d) Name some other reducing agent which can be used to extract metal from metal oxide?
A. a) Calcination is defined as the process of converting an ore into an oxide by heating it strongly in absence
of air or in limited supply. This method is commonly used for converting carbonates to their respective
oxides.
b) An example of roasting is when Zinc sulphide is converted into zinc oxide.
2ZnS + 3O2 2ZnO + 2SO2
c) Metal oxides are reduced by using a reducing agent which is carbon or highly reactive metals. The
chemical process used for obtaining a metal from its oxide is reduction. For example, metallic zinc is
obtained from the zinc oxide with the help of heating by carbon. The equation is given below;
ZnO(s)+C(s)Zn(s)+CO(g)\
d) Active metals like sodium, aluminium etc., can be used as reducing agent for the extraction of metal oxide.
2. Silver articles become black after some time when exposed to air. This is because it reacts with sulphur in the
air to form a coating of sliver sulphide. Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air and slowly loses its
shiny brown surface and gains a green coat. This green substance is copper carbonate. Iron is exposed to
moist air for a long time acquires a coating of a brown flaky substance called rust.
a) Write a chemical reaction which occur during the rusting of iron.
b) Give three methods to prevent the corrosion of metals.
c) What is amalgam?
d) Write down the chemical formula of the green substances formed over copper.
A. a) 4Fe + 3O2 + 2x H2O 2Fe2O3. xH2O
b) Prevention of rusting can be done by methods such as:
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i) Alloying
ii) Painting
iii) Galvanization
c) Amalgam is an alloy of mercury with one or more metals.
The formula of the green substance formed over copper is Cu(OH)2.CuCO3 (basic copper carbonate).
Additional Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
1. How many valence electrons are there in carbon ?
K L
A. Electronic Configuration of Carbon(C) : 2 4
There are four valence electrons in carbon.
2. Draw electron dot structure of molecule of NH3.
A.
3. How many covalent bonds are there in a molecule of ethane (C2H6) ?
A. C2H6 :
There are seven covalent bonds in C2H6.
4. Draw the electron dot diagram of ethane (C2H6) molecule.
A. C2H6 :
5. Draw the electron dot structure of carbon dioxide which has the formula, CO2 ?
A. CO2 :
6. What is catenation ?
A. The property of self linking of atoms of an element through covalent bonds to form long straight or branched
chains or rings of different sizes is called ‘catenation’.
7. Write the number of covalent bonds in propane, C3H8.
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A.
The number of covalent bonds in C3H8 is 10.
8. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of butane (C4H10).
A. C4H10 :
Number of covalent bonds in C4H10 is 13.
9. Explain why carbon generally forms compounds by covalent bonds.
A. Carbon has four electrons in valence shell. It requires four more electrons to attain its most stable state i.e.
noble gas configuration. It cannot release or gain four electrons, required to attain inert gas configuration
which is possible only by sharing of electrons and hence forms covalent bond.
R R
10. Identify the functional group: (a) C O , (b) C O
R H
A. (a) R (b) R
C O C O
R H
O O
Ketone ( C ) Aldehyde (–C–H)
11. An alkene ‘P’ has three carbon atoms and an alcohol ‘Q’ has four carbon atoms. Write the formulae of P and Q.
A. The formula of P and Q are C3H6 and C4H9OH are respectively.
12. Name the functional group present in each of the following compound:
(i) HCOOH (ii) C2H5CHO
O O
A. (i) HCOOH ( C OH ) (ii) C2H5 CHO ( C H)
C a rb oxylic acid A lde hyd e
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13. Draw the structure of ethanoic acid molecule, CH3COOH.
A. The structure of CH3COOH (Ethanoic acid) is
14. Draw the structure of butanone molecule, CH3COC2H5 .
A. The structure of CH3COC2H5 (Butanone) is
15. Draw the structure of hexanal molecule, C5H11CHO.
A. The structure of C5H11CHO (Hexanal) is
16. Write the structural formula of chloroethane.
A. The structure of chloroethane is
17. What is meant by saturated hydrocarbon ?
A. A saturated hydrocarbon which contains only carbon and hydrogen atoms and these atoms are bonded by only
single bond and have general formula CnH2n+2. CH4, C2H6, C3H8 etc. are saturated hydrocarbons.
18. What is the difference in the molecular formula of any two consecutive members of a homologous series of
organic compounds ?
A. The molecular formula of any two consecutive members of a homologous series of organic compounds differs
by – CH2 – unit.
19. Which of the following are carboxylic acids ?
C2H4O2, C2H4O, C2H6O, C3H6O2
A. C2H4O2 (CH3COOH) and C3H6O2 (CH3CH2COOH) are carboxylic acids. General formula of carboxylic acid is
CnH2n+1COOH.
20. Carbon has four electrons in its valence shell. How does carbon attain inert gas configuration ?
A. Carbon has four electrons in its valence shell and it needs four more electrons to attain inert gas configuration.
It attains stability by sharing its four electrons and forming four covalent bonds.
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21. Select saturated hydrocarbons from the following C3H6, C5H10, C4H10, C6H14, C2H4.
A. C4H10 and C6H14 are saturated hydrocarbons. General formula of saturated hydrocarbon is CnH2n+2.
22. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with three carbon atoms in the molecule.
A. CH3CH2CH2OH (Propanol)
23. Write the molecular formula of alcohol derived from butane.
A. C4H9OH (Butanol)
24. Write the name and molecular formula of the fourth member of alkane series.
A. General formula of alkanes is CnH2n+2. Butane (C4H10) is the fourth member of alkane series.
25. Write the name and molecular formula of the first member of homologous series of alkynes.
A. Ethyne (C2H2) is the first member of alkyne series, because general formula of alkynes is CnH2n – 2.
26. Draw the structure of 2,3-Dimethylpentane.
A. CH3 CH3
CH3—CH—CH—CH 2—CH 3
1 2 3 4 5
2,3 - dimethylpentane
27. While cooking, if bottom of the vessel is getting blackened on the outside, what does it mean ?
A. If the bottom of vessel is getting blackened on outside, it shows that air holes of gas-stove are getting blocked
and the fuel gases do not completely undergo combustion. Hence, it forms a sooty carbon form which gets
coated over the vessel.
28. Name the process by which unsaturated fats are changed into saturated fats.
A. Hydrogenation process changes unsaturated fats into saturated fats.
Ni
Unsaturated fats + H2(g)
Saturated fats
29. Name one hydrocarbon which undergoes substitution reaction.
A. One hydrocarbon which undergoes substitution reaction is ethane.
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Example:
H H H Cl
Cl2
H C C H H C C H + HCl
H H H H
Ethane Chloroethane
30. A vegetable oil has two double bonds in its molecule. How many moles of H2 is needed for complete hydrogenation
of 1 mole of oil ?
A. 2 moles of H2 is needed for complete hydrogenation of 1 mole of oil.
31. An organic compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C2H4O2 turns blue litmus red and gives a brisk effervescence
with NaHCO3. Identify ‘A’ and give chemical reaction.
A. CH3 COOH NaHCO3 CH3COONa CO2 H2O
Acetic acid Sodium acetate Brisk
effervescence
Organic Compound (A) is CH3COOH (Acetic acid)
32. (i) Which property of ethanol makes it suitable for preparing medicines like tincture of iodine, cough syrups
and other tonics ?
(ii) What is the function of conc. H2SO4 in the preparation of ethene from ethanol ?
A. (i) Ethanol is a very good solvent. So, it is used in preparing medicines like tincture of Iodine, cough syrup and
other tonics.
(ii) Conc. H2SO4 acts as dehydrating agent and also as catalyst in the preparation of ethene from ethanol.
Conc. H SO
CH3CH2OH
2 4
CH2 = CH2 + H2O
(Ethanol) (Ethene) (Water)
33. Would you be able to check if water is hard by using a detergent ?
A. No it is not possible. Because detergent forms lather in both, hard and soft water. Detergents do not react with
Ca2+ and Mg2+ present in hard water to form scum.
34. Draw structural formulae of ethene, ethanol and methanol.
A.
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35. Write the molecular formula of the 2nd and the 3rd member of the homologous series whose first member is
methane. [Year - 2017]
A. Ethane – C2H6 (2nd member)
Propane – C3H8 (3rd member)
36. Select from the following a group of salts whose each member, if dissolved in distilled water, is capable of
making the water hard :
(A) CaSO4, K2SO4, Na2SO4 (B) CaCl2, NaCl, MgCl2
(C) CaCl2, MgCl2, CaSO4 (D) NaCl, NaHCO3, CaSO4 [Year - 2017]
A. (C) CaCl2, MgCl2, CaSO4
37. Write the name and formula of the alkane having three carbon atoms. [Year - 2017]
A. Alkane having 3 Carbon atoms : Propane (C3H8)
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TOPIC : LIFE PROCESSES
A. Brief answer to important questions.
1. Which gas is released during photosynthesis?
A. O2 gas is released.
2. When do desert plants take up carbon dioxide?
A. Desert plants take up CO2 during night.
3. Where does protein digestion occur in human body?
A. Stomach and small intenstine.
4. What are autotrophs?
A. Autotrophs are organisms which synthesize their own food.
5. How is the reabsorption of water regulated?
A. Amount of water reabsorbed depends of how much excess water there is in the body, and on how much of
dissolved waste there is to be excreted.
6. What is the advantage of having four chambered heart?
A. Four chambered heart helps to keep oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separate.
B. Multiple-Choice Type Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
7. In Photosynthetic process, atmospheric carbon di oxide is to carbohydrates
(A) oxidised (B) Reduced (C) Neutralised (D) Burnt
A. (B) Reduced
8. When water enters the guard cells the stomata
(A) Opens (B) Closes (C) Opens or closes (D) No effect
A. (A) Opens
9. On seeing good food our mouth waters. This fluid is actually
(A) Water (B) Hormone (C) Enzyme (D) None of the above
A. (D) None of the above
10. The enzyme Pepsin is inactive in stomach without the presence of
(A) Nitric Acid (B) Hydrochloric acid (C) Acetic acid (D) Butyric acid
114
A. (B) Hydrochloric acid
11. Villi present on the inner lining of the intestinal wall
(A) Secretes enzymes for digestion
(B) Secretes hormones
(C) Decreases the surface area for absorption
(D) Increases the surface area for absorption
A. (D) Increases the surface area for absorption
12. During cellular respiration one molecule of glucose is first broken down into two molecules of
(A) Acetic acid (B) Pyruvic acid (C) Lactic acid (D) None of these
A. (B) Pyruvic acid
13. Rajib was absent in the class because of muscle pain which he claims to be due to excess physical exercise
he had done yesterday. This pain is due to
(A) Formation of lactic acid (B) Formation of acetic acid
(C) Formation of Pyruvic acid (D) Formation of Hydrochloric acid
A. (A) Formation of lactic acid
14. Right part of the human heart contains
(A) Oxygenated blood (B) Mixed blood (C) Deoxygenated blood (D) No blood
A. (C) Deoxygenated blood
15. The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis is called translocation and it occurs in the part of the
vascular tissue called
(A) Xylem (B) Sclerenchyma (C) Phloem (D) Collenchyma
A. (C) Phloem
16. In humans, each kidney has large numbers of filtration units called
(A) Neutrons (B) Neurons (C) Neptune (D) Nephrons
A. (D) Nephrons
C. Very Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks each)
17. In each of the following situations what happens to the rate of photosynthesis?
(i) Cloudy days
(ii) No rainfall in the area
(iii) Good manuring in the area
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(iv) Stomata gets blocked due to dust
A. (i) Rate of photosynthesis decreases on cloudy days.
(ii) Rate of photosynthesis decreases when there is no rainfall in the area.
(iii) Rate of photosynthesis increases in nutrient rich soil.
(iv) Rate of photosynthesis decreases when the stomata gets closed due to dust.
18. What is the significance of emulsification of fats?
A. Bile salts present in bile break-down large fat globules into small globules (emulsification) in order to increase
the surface area exposed for enzyme action. It helps in digestion of fats.
19. What happens to glucose that enters the nephron along with filtrate?
A. Glucose which enters into tubular part of nephron along with the filtrate gets reabsorbed in PCT and DCT.
20. What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products?
A. Plants can get rid of excretory products by the following methods-
(a) Excess water removal by transpiration
(b) Storage of waste materials in cell vacuoles or as gum and resin, especially in old xylem
(c) Storage of excretory products in leaves that later fall off
21. List the steps of preparation of temporary mount of a leaf peel to observe stomata. [Year - 2018]
A. Removal of peel from leaf.
Stain with safranin
Put the stained peel on a clean slide
Mount it with glycerine and cover slip
22. In the experiment of preparing a temporary mount of a leaf peel to observe stomata, we use two liquids other
than water. State when and why these liquids are being used.
A. Glycerine:- To mount the specimen properly so it should not fall off the slide as well to prevent the entry of air
bubbles. It also prevents from drying. Also used to keep stomata moisturized and wet so that stomata are easily
visible.
116
Safranin:- To stain the sample to see it clearly under the microscope.
23. Write two different ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in human body. Write the products
formed in each case. [Year - 2019]
A. Glucose can be oxidised to provide energy in human body in two ways.
1. In Aerobic Way 2. In Anaerobic Way
It requires O2 and occurs in It does not require O
2 and occurs in
most cells. muscle cells.
1. Glucose Molecule 1. Glucose Molecule
Glycolysis Glycolysis
2. Pyruvic Acid 2. Pyruvic Acid
+
2(NADH + H )
6CO2 + 6H2 O +e– + 36 – 38 ATP +
2NAD
Cellular energy Lactic Acid
24. A student is observing the temporary mount of a leaf peel under a microscope. Draw labelled diagram of the
structure of stomata as seen under the microscope. [Year - 2019]
A.
25. In the experimental set up to show that “CO2 is given out during respiration”, name the substance taken in the
small test tube kept in the conical flask. State its function and the consequence of its use.
A. The substance: KOH Solution.
The germinating seeds respire and produce CO2, which is aborbed by KOH Solution. This creates a vaccum in
the conical flask. The air present in the bent glass tube moves into the conical flask. This pulls the water in the
bent tube further up.
26. How is O2 and CO2 transported in human beings? [Year - 2019]
A. Oxygen is transported after binding with haemoglobin forming oxyhaemoglobin.
Carbon dioxide is transported in bulk portion by dissolving within blood plasma, a little amount is also transported
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as carbaminohaemoglobin by binding with haemoglobin.
27. List two different functions performed by pancreas in our body. [Year - 2019]
A. Endocrine function:- Secretes insulin and glucagon. These two hormones help to maintain the body glucose
homeostasis.
Enzyme secretion:- Pancreatic lipase, amylase and trypsin help in the digestion of fat, carbohydrate, protein
respectively.
28. List four precautions which a student should observe while preparing a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show
stomata in his school laboratory [Year - 2019]
A. Precautions:
i) Remove the peel to a proper size and avoid folding it.
ii) Always place the peel at the centre of the slide and hold the slide at the edges.
iii) Do not overstain or understain the peel.
iv) Always handle the peel with a brush as a needle may damage the cells.
v) Take care to prevent the peel from drying by using glycerine.
vi) Place the coverslip gently, avoiding any air bubbles.
29. A student has set up an apparatus to show that “CO2 is released during respiration”. After about 1 hour he
observes no change in the water level in the delivery tube. Write two possible reasons for the failure of the
experiment. [Year - 2019]
A. The reason for no change in delivery tube can be,
i) There was insufficient oxygen level in the laboratory.
ii) The concial flask is not airtight hence CO2 is leaking from it
iii) Moreover, use of freshly prepared KOH Solution is needed.
30. List in tabular form two differences between pepsin and trypsin. [Year - 2019]
A. Pepsin Trypsin
i) Secreted by the stomach. i) Secreted by the pancreas.
Active in acid solutions and secreted Secreted into the duodenum and is
ii) ii)
into the stomach. active in alkaline solution.
31. In the experimental set-up to show that “the germinating seeds give out carbon dioxide”, answer the following
questions :
(i) Why do we keep the conical flask airtight ?
(ii) Name the substance kept in the small test tube inside the conical flask. Write its role.
(iii) Why does water rise in the delivery tube ? [Year - 2019]
A. i) If not airtight CO2 can leak through it, and presence of air can hamper the results.
ii) KOH solution (Potassium hydroxide). It absorbs the CO2 and help in creating the vaccum in the conical
flask.
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iii) Water rise due to the vacuum created by absorption of CO2 by KOH solution within the conical flask. The
air present in the bent glass tube moves into the concial flask and this pulls the water in the bent tube
further up.
C. Short Questions and Answers : (3 marks each)
32. Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs and nephrons in the kidney with respect to their structure and
function.
A. The alveoli are sac-like structures made of thin-walled squamous epithelium. They are the site of exchange of
gases during respiration. These gases diffuse across the alveolar membrane due to difference in their partial
pressure.
Nephron is the structural and functional unit of kidneys consisting of Malpighian corpuscle and renal tubule.
Nephron is involved in filtration of blood and reabsorption of useful substances from the filtrate and secretion of
substances like H+, K+, NH4+ into the filtrate to maintain pH and osmolarity of blood and helps in excretion of
nitrogenous wastes.
33. (i) Name the site of exchange of materials between blood and surrounding cells.
(ii) Provide a schematic representation of transport and exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the human
body.
A. i) Intercellular space
ii) Deoxygenated Right atrium of heart Right ventricle Lungs Left atrium
of heart (exchange of of heart
blood from body
gases-O2 and CO2) (oxygenated blood)
Right Capillaries Body Left ventricle of heart
atrium (exchange parts
of heart of O2 and CO2)
34. Mention three types of blood vessels. Give one important feature of each. [Year - 2019]
A. Artery, vein and capillaries.
Artery:- Mostly carry oxygenated blood (except pulmonary artery) away from the heart.
Lumen of artery is smaller.
Capillaries:- The smallest and most numerous of the blood vessels, form the connection between arteries and
veins.
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Veins:- Carry blood towards the heart and mostly carry deoxygenated blood (except pulmonary veins). Walls of
the veins are thin and lumen wider.
35. Define the term transpiration. Design an experiment to demonstrate this process. [Year - 2019]
A. Transpiration is the process of loss of water in the form of water vapour from the aerial parts of the plant.
AIM:- Transpiration in plants.
Requirements:- Bell jar, well-watered potted plant, rubber sheet, glass plate, vaseline.
Method:
Bell jar A
i) Take a well watered, healthy potted plant and cover the pot with the help of rubber sheet. Only aerial parts of
the plant should remain uncovered.
ii) Keep the potted plant on a glass plate and cover it with a bell jar.
iii) Apply vaseline at the base of the bell jar to prevent outer air to pass in the bell jar.
iv) Keep the whole apparatus in light and observe for some time
Observations
Water drops appear inside the wall of bell jar containing a potted plant.
Results
Because water drops appear in the bell jar in which pot is having a plant with its aerial parts exposed, so it can
be concluded that these drops appeared due to the process of transpiration from the aerial parts of the plant.
36. What is photosynthesis ? Explain its mechanism. [Year - 2019]
A. Photosynthesis is a biochemical process by which plants, a few bacteria and protists use sunlight, carbon
dioxide and water to produce oxygen and glucose. Oxygen is released as a by-product whereas glucose is
used to carry out cellular activities.
Mechanism : 6CO2 12H2 O
Sunlight
Chlorophyll
C 6H12 O 6 6H2 O 6O 2
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37. List in tabular form three distinguishing features between autotrophs and heterotrophs. [Year - 2019]
A. Autotrophs Heterotrophs
They are the first part of the food chain. They are the second part of the food chain.
i) i)
They prepare their own food. They can not prepare their own food.
ii) They are not dependent on others for food. ii) They are dependent on others for their food.
They generally need sunlight and water. Eg:- They don't need sunlight and water. Eg:-
iii) iii)
Green plants, some photosynthetic bacteria. Most of the animals.
38. What is transpiration ? List its two functions.
OR
(a) What is translocation ? Why is it essential for plants ?
(b) Where do the substances in plants reach as a result of translocation ? [Year - 2019]
A. Transpiration is the process of loss of water in the form of water vapour from the aerial parts of the plant.
Functions
i) To remove excess water from plant body.
ii) Also keeps the plant body cool.
OR
a) Translocation is essential because it helps in the transport of food material, in plants for their growth &
development
b) The substances reach to stem, branches, leaves, root system and in all other parts of the plant body. It is bi-
directional transport as observed in Phloem.
39. List the two types of transport system in human beings and write the functions of any one of these.
[Year - 2019]
A. Two types of transport system in human beings are- lymphatic system and blood vascular system.
Lymphatic system function: An important part of both vascular and immune system.
Blood vascular system function: Transport of food, gases and nitrogenous wastes. Also provides immunity.
40. List four functions of the human heart. Why is double circulation necessary in the human body ?
[Year - 2019]
A. i) Transport and circulation of blood
ii) Maintenance of blood pressure.
iii) Supply of O2 and removal of CO2 to and from tissue.
iv) Transport of nutrients
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During a single cycle blood goes twice in the heart in each heartbeat / in each cycle which is known as double
circulation.
Double circulation ensures transport of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separately which provides better
oxygen supply and distribution in human body. It is necessary in human beings to separate oxygenated and de-
oxygenated blood because this makes circulatory system more efficient and helps in maintaining constant
body temperature.
41. Explain the ways in which glucose is broken down in absence or shortage of oxygen. [Year - 2019]
Absence of oxygen
In
(in yeast)
Ethanol 2carbonmolecule CO2 Energy
A. Glucos e Pyruvate
Lactic acid 3 carbon molecule Energy
Cytoplasm Lack of oxygen
6 carbon molecule 3 carbon molecule + energy
(in our muscle cells)
The first step is always the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate.
In absence of oxygen this pyruvate is broken down to form ethanol and carbon dioxide and gives out
energy. Usually takes place in yeast during fermentation.
In shortage of Oxygen pyruvate breaks down to form lactic acid and energy. Usually happens in muscles
during sudden activity.
42. What is haemoglobin ? State the consequences of deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies. [Year - 2019]
A. Haemoglobin is a respiratory pigment protein present within the RBC of mammals. It transports oxygen and
carbon dioxide.
Deficiency of haemoglobin in blood can affect the oxygen supplying capacity of blood which lead to deficiency
of oxygen in the blood cells. It can also lead to a disease called anaemia.
43. (a) Write the function of the following in the human alimentary canal :
(i) Saliva
(ii) HCl in stomach
(iii) Bile juice
(iv) Villi
(b) Write one function each of the following enzymes :
(i) Pepsin
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(ii) Lipase [Year - 2019]
A. a) i) Moistening the food, salivary amylase breaks starch down into maltose and dextrin.
ii) Helps in killing bacteria and other harmful organisms. Helps in converting inactive pepsinogen into
pepsin for digesting proteins in our stomach.
iii) Increases the absorption of fats by emulsification. It neutralises the acidity of chyme and protects the
intestinal wall from corrosion. It makes food alkaline for action of pancreatic juice.
iv) Villi are specialized for absorption in the small intestine as they have thin wall, one cell wall thick, which
enables a shorter diffusion path. They increase the surface area so there is more efficient absorption
of nutrients.
b) i) Pepsin:- Secreted from stomach. Helps in the breakdown of protein.
ii) Lipase:- Secreted from both stomach and pancreas. Helps in breaking down of fat molecules.
44. (a) W rite two conducting tissues present in plants. How does water enter continuously
into the root xylem ?
(b) Explain why plants have low energy needs as compared to animals. [Year - 2019]
A. (a) Xylem and Phloem. The two water conducting tissues present in plants are tracheids and vessels.
The root pressure and transpiration pull play important role in the transport of water.
i) Root pressure:- Root pressure is the positive osmotic pressure within sap to rise through a plant stem
to the leaves Root pressure is only able to transport water up to small heights.
ii) Transpiration pull:- It is a biological process in which the force of pulling is produced inside the xylem
tissue due to evaporation of water from the upper surface of plants i.e. leaves.
OR
It is also referred as suction force and this force is used to draw the water in an upward direction from roots
to the leaves.
This upward movement of water is known as ascent of sap, During transpiration, a negative hydrostatic
pressure is generated in the mesophyll cell to draw water from the roots to the veins of leaves.
(b) Plants need low energy as compared to animals because they do not move. In large plants there are many
dead cells like sclerenchyma because of which they also need less energy.
45. List in tabular form three differences between blood and lymph. [Year - 2019]
A. Lymph Blood
Blood is a circulatory fluid of the animal
Lymph is colourless liquid, found mostly in body, it helps in the transportation of
i) i)
the inter-cellular space of tissue. oxygen, nutrients, and metabolic wastes to
different parts of the body.
Blood has RBC's, WBC's, Platelets and a
ii) Lymph has WBC's and watery fluid ii)
fluid called plasma.
iii) Flows through lymphatic vessels. iii) Flows through blood vessels.
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D. Long Type Questions and Answers : (5 marks each)
47. Describe the structure and functioning of nephron.
A. Structure of nephron: Each nephron consists of Malpighian corpuscle and renal tubule.
(A) Malpighian corpuscle: It comprises of glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule where filtration of blood takes
place.
(i) Glomerulus: The blood to the nephron is supplied by a small artery. This artery gets divided into many
fine capillaries. These capillaries form a network or reticulum inside the lumen of Bowman’s capsule
called glomerulus.
(ii) Bowman’s capsule: It is double-layered cup-like structure present around glomerulus.
(B) Renal tubule: It consists of the following parts:
(i) Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT): The portion of tubular nephron extending from the Bowman’s
capsule is called the proximal convoluted tubule. It opens into the loop of Henle. The main function of
PCT is the selective reabsorption of the substances (Na+, K+, Glucose, etc.)
(ii) Henle’s loop: It starts at the end of proximal convoluted tubule and takes a long U-turn. It has two
limbs i.e., descending limb and ascending limb. Descending limb is very thin and permeable to water
but ascending limb is thick and impermeable to water.
(iii) Distal convoluted tubule (DCT): It is the posterior elongation of nephronic tubule. The thick segment
of the ascending limbs opens into the distal convoluted tubule. DCT finally opens into collecting duct.
Functions of nephron:
(i) Filtration: Blood is filtered out from the blood capillaries (glomerulus) into Bowman’s capsule. This glomerular
filtrate is deproteinised plasma containing glucose, amino acids, salts and large amount of water.
(ii) Reabsorption: When filtrate passes through the tubular part of the nephron useful substances like glucose,
amino acid, Na+, Cl–, K+ ions and a large amount of water are selectively reabsorbed into blood capillaries
and are transferred into blood circulation.
(iii) Secretion: As the filtrate travels through the nephron, tubular cells excrete substances like H+, K+ and
ammonia into the filtrate to maintain the pH and sodium-potassium balance in the blood.
48. Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label kidney, ureters, urinary bladder and renal artery. State in
brief the functions of:
(i) Renal artery (ii) Kidney (iii) Ureter (iv) Urinary bladder
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A.
Renal artery
Right kidney
Left kidney
Ureter
Urinary bladder
Human excretory system
i) Renal artery: Carries oxygenated blood to kidney.
ii) Kidney : Helps in removal of nitrogenous wastes and maintaining acid-base balance in blood.
iii) Ureter: Urine produced in kidneys pass through ureters into urinary bladder.
iv) Urinary bladder: Temporarily stores urine [400-700 ml].
49. (i) What is meant by breathing? What happens to breathing during vigorous exercise and why?
(ii) Define translocation with respect to transport in plants. Why is it essential for plants? Where in the plants
are the following synthesised:
(a) Sugar (b) Hormone
A. i) Breathing involves intake of air rich in oxygen (inhalation) and elimination of air rich in carbon dioxide
(exhalation).
Rate of breathing increases during vigorous exercise. This is because the demand of oxygen by the cells
is increased. To meet the high oxygen demand more and more air is inhaled by increased rate of breathing.
ii) Translocation can be defined as long distance transport of food, water, minerals through conducting tissues.
It is essential for plants as it helps in transport and distribution of nutrients from the site of production or
absorption to the site of storage or utilisation at a faster rate.
(a) Sugars are synthesized in chloroplast containing cells. Eg : leaves and green part of the plants
(b) Hormones are synthesized in different parts of the plant body like root tips, shoot tips, leaves, fruits, etc.
50. (i) Explain how does the exchange of gases occur in plants across the surface of stems, roots and leaves.
(ii) How water and minerals are transported in plants?
A. (i) In plants, exchange of gases across the surface of stems, roots and leaves occur through
a) Stomata in leaves and stems of herbaceous plants
b) Epiblema in roots
c) Lenticels in stems of woody plants
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(ii) Water and minerals are first absorbed by the root hairs. Water moves through cortex, endodermis and
ultimately reaches the root xylem, from where it enters the xylem of stem
Transpiration process creates a pressure called transpiration pull for upward movement of water to aerial
parts of the plant.
51. (i) Draw a diagram to show open stomatal pore and label:
(a) Guard cells (b) Chloroplasts
(ii) State two functions of stomata.
(iii) How do guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomatal pore?
A. (i)
Guard cells
Chloroplast
(ii) Two functions of stomata are-
(a) Gaseous exchange
(b) Loss of water by transpiration
(iii) Guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomata by undergoing rapid turgor changes. They swell
when water flows into them, causing the stomatal pore to open. On the loss of turgidity, the guard cells
become flaccid leading to closure of stomatal pore
52. (i) List three events that occur during the process of photosynthesis. Explain the role of stomata in this
process.
(ii) Describe the experiment to show that ‘sunlight’ is essential for photosynthesis.
A. (i) Three events that occur during the process of photosynthesis are as follows-
(a) Absorption of light
(b) Photolysis of water to release O2
(c) Fixation of CO2 to form food (carbohydrate)
Stomata plays an important role in photosynthesis in plants. Carbon dioxide is taken in from the atmosphere
through the stomata and oxygen is released into the atmosphere. This carbon dioxide is then fixed to
produce carbohydrates.
(ii) Materials required – Healthy potted plant, strip of black paper, beaker, water, iodine solution, Bunsen
burner, petridish, dropper, water bath, alcohol
Procedure :
A destarched potted plant is taken.
A part of one of its leaves is covered with black paper on both the surfaces.
The potted plant is kept in sunlight for 3-4 hours.
The selected covered leaf is plucked and126
the black paper covering it is removed.
The leaf is now placed in a beaker containing water and boiled for about 10 minutes.
The leaf is taken out and boiled in alcohol using the water bath for 10 minutes. This removes the
chlorophyll.
The leaf is again taken out and washed under running water
The leaf is placed in petridish and a few drops of iodine solution is added on it. The change in colour
is observed.
Observation :
The leaf turns blue-black except in the covered region. As the covered region did not receive light,
photosynthesis did not occur. Hence, no starch was formed there. The uncovered region received light and
starch was formed there due to photosynthesis.
53. (a) Mention any two components of blood.
(b) Trace the movement of oxygenated blood in the body.
(c) Write the function of valves present in between atria and ventricles.
(d) Write one structural difference between the composition of artery and veins.
OR
(a) Define excretion.
(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.
(c) Draw excretory system in human beings and label the following organs of excretory system which perform
following functions :
(i) form urine.
(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from kidney.
(iii) store urine until it is passed out. [Year - 2018]
A. (a) Blood (Composition)
Plasma (55%) Formed elements (45%)
Platelets (Thrombocytes)
RBC (erythrocytes)
WBC (Leucocyte)
. (b) Lungs
Pulmonary vein Left atrium Left ventricle Aorta Systemic artery and arterioles
(c) Between right atrium and right ventricle tricuspid valves and left atrium/left ventricle bicuspid valves are
present. These valves prevent the retrograde flow of blood from Ventricles to atria.
Opening and closing of these valves are passive process when both the atria are in systolic condition high
blood pressure within atria causes opening of the valves and blood flows from atria to ventricles (ventricle
are in diastole stage which filling) when ventricular blood pressure rises, these valves close to prevent the
back flow of blood within atria (which are now in diastolic phase).
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(d) Arteries Veins
Have thick, elastic, muscular wall. Narrow Have thin wall with few elastic fibres and broad
lumen. lumen
OR
a) Excretion is the physiological process by which metabolic waste is eliminated from an organism
b) Nephron.
c) i) Form urine: Kidney
ii) Ureter: Collects urine
iii) Urinary blader: Store urine
Structure of human excretory system
54. (a) Why do fishes die when taken out of water ?
(b) Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with vaseline. Will this plant remain healthy for long ? Give
reason to justify your answer.
(c) If a plant is releasing CO2 and taking in O2 during the day, does it mean that there is no photosynthesis
occurring ? Give reason for your answer.
A. (a) Fishes die when taken out of water because they exchange gases dissolved in water via diffusion through
their gills.
Gills are richly supplied with blood capillaries and can readily absorb the dissolved oxygen in water. When
fishes are taken out of water, the supply of oxygen to the fishes is out as fishes cannot absorb and breathe
using the oxygen present in the atmosphere. Gill filaments get stuck with each other. So, their surface area
for gases exchange decreases. Hence, they die after some time.
(b) If leaves are coated with vaseline, then stomatal openings will be closed and both plant respiration via
exchange of gases and transpiration will stop.
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So, the plant will no more remain healthy.
(c) Yes, the plant will obviously perform photosynthesis. Respiration will be a continuous process. CO2 produced
during respiration will be used in photosynthesis and the remaining CO2 will be released.
E. Assertion- Reasoning
1. Assertion: Molecular movements are needed for life.
Reason: Body structures made up of these molecules need continuous repair and maintenance.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2. Assertion: Diffusion does not meet high energy requirements of multi-cellular organisms.
Reason: Diffusion is a fast process but only occurs at the surface of the body.
A. (c) Assertion is correct. The reason is incorrect.
3. Assertion: The opening and closing of the pore is a function of the guard cells.
Reason: Stomatal pores are the site for exchange of gases by diffusion.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
4. Assertion: Lungs always contain a residual volume of air.
Reason: It is so to ensure enough time for the release of CO2 and for the absorption of O2 .
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
5. Assertion: The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called villi.
Reason: The villi increase the surface area for absorption.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
6. Assertion: Pyruvate is a six-carbon molecule.
Reason: It is prepared in the cytoplasm as the first step to cellular respiration.
A. (d) Assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
7. Assertion: Rings of cartilage are present in the throat.
Reason: These ensure that the air-passage does not collapse.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
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8. Assertion: In human beings, the respiratory pigment is haemoglobin.
Reason: It is a type of protein which has high-affinity carbon dioxide.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
9. Assertion: Arteries are thick-walled and elastic in nature.
Reason: Arteries have to transport blood away from the heart.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
10. Assertion: The purpose of making urine is to filter out undigested food from intestine.
Reason: Kidneys filter the waste and produce urine.
A. (d) Assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
F. Case Based Questions
1. Terrestrial organisms use the oxygen in the atmosphere for respiration. This oxygen is absorbed by different
organs in different animals. All these organs have a structure that increases the surface area which is in
contact with the oxygen-rich atmosphere.
a. Name the structure present in human beings that increases the surface area for greater absorption of
oxygen.
b. Which process helps in the exchange of gases in terrestrial organisms?
c. Name the respiratory pigment in humans. Which compound is formed when it combines with oxygen?
Or
d. Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic animals faster than the terrestrial animals?
A. a. The structures present in human beings that increase the surface area for greater absorption of oxygen
are alveoli.
b. The process that helps in the exchange of gases in terrestrial organisms is diffusion.
c. The respiratory pigment in humans is haemoglobin. The compound formed when haemoglobin combines
with oxygen is known as oxyhaemoglobin.
d. Aquatic organisms, such as fish, obtain oxygen from the dissolved state of water. The amount of dissolved
oxygen in water is much lower than the amount of oxygen present in the air. So aquatic animals breathe
faster than terrestrial animals to meet the need for required amounts of oxygen.
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TOPIC : CONTROL AND COORDINATION
A. Brief answer to important questions.
1. State the function of
(i) Gustatory receptors (ii) Olfactory receptors
A. (i) Gustatory receptors are sensory receptors that receive chemical stimulus and help in perception of taste.
(ii) Olfactory receptors are sensory receptors that receive chemical stimulus and help in perception of smell.
2. Which part of the brain maintains posture and equilibrium of the body?
A. Cerebellum of hindbrain is responsible for maintaining equilibrium and posture of the body.
3. Mention the part of body where gustatory and olfactory receptors are located.
A. Gustatory receptors are located in taste buds of tongue.
Olfactory receptors are located in olfactory epithelium present within the nasal cavity.
4. Name two tissues that provide control and coordination in multicellular animals.
A. In multicellular animals, control and coordination are provided by nervous and muscular tissues.
5. How is spinal cord protected in the human body?
A. Spinal cord is protected by the vertebral column or backbone.
6. Which part of CNS involved in reflex action?
A. Spinal cord is involved in reflex action.
7. The gap between two neurons is called a (i) dendrite (ii) synapse (iii) axon (iv) impulse.
A. Gap between two neurons is called a synapse.
8. Mention the part of brain which :
(i) enables us to ride a bicycle
(ii) changes the size of pupil of eye
(iii) maintains blood pressure of the body
(iv) regulates respiration
(v) detects smell of an agarbatti (incense stick).
A. (i) Cerebellum of hindbrain
(ii) Midbrain
(iii) Medulla of hindbrain
(iv) Medulla of hindbrain and Pons varolii
(v) Forebrain
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9. Answer the following :
(i) Name the endocrine gland associated with brain.
(ii) Which gland secretes digestive enzymes as well as hormones ?
(iii) Name the endocrine gland associated with kidneys.
(iv) Which endocrine gland is present in males but not in females ?
A. (i) Pituitary gland
(ii) Pancreas
(iii) Adrenal glands
(iv) Testes
10. Answer the following :
(i) Which hormone is responsible for the changes noticed in females at puberty?
(ii) Dwarfism results due to deficiency of which hormone?
(iii) Blood sugar level rises due to deficiency of which hormone?
(iv) Iodine is necessary for synthesis of which hormone?
A. (i) Estrogen
(ii) Growth hormone
(iii) Insulin
(iv) Thyroxine
Multiple-Choice Type Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
11. Gustatory receptors will detect .
(A) light (B) Taste (C) Smell (D) Touch
A. (B) Taste
12. The gap between two neurons is called .
(A) Synapse (B) Synthesise (C) Dendron (D) Axon
A. (A) Synapse
13. Involuntary actions including blood pressure, salivation and vomiting are controlled by the
in the hind-brain.
(A) Medals (B) Cerebellum (C) Medulla (D) Cerebrum
A. (C) Medulla
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14. A potted plant kept in a room tends to bend towards the direction of light. This movement is called
(A) Photographism (B) Photonastism (C) Photoperiodism (D) Phototropism
A. (D) Phototropism
15. is a growth inhibitor hormone in plants
(A) Auxin (B) Cytokinin (C) Abscisic acid (D) Gibberellic acid
A. (C) Abscisic acid
16. The endocrine organ present in human female but not in human male is
(A) Testis (B) Ovary (C) Pituitary gland (D) Thymus
A. (B) Ovary
17. If there is a deficiency of growth hormone the child becomes
(A) Blind (B) Mentally retarded (C) Giant (D) Dwarf
A. (D) Dwarf
18. People living in coastal areas suffer less from goitre. This is because
(A) They eat sea food (B) They drink sea water
(C) They bathe in sea water (D) All of the above
A. (A) They eat sea food
19. The upward or downward movement of shoot and root respectively is influenced by gravity. Such movement is
called
(A) Gravity movement (B) Gravitytropism (C) Geotropism (D) Gravitism
A. (C) Geotropism
20. The direction of impulse in a typical neuron is
(A) Axon to dendron (B) Dendron to axon
(C) Both a and b are correct (D) Both a and b are wrong
A. (B) Dendron to axon
B. Very Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks each)
21. How is brain protected from injury and shock?
A. Brain is enclosed within a bony box called cranium. These help to protect the brain from injury and shock.
22. Name the part of neuron
(i) where information is acquired
(ii) through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
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A. (i) Information in a neuron is acquired by dendrites
(ii) Nerve impulse or electrical impulse is conducted through axon.
23. What is difference between a reflex action and walking?
A. Reflex action is a rapid, automatic response to a stimulus which is not under voluntary control of brain.
Walking includes muscle contraction which is voluntarily controlled by brain.
24. What will happen if intake of iodine in our diet is low?
Or
Why is the use of iodised salt advisable?
A. If intake of iodine in our diet is low, thyroxine will not be adequately synthesized in our body, leading to
hypothyroidism (simple goitre).
OR
We are advised to use iodized salts so that iodine is sufficient in the body. Iodine is required to produce
thyroxine and I2-deficiency will cause hypothyroidism (simple goitre).
25. (i) Name the hormones that are released in large concentrations in human males and females when they
reach puberty.
(ii) What is the source of growth hormone ? What problem is caused due to deficiency of Growth hormone ?
A. (i) Sex hormones are released in large concentrations at onset of puberty.
Human males Testosterone
Human females Estrogen
(ii) Pituitary gland.
Deficiency of growth hormone causes dwarfism in children.
26. Name the hormone secreted by human testes. State its function.
A. Testes in human males secretes testosterone which regulates production of sperms (spermatogenesis) and
appearance of male secondary sexual characters at puberty.
27. (a) Name one gustatory receptor and one olfactory receptor present in human beings.
(b) Write a and b in the given flow chart of neuron through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
[Year - 2018]
A. (a) Gustatory receptor : Taste buds on tongue.
Olfactory receptor : Nose
(b) Dendrite Cyton Axon End point of Neuron
(a) (b)
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28. How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support ?
OR
What is a nerve impulse ? State the direction followed by a nerve impulse while travelling in the body of an
organism. [Year - 2019]
A. Auxin is a plant hormone which is synthesized at the tip of the shoot as well as tip of root. It helps the cell grow
longer. When tendril comes in contact with a support, auxin stimulates faster growth of the cells on the opposite
side that’s why the tendril forms a coil around the support.
OR
Nerve impulse is the electrical signal (message) conveyed by the nerves (collection of axons of several neurons)
to different parts of the body from CNS and PNS and vice versa.
Nerve impulse always travels in one direction from dendron to axons.
29. How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plants different from the movement of a shoot towards light ?
A. The movement of the leaves of the sensitive plant are touch sensitive and independent of growth while the
movement of the shoot towards light is growth related and known as phototropism.
30. List in tabular form two differences between reflex action and walking. [Year - 2019]
A. Reflex action Walking
(i) Sudden, involuntary reactions of (i) Voluntary action which happens under the
the body in response to stimuli. control of cerebellum of the brain.
(ii) It is acquired or learnt as we grow. The
(ii) Occur without the involvement of
thought is accepted by the brain upon
the conscious area of the brain
necessity and is processed under its control.
C. Short Questions and Answers : (3 marks each)
31. Mention the functions of the hindbrain in humans.
A. Hindbrain has three parts :
Cerebellum : Responsible for precision of voluntary actions (movements), maintenance of posture
and equilibrium of body.
Pons : Regulates respiration along with medulla.
Medulla oblongata : Consists of number of centres like respiratory centre, salivation centre, cardiac
centre etc.
32. Which part of brain controls involuntary actions? Write the function of any two regions of it.
A. Involuntary actions are mainly controlled by hindbrain along with midbrain.
Two regions of hind brain and their functions are :
Cerebellum : Responsible for precision of voluntary actions (movements), maintenance of posture
and equilibrium of body.
Medulla oblongata : Consists of number of centres like respiratory centre, vasomotor centre, cardiac
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centre, etc.
33. (i) Name the two main components of the CNS (Central Nervous System) in human beings.
(ii) What is the need of a system of control and coordination in human beings?
A. (i) Brain and spinal cord are the two main components of C.N.S. in human beings.
(ii) A system of control and co-ordination is required in human beings to coordinate functions of different
organs and organ systems such that a steady and stable environment is maintained inside the body
(homeostasis). So, coordination helps two or more organs to interact and complement the function of one
another.
34. Write the main functions of the following :
a) sensory neuron
b) cranium
c) vertebral column
A. a) Sensory neuron occur in sense organs and receive stimuli through their dendrites. The sensory neurons
transmit impulses towards the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) with the help of their axons.
b) Cranium : The bones of cranium or brain box protect the brain from mechanical injury.
c) Vertebral column : Major function of the vertebral column is protection of the spinal cord and carries the
weight of the upper body.
35. Name the endocrine gland which secretes growth hormone. What will be the effect on a person if there is
(i) Deficiency of growth hormones.
(ii) Excess secretion of growth hormone.
A. Pituitary gland secretes growth hormone.
(i) Deficiency of growth hormone leads to dwarfism in childhood.
(ii) Excessive secretion of growth hormone causes gigantism .
36. List in tabular form three differences between nervous control and chemical (hormonal) control.
A.
Nervous control Hormonal control
(i) Immediate or rapid (i) Action is usually slow
action takes place
(ii) Response usually (ii) Response lasts for a
lasts for a very short time long time
(iii) Regulated by neurons (iii) Regulated by secretory
(nervous tissue) cells or endocrine glands
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37. (i) Which plant hormone is present in greater concentration in the areas of rapid cell division?
(ii) Give one example of plant growth promotor and plant growth inhibitor.
A. (i) Cytokinin is present in greater concentration in areas of plant body which show rapid cell division.
(ii) Plant growth promoter – Auxin
Plant growth inhibitor – Abscisic acid
38. Name any three endocrine glands in human body and write any one function of each.
A. Three endocrine glands in human body are –
(i) Pituitary gland – Secretes growth hormone that regulates overall growth and development of the
body.
(ii) Thyroid gland – Secretes thyroxine that regulates overall B.M.R., that is, the carbohydrate, protein
and fat metabolism in body.
(iii) Pancreas – Secretes insulin that lowers blood sugar levels.
39. You must have observed that as you approached 10-12 years of age, many dramatic changes appeared in
your body. State the reason for these developments.
A. The dramatic changes in appearance as 10-12 years of age is approached are associated with puberty. These
changes are mainly the appearance of secondary sexual characters and it is observed in both females and
males because of secretion of estrogen and testosterone from ovaries and testes respectively.
40. Name the “emergency” hormone which is secreted by the adrenal gland. How does this hormone helps to deal
with scary situations ?
A. The “emergency” hormones secreted by adrenal gland are Adrenaline and noradrenaline
Adrenaline is directly secreted into the blood and carried to different parts of the body. For example, it reaches
heart and increases heart beat and hence supply of oxygen to the muscles is greatly enhanced. Blood is
diverted to skeletal muscles and blood supply to the digestive system and skin is reduced. Breathing rate is
also increased. These responses altogether help to deal with the situation.
41. Name the hormones secreted by the following endocrine glands and specify one function of each :
(a) Thyroid (b) Pituitary (c) Pancreas [Year - 2018]
A. Gland Hormone Function
(a) Thyroid gland Thyroxine (T 3, T4) Controls the basal metabolic rate of the growth.
Stimulates and maintains growth of the body
(b) Pituitary gland Growth Hormone
(physical growth).
(c) Pancreas Insulin Maintains blood glucose level.
42. (i) What are endocrine glands ? Write one main feature of it.
(ii) Name the hormone secreted by thyroid glands and state its main functions.
(iii) What is the importance of iodized salt in our daily life ?
OR
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What constitutes the central and peripheral nervous systems ? How are various parts of central nervous system
protected ?
A. (i) Those glands which secrete their secretion directly into the body fluid without the assistance of any duct
system.
Example : Pituitary gland, Adrenal gland.
Main feature : These glands do not have any duct system to pur their secretion into body fluid.
(ii) The hormone secreted by thyroid gland is thyroxin.
The main functions of thyroxine are—
a) It controls the BMR.
b) Has critical role in carbohydrate and protein metabolism.
(iii) Importance of iodised salt :
1. Iodised salt containing iodine is required for the thyroid gland to produce the thyroxine hormone which
controls the basal metabolic rate.
2. Salt improves optimum hydration levels and electrolyte balance.
OR
Central nervous system : Brain and Spinal Cord.
Peripheral Nervous System : All the Cranial nerves and Spinal nerves form the peripheral nervous system.
Cerebrospinal fluid is also present.
The CNS is protected by skull as well as 3 layers of Meninges and vertebral column seen in Brain and Spinal
cord respectively.
43. How does chemical co-ordination occur in plants?
A. Chemical coordination in plants occurs via different hormones. These hormones help plants to coordinate with
the external environment and as well as with the cells within the body, functions of different hormones are as
follows:
Auxin : Promotes apical growth of shoot and root. It also induces meristimatic cell division.
Cytokinin : Promotes cell division.
Gibberelin : Helps in breaking seed dormacy, stem elongation.
Ethelene : Promotes fruit ripening and also inhibits cell growth.
Abscisic acid : Promotes abscission of different plant organs / parts and inhibits plant growth, promotes seed
dormancy.
44. What are plant hormones ? Name the plant hormones responsible for the following :
(i) Growth of stem
(ii) Promotion of cell division
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(iii) Inhibition of growth
(iv) Elongation of cells [Year - 2019]
A. Plant hormones are signal molecules produced within plants, that occur in extremely low concentrations.
(i) Growth of stem : Auxin
(ii) Promotion of Cell division : Cytokinin
(iii) Inhibition of Growth : Abscisic acid and ethylene,
(iv) Elongation of cells : Auxin
45. What is feedback mechanism of hormone regulation. Take the example of insulin to explain this phenomenon
[Year - 2019]
A. The feedback mechanism of hormones is the mechanism through which the balance of hormone in the blood
/ body is maintained.
The increase or decrease in the concentration of that hormone can either stimulate or inhibit the secretion of
a particular hormone. This is called feedback.
re as
Panc Liver
se to
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G luco e n
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Glyco
lu
G
Negative
Normal level Normal level
Feedback
G
l uc Glycogen to Glucose
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46. Nervous and hormonal systems together perform the function of control and coordination in human beings.
Justify this statement with the help of an example.
A. Sympathetic adrenal system.
Stimulates
Sympathetic nerve Adrenal medulla
Secrets
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
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Thus, nervous system directly controls the emergency response of the body by stimulating the endocrine gland
adrenal medulla to secrete the emergency hormones of the body for quick and prompt response.
Hypothalamus (a part of brain) controls pituitary by releasing some hormones. Pituitary controls other glands
for control and co-ordination.
47. List in tabular form three distinguishing features between cerebrum and cerebellum.
A. Cerebrum Cerebellum
Part of forebrain. Part of hindbrain.
(i)
Largest part of the brain. Second largest part of the brain.
Thinking, analyzing, logic etc.
(ii) Coordinates locomotor activity.
functions are controlled.
48. (a) Name the part of human brain which controls (i) voluntary actions and (ii) involuntary actions.
(b) Write the function of peripheral nervous system. Name the components of this system stating their origin.
A. (a) (i) Frontal lobe of cerebrum.
(ii) Medulla oblongota.
(b) The primary role of the PNS is to connect the CNS to the organs, limbs, and skin.
To send information gathered by the body’s sensory receptors to the CNS as quickly as possible
Components of the PNS.
The Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) has two components : the somatic nervous system and the
autonomic nervous system. The PNS consists of all of the nerves that lie outside the brain and Spiral
Cord.
Origin of Somatic and Autonomic nervous system :
(i) 12 paris of Cranial nerves which sends information to the brain stem or from brain stem to periphery.
(ii) 31 pairs of Spinal nerves that send sensory information from the periphery to the Spinal Cord and vice
versa.
49. (a) Plants do not have any nervous system yet, if we touch a sensitive plant, some observable changes take
place in its leaves. Explain how could this plant respond to the external stimuli and how it is communicated.
(b) Name the hormone that needs to be administered to
(i) increase the height of a dwarf plant.
(ii) cause rapid cell division in fruits and seeds.
A. (a) This type of response are known as Seismonastic movements which caused by mechanical stimuli like
shock, touch or contact, fast moving wind, etc.
If we touch the leaves of sensitive plant then this stimulus for a non growth movement would be transferred
chemically and as a response the plant would cause diffusion to transfer water out of cell. As a result of this
turgeer changes take place in it’s leaves.
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(b) (i) Gibberellins.
(ii) Cytokinin.
50. Why does the flow of signals in a synapse from axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another neuron
take place but not in the reverse direction ? Explain.
A. Neurotransmitters are present within the axon terminal synaptic knobs. These axon terminals and dendrons
(precisely dendrites) make the synapse; which is required for signal transduction.
Nerve signal transduction is electrochemical i.e. neurotransmitters are needed to be released at synaptic
junction. That is why the direction of signal transduction in nerves always from dendrons cyton - axon
axon terminals dendrites of another nerve.
D. Long Questions and Answers : (5 marks each)
51. a) Draw a neat diagram of a neuron and label (i) dendrite and (ii) axon.
b) Which part of the human brain is:
i) the main thinking part of the brain?
ii) responsible for maintaining the posture and balance of the body?
A. a) Diagrammatic representation of a neuron is as follows:
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b) i) Forebrain which includes cerebrum, olfactory lobes and diencephalon, is the main thinking part of the
brain.
ii) Cerebellum, part of hindbrain is responsible for maintaining the posture and balance of the body.
52. State the functions of the three sub-units of the structural and functional unit of nervous system.
A. The structural and functional unit of nervous system is the neuron
A neuron has three components :
(i) Cell body/Cyton/Soma – It consists of large number of mitochondria to provide a large amount of energy
for impulse conduction. It contains granular neuroplasm which has Nissl
granules associated with protein synthesis.
(ii) Dendrons or Dendrites – These conduct nerve impulses towards the cell body (cyton) after receiving
them.
(iii) Axon – Its primary function is to conduct the nerve impulse away from the cyton to
another neuron or other cells such as muscle cells, glands, etc.
53. What is the function of receptors in our body? Think of the situation where receptors do not work properly.
What problem is likely to arise?
A. Receptors which are usually present in our sense organs receive stimulus from outside or inside the body and
passes impulse to the nervous system.
If receptors do not work properly, we would fail to produce appropriate response to any specific stimuli.
54. What are major parts of brain? Mention the function of each part.
A. The brain is broadly divided into following three parts :
Forebrain : The fore-brain is the main thinking part of the brain. Separate areas of the fore-brain (lobes) are
specialised for hearing, smell, sight, etc. There are separate areas of association where the sensory information
is interpreted by putting it together with information from other receptors as well as with information that is
already stored in the brain. Based on all this, a decision is made about how to respond and the information is
passed on to the motor areas which control the movement of voluntary muscles.
The highly developed cerebral cortex (grey matter) enables us to think, reason out, invent, plan and memorise.
Overall, the cerebrum is the site of intelligence, consciousness and will power. It controls all voluntary actions.
A part of forebrain called hypothalamus controls the involuntary functions like hunger, thirst, sexual desire and
body temperature.
Midbrain : It is covered by cerebral hemispheres. It controls the visual and hearing reflexes.
Hindbrain : Cerebellum of hindbrain is responsible for precision of the voluntary movements and maintenance
of the equilibrium and posture of the body; like walking in a straight line, riding a bicycle and even picking up a
pencil.
Pons of hindbrain controls respiration rate, along with the medulla.
Medulla oblongata is the posterior most part of the brain which controls involuntary functions of the body like
heart beat, rate of respiration, constriction of blood vessels, secretion of saliva. It also controls coughing,
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sneezing, vomiting, urination, blood pressure, gut peristalsis, swallowing of food, etc.
55. What is meant by reflex action? With the help of a labelled diagram trace the sequence of events that take place
when we touch a hot object.
A. Reflex action can be defined as an involuntary functioning or movement of any organ or body part, in response
to a particular stimulus. The function occurs immediately without the movement of will and consiousness.
The sequence of events taking place on touching a hot object are depicted as follows :
Sensory neurons
Stimulus Receptors
(Not object) (skin)
Reflex arc Spinal cord
Effectors
(in arm muscle) Motor neurons
The above diagram shows that, when we touch a hot object, the receptors on our skin would immediately send
the message to the C.N.S., resulting in muscle contraction that would cause withdrawal of the hand.
56. What is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system ? Draw its neat labelled diagram and write its
two functions.
A. The structural and functional unit of nervous system is neuron.
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Structure of Neuron
Two functions of neurons are :
(i) To receive electrical signals from other neurons.
(ii) To transmit electrical messages throughout the body, to other neurons, as well as to effector organs like
muscles, glands, etc.
57. Write the main functions of following:
(i) Sensory neuron (ii) Cranium (iii) Vertebral column (iv) Motor neuron
A. (i) Sensory neuron – It conducts nerve impulse from the receptor organ to the brain or spinal cord.
(ii) Cranium – It is a bony structure enclosing the brain. Hence, it provides protection to the brain
from shock or mechanical injury.
(iii) Vertebral column – It provides protection to the spinal cord from injury or shock.
(iv) Motor neuron – It conducts nerve impulse from brain or spinal cord towards effector organ.
58. Mention one function of following hormones :
(i) Thyroxine, (ii) Insulin, (iii) Adrenaline, (iv) Growth hormone, (v) Testosterone.
A. (i) Thyroxine – It regulates basal metabolic rate of the body
(ii) Insulin – It lowers the blood glucose level
(iii) Adrenaline – It increases rate and force of heart beat
(iv) Growth hormone – It regulates overall growth and development of body
(v) Testosterone – It regulates appearance of secondary sexual characters in males.
59. (i) Explain any three directional movements in plants.
(ii) How are brain and spinal cord protected in human?
(iii) Name the master gland present in the brain.
A. (i) Tropic movements are directional movements brought about by more growth on one side and less growth on
the opposite side of the plant organ and are induced by some external stimuli.
• Three directional movements in plants are –
(a) Phototropism : This response is determined by the direction of light.
Sunflower is positively phototropic i.e., it moves from east to west along with sunlight. Main stem is positively
phototropic, while main root is negatively phototropic i.e., moves away from sunlight.
(b) Geotropism : It is caused by unilateral exposure to the force of gravity. Main root of plant is positively
geotropic and main stem is negatively geotropic.
(c) Chemotropism : Movement or growth of a plant part in response to a chemical stimulus.
Eg.: Pollen tube shows positive chemotropism when it grows towards the ovules.
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(ii) Brain is protected by cranium and spinal cord is protected by vertebral column. Both are also protected by
protective membranes called meninges. These protect the organs from shock and injury.
(iii) Master gland present in brain is pituitary gland and it is called so because it controls the secretions of other
endocrine glands.
60. Smita’s father has been advised by a doctor to reduce the sugar intake.
(i) Name the disease he is suffering from and name the hormone which is deficient?
(ii) Identify the gland that secretes it.
(iii) Explain how the secretion of this hormone is regulated in human system.
A. (i) Smita’s father is suffering from diabetes mellitus in which insulin hormone is deficient.
(ii) Insulin is secreted from the endocrine part of pancreas i.e. Islets of Langerhans.
(iii) The release of insulin is regulated by feedback mechanism. Elevated blood glucose level is detected by
cells of pancreas which respond by producing more insulin. Fall in blood glucose level reduces insulin
secretion.
61. (i) What are animal hormones? List their two characteristics.
(ii) Name the hormone:
(a) which brings changes in human male during the onset of adolescence
(b) which hormone coordinates the level of blood sugar
A. (i) Hormones are ‘chemical messengers’ secreted by endocrine glands.
Two characteristic features of hormones :
(1) Hormones are produced in trace amounts.
(2) They act on specific target organs or cells usually far away from the source of secretion.
(ii) (a) Testosterone
(b) Insulin
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62. Draw a by labelled diagram showing the location of different endocrine glands in human beings.
A.
Location of endocrine glands
63. (i) Draw a well labelled diagram of neuromuscular junction.
(ii) Describe the feedback mechanism.
A. (i)
Neuromuscular
junction
Axon
Muscle
fibre
Capillary
Mitochondrion
Neuromuscular junction
(ii) Feedback mechanism
Homoeostasis or a balanced internal environment is regulated by hormones through feedback mechanism.
Feedback mechanism is a regulatory process in which optimum level of hormones is maintained by the presence
of that particular hormone. If the concentration of the hormone increases, it gives a negative feedback inhibiting
its further secretion and if the level is low, then the negative feedback is lifted, thus promoting the hormonal
secretion.
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64. (a) Name the disease caused due to deficiency of iodine in our diet and state its one symptom.
(b) How do nerve impulses travel in the body ? Explain.
OR
What is hydrotropism ? Design an experiment to demonstrate this phenomenon. [Year - 2019]
A. The disease caused due to deficiency of iodine in our diet is hypothyroidism (Goitre), as well as cretinism.
Symptoms :
Increased thyroid gland. (enlarged)
Intellectual disability.
Metabolic disorders. [Any one]
(b) Nerve impluse generated within dendrites.
¯
From dendrites it travels to cyton and then towards axon.
¯
In myelinated axons, due to less conductivity of fat tissues impulse travels rather jumps from one node of
Ranvier to other.
¯
Finally reaches the axon terminal and causes the release of neurotransmitter which transmits signal to the
next neuron or effector organ.
OR
Movement of plant parts towards the source of water is known as hydrotropism.
AIM : To demonstrate hydrotopism in Plants.
Procedure :
(i) Plant a seedling in a vessel containing soil.
(ii) Adjacent to the seedling put a porous pot containing water
(iii) Leave the set up for few days.
Observation:
(iv) On examining the roots of seedlings it is observed that the roots bend towards source of water and do
not grow straight.
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Results :
It confirms that plants shows hydrotropism as the roots bend towards the porous pot of water. As hydrotropism
is a plant growth response in which the direction of growth is determined by a stimulus of gradient in water
concentration.
water
Seedling (Pea)
Hydrotropic curvature
of root
Soil
Porus pot
E. ASSERTION-REASONING
1. Assertion: Insulin regulates blood sugar level.
Reason : Insufficient secretion of insulin will cause diabetes mellitus.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. Assertion : Animals can react to stimuli in different ways.
Reason: All animals have a nervous system and an endocrine system involving hormones.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion .
3. Assertion: The effect of auxin hormone on the growth of root is exactly opposite to that on a stem.
Reason: Auxin hormone increases the rate of growth in root and decreases the rate of growth in stem.
A. (c) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
4. Assertion: A receptor is a specialized group of cells in a sense organ that perceive a particular type of
stimulus.
Reason: Different sense organs have different receptors for detecting stimuli.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
5. Assertion: Cyton region of nerve fibre collects information for the brain.
Reason: Nerve fibres can either have or lack myelin sheath.
A. (d) Assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
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6. Assertion : The brain is also known as the central nervous system.
Reason: Central nervous system controls and regulates the voluntary actions.\
A. (d) If the assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
7. Assertion : The spinal nerves are 31 in number.
Reason: Spinal nerves only have sensory neurons in them
A. (c) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
F. Case Based Questions
1. The excess or deficiency of hormones has a harmful effect on our body. For example, the deficiency of
insulin hormone results in a disease called diabetes mellitus whereas excess of insulin in the body can lead to
coma. So, it is necessary that the hormones are secreted by the glands in our body in precise quantities
which are required for the normal functioning of the body.
a) What is feedback mechanism?
A. The feedback mechanism is the mechanism of the body to maintain the levels of hormones in the body within
the desired limits. An increase or decrease in the levels of the hormones triggers the feedback mechanism.
b) Name the gland which secretes insulin.
A. Pancreas
c) Explain how feedback mechanism takes place in our body taking insulin as an example.
A. When we eat carbohydrate-rich foods, the level of glucose in our blood rises. As blood glucose levels rise, the
pancreas produces and secretes insulin. Insulin will cause the cells to absorb blood glucose. This is the
method via which blood glucose level is maintained. When excess insulin is present in the blood, more glucose
is absorbed into the cell, resulting in a glucose shortage in the blood. Low glucose levels restrict insulin
secretion in the circulation, causing negative feedback to prevent glucose shortages.
OR
d) Insulin and Glucagon works antagonistic to each other. Explain.
A. Insulin and glucagon are antagonistic hormones because their actions are completely opposite. Glucagon
increases blood glucose level and insulin decrease blood glucose level.
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TOPIC : HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE ?
A. Brief answer to important questions.
1. Name the life process of an organism which helps in the growth of its population.
A. Reproduction is the process that helps an organism in the growth of its population.
2. Where is DNA found in the cell ?
A. DNA is found in the nucleus of a cell.
3. What is DNA ?
A. Deoxyribonucleic acid – the genetic material of an organism
4. Name the information source for making proteins in a cell. State two basic events in reproduction.
A. The information source for making proteins in a cell is the DNA.
The two basic events of reproduction are ––
(i) Duplication of cellular apparatus and cell division.
(ii) Formation of reproductive units.
5. What is the effect of DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate in the reproduction process ?
A. If the DNA copying is not perfectly accurate in the reproduction process, it will eventually lead to the formation
of altered proteins and hence lead to abnormal body characters.
6. When does copying of DNA occurs ?
A. Copying of DNA occurs before a cell undergoes division.
7. The mode of reproduction depends on which feature of the organism ?
A. The mode of reproduction depends on the body design of a particular organism.
8. Name the part of Bryophyllum where the buds are produced for vegetative propagation.
A. Buds arise from the leaf notches during vegetative propogation of Bryophyllum.
9. If a woman is using copper-T, will it help in protecting her against sexually transmitted diseases ?
A. No, if a women is using Copper T, it will not help in protecting her against sexually transmitted diseases.
10. Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human beings ?
(i) Ovary (ii) Uterus (iii) Vas deferens (iv) Fallopian tube
A. (iii) Vas deferens
11. The anther contains
(i) Sepals (ii) Ovules (iii) Carpel (iv) Pollen grains
A. (iv) Pollen grains
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12. Grafting is which type of vegetative propagation ?
A. Grafting is a type of artificial vegetative propagation.
13. Which type of reproduction leads to more variations ?
A. Sexual reproduction leads to more variations.
14. Where are reproductive parts located in plants ?
A. Reproductive parts of a plant are located in the flowers.
15. What is gestation period ?
A. The period of development of embryo inside the womb between conception and birth is called gestation period.
16. When a cell reproduces, what happens to its DNA ? [Year - 2017]
A. When a cell reproduces the DNA is copied and passed on to the offspring.
17. Why is variation important for a species ? [Year - 2017]
A. Variation makes a species better for survival by following ways–
(i) Variation makes adaptation possible for a species with the changing environment.
(ii) Variation can make a population disease resistant or compatible enough to fight.
18. List two functions of testes in human beings. [Year - 2017]
A. (i) Involved in the production of sperms.
(ii) Produces male sex hormones, testosterone which control secondary sexual characteristics.
19. To perform an experiment to identify the different parts of an embryo of a dicot seed, first of all you require a
dicot seed. Select dicot seeds from the following group :
Wheat, Gram, Maize, Pea, Barley, Ground-nut
(A) Wheat, Gram and Pea (B) Gram, Pea and Ground-nut
(C) Maize, Pea and Barley (D) Gram, Maize and Ground-nut [Year - 2017]
A. (B) Gram, Pea and Ground-nut
20. A student has to soak some dicot seeds overnight and then keep them for germination. Which one of the
following groups of seeds should he select ?
(A) Pea/Maize/Wheat (B) Wheat/Kidney beans/Ground-nut
(C) Wheat/Kidney beans/Maize (D) Pea/Kidney beans/Ground-nut [Year - 2017]
A. (D) Pea/Kidney beans/Ground-nut
Multiple-Choice Type Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
21. Animals which can reproduce by budding is / are
(A) Bryophyllum (B) Yeast (C) Hydra (D) All of these
A. (C) Hydra
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22 Male reproductive organ in flowering plant is
(A) Carpel (B) Stamen (C) Corolla (D) Ovary
A. (B) Stamen
23 A fertilized ovule develops into a in an angiospermic plant
(A) Seed (B) Fruit (C) Flower (D) Cotyledon
A. (A) Seed
24 Where are sperms formed in the human body?
(A) Vas deferens (B) Prostate gland (C) Ovary (D) Testis
A. (D) Testis
25 The place where fertilization takes place in the human body is
(A) Uterus (B) Oviduct (C) Ovary (D) Vagina
A. (B) Oviduct
26 Pre-natal sex determination has been prohibited by law due to
(A) High cost charged by doctors (B) Possible danger of mother's health
(C) Increasing cases of female foeticide (D) Increasing cases of male foeticide
A. (C) Increasing cases of female foeticide
27. Copper T and loops are
(A) Contraceptive devices (B) Conventional devices
(C) Conducive devices (D) Contaminating devices
A. (A) Contraceptive devices
28. A unisexual flower
(A) Do not have carpel (B) Do not have stamen
(C) Has either carpel or stamen (D) Has either petal or sepal
A. (C) Has either carpel or stamen
29. is a common tube for urine and sperm in human male.
(A) Urethra (B) Uterus
(C) Ureter (D) None of the above
A. (A) Urethra
30. The ratio of the number of chromosomes in a human zygote and a human sperm is
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 1
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 3
A. (A) 2 : 1
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B. Very Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks each)
31. What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction ?
OR
Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction ?
A. DNA copying is important for reproduction because additional copies of DNA are made during replication
which is necessary for the new cells formed after cell division. Minor alterations during DNA replication are
responsible for bringing variations in a population.
32. Why is variation beneficial to the species but not necessary for the individual ?
A. Variations are more benefical to the species than individual because sometimes for a species, there are drastic
environmental changes which make their survival difficult . It is these variations present in the variants which
help the species to survive. However, all variations are not necessarily beneficial for the individual organism.
33. How does reproduction help in providing stability to the population of species ?
A. Reproduction is the process of producing individuals of the same species by the existing organisms of a
species. Thus, it helps in providing stability to the population of species by giving birth to new individuals as the
birth rate must be at par with the death rate.
34. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission ?
Binary fission Multiple fission
A.
(i) It gives rise to two daughter cells. (i) It gives rise to many daughter cells.
Nucleus divides only once to form Nucleus undergoes repeated divisions
(ii) (ii) to form number of daughter nuclei.
2 daughter nuclei
Cytoplasm divides after nuclear Cytoplasm does not divide after every
(iii) (iii)
division. nuclear devision.
35. What happens when a mature Spirogyra filament attains considerable length ?
A. When the mature filament of Spirogyra attains considerable length, the filament breaks up into smaller fragments
or pieces and each fragment grows into a new filament or individual.
36. Name two simple organisms which have the ability of regeneration.
A. Hydra and Planaria are the two simple organisms which have the ability to regenerate.
37. Name the causative agent of the disease ‘kala-azar’ and its mode of asexual reproduction.
A. The causative agent of the disease “kala-azar” is Leishmania sp. and its mode of asexual reproduction is
binary fission.
38. Select two plants from the following which are grown by vegetative propagation process :
Banana, Wheat, Mustard, Jasmine, Gram.
A. Banana and jasmine.
39. “Cell division is a type of reproduction in unicellular organisms”. Justify.
A. In unicellular organisms, growth occurs by cell division and such cell division also leads to the growth of their
population. So new individuals are produced by the process of cell division.
Unicellular organisms are simple organisms. Thus, cell division acts as the mode of reproduction.
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40. What is a clone ? Why do offsprings formed by asexual reproduction exhibit remarkable similarity with their
parent?
A. Clone refers to offspring of an organism formed by asexual method of reproduction. Since they possess exact
copies of the DNA of their parent, clones exhibit remarkable similarity with their parent. Offsprings produced by
asexual reproduction exhibit similarity to the parent because since there is only one parent, there is no fusion of
gametes and mixing of genetic materials. Hence no genetic recombination takes place.
41. Can you think of reasons why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new individuals through regeneration?
A. Regeneration happens through mitosis and a particular type of tissue can give rise to its own kind only.
In complex organisms, different tissues and organs have altogether different structures. Regenerating a different
kind of tissue from another kind is not possible. Hence, complex organisms are unable to give rise to new
individuals through regeneration.
42. Why is vegetative propagation practised for growing some types of plants ?
A. Vegetative propagation has some inherent advantages –
(a) It is usually a means of propagating plants which do not produce viable seeds, or produce very few seeds
or have long dormant period of seeds.
(b) Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those which are produced
from seeds.
(c) Helps in producing disease-free plants.
43. List two advantages of growing grapes or banana plants through vegetative propagation.
A. The two advantages of growing grapes or banana plants through vegetative propagation are :
(i) They can be used to reproduce when the plants do not bear viable seeds.
(ii) Certain desirable traits of parent plant can be maintained.
44. What happens when
(i) Planaria gets cut into two pieces ?
(ii) Mature sporangia burst ?
A. (i) When Planaria gets cut into two pieces, it undergoes regeneration and each piece forms a complete
individual.
(ii) When sporangia burst on maturation, the spores present within are dispersed in the open enviornment.
When they land on a suitable substratum, they germinate to produce new individual.
45. What are those organisms called which bear both the sex organs in the same individual ? Give one example of
such organisms.
A. Organisms which bear both the sex organs in the same individual are called hermaphrodites. Example -
Earthworm.
46. List two functions of ovary of human female reproductive system.
A. The two main functions of ovary are :
(i) It produces ova (egg) every month during menstrual cycle.
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(ii) It produces female sex hormones i.e. estrogen and progesterone which play an important role in the
development of secondary sexual characters in female and in pregnancy.
47. Why is fertilization in plants not possible without pollination ?
A. Fertilization in plants is not possible without pollination as pollination brings the male and female gametes
together for fertilisation.
48. List two unisexual flowers.
A. Two unisexual flowers are :
(i) Papaya flower
(ii) Watermelon flower
49. List two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction.
A. Two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction are :
(i) Sexual reproduction is usually biparental and involves combining of DNA from two different individuals via
gametes.
Thus, the combination of various traits results in the variation of the offspring which is different from both
the parents.
(ii) The gametes are produced by meiosis, that involves crossing over between the homologous pair of
chromosomes. Crossing over leads to variations.
50. Name the parts of a bisexual flower that are not directly involved in reproduction.
A. The parts of a bisexual flower that are not directly involved in reproduction are sepals and petals.
51. What is the role of scrotum ?
A. The scrotum protects the testes and keeps them at an optimal temperature which is 2 - 2.5°C lower than the
normal body temperature which is important for the production of viable sperms.
52. How is the process of pollination different from fertilization ?
A. Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of the same or different flower.
Fertilization is the process of fusion of male and female gametes to produce a zygote, and it occurs after
pollination.
53. What is the role of seminal vesicles and prostate gland ?
A. The seminal vesicles are paired, male accessory glands which secrete a viscous fluid that provides nourishment
to sperms and acts as a medium for their transportation.
The alkaline nature of the fluid helps to neutralize the acid in the female genital tract.
The prostate gland is the unpaired male accessory gland whose secretion contributes to sperm motility and
viability.
54. List two preparations shown every month by the uterus in anticipation of pregnancy in the humans.
A. (i) In order to receive, implant and nourish a fertilized egg, the endometrium of the uterus under the influence
of progesterone becomes thickened.
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(ii) The endometrium becomes more vascular with increase in the number of blood vessels along with mucous
glands to secrete mucus.
55. Write the number of immature eggs present in the ovaries of newly born baby girl. Mention what happens to
these immature eggs when the girl attains maturity.
A. 1 to 2 million eggs are present in the ovaries of a newly born baby girl. Most of these immature eggs undergo
follicular atresia (degeneration) and at the onset of puberty 300,000 - 400, 000 are present in the ovaries.
These immature eggs begin to mature every month and only one mature egg is released every month from the
ovary by the process of ovulation.
56. Trace the path of sperms from where they are produced in human body to the exterior.
A. Pathway of sperm from site of production to the exterior is
Testis epididymis vas deferens urethra urethra (penis)
57. What are the two roles of testosterone ?
A. The two roles of testosterone are :
(i) It regulates spermatogenesis.
(ii) It regulates the development of secondary sexual characters in males.
58. What is puberty ? What changes take place in females at puberty ?
A. Puberty is the period during which adolescents reach sexual maturity and become capable of reproduction.
It occurs at the age of 10-14 yrs in girls and 13-15 yrs in boys. Certain secondary sexual characters occur in
both males and females during this time
Changes in the female body at the onset of puberty include :
(i) Increase in size of breasts
(ii) Menstruation begins
(iii) Deposition of fat in various body parts like thighs and hips
(iv) High pitched voice along with thick hair growth in the pubic region and armpits.
59. What are STDs ? Give an example.
A. Diseases which are sexually transmitted from an infected person to another person are known as sexually
transmitted diseases (STDs) or venereal diseases. These diseases are caused by bacteria and viruses.
Example of a sexually transmitted disease is Gonorrhoea caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
60. Why should we take oral pills after consulting doctors ?
A. Oral pills are a method of population control or contraception. They are used to check ovulation. They are
mainly hormonal preparations and contains estrogen and progesterone. The doctor can prescribe the right
choice of the oral pill as per the health history of the female.
61. Name one male sex hormone and one female sex hormone ?
A. Male sex hormone – Testosterone, Female sex hormone – Estrogen
62. What is tissue culture ? Give two advantages of tissue culture.
A. Tissue culture is a modern method of vegetative propagation. In this technique a small part of tissue is cut from
a plant and is grown on sterilised nutrient medium in a container under controlled aseptic conditions.
The two advantages of tissue culture are :
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(i) A large number of plants can be produced in relatively short span of time and space.
(ii) Virus free plants can be obtained.
63. You are given a permanent slide showing budding in yeast. Write the steps in correct sequence of focusing the
microscope so as to observe the slide clearly. [Year - 2017]
A. Look through the eyepiece
¯
Move the focus knob until the image comes into focus
¯
Adjust the condenser and light intensity
for the greatest amount of light
¯
Move the microscope slide around until the sample
is in the centre of the field of view.
64. Draw in sequence (showing the four stages), the process of binary fission in Amoeba. [Year - 2017]
A.
65. Name the process by which Amoeba reproduces. Draw the various stages of its reproduction in a proper
sequence.
OR
A student is viewing under a microscope a permanent slide showing various stages of asexual reproduction by
budding in yeast. Draw diagrams of what he observes. (in proper sequence) [Year - 2018]
A. Simple binary fission.
OR
66. Name the type of reproduction in which two individuals are formed from a single parent and the identity of the
parent is lost. Write in brief about the first and the final stage of the process of this reproduction.
A. Binary fission.
First step: The organism must copy its DNA so the new cells will have DNA.
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Last Step : In the last step, two daughter cells separate via cytokinesis.
67. List in proper sequence four steps of obtaining germinating dicot seeds.
OR
After examining a prepared slide under the high power of a compound microscope, a student concludes that
the given slide shows the various stages of binary fission in a unicellular organism. Write two observations on
the basis of which such a conclusion may be drawn. [Year - 2019]
A. Such changes or steps that occur during seed germination are
(i) Imbibition, Respiration
(ii) Effect of light on seed germination
(iii) Mobilization of reserves during seed germination and role of growth regulations
(iv) Development of embryo axis.
OR
(i) The nucleus of the organism is dividing and now double to the original number within the same organism.
Nucleus elongates and a groove is formed within the cell.
(ii) Cytokinesis is followed by producing two daughter cells like the parent. When this happens the parent
organism does not exist.
68. List two observations on the basis of which it may be concluded that the given slide shows binary fission in
Amoeba. [Year - 2019]
A. (i) The nucleus of the organism is dividing and now double to the original number within the same organism
nucleus elongates and a grove is formed within the cell.
(ii) Cytokinesis followed by production of two daughter cells like the parent. Parent cell loses its identity in the
process.
69. Draw labelled diagram to show the following parts in an embryo of a pea seed :
Cotyledon, Plumule, Radical
OR
A student observed a permanent slide showing asexual reproduction in Hydra. Draw labelled diagram in proper
sequence of the observations that must have been made by the student. Name the process of reproduction
also. [Year - 2019]
A.
Radical (future root)
Cotyledon (food store)
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OR
Tentacles
Bud
(i) (ii) (iii)
The process of reproduction in Hydra is budding.
C. Short Questions and Answers : (3 marks each)
70. List three conditions favourable for spores to germinate and grow.
A. The three conditions favourable for spores to germinate and grow are
(i) Suitable temperature
(ii) Right amount of moisture
(iii) Availability of nutrients.
71. What is multiple fission ? How does it occur in an organism ? Explain briefly. Name an organism which exhibits
this type of reproduction.
A. Multiple fission is a mode of asexual reproduction in some unicellular organisms. They divide into many daughter
cells simultaneously by this process under favourable or unfavourable conditions.
The nucleus divides several times into many daughter nuclei without involving cytokinesis. These nuclei arrange
along the periphery of the parent cell and a bit of cytoplasm gather around each daughter nucleus and develops
an outer membrane.
This multinucleate body then divides into as many parts as the number of daughter nuclei and forms many
daughter individuals. E.g. - Plasmodium (malarial parasite).
72. Explain the term ‘regeneration’ as used in relation to reproduction of organisms.
A. Regeneration is the process of renewal or restoration of any lost part of the body or the formation of the whole
body of an organism from a small fragment.
73. In the context of reproduction of species, state the main difference between fission and fragmentation. Also
give one example of each.
A. Fission is a mode of asexual reproduction in unicellular organisms. It involves the division of the parent body
into two or more daughter individuals identical to the parent. E.g. Amoeba.
Fragmentation is the process of breaking up of the body of an organism into two or more parts called fragments,
each of which grows into a new individual. It is observed in simple multicellular organisms. E.g. , Spirogyra.
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74. Explain budding in Hydra with the help of labelled diagrams only.
A. Tentacles
New hydra
Bud
Budding in Hydra
75. (i) Name the following
(a) Thread like non-reproductive structures present in Rhizopus.
(b) ‘Blobs’ that develop at the tips of the non-reproductive threads in Rhizopus.
(ii) What is the function of the structures released from the ‘blobs’ in Rhizopus. Explain how these structures
protect themselves.
A. (i) (a) Thread like non-reproductive structures present in Rhizopus – Hyphae
(b) Blobs that develop at the tips of the non-reproductive threads in Rhizopus – Sporangia
(ii) The structures released from the ‘blobs’ in Rhizopus are called ‘spores’. These spores are liberated and
develop into new fungal hypha after reaching the substratum. Spores are covered by thick walls that protect
them until they come into contact with moist surface and begin to grow.
76. List 3 secondary sexual characters of human male.
A. The secondary sexual characters in human male are
(a) Thick hair growth on the face
(b) Body becomes muscular
(c) Enlargement of testes, scrotum and penis
77. Differentiate between the following :
(i) Placenta and uterus
(ii) Unisexual and bisexual flowers
(iii) Fertilization and germination
A. (i) Placenta Uterus
It is an association between maternal and foetal It is a pear shaped hollow muscular
tissue meant for physiological exchange to organ which protects and nourishes
transfer water, oxygen nutrients and hormones the developing embryo.
from the mother to the developing foetus.
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(ii) Unisexual flower Bisexual flower
They have either stamens (male) or carpel They possess both stamens and carpel
(female) Eg. Hibiscus.
Eg. Papaya.
(iii) Fertilization Germination
It is the process of fusion of gametes which It is the process of development of a
results in the formation of a zygote. plant from a seed or spore under
favourable conditions.
78. Give the function of the following parts in the process of pollen germination :
(i) Pollen tube (ii) Ovary (iii) Stigma
A. (i) Pollen tube – They act as conduits to transport the male gametes from the stigma to the embryo sac inside
ovules at the ovary.
(ii) Ovary – It is the enlarged basal portion of the carpel which contains one or more ovules which develop(s)
into seeds(s) upon fertilization.
(iii) Stigma – It receives pollen grains and it is on the stigma that the pollen grain germinates. It is the site of
pollen tube formation.
79. Suggest three contraceptive methods for birth control, which is essential for the health and prosperity of a
country. State the basic principle involved in each.
A. Three contraceptive methods for birth control which is essential for the health and prosperity of a country are:
(i) Natural methods
(ii) Barrier methods
(iii) Hormonal methods
(i) Natural methods involve coitus interruptus : It involves withdrawal of penis from vagina just before the
discharge of semen containing sperms. This avoids insemination and the semen is released outside the
vagina.
(ii) Barrier methods – These are certain mechanical barriers so that the sperms do not reach the ovum.
Condoms, cervical caps are the commonly used barriers.
(iii) Hormonal methods – These act by changing the hormonal balance of the body so that eggs are not
released and fertilization does not occur. Oral pills such as Saheli and Mala D are commonly used.
80. Describe the structure and function of placenta.
A. The placenta is formed within 8-9 days of fertilization by specialized tissue of the foetus and uterine wall of the
mother. It is a disc like structure embedded in the uterine wall which contains villi and blood spaces.
It provides large surface area for the transfer of oxygen, nutrients, water and hormones from the mother to the
developing embryo.
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It also transfers waste from the embryo into the mother’s blood.
It is protective and also produces hormones necessary to maintain pregnancy. Such hormones are progesterone,
estrogen and relaxin.
81. List three distinguishing features between sexual and asexual types of reproduction in tabular form.
A. Asexual Reproduction Sexual Reproduction
(1) Offsprings are produced from a single (1) Offsprings are produced by the fusion of two
parent without fusion of gametes. gametes usually one from the male parent and
another from the female parent.
(2) All cell divisions during this type of (2) Sexual reproduction involves the process of
reproduction are either mitotic or meiosis at one or the other stage.
amitotic.
(3) It is a rapid mode of reproduction to (3) It is a slow process in which the offsprings are
produce genetically identical not genetically identical to the parents.
offsprings.
82. Draw a flower and label its parts.
A.
83. Explain the process of fertilization in human beings.
A. Process of fertilization in human is internal.
Male gametes called sperms are released inside the female genital tract during sexual intercourse.
Millions of active and motile sperms are released in the vagina, they move upwards through the cervix, uterus
and finally the oviduct where they may encounter an egg.
One sperm is able to fertilize the ovum.
After the fusion of sperm and ovum a zygote is formed. Fertilization is marked by the absence of menstruation
in females.
84. Reproduction is one of the most important characteristics of living beings. Give three reasons in support of the
statement. [Year - 2017]
A. (i) To maintain the species from one generation towards.
(ii) Reproduction is essential in creating variation in species through genetic recombination.
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(iii) Speciation (Origin of species)
85. Describe reproduction by spores in Rhizopus. [Year - 2017]
A. Rhizopus reproduces by spore formation which is a type of asexual reproduction. It contains tiny blob-on-a
stick-like structures which are involved in reproduction. The blobs are sporangia which contain spores and are
covered by thick walls that protect them until they come in contact with moist surface and can begin to grow.
86. List the two types of reproduction. Which one of the two is responsible for bringing in more variations in its
progeny and how ? [Year - 2017]
A. Reproduction
Asexual Sexual
Sexual reproduction is responsible for bringing in more variations in its progeny.
Sexual reproduction involves two different sexes with separate genetic make up. During meiosis, crossing over
causes exchange of genetic materials between two sexes and thus shuffling of the genes with different
combinations. These combinations are the source of variation in offsprings.
87. What is reproduction? How does reproduction help in providing stability to the population of species?
[Year - 2017]
A. Reproduction is the biological process by which new individual organisms – ‘Offspring’ – are produced from the
‘Parents’.
Reproduction is the fundamental of all known life forms.
Reproduction is the process of producing new individuals of the same species by the existing organisms of a
species, so, it helps in providing stability to the population of species by giving birth to new individuals as the
rate of birth must be at par with the rate of death to provide stability to the population of a species.
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88. State two differences between fission and fragmentation with respect to reproduction. Give one example of
each. [Year - 2017]
A. Fission Fragmentation
Occurs in multicellular mostly
Occurs in unicellular organisms,
(i) filamentous organisms with no nuclear
with nuclear division.
division.
May or may not be deliberate as it can
A method of reproduction occurs
(ii) occur through mechanical shearing as
deliberately through mitosis.
well.
Fission : Eg. Amoeba, Bacteria.
Fragmentation : Eg. Spirogyra.
89. What is vegetative propagation ? State two advantages and two disadvantages of this method. [Year - 2017]
A. Vegetative propagation:
A form of asexual reproduction in plants, in which multicellular structures become detached from the parent
plant and develop into new individuals that are genetically identical to the parent plant.
Advantages :
(i) The produced offsprings are clones of their parent plant.
(ii) If a plant has favourable traits, it can continue to pass down its advantageous genetic information.
Disadvantages :
(i) No genetic variation.
(ii) Genetically identical plants are susceptible to pathogens.
90. List three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these techniques is not
meant for males ? How does the use of these techniques have a direct impact on the health and prosperity
of a family ? [Year - 2017]
A. (i) Using condoms as mechanical barrier during sexual intercourse.
(ii) Using intrauterine device or IUD.
(iii) Using contraceptive pills.
Using contraceptive pills is not meant for males.
Via using contraceptive method unwanted and unplanned pregnancies can be prevented and thus it has a
role in population control.
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Condoms help to prevent the spread of sexually transmitted diseases.
91. Write one main difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Which species is likely to have
comparatively better chances of survival - the one reproducing asexually or the one reproducing sexually ? Give
reason to justify your answer. [Year - 2018]
A. Sexual Reproduction Asexual Reproduction
One or Two different sexes are involved
A single parent is involved hence no
thus offsprings are produced with genetic
variation. Fusion and formation of
variation. Fusion, and formation of
gametes absent.
gametes occur.
Sexually reproducing organisms have comparatively better chances of survival.
During meiosis in sexual reproduction crossing over causes exchange of genetic materials and hence
production of variation and thus better chance of survival for the offsprings.
92. What is carpel ? Write the function of its various parts. [Year - 2019]
A. The female reproductive organ of a flower is known as carpel and it is a unit of the gynoecium.
Function of various parts:
Ovary : It contains ovule and female gamete.
Stigma : Which receives pollen grain.
Style : Transports pollen grain to the ovaries.
93. Distinguish between pollination and fertilization. Mention the site and the product of fertilization in a flower.
[Year - 2019]
A. Pollination Fertilization
Process of transferring of pollens from It is the process after the successful
one flower to stigma of same flower or pollination, which involves the fusion of
another flower. male gametes and female gametes.
Site of fertilization in flower is ovary.
The product of fertilization is fruit.
Ovary fruit.
Ovule seeds.
94. (a) Budding, fragmentation and regeneration, are all considered as asexual mode of reproduction. Why ?
(b) With the help of neat diagrams, explain the process of regeneration in Planaria [Year - 2019]
A. (a) Budding, fragmentation and regeneration are all considered as asexual mode of reproduction, because
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from the single parental organism, several offsprings are produced who are identical to each other and also
with the parent.
(b)
In this process the organism has the ability to generate lost or damaged body parts. If Planaria is cut into
small pieces, each piece develops into a new individual.
D. Long Questions and Answers : (5 marks each)
95. What is binary fission in organisms ? With the help of suitable diagrams, describe the mode of reproduction in
Amoeba.
A. Binary fission is a mode of asexual reproduction in which a parent organism divides into two halves, each of
which functions as an independent daughter individual. It occurs in unicellular organisms.
In Amoeba, simple binary fission or irregular binary fission takes place. Here division can occur through any
plane. During favourable conditions nuclear division is followed by cytoplasmic division. There is no involvement
of gametes.
96. List three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these is not meant for
males ?How does the use of these techniques have a direct impact on health and prosperity of a family.
A. The three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy are :
(i) Condoms
(ii) Intra uterine devices
(iii) Terminal methods of contraception
Intrauterine devices include loops, copper - T which are placed in the uterus of females to prevent pregnancy.
Thus, these devices are not meant for males.
These techniques have a direct impact on the health and prosperity of a family. These techniques reduce the
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number of high-risk and high births, thus reducing maternal mortality. They ensure in planning of a small family
and also ensure proper diet and nutrition for the mother and infant. More resources are available if the family is
a small one and thus makes the family prosper to build a healthy and educated future.
97. Foetus derives its nutrition from the mother.
(i) Identify the tissue used for the above purpose. Explain its structure.
(ii) Explain how wastes generated by developing embryo are removed.
A. (i) The foetus derives its nutrition from the placenta. The placenta is a disc shaped tissue which develops between
the uterine wall and the embryo. It contains villi on the embryo’s side and blood spaces on the maternal side. The
blood spaces surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for transfer of useful substances such as
glucose, oxygen, water and other nutrients to the growing foetus from the maternal tissues.
(ii) Wastes produced in the developing embryo is also transferred to the mother’s blood via the placenta.
98. Draw the diagram of a female reproductive system and label the parts :
(i) Which produces egg in female from germ cell
(ii) Where the zygote is implanted
(iii) Which is a path for the entry of sperms
A.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Human-Female Reproductive System
(i) Ovary : It produces ovum.
(ii) Uterus : Site of implantation of embryo.
(iii) Vagina : Path of entry of sperm.
99. Name the parts A, B and C shown in the following diagram and state one function of each.
A. A – Anther – They produce the pollen grains that contain two male gametes each.
B – Style – It is the stalk that supports the stigma and connects it to the ovary.
C – Ovary – It has one or more ovules inside which the embryo sac is developed containing the egg/female
gamete.
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100. Name the reproductive parts of an angiosperm. Where are these parts located? Explain in brief the structure of
female reproductive part.
A. The reproductive parts of an angiosperm are
(i) Stamens (Androecium) Male reproductive part
(ii) Carpel (Gynoecium) Female reproductive part
The male and female reproductive parts are located in the flower.
Carpel is the female reproductive part and consists of stigma, style and ovary.
Carpel has a swollen ovary at the base, an elongated middle style and a terminal sticky stigma. The ovary
contains ovules. Each ovule has an egg cell or the female gamete.
101. (i) Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure. Write their names.
(ii) What is pollination? Explain its significance.
(iii) Explain the process of fertilization in flowers. Name the parts of the flower that develop after fertilization
into (a) seed (b) fruit.
A. (i) A – Pollen grain
B – Stigma
C – Pollen tube
D – Embryo sac of ovule
(ii) The process of transfer and deposition of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the flower is called
pollination.
It is an essential event in the sexual reproduction of seed bearing plants. It helps to bring together the male
and female gametes for fertilization as they are non motile.
(iii) Once the pollen grains are deposited on the stigma, it gives rise to a pollen tube which grows chemotropically
through the style and reaches the ovary where ovules are located. The pollen tube normally enters the
ovule through a small opening called the micropyle. Within the ovule, the pollen tube releases the two male
gametes into the embryo sac. The embryo sac of the ovule contains the egg. One male gamete fuses with
the egg to form a zygote (2n). This event is called fertilization or syngamy. Zygote later develops into an
embryo. The other male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei to form the nutritive endosperm (3n).
Fertilization occurs twice, so it is called double fertilisation.
(a) The ovule develops into a seed.
(b) The ovary ripens to form a fruit.
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102. (i) Draw a sectional view of human female reproductive system and label the parts where (A) egg develops,
(B) fertilization takes place, (C) fertilized egg gets implanted.
(ii) Describe in brief the changes that uterus undergoes (a) to receive the zygote (b) if zygote is not formed.
A. (i)
(A) Ovary : Site of egg development.
(B) Fallopian tube : Site of fertilization.
(C) Uterus : Fertilized egg gets implanted.
(ii) (a) The uterus prepares itself every month for implanting a zygote. The endometrium thickens and is richly
supplied with blood vessels for nourishing the embryo.
(b) In case the egg is not fertilized, a zygote is not formed. There is breakdown of the endometrial wall that
results in menstruation in which blood, tissue fluid, mucus and discarded epithelial cells are shed.
103. What is contraception ? Give methods of contraception and their advantages and disadvantages.
A. The prevention of pregnancy in women by preventing fertilization is called contraception. Any device or chemical
which prevents pregnancy in women is called contraceptive device.
Physical contraceptive devices such as condoms, diaphragm or cervical caps check the entry of sperms into
the uterus. These devices prevent pregnancy and also protects the user from sexually transmitted diseases.
Intra uterine devices such as loops, copper – T are placed in the uterus of females. These block the sperms
from reaching the egg. Oral pills such as Saheli act by changing the hormonal balance of the body such that
eggs are not released and fertilization does not occur. Since these change the hormonal balance, they can also
result in side effects. Main side effects are nausea, abdominal pains, breakthrough menstrual bleeding, irregular
menstrual bleeding or even breast cancer.
104. (a) Write the functions of each of the following parts in a human female reproductive system :
(i) Ovary
(ii) Uterus
(iii) Fallopian tube
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A. (a) (i) Ovary : Primary sex organ in female. It produces the female gamete or ovum. The growing follicles of
the ovary and corpus luteum are the two main sources of estrogen and progesterone in females.
(ii) Uterus : It is that part of the reproductive structure where the fertilized ovum (the embryo) is embedded
and remains until maturation. Lower part of the uterus (cervix) also forms the birth canal during parturition.
(iii) Fallopian tube : Or Oviduct, receives the mature ovum from the ovary. Within the ampullary region of
fallopian tube fertilization takes place.
105. Describe in brief the role of the following parts in human male reproductive system :
(i) Testis
(ii) Seminal vesicle
(iii) Vas deferens
(iv) Urethra
(v) Prostate glands [Year - 2018]
A. (i) Testis : Primary sex organ in males. Produces sperm and secrete the male hormone testosterone.
(ii) Seminal Vesicle : Produces the bulk of semen. The seminal vesicle secretion contains fructose,
prostaglandin.
(iii) Vas deferens : It dialates to produce ejaculatory duct and helps in sperm transport.
(iv) Urethra : Urine and semen transport.
(v) Prostate gland : Contributes to the components of semen. It provides the alkalinity in seminal fluid.
106. What is sexual reproduction ? Explain how this mode of reproduction gives rise to more viable variations than
asexual reproduction. How does this affect the evolution ? [Year - 2019]
A. The production of new living organisms by combining the genetic information from two individuals of different
sexes.
In sexual reproduction individuals with two different genetic make up take part. During meiosis crossing over
causes shuffling of genetic information and thus exchange of genetic material causes variation whereas in
asexual reproduction, new individual arises from a single parent organism and hence no genetic recombination
takes place.
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Variation causes better chances of survival against environmental adversities, diseases, natural calamities thus
the chance of propagation of gene via reproduction is increased which may cause the origin of new species in
evolutionary race.
107. Define pollination. Explain the different types of pollination. List two agents of pollination ? How does suitable
pollination lead to fertilization ?
OR
(a) Identify the given diagram. Name the parts 1 to 5.
A. The process of transfer and deposition of pollen grains from the anther of a flower to the stigma is known as
pollination.
Pollination
Self Pollination Cross Pollination
Self Pollination Cross Pollination
Transfer of pollen grains from the
Transfer of pollen grains from the anther
anther of one flower to the stigma of
to the stigma of either the same flower or
another flower borne on a different
another flower borne on the same plant.
plant of the same species.
Two agents of Pollination:
Insects
Wind
Pollination is the transfer of pollen from the male to the female part of a flower. Fertilization is the fusion of
sperm and egg to form a zygote. In angiosperms pollination is the transfer of pollen from anther to stigma.
Fertilization is where a sperm fuses with an egg to form zygote.
OR
(a) 1. Fallopian tube
2. Ovary.
3. Uterus
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4. Cervix
5. Vagina
108. (a) What is reproduction ? List its two types.
(b) How are the modes of reproduction different in unicellular and multicellular organisms ?
OR
What are Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) ? List two viral and two bacterial STDs. [Year - 2019]
A. (a) The biological process by which new individual organisms are produced from their parental oranism(s) is
called reproduction.
Reproduction
Asexual Sexual
(b) In unicellular organism, the mode of reproduction is simple whereas it is very complex in case of multicellular
organisms. Binary fission, multiple fission, budding and conjugation are some of the reproductive methods
in unicellular organisms. Sexual reproduction is prominent in multicellular organisms.
OR
STD or sexually transmitted diseases mean they are most often - but not exclusively spread by sexual intercourse.
Bacterial STD : Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea
Viral STD : Genital herpes
109. (a) Why is this mode practised for growing some types of plants ?
(b) Explain the process of budding in Hydra with the help of labelled diagrams. [Year - 2019]
OR
What is contraception? List its four different methods. State four reasons for adopting contraceptive methods.
A. (a) Vegetative propagation method is used for growing certain plants which do not produce viable seeds. It is
also used for growing of plants bearing superior traits, because they produce genetically identical plants.
Plant which require lot of care during early stages of development are also grown by this method.
(b) Tentacles
Bud
(i) (ii) (iii)
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The process of reproduction in Hydra is budding.
(i) Regeneration bud grows at any side of the animal and it remains attached to the mother body.
(ii) Providing favourable situation the buds grow into new organisms and detach from the parent body.
OR
The deliberate use of artificial methods or other techniques to prevent pregnancy as a consequence of
sexual intercourse is called contraception.
(i) Long-acting reversible contraception, such as the implant or Intra Uterine Device (IUD)
(ii) Hormonal contraception, such as the pill or the Depo Provera injection.
(iii) Barrier methods, such as condoms.
(iv) Emergency contraception.
Four reasons for adopting :
(i) To prevent unwanted pregnancy.
(ii) To control population rise or birth rate.
(iii) To prevent transfer of sexually transmitted diseases.
(iv) Postponing menstrual cycle.
110. (a) Distinguish between cross-pollination and self-pollination.
(b) Draw labelled diagram of a pistil showing the following parts :
Stigma, Style, Ovary, Female germ cell
OR
(a) Draw a diagram of human female reproductive system and label the parts :
(i) which produce an egg.
(ii) where fertilization takes place.
(b) What are contraceptive devices ? Give two reasons for adopting contraceptive devices in humans.
[Year - 2019]
A. (a) Cross Pollination Self-Pollination
Pollen grains from the anther of one
Pollen grains are transferred from the
flower are transferred to the stigma of
(i) anthers to the stigma of the same flower or
another flower or a different plant of
another flower on the same plant.
the same species.
(ii) Always occurs when flowers are open. It can occur even in the closed flowers.
Maintain parental characters into new
(iii) Introduce variation
generations.
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(b) Stigma
Style
Ovary
Female
germ-cell
Parts of Pistil
OR
(a)
(b) A range of devices and treatments are available for both male and female that can help prevent
pregnancy.
Birth control, also known as contraception, is designed to prevent pregnancy. The deliberate use of artificial
methods or other techniques to prevent pregnancy as a consequence of sexual intercourse is called
contraception.
Three advantages —
(i) Unwanted pregnancy can be prevented.
(ii) Birth rate can be controlled.
(iii) Transfer of sexually transmitted disease can be prevented.
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E. Assertion Reasoning
1.Assertion: Ovary releases one egg every month.
Reason: The lining of uterus is always thick and spongy
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect..
2. Assertion: The uterus prepares itself every month to receive a fertilised egg.
Reason: The ovary releases one egg every month.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
3. Assertion: Ureter forms the common passage for both the sperms and urine.
Reason: It never carries both of them at the same time.
A. (b)Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
4. Assertion: Zygote is formed by fusion of sperm with egg.
Reason: Both the sperm and the egg are haploid.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
5. Assertion: Pollination is the transfer of pollen grain to the anther.
Reason: Pollination is carried out by wind, birds and insects.
A. (b)Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
6. Assertion: Contraception is used to avoid unnecessary pregnancies.
Reason: Contraception is used by both males and females.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
F. Case Based Questions
The male reproductive system consist of portions which produce the germ-cells and other portions that deliver
the germ-cells to the site of fertilisation. Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum because
sperm formation requires a lower temperature than normal body temperature. It also has a role of secretion of
male sex hormone which brings changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty. Vas deferens
unites with a tube coming from urinary bladder. Urethra is a common passage for sperms and urine. Prostate
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gland and seminal vesicles add their secretions so that sperms are now in fluid.
1. Name the sex hormone associated with males.
2. Mention the primary and secondary sexual changes that are visible in human males during adolescence.
3. State the function of the accessory glands.
Or
4. Explain how one modification in the above diagram is helpful to prevent pregnancy.
A. 1. Testosterone
2. Changes that occur in males during puberty:
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Under the influence of hormones, the larynx develops prominently. The vocal cord become longer and
thicker in boys, causing the voice to become hoarse.
Growth of hair in other areas of skin like underarms, face, hands, and legs.
Enlargement of the testicles followed by penis.
Testes grow and start producing sperms.
3. Accessory glands are specialized structures found in males that produce fluids essential for the motility,
nourishment and protection of sperm.
Or
4. Vasectomy is a surgical method for male sterilizationor permanent contraception. During the procedure, the vas
deferens are cut, seperated and tied to prevent sperm entry into the urethra. This prevents fertilization of a
female egg through sexual intercourse.
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TOPIC : HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
A. Brief answers for important questions.
1. What is DNA ?
A. DNA : Deoxyribonucleic acid, a self replicating material which is present in nearly all living organisms.
It is the carrier of genetic information
2. Where is DNA found in the cell ?
A. DNA is found in the nucleus of a cell.
3. What is gene ?
A. Gene : Gene is the functional unit of heredity present at a specific location on a chromosome.
4. Name the information source for making proteins in the cell.
A. The DNA in the nucleus is the information source for making proteins in the cell.
5. What is heredity ?
A. Heredity : The process of transmission of genetic traits/characters from one generation to another, i.e. from
parents to offsprings.
6. No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population. Why ?
A. No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population due to variation.
7. Why is the progeny always tall when a tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant ?
A. The progeny is always tall when a tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant because tallness is the
dominant trait (which is expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous conditions).
8. Name the genetic material that is responsible for the inheritance of traits.
A. Gene is the functional unit or genetic material that is responsible for the inheritance of traits.
9. Do genetic combination of mothers play a significant role in determining the sex of a new born ?
A. No, the genetic combination of mothers do not play a significant role in determining the sex of a newborn.
10. What is phenotype ?
A. Phenotypes are morphological traits or observable characters.
11. What is genotype ?
A. Genotype : The specific allelic or genetic constitution (make up) of an organism.
12. What is meant by dihybrid ratio ?
A. Dihybrid ratio : Cross involving two pairs of contrasting traits resulting in particular phenotypic and genotypic
ratio.
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13. State Mendel’s first law of inheritance.
A. Mendel’s First Law of Inheritance : Law of Dominance :- In a cross of parents that are pure for contrasting
traits, only one form of the trait will appear in the next generation called the dominant trait.
14. State Mendel’s second law of inheritance.
A. Mendel’s second Law of Inheritance : Law of Segregation : The paired alleles of a unit factor separate or
segregate randomly during gamete formation, so each gamete can receive either of the two alleles of a unit
factor controlling one character.
15. Name the scientific term which deals with the transmission of traits from parents to offsprings.
A. The scientific term which deals with the transmission of traits from parents to offsprings is known as heredity.
16. What is monohybrid cross ?
A. Monohybrid Cross : A cross between two individuals which differ in only one pair of contrasting traits.
eg. A cross between pure breeding tall plant (TT) and pure breeding dwarf plant (tt).
17. Name the branch of science which deals with heredity and variation.
A. Genetics is the branch of science which deals with heredity and variation.
18. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding pea plants bearing violet flowers with pea plants bearing white
flowers. What will be the result in F1 progeny ? [Year - 2018]
A. Violet flowers > White flowers
Violet colour allele : V
White colour allele : v
Violet flowers are dominant over white flowers.
Now, Pea plant with violet flowers, may be homozygous dominant or heterozygous dominant.
White flower plant should be always homozygous.
White flower plant genotype : vv
Homozygous violet genotype : VV
Heterozygous violet genotype : Vv
Homozygous violet flower plant (VV) × Homozygous White flower plant (vv)
V V Results :
Vv Vv F1 Progeny:
v
Violet Violet All the offsprings will be
Vv Vv with violet flowers
v
Violet Violet (Heterozygous)
Multiple-Choice Type Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
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19. The F2 phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross studied by Mendel is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
A. (C) 3 : 1
20. If T is for tallness and t for dwarfness, what shall be the genotype of a tall pea plant according to Mendelism?
(A) TT (B) Tt (C) Either TT or Tt (D) tt
A. (C) Either TT or Tt
21. A yellow and round seeded pea plant has genotype YyRr. The gametes produced shall be
(A) Yy, Rr (B) YR, yR, Yr, yr (C) YR, yr (D) Y, y, R, r
A. (B) YR, yR, Yr, yr
22. If in human a sperm (22+Y) fertilizes an egg (22+X), the sex of the foetus shall be
(A) Male (B) Female
(C) Either male or female (D) No option given
A. (A) Male
23. The number of autosomes in a human body cell is
(A) 44 (B) 46 (C) 22 (D) 23
A. (A) 44
B. Very short Questions and Answers : (2 marks each)
24. How are traits transmitted to the progeny ?
A. Traits are transmitted to the progeny by heredity. The basis of heredity is genes.
25. What are the possible blood groups likely to be inherited by children born to the parents, father having blood
group ‘A’ and mother having blood group ‘B’ ?
A. The possible blood groups likely to be inherited by children born to the parents, father having blood group ‘A’
and mother having blood group ‘B’ are A, B, AB and O.
As ‘A’ blood group IAIA / IAIO gives IA or IO alleles.
‘B’ blood group IBIB / IBIO gives IB or IO alleles.
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26. A tall plant is crossed with a dwarf plant. What will be the ratio of homozygous tall and dwarf plant in F2
generation ?
A. In case-I : If a homozygous tall plant is crossed with In case-II : If a heterozygous tall plant is crossed with
a dwarf plant a dwarf plant
P TT × tt
P T t × tt
T t
T t t
F1 Tt F1 Tt tt
T t T t t t
F2 T t F2 + T t Tt = Heterozygous tall
+
T TT Tt t Tt tt tt = Dwarf
t Tt tt
t Tt tt
Ratio of homozygous tall : dwarf in F2 Ratio of homozygous tall : dwarf in F2
1:1 0:2
27. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits may be dominant or recessive ?
A. (i) The trait which appears in all the members of F1 generation and also in 75% members of F2 generation
obtained by self – fertilization of F1 generation is the dominant trait.
(ii) The trait which does not appear in F1 generation but after self-fertilization of F1 generation, reappears in
25% of F2 generation is known as the recessive trait.
Thus, the condition which is expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous conditions is dominant
whereas the one getting expressed in only homozygous condition is recessive.
28. The chromosomal number of the sexually reproducing parents and their offspring is the same. Justify this
statement.
A. The chromosomal number of the sexually reproducing parents and their offspring is the same due to meiosis
and fertilization.
Male parent × Female parent Meiosis makes
(2n) (2n) gamete haploid
Meiosis that is restored
during fertilization.
Haploid (n) Haploid (n)
gamete gamete
Fertilization
Diploid zygote
— Thus, chromosome number is conserved in every species.
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29. List two differences in tabular form between dominant traits and recessive traits.
A. Dominant Traits Recessive Traits
i) Get expressed in both i) Get expressed only in
homozygous and homozygous condition
heterozygous conditions
ii) Expressed in ii) Not expressed in
F1 generation F1 generation
30. Why did Mendel choose garden pea for his experiment ? Write two reasons.
A. Mendel choose garden pea for his experiment because –
i. Garden pea has distinct, easily detectable contrasting characters
ii. Cross pollination could be done artificially
31. A study found that children with light coloured eyes are likely to have parents with light coloured eyes. On this
basis, can we say anything about whether the light eye trait is dominant or recessive ? Why or why not ?
A. No, from the given statement, we cannot say with certainty whether light eye colour is dominant or recessive.
However, since both the children and their parents have light eye colour, the possibility is that light eye colour is
a recessive trait.
32. How are blood groups inherited ?
A. Blood groups are inherited from our biological parents in the same way as eye colour and other genetic traits
are inherited.
Within the ABO Blood group system, the A and B genes are co-dominant (they will be expressed whenever
present) and O is recessive (expressed when neither A nor B is present). In locus i, three different-forms of
alleles can exist – iA, iB or iO where A and B are dominant over O.
33. How is it decided which trait will be inherited and which will not ?
A. Inherited traits are controlled by genes and the complete set of genes within an organism’s genome is called its
genotype.
34. In humans, if gene B gives brown eyes and gene b gives blue eyes and B is dominant over b what will be the
colour of the eyes of the persons having the following combination of genes. Bb, bb, BB ?
A. B Brown eyes
b blue eyes
Colour of eyes in the following combinations :
Bb Brown
bb Blue
BB Brown
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35. Why do human females produce only one type of gamete and males produce two types of gametes ?
A. Human females produce only one type of gamete because – they have only X–chromosome as allosome
(Sex-chromosome)
Female : 44A + XX
22A + X 22A + X
Males produce two types of gametes because they have X and Y chromosomes as sex–chromosomes.
Male : 44A + XY
22A + X 22A + Y
36. During which process, sex is determined in human beings?
A. Sex is determined in humans during fertilization.
22A + X + 22A + X 22A + Y + 22A + X
sperm ovum sperm ovum
44A + XX 44A + XY
Female Male
37. Study the following cross showing self pollination in F1, fill in the blank and answer the question that follows :
Parents RRYY × rryy
Round, yellow Wrinkled, green
F1 Rr Yy × .....................
What are the combinations of character in the F2 progeny ? What are their ratios ?
A. Parents RRYY × rryy
(Round, yellow) (wrinkled, green)
F1 Rr Yy × Rr Yy
(Round, yellow)
After heterozygous selfing in F1, the phenotypic ratio in F2 : Round yellow : Round green : Wrinkled yellow :
Wrinkled green = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
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38. What is the scientific name of man and garden pea ?
A. Man : Homo sapiens
Garden pea : Pisum sativum
39. What are sex chromosomes ?
A. Sex chromosome or Allosome : A chromosome concerned in determining the sex of an organism is called an
allosome. Humans have two sex chromosomes. Females have two X chromosomes as they are homozygous;
whereas males are heterozygous having one X and one Y chromosome as their allosomes.
40. What are chromosomes ? Where are they located ?
A. Chromosomes : A thread like structure of nucleic acids and protein found in the nucleus of most living cells,
carrying the genetic information in the form of genes.
They are located inside the nucleus.
41. Where are chromosomes located ?
A. Chromosomes are thread like structures located inside the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell. It carries genes.
42. What are alleles ? Give example.
A. Alleles : It represents the two alternative forms of a unit factor (or a gene).
eg. In the heterozygous plant (Tt) ‘T’ and ‘t’ are the two alleles.
43. How are genes expressed ?
A. Genes are expressed by the synthesis of polypeptide (protein).
Replication Translation
DNA DNA mRNA Protein
Transcription
44. Give two differences between somatic variation and genetic variation.
A. Somatic Variation Genetic Variation
i) Non–inheritable i) Inheritable
ii) Affect the somatic/body ii) Produced in germ cells
cells of the organism of organism
eg. Phenotypic plasticity eg. height
C. Short Questions and Answers : (3 marks each)
45. A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group O and their daughter has blood group O. Is this
information enough to tell you which blood group A or O is dominant ? Why or why not ?
A. No, this information is not sufficient to determine which of the traits blood group A or O – is dominant. This is
because we do not know about the blood group of all progenies.
Blood group A can be genotypically AA or AO. Hence, the information is incomplete to draw any such conclusion.
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46. In a Mendelian cross, pure tall plant with purple flowers was crossed with dwarf plant with white flowers.
How would you denote :
(i) The genotype of two parents
(ii) The genotype and phenotype of F1 progeny
(iii) The results obtained by selfing F1 progeny to get F2 progeny. Give the ratio obtained in F2 progeny
A. i) TT VV × tt vv (TT tall, vv purple flower, tt dwarf, vv white flower)
ii) Phenotype of F1 progeny : Tall plants with violet flowers
Genotype of F1 progeny : Tt Vv
iii) By selfing F1 progeny Tt Vv
TV Tv tV tv
TT VV – 1 Tt VV – 2 tt VV – 1
Ratio : TT Vv – 2 Tt Vv – 4 tt Vv – 2
TT vv – 1 Tt vv – 2 tt vv – 1
9 3 3 1
Phenotypic ratio will be = (Tall and Violet) : Tall and White : (Dwarf and Violet) : (Dwarf and White)
16 16 16 16
47. What is the difference between phenotype and genotype ?
A. The differences between phenotype and genotype are as follows :
Feature Phenotype Genotype
i) Definition i) Observable characters or i) Specific allelic or genetic
physical appearance of constitution of an
organism that are genetically organism
controlled
ii) Control ii) Genotype controls phenotype ii) Phenotype does not control
genotype
iii) Expression iii) Only dominant or recessive iii) Present in homozygous
form expressed (except the dominant, heterozygous dominant
exceptions of Mendelism) and homozygous recessive forms.
iv) Example iv) TT–tall, Tt = tall, tt = dwarf iv) TT = homozygous dominant
Tt = heterozygous dominant
tt = homozygous recessive
v) Ratio v) In Monohybrid cross, the v) In monohybrid, the ratio is
ratio is 3:1 1:2:1 (homozygous dominant :
(dominant : recessive) heterozygous dominant :
homozygous recessive)
48. ‘The sex of a new born child is a matter of chance’ and none of the parents may be considered responsible for
it. Justify the statement with the help of a flow chart showing the determination of sex of a new born.
A. Determination of sex of a new born explained by the following flow chart —
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44A + XX 44A + XY
Female Male
Gametes
22A + X 22A + X 22A + X 22A + Y
44A + XY
44A + XX
44A + XY Son
Daughter
Son
44A + XX
Daughter
Thus, we can conclude, that — In each pregnancy, there is 50% chance of conceiving a baby girl or boy.
So, “The sex of a new born child is a matter of chance” and none of the parents may be considered responsible
for it.
49. Name four recessive traits common in human beings.
A. Four recessive traits common in human beings are –
a) Straight hair
b) Albinism
c) Blue or grey eyes
d) Colour blindness
50. How did Mendel explain that it is possible that a trait is inherited but not expressed in an organism ?
[Year - 2017]
A. A trait is inherited but may not be expressed in an organism. Two parents come together in order to produce a
new generation. So, both produce copies of their DNA which is then transferred in the offspring. So one of them
is a dominant trait and the other is a recessive trait. The recessive trait does not express itself in the presence
of the dominant trait. So, it is possible that one trait may be inherited but may not be expressed in an organism.
TT (Tall) × tt (Dwarf) Tt (Tall)
eg. :
Dominant trait Recessive trait
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51. How does Mendel’s experiment show that the inheritance of two characters is independent of each other ?
[Year - 2017]
A. Mendel carried out dihybrid crosses by crossing two pea plants differing in contrasting traits of two characters.
For example, he crossed a pea plant having yellow coloured and round seed with another pea plant bearing
green coloured and wrinkled seed. In the F2 generation, he got the pea plants with two parental and two
recombinant phenotypes as yellow wrinkled and green round (recombinant). This indicated that traits separated
from their original parental combinations and got inherited independently.
Phenotype Ratio : Round Yellow : Round Green : Wrinkled Yellow : Wrinked Green = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Genotype Ratio : 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
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52. Name the plant Mendel used for his experiment. What type of progeny was obtained by Mendel in F1 and F2
generations when he crossed the tall and short plants? Write the ratio he obtained in F2 generation plants.
A. Mendel used pea plants for his experiments.
Mendel for his experiments took a pure breeding tall plant (TT) and crossed it with a pure breeding dwarf (tt)
plant. The progeny thus obtained was called F1 progeny. (First-filial progeny)
All the offsprings of F1 generation were tall (heterozygous)
Then, he self pollinated the F1 progeny to obtain F2 generation.
O O T t
TT Tt
T
(tall) (tall)
Tt tt
t (tall) (dwarf)
F2 Results :
Phenotypic Ratio – Tall : Dwarf = 3 : 1
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Genetypic Ratio – TT : Tt : tt = 1 : 2 : 1
In F2 generation, he found that 75% plants were tall and 25% were dwarf.
53. Mendel, in one of his experiments with pea plants, crossed a variety of pea plant having round seeds with one
having wrinkled seeds. State Mendel’s observations giving reasons for F1 and F2 progeny of this cross.
Also, list any two contrasting characters, other than round seeds of pea plants that Mendel used in his
experiments.
[Year - 2019]
A.
Round seeded pea × Wrinkled seeded pea
P RR × rr
¯ ¯
G R r
F1 Rr
All progenies are Hybrid Round-in F1
Rr × Rr
(Selfing)
F2
O O R r
R RR Rr
r Rr rr
F2 : Result :
Phenotype = Round : Wrinkled
3 : 1
Genotype = RR : Rr : rr
1 : 2 : 1
So, in F2 both wrinkled and round seed individuals are found.
Two contrasting characters:
(i) Pod color : Green and Yellow. Green dominant over yellow.
(ii) Flower color : Purple and White. Purple dominant over white.
D. Long Type Questions and Answers : (5 marks each)
54. What do you understand by the following terms :
(i) Phenotype (ii) Genotype (iii) Dominant trait
(iv) Recessive trait (v) Factors or genes
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A. i) Phenotype : The observable characters or physical appearance of an organism that are genetically
controlled.
eg.: TT show tall plants
Tt show tall plants
tt show dwarf plants
ii) Genotype : The specific allelic or genetic constitution (make up) of an organism.
iii) Dominant Trait : Trait that is expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous conditions. Dominant
traits are expressed by dominant alleles which are represented in capital letter.
eg.: Tallness (T) is a dominant trait
iv) Recessive Trait : Trait that is not expressed in the heterozygous condition, i.e. it is only expressed in
homozygous condition.
Recessive traits are carried by recessive allele which are represented in small letter.
eg.: Dwarfism (t) is a recessive trait.
v) Factors or genes : These are hereditary units located on chromosomes
The term ‘factor’ was used by Mendel for carriers of hereditary information.
The term ‘gene’ was coined by Wilhelm Johannsen.
55. (a) What are dominant and recessive traits ?
(b) “Is it possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed in the next generation ?” Give a suitable
example to justify this statement. [Year - 2019]
A. (a) The trait that first appears or is visibly expressed in the organism is called the dominant trait.
The trait that is present at the gene level but is masked and does not show itself in the organism is called
therefore recessive trait.
(b) The experiences and qualifications that a person earns during his/her lifetime are examples of acquired
traits. These traits cannot be inherited, as they do not affect the genetic make up of an organism.
In fact, these traits develop due to use and disuse of organs, or due to direct effect of environment.
Thus are not passed on to the next generation. For example, a wrestler develops large muscles because of
his training programme; it does not mean that his offspring will necessarily have large muscles.
Traits can be passed on to the next generation only when they have some direct effect on the genes. For
example, if a mutation is caused in the germ cells of a person due to exposure to some harmful radiations,
it is highly likely that the mutation caused will be passed on to the subsequent generations.
56. (a) List two visible traits of garden pea that Mendel considered in his experiments. How do Mendel’s experiments
show that traits may be dominant or recessive ?
(b) With the help of a flow diagram, how would you establish that in human beings the sex of a newborn is
purely a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered responsible for a particular sex of a
newborn child ? [Year - 2019]
190
A. (a) Two traits are : Pod shape (constricted or inflated)
Plant size (tall or dwarf)
Genes located on different chromosomes will be inherited independent of each other. Mendel observed
that, when pea plants with more than one trait were crossed, the progeny did not always match the parents
- For example, true breeding tall (TT) and true breeding dwarf (tt) pea plants.
The seeds formed after fertilization were grown and these plants that were formed represent the first filial or
F1 generation. All the F1 plants obtained were tall.
Then, Mendel self pollinated the F1 plants and observed that all plants obtained in the F2 generation were not
tall, instead one-fourth of the F2 plants were short.
P : TT × tt T Tall
t dwarf
F1 : All Tt (Heterozygous tall)
F1 × F1 : F2
Tt × Tt
O O T t
T TT Tt
(Tall) (Tall)
t Tt tt
(Tall) (dwarf)
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Genotypic Ratio = TT : Tt : tt
(1 : 2 : 1)
Phenotypic Ratio : Tall : Dwarf
(3 : 1)
(b) Human female carries two ‘X’ chromosomes. Thus ‘XX’.
Human male carries one ‘X’ and one ‘Y’ chromosome, thus ‘XY’.
Now, due to the independent assortment of genes, during gamete formation in meiosis, human female
produces all haploid gametes with 22 X . Whereas human male produces either type of gametes 22 X
and 22 Y . Now during fertilization, it is a random chance of events that which sperm (whether 22+X or
22+Y) will fertilize the ovum 22 X .
If, sperm with 22 X fertilizes ovum, it will be a female child with 44 XX and if sperm with
22 Y fertilizes ovum, it will be a male child with 44 XY .
Father × Mother
44 + XY Gametes 44 + XX
P
Generation
22 + X 22 + Y 22 + X 22 + X
Sperms Ova
O O 22+X 22+Y
44 + XX 44 + XY
22+X (Daughter) (Son)
22+X 44 + XX 44 + XY
(Daughter) (Son)
X – Y system of sex determination in man.
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57. If we cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plants with pure-bred dwarf (recessive) pea plants we get pea
plants of F1 generation. If we now self-cross the pea plants of F1 generation, then we obtain pea plants of
F2 generation.
(i) What do the plants of F1 generation look like ?
(ii) What is the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation ?
(iii) State the type of plants not found in F1 generation but appeared in F2 generation, mentioning the reason
for the same.
[Year - 2019]
A. (i) All the plants of F1 generation will be tall.
(ii) Tall plants : Dwarf plants = 3 : 1
(iii) No dwarf plant will be found in F1 generation but it will appear in the F2 generation.
This is because some alleles are dominant and some are recessive.
In the F1 generation, due to the presence of dominant allele (T) for tallness in all the offsprings, even though
they were carrying the recessive allele (t) for dwarfness but show the phenotype of tallness.
As, parental population was pure bred tall (TT) and pure bred dwarf (tt) so, this was the result.
But in F2 generation, all the plants were heterozygous tall (Tt) so, for this reason in F2 generation we will
again get dwarf plants.
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TT tt
(Tall) ×
(Dwarf)
F1 Tt Tt
×
(Tall) (Tall)
F2
TT Tt tt
(Tall) (Hybrid (Dwarf)
Tall)
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58. How is equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the progeny ? Explain.
[Year - 2019]
A. During gamete formation each gamete receives half the number of chromosomes i.e 23. During sexual
reproduction, a female gamete (having 23 chromosomes) fuses with a male gamete (having 23 chromosomes)
to form a zygote having 23 chromosomes inherited from mother and 23 from father. In this way, an equal
genetic contribution of male and female parents is ensured in the progeny.
E. Assertion- Reasoning
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion: A geneticist crossed two pea plants and got 50% tall and 50% dwarf in the progeny.
Reason: One plant was heterozygous tall, and the other was dwarf.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2. Assertion: Variations are seen in offspring produced by sexual reproduction.
Reason: DNA molecule generated by replication is not exactly identical to original DNA.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
3. Assertion: Mutation is sudden change in the genetic material.
Reason: Variation is useful for the survival of species over time.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
4. Assertion: Mendel selected the pea plant for his experiments.
Reason: Pea plant is cross-pollinating and has unisexual flowers.
A. (c) A is true but R is false.
5. Assertion: The sex of a child is determined by the mother. Reason: Humans have two types of sex chromosomes:
XX and XY.
A. (d) Assertion is false, but the reason is correct.
6. Assertion: Traits like tallness and dwarfness in pea plant are inherited independently.
Reason: When a homozygous tall pea plant is crossed with dwarf pea plant, medium sized pea plant is
obtained in F, generation.
A. (c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
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7. Assertion: In humans, male (or father) i.e., responsible for sex of the baby which is born.
Reason: Y chromosomes are present in only male gametes or sperms.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
8. Assertion: If mother is homozygous for black hair and father has red hair then their child can inherit black
hair.
Reason: Gene for black hair is recessive to gene for red hair in humans.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect...
9. Assertion: Selfing of a plant for several generations helps plant breeders to obtain pure breeding varieties.
Reason: Pure breeding plants are heterozygous for many traits.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect...
10. Assertion: When pea plants (pureline) having round yellow seeds are crossed with pure line plants having
wrinkled green seeds, then all pea plants obtained in F, generation bear wrinkled green seeds.
Reason: Round and yellow seeds are dominant to wrinkled and green seeds.
A. (d) Assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
F. CASE BASED QUESTIONS:
The rules for inheritance of such traits in human beings are related to the fact that both the father and the
mother contribute practically equal amounts of genetic material to the child. This means that each trait can be
influenced by both paternal and maternal DNA. Thus, for each trait there will be two versions in each child.
A. What were the contrasting traits used by Mendel?
B. What was the phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross?
C. How does the traits get expressed?
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OR
D. Write the monohybrid cross between tall and dwarf plants?
A:
A.
B. The phenotypic ratio of Mendel’s monohybrid cross is 3:1. here, 3 is for tall plants and 1 is dwarf plants.
C. Genes control traits, the diploid organism inherit two alleles from a gene i.e one is from father and one is
from mother.
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OR
D.
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TOPIC : OUR ENVIRONMENT
A. Brief answers for important questions.
1. In the following food chain, 20000 J of energy was available to the plants. How much energy will be available to
man in this chain ?
Plants Sheep Man
A. Plants 10% Sheep 10% Man
20000J 2000J 200J
2. Which will get more energy, secondary consumers or tertiary consumers ?
A. Secondary consumers.
3. List two natural ecosystems.
A. Forest ecosystem, Desert ecosystem.
4. List two biotic components of environment.
A. Animals, Plants.
5. Why are green plants called producers ?
A. Green plants are called producers as they can manufacture their own food by the process of photosynthesis.
6. Why do producers always occupy first trophic level of food chain ?
Or
The first trophic level in food chain is always green plants. Why ?
A. Green plants can capture solar energy and convert it into biomass (by assimilating CO2). So they occupy first
trophic level.
7. What will be the amount of energy available to the organisms of secondary consumer trophic level of food
chains, if the energy available to producer level is 10000 Joules ?
A. Producer 10% Primary consumer 10% Secondary consumer
10000 J 1000 J 100 J
8. Name any two items which can be easily recyled but are generally thrown in the dust-bin by us.
A. Different kind of solid wastes like paper, plastics etc.
9. Name the various steps involved in the food chain ?
A. Trophic levels.
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10. Consider the following food chain which occurs in forest.
Grass Deer Lion
If 10000 J of solar energy is available at grass, how much energy would be available to deer at transfer to lion?
A. Grass 10% Deer 10% Lion
10000 J 1000 J 100 J
11. What is the functional unit of environment ?
A. Ecosystem
12. Which of the following are not biodegradable ?
Wool, Glass, Silver foil, Leather.
A. Glass and silver foil.
13. What is KYOTO protocol ?
A. KYOTO protocol is an international agreement linked to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC) which commits its parties by setting internationally binding emission reduction target for
green house gases to reduce down the effect of global warming.
14. Name two materials which can be recycled.
A. Paper, Metal waste.
15. Which bag will you prefer for shopping and why ?
(a) Jute bag (b) Polythene bag
A. Jute bag as it is biodegradable.
16. Name the radiations that are absorbed by ozone layer ?
A. Ozone layer absorbs UV radiation.
17. Give one example each of domestic waste from your daily life where the domestic waste can be effectively
reused and recycled.
A. Domestic waste that can be reused - empty bottles.
Domestic waste that can be recyled - paper.
18. (i) Arrange the following in food chain :
(a) Frogs, Insects, Birds, Grass
(b) Fish, Algae, Small animal, Big animal
(ii) Mention four methods to reduce amount of wastes produced.
A. (i) (a) Grass Insects Frogs Birds
(b) Algae Fish Small animal Big animal
(ii) (a) Recycling (b) Source reduction
(c) Refusing polythene bags and carrying cloth or natural fibre carry bags (d) Repairing rather than discarding.
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19. In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available to the producer ?
Plants Deer Lion [Year - 2017]
A. According to 10% energy is given to the consumer in the next level out of total energy.
If lion has 100J,
Dear have 100 × 10 =1000J
and plants have 1000 × 10 = 10000J
So, producer will have 10,000J energy.
20. In the following food chain, 20,000 J of energy was available to the plants. How much energy would be available
to man in this chain ?
Plants Sheep Man [Year - 2017]
A. If, 20,000J of energy is available to plants,
Sheep have = 2000J
Man have = 200J
So, Man will be having 200J of energy available
21. 12.5 J of energy is available to man in the food chain given below. How much of energy did the plants receive
from the light ?
Plants Sheep Man
A. If 12.5J of energy is available to man,
Sheep have 125J
and plants have = 1250J
So, Plants will be having 1250J of energy available
22. List two main components of an ecosystem. [Year - 2019]
A. Two main components of the ecosystem are biotic components and abiotic components.
23. Write various steps of a terrestrial food chain of four trophic levels. [Year - 2019]
A. In terrestrial food chain four trophic level are –
Producer Primary Consumer Secondary Consumer Teritary Consumer
Multiple-Choice Type Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
24. The F2 phenotype
Only % of the energy can be transferred from one trophic level to the next trophic level.
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 20
A. (C) 10
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25. Accumulation of non- biodegradable pesticides in different trophic levels is called
(A) Biological degradation (B) Biological magnification
(C) Biological concentration (D) Biological deposition
A. (B) Biological magnification
26. The UV radiation from the sun is likely to cause in human
(A) Skin cancer (B) Lung cancer (C) Liver Cancer (D) Brain Cancer
A. (A) Skin cancer
27. World Environment day is celebrated on
(A) July 1 (B) July 5 (C) June 1 (D) June 5
A. (D) June 5
28. Which one of the following is a non- biodegradable substance
(A) DDT (B) Manure (C) paper (D) Cotton cloth
A. (A) DDT
29. In a terrestrial ecosystem the biomass of should be the most
(B) Herbivore (B) Carnivore (C) Producer (D) Any one of these
A. (C) Producer
30. Identify the proper food chain
(A) Grass frog insect snake (B) Grass insect frog snake
(C) Insect frog grass snake (D) Grass frog snake insect
A. (B) Grass insect frog snake
31. Food web is
(A) Food served through websites
(B) Display of different food items
(C) Interlinked food chains
(D) Using food items for a fashion dress
A. (C) Interlinked food chains
32. The best way to dispose waste is by
(A) Making a paste of all domestic waste and putting them in a river
(B) Separating biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste before disposing in bins
(C) Throw the waste on road side
(D) Dumping all domestic waste in litter bin
A. (B) Separating biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste before disposing in bins
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B. Very short Questions and Answers (2 marks each)
33. Why should bio-degradable and non-biodegradable wastes be discarded into separate dust bins ?
A. Bio-degradable wastes degrade fast and can be used as compost. Whereas non biodegradable substances
are stable and inert chemicals which disturb normal eco-system.
34. The following organisms form a food chain. Which of these will have the highest concentration of non-
biodegradable chemicals ? Name the phenomenon.
Insects, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog
A. Hawk.
The phenomenon is called biomagnification.
35. Why are bacteria and fungi called decomposers ?
A. Bacteria and fungi derive their food material from organic matter present in dead remains of plants and animals.
They secrete digestive enzymes which convert complex organic substances into simpler ones. So they are
also called decomposers.
36. Why are some substances biodegradable and some non-biodegradable ?
A. Some substances are called biodegradable as they can be degraded naturally by the action of micro organisms.
Some substances are non biodegradable as they are not decomposed naturally by the action of micro organisms.
37. Give any two ways in which non-biodegradable substances would affect the environment.
A. Non-biodegradable substances affect the environment in the following ways –
(a) Dumping of such substances affect soil fertility and subsequently reduce crop yield.
(b) Accumulation of such substances in increasing concentrations along the food chain leads to a process
called biomagnification.
38. Define trophic level. Name the first trophic level.
A. Each step or level in a food chain where transfer of energy takes place is called trophic level. First trophic level
is plants/producer.
39. Give an example of food chain and state the different trophic levels in it.
A. Plant Deer Tiger
(Producer) (Primary (Secondary
1st trophic level consumer) consumer)
2nd trophic level 3rd trophic level
40. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem ?
A. Role of Decomposers in the ecosystem –
(a) Reduction of organic remains of the earth.
(b) Recycling of nutrients.
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41. Will the impact of removing all the organisms in a trophic level be different for different trophic levels ? Can the
organisms of any trophic level be removed without causing any damage to the ecosystem ?
A. Yes.
No.
42. Construct an aquatic food chain showing four trophic levels.
A. Phytoplankton Zooplankton Small fish Large fish
(Producer) (Primary (Secondary (Tertiary
Consumer) Consumer) Consumer)
43. “Energy flow is unidirectional in food chain” Explain.
A. Energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional as the energy moves progressively through the various trophic
levels and is no longer available to the previous level.
44. Name the organisms which belong to first and third trophic level in the following food chain comprising of -
Insects, birds, frog and grass.
A. First trophic level : Grass, Third trophic level : Frog
45. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level ?
A. If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, then the organisms that belong to the next and subsequently
higher trophic level will also die and the entire ecosystem will get disrupted.
46. What is biological magnification ? Will the levels of this magnification be different at different levels of the
ecosystem ?
A. The accumulation and progressive increase in the concentration of non biodegradable harmful chemicals at
different trophic levels in a food chain is called biomagnification.
Yes, the levels of this magnification will be different at different levels of the ecosystem.
47. What is meant by food chain ? “The number of trophic levels in food chain is limited’. Justify the statement.
A. A sequence of living organisms that shows the inter - dependence of organisms for their food is called food
chain.
OR
Transfer of energy from one trophic level to another makes a food chain.
During energy transfer, only 10% of the total energy is actually available to the next trophic level. As residual
energy decreases drastically within 2–3 trophic levels, so the number of trophic levels in food chain is limited.
48. Why is natural ecosystem more stable than artificial ecosystem ?
A. Natural ecosystem is more stable than artificial ecosystem due to its greater biodiversity, complex food chains
and food webs, efficient cycling of nutrients, high sustainability.
49. ‘Crop fields are called artificial ecosystem’, Justify.
A. Crop fields are known as artificial ecosystems because they are man made where certain biotic components
and abiotic components are manipulated. Farmers employ the relalionship between the abiotic factors and
producers.
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50. What is full form of CFC and UNEP ?
A. CFCs – Chlorofluorocarbons
UNEP – United Nations Environment Programme.
51. Why is excessive use of CFCs a cause of concern ?
A. CFC is an ozone depleting substance and also a green house gas. Excessive use of CFCs leads to thinning of
ozone layer and too much accumulation of CFC will increase global warming.
52. Mention the negative effect of our life style on the environment.
A. The negative effects of our life style on the environment are –
(a) Desertification
(b) Global warming
(c) Pollution
(d) Ecological imbalance
(e) Waste accumulation
53. What is ozone and how does it affect an ecosystem ?
A. Ozone is a triatomic gas molecule made up of 3 atoms of oxygen. It absorbs most of the harmful UV radiations
coming from the sun and prevents them from reaching the earth. UV rays have harmful effects on human
beings, plants and animals.
54. If all the waste we generate is biodegradable, will this have no impact on the environment ?
A. Biodegradable wastes generated also have a negative impact on the environment. They act as pollutants only
when their quantity becomes large and are not degraded at the right time. Their harmful effects are –
(a) Foul smell
(b) Breeding places of flies, mosquitoes that leads to spread of diseases such as typhoid, diarrhoea.
55. Name the green house gases.
A. CO2, CH4, CFCs and N2O.
56. Name two processes in which 90% of energy at a particular trophic level is used.
A. Respiration and maintainance of body temperature.
57. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in the by lanes of residential colonies. Suggest ways to make
people realise that improper waste disposal is harmful to the environment.
A. Some ways to make people realise that improper waste disposal is harmful to the environment are -
(a) Conducting public awareness programs to understand the consequences of improper management of
waste and how it may pose a serious threat to the lives and well being of people.
(b) Imposing fines on people for illegal dumping of waste on roads and other places.
(c) Provision of more communal trash bins on roadside with different labels.
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58. Draw an energy pyramid showing different trophic levels.
A. frog 10J
insect 100J
plant 1000J
59. What are decomposers ? State their role in our biotic environment. [Year - 2018]
A. Decomposers are organisms that break down complex organic compounds into simpler form in dead bodies.
i) Decomposers complete decomposition by breaking down the remaining organic material present in carcasses.
They convert all organic mater into carbon dioxide and nutrients. This release raw nutrients in a form usable
to plants and algae.
ii) This process resupplies nutrients to the ecosystem, in turn allowing for greater primary production.
iii) Although decomposers are generally located at the bottom of ecosystem food chain, they are crucial.
iv) By breaking down dead material, they provide the nutrients that other organisms need to survive. As they
feed on dead organisms, they leave behind nutrients. These nutrients become part of the soil. Therefore
more plants can grow and thrive.
C. Short Type-II Questions and Answers : (3 marks each)
60. (a) State the properties of a man made eco-system.
(b) We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Explain.
A. (a) Man made eco system is called “Anthropogenic ecosystem”.
Its properties are -
1. Possess little diversity
2. Its not a self regulatory system
3. Possess simple food chain
4. Has little nutrient cycling
5. Possess high productivity.
Two components of eco-system are biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living).
(b) Ponds and lakes are natural ecosystems, so different trophic levels are there to maintain it. An aquarium is
man made and does not contain soil and decomposers. So the uneaten food and the waste generated by
the fishes mix with the water and is left untreated making the water toxic. Therefore, an aquarium needs to
be cleaned regularly.
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61. When the government banned the use of polybags in Delhi, the vegetable grocers found it difficult as it affected
their sales. The market committee held a meeting and decided to spread awareness about harmful effect of
polybags.
(i) How will you convince people that plastics are harmful to the environment ?
(ii) What alternatives of polythene bags do we have, which are environment friendly ?
(iii) Not many people in Delhi have stopped using polythene bags even though they are officially banned. How
can schools inculcate environmental values in students ?
A. (i) To convince people that plastics are harmful to the environment, the following measures may be taken -
(a) Charging a small fee for plastic grocery bags
(b) Imposing a ban on plastic
(c) Public awareness programs
(ii) Environment friendly alternatives of poly bags are -
Paper bags, Jute bags, Canvas bags.
(iii) Schools can inculcate environmental values in students in the following ways –
(a) Banning use of bottles, wrappers, cups, plates, tiffins, packaging made of plastic or polystyrene on
school premises.
(b) Arranging a programme of tree plantation.
(c) Awards and recognition for students who have worked towards environment protection.
(d) Involving students in projects like compost making where students collect dry leaves and biodegradable
waste from the campus. This manure can then be used to maintain the school garden inculcating a
sense of responsibility among students. Such projects also require the involvement of teachers and
other staff.
62. How is ozone formed in atmosphere ? Give two causes of ozone depletion.
A. Ozone at higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV radiations acting on oxygen (O2) molecule. The
higher energy UV radiations split some molecular oxygen (O2) into free oxygen (O) atom. These atoms, being
highly reactive, combine with the molecular oxygen to form ozone.
UV radiations
O 2 [O] [O]
oxygen oxygen oxygen
molecule atom atom
O2 [O] O3
oxygen oxygen (ozone molecule)
molecule atom
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Two causes of ozone depletion are :
(a) Use of CFCs in refrigerators and air-conditioners.
(b) Use of chlorinated insecticides and pesticides to control pests.
63. Why should we not use chlorinated water in fish aquarium ? Why do we use chlorine water ? How can water be
dechlorinated ?
A. Chlorinated water should not be used in fish aquarium as chlorine causes acute necrosis in fish, killing cells
most often damaging fish’s sensitive gills.
We use chlorine water as chlorine is a highly efficient disinfectant and can kill disease causing pathogens that
commonly grow in water supply reservoirs.
Water can be dechlorinated in a number of ways –
(i) Natural methods like boiling or evaporation are useful for small volumes of water.
(ii) Use of an additive for large volumes of water.
(iii) Use of an activated carbon filter for drinking water.
(iv) Use of reverse osmosis filter.
64. Your ‘eco club’ teacher requested the school principal to get two different coloured, green and blue, dustbins to
be installed near the school canteen. The green coloured dustbin for biodegradable wastes and the blue
coloured dustbin for non-biodegradable wastes from the canteen.
(a) Why are certain items categorised as biodegradable ?
(b) List one biodegradable waste and one non-biodegradable waste that students throw after eating in the
canteen.
(c) Suggest any two ways by which you can minimize the non-biodegradable wastes. [Year - 2017]
A. a) Many materials do break down in a more harmful manner, leaving chemicals on other harmful substances
in the soil. In terms of environmental benefits, a biodegradable material will break down quiekly rather than
taking years. It leaves nothing harmful behind.
b) Biodegradable:- Paper packets, food stuffs.
Non biodegradable:- Plastic cups, used packets of chips and biscuits.
c) i) Choose cardboard over plastic bottles and bags.
ii) Stop buying bottled water.
65. Students in a school listened to the news read in the morning assembly that the mountain of garbage in Delhi,
suddenly exploded and various vehicles got buried under it. Several people were also injured and there was
traffic jam all around. In the brain storming session the teacher also discussed this issue and asked the students
to find out a solution to the problem of garbage. Finally they arrived at two main points - one is self management
of the garbage we produce and the second is to generate less garbage at individual level.
(a) Suggest two measures to manage the garbage we produce.
(b) As an individual, what can we do to generate the least garbage ? Give two points.
(c) List two values the teacher instilled in his students in this episode [Year - 2018]
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A. (a) i) Use cloth bags instead of plastic. This small measure will greatly reduce the amount of waste you bring
into your house. No matter where you’re shopping, you can bring your own reusable cloth bags instead
of accepting plastic bags.
ii) Buy food that has less packaging.
(b) As an individual –
i) Store foods in airtight glass or plastic containers.
ii) Can use the method of compost for biodegradable wastes that converts it into manure, and landfill can
be used to dump non biodegradable wastes which can be converted into a park.
(c) i) We can use the method of 3R that is Reduce, Reuse and Recycle.
ii) If you forget to bring your cloth bags to the store, you can still reduce waste. Ask the person bagging
groceries not to use double bags. Most stores now sell cloth bags, So you could ask for those instead
of accepting plastic or paper.
66. How can we help in reducing the problem of waste disposal ? Suggest any three methods.
OR
Define an ecosystem. Draw a block diagram to show the flow of energy in an ecosystem.
A. i) Using recyclable objects to generate the minimum possible waste materials. Recyclable materials are also
eco-friendly, that’s why it also reduces the pollution.
ii) We can use biodegradable waste materials for biogas production which can be used as our domestic fuel.
This will also save our money which we generally spend for purchasing household fuel substances.
iii) We can also separate biodegradable substance from non-biodegradable substances.
OR
An ecosystem includes all the living things in a given area that interact with each other, as well as the non-living
environment that suround the living things.
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67. Write the essential function performed by ozone at the higher levels of the Earth’s atmosphere ? Name the
synthetic chemicals mainly responsible for the drop of amount of ozone in the atmosphere. How can the use of
these chemicals be reduced ? [Year - 2019]
A. Ozone layer protects us from UV rays of the sun. It is produced by the reactions between oxygen present in air
and rays of sun. Ozone layer absorb the sun’s ultraviolet radiation, hence protecting the Earth from it’s harmful
effects.
Chloroflurocarbons (CFCs) and other halogenated ozone substances are mainly responsible for man-
made chemical ozone depletion.
By reducing the use of AC, Fridge, perfumes etc.
68. Define a food chain. Design a terrestrial food chain of four trophic levels.
If a pollutant enters at the producer level, the organisms of which trophic level will have the maximum
concentration of the pollutant in their bodies ? What is this phenomenon called ? [Year - 2018]
A. A food chain is a linear sequence of organisms in which each organism is eaten by the next member in the
sequence.
Terrestrial food chain
Plants Rabbit Snake Hawk
(rat eats fruit of blackberry burh)
At the fourth or fifth tropic level (teritiary consumers) the concentration of harmful chemical is more.
This phenomenon is known as biological magnification.
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69. In a village of South India people started cultivating crops all around a lake. They added fertiliser to their field in
order to enhance the yield. Soon after it was discovered that the water body was completely covered with green
floating plants and the aquatic animals started dying in large numbers.
Analyse the situation and state reasons for the excessive growth of plants and death of aquatic animals in the
lake. [Year - 2019]
A. This situation is known as eutrophication which is defined as the growth of green floating plants in water in
excess amount. Moreover, due to addition of fertilizers, Algae are grown in water because they require nitrate
in water to grow and nitrate was present in the fertilizers.
This situation mentioned in the question is very serious as due to growing up of large green floating plants,
most of the oxygen is utlized by them and there is no oxygen left over for water bodies like fishes. Due to lack
of oxygen to them, the fishes are dying in large amount.
70. (a) Natural water bodies are not regularly cleaned whereas an aquarium needs regular cleaning. Why?
(b) What will be the consequence if the decomposers are completely eradicated from an ecosystem ? Give
justification in support of your answer.
OR
How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere ? State its importance. What is responsible for its depletion?
Write one harmful effect of ozone depletion. [Year - 2019]
A. (a) An aquarium is an artificial ecosystem and the organisms present in it are selective and maintained in a
restricted environment. In the aquarium the uneaten food as well as the waste generated by the fishes
mixes with the water and is left untreated due to the lack of decomposers. The waste material thus accumulate
in water making it toxic. Hence an aquarium has to be cleaned after regular intervals.
On the other hand, a pond or a lake ecosystem is a natural ecosystem and the types of organisms present
in it is balanced. The waste produced in this ecosystem serves as the food material for the decomposers
and is thus eliminated by them from the water. This ensures a balance in the water body and keeps the
water clean and thus does not require regular physical cleaning.
(b) Decomposers or saprotrophs are organisms that break down dead or decaying organisms, and in doing so
carry out the natural process of decomposition.
If there were no decomposers then the dead remains and waste would pile up. The nutrients would not be
replenished. Natural enrichment of soil would not take place.
OR
Ozone is formed as UV radiation from the Sun breaks down oxygen [O2] in the atmosphere, into atomic oxygen
with a single atom.
Sunlight
O2
O2 O
O O
In the stratosphere, the destruction of ozone occurs as quickly as it is formed. Sunlight in the upper atmosphere
can easily split ozone into oxygen atom and oxygen molecule. Also, an excited oxygen atom can react with an
ozone molecule to create two oxygen molecules. Under natural conditions there is a balance between the
creation and destruction of ozone molecules in the stratosphere
O3 + Sunlight — O2 + O
O + O3 — O2 + O
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Importance
Ozone layer protects us from UV rays of the sun. It is produced by the reactions between oxygen present in air
and rays of sun. Ozone layer absorb the sun’s ultraviolet radiation, hence protecting the Earth from it’s harmful
effects.
Chloroflurocarbons (CFCs) and other halogenated ozone substances are mainly responsible for man-
made chemical ozone depletion.
By reducing the use of AC, Fridge, perfumes etc.
Chloroflurocarbons (CFCs) and other halogenated ozone substances.
For humans, direct exposure to UV rays can lead to skin cancer such as melanoma, basal cell or squamous
cell cancer.
71. Why is the flow of energy in an ecosystem unidirectional ? Explain briefly. [Year - 2019]
A. The flow of energy in food chian is unidirectional. The energy which passes to the herbivores does not come
back to the autotrophs. The energy that is captured by the autotrophs does not revert back to Sun. Therefore
in the food chain, the energy moves progressively through various trophic levels.This energy is no longer
available to the previous trophic level. Thus, the flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional.
72. List three roles of forests in conserving the environment. How do the forests get depleted? State two
consequences of deforestation on the environment. [Year - 2019]
A. Three roles
i) They help in mainting the ecological balance.
ii) Forests constitute the natural habitat for a large number of animals.
iii) Forests help in keeping the climate of an area cool, they also absorb rain water and helps in prevention of
flood.
Reasons for the depletion of forests:-
i) Forests are cleared to make way for farms to raise crops to feed people all over the world.
ii) Commercial lumbering removes large tracks of forests to extract timbers
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iii) To extract useful mineral like Coal, Iron, Oil, Copper
iv) Forests have been cleared to make ways for highways, railway, tracks and even ports and airports.
Consequences of deforestation.
i) Deforestation drives climate change, soil erosion, flood.
ii) Most dramatic impact is a loss of habitat for millions of species
iii) Water cycle gets disturbed as trees play a major role in maintaining the cycle.
iv) Can lead to global warming as trees play a role in absorbing the green house gases.
[Any Two]
D. Long Questions and Answers : (5 marks each)
73. How do components of environment depend upon each other ?
A. Ecosystems have a complex set of interactions that happen between biotic and abiotic components. The
components are linked to each other through the energy flows and nutrient cycles. Change or deterioration of
any component is likely to affect the whole ecosystem and the organisms existing in it.
The abiotic factors will detemine what kind of biotic factors will be present. Particular organisms and plant
forms are suited for particular types of environments. At the same time, the biotic factors also influence the
abiotic factors. Microbes and plant life in a lake will determine what the different factors of the water will be.
So both the components are interdependent to maintain a balance in nature.
74. Recently Delhi Government has imposed a ban on use of polythene bags. After this many shopkeepers have
started using paper/jute/cloth bags.
(a) Mention two reasons why polythene bags are not environment friendly.
(b) Is the decision of using paper bags correct ? Comment
(c) Mention the associated values.
A. (a) Two reasons why polythene bags are not environment friendly are -
(i) They are non biodegradable.
(ii) They cause land and water pollution.
(b) Yes, as paper bags are biodegradable.
(c) They are eco-friendly, biodegradable and recyclable.
75. (i) What is food web ? Illustrate with the help of example.
(ii) What is an ecosystem ? List its two main components.
(iii) We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly, explain.
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A. (i) Food web is a network of food chains operating in an eco-system which are interconnected at various
trophic levels to form a number of feeding connections among the different organisms of a biotic community.
OR
Interconnected food chains together form food web.
(ii) Ecosystem - All the interacting organisms in an area together with the non-living constituents form an
eco-system.
Two components of eco-system are biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living).
(iii) Ponds and lakes are natural ecosystems, so different trophic levels are there to maintain it. An aquarium is
man made and does not contain soil and decomposers. So the uneaten food and the waste generated by
the fishes mixes with the water and is left untreated making the water toxic. Therefore, an aquarium needs
to be cleaned regularly.
D. ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS
The questions below consist of statements of an assertion and a reason. Use
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b)Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
1. Assertion : Animals adopt different strategies to survive in hostile environment.
Reason : Praying mantis is green in colour which merges with plant foliage.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2. Assertion : A network of food chains existing together in an ecosystem is known as food web.
Reason : An animal like kite cannot be a part of a food web.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect...
214
3. Assertion: CFCs deplete the ozone layer.
Reason : CFCs are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
4. Assertion : The concentration of harmful chemicals is more in human beings.
Reason : Man is at the apex of the food chain.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
5. Assertion : The crown fires are most destructive as they burn the tree top.
Reason : Due to crown fire the temperature of that area may rise upto 700cC.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
6. Assertion: Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast from developing countries such as India.
Reason : No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in biodiversity.
A. (c) The Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect...
7. Assertion : Abiotic component of an ecosystem involves cycling of material and flow of energy.
Reason : This is essential to keep biotic factors alive.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
E. Case Based Questions
1. Food chains are very important for the survival of most species. When only one element is removed from the
food chain it can result in extinction of a species in some cases. The foundation of the food chain consists of
primary producers. Primary producers, or autotrophs, can use either solar energy or chemical energy to
create complex organic compounds, whereas species at higher trophic levels cannot and so must consume
producers or other life that itself consumes producers. Because the sun’s light is necessary for photosynthesis,
most life could not exist if the sun disappeared. Even so, it has recently been discovered that there are some
forms of life, chemotrophs, that appear to gain all their metabolic energy from chemosynthesis driven by
hydrothermal vents, thus showing that some life may not require solar energy to thrive.
a) State 10 % law.
A. According to the 10 percent law, 90% of captured energy is lost as heat in the previous level and only 10% is
available for the next level. At each trophic level, about 10% of the energy is transferred to the next trophic level
whereas the rest is utilized for metabolic activities and lost as heat in the environment
b) Food chains consist of three or four steps. Give reason.
A. The loss of energy at each step of food chain is so great that very little usuable energy remains after four
trophic levels. Hence, food chains generally consist of only three or four steps.
215
c) With the help of a flow diagram, show how energy from the sun flows through various trophic levels.
A.
OR
Calculate the amount of energy available for the tertiary consumer, if 10000J of energy is available to the
producer from the sun.
A. If the producer traps 10,000 J of energy, then 10% of it will pass on to the primary consumer which is 1,000
J, again 10% of this energy will pass to the secondary consumer which is 100 J and finally the tertiary
consumer will receive a 10% of the energy, that is, 10 J.
216
TOPIC : LIGHT – REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
A. Brief answer to important questions.
1. Define the principal focus of a concave mirror.
A. If rays, parallel to principal axis are incident on a concave mirror, then after reflection they pass from a point on
the principal axis. This point is called principal focus.
2. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 20 cm. What is its focal length ?
R
A. f= f = 10 cm
2
3. Name a mirror that can give an erect and enlarged image of an object ?
A. Concave mirror.
4. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image always appears erect. This statement is likely to be used
for which mirror ?
A. Convex mirror / Plane mirror
5. If angle between incident ray and reflected ray is 60º. What is the angle of incidence ?
A. i r = 60° and 2i 60° Angle of incidence = 30°
6. What is meant by 0 < m < 1 ? [where m is symbol of magnification]
hi
A. m , 0 < m < 1 and hi < ho. It implies size of image formed is less than size of object i.e. diminished and
ho
image is virtual and erect.
Multiple-Choice Type Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
7. Study the given ray diagrams and select the correct statement from the following :
(A) Device X is a concave mirror and device Y is a convex lens, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm
respectively.
(B) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 10 cm and 25 cm
respectively.
(C) Device X is a concave lens and device Y is a convex mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm
respectively.
(D) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm
respectively. [Year - 2017]
A. (D) Device X is a convex lens and device Y is a concave mirror, whose focal lengths are 20 cm and 25 cm
respectively.
217
8. A student obtains a blurred image of a distant object on a screen using a convex lens. To obtain a distinct image
on the screen he should move the lens
(A) away from the screen
(B) towards the screen
(C) to a position very far away from the screen
(D) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object
[Year - 2017]
A. (D) either towards or away from the screen depending upon the position of the object
9. To determine the approximate value of focal length of a given concave mirror, you have focussed the flame of
a burning candle placed on the table at a certain far away distance and for a better measurement of focal length
you want to focus the parallel rays from the rising sun which are entering through the window on the same
experimental set-up without the candle. You will move the
(A) screen towards the sun (B) mirror towards the screen
(C) mirror away from the screen (D) the whole experimental set-up towards the
window
[Year - 2017]
A. (B) mirror towards the screen
10. If you have obtained a point-sized inverted image of a distant object on a white screen using a given convex
lens, then to determine the approximate focal length of the lens, you should measure the distance between the
(A) lens and the screen only
(B) lens and the object only
(C) object and its image on the screen only
(D) lens and the object and also between the object and its image [Year - 2017]
A. (A) lens and the screen only
11. Focal length of plane mirror is
(A) Infinite (B) Zero (C) Negative (D) None of these
A. (A) Infinite
12. Image formed by plane mirror is
(A) Real and erect (B) Real and inverted
(C) Virtual and erect (D) Virtual and inverted
A. (C) Virtual and erect
13. A concave mirror gives real, inverted and same size image if the object is placed
(A) At F (B) At infinity (C) At C (D) Beyond C
A. (C) At C
218
14. Power of the lens is –4D, its focal length is
(A) 4 m (B) –40 m (C) –0.25 m (D) –25 m
A. (C) –0.25 m
15. A concave mirror gives virtual, erect and enlarged image of the object then object is placed
(A) At infinity (B) Between F and C
(C) Between P and F (D) At C
A. (C) Between P and F
16. In optics an object which has higher refractive index is called
(A) Optically rarer (B) Optically denser (C) Optical density (D) Refractive index
A. (B) Optically denser
17. The optical phenomena, twinkling of stars, is due to
(A) Atmospheric reflection (B) Total internal reflection
(C) Atmospheric refraction (D) Dispersion
A. (C) Atmospheric refraction
18. Convex lens forms a real, point sized image at focus, the object is placed
(A) At focus (B) Between F and 2F (C) At infinity (D) At 2F
A. (C) At infinity
19. The unit of power of lens is
(A) Metre (B) Centimetre (C) Dioptre (D) M–1
A. (C) Dioptre
20. The radius of curvature of a mirror is 80 cm, the focal length is
(A) 20 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 40 cm (D) 5 cm
A. (C) 40 cm
21. The speed of light in vacuum is
(A) 3 × 105 m/s (B) 3 × 108 m/s (C) 3 × 108 km/s (D) 3 × 106 m/s
A. (B) 3 × 108 m/s
22. The wavelength of the visible light is
(A) 4 × 10–7 m to 8 × 10–7m
(B) 4 × 107 m to 8 × 107m
(C) 4 x 10–7 Å to 8 x 10–7 Å
(D) 4 x 107 Å to 8 x 107 Å
A. (A) 4 × 10–7 m to 8 × 10–7m
219
23. We can see objects because of
(A) reflection (B) refraction (C) transmission (D) diffraction
A. (A) reflection
24. The image formed by a convex mirror is always
(A) real (B) enlarged (C) virtual and enlarged (D) diminished
A. (D) diminished
25. As you move an object away from a convex mirror, its image becomes and moves towards .
(A) smaller, infinity (B) smaller, focus (C) enlarged, infinity (D) enlarged, focus
A. (B) smaller, focus
26. For a spherical mirror, is true.
(A) f = 2R (B) R = 2f (C) fR = 2 (D) fR = ½
A. (B) R = 2f
27. The mirror formula is .
(A) 1/u – 1/v = 1/f (B) 1/f + 1/u = 1/v
(C) f = uv/(u+v) (D) f = (u+v)/uv
A. (C) f = uv/(u+v)
28. For a plane mirror, magnification (m) =
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) ± 1 (D) 0
A. (B) 1
29. Magnification for convex mirror is .
(A) always positive (B) always negative (C) sometimes positive (D) 1
A. (A) always positive
30. The image formed by a concave lens is .
(A) always real and enlarged (B) always real and diminished
(C) always virtual and enlarged (D) always virtual and diminished
A. (D) always virtual and diminished
31. The lens formula is .
(A) 1/f = 1/u + 1/v (B) 1/f = 1/u – 1/v
(C) 1/f = 1/v – 1/u (D) 1/f + 1/v = u
A. (C) 1/f = 1/v – 1/u
32. 1 diopter = .
(A) 1 m(B) 1 m(–1) (C) 1 cm (D) 1 cm(–1)
A. (B) 1 m(–1)
220
33. Which of the following is a true statement?
(A) The power of a lens is always positive. (B) The power of a lens is always negative.
(C) The power of a convex lens is positive. (D) The power of a concave lens is positive.
A. (C) The power of a convex lens is positive.
34. Image formed by a concave mirror is erect and enlarged. What is the position of the object?
(A) Between focus F and the centre of curvature (B) At the centre of curvature
(C) Beyond the centre of curvature (D) Between pole and the focus
A. (D) Between pole and the focus
35. If the focal length of a spherical mirror is 40 cm, then its radius of curvature is cm.
(A) 80 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 5 cm
A. (A) 80 cm
36. If the angle of incidence, i = 0°, the angle of reflection, r = .
(A) 0° (B) 90° (C) 180° (D) 45°
A. (A) 0°
37. No matter how far the object from the mirror is, the image of the object appears erect. The mirror is .
(A) concave (B) convex
(C) either concave or convex (D) none of these
A. (B) convex
38. A boy is standing at a distance of 2 m in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the boy and his image is
m.
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
A. (A) 4
39. The image formed by a concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object. The position
of the object should be .
(A) beyond the centre of curvature of mirror
(B) between the centre of curvature and the focus
(C) at the centre of curvature of the mirror
(D) at the focus
A. (C) at the centre of curvature of the mirror
40. Which of the following has the highest refractive index?
(A) Glass (B) Water (C) Pearl (D) Diamond
A. (D) Diamond
221
41. Absolute refractive index of any medium is always .
(A) 1 (B) > 1 (C) < 1 (D) 0
A. (B) > 1
42. The image formed by a plane mirror is .
(A) real (B) diminished (C) enlarged (D) laterally inverted
A. (D) laterally inverted
43. The incident ray passing through the focus(F) of a mirror after reflection.
(A) passes through C (B) passes through F
(C) becomes parallel to the principal axis (D) passes through the pole
A. (C) becomes parallel to the principal axis
44. The incident ray passing through the center of curvature(C) of a mirror after reflection.
(A) passes through C (B) passes through F
(C) passes through the pole (D) becomes parallel to the principal axis
A. (A) passes through C
45. The incident ray parallel to the principal axis of a mirror after reflection.
(A) passes through C (B) passes through F
(C) passes through the pole (D) reverts back in the opposite direction
A. (B) passes through F
46. According to the sign convention, the distance of object...
(A) is always positive (B) is always negative
(C) may be positive or negative (D) is equal to object height
A. (B) is always negative
47. According to the sign convention, the distance of image...
(A) is always positive (B) is always negative
(C) may be positive or negative (D) is equal to image height
A. (C) may be positive or negative
48. The refractive index of a denser medium with respect to a rarer medium is–
(A) 1 (B) greater than 1
(C) smaller than 1 (D) negative
A. (B) greater than 1
49. The refractive index of a rarer medium with respect to a denser medium is–
(A) 1 (B) greater than 1 (C) smaller than 1 (D) negative
A. (C) smaller than 1
222
50. Total internal reflection will occur if the angle of reflection is...
(A) 45° (B) 60° (C) 90° (D) 99°
A. (D) 99°
51. Magnification for image is always .
(A) real, positive (B) real, negative (C) virtual, negative (D) any, negative
A. (B) real, negative
52. If magnification is +1.5, the image is .
(A) erect (B) diminished (C) real (D) inverted
A. (A) erect
53. To an astronaut in space, the sky will appear to be
(A) violet (B) red (C) blue (D) black
A. (D) black
54. Rainbow formation is due to
(A) absorption of sunlight by water droplets
(B) diffusion of sunlight through water droplets
(C) ionisation of water droplets
(D) refraction and reflection of sunlight by water droplets
A. (D) refraction and reflection of sunlight by water droplets
55. Red light is used in traffic signals, because
(A) colour of blood is red (B) animals can identify red
(C) red light disperses least (D) red is the symbol of danger
A. (C) red light disperses least
56. A star appears twinkling in the sky because of
(A) scattering of light by atmosphere (B) reflection of light by atmosphere
(C) refraction of light by atmosphere (D) diffraction of light by atmosphere
A. (C) refraction of light by atmosphere
57. When a strong beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution, the light will
(A) be scattered (B) pass unchanged (C) be absorbed (D) be reflected
A. (A) be scattered
223
B. Very Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks each)
58. Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view mirror in vehicles ?
A. Convex mirrors are preferred as rear–view mirrors in vehicles because their field of view is large, they produce
erect and diminished images.
59. What is the magnification of images formed by plane mirrors and why ?
A. m = 1. It is so because height of the image formed by a plane mirror is same as that of object and the image is erect.
60. What is the nature of the image formed by a concave mirror, if the magnification produced by the mirror
is +4?
hi v
A. m = +4. In case of spherical mirror m . Image will be virtual, erect and magnified. ( u < 0 & v > 0)
ho u
61. Explain why a ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of concave mirror gets reflected along the
same path.
A. Since normal for spherical mirror lies along the line joining point on incidence on reflecting surface and centre
of curvature. Thus, for a ray passing through centre of curvature i = 0°. So, by laws of reflection, r must be
0°. Hence it gets reflected along same path.
62. When the object is placed between the focus and the pole of a concave mirror, what type of image is formed?
A. When object is placed between the focus and pole of a concave mirror, a virtual, erect and magnified image is
formed behind the mirror.
63. How can we measure the focal length of a concave mirror ?
A. When parallel rays are incident on a concave mirror, they converge at focus,i.e., image is formed at focus. We
can measure distance of image from pole. This is focal length.
64. Write the relationship between u, v and f for mirrors when u, v and f are the object distance, image distance
and focal length respectively.
I I I
A. Mirror Equation
v u f
65. The magnification produced by concave mirror is less than 1. Write the information about image formed by this
statement.
hi v
A. m <1. We know m for spherical mirrors height of image < height of object. For concave mirrors this
ho u
occurs for position of objects beyond C. Thus, image formed must be real, inverted and diminished.
224
66. Name the type of mirror used in following giving reason for using it.
(i) Shaving mirror (ii) In torches
A. i) Shaving mirror — Concave
Because concave mirrors form highly magnified, erect and virtual image for an object placed between pole
and focus.
ii) In torches — Concave
Light rays from a source placed on the focus of a concave mirror are reflected in such a way that the
reflected rays are straight and parallel.
67. If the magnification of an object of size 1 m is 2, what is the size of the image ?
A. m=2
hi
2 hi = 2 × ho
ho
=2×1m=2m
Size of image = 2 m
68. An arrow 2.5 cm high is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a diverging mirror of focal length 20 cm. Find the
nature, position and size of the image formed.
A. Given :
ho = 2.5 cm
u = – 25 cm
f = + 20 cm ( Diverging mirror implies it is convex)
Using mirror equation
1 1 1 1 1 1
v u f v 25 20
25 20 500 100
v 11.11 cm
25 20 45 9
v 11.1
Now, m 0.44
u ( 25)
hi = 0.44 × ho = 0.44 × 2.5 cm = 1.11 cm
So, image will be virtual and erect at a distance of 11.11 cm from mirror. Size of image = 1.11 cm
69. A converging mirror forms a real image of height 4 cm of an object of height 1 cm placed 20 cm away from the
mirror. Calculate
(i) Distance from the mirror where image is formed (ii) focal length of the mirror.
225
A. Given :
hi = –4 cm (Rest Inverted)
ho = 1 cm
u = – 20 cm
i h v
i) We know m= h u
o
4 v
1 20 v = – 80 cm
1 1 1
f
vu
80 20 1600 16 cm
ii)
v u f v u 80 20 100
70. The speed of light in water is 2.25 × 108 m/s. If the speed of light in vacuum be 3 × 108 m/s, calculate the
refractive index of water.
A. We know :
c
=
v
3 108 3 100
= 1.33
2.25 108 225
71. The power of a lens is +4 D. What kind of lens is it and what is its focal length ?
A. p = +4 D
1
We know p =
f in m
1
4=
f
f = +0.25 m
Thus, it is a convex lens of focal length 0.25 m.
72. Focal length of the lens in a photographic camera is 5 centimetre. What is the power of the lens ?
A. We know : Photographic camera Convex lens f = +ve
100
p =
f in cm
100
= +20 D
5
226
73. Find the position of an object which when placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm produces a
virtual image twice the size of the object.
A. Given :
f = – 20 cm (concave)
Image formed is virtual and m = +2
v v
we know, m = ,2= , v = – 2u
u u
Using mirror equation
1 1 1
f
uv
20
2u u
v u f u v 2u u
– 20 = 2u u = – 10 cm
74. A student gradually moves a candle flame away from the principal focus of a convex lens and keeping the lens
fixed in its position, each time focuses the image on the screen.
(A) In which direction - towards or away from the lens, does he move the screen to focus the image ?
(B) What happens to the size of the image - does it increase or decrease ?
(C) What happens to the intensity of the image instantaneously — does it increase or decrease ?
[Year - 2017]
A. (A) As the candle is moved away from the convex lens, the image distance decreases, therefore the screen
should be moved towards the lens to focus the image.
(B) The size of the image decreases, as the object is moved away from the lens.
(C) Intensity increases.
75. A student focuses the image of a candle flame, placed at about 2 m from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm, on
a screen. After that he moves gradually the flame towards the lens and each time focuses its image on the
screen.
(A) In which direction does he move the lens to focus the flame on the screen ?
(B) What happens to the size of the image of the flame formed on the screen ?
(C) What difference is seen in the intensity (brightness) of the image of the flame on the screen ?
(D) What is seen on the screen when the flame is very close (at about 5 cm) to the lens ?
A. (A) As the candle is moved toward the lens, the image distance increases. Thus the student moves the lens
away from the screen to focus the image.
(B) The size of the image increases when the object is moved towards the lens.
(C) Intensity decreases.
(D) When the candle is moved way close to the lens, no image is formed on the screen. A virtual image is
formed behind the candle on the same side of the screen.
227
76. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. List four characteristics
(nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens. [Year - 2017]
A. Given u = –30 cm, f = –15 cm
1 1 1 1 1 1
v –10 cm.
f v u –15 v 30
Characteristics of image are :
a) The image formed is virtual.
b) It is erect.
c) It is diminished in size.
d) The image is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the optical centre of the concave lens on the same side of
the object.
77 An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. List four characteristics
(nature, position, etc.) of the image formed by the lens. [Year - 2017]
A. u = –15 cm; f = 20 cm; v = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
f v u 20 v 15 v 20 15
v = – 60 cm.
v 60
m 4
u 15
Characteristics of image are :
a) The image formed is virtual.
b) It is erect.
c) It is magnified in size.
d) The image is formed in the same side as that of the object.
78. Write the focal length of a plane mirror. Which one out of plane, concave or convex mirrors has a larger field of
view and where is such a mirror put to use ? [Year - 2017]
R
A. Focal length of a plane mirror is inifinite because we know that focal length of mirror is . But the radius of
2
curvature of plane mirror is infinite, so .
2
Convex mirror has a larger field of view, because its diverging in nature.
Due to the large field of view, convex mirror are used in headlights of vehicles.
228
79. If the image formed by a spherical mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always erect and
diminished, what type of mirror is it ? Draw a labelled ray diagram to support your answer. [Year - 2018]
A. The mirror is a convex mirror as the convex mirror always form an image which is virtual, erect and diminished,
when the object is placed in front of the mirror.
The ray diagram is as follow :
M
A
A¢
B¢ F C
B P
N
80. An object of height 4.0 cm is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the optical centre ‘O’ of a convex lens of focal
length 20 cm. Draw a ray diagram of it. Also find the position and size of the image formed. Mark optical centre
‘O’ and principal focus ‘F’ on the diagram. Also find the approximate ratio of size of the image to the size of the
object. [Year - 2018]
A. A
4 cm
O B¢
B F2 F1
30 cm 8 cm
20 cm
60 cm
A¢
u = –30 cm; f = 20 cm.
1 1 1 1 1 1
v u f v 20 30
1 32 1
v 60 60
v = 60 cm.
hi 2
and h 1 2 : 1
o
81. A student has to trace the path of a ray of light through a glass slab. List four precautions he should observe for
better results.
A. Precautions to be observed for tracing the path of a ray of light through a glass slab:
a) The rectangular glass slab used should have perfectly smooth faces.
b) The angle of incidence should lie between 30° and 60°.
c) While placing the pins P1 and P2 or the pins P3 and P4 care should be taken to maintain a distance of about
5 cm between the two pins. This would help in tracing the directions of the incident ray and that of the
emergent ray with greater accuracy.
d) The placement of the protactor should be correct to get correct measurements.
OR
You have a convex lens of focal length 12 cm. You place a candle flame on its principal axis at a distance of 60
cm from the lens on its one side and place a screen on its other side. Write two characteristics of the image
formed on the screen. If you now shift the candle flame towards the lens so that its distance from the lens
becomes 15 cm, then state the changes that are observed in these two characteristics of the image formed.
[Year - 2018]
229
A. f = 12 cm; u = –60 cm
Characteristics:
a) Image formed will be real; and inverted.
b) Image formed will be diminished and formed between F and 2F on the other side of the lens.
f = 12 cm; u = –15 cm
Object between F and 2F.
Characteristics:
a) Image formed will be real; and inverted.
b) The image formed will be magnified and formed after 2F on the other side of the lens.
82. List four precautions which a student should observe while determining the focal length of a given convex lens
by obtaining image of a distant object on a screen. [Year - 2019]
A. The four precautions which a student should observe while determining the focal length of a convex lens by
obtaining image of a distant object on a screen are as follows:
a) It is important to ensure that the screen, as well as the convex lens, are vertical in orientation.
b) It should be ensured that the image should not be blurred.
c) The base of the lens stand and screen should be in line with the measuring scale.
d) Distances should be measured carefully from the centre of the lens and parallax error should be avoided
as much as possible.
83. The absolute refractive index of Ruby is 1.7. Find the speed of light in Ruby. The speed of light in
vacuum is 3 X 108 m/s. [Year - 2019]
A.
Speed of light Vaccum 3 108
R.I 1.7
Speed of light medium VRuby
3 108
VRuby 1.764 108 m/s
1.7
84. Draw the path of a ray of light when it enters one of the faces of a glass slab at an angle of nearly 45°. Label on
it (i) angle of refraction, (ii) angle of emergence and (iii) lateral displacement.
A. Angle of incidence = 45°
Angle of emergence = 45°
Angle of refraction = 28°
l 45°
28° =
r
Lateral displacement
45
°=
e
230
OR
A student traces the path of a ray of light through a glass prism as shown in the diagram, but leaves it
incomplete and unlabelled. Redraw and complete the diagram. Also label on it i, e, r and D.
[Year - 2019]
A
A. M¢
M G
D
i e
Q r s
N N¢
P T
B C
85. The power of a lens is +5 diopters. What is the nature and focal length of this lens ? At what distance from this
lens should an object be placed so as to get its inverted image of the same size ? [Year - 2019]
A. The lens is a convex lens as the power is +5D.
1 1
f = 0.2 m = 20 cm.
P 5
An inverted image of same size will be obtained when object is placed at 2f i.e at 20 × 2 = 40 cm. i.e. the object
must be placed at 40 cm from lens to obtain an inverted image of same size.
86. List in proper sequence the steps of the experiment for determining the approximate focal length of a given
concave mirror by obtaining the image of a distant object.
A. Following are the steps to determine the approximate focal length of a concave mirror for obtaining the image
of a distant object. :
a) Adjust the concave mirror to mirror holder and locate it on the table.
b) Turn the mirror’s face in the direction of a far-off object. The chosen object can be seen with the naked
eye.
c) Modify the position of the screen in such a way that it forms a clear image of the object on the screen.
d) Measure the distance between the concave mirror and the screen with a metre scale.
e) Record your observations and repeat the procedure for 5 times. The average of the reading will give the
focal length.
OR
A student has to trace the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for four different values
of angle of incidence.
(a) Write two important precautions for this experiment.
(b) List two conclusions the student will draw based on his experiment [Year - 2019]
231
A. The important precautions for this experiment.
a) (i) The glass slab should be perfectly rectangle with all its faces smooth.
(ii) The angle of incidence should be between 30° and 60°.
b) (i) The angle of incidence is nearly equal to the angle of emergence.
(ii) The angle of refraction is less than the angle of incidence as the light travels from rares to denser
optical medium
87. State laws of reflection of light.
A. Laws of Reflection of light.
a) The incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal to the surface of the mirror, all lie in the same plane.
b) The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence. Both the angles are measured with respect to the
normal to the mirror.
OR
Define absolute refractive index and express it mathematically. [Year - 2019]
A. Absolute refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of the velocity of light in a vacuum to the velocity
of light in the medium.
C
n where C = velocity of light in vacuum; V = velocity of light in medium.
V
88. Study the following ray diagram and list two mistakes committed by the student while tracing it. Rectify these
mistakes by drawing the correct ray diagram to show the real position and size of the image corresponding to
the position of the object AB.
[Year - 2019]
A. The mistakes are :
a) The image should be formed beyond 2F2 and not between F2 and 2F2.
b) The size of the image should be enlarged.
B¢
2F1 B O F2 2F2
A¢
232
89. State laws of refraction of light.
A. The laws of refraction of light are:
a) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two media at the point of incidence, all
lie in the same plane.
b) The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is constant for the light of a given
colour and for the given pair of media. This constant is known as the refractive index of the second medium
with respect to th first. This law is also known as Snell’s law of refraction.
sini
sinr
OR
List four characteristics of the image formed by a concave mirror of focal length 40 cm when the object is
placed in front of it at a distance of 20 cm from its pole. [Year - 2019]
A. The object placed between pole and focus of a concave mirror.
a) The image is virtual.
b) The image is erect.
c) The image is enlarged.
d) The image is formed behind the concave mirror.
90. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray of light
parallel to the principal axis of a convex mirror. Mark the angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it.
[Year - 2019]
A. r
i
O P F C
91. A teacher gives a convex lens and a concave mirror of focal length of 20 cm each to his student and asks him
to find their focal lengths by obtaining the image of a distant object. The student uses a distant tree as the
object and obtains its sharp image, one by one, on a screen. The distances d1 and d2 between the lens/mirror
and the screen in the two cases and the nature of their respective sharp images are likely to be
(a) (20 cm, 40 cm) and (erect and erect)
(b) (20 cm, 40 cm) and (inverted and inverted)
(c) (20 cm, 20 cm) and (inverted and inverted)
(d) (20 cm, 40 cm) and (erect and inverted)
Give reason for your answer. [Year - 2019]
233
A. (c) (20 cm, 20 cm) and (inverted and inverted)
Since the object is distant, the nature of the image on the screen in case of both convex lens and concave
mirror will be real, inverted, highly diminished and point sized. If the object is distant, then we get its image
at focus on the other side of convex lens. Therefore, d1 will be 20 cm. In case of concave mirror, if the
object is distant then the image is obtained at focus in front of concave mirror. Therefore, d2 = 20 cm.
92. List four characteristics of the image formed by a convex lens of focal length 20 cm when the object is placed
in front of it at a distance of 10 cm from its optical centre.
A. Characteristics of image, when object is placed between optical centre and the focus.
(i) It is virtual.
(ii) The image is upright.
(iii) The image formed is magnified.
(iv) The postion of image is on the same side of the object.
OR
Define refractive index of a transparent medium. The speed of light in a medium of absolute refractive index
1·5 is 2 × 108 ms–1. What is the speed of light in vacuum ?
[Year - 2019]
A. Refractive index of a transparent medium is the ratio of speed of light in vaccum to the speed of light in that
medium.
C
.
V
Where = is the refractive index.
C = Speed of light in vacuum
V = Speed of light in medium.
C
1.5 C 3 108 m/s
2 108
C. Short Type-II Questions and Answers : (3 marks each)
93. The outer surface of a hollow sphere of aluminium of radius 50 cm is to be used as a mirror. What will be the
focal length of this mirror ? What type of spherical mirror will it provide ?
R
A. We know f
2
50cm
focal length of this mirror = = 25 cm
2
Since outer surface will diverge the rays incident on it, it will be a diverging i.e. convex mirror
94. State two positions in which a concave mirror produces a magnified image of a given object. List two differences
between the two images.
A. Two positions be –
i) When object lies between focus and centre of curvature
ii) When object lies between pole and principal focus
234
Differences between the two images :
I) Image formed in position (i) will be real whereas that formed in (ii) will be virtual.
II) Image formed in (i) will be inverted whereas that formed in (ii) will be erect.
95. Name the type of mirror used in the design of solar furnaces. Explain how high temperature is achieved by this
device ?
A. Concave mirrors are used in the design of solar furnaces.
Concave mirror takes all light that strikes its surface and reflects it all toward the focal point. The collected light
of the focal point is very powerful. It is bright and carries a lot of thermal energy.
96. A concave mirror produces three times magnified (enlarged) real image of an object placed at 10 cm in front of
it. Where is the image located ?
A. Since concave mirror is producing enlarged image object must not be beyond centre of curvature i.e. it must be
somewhere between C and P. Since image is real, so it can’t be between focus and pole. It’s clear that object
lies between C and F.
97. (i) Rohit wants to have an erect image of an object, using a converging mirror of focal length 40 cm (a) Specify
the image distance ? And where can the object be placed in front of the mirror. Give reason for your answer.
(ii) Will the image be bigger or smaller than the object ?
(iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
A. i) To get an erect image from converging mirror i.e concave mirror object must be placed somewhere between
focus and pole.
So, image will be formed behind the mirror. Image distance will depend on the object distance and will be
1 1 1
given by mirror equation where f = – 40 cm (given).
v u f
ii) Image will be bigger than the object i.e. magnified image will be formed.
iii)
C F O P
98. Rohit placed a pencil perpendicular to the principal axis in front of a converging mirror of focal length 30 cm.
The image formed is twice the size of the pencil. Calculate the distance of the object from the mirror.
A. Given :
f = – 30 cm ( converging = concave mirror)
case (i) h1 = 2ho case (ii) h1 = – 2ho
m=2 m = –2
v v
2 2
u u
v = – 2u v = 2u
235
Using mirror equation Using mirror equation
1 1 1 1 1 1
v u f v u f
uv uv
f f
u v u v
30
2u u 2u2
30
u 2u 3u
2u2 3 30
30 u
u 2
u = – 15 cm = – 45 cm
Thus, distance of the object from the mirror = 15 cm and 45 cm
There are two positions of object.
99. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from convex mirror of the focal length 15 cm. Find the position and
nature of image formed.
A. Given :
u = – 10 cm
f = + 15 cm (Convex mirror)
Using mirror equation
1 1 1 1 1 1 15 10 150
v = 6 cm
v u f v 10 15 15 10 25
v 6
Now, m = 0.6 1
u 10
Thus a virtual, erect and diminished image will be formed at a distance 6 cm behind the mirror.
100. The image of an object formed by mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification – 1. If the image is at a distance
of 40 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed ? Where should the image be if the object is moved 20 cm
towards the mirror ? State the reason and also draw the ray diagram for the new position of the object to justify
your answer.
A. Image is real mirror must be concave
v
Given m = – 1 1 u = v = – 40 cm
u
Thus, object is placed 40 cm infront of mirror using mirror equation–
1 1 1
v u f
236
uv 40 40
f 20 cm
u v 40 40
focal length of mirror = 20 cm
Case (ii) object is moved 20 cm towards the mirror
u¢ = – 20 cm
f = – 20 cm
1 1 1
Now, again using mirror equation
v¢ u¢ f
1 1 1 1 1
0
v¢ f u¢ 20 20
v¢ =
It’s obvious, since object is now placed at focus of the mirror image must be formed at infinity
Image at
infinity C F P
101. Draw the following diagram in which ray of light is incident on a concave/convex mirror on your answer sheet.
Show the path of this ray, after reflection in each case.
\\
\\\\\ \\\
F F F
\
A.
F F F
102. Draw a ray diagram for following and show the formation of images in case of concave mirror when the object
is placed :
(a) Between pole and focal point (b) At the centre of curvature.
A. O
C F P
P I
C F O I
At the centre of curvarture
between pole and focal point
237
103. For what position of an object does a concave mirror forms a real, inverted, enlarged image. Draw a ray
diagram.
A. When object lies between focus and centre of curvature
C F P
I
104. Identify the nature of mirror and give two characteristics of image formed when magnification is +3.
A. m = +3
magnification is positive
Image is erect
Image is virtual
Also, hi = 3ho enlarged image
it means mirror is surely concave
( convex mirror produces diminished image, and plane mirror produces images of same size.)
105. An object placed 30 cm in front of a mirror is found to form an image at 25 cm (i) in front of it, (ii) behind the
mirror. Find the focal length of the mirror and the kind of mirror in each case.
A. Given u = – 30 cm
(i) v = – 25 cm
Using mirror equation
1 1 1 uv 30 25 750 150
f = –13.63 cm
v u f u v 30 25 55 11
Since f is –ve, it is concave mirror
(ii) v¢ = +25 cm
Again using mirror equation
uv¢ 30 25 750
f¢ = = 150 cm
u v¢ 30 25 5
Since f¢ is positive it is convex mirror
106. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 60 cm.
(i) Draw a ray diagram for the formation of image.
(ii) Calculate the image distance.
(iii) State two characteristics of the image formed.
238
A. (i)
C F O P I
(ii) u = – 30 cm, f = – 60 cm
Using mirror equation
1 1 1 1 1 1 fu 60 30 1800
v 60cm
u v f v f u u f 30 60 30
Image is formed at a distance of 60 cm behind the mirror
(iii) Image formed is virtual and erect.
107. In an experiment with a rectangular glass slab, a student observed that a ray of light incident at an angle of 60º
with the normal on one face of the slab, after refraction, strikes the opposite face of the slab before emerging
out in air making an angle of 42° with the normal. Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the path of this ray. What
value would you assign to the angle of refraction and angle of emergence ?
60°
i
air
A. glass
r
42°
r
air
i¢
Here angle of incidence i = 60°
angle of refraction = r = 42° (from sketch)
angle of emergence
i¢ = angle of incidence = i = 60°
108. Three beams of light 1, 2 and 3 of the same wavelength are sent through three different materials of refractive
indices 1.60, 1.50 and 1.55. Arrange the velocity of these beams in different materials in ascending order.
A. We know
v1 1
12
v 2 2
It implies velocity and wavelength are inversely proportional to refractive index of the medium.
i.e. Higher the R.I, then lower the speed of light in that medium. Thus velocity will be maximum in medium with RI
= 1.50 and minimum in medium with RI = 1.60
V1.60 < V1.55 < V1.50
239
109. The refractive index of glass with respect to air is 1.65 and that of water with respect to air is 1.33. Calculate the
refractive index of water with respect to glass.
A. Given : a g 1.65 and a w 1.33
g w ??
a g 1.65
g
1.65 (i)
a
a w 1.33
w
1.33 (ii)
a
Dividing (ii) by (i) we get :
w 1.33
g w 0.8
g 1.65
110. A convex lens has a focal length of 10 cm. At what distance from the lens should the object be placed so that
it forms a real and inverted image 20 cm away from the lens ? What could be the size of the image formed if the
object is 2 cm high ? What the help of a ray diagram, show the formation of the image by the lens in this case.
A. f = +10 cm (convex)
v = +20 cm
Using lens formula
1 1 1 1 1 1 vf 20 10
u 20 cm
v u f u v f f v 10 20
object should be placed 20 cm infront of lens
Now,
v 20 h
m 1 i 1 hi 2cm
u 20 h o
Size of image = 2 cm formed
F 2F
2F F O
240
111. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a screen placed
on the other side of the lens at a distance of 60 cm from the optical centre of the lens. Identify the type of lens
and calculate its focal length. If the height of the flame is 3 cm, find the height of its image.
A. Given : u = –30 cm
v = + 60 cm
Using lens formula
1 1 1
v u f
vu 60 30 1800
f 20 cm
uv 30 60 90
Since focal length is positive it is convex lens
Now, m v 60 2
u 30
hi
= – 2 hi = –2 × 3 cm = –6 cm
ho
Thus, height of image = 6 cm
112. An object of height 5 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length 10 cm.
If the distance of the object from the optical centre of the lens is 20 cm, determine the position, nature and size
of the image formed using the lens formula.
A. Given :
ho = 5 cm
f = – 10 cm (concave lens)
u = – 20 cm
Using lens formula
1 1 1 fu 10 20 200 20
v cm
v u f f u 30 30 3
= – 6.66 cm
20
v 1
Now, m 3
u 20 3
hI 1 1 5
hI 5 cm = 1.66 cm
ho 3 3 3
[Position – image is formed at a distance of 6.66 cm on the same side of object. Image is virtual, erect and of
size 1.66 cm]
241
113. At what distance should an object be placed from a convex lens of focal length 18 cm to obtain an image at 24
cm from it on the other side. What will be the magnification produced in this case ?
A. Given : f = +18 cm (convex lens)
v = +24 cm
Using lens formula
1 1 1 1 1 1 vf 24 18 24 18
u 72 cm
v u f u v f f v 18 24 6
Thus, object be placed at a distance of 72 cm from optical centre.
v 24 1 1
magnification m magnification is
u 72 3 3
114. A 2 cm high candle flame is placed at a distance of 80 cm from a white screen. On placing a convex lens
exactly at the mid point of the candle and the screen, a distinct image of the flame is seen on the screen. What
is the focal length of the lens and the size of the candle flame image formed ? Draw a ray diagram to show the
formation of the image in this case.
A. lens
o
candle
screen
40 cm 40 cm
for this case
u = – 40 cm
v = + 40 cm
Using lens formula
1 1 1 uv 40 40
f 20 cm
v u f u v 40 40
focal length of the lens = +20 cm
v 40
Now, m 1
u 40
hI = – ho = – 2cm. Height of image formed is 2 cm.
2F F O F 2F
242
115. Two lenses of power 3D and – 5D are placed in contact to form a composite lens. An object is placed at a
distance 50 cm from this composite lens, find the position of the image.
A. We know, for composite lenses : P = P1 + P2 = 3 + (–5) = – 2D
Power of composite lens = – 2D
1 1
Now, P = 2 f 0.5m
f in m f in m
u = – 50 cm = – 0.5 m
Using lens formula
1 1 1 fu 0.5 0.5 0.25
v 0.25m 25 cm
v u f uf 0.5 0.5 1
Image is formed at a distance of 25 cm on same side of object
116. A child is standing in front of a magic mirror. She finds the image of her head bigger, the middle portion of her
body of the same size and that of the leg smaller. Write the order of combinations for the magic mirror from the
top.
A. Order of combination from top is concave plane convex. Since concave mirror form magnified image,
plane mirror of same size and convex mirror form diminished image of object placed near the mirror.
117. The image of an object formed by a lens is real, inverted and of the same size as the object. If the image is at
a distance of 40 cm from the lens, what is the nature and power of the lens ? Draw ray diagram to justify your
answer.
A. Image is real
Lens is convex
height of image = height of object and image is inverted
hI v
m= = – 1, v = +40 cm m = –1, = – 1 u = – 40 cm
ho u
Using lens formula
1 1 1 uv 40 40
f 20cm
v u f u v 40 40
100 100
Now, P 5 D
f incm 20
Thus it is a convex lens of power +5 D
F 2F
2F F O
243
2
118. The refractive index of a medium ‘x’ with respect to medium ‘Y’ is and the refractive index of medium ‘Y’ with
3
4
respect to medium ‘Z’ is . Find the refractive index of medium ‘Z’ with respect to medium ‘X’.
3
A. Given :
2 2
Y X X i
3 Y 3
4 4
Z Y Y ii
3 Z 3
Z 3
iii
Y 4
Dividing iii by i we get.
Z 3 3 9
X 4 2 8
9
X Z
8
119. Draw the ray diagram to show the formation of image by a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm for the following
positions of object. (diagrams may not be drawn to the scale).
Indicate the nature and relative size of image.
(a) object is placed at 30 cm from mirror.
(b) object is placed at 10 cm from the mirror.
A. (a)
2F F P
PF = 15 cm
(b)
2F F O P I
244
1
120. When an object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex mirror, the magnification produced is where
2
1
should the object be placed to get a magnification of .
3
A. u = – 60 cm
1 v 1 1
m= v= × (–60) = 30 cm
2 u 2 2
Now, using mirror formula
1 1 1 vu 30 60
f 60cm
v u f u v 60 30
We know,
v 1 1 1
m= and
u v u f
from these two equation we get :
f
m=
f u
1 f 1
So, for m ,
3 f u 3
3f = f – u u = –2f = –2 × 60 cm = –120 cm
Thus, object to be placed 120 cm infront of mirror.
121. At what distance should an object be placed from a convex lens of focal length 18 cm to obtain an image at 36
cm from it ? What will be the magnification produced in this case ?
A. Given : f = +18 cm
v 36cm
Case (i) v = +36cm
using lens equation
1 1 1 fv
u
v u f fv
18 36
u= = –36 cm
36 18
object should be placed at a distance of 36 cm
v 36
m 1
u 36
Case (ii) v = –36 cm
245
again using lens equation
1 1 1 fv 18 36 18 36
u
v u f f v 36 18 54
= –12 cm
Object should be placed at a distance of 12 cm.
v 36
Here m 3
u 12
122. You have two lenses A and B of focal lengths + 10 cm and – 10 cm respectively. State the nature and power of
each lens. Which of the two lenses will form a virtual and magnified image of an object placed 8 cm from the
lens ? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.
A. Lens A
f A = +10 cm
Lens is convex
100 100
PA 10D
f incm 10
Lens B
f B = –10 cm
Lens is concave
100 100
PB 10D
f incm 10
Lens A will form virtual and magnified image of object placed 8 cm from the lens.
object
F
2F¢ F¢ O
123. A convex lens of focal length 10 cm is placed at the distance of 12 cm from the wall. How far from the lens
should the object be placed so as to form real image on the wall ?
A.
12 cm
246
Here f = +10 cm (convex)
v = +12 cm
Using lens formula
1 1 1 1 1 1
v u f u v f
fv 10 12 120
u 60 cm
f v 10 12 2
Thus, object to be placed 60 cm from the lens to form real image on the wall.
124. A concave lens of focal length 10 cm forms the image 5 cm away from the lens. How far is the object placed
from the lens ?
A. Given f = –10 cm (concave lens)
v = – 5 cm
Using lens formula
1 1 1 1 1 1
v u f u v f
fv 10 5
u 10cm
f v 10 5
Hence, object is at a distance of 10 cm from the lens.
125. If the image formed by a lens for all positions of an object placed in front of it is always erect and diminished,
what is the nature of this lens ? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. If the numerical value of the power
of this lens is 10 D, what is its focal length in the cartesian system ?
A. Its a concave lens.
A
A¢
B
2F1 F1 B¢ O F2 2F2
Power of lens = 10D
1 1 1
F P F 0.1 m = (–) 10 cm (Concave lens)
P F 10
247
126. Draw ray diagrams to show the formation of three times magnified (a) real, and (b) virtual image of an object by
a converging lens. Mark the positions of O, F and 2F in each diagram. ]
A. The ray dayram of three times magnified real image is as below.
M
A
Object
B¢
2F1 B F1 O F2 2F2
Real
image
N
A¢
The ray dayram of three times magnified virtual image is as below.
A¢
M
Virtual
image A
Object
B¢ 2F1 F1 B O F2 2F2
N
127. “A lens can form a magnified erect image as well as magnified inverted image of an object placed in front of it.”
State the nature of this lens and draw ray diagrams to justify the above statement. Mark the positions of O, F
and 2F in the diagram.
A. The ray diagram of a real image.
A
Object
B¢
2F1 B O F2 2F2
Real image
A¢
The ray diagram of a virtual image.
A¢
M
Virtual
image A
B¢ 2F1 F1 B O F2 2F2
248
128. The image of an object formed by a mirror is of magnification –1. Answer the following questions related to this
information giving reason for each :
(a) State the nature of the mirror.
(b) If the image is at a distance of 40 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed ?
(c) Where would the image be formed, if the object is moved 10 cm towards the mirror ?
A. a) Concave mirror, as the image is real.
v – (40) 40
b) m –1 u 40 cm
u u 1
c) The image will be formed beyond the centre of curvature in front of the concave mirror or in between C
and the infinity.
129. State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the term ‘absolute refractive index of a medium’ and write an
expression to relate it with the speed of light in vacuum.
A. The laws of refraction of lights are:
a) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two media at the point of incidence all
lie in the same plane.
b) The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is constant for the light of a given
colour and for the given pair of media. This constant is known as the refractive index of the second medium
with respect to the first. This law is also known as Snell’s law of refraction.
sini
sinr
Absolute refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of velocity of light in vacuum to the velocity of
light in the medium.
C
V
= Absolute refraction index of a medium.
C = Velocity of light in vacuum
V = Velocity of light in medium
OR
What is meant by power of a lens ? Write its SI unit. A student uses a lens of focal length 40 cm and another of
–20 cm. Write the nature and power of each lens. [
249
A. The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.
1
P SI unit of power = Dioptre (D)
F
F1= 40 cm; F2 = – 20
Convex lens Concave lens.
1 100 1 100
P= = P= =
f 40 f 20
P = 2.5D P = –5D
130. A student holding a mirror in his hand, directed the reflecting surface of the mirror towards the sun. He then
directed the reflected light on to a sheet of paper held close to the mirror.
(a) What should he do to burn the paper ?
(b) Which type of mirror does he have ?
(c) Will he be able to determine the approximate value of focal length of this mirror from this activity ? Give
reason and draw ray diagram to justify your answer in this case.
A. (a) To burn the paper, student should move the mirror in such a way that paper is postioned at the focus of the
mirror.
(b) Student have converging type of mirror i.e. a concave mirror.
(c) Yes, he can measure the approximate value of focal length from this activity as the paper will burn, when it
will be kept at the focus of the mirror.
F P
Paper position
where it gets burned
Focal
Length
OR
A 10 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 12 cm. The
distance of the object from the lens is 18 cm. Find the nature, position and size of the image formed.
[
A. f = + 12 cm; u = – 18 cm; v = ?; hi = ?, m = ? ho = 10 cm.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
f v u v f u 12 18 36
v = 36 cm.
250
hi v h 36
i
ho u h0 18 = – 2 cm.
hi = – 2 × 10 or – 20 cm.
Nature of image formed :
i) Image is real and inverted.
ii) Image is formed on the other side of the lens.
(iii) Image is enlarged in size.
131. A concave mirror has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a 4 cm tall object be
placed so that it forms a real image at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror ? Also calculate the size of the image
formed.
A. Focal length f = – 20 cm
Height of the object h = 4 cm.
Distance of the image V = – 30 cm.
Using mirror formula.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
u –60 cm
f v u –20 –30 u u 60
The magnification is
hi v h (30)
m i hi –0.5 cm
ho u 4 cm 60
OR
A real image 2/3rd of the size of an object is formed by a convex lens when the object is at a distance of 12 cm
from it. Find the focal length of the lens.
A. The image formed is real. (convex lens forms dimished real image)
2
m ; u = – 12 cm;
3
v 2 v
m v8
u 3 12
1 1 1 1 1 1 5
f v u f 8 12 24
f = 4.8 cm
251
D. Very Long Type Questions and Answers : (5 marks each)
132. A student wants to project the sharp image of a candle flame on a screen 80 cm in front of a mirror by keeping
the candle flame at a distance of 20 cm from its pole.
(i) Which mirror should the student use ?
(ii) Find the magnification of the image produced ?
(iii) Find the distance between the object and its image ?
(iv) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case and mark the distance between the object
and its image.
A. Candle
Mirror
20 cm
Screen
80 cm
(i) To obtain image on screen it must be real.
So, student must use concave mirror
v
(ii) m =
u
Here v = –80 cm, u = –20 cm
80
m= =–4
u 20
(iii) distance between object and image = (80 – 20) = 60 cm (As clear from figure)
60cm
(iv)
O
F P
1
133. The linear magnification produced by a spherical mirror is . Analysing this value, state
5
(i) the type of spherical mirror used and (ii) the position of object with respect to pole of the mirror.
Draw the ray diagram to justify your answer.
252
1
A. (i) m
5
Negative magnification implies image is inverted. It means image must be real. Thus mirror must be concave
hI 1
(ii) Since
ho 5
1
i.e. height of image is th height of object, image is diminished.
5
So, object must be somewhere beyond centre of curvature.
F
O C P
134. A spherical mirror produces an image of magnification -1 on a screen placed at a distance of 50 cm from the
mirror.
(i) Write the type of mirror.
(ii) Find the distance of the image from the object
(iii) What is the focal length of the mirror ?
(iv) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
A. (i) Since image is obtained on screen, it is real.
So, mirror must be concave.
(ii) Here, v = –50 cm, m = –1
v v
We know, m 1
u u
u = v = – 50 cm
Distance of image from pole = 50 cm. Since image and object are at same position, distance of the image
from the object = 0
(iii) Using mirror equation –
1 1 1 uv 50 50
f 25 cm
v u f u v 50 50
(iv)
C F
253
135. Draw a ray diagram in each of the following cases to show the position and nature of the image formed when
the object is placed.
(i) at the centre of curvature of concave mirror.
(ii) between the pole ‘P’ and focus ‘F’ of concave mirror.
(iii) between the pole ‘P’ and infinity of a convex mirror.
(iv) at 2F1 of convex lens.
(v) at infinity in front of a concave lens.
A. (i)
C F P
(ii)
C F O P I
(iii)
F C
(iv)
F 2F
2F F O
(v)
F2 O F1
254
136. One half of a convex lens is covered with black paper.
(i) Show the formation of image of object placed at 2F1 of such covered lens with the help of ray diagram.
Mention the position and nature of image
(ii) Draw the ray diagram of the same object at same position in front of the same lens, but now uncovered.
Will there be any difference in image obtained in the two cases? Give reasons for your answers.
A.
F 2F
2F F O
Black paper
Object placed at 2F image will be formed at 2F on other side image will be real and inverted
F 2F
2F F O
Even if half of convex lens is covered with black paper, the lens will produce a complete image.
However the intensity of the image will be less in case one half is covered cover as all rays will not involve in
formation of image. So, it will be less brighter (intensity becomes half if half of the lens is covered).
137. (i) Explain the term refractive index. Differentiate between relative and absolute refractive index.
(ii) A coin in a beaker appears above than its actual level as the beaker is slowly filled with water. Explain why?
A. (i) Refractive Index of a medium – It is defined as the ratio of speed of light in air or vacuum to the speed of
light in the medium.
c
i.e. n =
v
Thus, for a given light, denser is the medium, lesser will be the speed of light and so greater will be the refractive
index
Relative Refractive Index
i medium 1
medium 2
r
Consider a ray of light travelling from medium 1 in to medium 2.
If v 1 = speed of light in medium 1
v 2 = speed of light in medium 2
then n21 (Refractive Index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1) is given by
255
v1
n21
v2
If medium 1 is vacuum then it is called as absolute refractive index of 2
c
i.e. n21 n2
v
where v = speed of light in medium 2
(ii)
Apparent
depth
I Real depth
O
A coin in a beaker appears above with respect to its actual level due to refraction. Since water is denser with
respect to air. As light ray pass from water surface it bends away from normal and coin’s apparent image is
formed somewhat above as shown in figure.
138. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 5 cm.
(i) Draw a ray diagram showing the formation of image.
(ii) State two characteristics of the image formed.
(iii) Calculate the distance of the image from mirror.
A. (i)
P
F C
10 cm
5 cm
(ii) Image formed will be virtual and erect
(iii) Here f = +5 cm (convex mirror)
u = – 10 cm
Using mirror equation
1 1 1 1 1 1 fu 5 10 50 10
v cm
u v f v f u u f 10 5 15 3
10
Distance of image from mirror = = 3.33 cm.
3
139. (i) Which property of concave mirror is utilised for using them as shaving mirrors ?
256
(ii) Light passes through a rectangular glass slab and through a triangular glass prism. Using proper ray
diagram, explain in what way does the direction of the two emergent beams differs with respect to the
incident beam of light.
(iii) A concave lens has a focal length of 50 cm. Calculate its power.
A. (i) Concave mirrors are preferred over plane mirrors for shaving because concave mirrors form highly magnified,
erect and virtual image when object is placed between pole and focus.
i
(ii) air
glass
r
e
air
when light ray passes through a rectangular glass slab angle of incidence = angle of emergence
i.e i = e
thus direction of emergent beam is same in direction of incident. Only it suffers a lateral shift.
A
Q
i r1 r2 e
R
P S
B C
In case of triangular prism, incident ray PQ as shown does not travel straight. It bends along QR and
emerges in the direction RS. The total angle by which the light ray is bent on being refracted twice by prism
is called angle of deviation. It is shown by .
(iii) f = – 50 cm (concave lens)
100 100
P 2D
f in cm 50
Power of lens is –2 D
140. Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image-distance (v) with object-distance (u) in case
of a convex lens and answer the questions that follow without doing any calculations :
S.No. Object-Distance u (cm) Image-Distance v (cm)
1 –100 +25
2 –60 +30
3 –40 +40
4 –30 +60
5 –25 +100
6 –15 +120
(a) What is the focal length of the convex lens ? Give reason to justify your answer.
257
(b) Write the serial number of the observation which is not correct. On what basis have you arrived at this
conclusion?
(c) Select an appropriate scale and draw a ray diagram for the observation at S.No.2. Also find the approximate
value of magnification.
A. (a) The focal length of the convex lens can be calculated from the S. no - 3 as when an object is placed at a
distance from the convex lens; its image is formed on the other side of the lens at the same distance from
the lens. So, the focal length is 20 cm.
(b) S. No- 6 is incorrect as the object distance is between focus and optical centre so the image will be erect
and virtual with image distance being negative rather a real image with an image distance being postive.
(c) u = – 60 cm; v = + 30 cm; f = – 20 cm
v 30 1
m = –0.5
u 60 2
B¢
B 2F F O F
2
2F 2
1 1
A¢
141. (a) If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always diminished, erect
and virtual, state the type of the mirror and also draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Write one use
such mirrors are put to and why.
(b) Define the radius of curvature of spherical mirrors. Find the nature and focal length of a spherical mirror
whose radius of curvature is + 24 cm.
A. (a) The mirror is a convex mirror as convex mirror always from an image which is virtual, erect and diminished.
When the object is placed in front of the mirror. The ray diagram is as follows:
A
A¢
B P B¢ F C
Use of such mirror:
(1) In vehicles – Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles, because the image obtained
with the help of a convex mirror is highly diminished in size and thus gives a wider field of view.
(b) The distance between the centre of curvature and pole of a spherical mirror is called radius of curvature.
R 24
f 12 cm . It is a convex mirror..
2 2
142. (a) In the context of spherical mirrors, define the following terms :
(i) Pole
(ii) Centre of curvature
258
(iii) Principal axis
(iv) Focal length
b) An object of 5 cm length is placed at a distance of 30 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm.
Find the position and size of the image formed. [
A. (a) (i) Pole : It is the centre of reflecting surface. It is represented by letter ‘P’.
(ii) Centre of curvature : The centre of the sphere of which the mirror forms the part. It is represented
by’C’.
(iii) Principal axis : The straight line joining the pole (P) and the centre of curvature ‘C’. It is normal to the
mirror at its pole.
(iv) Focal length : The distance between the pole and the principal focus of a spherical mirror is called
focal length. It is represented by f.
(b) ho = + 5cm; u = – 30 cm; f = – 20 cm; hi = ?; v = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
f v u v f u 20 30 20 30
1 30 20 30 20
v 60 cm
v 30 20 –10
hi v 60
m hi 5 –10 cm
hO u 30
The image is inverted and enlarged.
143. (a) State the laws of refraction of light. Express the absolute refractive index of a medium in terms of the speed
of light.
3 4
(b) The absolute refractive indices of glass and water are and respectively. If the speed of light in glass
2 3
is 2 x 108 m/s, find the speed of light (i) in vacuum, and (ii) in water
A. (a) The laws of refraction of light are:
(i) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two media at the point of
incidence all lie in the same plane.
(ii) The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is constant for the light of a given
colour and for the given pair of media. This constant is known as the refractive index of the second
medium with respect to the first. This law is also known as Snell’s law of refraction.
sini
sin r
Absolute refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of velocity of light in vacuum to the velocity of
light in the medium.
C
V
= Absolute refraction index of a medium.
C = Velocity of light in vacuum
V = Velocity of light in medium
259
3 4
(b) g w
2 3
Speed of light in vacuum
medium
Speed of light in the medium
Speed of light in glass = 2 × 10 m/s
3
Speed of light in vacuum 2 108 3 108 m/s
2
3 10 8
Speed of light in water = 2.25 × 108 m/s
4
3
144. (a) What are spherical lenses ? What are two types of these lenses ? Explain in brief the meanings of the
following terms :
(i) Principal axis
(ii) Optical centre
(iii) Aperture
(b) A burning candle and a screen are placed 60 cm apart. When a spherical lens is placed exactly in the
middle of the two, a distinct image of the flame is obtained on the screen. What is the nature and focal
length of the lens ? Also state the nature and size of the image formed.
A. (a) Spherical lenses are a piece of a transparent medium bounded by at least one spherical surface.
There are two types of spherical lenses:
(i) Convex or converging lenses.
(ii) Concave or diverging lenses.
The meaining of the terms :
(i) Principal axis : The axis of a lens is a straight line passing through the optical centre and the centre of
curvature of two surfaces of a lens.
(ii) Optical Centre : The centre point of a lens which is on the principal axis of the lens. The optical centre
is represented by letter O.
(iv) Aperture : It is the diameter of the opening through which the light enters the lens or on which the
refraction takes place.
(b) u = – 30 cm; v = 30 cm; f = ?
1 1 1 1 1 30
f 15 cm
v u f 30 30 m 30 1
Nature of lens : Convex lens
Nature of image : Real; inverted and same size.
OR
(a) In the context of spherical mirrors, define the following terms :
(i) Pole
260
(ii) Centre of curvature
(iii) Principal axis
(iv) Focal length
(b) An object of size 4 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm.
Find the distance of the image from the mirror and size of the image formed.
A. (a) In context of spherical mirror:
i) Pole : The centre of the reflecting surface of the mirror.
ii) Centre of curvature : The centre of the hollow sphere of which the reflecting surface of mirror is a part
of.
iii) Principal axis : The straight line passing through the pole and the centre of curvature of a spherical
mirror.
iv) Focal length : The length between the pole and and principal focus.
(b) Concave mirror
u = –15 cm; f = –10 cm; ho = +4 cm; v = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
f v u v f u v 10 15
1 1 1 1 15 10 15 10
v 30 cm
v 10 15 v 15 10 5
v = – 30 cm
v 30
m 2
u 15
hi v
hi 4 2 8 cm
hO u
Therfore, the image is real, magnified and inverted.
145. An object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm.
(i) Use lens formula to find the distance of the image from the lens.
(ii) List four characteristics of the image (nature, position, size, erect/inverted) formed by the lens in this case.
(iii) Draw ray diagram to justify your answer of part (ii).
A. Concave lens:
(i) f = – 30 cm; u = – 60 cm; v = ?
Lens formula :
1 1 1
f v u
261
1 1 1 1 1 1
30 v 60 v 30 60
v = – 20 cm
v 20 1
m
u 60 3
(ii) The characteristics of the image formed:
Nature : Virtual and erect.
position : Same side as the object
1
Size : Diminished. of the object
3
M
(iii)
A
Object A¢
B
2F1 F1 B¢ O F2 2F2
Image
30 cm
N
60 cm
146. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm.
(i) Use lens formula to determine the distance of the image from the lens.
(ii) List four characteristics of the image (nature position, size, erect/inverted) in this case.
(iii) Draw a labelled diagram to justify your answer of part (ii)
A. (i) Concave lens.
f = – 30 cm; u = – 30 cm; v = ?
1 1 1
Lens formula :
f v u
1 1 1 1 1 1
v –15 cm
30 v 30 v 30 30
u 15 1
m
v 30 2
(ii) The characteristics of the image formed:
Nature : Virtual and erect.
262
Position : Same side as the object.
1
Size : Diminished of the object
2
(iii) M
A
A¢
B
2F1 F1 B¢ O F2 2F2
15 cm
30 cm
N
147. A 6 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm. The
distance of the object from the mirror is 45 cm. Use mirror formula to determine the position, nature and size of
the image formed. Also draw labelled ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
A. Concave mirror.
hO = +6 cm; f = – 30 cm, u = – 45 cm; v = ?; hi = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1
f v u v f u
1 1 1
30 45 v
v = – 90 cm
hi v –90
m 2 –2
ho u 45
hi
2 hi 2 6 12 cm
hO
Nature : real and inverted.
Position : 90 cm in the same side as the object
Size : 12 cm; enlarged.
B¢
C B F
A¢ 30 cm
45 cm
263
OR
An object 6 cm in size is placed at 50 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. At what distance from
the lens should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp image of the object ? Find the nature and size of
the image. Also draw labelled ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
A. Convex lens.
hO = +6 cm; u = –50 cm; f = + 30 cm
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Lens formula =
f v u v f u 30 50
v = + 75 cm
hi v hi 75
or hi = – 9 cm
h O u 6 cm 50
Nature : Real and inverted
Position : 75.5 cm that is beyond 2F2.
Size : +9.06 cm; magnified
A
75.5 cm
Object
B¢
2F1 B F1 O F2 2F2
object
50cm
30cm
60cm A¢
148. List four characteristics of the images formed by plane mirrors.
A 5 cm tall object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm. Use mirror
formula to determine the position and size of the image formed.
A. The four characteristics of the mages formed by a plane mirror:
a) Always virtual and erect.
b) The size of image is same as the object
c) The distance of image from the mirror is same as the distance of the object in front of it.
d) The image is laterally inverted.
Concave mirror
hO = 5 cm; u = –20 cm; f = –30 cm; v = ?; hi = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
f v u v f u v 30 20 v 30 20
1 20 30 30 20
v 60 cm
v 30 20 10
264
hi v 60
m hi 5 15
hO u 20
Nature : Virtual; Magnified and erect.
Position : 60 cm behind the mirror.
Size : 15 cm; magnified.
A¢
C FB P B¢
60 cm
20 cm
30 cm
149. (a) List four characteristics of the image formed by a convex lens when an object is placed between its optical
centre and principal focus.
1
(b) Size of the image of an object by a concave lens of focal length 20 cm is observed to be reduced to rd
3
of its size. Find the distance of the object from the lens.
A. (a) The characteristics of the image formed by a convex lens when an object is placed between its optical
centre and principal focus are as follow.
(i) Its virtual
(ii) The image formed is upright.
(iii) The image formed is magnified.
(iv) The image formed is on the same side of the object.
1 1 1
(b) focal length f = –20 cm. m or m when size reduced to rd of its size..
3 3 3
Magnification for concave lens is always positive (virtual image)
1 v 1 v
So, m , or m u 3v ...(i)
3 u 3 u
Using lens formula.
1 1 1 1 1 1 40
v
f v u 20 v 3v 3
u = – 40 cm.
Hence the distance of the object is 40 cm from the lens.
150. (a) A 5 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. The
distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm. Find the position, nature and size of the image formed.
(b) Draw a labelled ray diagram showing object distance, image distance and focal length in the above case.
265
A. (a) Convex lens.
hO = + 5 cm; f = 20 cm; u = –30 cm
Using len’s formula
1 1 1 1 1 1
v 60 cm
f v u 20 v 30
The image is formed at 60 cm on other side from the lens.
v 60
m 2
u –30
Image is real and innerted.
hi
Size of image h m hi –2 5 –10 cm
O
Position : The image is formed at 60 cm on other side of lens.
Nature : Image is real and inverted.
Size : The image is of 10 cm.
M
A
Object
B¢
2F1 B F1 O F2 2F2
30 cm 20 cm Image
N
A¢
E. Assertion Reasoning:
1. Assertion: If a ray of light is incident on a convex mirror along its principal axis, then the angle of incidence
as well as the angle of reflection for a ray of light will be zero.
Reason: A ray of light going towards the centre of curvature of a convex mirror is reflected back along the
same path.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
2. Assertion: Light is able to reach the earth from the sun.
Reason: Light rays can travel in vaccum.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
3. Assertion: A convex lens is made of two different materials. A point object is placed on the principal axis.
The number of images formed by the lens will be two.
Reason: The image formed by convex lens is always virtual.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
4. Assertion: In the case of concave mirror, the minimum distance between real object and its real image is
zero. Reason: If concave mirror forms virtual image of real object, the image is magnified.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
266
F. Cased Based Questions:
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: The curved surface of a spoon can be
considered as a spherical mirror. A highly smooth polished surface is called mirror. The mirror whose
reflecting surface is curved inwards or outwards is called a spherical mirror. Inner part works as a concave
mirror and the outer bulging part acts as a convex mirror. The center of the reflecting surface of a spherical
mirror is called pole and the radius of the sphere of which the mirror is formed is called radius of curvature.
(a) When a concave mirror is held towards the sun and its sharp image is formed on a piece of carbon
paper for some time, a hole is burnt in the carbon paper. What is the name given to the distance
between the mirror and carbon paper?
(b) On what factors does the focal length of a spherical mirror depend?
(c) Name the type of mirror used in the designing of solar furnaces. Explain how can high temperature is
achieved by this device.
(d) List two possible ways in which a concave mirror can produce a magnified image of an object placed in
front of it. State the difference if any between these two images.
A. (a) The focal length of a concave mirror is the distance between its pole and principal focus.
(b) Focal length of a spherical mirror depends on radius of curvature of the mirror.
(c) Concave mirrors are used in designing of solar furnaces. When a solar furnace is placed at the focus
of a large concave mirror, it focuses a parallel beam of light on the furnace. Therefore, a high
temperature is attained at the point after some time.
(d) Concave mirror can produce a magnified image of an object when object is placed: (i) in between its pole
and its focus, (ii) in between its focus and its centre of curvature. Difference between these two images:
The image produced in first case will be virtual and erect. The image produced in second case will be real
and inverted.
267
TOPIC : HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD
A. Brief answer to important questions.
1. The human eye can focus objects at different distances by adjusting focal length of the eye lens. What is this
ability called ?
A. Accomodation
2. A student has difficulty in reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row. What could be the defect the child
is suffering from ? How can it be corrected ?
A. Myopia. Using spectacles having diverging lens of suitable power.
3. Where is image formed in the human eye ?
A. Retina
4. What is the far point of the eye ?
A. Infinity
5. What is the function of ciliary muscles ?
A. To change the focal length of eye lens.
6. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects closer than 25 cm ?
A. Because the light rays coming from object meet beyond the retina.
7. State one function of crystalline lens in the eye.
A. Crystalline lens can easily change its focal length to focus objects placed at different distances.
8. State two properties of image formed by the eye lens on the retina.
A. Real and Inverted
9. State one function of cornea.
A. Cornea functions like a window that controls and focuses the entry of light into the eye (Cornea provides
refractive power in addition to eye lens).
10. What is bifocal lens ?
A. Lenses with two distinct optical powers.
11. Why do aged people mostly suffer from hypermetropia ?
A. This defect arises due to increase in curvature of the eye lens as elasticity of eye lens decreases with aging.
OR
Increase in focal length of the eye lens as elasticity of eye lens decreases with aging.
OR
The eye ball becomes too small
268
12. What is the function of optic nerve ?
A. It carries nerve impulses to the brain.
13. How are we able to see nearby as well as the distant objects clearly ?
A. By accomodation (By changing the focal length of eye lens with the help of ciliary muscles)
14. Name two parts of the eye which refract light rays.
A. Cornea, Crystalline lens
15. Name the part of eye which act like a photographic film.
A. Retina
16. Name the part of eye which is insensitive to light ?
A. Blank spot
17. In which part of the human eye is the image of an object formed?
A. Retina
18. Sushil went to an eye specialist for check up. He prescribed him to use spectacle lens of 0.1 D. Find the focal
length.
1 1
A. P = 0.1D ; F 10m
P 0.1
19. Explain giving reason the type of lens used to correct Myopia.
A. Concave lens
Reason : Power of lens should be –ve
20. Study the following ray diagram
In this diagram, the angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of deviation respectively have
been represented by
(A) y, p, z (B) x, q, z
(C) p, y, z (D) p, z, y [Year - 2017]
A. (C) p, y, z
269
21. A student has traced the path of a ray of light passing through a glass slab for i = 40°. If he has performed the
experiment methodically observing all necessary precautions, then the measured values of r and e should
be around
(A) r = 30°; e = 40° (B) r = 24°; e = 36°
(C) r = 24°; e = 40° (D) r = 40°; e = 26° [Year - 2017]
A. r = 24° ; e = 40°
22. After tracing the path of a ray of light through a glass prism for four different values of i, every ray diagram
was analysed and the following conclusions were drawn :
I. On entering the prism, the ray bends towards its base.
II. While emerging from the prism, the ray further bends towards its base.
III. The emergent ray bends at a certain angle to the direction of the incident ray.
Thecorrect conclusions are
(A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I and III only (D) I, II and III
A. (D) I, II and III
23. Name the phenomenon responsible for the twinkling of stars in the sky.
A. The atmospheric refraction is the phenomenon that is the reason for the twinkling of stars.
24. Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut ?
A. The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut because there is no atmosphere in the outer space that
can scatter the sunlight. As the sunlight is not scattered, no scattered light reach the eyes of the astronauts and
the sky appears black to them.
Multiple-Choice Type Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
25. The image formed on retina of human eye is
(A) Virtual and erect (B) Real and inverted (C) Virtual and inverted (D) Real and erect
A. (B) Real and inverted
26. The change in the focal length of human eye is caused due to
(A) Ciliary muscles (B) Pupil (C) Cornea (D) Iris
A. (A) Ciliary muscles
27. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is
(A) 25 m (B) 20 m (C) 25 cm (D) 20 cm
A. (C) 25 cm
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28. The persistence of vision for human eye is
(A) 1/10th of a second (B) 1/16th of a second (C) 1/6th of the second (D) 1/18th of a second
A. (B) 1/16th of a second
29. The light sensitive cell present on retina and is sensitive to the intensity of light is:
(A) Cones (B) Rods (C) Both rods and cones (D) None of these
A. (B) Rods
30. The phenomena of light responsible for the working of the human eye is
(A) Reflection (B) Refraction
(C) Power of accommodation (D) Persistence of vision
A. (B) Refraction
31. Which of the following colours is least scattered by fog, dust of smoke?
(A) Violet (B) Blue (C) Red (D) Yellow
A. (C) Red
32. The coloured light that refracts most while passing through a prism is
(A) Yellow (B) Violet (C) Blue (D) Red
A. (B) Violet
33. The amount of light entering the human eye is controlled by
(A) Ciliary muscles (B) Pupil (C) Cornea (D) Iris
A. (B) Pupil
34. The part of the eyes refracts light entering the eye from external objects is
(A) Lens (B) Cornea (C) Iris (D) Pupil
A. (B) Cornea
35. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power
(A) +0.5 D (B) –0.5 D (C) +0.2 D (D) –0.2 D
A. (B) –0.5 D
36. A student sitting on the last bench can read the letters written on the blackboard but is not able to read the letters
written in his text book. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The near point of his eyes has receded away
(B) The near point of his eyes has come closer to him
(C) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him
(D) The far point of his eyes has receded away
A. (A) The near point of his eyes has receded away
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37. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different orientations. A narrow beam of white light is incident on the
prism as shown in figure. In which of the following cases, after dispersion, the third colour from the top corresponds
to the colour of the sky?
(A) A (B) C B (C) C (D) C
A A
B C A
B B
A. (B) C B
38. At noon, the sun appears white as
(A) light is least scattered
(B) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
(C) blue colour is scattered the most
(D) red colour is scattered the most
A. (A) light is least scattered
39. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(A) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
(B) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(C) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
(D) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
A. (C) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
40. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric
(A) dispersion of light by water droplets
(B) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(C) scattering of light by dust particles
(D) internal reflection of light by clouds
A. (B) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
41. The clear sky appears blue, because
(A) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere
(B) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
(C) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the atmosphere
(D) light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the atmosphere
A. (C) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the atmosphere
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42. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of different colours of white light
in air?
(A) Red light moves fastest
(B) Blue light moves faster than green light
(C) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed
(D) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet light
A. (C) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed
43. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen from a
distance because among all other colours, the red light
(A) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(B) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(C) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(D) moves fastest in air
A. (B) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
44. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to
(A) the presence of algae and other plants found in water
(B) reflection of sky in water
(C) scattering of light
(D) absorption of light by the sea
A. (C) scattering of light
45. When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the
(A) crystalline lens (B) outer surface of the cornea
(C) iris (D) pupil
A. (B) outer surface of the cornea
46. The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles
(A) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
(B) contract and lens becomes thicker
(C) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker
(D) contract and lens becomes thinner
A. (A) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
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47. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
(B) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly
(C) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
(D) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly
A. (C) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
48. When the eye is focused on an object very far away, the focal length of the eye-lens is
(A) half its maximum focal length
(B) equal to that of the crystalline lens
(C) minimum
(D) maximum
A. (D) maximum
49. For the myopic eye, the far point is farther away than normal.
(A) True (B) False
A. (B) False
50. Other names for myopia are
(A) near-sightedness and short-sightedness
(B) long-sightedness and hyperopia
(C) near-sightedness and presbyopia
(D) hyperopia and hypermetropia
A. (A) near-sightedness and short-sightedness
51. A deviation in the path of a ray of light can be produced
(A) neither by a glass prism nor by a rectangular glass slab
(B) by a rectangular glass slab but not by a glass prism
(C) by a glass prism as well as a rectangular glass slab
(D) by a glass prism but not by a rectangular glass slab
A. (D) by a glass prism but not by a rectangular glass slab
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52. When white light passes through a prism, it splits into its component colours. This phenomenon is called
(A) spectrum (B) refraction (C) dispersion (D) reflection
A. (C) dispersion
53. A parallel beam of light falling on the eye gets focus on the retina because of refractions at
(A) various surfaces in the eye (B) the vitreous humour
(C) the cornea (D) the crystaline lens
A. (A) various surfaces in the eye
54. The combination responsible for admitting different amounts of light into the eye is
(A) ciliary muscles and crystalline lens (B) iris and pupil
(C) ciliary muscles and pupil (D) rods and cone
A. (B) iris and pupil
55. The inability among the elderly to see nearby objects clearly because of the weakening of the ciliary muscles is
called
(A) presbyopia (B) myopia (C) far-sightedness (D) near-sightedness
A. (A) presbyopia
B. Very Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks each)
56. What is the least distance of distinct vision for young adults with normal vision ? What do we call it ?
A. 25 cm, It is called near point
57. Why do our eyes get closed in very bright light ?
A. As a response to changes in light brightness, the pupil adjusts its size (the opening becomes smaller) as pupil
controls the amount of light entering the eye.
58. Why do most animals have their eyes on the side of the head ?
A. Side eye placement allows greater peripheral or side vision.
59. A person used cylindrical and spherical lens in spectacles. From which type of defect he is suffering ?
A. The person must be suffering from ‘Astigmatism’. He must also be suffering from either Myopia or Hypermetropia.
60. Which type of cells when defective cause colour blindness ?
A. Cone Cells
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61. A student sitting at the back of the classroom cannot read clearly the letters written on the blackboard. What
advice will a doctor give to her ? Draw a ray diagram for the correction of this defect.
A. Doctors prescribes use of concave lens, which is used for correcting myopia as it forms a virtual image of the
distant object between far point and near point of the myopic eye.
62. Why do nocturnal animals tend to have wide pupils with lot of rods in retina ?
A. To facilitate night vision because rods are sensitive to low light conditions.
63. What is cataract ? Can it be corrected by spectacles ? How can it be corrected ?
A. Cataract is a dense cloudy area formed on the eye lens.
No.
It can be corrected by cataract surgery.
64. A person needs a lens of power –5 D for correcting his distant vision. For correcting his near vision, he needs
a lens of power +2 D. Find the focal length of the lens and its nature required for correcting his distant and near
vision separately.
A. (i) Distant Vision
1 1
F m , Nature : Concave lens
P 5
(ii) Near Vision
1 1
F m , Nature : Convex lens
P 2
65. What is Tyndall effect ?
A. It is the phenomenon of light scattering by particles in a colloid or in a very fine suspension
66. Which phenomenon is responsible for making the path of light visible ?
A. Tyndall effect
67. What is spectrum of light ?
A. Light spectrum means the range of wavelength’s of E.M. radiations which our eyes are sensitive to.
276
68. Study the following ray diagram. Identify, the angle of incidence, angle of emergency and the angle of deviation.
z p
y
q
x
A. y angle of incidence p angle of emergence z angle of deviation
69. ???
A. ???
70. Define the term power of accommodation. Write the modification in the curvature of the eye lens which enables
us to see the nearby objects clearly ? [Year - 2019]
A. The term “Power of accommodation” of human eye refers to the ability of an eye to change the focal length of
the eye lens.
To focus on nearby objects, the ciliary muscles contracts making the eye lens thick. As a result the focal length
of the eye lens decreases and we see the nearby objects.
71. Write the structure of eye lens and state the role of ciliary muscles in the human eye. [Year - 2019]
A. Eye lens is bi-convex lens which is transparent and made of fibrous jelly like material.
Ciliary muscles hold the lens in position. The image of the objects at different distances from the eye are
brought to focal length of the eye-lens, which is composed of fibrous jelly-like material; and can be modified to
some extend by the ciliary muscles.
72. What happens to the image distance in the normal human eye, when we decrease the distance of an object,
say 10 m to 1 m ? Justify your answer. [Year - 2019]
A. There is no change to the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an object from the eye.
To see closer or distant objects clearly, the eye, due to its ability to accommodation; can increase or decrease
focal length of its lens, so that the image is always formed at retina.
73. List two phenomena which can be explained on the basis of atmospheric refraction.
A. The two phenomena that can be explained on the based of atmospheric refraction are :
a) Twinkling of stars.
b) Astronomical or celestial refraction causes astronomical objects to appear higher above the horizon than
they actually are.
74. Why is the colour of the clear sky blue ?
A. The molecules of air and other fine particals in the atmosphere have a size smaller than the wavelength of visible
light. As shorter wavelength are scattered by most, so blue light after scattering enters our eyes. So sky
appears blue. (Our eyes are less sensitive to violet colour)
75. A glass prism is able to produce a spectrum when white light passes through it but a rectangular block of same
transparent glass does not produce any spectrum. Why ? [Year - 2019]
A. In a parallel glass slab, the rays are refracted at both the parallel sides. The net refraction of the light results in
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only the lateral displacement of the white light and the net deviation of the white light to be zero, without splitting
into its constituent colours. In case of a prism, due to its angular sides, there is a net deviation. Therefore, when
white light passes through it, each of the constituent wavelength of light undergoes different extent of deviation,
this results in the dispersion of white light into its constituent colours.
76. List two causes of presbyopia. Draw labelled diagram of a lens used for the correction of this defect of vision.
[Year - 2019]
A. Presbyopia is caused by hardening of the lens of an eye, which occurs with aging. As our lens becomes less
flexible, it can no longer change shape to focus on close-up images. As a result, these images appear out of
focus.
(i) Myopic eye (ii) Correction for myopic with
concave lens
(i) Hypermetropic eye (ii) Correction for hypermetropic eye
C. Short Questions and Answers : (3 marks each)
77. A person may suffer from both myopia and hypermetropia defects.
(a) What is this condition called?
(b) When does it happen?
(c) Name the type of lens often required by the persons suffering from this defect. Draw labelled diagram of
such lenses.
A. (a) This condition is called presbyopia.
(b) It happens due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of eye lens due to
agening.
(c) It can be corrected by using bifocal lenses.
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78. Akshay, sitting in the last row in his class, could not see clearly the words written on the blackboard. When the
teacher noticed it, he announced if any student sitting in the front row could volunteer to exchange his seat with
Akshay. Salman immediately agreed to exchange his seat with Akshay. He could not see the words written on
the blackboard clearly. The teacher thought it fit to send the message to Akshay’s parents, advising them to get
his eyesight checked.
In the context of the above event, answer the following questions :
(a) Which defect of vision is Akshay suffering from ? Which type of lens is used to correct this defect ?
(b) State the values displayed by the teacher and Salman.
(c) In your opinion, in what way can Akshay express his gratitude towards the teacher and Salman ?
A. a) Defect - Myopia. Concave lens
b) Caring nature
c) By appreciation and regards
79. Draw a ray diagram showing refraction of light through a glass prism and mark the following :
(i) Incident ray (ii) Emergent ray
(iii) Refracted ray (iv) Angle of incidence
(v) Angle of deviation (vi) Angle of emergence
A.
e
R.R E.R
I.R
i angle of incidence
e angle of emergence
angle of deviation
80. Compute the power of the lens required for remedy a hypermetropic eye with its near point at 50 cm from the
eye ? (given : Least distance of distinct vision = 25 cm.)
A. u = – 25 cm
v = – 50 cm
1 1 1 1
f = 0.5 m P = =2D
f v u f
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81. A man cannot see the object distinctly; when it is placed at a distance of 100 cm. Calculate the power of the lens
he should be using to see clearly the object placed at a distance of 25 cm from his eyes ?
A. u = – 25 cm
v = – 100 cm
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 100
=– = 1 f cm P = 3 D
f v u 100 25 25 100 25 4 100 3
82. Angle of refraction made by a ray of light incident on first face of a regular prism is 40°. How much is the angle
of incidence on second face ? If ng = 1.6, find the angle of emergence.
A. r1 + r 2 = A
40° + r2 = 60°
r2 = 20° e
r1 r2
ng sin 20° = 1 × sine
sine = 1.6 sin 20°
e = sin–1 (1.6 sin 20°)
83. A girl uses spectacles of focal length –40 cm. Which lens is used for correction of the defect ? Compute the
power of the lens.
A. Concave lens
40
F = – 40 cm = m
100
1 100 1
P= m = –2.5 D
F 40
84. State the cause of dispersion of white light by a glass prism. How did Newton, using two identical glass prisms,
show that white light is made of seven colours ? Draw a ray diagram to show the path of a narrow beam of white
light, through a combination of two identical prisms arranged together in inverted position with respect to each
other, when it is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the faces of the first prism of the combination.
[Year - 2017]
A. Light rays of different colour travel with the same speed in vacuum and air but in any other medium, they
travel with the different speeds and bend through the different angles, which leads to the dispersion of light.
Newton showed that the reverse of dispersion of light is also possible. He kept two prisms close to each other,
one in erect position and the other in an inserted position.
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The light gets dispersed when it passes through the first prism.
The second prism receives all the seven coloured rays from the first prism and recombines them into the
original white light. This observation shows that the sunlight is a white light made up a seven colours.
A P2 (Second position) Screen
Recombination ht
Dispersion ite li g
light Wh
White R
P1 (First position) A
85. A person needs a lenses of power +2.0 D for the correction of his vision.
(a) Name the defect of vision the person is suffering from. Write two causes of this defect.
(b) What is the nature and focal length of the corrective lenses ?
A. Power of lens = +2.0D
(a) Defect : Hypermetropia
Cases of this defect :
(i) Low converging power of eye lens because of weak action of ciliary muscles.
(ii) It may occur when the eyeball is too short or the cornea is misshapen.
(b) Nature : Convex lens.
1 1 1
p f 0.5 m 50 cm
f p 2
86. Trace the sequence of events which occur when a bright light is focused on your eyes.
[Year - 2019]
A. When a bright light is focused on eye, the receptor cell receives the message and passes on to the sensory
neuron, which then goes to the brain, the brain reverts back the message by the motor neuron, which contracts
the eye muscle causing the eye lids to blink and contract the pupil.
87. What is a rainbow? Draw a labelled diagram to show the formation of a rainbow. [Year - 2019]
A. A rainbow is a band of colours. It is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after rain. It is formed by the
dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets in the sky. The water droplets acts as tiny prisms. The light strikes
the outer surface of the droplet undergoes refraction as it enters the droplet. The light ray strikes the inner
surface of the droplet and undergoes internal reflection to strike the opposite inner surface and moves out
going through refraction. This ray is dispersed into the seven rainbow colours. The multiple refraction and the
internal reflection gives rise to a rainbow.
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ion
f ract
Sunlight Re
(White light) R
V
d
Re Raindrop
Internal
Reflection
le t
Vi o R
efr
ac t
ion
88. What happens to a beam of white light when it gets refracted through a glass prism ? Which colour deviates the
most and the least after refraction through a prism ? What is likely to happen if a second identical prism is
placed in an inverted position with respect to the first prism ? Justify your answer.
A. The beam of white light when it gets refracted through a glass prism, gets dispersed into its seven component
colours i.e. VIBGYOR
Violet colour deviates the most and Red colour deviates the least.
Reverse dispersion of light will take place when a second identical prism is placed in an inverted position with
respect to the first prism.
Newton showed that the white light gets dispersed into its 7 component when it colours passes through the first
prism. The second inverted prism receives all the seven coloured rays from the 1st prism and recombines them
into the original white light.
OR
A student needs spectacles of power – 0.5 D for the correction of his vision.
(i) Name the defect in vision the student is suffering from.
(ii) Find the nature and focal length of the corrective lens.
(iii) List two causes of this defect. [Year - 2019]
A. Power = – 0.5 D
(i) Defect : Myopia
(ii) Nature : Concave
1 1
Focal Length : 2 m = (–) 200 cm
p 0.5
(iii) Causes of this defect :
a) Excessive curvature of the eye lens, causing the focal length to be small.
b) The eyeball gets elongated along its axis so that the distance between the eyelens and the retina
becomes larger.
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89. What is atmospheric refraction ? Explain with the help of a labelled diagram that the position of a star as seen
by us is not its true position.
A. Atmospheric refraction can be defined as the phenomenon in which light deviates from its straight line path due
to refraction at various air density levels as the height varies.
The stars twinkles due to refraction of light from star through the atmosphere. The stars emit their own light. The
light coming from the stars on entering the earth’s atmosphere undergoes refraction continuously at each layer
of atmosphere having different density, before it reaches the earth. The stars are very much distant objects and
may be considered as point sources. The refractive index of the air changes from time to time due to change of
density of air. Due to the change of the optical density of earth’s atmosphere, the path of rays from star
continuously changes. The apparent positions of the stars continuously changes due to the change in refractive
index of the atmosphere. Therefore the position of a star as seen by us is not its true position.
OR
When do we consider a student sitting in the class to be myopic ? List two causes of this defect. Explain using
a ray diagram how this defect of eye can be corrected. [Year - 2019]
A. (i) We consider a student sitting in a class to be myopic, when he/she cannot see the blackboard or a chart
placed ahead of him/her clearly and distinctly. Following are the reasons due to which this defect have
arisen are:
a) Excessive curvature of the eye lens, causing the focal length to be small.
b) The eyeball gets elongated along its axis, so that the distance between the eye lens and the retina
becomes larger
(ii) Concave lens is the corrective lens used to restore proper vision.
Myopic eye
Correction for myopic
D. Long Questions and Answers : (5 marks each)
90. (i) Define angle of deviation. Why do different components of white light splits up into a spectrum, when it
passes through a triangular glass prism ?
(ii) What is rainbow ? State two necessary conditions for the formation of rainbow in the sky.
A. (i) Angle of Deviation : The angle through which the incident ray gets deflected when passed though a prism.
Refractive index is greater for smaller wavelength. Therefore speed of light is greater for red and least for
violet. The extent to which light bends as it passes through a prism depends on its speed. Violet will be most
deviated and Red is least deviated and hence dispersion takes place as white light passes through a prism.
(ii) A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower.
Raindrops and sunlight should be present in the atmosphere.
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91. (i) Define spectrum of light.
(ii) What happens when ray of white light is passed through a triangular glass prism ?
(iii) With the help of diagram show what will happen if another similar glass prism is placed upside down behind
the first prism.
(iv) In the following figure identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ which represent different colours of the spectrum.
w B
A. (i) Spectrum of light : Light spectrum means the visible spectrum and is the range of wavelength of E.M.
radiation which our eyes are sensitive to.
(ii) When white light passes through a prism then each colour is deviated by different angles.
ht
te lig
Recombination Whi
ht
te lig
Whi
(iii)
Dispersion
(iv) A Red
B Violet
92. (i) Explain with the help of diagram how can combination of two prisms be used so that incident white light
emerges out of second prism as white light.
(ii) Name the scientist who performed this activity.
(iii) Explain the term spectrum in brief.
ht
te lig
Recombination Whi
ht
te lig
Whi
A. (i)
Dispersion
(ii) Sir Isaac Newton
(iii) Spectrum of light : Light spectrum means the visible spectrum and is the range of wavelength of E.M.
radiation which our eyes are sensitive to.
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93. An old man wears an eye glass of power – 5.5 dioptres for distant viewing.
He is prescribed by the correction of + 1.5 dioptres by his doctor in the near vision section of his bi-focal lens.
(a) What is the focal length of his distant viewing part of the lens ?
(b) Focal length of his near vision part of the lens.
A. (a) P = –5.5 D
1 1 1 10 2
P F m
F P 5.5 55 11
(b) P = 1.5 D
1 1 10 2
F m
P 1.5 15 3
94. (a) A student suffering from myopia is not able to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m. List two possible
reasons due to which this defect of vision may have arisen. With the help of ray diagrams, explain
(i) why the student is unable to see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m from his eyes.
(ii) the type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision and how this defect is corrected by the use
of this lens.
(b) If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal length of the corrective lens is 5 m, find the power of the lens
as per the new Cartesian sign convention. [Year - 2017]
A. (a) Reason for myopia
Excessive curvature of eye lens
Elongation of eyeball
(i) Because the image of the object is formed infront of retina.
(ii)Concave lens is used to restore proper vision.
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(b) Focal length of concave lens is negative.
f = -5 m
1 1
P 0.2 D
f 5
Hence the power is –0.2D
95. (a) Write the functions of the following parts of a human eye :
(i) Cornea
(ii) Pupil
(iii) Eye lens
(iv) Retina
(b) A boy uses lenses of focal length +2 m in his spectacles. Name the type of defect of vision he is suffering
from and list two main causes of this defect. Also, determine the power of the lenses he is using in his
spectacles [Year - 2017]
A. (a) (i) Cornea : It acts as the eye’s outermost lens. It controls and focuses the entry of light into the eye. The
cornea contributes between 65 - 75 percent of the eye’s total focusing power.
(ii) Pupil : The iris contracts and dilates involuntarily and changes the size of the pupil. Its the papillary
reflex that causes the pupil to dilate.
(iii) Eye lens : is the crystalline lens that helps in the fined adjustment of the focal length required to focus
objects at different distances on the retina.
(iv) Retina : The retina is a thin layer of tissue that lines the back of the eye on the inside. It is located near
the optic nerve. The purpose of the retina is to receive light that the lens has focused, convert the light
into neural signals, and send these signals on to the brain for visual recognition.
(b) Focal length = +2 m
Defect : Hypermetropia
Causes of Hypermetropia
(i) Low converging power of eye lens because of weak actions of ciliary muscles.
(ii) It may occur when the eyeball is too short or the cornea is misshapen.
1 1
P P 0.5 Diopre
f 2
96. (a) A student is unable to see clearly the words written on the black board placed at a distance of approximately
3 m from him. Name the defect of vision the boy is suffering from. State the possible causes of this defect
and explain the method of correcting it.
(b) Why do stars twinkle ? Explain.
A. (a) Defect : Myopia
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Causes of Myopia :
a) Excessive curvature of the eye lens, causing the focal length to be small.
b) The eyeball gets elongated along its axis so that the distance between the eye lens and the retina
becomes larger.
Method of correcting it : Using a corrective lens of nature concave lens.
(b) The star twinkles due to refraction of light from star through the atmosphere. The stars emit their own light.
The light coming from the stars on entering the earth’s atmosphere undergoes refraction continuously at
each layer of atmosphere having different density, before it reaches the earth. The stars are very much
distant objects and may be considered as a point sources. The refractive index of the air changes from
time to time due to change of density of air. Due to the change of the optical density of earth’s atmosphere,
the path of rays from stars continuously changes. The apparent positions of the stars continuously changes
due to the change in refractive index of the atmosphere. Therefore the position of a star as seen by us is
not its true position.
OR
(a) Write the function of each of the following parts of human eye :
(i) Cornea (ii) Iris (iii) Crystalline lens (iv) Ciliary muscles
(b) Will this phenomenon be observed by an astronaut on the Moon ? Give reason to justify your answer.
[Year - 2018]
A. (a) (i) Cornea : It acts as the eye’s outermost lens. It control and focuses the entry of light into the eye. The
cornea contributed between 65 – 75% of the eye’s total focusing power.
(ii) Iris : The iris is a thin, circular structure in the eye, responsible for controlling the diameter and size of
the pupil and thus the amount of light reaching the retina. Eye colour is defined by that of the Iris.
(iii) Crystalline lens : The crystalline lens helps in the fined adjustment of the focal length required to
focus objects at different distances on the retina.
(iv) Ciliary muscles : A circular muscle that relaxes or tighten, to enable the lens to change its shape for
focusing by the power of accommodation.
(b) No, this phenomenon cannot be observed by an astronaut on the moon is because their is no atmosphere
in the outer space that can scatter the sunlight. As the sunlight is not scattered; no scattered light reaches
the eyes of the astronaut and the sky appears black to them.
97. When do we consider a person to be myopic or hypermetropic ? List two causes of hypermetropia. Explain
using ray diagrams how the defect associated with hypermetropic eye can be corrected [Year - 2019]
A. When a person has difficulty in focusing far objects, it is said, that the person is myopic and when the person
has difficulty in focusing near objects , its said that the person is hypermetropic.
Causes of hypermetropia:
i) Low converging power of eye lens, because of weak actions of ciliary muscle.
ii) It may occur when the eye ball is too short or the cornea is misshapen.
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Hypermetropia Corrective lens : Convex lens
Hypermetropic eye can by corected by using a convex lenses, where the lens will bring the image back on to
the retina.
98. What is scattering at light ? Explain how the colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering
particles.
[Year - 2019]
A. Scattering occurs when light or other energy waves passes through an imperfect medium, and are deflected
from a straight path.
The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles. Very fine particles scatter
mainly lights of shorter wavelength i.e. blue light while particles of larger size scatters light of longer
wavelengths i.e. red light. If the size of the particle is very large, the scattered light may appear white.
99. A person is unable to see objects distinctly placed within 50 cm from his eyes.
(a) Name the defect of vision the person is suffering from and list its two possible causes.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the defect in the above case.
(c) Mention the type of lens used by him for the correction of the defect and calculate its power. Assume that
the near point for the normal eye is 25 cm.
(d) Draw a labelled diagram for the correction of the defect in the above case. [Year - 2019]
A. (a) Name of the defect is Hypermetropia which is also known as far-sightedness.
A person with hypermetropia can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distincty.
Causes of hypermetropia :
i) The focal length of the eye lens is too long.
ii) The eyeball is too small.
(b)
Hypermetropic eye
(c) Correction of the defect is done by using convex lens of appropriate power.
In the given case.
Object distance u = (–) 25 cm
Image discance v = (–) 50 cm
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1 1 1 1 1 1 1
P –2 4 2 D
f v u v u –50 25
Power = +2 Dioptre
(d) Correction for hypermetropic eye.
Convex lens
A. Assertion- Reasoning:
1. Assertion: Rainbow is an example of the dispersion of sunlight by the water droplets.
Reason: Light of shorter wavelength is scattered much more than light of larger wavelength.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
2. Assertion: A beam of white light gives a spectrum on passing through a hollow prism.
Reason: Speed of light outside the prism is different as the speed of light inside the prism.
A. (d) Assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct.
3. Assertion: Myopia is due to the increased converging power of the eye lens.
Reason: Myopia can be corrected by using spectacles made from concave lenses.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
4. Assertion: Sky appears blue in the day time.
Reason: White light is composed of seven colours.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
F. Cased Based Questions
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
Atmospheric refraction is the phenomenon of bending of light on passing through earth’s atmosphere. As we
move above the surface of earth, density of air goes on decreasing. Local conditions like temperature etc.,
also affect the optical density of earth’s atmosphere. On account of atmospheric refraction, stars seen appear
higher than they actual are; advanced sunrise; delayed sunset, oval appearance of the sun at sunrise and
sunset; stars twinkle, planets do not.
(i) What is the effect of atmospheric refraction on the apparent length of the day?
(ii) Why is the apparent position of the star appears raised?
(iii) Why does sun appear oval shaped or flattened?
(iv) What are the reason for twinkling of stars and non-twinkling of planets?
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A. (i) Due to atmospheric refraction, apparent length of the day increases by 4 minutes.
(ii) Apparent position of the star appears raised due to atmospheric refraction.
(iii) Due to atmospheric refraction, sun appears oval shaped or flattened.
(iv) Twinkling of stars and non-twinkling of planets is on account of atmospheric refraction
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TOPIC : ELECTRICITY
A. Brief answers to important questions.
1. Define the unit of current.
A. One ampere current is defined as the current flowing through one ohm resistance, when it is connected across
a potential difference of one volt.
2. How is ammeter connected in a circuit to measure current flowing through it?
A. Ammeter is connected in series in a circuit to measure current flowing through it.
3. What happens to the resistance of a conductor when its area of cross section is increased?
A. Resistance of the conductor decreases on increasing its cross-sectional area.
4. Name a device which helps to maintain a potential difference across a conductor?
A. Battery is used to maintain the potential difference across a conductor.
5. Refer to the table given below and answer the following:
(i) Which between aluminium and mercury is a better conductor ?
(ii) Which material is the best conductor?
Substance (-m)
Conductors S emiconductors
M etals: S ilver 1.47 × 10 -8
Copper 1.72 × 10 -8
Gold 2.44 × 10 -8
A lum inium 2.75 × 10 -8
Tungsten 5.25 × 10 -8
S teel 20 × 10 -8
Lead 22 × 10 -8
Mercury 95 × 10 -8
A lloys: Manganin (Cu 84% , Mn 12% , Ni 4% ) 44 × 10 -8
Constantan (Cu 60% , Ni 40% ) 49 × 10 -8
Nichrome 100 × 10 -8
P ure carbon (graphite) 3.5 × 10 -5
P ure germanium 0.6
P ure silicon 2300
Insulators: A mber 5 × 10 14
Glass 10 14 – 10 14
Lucite > 10 13
Quartz (fused) 10 15 – 10 16
S ulphur 10 15
Teflon > 10 15
W ood 10 8 – 10 11
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A. (i) Aluminium is a better conductor as it has less resistivity.
(ii) Silver is the best conductor.
6. What is meant by saying that the potential difference between two points is 1 V?
A. Potential difference between two points is 1 V means 1 Joule of work needs to be done to take 1 coulomb
charge from lower potential point to the higher potential point.
7. How is voltmeter connected in a circuit?
A. Voltmeter is connected in parallel to the circuit.
8. State the physical quantity which is equal to the ratio of potential difference and current.
A. Ratio of potential difference and current is resistance.
9. An electric fan or motor becomes hot when continuously used for long time, why?
A. Because they have finite resistance, they get heated on passing current for some time.
10. A current of 2 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 5 minutes. Find the amount of charge that flows
through the circuit.
A. Amount of charge flown Q = I × t = 2 × (5 × 60) = 600 coulomb.
11. How much work is done in moving a charge of 10 C across two points having a potential difference of 2 V?
A. Amount of work done W = q × V = 10 × 2 = 20 J
12. Write the SI unit of resistivity.
A. SI unit of resistivity is ohm meter.
13. What happens to the resistivity of a metallic resistor if temperature is increased ?
A. Increasing the temperature increases thermal velocity which increases the frequency of collision and hence
decreases the mean free time which results in decrease in conductivity and hence resistivity increases.
14. Mention two reasons why tungsten is used for making filaments of electric lamps.
A. Tungsten is used for making filament of electric lamp because :
(i) It has highest melting point.
(ii) It has highest tensile strength
15. On what factors does the resistance of a conductor depend?
A. Resistance of a conductor depends on the resistivity of material, length of the conductor and it’s cross-sectional
area, as R .
A
16. Name the type of current used in household supply.
A. Alternating current is used in house-hold supply.
17. Mention the condition under which a current can flow in a conductor [Year - 2019]
A. The condition required for a current to flow in conductor is the presence of potential differences.
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18. What is the function of a galvanometer in a circuit ? [Year - 2019]
A. Galvanometer is an electromechanical instrument used to measure the electrical current by deflection in electrical
circuit.
19. Name and define the SI unit of current. [Year - 2019]
A. The S.I. unit of electric current is Ampere (A).
The current through a conductor is said to be one ampere if 1 Coulomb of charge flows through it in one second
20. Write the function of voltmeter in an electric circuit. [Year - 2019]
A. Voltmeter in electric circuit is used to measure potential difference across the circuit.
It is always connected in the parallel.
21. Why are the heating elements of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal ?
[Year - 2019]
A. Coils of electric toaster and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal because the resistivity of
an alloy is higher than he pure metal.
22. Should the resistance of a voltmeter be low or high ? Give reason [Year - 2019]
A. The resistance of a voltmeter should be high.
A voltmeter measures the voltage difference between two points, it should not change the amount of current
going through the element between these two points. Therefore, it should have very high resistance; so that it
does not draw any current through it.
23. Why does the cord of an electric oven not glow while its heating element does ? [Year - 2019]
A. The heating element of the heater is made up of alloy which has very high resistance so when current flows
through the heating element, it becomes too hot and glows red. But the resistance of cord which is usually of
copper or aluminium is very low it does not glow.
24. Define the term electrical resistivity of a material. [Year - 2019]
A. The electrical resistivity of a material is also known as its specific electrical resistance. It is a measure of how
strongly a material opposes the flow of electric current. The definition of resistivity is the electrical resistance
per unit length and per unit cross- sectional area.
25. When do we say that the potential difference between two points of a circuit is 1 volt ?
A. The potential difference between two points is said to be 1 volt if the work done in moving 1 coulomb charge
from one point to other is 1 Joule.
26. Define 1 kilowatt hour. [Year - 2019]
A. 1 kilowatt hour can be defined as the amount of electrical energy consumed, when a 1000 watt electrical
appliance is used for an hour
27. Define resistance. Give its S.I. unit. [Year - 2019]
A. Resistance is the opposition, that a substance offers to the flow of electric current.
The S.I. Unit of resistance is Ohm, and is symbolized by the uppercase Greek letter Omega .
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28. Define current. Give its S.I. unit. [Year - 2019]
A. Electric current is defined as the rate of flow of electrons in the conductor.
The S.I. unit of electric current is Ampere and is symbolized by the letter A.
29. State Ohm’s law. [Year - 2019]
A. Ohm’s law states that the potential difference across the ends of a given conductor in an electric circuit is
directly proportional to current flowing through it, provided its temperature remains constant.
30. State the S.I. unit of potential difference and name the device used to measure it. [Year - 2019]
A. The S.I. unit of potential difference is Volt.
Voltmeter is used to measure the potential difference between two points in the circuit.
31. If the potential difference across the two ends of a conductor is 5 V and the current through it is 0.2 A, then
what is the resistance of the conductor? [Year - 2019]
A. V = 5V, I = 0.2A
V = I.R
5
R 25
0.2
Multiple-Choice Type Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
32. What is the rate of flow of electric charges called?
(A) Electric potential (B) Electric conductance
(C) Electric current (D) None of these
A. (C) Electric current
33. Which of the following is the SI Unit of Electric Current?
(A) Ohm (B) Ampere (C) Volt (D) Faraday
A. (B) Ampere
34. Which instrument is used for measuring electric potential?
(A) Ammeter (B) Galvanometer (C) Voltmeter (D) Potentiometer
A. (C) Voltmeter
35. When one unit electric charge moves from one point to another point in an electric circuit, then the amount of
work done in joules is known as?
(A) Electric current (B) Electric resistance
(C) Electric conductance (D) Potential difference
A. (D) Potential difference
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36. The hindrance presented by material of conductor to the smooth passing of electric current is known as:
(A) Resistance (B) Conductance (C) Inductance (D) None of these
A. (A) Resistance
37. The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to:
(A) its area of cross-section (B) density
(C) melting point (D) length
A. (D) length
38. The purpose of a rheostat is:
(A) Increase the magnitude of current only
(B) Decrease the magnitude of current only
(C) Increase or decrease the magnitude of current
(D) None of these
A. (C) Increase or decrease the magnitude of current
39. Point to be kept in mind for verification of Ohm's Law is:
(A) Ammeter and voltmeter should be connected in series
(B) Ammeter should be connected in series and voltmeter in parallel
(C) Ammeter should be connected in parallel and voltmeter in series
(D) Ammeter and voltmeter should be connected in parallel
A. (B) Ammeter should be connected in series and voltmeter in parallel
40. When a 40V battery is connected across an unknown resistor there is a current of 100 mA in the circuit. Find
the value of the resistance of the resister:
(A) 5000 (B) 800 (C) 0.8 (D) None of these
A. (D) None of these
41. A battery of 6V is connected in series with resistors of 0.1 ohm, 0.15 ohm,0.2 ohm,0.25 ohm and 6 ohm. How
much current would flow through the 0.1 ohm resistor?
(A) 0.8995A (B) 2.22A (C) 1A (D) none of these
A. (A) 0.8995A
42. A fuse wire is inserted in a....
(A) Live wire (B) In the neutral wire
(C) In the earth wire (D) May be connected in any line.
A. (A) Live wire
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43. A cell, a resistor, a key and an ammeter are arranged as shown in the circuit diagrams of figure. The current
recorded in the ammeter will be
R R K
+ – – A+ + – – +
K
K R –
A
+ – +
A
(ii) (iii)
(i)
(A) Maximum in (i) (B) Maximum in (ii)
(C) Maximum in (iii) (D) The same in all the cases
A. (D) The same in all the cases
44. In the following circuits, heat produced in the resistor or combination of resistors connected to a 12 V battery
will be
2 2 2
+
12 V
2 2 –
+ – + –
12 V 12 V (iii)
(i) (ii)
(A) Same in all the cases
(B) Maximum in case (i)
(C) Maximum in case (ii)
(D) Maximum in case (iii)
A. (D) Maximum in case (iii)
45. Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon
(A) Its length (B) Its thickness
(C) Its shape (D) Nature of the material
A. (D) Nature of the material
46. A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb. Number of electron passing through a cross-
section of the filament in 16 seconds would be roughly
(A) 1020 (B) 1016 (C) 1018 (D) 1023
A. (A) 1020
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47. Identify the circuit in which the electrical components have been properly connected.
+ – + – + –
+ –
– – –
+
R
V + A + V R + A
+
R V + R A + V –
– – –
+ –
A
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
A. (B) + –
–
+ A
R V +
–
(ii)
48. What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 ??
1
(A) (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 1
5
A. (D) 1
49. What is the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 ??
1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 25
5 25 10
1
A. (B)
25
50. The proper representation of series combination of cells obtaining maximum potential is
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
A. (A) (i)
51. Which of the following represents voltage?
Work done
(A) (B) Work × Charge
Current Time
Work × Time
(C) (D) Work done × Charge × Time
Current
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A. (A) Work done = Charge × Potential difference
Work done = (Current × Time) × Potential difference [ Charge = Current × Time]
Work done
Potential difference =
Current × Time
52. A cylindrical conductor of length L and uniform area of cross section A has resistance R. Another conductor
of length 2L and resistance R of the same material has area of cross-section.
(A) A/2 (B) 3A/2 (C) 2A (D) 3A
A. (C) 2A
53. A student carries out an experiment and plots the V – I graph of three samples of nichrome wire with resistances
R1, R2 and R3 respectively as shown in figure. Which of the following is true?
I R1
(ampere) R2
R3
V (volts)
(A) R1 = R2 = R3 (B) R1 > R2 > R3 (C) R3 > R2 > R1 (D) R2 > R3 > R1
A. (C) R3 > R2 > R1
54. If the current I through a resistor is increased by 100% (assume that temperature remains unchanged), the
increase in power dissipated will be
(A) 100% (B) 200% (C) 300% (D) 400%
A. (C) 300%
55. The resistivity does not change if
(A) the material is changed
(B) the temperature is changed
(C) the shape of the resistor is changed
(D) both material and temperature are changed
A. (C) the shape of the resistor is changed
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56. In an electrical circuit three incandescent bulbs. A, B and C of rating 40W, 60 W and 100 W, respectively are
connected in parallel to an electric source. Which of the following is likely to happen regarding their brightness?
(A) Brightness of all the bulbs will be the same
(B) Brightness of bulb A will be the maximum
(C) Brightness of bulb B will be more than that of A
(D) Brightness of bulb C will be less than that of B
A. (C) Brightness of bulb B will be more than that of A
57. In an electrical circuit, two resistors of 2 and 4 respectively are connected in series to a 6V battery. The
heat dissipated by the 4 resistor in 5s will be
(A) 5J (B) 10J (C) 20J (D) 30J
A. (C) Here, firstresistor, R1 = 2
And second resistor, R2 = 4
Voltage of cell, V = 6V
Time taken = t = 5s
Total resistance of the circuit = R = R1 + R2 = 2 + 4 = 6
V 6
Current, I 1A
R 6
Heat dissipated by the 4 resistor in 5s is given as,
H = I2Rt
H = 1 × 4 × 5 = 20J
58. Two resistors of resistance 2 and 4 when connected to a battery will have
(A) same current flowing through them when connected in parallel
(B) same current flowing through them when connected in series
(C) same potential difference across them when connected in series
(D) different potential difference across them when connected in parallel
A. (B) In series combination of resistor, the current through both the resistor are same but potential difference
across each will be different.
In parallel combination current across each resistor will be different but the potential difference will be
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same.
59. Unit of electric power may also be expressed as
(A) volt ampere (B) kilowatt hour (C) watt second (D) joule second
A. (A) Electric power = voltage × current
SI Unit of voltage = Volt
SI Unit of current = Ampere
So, unit of electric power is also given by, volt ampere.
60. Amount of energy delivered by a power of one kilowatt in one hour is called
(A) kilogram-second (B) kilowatt-second (C) watt-hour (D) kilowatt-hour
A. (D) kilowatt-hour
61. In SI unit, JC–1 is equal to
(A) Volt(B) Newton's law (C) Pascal (D) Omega
A. (A) Volt
62. Materials having non linear voltage current relationship are
(A) ohmic (B) non-ohmic (C) batteries (D) capacitors
A. (B) non-ohmic
63. due to flow of positive or negative charges or both charges at a same time
(A) Electric current is produced (B) Light is produced
(C) Heat is produced (D) Air is produced
A. (A) Electric current is produced
64. Least resistance obtained by using 2 , 4 , 1 and 100 is
(A) < 100 (B) < 4 (C) < 1 (D) > 2
A. (C) < 1
65. If 0.6 C charge passes through a wire in 12 s, then current flowing through wire is
(A) 70 mA (B) 60 mA (C) 50 mA (D) 25 mA
A. (C) 50 mA
66. Insulations around wires are damaged due to
(A) less current (B) less voltage (C) high current (D) high voltage
A. (C) high current
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67. Current flowing from positive to negative terminal of a battery due to flow of positive charges is known as
(A) electromotive current (B) resolving current
(C) potential current (D) conventional current
A. (D) conventional current
68. All materials contain
(A) some gas (B) capacitors (C) voltage (D) electrons
A. (D) electrons
69. A very large unit of electric energy is needed which is called
(A) watt-hour (B) kilowatt-hour (C) kilogram-second (D) kilowatt-second
A. (B) kilowatt-hour
70. One kilowatt-hour is equal to
(A) 36 × 105J (B) 32 × 105J (C) 30 × 105J (D) 35 × 105J
A. (A) 36 × 105J
71. In parallel combination voltage across each resistor is
(A) same (B) different (C) low voltage (D) high voltage
A. (A) same
72. Diamond does not conduct electricity because it has
(A) no free electrons (B) free electrons (C) no free protons (D) free neutrons
A. (A) no free electrons
73. Resistance of a wire depends upon
(A) cross sectional area (B) length of the wire
(C) wire material's nature (D) all of the above
A. (D) all of the above
74. If a light bulb is switched on for 20 s and it consumes 2400 J of electrical energy then it's power is
(A) 120 W (B) 70 W (C) 80 W (D) 90 W
A. (A) 120 W
75. Unidirectional current is called
(A) alternating current (B) electric charge (C) direct current (D) indirect current
A. (C) direct current
76. As compare to thin wires, thick wires have
(A) more resistance (B) no resistance (C) less resistance (D) same resistance
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A. (C) less resistance
77. A 50 W television and 3 kW oven are connected to a 300 V supply. resistance of each appliance is respectively
(A) 200, 20 (B) 1800, 30 (C) 308, 589 (D) 350, 208
A. (B) 1800, 30
78. To pass no current through it, an ideal voltmeter should have
(A) very large resistance (B) very small resistance
(C) no resistance (D) none of the above
A. (A) very large resistance
B. Very Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks each)
79. What is meant by electric current? Name and define its SI unit. In a conductor, electrons are flowing from B to
A. What is the direction of conventional current? Give justification for your answer. A steady current of 1 A flows
through a conductor. Calculate the number of electrons that flow through any section of the conductor in 1
second. (charge on electron =1.602 × 10–19C).
A. Rate of flow of charges in a specific direction is called electric current. It’s SI unit is ampere (A) and one ampere
current is defined as the amount of current flowing through one unit resistance when it is connected across one
unit potential difference.
Direction of current is from A to B as by convention direction of current is opposite to direction of flow of
electrons.
Amount of charge flown 1A 1s 1C
Number of electrons = Charge on an electron = = 6.25 1018 electrons.
1.6 1019 C 1.6 1019 C
80. Let the resistance of an electrical component remain constant, while the potential difference across the two
ends of the component decreases to half of its former value. What change will occur in the current through it?
A. As resistance remains constant, current potential difference. So if potential difference is halved, the current
will also decrease to half.
81. Will current be more through a thick wire or a thin wire of the same material and of same length, when connected
to the same voltage source? Why?
A. As R , Resistance will be more for thinner wire, so current will be lesser in it. Therefore current will be
A
more move in thicker wire.
82. Why are coils of electric toasters and electric iron made of an alloy rather than pure metal?
A. Coils of electric toaster and electric iron are made of an alloy rather than pure metal because the resistivity of
an alloy is higher than pure metal. Also at high temperature, the alloys do not melt easily.
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83. The potential difference between the terminals of an electric heater is 30 V when it draws a current of 4 A from
the source. What current will the heater draw if the potential difference is increased to 60 V ?
A. Since the coil resistance remains constant, voltage across it (V) current flowing through it.
Since voltage across it has doubled, the current must have been doubled. So the new current = 8 A.
84. (i) How much current will an electric bulb draw from a 200 V source, if the resistance of the bulb filament is
1400 ?
(ii) How much current will an electric heater coil draw from a 220 V source, if the resistance of the heater coil
is 100 ?
Voltage 200 V
A. (i) Current = 142.857 × 10–3 A = 142.8 mA
Re sis tance 1400
Voltage 220 V
(ii) Current = 2.2 A
Re sis tance 100
85. A wire of given material having length and area of cross-section A has a resistance of 4 . What would be the
resistance of another wire of the same material having length /2 and area of cross-section 2 A?
/2 1 R 4
A. We know R 4 R = 1
A 2A 4 A 4 4
86. A copper wire has diameter 0.2 mm and resistivity of 1 × 10–8 m. What will be the length of this wire to make
its resistance 10 ? What will be the change in resistance if the diameter is doubled?
d2
R 2
A. We have R RA 4 Rd
A 4
10 (0.2mm )2
10 m 31.4 m
4 1 108
1 1
As R 2
, if diameter is doubled, resistance will become times the original value.
d 4
R 3R 30
Change in resistance = R 7.5 (decrease) .
4 4 4
87. The values of current I flowing and values of potential difference V are given below:
I (amperes) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
V (volts) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
Find the maximum and minimum value of resistance.
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1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
A. R1 R2 , R3 , R4 , R5
0.5 1 2 3 4
= 3.2 = 3.4 = 3.35 = 3.4 = 3.3
Rmax = R2 = R4 Rmin = R1
88. Out of the two wires ‘X’ and ‘Y’ shown below, made of same material, which one has greater resistance? Justify
your answer.
Wire X A
Wire Y A
2
A. As we know R , wire y will have greater resistance.
89. Calculate the potential difference between two terminals of battery if 100 J of work is required to transfer
20 C of charge from lower potential terminal of battery to higher potential.
100
A. We know work done (w) = qV 100 20 V V 5V
20
90. State the relationship between electric current, the charge moving through a conductor and the time of flow.
Calculate the charge passing through an electric bulb in 20 minutes if the value of current is 200 mA.
Amount of charge flow q
A. By definition current = i
time taken for flow t
q i t (200 10 3 ) (20 60) = 240 coulomb
91. V-I graph for two wires ‘A’ and ‘B’ are shown in the figure. If both the wires are of same length and same
thickness, which of the two is made of material of high resistivity ? Give justification for your answer.
B
I
I I A
A. From the graph slope =
V R
A A
(slope of A) > (slope of B) B A
A B
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So resistivity of B is more than that of A.
92. Resistance of a metal wire of length 1 m is 26 at 20°C. If the diameter of the wire is 0.3 mm, what will be the
resistivity of the metal at that temperature?
RA Rd2 26 (0.3 10 3 )2
A. We know R = = 1.8378 × 10–6 – m
A 4 4 1
93. Define 1 volt. Express it in terms of SI unit of work and charge. Calculate the amount of energy consumed in
carrying a charge of 1 coulomb through a battery of 3 V.
A. 1 volt is the potential difference where 1 Joule of work need to be done to move 1 Coulomb of charge from
lower to higher potential.
Amount of energy consumed = Workdone in moving = q × V = 1 × 3 = 3 Joule
94. Calculate the resistance of 1 km long wire of copper of radius 2 mm. Resistivity of copper is 1.72 × 10–8m.
103
A. Resistance R 2 1.72 10 8 = 1.3687
A r (2 10 3 )2
95. The resistance of a wire of length 250 m is 1 ohm. If the resistivity of the material of wire is 1.6 × 10–8 ohm
metre, find the area of cross-section of the wire. What will be the change in resistance if the diameter is
doubled?
250 1
A. Resistance R A = 1.6 × 10–8 × = 4 × 10–6 m2, R 2
A R 1 d
1
If diameter is doubled resistance will be times original resistance.
4
R 3R
Change in resistance = R 0.75 (negative sign denotes decrease in resistance)
4 4
96. Suppose the ammeter or voltmeter you are using in Ohm’s law experiment do not have +ve and –ve terminal
markings. How will you use such ammeter or voltmeter in the circuit?
A. Such instruments can only be used to measure the magnitude and it cannot specify the direction.
97. Compare the power consumed by the 2 resistance in the following circuits.
2
1 2
1
6V 4V
305
VNet 6
A. First circuit RNet = 1 + 2 = 3 . INet = R 3 2 A
Net
Power consumed in 2 = I2Net R = (2)2 (2). P1 = 8 watt
V 2Net (4)2 P1
Power consumed in 2 = = 8 watt 1
R 2 P2
98. What are the disadvantages of resistance connected in series in household circuit?
A. Disadvantages of resistances connected in series :
1. As the number of components in a circuit increases, greater will be circuit resistance.
2. If one point breaks in the series, the total circuit will break.
99. Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow while the heating element does?
A. Same current flows through both cord and heating element, but because of having high resistance heating
element glows while the cord does not.
100. Compute the heat generated while transferring 10000 coulomb of charge in one hour through a potential
difference of 50 V.
q
A. Heat generated = V × I × t = V × t = 50 × 10000 = 500 kJ
t
101. An electric iron of resistance 24 takes a current of 6 A. Calculate the heat developed in 30 s.
A. Heat developed H = I2R t = 62 × 24 × 30 = 25920 J
102. An electric motor takes 5 A from a 220 V line. Determine the power of the motor and the energy
consumed in 2h.
A. Power P = VI = 220 × 5 = 1100 W, Energy = V × I × t = 1100 × 2 × 3600 = 7.9 × 106J
103. An electric heater of resistance 4 draws 15 A from the service mains for 2 hours. Calculate the rate at which
heat is developed in the heater.
A. Rate of heat development = Power = I2R = 152 × 4 = 900 W
104. A potential difference of 4 V drives a current of 3 A through a resistor. How electrical energy will be converted
into heat during 10 seconds?
A. Heat energy generated (H) = VIt = 4 × 3 × 10 = 120 J
105. An electric fan has a rating of 460 on the 230 V mains. What fuse should be fitted in the plug?
230V 1
A. Fuse rating = Maximum current allowed = A
460 2
106. Why do we get electric shock in damp conditions?
A. Due to damp condition, there is breakage in insulation of current carrying wire and therefore it gives shock on
touch.
107. An electric bulb is rated 200 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 120 V, the power consumed will be
(i) 100 W (ii) 75 W 306 (iii) 50 W (iv) 36 W
A. (iv) Bulb rating is 200 V and 100 W
V2 2002
Bulb resistance R 400
P 100
V 2 1202
At 120 V power consumption, P 36W
R 400
108. A hot plate of an electric oven connected to a 200 V line has two resistance coils A and B, each of 24
resistance, which may be used separately, in series, or in parallel. What are the currents through voltage line in
these cases?
200 25
A. Current when connected separately I1 8.33 A
24 3
200 200
Current when connected in series I2 4.167A
24 24 48
200 200
Current when connected in parallel I3 16.67A
(24) || (24) 12
109. Explain the following:
(i) Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps ?
(ii) Why the wires of a fuse wire must have low melting point ?
(iii) Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits?
(iv) How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of cross-section?
(v) Why are copper and aluminium wires usually employed for electricity transmission?
A. (i) Because it has high melting point and also high tensile strength.
(ii) Because if current flows more than the rated value then wire will melt saving the remaining circuit elements.
(iii) Because series arrangement increases resistance and if one point breaks in series, total circuit will break.
1
(iv) Resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to it’s cross-sectional area. R
A
(v) Because copper and aluminium are good conductors at relatively cheap price transmission.
307
110. What will be the resistance in circuit I and II if R1 = 6 , R2 = 12 ?
+ V–
+ V–
R1 R2
R2
–
A – R1
+ A
+
+ –
I II
A. In circuit-I both the resistances are in series
Equivalent resistance Req = R1 + R2 = 18
In circuit-II, R2 is shorted.
Equivalent resistance Req = R1 = 6 .
111. A resistance of 9 ohms is connected in series with the resistance of 3 ohms. A potential difference of 2 volt is
applied across the combination. Calculate the current through the circuit and the potential difference across 9
ohm resistance.
A. Equivalent resistance of the combination Req = 9 + 3 = 12.
V 2
So current through the circuit I 0.167 A
Req 12
2
Potential difference across 9 resistance V = I × 9 = 9 1.5 V
12
112. Calculate the equivalent resistance when two resistances of 2 ohm and 4 ohm are connected in parallel.
24 8 4
A. Req =
24 6 3
113. At home, various electrical appliances are connected in parallel. If one has 100 heater and 20 electric iron,
what is their equivalent resistance?
100 20 50 R1R2
A. Req = 16.67 Req
100 20 3 R1 R2 .
114. The values of current (I) flowing through a given resistor of resistance (R), for the corresponding values of
potential difference (V) across the resistor are as given below :
[Year - 2018]
308
V (volts) 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 4.0 5.0
I (amperes) 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.8 1.0
Plot a graph between current (I) and potential difference (V) and determine the resistance (R) of the resistor.
A.
Slope of V – I curve gives us the value of R.
V2 V1
R
I2 I1
54 1
R
1 0.8 0.2
R = 5 .
1.0
0.9
0.8
0.7
Amperes
0.6
0.5
0.4
0.3
0.2
0.1
O V
0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0
Volts
115. Name a device that you can use to maintain a potential difference between the ends of a conductor. Explain the
process by which this device does so.
A. A cell or a battery can be used to maintain a potential difference between the ends of a conductor. The
chemical reaction within a cell generates the potential difference across the terminals of the cell, even when
no current is drawn from it. When it is connected to a conductor, it produces electric current and, maintain
the potential difference across the ends of the conductor.
116. While studying the dependence of potential difference (V) across a resistor on the current (I) passing through
it, in order to determine the resistance of the resistor, a student took 5 readings for different values of current
and plotted a graph between V and I. He got a straight line graph passing through the origin. What does the
straight line signify? Write the method of determining resistance of the resister using this graph.
A. The straight line graph is a linear graph, from which we can conclude that the potential difference and the
electric current is directly proportional to one another, which gives us the Ohms Law.
Method of determining resistance of the resistor using voltage-current graph.
309
1) Arrange the apparatus with battery, key, rheostat, voltmeter, ammeter, unknown resistance and connecting
wire.
2) Adjust the rheostat to get a small deflection in ammeter and voltmenter.
3) Record atleast six sets of readings.
4) Plot a graph with V along X axis and I along Y axis.
5) The graph will be a straight line which veries Ohms’ law.
6) Determine the slope of the V-I graph. The slope gives the resistance of the wire.
OR
What would you suggest to a student if while performing an experiment he finds that the pointer/needle of the
ammeter and voltmeter do not coincide with the zero marks on the scales when circuit is open? No extra
ammeter/voltmeter is available in the laboratory. [Year - 2019]
A. I would suggest to substract the value of the reading shown by the ammeter from the value that is shown after
passing the current.
117. Which one of the following is the correct set-up for studying the dependence of the current on the potential
difference across a resistor and why ?
[Year - 2019]
A. Option A because
1. Direction of flow of current is correct.
2. Voltmeter connected in parallel
3. Ammeter connected in series
118. In the experiment to study the dependence of current (I) on the potential difference (V) across a resistor, a
student obtained a graph as shown.
(i) What does the graph depict about the dependence of current on the potential difference ?
(ii) Find the current that flows through the resistor when the potential difference across it is 2.5 V.
310
[Year - 2019]
A. i) The current is directly dependent on the potential difference.
ii) 0.25 Amp
119. List the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with an electrical source instead of connecting
them is series.
A. (a) When a number of electrical devices are connected in parallel, each device gets the same potential
difference as provided by the battery and it keeps on working even if other devices fail. This is not so in
case the devices are connected in series because when one device fails, the circuit is broken and all
devices stop working.
(b) Parallel circuit is helpful when each device has different resistance and requires different current for its
operation as in this case the current divides itself through different devices. This is not so in series circuit
where same current flows through all the devices, irrespective of their resistances.
120. List two precautions you would observe while performing the experiment.
A. (i) All the connections are neat and tight.
(ii) Ammeter is connected with the proper polarity, i.e., positive terminal of the ammeter should go to positive
terminal and negative terminal of ammeter to the negative terminal of the battery or cell used.
C. Short Questions and Answers : (3 marks each)
121. List three factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends.
A. Resistance of a conductor depends upon the following factors:
(1) Length of the conductor : (Greater the length (I) of the conductor more will be the resistance (R).
R I
(2) Area ol cross section of the conductor: (Greater the cross-sectional area of the conductor, less will be the
resistance.
R 1/A
(3) Nature of conductor.
122. State the difference between the wire used in the element of an electric heater and in fuse wire.
A. Electric heater has wire having high melting point and high resistivity, but fuse wire has wire having low
resistivity and low melting point.
123. (i) Draw a closed circuit diagram consisting of 0.6 m long nichrome wire XY, an ammeter, a voltmeter, four
cells of 2.5 V each and a plug key
V
(ii) What would be the values of ratios when the potential difference is 0.8 V, 1.2 V and 1.6 V respectively?
I
311
What conclusion do you draw from these values?
Potential difference
1.6
1.5
(V)
1.0
0.5
0 0.2 0.4 0.6
Current (I)
V
x y
A
2.5V
A. (i) 2.5V
2.5V
2.5V
V V 1.6 8
(ii) The value of ratio always remain constant. Slope
I I 0.6 3
From this it can be concluded that current is directly proportional to applied voltage.
124. The figure below shows three cylindrical copper conductors along their face areas and lengths. Discuss in
which geometrical shape the resistance will be the highest.
A 2A
A/2
L L/2
A. We know resistance R .
A
Since all resistances are made of copper, remains same for all.
For the conductor where ratio is highest will have highest resistance.
A
4L
In the second figure value of is highest i.e. .
A A
So it will have the highest resistance.
125. List two distinguishing features between the resistance and resistivity of a conductor. A wire is stretched so that
its length becomes 6/5 times of its original length. If its original resistance is 25 , find its new resistance and
resistivity. Give justification for your answer in each case.
A. Resistance is dimension dependent where as resistivity is not. Resistance value is dependent upon resistivity
value, where as reverse is not true.
312
6 V A 5
New length , A A
5 6
6
36
36 36
New resistance R 5 R = 25 36
5 25 A 25 25
A
6
The resistivity value will remain same as before.
126. State Ohm’s law. Draw a labelled circuit diagram to verify this law in the laboratory. If you draw a graph between
the potential difference and current through a metallic conductor, what kind of curve will you get? Explain how
would you use this graph to determine the resistance of the conductor.
A. Ohm’s law states that the current through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the voltage
across the two points.
Labelled circuit diagram :
R V
The observed curve will be :
Potential
Difference
O Current
Resistance of the conductor will be the slope of observed curve.
127. You have been assigned a duty to create awareness in your school about saving electricity.
(i) Write any two ways by which you will create awareness among your school mates about saving electricity.
(ii) Explain how saving electricity is important at individual level and at national level.
A. (i) 1. They can be made aware by informing the consequences of wasting electricity, what all problems they
can face by unnecessary use of electricity.
2. To remind them at every instant; pamphlets instructing them to switch-off everything while going out of
room can be stuck above the electricity switch-board and doors.
(ii) On individual level it is important to save electricity because by doing so we are creating a good attitude
within us and by saving electricity we are saving energy as well as money also.
On national level also it is important because there are people who are living their life without electricity because
of lack of supply of electricity. So if we save on individual level they can get electricity.
128. An electric lamp of 200 , a toaster of resistance 60 , and a water filter of resistance 200 are connected in
parallel to a 220 V source. What is the resistance of an electric iron connected to the same source that takes
as much current as all three appliances, and what is the current through it?
313
1 1 1 1 1 1
A. Equivalent resistance
R eq 200 60 200 100 60
100 60 75 220
Req 37.5 Current
100 60 2 Re q
220
= 5.867 A = Current through electric iron and Resistance of electric iron = Req = 37.5.
75
2
129. Find the resistance between A and B in the following network
6
6
A B
4
+
A
–
+ – ()·
12 4 48
A. RAB = (4) || (6+6) = (4) || (12) = 3
12 4 16
130. Which uses more energy, a 250 W TV set in 1 hr. or a 1200 W toaster in 10 minutes?
A. Energy used by TV. E1 = P1 t1 = (250) × (1 × 60 × 60) = 900 kJ
Energy used by toaster. E2 = P2 t2 = (1200) × (10 × 60) = 720 kJ
TV uses more energy.
131. Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220 V electric supply line, are rated 10 W. How many lamps
can be connected in parallel with each other across the two wires of 220 V line if the maximum allowable
current is 5 A?
A. Bulb rating = 220 V, 10 W
V2 2202
Bulb resistance (R) = 4840
P 10
220V 220 R R 4840
Maximum allowing current (I) = 5A 5A Req 44 n 110
Re q 5 n Re q 44
So 110 lamps can be connected in parallel.
132. What is cost of running an AC with average power of 1000 watt for 8 hours for 30 days ? The cost of electric
energy is ` 4.70 per kWh.
A. Energy consumed (E) = P × t = (1000) × (30 × 8 × 60 × 60) w.s
314
1000 30 8 60 60
kwh = 240 kwh
1000 3600
Cost = number of unit × cost per unit = 240 × 4.7 = 1128/-
133. (i) Explain what is the difference between a direct current and alternating current. Write one important advantage
of using alternating current.
(ii) An air conditioner of 2 kW is used in an electric circuit having a fuse of 10 A rating. If the potential difference
of the supply is 220 V, will the fuse be able to withstand when the air conditioner is switched on? Justify your
answer.
A. (i) In direct current, current flows steadily in one direction where as in alternating current, current switches it’s
direction continuously, sometimes forward and sometime reverse. In alternating current long distance
transmission cost is very less using a step-up transformed at power station.
(ii) Air conditioner power rating = 2 kW
P 2 103
From 220V supply it will withdraw current I 9.09 A .
V 220
Since fuse rating is 10 A, it won’t burn.
134. Figure below shows a 2 ohm resistor and a 6 ohm resistor connected in parallel across a 2.5 V cell.
Calculate the current in: (i) 2 ohm resistor, (ii) 6 ohm resistor, (iii) the cell, (iv) Calculate the resistance of the
parallel combination.
+V –
6
2
–
A
+
V 2.5
A. (i) Current through 2 resistor i1 = R 2 1.25 A
1
V 2.5
(ii) Current through 6 resistor. i2 R 6 0.417 A
2
(iii) Current through cell i = i1 + i2 = 1.667 A
2 6 12
(iv) Resistance of the parallel combination R eq 1.5
26 8
135. Renu touched a live wire accidentally in the bathroom. She was barefooted. She felt a electric shock. Preeti,
her sister, took her to the doctor immediately. Doctor treated her and asked her to get wiring of bathroom
repaired and do not take bath barefooted and use rubber slippers.
315
(i) What values are associated with Preeti?
(ii) Why should we not be barefooted in bathroom?
(iii) If we use rubber slippers, how can we save ourself?
A. (i) Preeti is a caring girl.
(ii) If we are barefooted in bathroom, then we are allowing current to pass through us, if there is any short
circuit. Therefore we should not be barefooted in bathroom.
(iii) Rubber has very high resistivity value, so it doesn’t allow current to pass through it easily and so it can save
us.
136. Ravi touched his fridge and got electric shock. He called the electrician Ram to check the short circuit. Electrician
found earth wire was not there in their domestic circuit. Electrician connected the circuit with earth wire and
cautioned Ravi and his family from such shocks in future.
(i) What values are associated with Ram?
(ii) Why should we have earth wire?
(iii) In three pin plug, which one is earth wire? What is its colour?
A. (i) Ram is a responsible person.
(ii) Purpose of earth wire is to give a pathway to any leakage current to ground and so it saves devices from
getting burnt.
(iii) In three pin plug, the thickest pin is connected to earth wire and it’s colour is green.
C. Short Answer Questions : (3 marks each)
137. Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9 so that the equivalent resistance of the
combination is (i) 13.5 , (ii) 6 ?
A. (i) 9
9
9
1 1 1 1
R1 9 9 4.5
R1 = 4.5
Required = 9 + 4.5 = 13.5
316
ii)
9 9
9
R1 = 9 + 9 = 18
1 1 1 1
Re q 18 9 6
Required = 6
OR
(a) Write Joule’s law of heating.
(b) Two lamps, one rated 100 W; 220 V, and the other 60 W; 220 V, are connected in parallel to electric mains
supply. Find the current drawn by two bulbs from the line, if the supply voltage is 220 V. [Year - 2018]
A. (a) The Joule’s first law shows the relationship between heat producer by a flowing electric current through a
conductor
Q I2Rt
Where Q – indicates the amount of heat
I – indicates the electric current
R – is the amount of electric resistance in the conductor
t – denotes time.
(b) Power P = 100W P = 60W i i1 i2 (Alternative)
p1 p2
V = 220V V = 220V
v1 v 2
100 60
R1 = ? R2 = ?
220 220
V2 V2 8
P P
R1 R2 11
2202 2202
100 R2 0.73A
R1 60
317
2202
R1 484 R2 = 806.7
100
Resistors connected in parallel
1 1 1
R 302.5
R 484 806.7
220
V IR I 0.73 Amp
302.5
138. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor in the shape of a wire depends.
(b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity whereas glass is a bad conductor of electricity ? Give reason.
(c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical heating devices ? Give reason. [Year - 2018]
A. (a) The resistance of a conductor in the shape of the wire depends on the following four factors:
Length of the conductor
Area of cross section of the conductor
Material of the conductor
Temperature of the conductor
(b) Metals have a large number of free electron in their mean position, whereas glass has no free electrons.
Thus we can say that metals are good conductors of electricity and glass is a bad conductor of electricity.
(c) Alloys are used in electrical heating devices rather than pure metals because the resistivity of an alloy is
more than the resistivity of a pure metal. Also, the alloy does not oxidize easily even at higher temperature.
D. Very Long Type Questions and Answers : (5 marks each)
139. (i) Write an expression for the resistivity of a substance.
(ii) State the SI unit of resistivity
(iii) Distinguish between resistance and resistivity
(iv) Name two factors on which the resistivity of a substance depends and two factors on which it does not
depend.
A. (i) Resistance of a substance is defined by expression R
A
RA
So by rearranging we can get the expression of resistivity as
(ii) SI unit of resistivity is ohm-meter (-m).
(iii) Resistance of a substance is both material and dimension of substance dependent, where as resistivity of a
substance depends only on nature of substance and not on it’s dimension.
(iv) Resistivity of a substance depend upon
1 - nature of substance
318
2 - temperature of substance
and it does not depends upon
1 - volume of substance
2 - mass of substance
140. In our daily life we use two types of electric circuit whose current-time graphs are given below:
i i
O O Time
Time
I II
(i) Identify the type of current in each case
(ii) Identify any one source of each type of current.
(iii) What is frequency of current used in domestic supply in India?
(iv) On the basis of graphs write the difference between the two currents.
(v) Out of two which one is used in transmission of electric power over long distances and why ?
A. (i) In case-I it is direct current and in case-II it is alternating current.
(ii) Direct current can be obtained from a battery and alternating current can be obtained from a generator.
(iii) Domestic supply of current in India is done with 50 Hz frequency.
(iv) Direct current is unidirectional and steady where as alternating current is bi-directional and unsteady.
(v) Out of the two, alternating current is used in transmission of electric power over long distances because of
it’s low energy loss on transmission.
141. For the series combination of three resistors establish the relation :
R = R1 + R2 + R3
where the symbols have their usual meanings.
Calculate the equivalent resistance of the combination of three resistors of 6 , 9 and 18 joined in parallel.
A. In series combination current remains same in all the elements.
i R1 i R2 R3
i
V1 V2 V3
And so voltages across three resistors will be.
V1 = iR1, V2 = iR2, V3 = iR3
So net voltage V = V1 + V2 + V3 = iR1 + iR2 + iR3 = i(R1 + R2 + R3) ............................... (1)
If we replace all the resistors with single equivalent resistor then not voltage
319
V = i Req ................................................................................................................... (2)
So from equation (1) and equation (2) we can conclude that Req = R1 + R2 + R3.
We know in case of parallel combination equivalent resistance Req is
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 2 1 6 18
R 3
R R1 R2 R3 = 6 9 18 = 18
=
18 6
142. What is meant by electric circuit ? Why does electric current exist in a circuit the moment circuit is complete?
When do we say that the potential difference across a conductor in a circuit is 1 volt ?
Calculate the potential difference between the two terminals of a battery if 12 joule of work is done in transferring
2 coulomb of charge.
A. An electric circuit is a path in which electrons from a voltage or current source flow. It is because when the
circuit is complete there is a continuous flow of electrons which constitutes an electric currrent.
Potential difference across the conductor in a circuit is 1 volt, then 1 coulomb of charge will lose 1J of energy
on coming from higher potential of conductor to lower.
We know by relation work done w = q × V.
w 12J
V 6V .
q 2C
So potential difference between two terminals of battery is 6 V.
143. Name an instrument that measures potential difference between two points in a circuit. Define the unit of
potential difference in terms of SI unit of charge and work. Draw the circuit symbols for a (a) variable resistor,
(b) a plug key which is closed one.
Two electric circuits I and II are shown below :
R1 R2
R1 R2 R3
A
6V 0.25 A
6V
(I) (II)
(i) Which of the two circuits has more resistance ?
(ii) Through which circuit more current passes ?
(iii) In which circuit, the potential difference across each resistor is equal assuming R1 R2 R3 ?
(iv) If R1 = R2 = R3, in which circuit more heat will be produced in R1 ?
A. Voltmeter measures potential difference between two points in a circuit. 1 Volt of potential difference is defined
as when 1J of work is done for 1C charge to move from lower potential to higher.
(a) Variable resistor :
(b) A plug key which is closed :
( )
320
(i) Circuit-I has more resistance as it has an additional resistor R3 in series.
(ii) Through circuit-II more current passes.
(iii) None of the circuit will have equal potential difference across the resistors.
(iv) Since current in first circuit is less than the second circuit so more heat will be produced in R1 in second
circuit since H = I2Rt
144. What is meant by resistance of a conductor ? Name and define its SI unit. List the factors on which the
resistance of a conductor depends. How is the resistance of a wire affected if
(i) it is replaced with another wire of double length.
(ii) it is replaced with another wire of double radius.
A. Resistance of a conductor is defined as the amount of opposition to the flow of electrical current through the
conductor. It’s unit is ohm (). 1 ohm resistance is defined as the resistance which allow 1A current to pass
through when 1 volt potential difference is applied across it. Resistance of a conductor depends upon
(1) Resistivity of substance ()
(2) Length of conductor ()
(3) Cross sectional area of conductor (A) as R
A
(i) If the length is doubled it’s resistance is doubled
1
(ii) If it’s radius is doubled, area is multiplied by 4 and so final resistance becomes times original resistance.
4
145. (a) Two identical resistors each of resistance 10 ohm are connected.
(i) in series, (ii) in parallel, separately to a battery of 6V. Calculate the ratio of power consumed in the
combination of resistors in the two cases.
(b) Establish the relationship between 1 kWh and SI unit of energy.
A. a) (i) In series equilvalent resistance becomes Req = 10 + 10 = 20
1
v2 62 36
Power consumed P1 = 1.8 W..
Req1 20 20
10
(ii) In parellel combination, equivalent resistance becomes Req2 5
2
v2 62 36
Power consumed P2 = 7.2
Req2 5 5
321
36
P1 20 5 1
So the ratio P
2
36 20 4
5
b) 1 KWh = 1 × 103 × (1 × 60 × 60) W 5
= 3600 × 103 J = 3.6 × 106 J.
146. (a) Derive an expression for the equivalent resistance of three resistors of resistance R1, R2 and R3 connected
in series.
(b) Three fuse of rating 3A, 5A and 7A are available. Which one of these will be most suitable to operate an
electric iron of 1 kW power at 220 V electric line ? Give reason to justify your answer.
A. (a) Suppose the 3 resistances are R1, R2, R3.
In a series connection, the potential difference across each resistor.
V1 = IR1, V2 = IR2, V3 = IR3
V
V1 V2 V3
R1 R2 R3
Rs I
Let Rs be the equivalent resistance of the combination.
V = IRs
But V = V1 + V2 + V3
IRs = IR1 + IR2 + IR3
i.e. R s R1 R 2 R 3
(b) Power = Voltage × Current
1000 = 220 × Imax
Imax = 4.55 Amp
322
Therefore, we can use 5 Amp fuse as 3 Amp fuse will be too less and 7A will be too high.
147. (a) With the help of a suitable circuit diagram prove that the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance of a group
of resistances joined in parallel is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.
(b) In an electric circuit two resistors of 12 each are joined in parallel to a 6 V battery. Find the current drawn
from the battery.
A. (a) Let n resistors R1, R2, ...... Rn be connected in parallel with a battery of emf E.
Let the current flowing across the resistor be I.
Let the equivalent Resistance be Req.
Then according to Ohm’s Law
E = I × Req ...(i)
+
R1 R2 R3 Rn
–E
As the resistors are connected in parallel the voltage across the evels will remain same, the current however
is distributed for the resistor R1 let the current be I1. Then by Ohm’s Law.
E
I1 .... (ii)
R1
+
Req
–E
E
Similarly, I2 R
2
E
Thus, In
Rn
Now the total current in the circuit will be sum of currents through all the resistors. So
I I1 I2 ..... In
E E E
I .....
R1 R2 Rn
E E E E
.....
R eq R1 R 2 Rn
Hence, the reciprocal of the equivalent resistance of a group of resistances joined in parallel is equal to the
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sum of the reciprocals of teh individual resistors.
(b) Given : Resistances of the resistors = 12
Emf of the battery = E = 6V
The resistor are joined in parallel with each other.
Let the net resistance be Rnet.
Let the current flowing in the circuit be I.
According to Ohm’s Law E = IRnet ...(i)
1 1 1
Rnet 12 12
Rnet = 6.
E 6
I 1 Amp
Rnet 6
OR
An electric lamp of resistance 20 and a conductor of resistance 4 are connected to a 6 V battery as shown
in the circuit. Calculate :
(a) the total resistance of the circuit,
(b) the current through the circuit,
(c) the potential difference across the (i) electric lamp and (ii) conductor, and
(d) power of the lamp. [Year - 2019]
A. Resistance of the lamp = 20.
Resistance of the conductor = 4.
Voltage of the battery = E = 6V.
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4 +
6V
–
20
(a) The total resistance of the circuit would be simply the resistance of the series combination of bulb and the
resistor
Rnet = 20 + 4 = 24.
The total resistance of the circuit is 24.
(b) The current through the circuit can be given by Ohm’s Law.
6V
I = 0.25 Amp
24
(c) The current through the elements will be same as they are connected in series.
(i) The potential drop across the lamp will be
Vlamp=I × Rlamp = 0.25 × 20 = 5V
ii) The potential drop across the conductor will be
Vconductor = I × Rconductor = 0.25 × 4 = 1 volt
(d) The power of the lamp is given by
Plamp = I2Rlamp
Plamp = [(0.25)2 × 20] = 1.25W
The potential drop across the lamp is 5V and the potential drop across the conductor is 1 volt.
148. (a) How will you infer with the help of an experiment that the same current flows through every part of a circuit
containing three resistors in series connected to a battery ?
(b) Consider the given circuit and find the current flowing in the circuit and potential difference
across the 15 resistor when the circuit is closed.
A. (a) The procedure to verify experimentally that the same current flows through every part of the circuit
containing three resistances in series.
Procedure :
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– +
V4
A
RA RB RC
V1 V2 V3
(1) Join three resistors of different values in series. Connect them with a battery, an ammeter and a key.
(2) Plug the key. Note the ammeter reading.
(3) Change the position of ammeter to anywhere record the reading each time.
Its noted that there is no change in the reading of the ammeter.
Hence, the same current flows through every part of the circuit containing three resisters in series
connected to a battery .
(b) R1 = 5; R2 = 10, R3 = 15.
All three resisters are in series. Therefore their equivalent resistances.
Req = 5 + 10 + 15 = 30
V = 30 Volt (given)
30
V = IR I 1 amp
30
In series combination, the potential difference across each resister is different while current is same.
V = I.R = 1 × 15 = 15 Volt.
OR
(a) Three resistors R1 , R2 and R3 are connected in parallel and the combination is connected to a battery,,
ammeter, voltmeter and key. Draw suitable circuit diagram and obtain an expression for the equivalent
resistance of the combination of the resistors.
(b) Calculate the equivalent resistance of the following network :
[Year - 2019]
326
A. (a) R1
R2
R3
V
A
Since these resisters are connected in parallel, the current flowing through each resister will be different.
Therefore, total current = I = I1 + I2 + I3
V V V V V
By Ohm's Law I
R R1 R2 R3 R
V 1 1 1
V
R R1 R 2 R3
1 1 1 1
R R1 R2 R3
1 1 1
(b) [As 20 and 20 are in parallel]
R s 20 20
1 2 20
Rs 10
R s 20 2
Req = 10 + 10 = 20
149. (a) Three resistors of resistances R1, R2 and R3 are connected (i) in series, and (ii) in parallel. Write expressions
for the equivalent resistance of the combination in each case.
(b) Two identical resistors of 12 each are connected to a battery of 3 V. Calculate the ratio of the power
consumed by the resulting combinations with minimum resistance and maximum resistance.
A. (a) Given R1, R2 and R3 are the resistances of the first, second and third resistance respectively.
(i) In series combination : When the resistors are connected in series, the equivalent resistance of the
combination is given by
Rs = R1 + R2 + R3
The equivalent resistance is larger than the resistances of all the resistors.
(ii) In Parallel combination : When the resistors are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance of the
combination is given by
1 1 1 1
RP R1 R2 R3
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1 R R R1R3 R1R 2
2 3
RP R1R2R3
R1R2R3
RP
R2R3 R1R3 R1R 2
The equivalent resistance is smaller than the resistances of all the resistors.
(b) Series Connection : Parallel Connection:
12
12 12
12
+ – –
3V +
3V
1 1 1 2 1 2
Req = 12 + 12 = 24 6
R eq 12 12 12 ; Req 12
V 2 32 9 3
V = 3V P2 W
R 6 6 2
V 2 32 9
P1 W
R 24 24
P1 9 2 1
P1 : P2 1: 4
P2 24 3 4
150. (a) Write the relation between resistance and electrical resistivity of the material of a conductor in the shape of
a cylinder of length ‘l’ and area of cross-section ‘A’. Hence derive the S.I. unit of electrical resistivity.
(b) Resistance of a metal wire of length 5 m is 100 . If the area of the cross-section of the wire is 3 × 10–7 m2,
calculate the resistivity of the metal. [Year - 2019]
A. (a) R
A
R.A m2
m
m
The S.I unit of electrical resisting is Ohm-metre (m)
(b) R = 100W; = 5 m; a = 3 ×10–7 m2; = ?
100 3 10 7
60 10 –7 m
5
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151. (a) Study the following circuit and find out :
(i) Current in 12 resistor.
(ii) Difference in the readings of A1 and A2, if any.
24
A. (a)
24 A1
+
6V
– 12
A2
1 1 1 2
R 24 24 24
24
R 12
2
12
A1
+
6V 12
–
A2
RTotal = 12 + 12 = 24W
V = IR 6 = I × 24
6 1
(i) I Amp
24 4
1
(ii) Both the ammeters shows the current value as Amp, as they are in series. So, the difference
4
between them is 0.
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152. Compare the power used in 2 resistor in each of the following circuits :
A. Series Parallel
Potential difference V = 6V Potential difference V = 4V
Since 1 and 2 are connected in series Since 12 and 2 are connected in series
R eq = 1 + 2 = 3 The voltage across each component of a parallel
V = IR circuit remains the same. Hence voltage across
6 = I3 2 resistor will be 4V. Power consumed by 2
I = 2 Amp resistor is given by.
P = I2R = 22 × 2 = 8 Watt V 2 42
P 8watt
R 2
OR
A bulb is rated 40 W; 220 V. Find the current drawn by it, when it is connected to a 220 V supply. Also find its
resistance. If the given bulb is replaced by a bulb of rating 25 W; 220 V, will there be any change in the value of
current and resistance ? Justify your answer and determine the change. [Year - 2019]
V
A. P = 40 watt R
I
220
V = 220 Volt R
0.18
P = VI R = 1222.2
40
I= 0.18 Amp
220
There will be change in current and resistance once replaced by a bulb having rating of 25 Watt.
p 25
i A
v 220
difference in current
40 25
220 220
15
220
3
A
44
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E. Assertion- Reasoning:
1. Assertion: The metals and alloys are good conductors of electricity.
Reason: Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin and it is not a good conductor of electricity.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
2. Assertion: Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices like electric iron and heater.
Reason: Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals but the alloys have low
melting points then their constituent metals.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
3. Assertion: Fuse wire must have high resistance and low melting point.
Reason: Fuse is used for small current flow only.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
4. Assertion: Electron has a negative charge.
Reason: Electrons move always from a region of higher potential to a region of lower potential.
A. (c) Assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
5. Assertion: When a wire is stretched to three times of its length, its resistance becomes 9 times.
Reason: Resistance is directly proportional to length of wire.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
F. Cased Based Questions:
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: The heating effect of current is obtained by
transformation of electrical energy in heat energy. Just as mechanical energy used to overcome friction is
covered into heat, in the same way, electrical energy is converted into heat energy when an electric current
flows through a resistance wire. The heat produced in a conductor, when a current flows through it is found to
depend directly on (a) strength of current (b) resistance of the conductor (c) time for which the current flows.
The mathematical expression is given by H = I 2 Rt. The electrical fuse, electrical heater, electric iron, electric
geyser etc. all are based on the heating effect of current.
(i) What are the properties of heating element?
(ii) What are the properties of electric fuse?
(iii) Initially 16 J of heat is dissipated in a heating device, now when the current is doubled and time is halved,
then how much heat is dissipated?
(iv) A fuse wire melts at 5 A. It is is desired that the fuse wire of same material melt at 10 A. Find the new radius
of the wire.
A. (i) Properties of heating element: (1) High resistance (2) High melting point
(ii) Properties of electric fuse: (1) High resistance (2) Low melting point
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(iii) Given: H = I 2 Rt
So, H‘ = (2I)2. (R/2)t = 2H = 32 J (As H = 16 J)
(iv) Given I = 5A, resistance = R.
Let r be the new radius.
H = I 2 Rt ……….(a)
So, H‘ = I2R‘t ………….(b)
From (a) and (b),
25/(r2) = 100/(r‘)2
r‘ = 2r (Ans)
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TOPIC : MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
A. Brief answer of important questions.
1. If we pass alternating current through a loop, what will happen?
A. A continuous change in magnetic poles will take place
2. What kind of current is used for magnetisation?
A. Direct current
3. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
A.
4. What are magnetic field lines? Explain why magnetic field lines are closed curves?
A. Magnetic field lines represent magnetic field. They are straight or curved, the tangent to which at any point
gives the direction of the magnetic field at that point.
Because there are no magnetic monopoles
Multiple-Choice Type Questions and Answers (1 mark each)
5. The direction of magnetic field lines in the region outside the bar magnet is...
(A) from the N pole towards the S pole of the magnet.
(B) from the S pole towards the N pole of the magnet.
(C) in the direction coming out from both the poles of the magnet.
(D) in the direction entering both the poles of the magnet.
A. (A) from the N pole towards the S pole of the magnet.
6. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) The direction of magnetic field lines is from N to S outside the magnet.
(B) In the region where magnetic field lines are at a close distance from one another, there will be a strong
magnetic field.
(C) The magnetic field lines form closed loops.
(D) The magnetic field lines can cross one another.
A. (D) The magnetic field lines can cross one another.
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7. By which instrument can the presence of magnetic field be determined?
(A) Voltmeter (B) Ammeter (C) Galvanometer (D) Magnetic needle
A. (D) Magnetic needle
8. Who was the first to observe the magnetic effect of electric current?
(A) Faraday (B) Oersted (C) Volta (D) Ampere
A. (B) Oersted
9. With the help of which law can the direction of a magnetic field decided?
(A) Faraday's law (B) Fleming's right hand rule
(C) Right hand thumb rule (D) Fleming's left hand rule
A. (C) Right hand thumb rule
10. According to the Right hand thumb rule, direction of what is indicated by the thumb?
(A) Electric current (B) Magnetic field (C) Magnetic force (D) Motion of conductor
A. (D) Motion of conductor
11. The magnetic field produced in a straight conducting wire on passing current through it is...
(A) in the direction of current (B) in the direction opposite to the current
(C) circular around the wire (D) in the direction parallel to the wire
A. (C) circular around the wire
12. What is the type of field line of a magnetic field passing through the centre of current carrying circular ring?
(A) Circular (B) Straight line
(C) Ellipse (D) Magnetic field is zero at centre.
A. (B) Straight line
13. Which of the following has magnetic field like that of a bar magnet?
(A) Current carrying wire (B) Current carrying ring
(C) Current carrying solenoid (D) Current carrying rectangular loop
A. (C) Current carrying solenoid
14. What is the direction of magnetic force acting on a current carrying wire placed in a magnetic field?
(A) along magnetic field (B) along the electric current
(C) perpendicular to magnetic field (D) opposite to magnetic field
A. (C) perpendicular to magnetic field
15. How is a current carrying wire placed in a magnetic field so that magnetic force does not act on it?
(A) Parallel to the magnetic field
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(B) Perpendicular to the magnetic field
(C) Making angle of 40° with magnetic field
(D) Can be arranged any way.
A. (A) Parallel to the magnetic field
16. The magnitude of AC voltage used in India is _____ and the frequency is _____.
(A) 110V, 60Hz (B) 110V, 50Hz (C) 220V, 50Hz (D) 220V, 60Hz
A. (C) 220V, 50Hz
17. Which coloured insulation cover is used for earthing wire?
(A) Red (B) Black (C) Green (D) Can be of any colour
A. (C) Green
18. Which type of current is obtained from a battery?
(A) AC (B) DC
(C) Both AC and DC (D) Depends on type of battery
A. (B) DC
19. Which of the following instruments is used to know the presence of electric current?
(A) Fuse (B) Galvanometer (C) Voltmeter (D) Magnetic needle
A. (B) Galvanometer
20. A fuse wire is...
(A) a conductor (B) an insulator
(C) a semi-conductor (D) made of any material
A. (A) a conductor
21. How many times does an Alternating current (AC) with frequency 50Hz change its direction in 1 second?
(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 200
A. (C) 100
22. At the centre of which of the following four circular rings the magnetic field is the strongest for equal magnitude
of current?
Figure A Figure B Figure C Figure D
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(A) Figure A (B) Figure B (C) Figure C (D) Figure D
A. (A) Figure A
23. The magnetism of magnets is maximum...
(A) at poles (B) at the centre
(C) at the axis (D) everywhere in the magnet
A. (A) at poles
24. Within a bar magnet, the magnetic field lines are...
(A) from N to S (B) from S to N (C) absent (D) in both directions
A. (B) from S to N
25. The strength of magnetic field produced by a current carrying straight conductor is...
(A) directly proportional to the distance from the wire
(B) directly proportional to the magnitude of the current in wire
(C) inversely proportional to the magnitude of the current in wire
(D) independent of the magnitude of the current in wire
A. (B) directly proportional to the magnitude of the current in wire
26. The magnetic field inside a solenoid is...
(A) strong at N pole and weak at S pole (B) strong at S pole and weak at N pole
(C) uniform throughout (D) zero
A. (C) uniform throughout
27. What is not true?
(A) A solenoid is an electromagnet. (B) A solenoid is a temporary magnet.
(C) A solenoid is a permanent magnet. (D) A solenoid is like a bar magnet.
A. (C) A solenoid is a permanent magnet.
28. A fuse wire is generally made of...
(A) copper (B) aluminium
(C) alloy of lead and tin (D) alloy of copper and lead
A. (C) alloy of lead and tin
29. In our domestic electric supply, we use following three colours of insulation cover on wires:
(A) Red, blue, green
(B) Red, yellow, blue
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(C) Black, green, yellow
(D) Red, black, green
A. (D) Red, black, green
30. The current passing through two separate lines (circuits) of our houses is A and A.
(A) 5, 10 (B) 5, 15 (C) 10, 15 (D) 2, 5
A. (B) 5, 15
31. Which of the following is not a permanent magnet?
(A) Magnetic needle (B) Bar magnet (C) Electromagnet (D) Horse-shoe magnet
A. (C) Electromagnet
32. The force experienced by a current carrying wire placed in a magnetic field will be maximum when it is...
(A) at an angle of 45° to the magnetic field
(B) at right angle to the magnetic field
(C) parallel to the magnetic field
(D) anti-parallel to the magnetic field
A. (B) at right angle to the magnetic field
33. A magnetic field will not exert force on...
(A) a bar magnet (B) a stationary electric charge
(C) an electromagnet (D) an electric charge moving perpendicularly to it
A. (B) a stationary electric charge
34. During the situation of short-circuit, the current in the circuit...
(A) reduces to zero (B) increases greatly (C) does not change (D) oscillates
A. (B) increases greatly
35. If many appliances are connected in a circuit, may occur..
(A) short-circuit (B) long-circuit (C) over loading (D) explosion
A. (C) over loading
36. The front face of a circular loop of a wire is the North Pole, the direction of current in this face of the loop will
be:
(A) Clockwise (B) Anticlockwise (C) Towards North (D) Towards South
A. (B) Anticlockwise
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37. current line is connected to the air-conditioning machine.
(A) 20 A (B) 15 A (C) 10 A (D) 5 A
A. (B) 15 A
38 . If the current flowing through each turn of a solenoid is in the same direction, the magnetic field produced by n
turns will be with the magnetic field due to each turn.
(A) added (B) subtracted (C) multiplied (D) divided
A. (C) multiplied
39. Which of the following statements is not suitable with reference to Direct Current(DC)?
(A) Electric current flows always from positive pole to negative pole.
(B) The value of electric current is always constant with time.
(C) Its production is cheap
(D) More energy is wasted in its conduction
A. (C) Its production is cheap
B. Very Short Questions and Answers : (2 marks each)
40. A magnet is divided into three regions A, B and C A B C
Name the part where strength of magnetic field is (i) maximum, (ii) minimum. How will the density of magnetic
field lines differ at these parts?
A B C
A. A B C
S N
(i) Maximum magnetic field is in the regions A and C.
(ii) Minimum magnetic field is in the region B. A and C are near magnetic poles and magnetic field lines are
denser in these regions as compared to region B which is around centre of magnet
The density of field lines is maximum near the poles hence the field strength will be maximum at A and C.
41. A compass needle is placed near a current-carrying wire. State your observation for the following cases, and
give reason for the same in each case.
(i) Magnitude of electric current in the wire is increased.
(ii) The compass needle is displaced away from the wire.
A. (i) Compass needle deflection will be more. It is so because increasing the magnitude of current increases the
magnetic field strength around wire, and thereby increasing the deflection.
(ii) Deflection will be less. It is so because magnetic field strength decreases as distance from wire increases,
leading to decrease in deflection.
42. (i) Two magnets are lying side by side as shown below. Draw magnetic field lines between poles P and Q.
S N S N
P Q
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(ii) What does the degree of closeness of magnetic field lines near the poles signify?
A. (i) S N S N
P Q
(ii) The degree of closeness of magnetic field lines near the poles signifies that magnetic field in that region is
strong
43. Magnetic field lines of two magnets are shown in figure A and figure B.
A B
Select the figure that represents the correct pattern of field lines. Give reasons for your answer. Also name
the poles of the magnets facing each other.
A. Figure B represents the correct pattern of field lines.
It is so because magnetic field lines can never cut each other. There can’t be two directions of magnetic field at
a point
S N N S
44. Identify the poles of the magnet in the given figure (1) and (2)
(1) (2)
A. N S N S
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45. Describe an activity to show magnetic field lines produced when current is passed through circular coil.
A. Circular coil carrying current
Magnetic lines of force
Current (I)
– +
k Rh
V
1. In a cardboard two holes are made and a coil is passed through the two holes.
2. Circuit is connected as shown in the figure.
3. Some iron fillings are sprinkled .
4. Current is allowed to pass.
5. The pattern shown in the figure is observed.
Activity: pass the coil through two holes of cardboard. Connect the circuit as shown. Sprinkle iron filings
uniformly allow current to pass. Note the pattern of iron filings that emerges on the cardboard
46. What does the divergence of magnetic field lines near the ends of a current carrying straight solenoid
indicate?
A. The divergence (degree of closeness) of magnetic field lines near the ends of a current carrying straight
solenoid indicates a decrease in the strength of the magnetic field near the ends of the solenoid.
47. AB is a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper as shown in figure. What are the directions of
magnetic fields produced by it at points P and Q? Given r1 > r2, where will the strength of the magnetic field be
larger?
r1
P
r2
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r1
P
A. I
r2
Q
According to Right hand thumb role, direction of magnetic field at P will be into the plane of paper while that at
point Q will be out of plane of paper .
If r1 < r2 strength of magnetic field at P will be larger
r1 > r2 strength of magnetic field at Q will be larger
48. What precaution should be taken to avoid overloading of domestic electric circuit?
A. Precautions that should be taken to avoid overloading of domestic circuit are
i) Do not use too many appliances at the same time
ii) Use the appliances within the safe limit of electric circuit
iii) Do not connect too many appliances in single socket
49. An electric oven of 4 kW is operated in a domestic electric circuit (220 V) that has a current rating of 10 A.
What results do you expect? Explain.
A. Voltage difference across circuit = 220 V
Current Rating = I = 10 A
Power = VI = 220 × 10 = 2200 W
P
Power required to operate oven = 4kW = 4000 W, thus current required = 18.18 A I
V
Thus the current will exceed and fuse will melt out. If fuse is not there overloading will take place.
50. How much energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 4 V battery?
A. Energy given to each Coulomb of charge passing through 4 V of battery = q × V = 1 × 4 = 4 J
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51. Draw magnetic field lines in and around a current carrying straight solenoid.
A.
Magnetic field lines in and around a current carrying straight solenoid.
52. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
A.
N S
Magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
53. A compass needle is placed near a current carrying straight conductor. State your observation for the following
cases and give reasons for the same in each case :
(a) Magnitude of electric current is increased.
(b) The compass needle is displaced away from the conductor.
A. (a) If the magnitude of current is increased, then the deflection of the compass will increase as the electric
field created by the wire in turn creates a magnetic field which deflects the compass needle.
(b) When it is displaced from the wire then the deflection will decrease, as the magnetic field becomes weaker
with increase in distance.
54. List four properties of magnetic field lines.
A. Magnetic field lines are imaginary lines used to represent the strength of a magnetic field.
The properties of magnetic field lines are :
i) They emerges from the North pole of the magnet to its South pole.
ii) These lines are curved and continuous.
iii) The magnetic field lines are parallel to each other i.e. they never intersect each other.
iv) The number of magnetic field line per unit area or magnetic flux is more at the pole, that is the reason why
the magnetic field strength is more at poles.
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55. State the rule which is applied to determine the direction of force experienced by a current carrying conductor
when kept in a magnetic field.
A. It is based on the principle that when a current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences
a mechanical force whose direction is given by Fleming’s Left Hand rule.
C. Short Questions and Answers : (3 marks each)
56. The magnetic field associated with a current carrying, straight conductor is in anticlockwise direction from east
side. If the conductor was held along the east-west direction, what will be the direction of current through it?
Name and state the rule applied to determine the direction of current.
A. direction of current West to East
Right hand thumb Rule:
If current carrying wire is held with right hand so that the thumb lies along the conductor in the direction of
current, then the finger of hand will be in encircling the conductor in the direction of field line caused by the
current
57. What is meant by magnetic force? Name and explain the rule used to determine the direction of force experienced
by a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field. How is this force affected on:
(i) doubling the magnitude of current.
(ii) reversing the direction of current flow.
(iii) reversing the direction of magnetic field.
A. • Magnetic force – The mechanical force, exerted by a magnetic field upon a magnetic pole placed in it, is
termed as magnetic force
• Fleming’s left hand rule- Stretch your middle finger, fore finger and thumb of left hand at right angle to each
other. If middle finger points current, fore finger points magnetic field, the thumb will point direction of force
(i) Doubling the magnitude of current magnitude of force will be doubled
(ii) Reversing the direction of current flow direction of force will be reversed
(iii) Reversing the direction of magnetic field Direction of force will be reversed
58. For the circular coil carrying current shown below, draw magnetic field lines. Decide which of its face behaves
as north pole and which face as south pole. Give reason to justify your answer.
+
–
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A. circular current
magnetic field lines
• If current is flowing in clockwise direction, the face develops south polarity. If it is in anti-clock wise
direction, the face develops north polarity
• Using right-hand thumb rule we can see that field is moving from clockwise face to anticlockwise face
inside the loop which is similar to bar magnet where field moves from south pole to north pole inside magnet
59. What is meant by solenoid? How does a current carrying solenoid behave in terms of magnetic effects? Give its
main uses.
A. A solenoid is a long cylindrical coil containing a large number of closely packed turns of insulated copper wire
• The magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid is similar to the magnetic field produced by a
bar magnet. So it behaves as a bar magnet
• Solenoid is used in electromagnets, inductors, antennas, door locking system etc.
60. With the help of diagram of experimental set up describe an activity to show that the force acting on a current
carrying conductor placed in magnetic field increases with increase in field strength.
A. Current is passed through rod PQ using some battery. Horse shoe magnets of different strengths are placed
one by one. Each time the conductor moves faster than the previous one. It is possible only when conductor
gets accelerated more each time which required more force. Thus, if the magnetic field strength is increased,
the rod will experience a greater force and move faster.
344
Battery
Key
S Q
iron rod
insulated stand
61. Write one application of each of the following:
(i) Right-hand Thumb Rule (ii) Fleming’s Left Hand Rule
A. (i) Right hand thumb rule – To find direction of induced magnetic field by current carrying wire.
(ii) Fleming left hand rule – To find direction of the motion of a current carrying conductor placed in magnetic
field.
62. Under what conditions, a permanent electromagnet is obtained if a current carrying solenoid is used?
Support your answer with the help of a labelled circuit diagram.
A. Conditions to obtain permanent electromagnet using current carrying solenoid
(i) Rod inside the solenoid should be made of magnetic material like steel
(ii) The current through the solenoid should be DC-current
(iii) The number of turn in the solenoid should be large and closely packed
steel bar
DC Source
63. There was a major fire in Green Park McDonald restaurant. There was huge damage. The restaurant was
closed forever due to damage to the building. It was investigated that fire was due to short circuit. People
helped to douse the fire. No damage to people occurred.
(i) Why was there short circuit?
345
(ii) What are the values associated with people?
(iii) What precautions should be taken to avoid short circuiting?
A. (i) Short circuit occurs when part of a wire carrying current touches another wire or part of circuit and gives
electricity a path of low resistance
(ii) People are helping, responsible and good citizens of society
(iii) Precautions that should be taken to avoid short circuit
• Fuse must be used in series
• Do not use too many appliances at same time.
• Use appliances within safe limit of electric circuit
64. The following diagram shows two parallel straight conductors carrying same current. Copy the diagram and
draw the pattern of the magnetic field lines around them showing their directions. What is the magnitude of
magnetic field at a point ‘X’ which is equidistant from the conductors ? Give justification for your answer.
A.
X
B B
d d
The direction of magnetic field is given by right-hand rule. Where B stands for magnetic field.
By using right hand rule; direction of magnetic field at X by left wire is out of the paper i.e. and direction
of magnetic field at X by right wire is into the page .
The net magnetic field at X = B +B =0
346
65. State right-hand thumb rule to determine the direction of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor.
Apply this rule to find the direction of magnetic field inside and outside a circular loop of wire lying in the plane
of a table and current is flowing through it clockwise.
A. According to the right hand thumb rule:
If we are holding a current carrying straight conductor in our right hand such that the thumb points towards the
direction of the current. Then our fingers will curl around the conductor in the direction of the field lines of the
magnetic field.
For a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of the table and the current is flowing through it, in clockwise
direction, on applying the right hand thumb rule to the right-side and left side of the loop.
Circular loop of
wire carrying current Upward field
Upward field
lines lines
downward downward
field field
lines lines
+ –
For the right side of the circular loop:
The direction of magnetic field lines will be like they are emerging from the table outside the loop and while they
will be going into the table inside the loop.
Similarly for the left side of the circular loop:
The direction of magnetic field lines inside the loop will also be going into the table while outside the loop they
will be emerging from the table.
66. A compass needle is placed near a current carrying straight conductor. State your observation for the following
cases and give reasons for the same in each case.
(a) Magnitude of electric current is increased.
(b) The compass needle is displaced away from the conductor.
A. (a) As the amount of magnetic field strength is directly proportional to the amount of current, so the deflection
of compass needle increases.
(b) Since magnetic field strength at a point is inversely proportional to the distance from the wire. Hence
deflection of compass decreases when it is displaced away from the conductor.
67. Draw the pattern of the field lines of the magnetic field around a current carrying straight conductor passing
through and held perpendicular to a horizontal cardboard. State right-hand thumb rule and explain how this rule
is useful to determine the direction of the magnetic field in the above case, if the direction of current in the
conductor is vertically downwards.
347
A.
– + X
A
Right hand thumb rule:
If the current carrying conductor is held in the right hand in such a way that thumb point in the direction of
current, then the direction of the curl of the fingers will give the direction of the magnetic field.
Thumb
(direction of current)
Straight
carrying
current Direction of
magnetic
field
68. Magnetic field lines are shown in the given diagram. A student makes a statement that the magnetic field at ‘A’ is
stronger than at ‘B’. Justify this statement. Also redraw the diagram and mark the direction of magnetic field
lines.
A. N S
The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines . The degree
of closeness is more at ‘A’ than at ‘B’. Therefore the field is stronger at ‘A’ where the field lines are crowded.
D. Long Type Questions and Answers : (5 marks each)
69. (i) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines through and around a current carrying solenoid.
(ii) What is the pattern of magnetic field lines inside the solenoid and what does these indicate?
(iii) How can a solenoid be utilised to make an electromagnet?
(iv) State two ways by which the strength of this electromagnet can be increased.
348
A. (i)
(ii) Field lines are parallel straight lines inside the solenoid which indicates the magnetic field is nearly uniform
inside the solenoid.
(iii) The core of ferromagnetic material such as soft iron should be placed inside a solenoid, so that the magnetic
field inside the solenoid is greatly increased and it can be used as electromagnet.
(iv) Strength of electro magnet can be increased by the following ways:-
(a) by increasing number of turns per unit length.
(b) by increasing magnitude of current passing through solenoid.
70. (a) Draw magnetic field lines of a bar magnet. “Two magnetic field lines never intersect each other.” Why ?
(b) Draw a labelled diagram of domestic circuit.
A. (a)
If two magnetic field lines do intersect, then at the point of intersection there will be two tangents which give
two direction of magnetic field at the same point, which is not possible.
349
Main switch
Fuse Fuse
S
(b) Live wire Meter To Fan
Neutral wire
Bulb
Key Key Socket
Earth connection
71. (a) Differentiate between AC and DC. Write any two points of difference.
(b) What is a fuse? Draw its symbol. Write the properties of a fuse wire
(c) Write the frequency of AC and DC.
A. (a) Difference between AC and DC
AC DC
It alters its direction continuously while
(i) Direction It flows in one direction only
flowing in a circuit
(ii) Current Magnitude of current varies with time Magnitude of current is constant
(b) Fuse is an electric device used to avoid damages due to short circuiting and over-loading
symbol
Properties of fuse wire – High resistance and low melting point
Generally it is made of tin-lead alloy
(c) Frequency of AC has a non zero value like 50 Hz, 100 Hz, 60 Hz etc while frequency of D.C. is zero
72. State Fleming’s left hand rule.
A. Fleming’s left hand rule states that if the thumb, forefinger and the middle finger are stretched mutually
perpendicular to each other then the thumb represents the direction of force, the forefinger represents the
direction of magnetic field and the middle finger represents the direction of the induced current.
350
73. What is a solenoid ? Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of (i) a bar magnet. List two distinguishing features
between the two fields.
A. An insulated Copper wire wound around on some thin cylindrical card board or plastic tube, such that its length
is greater than its diameter and it behave like a magnet when an electric current is made to flow through it is
called solenoid.
i) A current carrying solenoid:
ii) A Bar Magnet.
S N
Magnetic field lines of a current Magnetic field lines of a bar
carrying solenoid magnet
Strength of magnetic field depends on the
Strength of field cannot be
1 magnitude of current. The strength can be
changed.
changed by varying the current
Direction of field lines will change if the Direction of field lines cannot
2
direction of current is reversed. change.
74. Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines produced around a current carrying straight conductor passing
perpendicularly through a horizontal cardboard. State and apply right-hand thumb rule to mark the direction of
the field lines. How will the strength of the magnetic field change when the point where magnetic field is to be
determined is moved away from the straight conductor ? Give reason to justify your answer.
351
A.
– + X
A
Right hand thumb rule:
If the current carrying conductor is held in the right hand in such a way that thumb point in the direction of
current, then the direction of the curl of the fingers will give the direction of the magnetic field.
Thumb
(direction of current)
Straight
carrying
current Direction of
magnetic
field
The magnetic field or strength produced by a given current in the conductor decreases as the distance from it
increases. It can be justified using a compass needle.
When the compass is placed near the conductor , the deflection increases.
Whereas when the compass needle is moved further away from the conductor, the deflection decreases.
75. Name and state the rule to determine the direction of force experienced by a current carrying straight conductor
placed in a uniform magnetic field which is perpendicular to it.
A. The rule is called the Fleming’s left hand rule.
The rule states that, if we stretch out our forefinger, middle finger and thumb such that they are mutually
perpendicular to each other, then the thumb will represent the direction of force, forefinger will represent the
direction of magnetic field and the middle finger will be the direction of the current applied.
E. Assertion- Reasoning
1. Assertion: A current carrying straight conductor experiences a force when placed perpendicular to the direction
of magnetic field.
Reason: The net charge on a current carrying conductor is always zero.
A. (b) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
352
2. Assertion: On freely suspending a current carrying solenoid, it comes to rest in geographical N-S direction.
Reason: One end of a current - carrying solenoid, behaves like a N pole and the other end as a South pole,
just like a bar magnet.
A. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
F. Case Study Questions:
1. A circuit contains a battery, a variable resistor and a solenoid. The figure below shows the magnetic field
pattern produced by the current in the solenoid.
(a) State how the magnetic field pattern indicates regions where the magnetic field is stronger.
(b) What happens to the magnetic field when the current in the circuit is reversed?
(c) What will happen if a soft iron bar is placed inside the solenoid?
(d) Give reason: Magnetic field are closed curves.
A. (a) Relative closeness of magnetic field lines indicates the strength of magnetic field. Since field lines are
crowded around the ends of the solenoid, hence these are the regions of strong magnetic field.
(a) The direction of the magnetic field will be reversed on reversing the direction of electric current.
(b) The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current in the circuit.
(c) It is taken by convention that the field lines emerges from north pole and merge at the south pole.
Inside the magnet, the direction of field lines is from its south pole to its north pole. Thus, the magnetic
field lines are closed curves.
2. A student fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using some adhesive materials. She places a
bar magnet in the centre of it and sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet using a salt-
sprinkler. On tapping the board gently, she observes that the iron filings have arranged themselves in a
particular pattern.
(a) Draw a diagram to show this pattern of iron filings.
(b) What does this pattern of iron filings demonstrate?
(c) How is the direction of magnetic field at a point determined using the field lines? Why do two magnetic
field lines not cross each other?
(d) How are the magnetic field lines of a bar magnet drawn using a small compass needle? Draw one
magnetic field line each on both sides of the magnet.
A. (a) The pattern of iron filings is shown below. N S.
(b) This pattern of iron filings demonstrate that the magnet exerts its influence in the region surrounding it.
Therefore, the iron filings experience a force. The lines along which the iron filings align themselves
represent magnetic field lines.
353
(c) 1. The direction of magnetic field is determined by placing a small compass needle in the magnetic
field. The N-pole of the compass indicates the direction of magnetic field at that point.
2. Magnetic field lines never intersect each other because it is not possible to have two directions of
magnetic field at the same point.
(d) Place the plotting compass near the magnet on a piece of paper. Mark the direction the compass
needle points. Move the plotting compass to many different positions in the magnetic field, marking the
needle direction each time. Join the points to show the field lines. Drawing a magnetic field line with
the help of a compass needle.
354
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