A320 TYPE RATING FLASHCARDS

Aircraft General
1
Q
Length and wingspan

A
Length 37.5m

Wingspan 34m

2
Q
Minimum width for 180 degree turn

A
22.8m (75’) theoretical

24m recommended

3
Q
Radius from main wheel to outside wingtip during turn

A
22m

Indicating / Recording Systems

1
Q
 How many DMC are installed

A
3

2
Q
DMC1 powers what?

A
Capt PFD, ND + upper and lower ECAM

3
Q
How many FWC (Flight Warning Computer) are installed

A
2

4
Q
What happens if the PFD fails

A
Automatic transfer to the ND display

5
Q
When will the T/O and LDG memos appear

A
T/O: 2 min after second engine start

LDG: <2,000’ w/gear down

6
Q
When is g-load shown

A
 <0,7 > 1,4 (5 sec)

7
Q
What indications with a level 1 caution

A
No master, no sound only an indication on the ECAM

8
Q
How are primary and secondary failures shown on the ECAM

A
Primary are boxed

Secondary are shown with an asterisk on the right side

9
Q
How are advisories shown

A
System will be shown, and the value outside of normal will pulse

10
Q
What color does the side slip indicator change to during an engine failure

A
Blue/cyan

11
Q
How far in the future does the speed trend arrow show

A
10 sec

12
Q
 How is Vr indicated on the speed tape

A
Cyan circle

13
Q
How can you force on the backup speed scale (BUSS)

What sources are used for airspeed information in this case

A
Turn of all 3 ADRs

AOA is used to compute safe speeds (plus slat/flap info)

14
Q
How far away from the selected altitude must you deviate before warned

What are the warning indications

A
200 feet

Alt window flashes amber, and continuous audio warning

15
Q
When approaching selected altitude, when will the altitude pulse yellow (plus sound if

flying manually)

A
750’

16
Q

1. When will the numbers on the alt indicator turn amber during approach

2. When will the numbers on the RA turn amber during approach

 A

1. Below MDA

2. <100’ above DH, or 400’ if no DH

17
Q
When will vertical speed turn amber

1. > 6,000 fpm

2. > 2,000 fpm when 1,000-2,500’ RA

3. > 1,200 fpm when <1,000 RA

18
Q
What does an amber box around the VS indicate

A
Using only barometric info (no inertial )

19
Q
When will heading be referenced to true north

A
Above 73degrees north

20
Q
What is the green diamond on the heading tape / ND

A
Your track

21
Q
 How long are new modes boxed on the FMA

A
10 sec

22
Q
When are discrepancy warnings shown on the PFD

1. For pitch and roll

2. For heading

3. For altitude

1. 5 degrees

2. 5 degrees

3. 250’ on QNH, 500’ on STD

23
Q
Which displays does ILS #1 feed

A
PFD1 + ND2

24
Q
What does the FWC use to create

1. Red warnings

2. Amber cautions

1. Directly from aircraft sensors/systems

2. Signaled from the SDACs (Synthetic Data Acquisition Concentrators)

 25
Q
What can you do if the “invalid data” message appears on your DUs

A
Switch to FO/CAPT 3 so that DMC3 will power your DUs

26
Q
Which audio warnings cannot be cancelled

A
Over speed and LDG gear not down

27
Q
What color will T.O INHIBIT be shown in

A
Magenta

28
Q
When does the tail strike pitch limit appear on the PFD

A
Below 400’ RH

29
Q
How long does the DFDR record

A
25h

30
Q
How’s Vapp calculated

A
 Vls + 1/3 of airport hw component (min 5, max 15)

31
Q
When is Vls speed inhibited

A
From touchdown to 10s after liftoff

Electrical
1
Q
How many AC Sources can you name?

1. Engine Gens

2. APU Gen

3. Emergency generator via RAT (Ram Air Turbine)

4. Ext Power

5. Static Inverter

2
Q
What are the order of priority for AC power sources?

1. Eng, 2. EXT 3. APU 4. Emerg Gen 5. Batteries(inverter)

3
Q
What DC Power sources can you name
 A

1. Transformer Rectifiers (2 primary ones)

2. Backup TR (via the RAT)

3. Batteries

4
Q
What does a green line on the ELEC ECAM page between a power source and a bus

signify

A
That the line contactor (i.e Generator Line Contactor), is closed (power is flowing)

5
Q
What are the generator limitations (volts and hz)

1. Turns amber if: Volts outside 110-120, hz outside 390-410

6
Q
What powers the AC ESS Bus?

Normally

With loss of 1 and 2 eng gens

with loss of all gens

A
AC Bus 1 (eng gen 1)

AC bus 2 (loss of gen1)

Emergency Generator (loss of both gens)

Static inverter/battery (loss of all gens, or while the RAT powers up)
 7
Q
When will the ESS Bus shed its Shed Bus?

A
When it is powered by the batteries

8
Q
When will the galley bus automatically shed?

A
If only one generator is online during flight

9
Q
When will the batteries start charging? (Below what voltage)

A
Below 26.5

10
Q
When is the static inverter operating?

 During Emergency Electrical, until the RAT spools up (around 8 seconds)

 If the RAT stalls, or if airspeed drops below 100kts

11
Q
Which bus powers the DC batt bus?

A
DC bus 1

12
Q
 When does the batt bus turn amber?

A
Voltage below 25V

13
Q
When is emergency power automatically brought online (RAT deployment)

A
With AC Bus 1&2 unpowered

14
Q
What does the RAT power directly?

A
The blue hydraulic system

15
Q
What powers the Emergency Generator?

A
Blue hydraulic pressure

16
Q
Below what voltage should you charge the batteries

A
25.5V

17
Q
What is the maximum amount of time you should press the IDG pushbutton, to

disconnect the IDG?

A
 Max 3 seconds

18
Q
What do the different circuit breaker colors signify?

1. Green

2. Black

3. Red cap

1. Monitored (will show on ECAM after 1 minute)

2. Unmonitored

3. Reset by maint action only

19
Q
What does the static inverter do

A
Convert DC power from battery 1 into 1kVA of single phase 115V 400hz

20
Q
What powers the DC ESS BUS during flight with loss of all gens

A
Batt hot bus 2

21
Q
What powers the static inverter in flight with no gens

A
Hot batt bus 1
 Auto-Flight
1
Q
The Flight Management Guidance System has how many FMGC and MCDUs?

A
2 Flight Management Guidance Computers and 2 Multipurpose Control Display Units

2
Q
Which two types of automatic guidance (autopilot modes) does the A320 have

A
Managed (FMC) and Selected (pilot controlled from the FCU)

3
Q
Which 4 modes of operation can the MCDU/FMGS be in?

1. Dual (do their own computations, and compare)

2. Independent (after a mismatch, will have to mirror all inputs)

3. Single (Only one is working, failed side pilots have to mirror all EFIS settings etc

of working side pilot)

4. Backup Navigation

4
Q
What are the difference between amber and blue boxes on the MCDU?

A
Amber: Mandatory to fill

Blue: Optional

5
 Q
What 4 annunciator lights are there on the MCDU unit?

1. FAULT (the unit has failed)

2+3. MCDU + MENU (another system wants your attention, i.e ACARS)

4. FM. If you are using another system (i.e ACARS) and the FMGC wants your

attention

6
Q
What’s the difference between magenta and blue text in the FMA, and on the altitude

readout above the altimeter tape?

A
Magenta = managed altitude constraint from the FMGC

Blue = Altitude selected by the pilot

7
Q
What does the expedite button do

A
For climb: Climb at green dot speed

For descent: Descend at 340/0.8

8
Q
How many IRS does the A320 have

A
3

9
Q
What does the “IRS IN ALIGN” amber message indicate during IRS alignment

A
Either the aircraft moved (and it will restart automaticall), or there is a location

mismatch

10
Q
What will the Flight Directors do if you deselect LOC/GS during approach

A
Flash for 10 seconds

11
Q
What will the FDs do if the LOC/GS signal is lost

A
Flash continuously

12
Q
In Dual AP mode, which FMGC is normally active

A
Number 1

13
Q
When will the aural/visual alerts stop by itself, if the AP was disconnected by other

than the pilot

A
Never, unless the pilot silences it

14
Q
When is the A/THR engaged during take-off/climb
 A
When the thrust levers are moved to CLB detent

15
Q
What are the three normal A/THR modes

A
THR, SPEED, Retard

16
Q
When will the voice tell you to Retard during

1. Automatic approach

2. Manual approach

1. 10’

2. 20’

17
Q
If you want to disengage A/THR, what does the blue circle on the engine instruments

signify

A
It’s the Thrust lever angle, that you can align with the current engine power to avoid

rapid engine increase/decrease when disconnecting A/THR

18
Q
What happens if you hold the A/THR disconnect button on the thrust lever for 15

seconds or more

A
 A/THR will be unavailable for the rest of the flight

19
Q
What is Thrust Lock

A
Means the Thrust levers will not control the thrust (i.e after disconnecting A/THR

using the pushbutton on the glareshield), until you physically start moving the thrust

levers

20
Q
What does an amber circle around an altitude constraint on the ND signify

A
You are predicted to not make the restriction

21
Q
What are the descent speed margins during a managed descent

A
Target speed +/- 20 kts

22
Q
How many feet are the bottom and top of the “glideslope” during a managed descent

A
500 feet

23
Q
What symbol are added to FMA annunciators to show that they are in capture mode

(acquire mode)

A
 A star. I.e ALT *, LOC * etc

24
Q
Which two FMAs activate on take-off

A
RWY (w/ loc) and SRS

25
Q
What does SRS command after liftoff

A
V2+10 for both engines, current speed or V2 for engine out

18 degrees max pitch

26
Q
How do you disengage the LAND mode during autoland

A
Only by using the G/A

27
Q
How is Ground Speed Mini computated

A
Vapp + the difference between current wind and forecast wind (as entered in the

mcdu)

28
Q
What is the autopilot minimum engagement height after t-o

A
100’ ( 5 seconds)
 29
Q
Minimum AP disengagement on:

- cat 1 ILS

- NPA

 160’

 MDA (automatically at MDA -50)

30
Q
What is the minimum AP disengagement on a CAT II approach, if you want to land

manually

A
80’

31
Q
What is the alert height on a cat III approach, what does it mean

A
100’

Below this height, an AP can fail, and the landing will still be successful

Navigation
1
Q
What are the 3 ways to tune radios

A
1. Automatic

2. Manually through the mcdu

3. Backup via the RMP

2
Q
How many are installed of each probe

AOA

Pitot

Static

TAT

A
3 of each except TAT (2)

3
Q
Difference between steady and flashing IRU fail

A
Steady = lost

Flashing = can retain attitude in att mode

4
Q
What’s 1: a cross and 2: a circle on the ND, and what does the different colors mean:

blue, magenta

A
Cross=VOR

Circle=DME

Blue=tuned by fmgc

Magenta=other stations
 5
Q
What are the standby instruments

A
ISIS (Integrated Standby Instrument System)

Standby compass

DDRMI

6
Q
What does an “M” and “R” signify next to a frequency on the ND

A
M=manual tuning via the mcdu radio nav page

R=manual backup tuning via the RMP on the pedestal

7
Q
Which screen are fed by ILS1?

A
Cpt PFD and FO ND

8
Q
When does the radio altimeter flash amber

A
When below 100’ above DH, or 400’ with no DH

9
Q
What is the red ribbon on the alt tape on approach, and when does it show

A
Field elevation, shown below 570’

10
Q
With predictive windshear set to auto (PWS), when does it activate

A
Below 1,500 RA (FCOM 2,300’)

11
Q
If you only have shades of green on the terrain display, what’s your guaranteed

clearance

A
500’ min

12
Q
What is the TCAS coverage area (nm and feet)

A
+/- 9,900’ and 100nm

13
Q
What is the look up and down altitude on a tcas set to “all”

A
+/- 2,700’

14
Q
With the “tcas reduce range” message, what scale should you set your ND to

A
40nm or less

15
Q
Within what range and height must a target (tcas) be to appear as a proximate target

(filled white)
 A
6nm and 1,200’

16
Q
Below what height is RA (tcas) inhibited

A
900’

17
Q
How many legs can a flight plan contain

A
Max 200

18
Q
Which status page is shown in these flight phases / scenarios

1. Elec pwr on, to 1st engine start

2. 1st engine start, to setting takeoff power (also, which page during flight control

check)

3. T-O power, to reaching cruise alt

4. At cruise alt

5. LG extended <15,550’ to 2nd eng shutdown

6. After shutdown

A. APU master on

B. Engine starting

1. Door page
2. Wheel page (F/CTL page for 20s when flight controls are moved)

3. ENG page

4. Cruise page

5. Wheel page

6. Door page

A. APU page (with external power, until APU stable >95% for 10sec, or master off)

B. ENG Page (from eng start to 10s after)

19
Q
What are the 4 components of the FMGS, and how many of each?

A
2 FMGC

2 MCDU

1 FCU Panel

2 FAC

20
Q
What does a “triple click” aural warning signify on an ILS approach

A
Any downgrading in the aircraft’s capability for automatic approach and landing

21
Q
What does the ADIRU 1 power

A
Cpt PFD and ND + DDRMI

22
Q
 With the check gw message, where can you enter airplane weight now that init b is

no longer available

A
Fuel prediction page

23
Q
When is the active flight plan normally deleted

A
30 sec after landing

24
Q
On emergency generator power, what FMGC functionality will remain

A
FMGC1 nav functions only

25
Q
Which FMGC is master (and the other slave in these scenarios)

1. Ap2 is on

2. Dual autopilot approach

3. Both autopilots off

1. FMGC 2

2. FMGC 1

3. FMGC 1

26
Q
 Which DMC can the different ADIRUs connect to

A
ADIRU 1 = 1&3

ADIRU 2 = 2&3

ADIRU 3 = All

27
Q
ADIRU 3 gets info from standby pitot, static and AOA, but which TAT probe does it

use?

A
Capt TAT

APU
1
Q
What two(three) methods will lead to an APU emergency shutdown

A
Fire switch in cockpit, or switch on external panel (automatic during fire on ground)

2
Q
If both engines are running, what will happen in the bleed system if APU bleed is

turned on

A
Both eng bleed valves will close, xfeed valve will open, APU bleed will feed both

sides

3
 Q
When does APU Nspeed turn amber and red

A
Amber >102, red >107 (plus automatic shutdown)

4
Q
If you get the low oil message on the APU ECAM page, what should you do

A
Can continue normal ops, for another 10h

5
Q
What does an amber egt mean on the APU page

A
Reached egt max temp minus 33 degrees

6
Q
What are the alt limitations for the APU

1. Elec power

2. Single pack

3. Two packs

4. Ground operations

1. To max

2. 22,500 (FCOM 20,000)

3. 15,000

4. 14,500

7
Q
What is the APU start cycle

A
3 starts then 60 min cooloff

8
Q
What will happen if the APU was used for bleed air and you shut it down

A
It will continue to run for around 60 secs (wait until flap closes before turning off batt)

Pneumatics And Air Conditioning

1
Q
How many Bleed Monitoring Computers are there

A
2

2
Q
What is the precooler outlet temp target

A
200C (warnings generated around 260-300)

3
Q
Which part of the airplane has double loops to detect bleed air leaks

A
The wings

4
Q
A bleed air leak will close the associated valve except for during ?

A
Engine start

5
Q
When is emergency ram air inlet used

What are the criteria

A
Smoke removal

Loss of both packs

<1psi diff press (will open OF valve 50%)

6
Q
What temp will the packs produce

A
The lowest demanded temp of all 3 zones

7
Q
What is the temp range of the zone temp selectors

A
18-30 (24 in the middle)

8
Q
What are the two numbers in each zone on the ECAM cond page

A
Upper zone temp

Lower duct temp

 9
Q
What are the flow rates for the 3 settings of pack airflow

When will it automatically go to high

A
80, 100, 120

When APU is supplying bleed air

10
Q
At what cabin alt do you get the cabin alt warning

When does that number start pulsing

A
Above 9,550’

Above 8,800’

11
Q
When does the cabin pressure controllers change

A
70sec after each landing (or if in manual mode for 10 secs)

12
Q
When is abort mode triggered (LDG elev set to departure field)

A
If A/C is below 8,000’

Or climbed less than =5,075’ since takeoff with a rod of >200 for 30 sec

13
Q
 What are the 3 avionics vent configs

A
Open closed and intermediate

14
Q
What is a nominal bleed air pressure

A
45 +/-5 psi

15
Q
What does the ditching button do

A
Closes all valves below the water line

(Outflow valve, both avionics vent valves, emergency ram air inlet, pack valves)

16
Q
How many motors can control the outflow valve

A
3

One for each CPC and one manual

17
Q
When do the positive and negative safety valves open

A
-1 psi and 8.6 psi

18
Q
What is the delta pressure just before takeoff and landing
A
Target is 0.1 psi

19
Q
What is the max diff press target

A
8.06 psi

20
Q
How many electric motors does the xbleed valve have. When are they used

A
Two motors

One uses during auto operation, the other for manual operation

21
Q
What happens if one lane of the Air Conditioning System Controller fails ?

If both fail?

A
Backup lane takes over, no effect

Pack is lost

22
Q
What happens if the hot air regulator valve is:

Failed open

Failed closed

A
If failed open, the trim air valves will still have all the hot air they want, no effect
If failed closed, regulation of individual zones is degraded. Pack 1 is set to cockpit

temp, pack 2 is set to median cabin temp

23
Q
When do the ram air inlet flaps open on landing

A
Below 70kts, after a 20 sec delay

Hydraulics
1
Q
What is the normal hydraulic pressure

A
3,000 psi (2,500 from the RAT)

2
Q
Which systems has engine driven pumps

A
Green and yellow

3
Q
When does the PTU activate

A
If the difference between green and yellow system is >500 psi

4
Q
When is the PTU automatically tested
A
During 2nd engine start

5
Q
How many electric hyd pumps are there

2. Blue and yellow

6
Q
With no electric power, can the cargo door be opened

A
Yes, by a hydraulic hand pump

7
Q
Which fault will not be extinguished when turning the pump push button off

A
Any overheat will only be extinguished when the temperature drops below a

threshold

8
Q
Which important systems are lost with the loss of the green system

A
Reverser 1, landing gear, autobrakes

9
Q
Which important systems are lost with the loss of the yellow system

A
Nose wheel steering, Reverser 2
 10
Q
When does the RAT drop

A
If both AC bus 1&2 are lost

11
Q
What usually pressurizes the hyd reservoirs

A
Eng1 bleed (2 as backup)

12
Q
When does the blue elec pump start operating

A
After first engine start

13
Q
What hydraulic system(s) power the THS

A
Via 3 electric motors (based on which ELAC/SEC is in control), they are then moved

by the green or yellow hyd system.

Flight Controls
1
Q
Flight controls are ________ controlled and _________ actuated

A
 Electrically, hydraulically

2
Q
Which controls have mechanical linkages to flight controls

A
Rudder and THS (trimmable horizontal stabilizer)

3
Q
Which spoilers are used for

1. Roll

2. Speed brake

3. Ground spoilers

1. 2-5

2. 2-4

3. 1-5

4
Q
What warnings will you get if both pilots try to use their side sticks

A
“Dual input” plus flashing green

5
Q
How can you take over controls from the other pilot.

How long must you do this in order to let go (and still have priority)

What are the warnings

 A
Hold the takeover button on side stick .

If held for over 40 sec, the other stick is locked out

Red arrow and “priority left/right”

6
Q
What does a green light signify while holding the priority button

A
Other sidestick is not in neutral

7
Q
Which ELAC usually controls

1. Elevator

2. Ailerons

1. Nr2

2. Nr1

8
Q
Rudder use by the pilot is ________ controlled while yaw damper, trim, and turn

coordination is ______

A
Mechanical. Electric

9
Q
What will the ailerons do with flaps down

A
 Go into droop mode, 5 degrees down

10
Q
What happens if you try to extend spd brakes in conf full

A
Nothing (it’s inhibited)

11
Q
What scenarios will inhibit the use of speed brakes (or retract them)

How can you regain the use of speed brakes

A
aFloor, aProt, thrust above MCT, conf full, failed elevator

Reset spd brake lever, wait 10 sec

12
Q
What is the approximate speed brake retraction above 315kts (from full)

A
25 sec

13
Q
During flight in normal law, what does the sidestick command in pitch and roll

A
Pitch: load factor

Roll: roll rate

14
Q
Up to what bank angle will the flight control computers maintain the bank angle with

release of the stick

A
33 degrees

15
Q
Normal law protections are how many degrees for:

Bank

Pitch up

Pitch down

A
67

30 (down to 20 with flaps full and slow speed)

15

16
Q
What happens during flare in normal law at 50 and 30 feet

A
50 feet: flare mode active, ths freezes, elevator becomes direct control, computer

saves pitch attitude

30 feet: computer starts a gradual pitch command to -2 degrees (to simulate

conventional ac)

17
Q
What are load factor protections

Flaps up

Flaps down
A
+2.5 -1

+2 -0

18
Q
When do flight directors disappear with excessive pitch

A
25 up 13 down

19
Q
What are the 4 thresholds for low speed protection

A
Vls, lowest selectable speed

aProt transit to sidestick AOA demand, the AOA the AC will return to with neutral

stick

aFloor AOA where A/THR engages TOGA

aMAX full aft sidestick, AOA just before stall

20
Q
When is aFloor available (altitudes)

A
From liftoff to 100’ before landing

21
Q
What happens during high speed prot
Bank angle limit

Bank angle return to neutral

Pitch

A
Bank angle limit reduced to 40

Neutral sidestick reduces bank to 0

Gradual pitch up command

22
Q
When is low energy warning triggered

Envelope

Aural alert

A
100-2000 RH + flaps 2-full

Speed x3

23
Q
In normal law with full sidestick deflection, what is the max roll rate

A
15 deg/s

24
Q
What are the 4 possible flight control laws

A
Normal

Alternate (with and without protections)

Direct

Mechanical backup
 25
Q
What does the sidestick command in pitch and roll under alternate law

A
Pitch still load factor

Roll: direct roll control

26
Q
In alternate law with reduced protections, what replaces low/high speed prot

A
Low high speed stability

Introduces a small pitch up/down moment at low/high speeds, but can be overriden

27
Q
When is direct law normally entered, when flying in alternate law

What changes

A
With gear down

Pitch is now direct control

Trim is manual

All protections are lost

28
Q
What happens to yaw damper and turn coordination outside of normal law

A
They are gone, have to use rudder in turns etc

29
Q
What happens when:

Abnormal attitude law is activated (to pitch, roll, yaw, trim)

After the aircraft has returned to normal flight

Gear is selected down later in the flight

A
Alternate law with: Pitch with no load factor limit, direct bank, mechanical yaw, no

auto trim

Pitch/yaw returns to normal alternate law without reduced protections

Aircraft Remains in alternate law

30
Q
What stops slats/flaps in case of uncommanded movement, over speed and

asymmetry

A
Wingtip brakes

31
Q
How many leading edge slats are there

A
5

32
Q
What’s the difference between setting flaps 1 on the ground and in flight

A
In flight, slats 1 only

On ground slats 1 + flaps 1

 33
Q
What is A-Lock

A
Prevents slat retraction to zero at low speeds

34
Q
Slap/Flap speed limits

1+F

Full

A
230

215

200

185

177

35
Q
Max flaps extension altitude

A
20,000’

36
Q
What are the criteria to enter abnormal attitude law?

Pitch
 Bank

Speed

AOA

A
Pitch more than 50 up or 30 down (40 or 20 with some ADC failures)

Bank more than 105 degrees

Speed less than 70-90 (depends on pitch), or more than 440 /M.91

AOA above 40 degrees

37
Q
If taking off with conf flaps 1+f, at what speeds do the flaps automatically retract

A
210kts

38
Q
The 2 Slat Flap Control Computer have how many channels each?

What happens if one computer fail?

If one channel fails?

A
2 channels, one slat channel and one flap channel

Slats/flaps will move at half speed

The slats or flaps controlled by that channel will be slow

39
Q
Direct law is usually entered by lowering the gear. If both LGCIU are faulty, when will

direct law activate? (Also Sec 1,2 and 3 failure)

A
At Conf 2

Landing Gear
1
Q
Which hyd system powers the LDG gear

A
Green

2
Q
Above what speed is LDG gear hydraulic supply cut off

A
260

3
Q
When do the two landing gear computers switch (LGCIUs)

A
On a gear extension

4
Q
Which hyd system controls normal braking

A
Green

5
Q
Which hyd system controls altn breaking and nws plus parking brake and brake

accumulator

A
Yellow

6
Q
What computer is the LDG gear indicator panel connected to

What computer is each LDG gear triangle connected to on the ECAM wheel page

A
LGCIU 1

Each half is one lgciu

7
Q
Limitations:

LDG gear retraction

LDG gear extension

LDG gear extended

LDG gear max alt

A
220

250

280 .67

25,000

8
Q
Max speed where hand wheel or rudder pedals will move the nosewheel

A
 Hand wheel 80kts

Rudder pedals 130kts

9
Q
Max steering deflection of nosewheeel with hand wheel and rudder

A
Hand wheel 75 degrees

Rudder 6 degrees

10
Q
What are the 3 failed brake scenarios

A
Alt brakes with anti skid

Altn brakes without anti skid

Altn brakes without anti skid and only accumulator

11
Q
How many full brake applications should you get on the accumulator

A
7

12
Q
For how many hours should the accumulator hold the parking brake

A
12

13
Q
When does the decel light come on in the auto brake buttons
 When will it normally not come on

A
When the deceleration is 80% of rated

On contaminated runways

14
Q
When is there a green arc above a LDG gear wheel

When does it turn amber

A
Above the hottest wheel when temp is above 100

Above 300 (max takeoff temp)

15
Q
If you lose LGCIU 1 or 2. What seemingly unrelated systems will also not work

1. Gpws and rev 1

2. Rev 2

16
Q
Above what speed will the auto brake function on an RTO

A
> 72kts due to ground spoiler arming

17
Q
How many seconds after ground spoilers deployment will auto brake lo and med start

A
 4 and 2 seconds

18
Q
Below what speed is anti skid not active

A
20kts

19
Q
Max nosegear towing angle

A
95 degrees

20
Q
What is a hidden problem with an auto brake failure

A
If a wheel tachometer is failed, it will release the brake on that wheel permanently

Landing distance should be x1.2

21
Q
What does the red down arrow next to the LDG gear handle indicate

A
Aircraft is in landing config, but gear is not down

22
Q
Which ADRs supply the airspeed for the landing gear safety valve (to close it above

260kts)

A
1 and 3
 23
Q
Max tire speed

A
195kts

Fuel
1
Q
When does the low level fuel caution come on for each wing-tank

A
750kg (1,500 is is minimum total for take-off)

2
Q
What is the max imbalance of the outer and inner wingtanks

A
Inner, 1,500-2,250 depending on fuel.

Outer 690kg (max vs zero)

3
Q
Minimum and Maximum fuel temp Jet A1

A
-43, +54

4
Q
Max refueling pressure

A
 50 psi

5
Q
Max total fuel

A
18,728kg

6
Q
When does the outer wing-tank open its valves

A
When inner tank is <750kg

7
Q
In auto mode, when do the center tanks run

A
2 minutes after engine start

after t-o with slats retracted (and 500kg burned)

for 5 minutes after the tank is empty

8
Q
In what “normal” scenario in flight, will the center tanks turn off (with lots of fuel

remaining)

A
If the wingtank gets overfilled due to the return lines from the fuel cooling of the IDG

etc

Will then stop until 500kg is burned from the wing tank

9
Q
 What will cause a (half) amber box around the FOB

A
Center tanks failed/off with fuel remaining

Outer wingtanks valve failure

10
Q
Which tanks will still deliver fuel, with all pumps failed

A
Wingtanks, center tank has no suction feeding

11
Q
What does an amber line through the last two digits of a fuel tank quantity indication

mean

A
Quantity indicators operating in degraded mode. Quantity is +300/-750 of indicated

12
Q
How many motors power the cross feed valve (fuel)

A
2

Ice and Rain

1
Q
Which slats are heated

A
 3 outboard

2
Q
What happens when you turn on wing anti ice on the ground

A
A 30s test, then closed

3
Q
When does window/probe heat come on

A
After 1st engine start, or manually

4
Q
What is the max wiper speed

A
230kts

5
Q
Which probe is never heated on the ground

A
TAT

6
Q
How many power levels for flight deck:

Windshields

Windows

A
Windshields: two Power levels, low on the ground normal in air

Windows: one power level

Powerplant
How many lbs of thrust does the engine have

A
27,000

2
Q
What powers the accessory gearbox

A
HP (N2) compressor shaft

3
Q
What are the 3 idle modes

A
Modulated

Approach idle

Reverse idle

4
Q
What are the two degraded engine thrust setting modes (other then EPR)

What two systems are lost in degraded mode

A
Rated N1 mode. (Also manually selectable)
 Degraded N1 mode (uses TLA only. Can overboost)

A/THR and aFloor

5
Q
Which igniters will be used during an

1. Automatic start

2. Manual start

1. One, alternating between the two between each start

2. Both are used

6
Q
How many channels does each FADEC have

2. Primary and backup

7
Q
When is the FADEC running on internal power

A
> 10% N2

8
Q
When does oil qty pulse green

A
<5,25qt
 9
Q
What is min oil press

A
60psi

10
Q
Max oil temp

A
165

Or 155 for 15 min

11
Q
When is continuous ignition automatically turned on

A
Anti-Ice

TOGA thrust

Flex takeoff

Approach idle

Unscheduled drop of engine speed below idle

Surge

12
Q
TOGA thrust limitation, in minutes

A
5min

10min (engine out)

13
Q
Minimum oil temp for engine start

A
-40

14
Q
Engine start cycle

A
2min, 15 sec, 2 min, 15 sec, 1 min, 30 minutes

15
Q
When does the nacelle temp pulse green

A
Above 320 degrees

16
Q
When does VIB pulse

A
Above 5

17
Q
What protection does the fadec give during manual engine start

A
None, monitoring only

18
Q
When do the igniters and start valve disconnect during manual engine start

A
N2 43% for both
 19
Q
What is the minimum oil quantity indication before start.

What is the regular engine oil consumption

A
11qt + estimated consumption

0.3qt/h

20
Q
Engine EGT TOGA/starting limit (degrees and minutes)

MCT EGT limit

A
635 (flashes red above)

5Min dual, 10min single engine

610

21
Q
Max flex temp is ISA +___

A
55

22
Q
When does the pack valve close during engine start

A
When selecting ign/start

23
Q
How many stages are in the low pressure compressor and turbine ?

High pressure compressor and turbine?

A
Low pressure= 5 low pressure compressors (1 fan, and 4 more stages) + 5 turbine

stages

High pressure = 10 compressor stages and 2 turbine stages

Oxygen
1
Q
Where is the overpressure frangible disc located for the cockpit oxygen

Normal color, burst color

A
Lower left side of fwd fuselage

Green, yellow

2
Q
For flight deck oxygen, when is pressure to the mask (same as emerg button)

automatically added

A
Above 30,000 feet

3
Q
ECAM oxygen page

Cockpit oxygen indication. When is it:

Green (normal)

Pulsing green (page automatically displayed)

Amber

Amber half frame (on ground)

A
> 600

<600

<300

<1,000

4
Q
When do the cabin oxy masks drop

A
14,000’ +250/-750

5
Q
How long do cabin oxygen work

A
Approximately 15min

6
Q
How long does the smoke hood work

A
About 15min

7
Q
What is the oxygen timer reset switch used for

A
 Maintenance uses it to reset the system after it has operated

8
Q
What does the high alt LDG push button do

A
OFF: The masks drop, if the cabin pressure exceeds 14 000 ft (+ 250, -750 ft).

ON: The masks drop, if the cabin pressure exceeds 16 000 ft (+ 250, -750 ft).

Fire Protection
1
Q
How many fire loops for each engine and APU

A
2

2
Q
How many fire bottles for the engine and APU

A
2 for each engine, 1 for APU

3
Q
What will happen if both fire loops fail?

(Two possible scenarios)

A
If both fail within 5 seconds it will generate a fire warning

If both fail within a longer timespan you will only get a detector fault
 4
Q
What happens when you push/release the eng fire button

A
Hyd valve closes

Generator de-energize

LP fuel valve closed

Eng bleed and pack valve closed

Cuts off fadec

Arms squib

5
Q
What happens when you push the APU fire pb

A
Turns off lp fuel valve,

Generator de-energ

Bleed valve closed, and xbleed closed

Arms squib

6
Q
What happens if a lavatory smoke detector detects smoke? (Indications]

A
Master warning in cockpit, warning to cabin crew

7
Q
Cargo smoke:

Number or bottles

Automatic Actions when smoke is detected

A
1 shared bottle (according to cbt, FCOM may differ)

Any vent fans, and isolation valves automatically shut off

8
Q
What happens if an APU fire is detected on the ground

A
Auto shutdown and release of fire bottle after 3 seconds

9
Q
What does a loss of the red disc outside the APU compartment signify

A
That the APU fire bottle has overpressurized, and vented away

10
Q
Which parts of the engine has fire detection

A
Pylon Nacelle

Engine core

Engine fan section

11
Q
How many fire detectors are installed in each cargo compartment

A
2 in fwd, 4 in aft

Communication
 1
Q
How many VHF radios are installed

A
3

2
Q
What is the CVR memory in hours

A
2

3
Q
What can you do if your ACP fails

A
Change the switch to cpt/fo 3 on the audio switching switch

4
Q
When does the CVR operate

A
On ground, for 5 minutes after turning on electrical power

On ground with one engine running

In flight

On ground for 5 minutes after engine shutdown

Or on ground when the gnd ctl pb is pushed

Equipment, Doors, Lights, Water &
Waste
1
Q
What do the light color signify on the overhead panel

Green

White

Blue

Amber

Red

A
Green normal condition

White abnormal switch position

Blue normal but temporary condition

Amber abnormal condition requiring crew attention

Red abnormal condition requiring immediate action

2
Q
Max window open speed

A
200kts

3
Q
How long does the power source for the emergency lights last

A
12 minutes
 4
Q
When do the fasten seatbelt, no smoking and exit lights come on with excessive

cabin altitude

A
11,300 +/-350

5
Q
Below what altitude will the waste vacuum pump operate

A
16,000’

6
Q
How do you control FCU brightness

A
Knobs below the fcu

7
Q
Can the left cockpit window escape rope reach the ground through the right window?

A
Yes
 1
Q
What does a green light on the overhead panel represent?

A
Normal system operation.

2
Q
What does a blue light on the overhead panel represent?

A
Normal operation of a system used temporarily.

3
Q
What does a amber light on the overhead panel represent?

A
A failure of which the flight crew should be aware.

4
Q
What does a red light on the overhead panel represent?

A
A failure requiring immediate attention.

5
Q
What does a white light on the overhead panel represent?

A
An abnormal push button position for normal operation or a test result or

maintenance information.

6
Q
Basic functions of the overhead panel if pb’s pressed in?

A
ON, AUTO, OVRD, OPEN

7
Q
Basic functions of the overhead panel if pb’s pressed out?

A
OFF, MAN, ALTN, SHUT

8
Q
What are momentary action pb’s?

A
Pb’s that do not remain pressed in.

9
Q
Red OEB’s?

A
Significant impact on SAFE operation.

10
Q
White OEB’s?

A
Significant impact on the operation of the aircraft.

11
Q
Maximum demonstrated crosswind for T/O and landing?

A
38kts including gusts.
 12
Q
What is the maximum runway slope?

A
+-2%

13
Q
Maximum tailwind for takeoff and landing?

A
15 knots

14
Q
What is the maximum operating speed Vmo/Mmo?

A
Vmo 350kts Mmo 0.82

15
Q
What is the maximum ground roll speed?

A
195kts

16
Q
The maximum service ceiling for the A320 is?

A
39800ft

17
Q
What happens if DMC 1 or 2 fail?

A
“Invalid Data” message is displayed on the PFD and ND. If DMC 1 fails, the ECAM

automatically switches to DMC 2. You need to switch the PFD and ND using the

XFER button.

18
Q
What happens if both ECAM screens fail?

A
They can be transferred onto the ND. if the PFD screen fails it moves across

automatically.

19
Q
What indications trigger a LEVEL 1 CAUTION?

A
Failures leading the loss of redundancy of a system. An amber caution is displayed

on the ECAM.

20
Q
What indications trigger a LEVEL 2 CAUTION?

A
System failure without any direct consequence on flight safety. Amber caution on

ECAM, attenting getter and bing.

21
Q
What indications trigger a LEVEL 3 CAUTION?

A
The configuration or failure requires immediate action. Aircraft in dangerous

configuration or limit flight conditions. System failure altering flight safety.

22
Q
CRC audio indication:

A
Red warnings - permanent.

23
Q
single chime audio indication:

A
Amber Caution.

24
Q
Continuous buzzer:

A
SELCL call.

25
Q
triple click audio indication:

A
Landing capability downgrade/mode reversion.

26
Q
cricket audio indication:

A
Stall.

27
Q
When do the TO and LDG memo appear on the EWD?

A
TO memo 2 mins after 2nd engine start or 1 engine running when TO config button is

pressed.

LDG memo appears below 2000ft rad alt and disappears after touchdown.

28
Q
In a normal start what happens at 16, 22 and 50% N2?

A
16% Ignition starts.

22% HP fuel valve opens.

50% Engine start valve closes and ignition stops.

29
Q
In a MAN start what happens when the master switch is selected on?

A
HP and LP valves open introducing fuel to the engine and you get both A and B

ignitors.

30
Q
When does FADEC close the start valve?

A
When N2 reaches 50%.

31
Q
What is the role of FADEC during a manual engine start?

A
It controls the start valve, the HP fuel valve and ignition.

32
Q
What causes a FAULT light to appear in amber on the engine panel (under the

engine master).

A
Position of the HP shut-off valve is abnormal.

The automatic start sequence of the associated engine aborts.

There is a malfunction of the thrust control.

33
Q
What are the name f the FADEC engine idle modes?

A
Modulated, Approach and Reverse.

34
Q
When does approach idle activate?

A
It actives when flaps or slats are extended. It keeps engine RPM higher in case of a

go-around. It also activates if the aircraft is unsure of its position.

35
Q
What is the limiting EGT for the following operations: T/O and GA

MCT

STARTING

A
T/O and GA 950 degrees (5mins all eng 10mins single eng).

MCT 915 degrees.

STARTING 725 degrees.

36
Q
In terms of engine oil limitations, what is the maximum transient temperature?

A
155 degrees.

37
Q
When does SEL illuminate?

A
When an RMP is selected to a non dedicated radio.

38
Q
Out of the ACP’s, RMP’s, VOR’s, ILS’s, and ADF’s, which are available in an

emergency?

A
All of the number 1’s are available in EMER ELEC CONFIG.

39
Q
What are the normal and rat hydraulic operating pressures?

A
Normal 3000psi.

RAT 2500psi.

40
Q
When does the blue pump start automatically?

A
On first engine start.

41
Q
When is the PTU run automatically and self tested?
A
It runs automatically if there is a 500psi difference and it self tests after second

engine start. PTU is inhibited 40s after the end of cargo door operation, during the

first engine start and when only one engine master switch is on with the parking

brake.

42
Q
How many hydraulic actuators are there on the rudder?

A
3.

43
Q
What happens if a spoiler fault is detected?

A
The system automatically retracts them to zero.

44
Q
How do you clear a speedbrake auto-retraction?

A
Reset the lever and wait 10 seconds.

45
Q
What amber FMA do you have in direct law?

A
USE MAN PITCH TRIM.

46
Q
Descending through 30ft RA on landing what happens to pitch control?

A
It trims 2 degrees nose down from current position. Auto trim comes out at 50ft.

47
Q
What protections are available in normal law?

A
Pitch attitude.
bank angle.
high speed.
high angle of attack.
load factor.

48
Q
What are the G load protection limits?

A
Clean +2.5 -1

Flaps +2 -0

49
Q
What are the pitch attitude limits?

A
30 degrees nose up in config 0-3.

25 degrees nose up in config full.

15 degrees nose down.

50
Q
At what speed does high speed protection activate?

A
Vmo +6.

51
Q
What is the max bank angle in high speed protection and alpha protection.

A
Hi speed prot: 40 degrees.

Alpha prot: 45 degrees.

52
Q
Are there any restrictions on pitch or roll in alternate law.

A
no.

53
Q
What is the rate of roll in the clean configuration and with slats extended.

A
Clean: 30 degrees/sec

Slats: 25 degrees/sec

54
Q
What causes reversion to manual back up?

A
Temporary and total electrical loss, temporary loss of 5 fly-by-wire computers, the

loss of both elevators (FACS) or the total loss of ailerons and spoilers. If you have 1

SEC you can still control the aircraft.

55
Q
Mechanical backup FMA?

A
MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY

56
Q
When the aircraft returns from abnormal attitude law within the normal flight

envelope, what happen with pitch yaw and roll control?

A
For pitch, alternate law is active with no protection.

For roll direct law is active.

For yaw alternate law is active.

57
Q
What causes the green light with a priority sidestick?

A
When the deactivated sidestick is out of neutral.

58
Q
What are the flap 1 and flap full limiting speeds?

A
Flap 1 230kts and Flap full 177kts.

59
Q
Initial actions of a rejected takeoff?

A
Rev max, check speed brakes, monitor auto brake, manual brake if necessary.

60
Q
What happens if cabin staff initiate and emergency call to the flight deck?

A
EMER/CALL pb flashes and a buzzer sounds 3 times. Along with a flashing ATT light

on all 3 ACP’s.
 61
Q
What is the function of the LGCIU?

A
The landing gear interface unit sends gear position information from proximity

detectors to other aircraft systems.

62
Q
What happens when the gravity extension is turned?

A
1st turn isolates the landing gear hydraulics from the green system. 2nd turn unlocks

the landing gear doors. 3rd turn allows gravity extension to drop the gear into the

extended position. The doors remain open.

63
Q
how many green triangles are needed to confirm the gear is locked down?

A
3.

64
Q
When does nose wheel steering become inhibited?

A
Rudder pedals - 130kts.

Tiller - 80kts.

65
Q
How much nose wheel steering is available through the rudder and tiller?

A
 Rudder pedals - 6 degrees.

Tiller - 75 degrees.

66
Q
When is NW STRG DISC amber and green?

A
It’s amber if one engine is running and green when the selector is in the towing

position and no engines are running.

67
Q
What system is the autobrake on?

A
Green. Remember autobrake is a deceleration rate so despite reverse thrust it stops

in the same distance. On an RTO with MAX autobrake, this is not a rate of

deceleration, it is just max braking.

68
Q
How long can the park brake be on for?

A
The accumulator should last for 12 hours.

69
Q
What delays occur with LO, MED and MAX autobrake?

A
LOW - 4s after spoilers deploy (1.7m/s decal rate).

MED - 2s after spoilers deploy (3m/s decal rate).

70
Q
 What temperature must the brakes be below for takeoff?

A
150 degrees.

71
Q
What are the immediate actions for loss of braking?

A
Max reverse, release pedals, command a/skid off, press for 1000psi max.

72
Q
what roughly is the total fuel capacity?

A
19004kg.

73
Q
What is the minimum quantity of fuel for takeoff?

A
1500kg.

74
Q
If all of the tanks are full, what is the normal sequencing for fuel?

A
Start - centre tanks.

Flaps for T/O - Inner tanks for each engine.

Flaps up + 500kg used - goes back to the centre tank and empties it. When the

centre tank empties it automatically switches over.

When inner wing tanks get to 750kg, fuel is automatically transferred from the outer.

1st inner cell < 750kg 1st transfer valves open on each side. 2nd inner tank < 750kg
2nd transfer valves open on each side. Outer transfer valves close on the next

refuelling.

75
Q
Describe over-full and under-full tanks..

A
Over-full - tanks are full.

Under-full - wing tanks are down 500kg to allow fuel from the IDG to return to each
tank.

76
Q
What happens to the centre tank pumps when the slats are extended within and after

2 minutes of engine start?

A
Within 2 minutes - Centre tank.

After 2 minutes - Inner tank.

77
Q
What causes the FAULT light to illuminate on the mode select switch on the fuel

panel?

A
When the centre tank has more than 250kg of fuel and the left or right wing tank has

less than 5000kg.

78
Q
What does a square with a line through it represent on the E/WD?

A
A pump.
 79
Q
On the SD what is indicated by a tank fuel quantity being boxed yellow?

A
Both transfer valves have failed to open.

80
Q
What type of warning is a fuel imbalance?

A
Advisory.

81
Q
What will happen to the flight displays if the shed bus is not live?

A
The captain will lose his ND.

82
Q
What is the max KVA for the generators?

A
GEN 1, GEN 2, APU GEN = 90KVA.

EMERGANCY GEN = 5KVA.

83
Q
what does the 25.5 volts on start-up mean?

A
There is sufficient charge to start the APU.

84
Q
What 4 supplies are there to the AC Essential feed.
A
AC Bus 1, AC Bus 2, Emergency Gen, Bat 1 via the static inverter.

85
Q
If TR1 fails, what supplies the DC Essential Bus?

A
The Essential TR.

86
Q
Which busses get powered when the aircraft is on battery power only?

A
AC Ess Bus and DC Ess Bus

87
Q
In flight can the APU be started?

A
Yes, 45 seconds after the failure to allow the emergency generator to come online

and below FL250.

88
Q
What is the normal pressure of the bleed air?

A
45psi +/-5psi and 200 degrees.

89
Q
When would you expect to see the HP valve open?

A
On the ground and at low thrust settings like in the decent.

90
Q
Which bleed supplies can be used simultaneously?

A
Eng 1 and Eng 2 bleed.

91
Q
Is wing anti-ice allowed if one bleed system is operating?

A
Not if both packs are on. One pack must be switched off. You would get sufficient air

from the heat exchanger but it will burn out the pack (pre-cooler performance).

92
Q
What happens if a BMC (bleed monitoring computer) fails?

A
Leak detection for that side is lost. BMC 1 provides leak detection for ENG 1, wing

loop A and the APU duct.

93
Q
What are the implications of using ground power air?

A
If its LP air, you musnt run the APU BLEED and packs must be off. You can however

run the APU for power. If its HP air you must run the APU and it is merely used for

starting the aircraft.

94
Q
What are the functions of ACSC (air conditioning service computer) 1 & 2?

A
ACSC 1 runs the number 1 pack, manages the hot air pressure regulating valve and

cockpit trim valve. ACSC 2 runs the number 2 pack and the forward and aft trim air

valves.

95
Q
What are the range of temperatures on the temperature controller.

A
18 degrees in cold position, 24 degrees in the 12 o’clock position and 30 degrees in

the hot position.

96
Q
What happens to the pack flow valves during engine start?

A
They automatically close.

97
Q
When does the pack ram air valve open after landing?

A
20 seconds after the speed drops below 70kts. In flight you’d want ram air if both

packs have failed. Initially your cabin altitude would rise. Remember the ram air valve

has a differential pressure of just 1 psi so if the pressure difference is greater than

1psi the ram air valve wont open. Without packs, air is just re-circulated.

98
Q
Describe cabin pressurisation on T/O and LDG.

A
On T/O or LDG the cabin pressure goes to airfield elevation -300 for passenger

comfort. 55 seconds after touchdown outflow fully opens. On a side note, cabin
altitude has an 8.3 differential pressure rating so cabin alt can be zero at 20000ft.

Anything after that the cabin alt will rise.

99
Q
What is the max ROD of the cabin in AUTO?

A
750fpm.

100
Q
In the ground mode at high skin temperatures, which config is in operation?

A
The open circuit config. 12 degrees is the decider. If the temperature is higher than

12 degrees, its in open config. If the temperature is lower than 12 degrees, its in

closed config. In flight, the deciding temperature is 35 degrees. If it is greater than 35

degrees, its in the intermediate configuration. Otherwise its in the closed config.

101
Q
How many fire loops and bottles are there per engine and APU?

A
2 loops for all. 2 bottles per engine. 1 bottle for the APU.

102
Q
When is the squib light illuminated?

A
When the squib is armed for discharge (+ when pushing the test button).

103
Q
How many smoke detectors are there for cargo fire extinguishing?
A
ETOPS system has 2 detectors in the forward compartment and 4 in the aft

compartment. FOR THE TEST: there is 1 fire bottle which can be fired into the

forward or aft compartment.

104
Q
What are the 4 occasions when the ALIGN light will flash?

A
1) Respective IR is in align mode.

2) IR alignment fault/no present position entry after 10 minutes.

3) Difference between position at shutdown and entered position.

4) Aircraft is moved during alignment.

105
Q
What is the immediate memory action for unreliable airspeed at Vr?

A
TOGA, 15 degrees pitch.

106
Q
When an ILS is tuned on an RMP, what information is not available?

A
DME distance on the PFD.

107
Q
Which procedure has to be applied first in case of simultaneous failure of ADR and

IR fault (same ADIRU)/

A
ADR fault procedure before IR.
 108
Q
What is the difference between the sweep on the weather radar and terrain?

A
Weather radar is a single sweep, terrain is a double sweep.

109
Q
What produces the information on the ND when using EGPWS?

A
FM1, captains rad alt and baro alt.

110
Q
What are icing conditions defined as?

A
TAT or OAT at or below 10 degrees and visible moisture (1600m or less).

1
Q
MZFW?

A
61000 kg.

2
Q
MTOW?

A
77000 kg.

3
Q
 MLW?

A
64500 kg.

4
Q
Maximum FOB?

A
18728 kg.

5
Q
APU - How long can the APU be operated after indicating “LOW OIL LEVEL”?

A
Up to 10 hours.

6
Q
Vle?

A
280 kts/ M.67

7
Q
Vlo extend?

A
250 kts.

8
Q
Vlo retract?

A
220 kts.
 9
Q
Max altitude for gear extension?

A
25,000 ft.

10
Q
Max tire speed?

A
195 kts.

11
Q
Max brake temp for TO?

A
300 deg C (and 150 deg C with brake fan on).

12
Q
Max N1 allowed with Park Brake set?

A
75%.

13
Q
Name the 5 Brake Temperature Limitations scenarios where maintenance is

required.

A
“2-15-6-6-9-m”

1. same gear brake temp diff > 150 deg C, one brake temp > = 600 deg C.

2. same gear brake temp diff > 150 deg C, one brake temp < = 60 deg C.
3. left and right gear average temp > = 200 deg C.

4. fuse plug melt.

5. brake temp > 900 deg C.

14
Q
What is the max differential cabin pressure?

A
+8.6 and -1 PSI

15
Q
What are the restrictions for using HP Ground Unit for air conditioning?

A
APU bleed should be off. Otherwise may result in bleed system damage.

16
Q
What are the Pack restrictions for using LP Ground Unit for air conditioning?

A
Packs should off.

17
Q
What is the IAS limit for windshield wiper?

A
230 kts.

18
Q
When should Engine Anti-Ice be turned on?

A
Any icing conditions.
 Except during climb/cruise when SAT < -40 deg C.

19
Q
What is the definition of “Icing Conditions” for the engines?

A
OAT or TAT >= 10 deg C and Visible Moisture.

20
Q
What speed does SRS maintain?

A
Takeoff

 2-engine: V2+10 KT.

 OEI: V2 or current speed, whichever higher limited to V2+15 KT.

Go-Around

 2-engine: Vapp or current speed, whichever higher limited to V2+25 KT.

 OEI: Vapp or current speed, whichever higher limited to V2+15 KT.

21
Q
On takeoff, what height is NAV engaged if armed?

A
30’ RA.

22
Q
On takeoff, at what height does SRS transit to CLB?

A
At Acceleration Altitude.
 23
Q
What is Mmo and Vmo?

A
Mmo = M0.82
Vmo = 350 kts

24
Q
What is the engine time and EGT limit for takeoff and go-around?

A
5 mins for takeoff. 10 mins for go-around.

635 deg C for both.

25
Q
What is the engine time and EGT limit for MCT?

A
No time limit. 610 deg C.

26
Q
What is the EGT limit for starting?

A
635 deg C.

27
Q
Name the Starter cycles, pause interval between start attempts and cooling period.

A
3 cycles of 2 min, 2 min and 1 min.

15 sec pause between each cycle.

Cooling period of 30 min after 3 start attempts of 4 min of continuous cranking.

 28
Q
How long must we wait before starting a 2nd set of 3 starter motor duty cycles for the

APU?

A
60 min.
EZY COMMAND FLASHCARDS

OM A Low Visibility Flashcards

1

Q
What is the minima for a cat 1 approach ? And required RVR

A
200ft Dh, rvr 550m/if reported 125m/if reported 75m

Multiple RVR are not required for CAT I and CAT I LTS

Q
What is the minima for a lts cat 1 approach ? And required rvr

A
200ft 450/400m/if reported 125m/if reported 75m

Multiple RVR are not required for CAT I and CAT I LTS

If roll out guidance used mi point RVR required is 75m

Q
What is the minima for a cat 2 approach ? And required rvr

A
100ft, rvr 300m/125m/75m

If roll out guidance used mi point RVR required is 75m

4
 Q
What is the minima for a ots cat 2 approach ? And required rvr

A
100ft 350m/125m/75m

If roll out guidance used mi point RVR required is 75m

Q
What is the minima for a cat 3 a approach ? And required rvr

A
50ft, rvr 200m/125m/75m

If roll out guidance used mi point RVR required is 75m

Q
What is the minima for a cat 3b approach ? And required rvr

A
No dh or 25ft, rvr 75/75m/75M

Q
Lowest rvr a captain can take off in LVP

A
125m rvr

Q
Required Visual References for CAT I approach ?

A
One of the following visual ref :

 Elements of the approach light system.

 The threshold.
 The threshold markings.
 The threshold lights.
 The threshold identification lights.
 The visual glideslope indicator.
 The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
 The touchdown zone lights runway edge lights.

Q
Required visual ref for CAT II or LTS CAT I ?

A
The visual references must contain a segment of at least 3 consecutive lights being
:

 The centre light of the approach lights, or

 Touchdown zone lights, or
 Runway centre line lights, or
 Runway edge lights, or
 A combination of these.
 *And** a lateral element of the ground pattern:
 An approach lighting crossbar, or
 The landing threshold, or a barrette of the touchdown zone lighting.

10

Q
Required visual ref for CAT III A ?

A
For Cat III A operations with fail-passive flight control systems, a pilot may not
continue an approach below DH unless a visual reference containing at least 3
consecutive lights being:

 The centreline of the approach lights, or

 The touchdown zone lights, or
 The runway centre line lights, or
 The runway edge lights, or
 A combination of these is attained and can be maintained.

11

Q
What is the minimum RVR for Takeoff ?

A
First officer 400M

Captain 125M

12

Q
How many consecutive approaches can be flown ?

A
No more than two successive approaches may be flown when there has been a go-
around due to weather conditions unless there has been a significant improvement to
the weather, or a state of emergency exists.

In exceptional circumstances, a third approach may be flown when a go-around has

been carried out for non-weather related reasons providing the Commander is
satisfied that landing is assured.

13

Q
What is the approach Ban ?

A
An instrument approach may be commenced regardless of the reported RVR/VIS. If
the reported RVR/VIS is less than the applicable minimum the approach shall not be
continued:

 Below 1000ft above aerodrome

 or DA/H MDA/H if more than 1000ft

If, after passing 1000 ft above the aerodrome, the reported RVR/VIS falls below the
applicable minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H.

14

Q
How many RVR value are required for CAT III B without DH ?

A
Only one RVR Value at the airport

15

Q
What is the controlling RVR ?

A
The touchdown RVR is always controlling for all instrument approach with MDA, DA
or DH.

If reported and relevant, the mid point and stop end RVR are also controlling.

16

Q
On a CATIII B approach without DH can you land if only one RVR is reported on the
airport (can be on the opposite side of the Airport)

A
For CAT IIIB without DH, Air Ops requires only one RVR value on the airport.

17

Q
What is the relevant RVR on Take off and on landing ?

A
Take-off
RVR for that part of the runway used to accelerate to V1 followed by a rejected take-
off and deceleration down to a speed of approximately 60 knots.

Landing

RVR for that part of the runway used during the high speed phase of the landing run
down to a speed of approximately 60 knots.

18

Q
How is a LTS CAT I flown ?

A
Autoland and LVP must be in force

19

Q
The reported RVR value for takeoff is less than the required value for the initial part
of the takeoff run, can the takeoff be started ? if yes how ?

A
The reported RVR value representative of the initial part of the take-off run can be
replaced by pilot assessment. OMA Note 8.1.3.3
So if the number of centerline lights allows the pilot to determine a higher than
required vis the take off can be started (centerline lights are spaced with 15m, edge
60m)

20

Q
What are the consequences on the required RVR to use rollout guidance for
landing ?

A
the mid point RVR is reduced to 75m instead of 125M
OMA 8.1.3.3.1

21

Q
 When are you allowed to used converted met vis to RVR ?

A
For landing in flight (not planning)
after conversion RVR more than 800m
No RVR are reported

OMA 8.1.3.4

22

Q
What is required on ground and in the A/C to perform an automatic rollout ?

 Cat II ground equipment

 NWS and antiskid
 Not approved on contaminated RWY

23

Q
What are the consequences of the lost of one engine for a low visibility approach ?

A
The aircraft become Cat III A so only CAT 3 single on the FMA

Autoland in config FULL only for A320, Config 3/FULL for A319 and neo

24

Q
What is the height of the Alert Height ?

A
100ft

25

Q
What does Fail operational mean ?
A
It means that in case of a failure below the AH the A/C can do the approach, flare
and landing automatically

Failure above AH, the A/C become fail passive

26

Q
What does fail passive mean ?

A
It means that in case of a failure in case of a failure there is no significant out of trim
condition or deviation on flight path but the landing cannot be completed
automatically

OMA 4 Crew composition Flashcards

1

Q
Max age to operate as Flight crew ?

A
65y

Q
What are the inexperienced criteria for flight crew ?

A
less than 100h and 50 sectors within 120 days of line check
or less than 150h and 50 sectors since line check

Q
 What is the minimum number of cabin crew ?

A
A319, 150Y : 3CC
A319, 156Y : 4CC*
A320, 180,186Y : 4CC*
A321, 235Y: 5CC*

*can be reduce due to unforeseen circumstances

Q
Max *** cabin crew ?

A
1*** when 3 CC
2*** when 4CC but has to be opposite side of cabin

Q
Is it allowed to do reduce cc operation from originating base ?

A
No, only not as base and has to be approved by the network duty manager

Q
What are the requirement to replace an incapacitated SCCM while away from base ?

A
Use a qualified SCCM crew, if non available, use the most senior with the minimum
requirement of 12months and 20 sectors on the A/C
Should be replace when transiting via transit base, but if non available can continue
to originating base.

Q
Can boarding be started with reduce crew at the originating base ?
A
Yes but one of the crew as to be acting as SCCM and be qualified SCCM if its the
one missing and safety brief have to be perform and safety check also.

Cannot do fuelling with pax while on reduced crew

OMA 7 FTL Flashcards

1

Q
What is Flight duty period (FDP) ?

A
‘FDP’ means a period that commences when a crew member is required to report for
Duty, which includes a Sector or series of Sectors, and finishes when the aircraft
finally comes to rest and the engines are shut down, at the end of the last Sector on
which the crew member acts as an Operating Crew Member.

Q
What is the maximum extension with the captain discretion ?

A
2 hours

Q
What is the maximum duty time for 7 days, 14 days and 28 days ?

A
60 Duty hours in any 7 consecutive days;

110 Duty hours in any 14 consecutive days; and

190 Duty hours in any 28 consecutive days, spread as evenly as practicable

throughout that period.
 4

Q
What is the maximum Flight time for 28 days, one calendar year, 12 consecutive
months ?

A
100 hours of Flight Time in any 28 consecutive days; and

900 hours of Flight Time in any calendar year; and

1,000 hours of Flight Time in any 12 consecutive calendar months.

Q
Does a positioning sector count as FDP ? As sector ?

A
Positioning after reporting but prior to operating shall be counted as FDP but shall not
count as a Sector;

All time spent on Positioning shall count as Duty Period.

Q
Where can you find max FDP for France ?

A
FRMS appendix I table I.3

Q
Split duties, what is the minimum rest on the ground for a split duty ?

A
3 Hours
The Break excludes the time allowed for post and pre-flight duties and travelling. The
minimum total time for post and pre-flight duties and travelling time is 30 minutes;

The Break on the ground shall count in full as FDP;

 8

Q
Can a split duty follow a reduced rest ?

A
no

Q
Can the captain discretion be used if a delay is know at the report time ?

A
No, If a delay is known at report, the maximum FDP may not be extended to
complete the duty. All delays, including those due to CTOT or late inbound arrival,
are considered to be known if visible in AIMS/eCrew at the reporting

10

Q
When can captain discretion be used ?

A
Commander may modify the limits of flight duty, duty and rest periods in the case of
unforeseen circumstances in flight operations, which start at or after the reporting
time.

If on the final sector within an FDP the allowed increase is exceeded because of
unforeseen circumstances after take-off, the flight may continue to the planned
destination or alternate aerodrome

11

Q
Your report is being delayed, what are the applicable FDP, and when does it start ?

A
When the delay is less than 4 hours, the maximum FDP is calculated based on the
original reporting time and the FDP starts counting at the delayed reporting time.
When the delay is 4 hours or more, the maximum FDP is calculated based on the
more limiting of the original or the delayed reporting time and the FDP starts counting
at the delayed reporting time.

12

Q
What is the minimum rest at home base and away from base ?

A
At home : as long as the preceding duty or 12h whichever is greater
By way of derogation from this requirement, the minimum rest provided under
7.1.11.2, Minimum Rest Period Away from Home Base applies if easyJet provides
Suitable Accommodation to the crew member at home base.

Away: as long as the preceding duty or 10h whichever is greater

13

Q
What are the requirement for reduce rest ?

A
the minimum reduced Rest Periods under reduced rest arrangements are 12 hours at
Home Base and 10 hours out of base;

Reduced rest is used under fatigue risk management;

The Rest Period following the reduced rest is extended by the difference between the
minimum Rest Period specified in 7.1.11, Rest Periods and the reduced rest;

The maximum allowable FDP following the reduced rest is reduced by the difference
between minimum the Rest Period specified in 7.1.11, Rest Periods and the reduced
rest;

There is a maximum of 2 reduced Rest Periods between 2 Recurrent Extended

Recovery Rest Periods as specified in 7.1.11.3, Recurrent Extended Recovery Rest
Periods.

14

Q
 How long can the max FDP be increased in case of a split duty ?

A
It can be increase by up to 50% of the break

OM A 8.1 Flight Preparation

Flashcards
1

Q
What is the radius for the MSA and what clearance does it provide ?

A
25NM, 1000ft clearance

Q
What is the MORA and what clearance does it provide ?

A
20NM from centerline
1000ft clearance for terrain up to 5000ft
2000ft clearance for terrain above 5000ft

Q
What is the minimum grid altitude ? what clearance does it provide ?

A
Lowest safe altitude that can be flown off track
1000ft clearance for terrain up to 6000ft
2000ft clearance for terrain above 6000ft
 4

Q
What is the rescue and fire fighting category required (RFFS) ?

A
A319/A320 category 6
A321 category 7

Q
What are the acceptable downgrade of RFFS for planning ?

A
Dep/Dest normal is 6 (A319/A320), 7 A321, but can be downgrade to 5 if low volume
(indicated in OFP)

Dep/dest if temporary downgrade (ATC, NOTAM, ATIS) less than 72h, two cat below
so 4 for A319/320 and 5 for A321

Takeoff alternate, dest alt,enroute : non UK RFFS 4, UK RFFS 5

Q
When is a takeoff alternate required ?

A
when the weather of the applicable instrument approach in use is below the required
minima to return to dep aerodrome

Q
At planning stage what is the required weather for the takeoff alternate ?

A
Weather report above the applicable minima of the expected instrument approach

Q
 At planning stage what is the required weather for the destination ?

A
Report or forecast must be at or above the minima of the expected instrument
approach

Q
When do you need two destinations alternates ?

A
The weather reports or forecasts at destination are below the applicable planning
minima.

No meteorological information is available.

The landing performance requirements cannot be assured at a destination

aerodrome due to dependence on a specific wind component or runway state.

10

Q
What are the planning minima for the destination alternate ?

A
OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4

11

Q
Can we use isolated aerodrome ?

A
No they are not approved by easyjet

12

Q
When can we have no destination alternate ?
 A

 The flight is less than 6 hours

 Two separate runway
 and weather for 1 h before ETA and 1h after will be ceiling +2000ft or circling
+500ft whichever is greater and Visibility +5km

If dispatched with no alternate then the Additional Fuel not less than the fuel
necessary to fly for 15 minutes at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in ISA.

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4

13

Q
What is the maximum distance we can fly from an adequate aerodrome ?

A
No further than 1 hour OEI cruise speed
A319 380NM
A320 400NM

14

Q
When can we consider runway as being separated ?

A
They are separate landing surfaces which may overlay or cross such that if one of
the runways is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of operations on the other
runway.

Each runway shall have a separate approach procedure based on a separate

navigation aid.

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4

15

Q
Can the destination and the alternate both be based on PBN ?
A
No one of the two has to be equipped with an instrument approach other than GNSS

OMA 8.1.2.2.2.5

16

Q
What are the aerodromes categories ?

A
Category A:

Non-complex and can be treated as routine.

Category B:

Complexity requiring specific briefing, e.g. audio visual briefing, aerodrome brief in
the Aerodrome Briefing Supplement.

Category B Restricted:

Complexity and threat levels requiring specified restrictions but not requiring an
aerodrome visit or specific training.

Category C:

Special crew qualification required which can be achieved by an aerodrome visit or

specific training.

17

Q
What is the aeroplane categorie of easyjet aircrafts?

A
Cat C with Vat from 121kt to 140kt

18

Q
When do you need a takeoff alternate ?

A
 When the wx at dep airport is less than the applicable minima for the approach
procedure.

19

Q
When can you use the conversion of reported met visibility to RVR/CMV ?

A
Cannot be used:

 if an RVR is reported
 For takeoff minima
 for any RVR less than 800m following conversion
 Cannot be used for planning

OMA 8.1.3.4

20

Q
What are the minimum Ceiling and visibility for a visual approach ?

A
2500ft or circling minima if higher, vis 5000m

21

Q
What is the maximum distance for a Takeoff alternate ?

A
A Takeoff ALTN must be located within a threshold DIST based on One Engine
Inoperative (OEI) speed in still air and STD conditions. Increased LDG minima for
overweight conditions must be considered. takeoff alternates, if required, must
be within 320 nm.
 OMA 8.1 Fuel policy Flashcards
1

Q
What is the easyjet fuel policy ?

A
easyJet’s fuel policy is to carry the minimum amount of fuel necessary to safely and
efficiently complete the flight while meeting regulatory requirements and maintaining
operational flexibility.

 All extra shall be justified

 basic fuel planning should be the norm
 still allow sufficient margin for contingency
 captain remain responsible to adjust fuel as appropriate

easyJet accepts the risk of diversion that is associated with the application and
adherence to this fuel policy. Costs associated with any potential diversions are
outweighed by savings that this policy delivers.

Q
Basic fuel planning, what is the minimum required fuel ?

 Taxi fuel
 Trip fuel
 contingency fuel
 alternate fuel
 additional fuel (if required)
 final reserve fuel
 extra fuel

3
Q
What is the taxi fuel ?

A
Fuel expected to be used prior to take-off, including engine start, taxi and APU
consumption. Maximum ramp weight may not be exceeded with taxi fuel on board.

Q
What is the trip fuel ?

A
Fuel for take-off and climb to from departure aerodrome to cruise altitude taking into
account the expected departure routing; and

Fuel for cruise including step climbs if any; and

Fuel for descent, taking into account the expected arrival procedure; and

Fuel for approach and landing at the destination aerodrome.

Q
What is the contingency fuel ?

A
Contingency fuel is to cover for possible deviations between the planned and actual
operating conditions such as unfavourable variations in cruise altitude or track,
deviations from the forecast wind values or any other unforeseen adverse
circumstances.

Contingency fuel may be used at any time after commencement of the flight i.e. after
push-back or engine start.

If Statistical Contingency Fuel (SCF) data is available this will be indicated on the
OFP and contingency fuel is the greater of:

95% coverage (CONT95), or 99% coverage (CONT99) for selected city pairs, based
upon operational factors, and;
 an amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination
aerodrome in standard conditions.

If SCF data is not available, this will be indicated on the OFP and contingency fuel is
the greater of:

5% of the planned trip fuel, and;

an amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination
aerodrome in standard conditions.

OMA 8.1.7.5.5

Q
What is the alternate fuel ?

A
Fuel to reach the alternate aerodrome, taking into account:

 fuel from missed approach MDA/DH at dest missed approach alt with complete
missed approach
 from missed approach alt to climb and cruise, descent to alternate from enroute to
arrival proc
 fuel for approach and landing to alternate
 if two alternate, fuel to reach the furthest

Q
What is final reserve ?

A
Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above destination alternate
aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with estimated weight on
arrival at the alternate or the destination when no alternate is required.

Q
 What is the penalty of extra fuel carriage ?

A
The penalty for carriage of extra fuel is normally 3.0% of extra fuel per hour of flight
(i.e. on a 2 hour sector up to 6% of the extra fuel uplifted will be burned off due to the
increased aircraft weight.).

Q
What is the specific gravity of the fuel JET A/A1 and oil ?

A
0,8, oil 0,88

OMA 8.1.11 Tech log Flashcards

1

Q
What does the tech log record ?

A
Flying time and landing
unscheduled rectification work
Deicing ant-icing
Allow tracking of repeat defects and resets

Q
What is a level 1 defect ?

A
Affect the airworthiness of the aircraft
the defect will include an MEL/CDL and might requires ops limitations or flight
certifications (rvsm, rnp)
 3

Q
What is the validity period of a daily check ?

A
The validity period is 48 hours, in addition to the remaining part of the day issue,
according to the following conditions:
- must be certified after the last flight of that calendar day
- Must be done after 1800UTC

For example, if the Daily Inspection is certified after the last flight of the day at 2245
UTC on Tuesday 17th September its validity commences at 0001 UTC on
Wednesday 18th September and expires at 2359 UTC on Thursday 19th September.

Q
when is the Aircraft status report changed ?

A
It will be changed and reprinted after each daily check.

Q
What is the purpose of each tech log pages (colors) ?

A
Four identical pages in different colours are present in the Technical Log:

 Top White – Remains in the Technical Log permanently.

 Removable White – Removed by engineering overnight or following a
maintenance action.
 Yellow – Only the previous night’s pages remain until the next engineering check.
 Pink – Removed prior to each flight either complete or as separate strips then
handed to the dispatcher or engineer.

Complete the lower half of the Sector Strip and remove the entire pink page in the
following circumstances:
 When anything is written in the ‘action taken’ or ‘defect descriptions’ section.
 When there is no direct handover from the previous crew.

Q
What is the commander acceptance ?

A
The commander confirm that :
- accept the aircraft technical condition
- he has suitable Qty of fuel and oil for the flight
- adequate flight planning
- required route area competences, airport brief for cat B, B restricted and C

Q
Can you depart with incomplete or missing previous sectors details ?

A
Authorisation for dispatch with incomplete or missing previous sector Technical Log
data/signature may be approved in certain circumstances. ICC shall be contacted for
such approval which may be granted by the Network Duty Manager. Fuel/Time
information may be retrieved from ACARS data.

Q
When should a defect be entered in the tech log ?

A
t is essential that ALL defects are entered in the Technical Log at the end of the
sector they were identified on.

Q
Can a certificate of release to service be left blank ?

A
 If the CRS is left blank, this could indicate an open defect has not been signed off
and the aircraft cannot be accepted.

10

Q
What are the requirement to have a defect ADD ?

A
If it is not possible to clear the defect it must be transferred to the Aircraft Status
Report provided that:

 It is an allowable deficiency specified in the Minimum Equipment List (MEL).

 If not specified in the MEL, it has been evaluated by an appropriately authorised
maintenance personnel as not being an airworthiness/safety item (Level 2), if it is
not present in the Minimum Equipment List (MEL).

11

Q
Can a commander defer a defect ?

A
The Commander may defer a defect themselves that does not require a maintenance
procedure (M) after consultation with MOC. This is acceptable when there is no local
approved maintenance available and the Commander has evaluated that the
operation of the aircraft can continue within the requirements of the MEL/CDL. In this
case, they may transfer the defect to the ADD Level 1 sheet

12

Q
Does MOC need to be informed of a FOR Info ? Can it be used for a defect ?

A
MOC must be informed before a ‘FOR INFO’ is entered in the Technical Log so that
they can confirm whether this is appropriate.

These must NOT be defects.

 13

Q
Can a bird strike be reported as for info ?

A
A minor bird strike may be entered as a ‘FOR INFO’ following consultation with MOC
unless:

 The bird impact has caused a dent or crack to any structure, hydraulic, pneumatic
or other system(s).
 The bird strike is on the engine(s).
 The bird strike is on the radome.
 The bird strike is within one meter upstream of the Air Conditioning Pack intake.
 The bird strike is within one meter upstream of any pitot head, static port or angle
of attack probe.
 Any unusual odours have been noticed or reported by passenger or crew.

14

Q
Does a successful reset according to the qrh need to be entered in tech log ?

A
For fault tracking and proactive replacement of components, any successful reset in
accordance with the QRH MUST be entered in the Technical Log. These should be
entered using the words ‘CREW RESET’.

OMA 8.2 Ground handling

instructions
What are the requirements to do refueling with pax ?

A
Aircraft
 The required interior lighting to enable emergency exits to be identified must be
serviceable.
 All doors must remain disarmed. Door 1 left must be open and the steps or
airbridge must be in position.
 A clear evacuation route from the aircraft must be available, via an airbridge or
steps.
 The rear passenger door should be open with steps in position, however it may
remain closed with no steps attached, provided the slide is serviceable. The
ground area beneath the exits that are intended for emergency evacuation and
the slide deployment areas must be kept clear.
 The position of the fuel bowser/installation relative to the aeroplane is to be such
that it will not impede the rapid exit of passengers if an emergency evacuation
becomes necessary;

Cabin Crew

 The procedure is not permitted when operating with reduced cabin crew.
 All crew must be on board. At least one cabin crew member must be in
attendance at each set of main exits to assist passengers in the event that an
evacuation or an emergency should occur.
 The cabin crew must brief the passengers not to smoke at any time on the ground
and to keep seatbelts unfastened, until refuelling has been completed.
 Use of toilets by passengers must be limited, so there is no queuing in the aisles.

Operational

 If required by the local national or airport authority, air traffic control and the
aerodrome fire services are to be advised that fuelling will be taking place with
passengers on board (Check CCI/AOI)
 For a crew swap, refuelling may commence if acknowledgement has been
received from the flight crew and refuelling is monitored by the off-going crew.

Q
What is the minimum age to travel ?
 A
2 weeks

Q
How many infant per adult can be carried ?

A
2

Q
Until what week of pregnancy can a pregnant woman travel ?

 Pregnant mothers can be accepted for travel up to the end of the 35th week for
single pregnancies.
 Pregnant mothers expecting more than one baby (e.g. twins) can only be
accepted for travel up to the end of the 32nd week.

Medical certification is not required for expectant mothers to travel.

Q
Can human remains be carried ?

A
easyJet does not accept human remains for carriage on any routes. The carriage
of ashes is permitted, however, provided a copy of the death certificate and the
cremation certificate accompanies them. The passenger in possession of the ashes
must ensure they are securely packaged in an appropriate container and should
include them in their cabin baggage.

Q
What are the restrictions to carry A/C spares ?
 A

 Only for easyjet

 no dangerous goods
 max 60kg
 not permitted for swiss
 Engineer deliver to AC
 Complete the Special Load – Notification to Commander” form
 Add the weight to loadsheet

Q
What is the clean aircraft concept ?

A
The Commander shall ensure that all snow, ice, frost or slush is removed from the
aeroplane before take-off except as permitted by the manufacturer and as specified
in the type-specific manuals OMB/FCOM.

Q
What is active frost ?

A
Active frost is a condition when frost is forming. Active frost occurs when aircraft
surface temperature is:

 At or below 0ºC, And

 At or below dew point.

Q
What is clear ice ?

A
Glossy, clear or translucent ice formed by the relatively slow freezing of large super-
cooled water droplets

10

Q
What is cold soak ?

A
The wings of aircraft are said to be “cold-soaked” when they contain very cold fuel as
a result of having just landed after a flight at high altitude or from having been re-
fuelled with very cold fuel. Whenever precipitation falls on a cold-soaked aircraft
when on the ground, clear icing may occur.

11

Q
Deicing, anti icing what does one step or two steps mean ?

A
One-step process – either a mixture of water and de-/anti-icing fluid is applied in a
single application to both remove contamination and provide anti-icing protection.

Two-step process – contamination is first removed from the surfaces by applying

heated water or Type I fluid. This is normally succeeded with the application of Type
II or Type IV fluid to provide anti-icing protection.

12

Q
What are the responsibility of the commander with respect to deicing/anticing ?

A
Ensuring that the aircraft has been de-iced in accordance with the easyJet
Operations Manuals. The aircraft Commander retains overall responsibility for
ensuring that all critical surfaces and components of the aircraft are free from
contamination.

When present, determining the need for de-/anti-icing.

 MA 8.3 Flight Procedures
1

Q
Can a flight be operated as VFR ?

A
Normally always IFR and with ATC and generally not allow, VFR only when
authorized by the duty pilot

Q
When should a commander not take off or continue to dest with respect to the wx
condition ?

 should not continu or take off unless the expected wx at dest or alternate are
above/at planning minima
 nor continue toward dest unless at ETA wx at dest or 1 alternate is above
applicable minima

Q
Upon landing what wind information should be used to determine the wind limit ?

A
All references to tailwind limitations and maximum demonstrated crosswinds in
Operations Manuals and FCOMs are referenced to the ATC reported wind.

Q
Does easyjet hold the approval to flight all NAT HLA route ?

A
NAT HLA Operations are approved on special routes only:
 Blue Spruce Routes between Europe and Iceland
 Tango Routes between Northern Europe and Spain/Canaries/Lisbon FIR

Refer to Lido eRM GEN Part RSI NAT RAR section 2.2.2.13.2.2 Routes within the
NAT HLA

Q
What are the lateral requirements for NAT HLA ?

A
PBN RNP 4 and RNP 10

One long range navigation system (GNSS, IRS)

Q
What are the longitudinal requirement for NAT HLA?

A
One accurate master clock

Q
What does the number associated with RNP mean ?

A
nav position error shall be less or equal to RNP value for 95% of the time

Q
What should be done prior to enter NAT HLA ?

A
A Time check shall be done. Flight Crew shall ensure that Aircraft main clock is set to
GPS time if available.

A NAV accuracy check shall be done if not GPS Primary.

An RVSM Altimeter check.

A SELCAL check shall be done (if HF is to be used for primary communication).

As applicable an Oceanic Clearance shall be obtained and acknowledged prior to

NAT HLA entry, on VHF if possible.

Q
When RNAV substitution is allowed ?

A
As long as the FMGS display :

SID/EOSID : GPS Primary/Nav accuracy High

STAR/MIssed approach : Nav accuracy High

10

Q
From which FL the RVSM start and finish ?

A
From FL290 to FL410

11

Q
What is the vertical separation in RVSM airspace ?

A
1000ft instead of 2000ft in normal airspace

12

Q
During flight preparation what is the maximum altimeter difference for RVSM
operation ?

A
Max 75ft
 OMA 10 aviation security
1

Q
What are the different level of bomb threat ?

A
RED = Credible and specific threat

Amber = doubtful credibility but prudent

Green = non credible

Q
Bomb threat, can an amber threat be given in flight ?

A
No the security team will assign either a RED or green in flight

Q
Bomb threat, what should you do if you receive a bomb threat RED on stand?

 Disembark all pax and crew with all cabin baggage (reason given security
problem)
 use the escape slide only in extreme emergency if no steps
 have the pax separated from the other pax
 remove AC to remote location and quarantine
 once all clear from police carry a full search of A/C

Q
 Bomb threat, what should you do if you receive a Red bomb threat in flight?

 Captain informed via ACARS or VHF

 follow QRH checklist
 on taxiing, taxi away from terminal, evacuate in a controlled way
 in flight declare an emergencvy and divert nearest appropriate airport
 if landing not immediately possible make a search and if suspicious item found
move to the Least Risk bomb location

Q
Bomb threat, what should you do in case of amber alert while on the ground?

A
Contact the network duty manager who will liaise with the duty security manager and
decide the action

Q
Bomb threat green, what should be the action in flight or on the ground ?

A
No action in both case

Q
Threat message discovered on board, if in flight what should you do ?

 confirm with CC that a pre departure search has been performed

 contact ICC
 if unable to contact ICC=> consider green threat unless further note discovered
 Do not take action until ICC did the assessment
 Keep the message and avoid touching it to protect finger prints
 8

Q
What should you do if an explosive device is found while in flight ?

 Do not touch or move object

 move pax away and ask them to keep head down (below the top of the seat)
 remove from location portable oxy bottle, alcohol, first aid kit
 fire extinguisher readily available
 if landing immediately not possible, leave in place and surround with soft material.
Humidify the soft material but keep the device dry.

Q
What should you do in case of hijack ?

A
Sqwack 7500

Inform ATC ASAP

Switch seat belt sign on and brief CC by interphone

Find somewhere safe to land

avoid violent manoeuvre

OM B Chapter 2 Normal Procedures

1

Q
On what runway condition is a takeoff not permitted ?

A
 Wet ice
 Water on top of compacted snow
 Dry snow or wet snow over ice

Q
Can a takeoff be started with a RWYCC of 0 ?

A
No, no takeoff or landing allowed

Q
What is the minimum runway width to be cleared/treated ?

A
30m, a runway wider than 45m can be cleared to a width of less than 45m from the
centerline. It should not be considered as narrow runway.

Q
When is one eng taxi out prohibited ?

 Taxiway slippery
 LVP at dep aerodrome
 pushback completed with a powerpush on the main landing gear

Q
What technical defect prevent you from doing a single engine taxi ?

A
Hydraulic: no yellow electrical pump
electrical : gen 1 failed, Apu gen must be serviceable for aircraft without the SETWA
Pneumatic/air conditioning : Air pack 1
issue with steering or breaking

Q
What are the first officer limit ?

A
Max crosswind including gust : 20kts
minimum RVR 400m
Approach minimum : CAT I ils, Minima of NPA, 5000m vis for circling
No contaminated rwy or slippery
no reported windshear

Q
What is the minimum battery voltage when powering the A/C ? Can a APU fire test
be done when below it ?

A
Minimum 25.5V
No, risk of APU extinguisher discharge

WARNING:
DO NOT PERFORM APU FIRE TEST IF BATTERY VOLTAGE IS AT OR BELOW
25.5 V AS THIS MAY RESULT IN THE DISCHARGE OF THE APU FIRE
EXTINGUISHER BOTTLE. OMB 2.3.4.2

Q
What is the maximum time you should hold the APU fire test PB ?

A
No more than 3 sec, otherwise it might auto shutdown and discharge APU fire bottle

WARNING:
THE AUTOMATIC SHUTDOWN OF THE APU AND THE DISCHARGE OF THE APU
 FIRE EXTINGUISHER BOTTLE MAY OCCUR IF THE FLIGHT CREW PRESSES
THE APU FIRE TEST PB FOR MORE THAN 3 SECONDS. OMB 2.3.4.3

Q
When should a complete IRS alignment be done ?

 Before the first flight of the day, or

 When there is a crew change, or
 When the GPS is not available and the NAVAIDS coverage is poor on the
expected route, or
 When the GPS is not available and the expected flight time is more than 3 h.

OMB 2.3.4.5

10

Q
When should you do a fast alignment ?

A
A fast IRS alignment must be performed if a complete IRS alignment is not necessary
and the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position is at or above 5
NM

11

Q
What is the minimum oil quantity ?

 (CEO): Check that the oil quantity is at or above 9.5 qt + estimated consumption
(average estimated consumption ~ 0.5 qt/h).
 (NEO): Check that the minimum oil quantity is the highest value of:
10. 6 qt, or
8. 9 qt + estimated consumption (average estimated consumption ~ 0.45 qt/h)
Note 1:(NEO) If the engines have been shut down for more than 60 min, decrease
the above quantities by 3 qt to take into account the oil thermal expansion.

OMB 2.3.4.8

12

Q
When should you set the pack flow to LO ?

A
A319/A320 : Less than 130pax

A321 : Less than 160pax

OMB 2.3.6.2

13

Q
When is the navaid deselection not necessary ?

A
If GPS is primary even if NAVAID not working in the notam

14

Q
What is the auto flaps retraction ?

A
Can be needed if green dot is higher than the speed constraint.

The flaps will auto retract at 210kts and leave only the slats to enable a speed of
220kts to be flown

15

Q
What is the maximum altimeter difference on the ground ?

A
+-20ft between PFD
+- 100ft between ISIS and PFD

Altimeters and airport elevation +-75ft

16

Q
Following the refuelling what is an abnormal discrepancy ?

A
Up to 6tons = 400kg
Between 6 and 12t = 500kg
more than 12 = 600kg

17

Q
what should be done if, during the engine start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak
from the engine drain mast ?

A
Run engine at idle for 5 min, if the leak disappears after 5min you can dispatch
otherwise maintenance need to be called

OM B 2.3.8.1

18

Q
When do you need to have the engine anti ice on for take off ?

A
When OAT is at or below 10°C and visible moisture (clouds, fog with vis less than
1600m, rain snow, sleet and ice crystals) and/or ground surface has snow, standing
water or slush.

19

Q
What is the ice shedding procedure for CEO ?

A
 When in icing conditions and OAT +3° or less for more than 30min or significant
vibration then:

 set park brake or stand on the brakes

 accelerate to 70% N1 for 30sec at an interval no greater than 30mins

20

Q
What is the ice shedding procedure for NEO ?

A
When in icing conditions and OAT +3° or less for more than 30min or significant
vibration then:

 set park brake or stand on the brakes

 accelerate to 50% N1 for 5sec at an interval no greater than 60mins

If the takeoff is not initiated within 120min in ground icing condition, the maintenance
will need to perform an engine inspection.

21

Q
Can you use wing anti-ice on the ground ?

A
No, the wing anti-ice will open for 30s on the ground then closed as long as the
aircraft is on the ground.

22

Q
When do you need the IGN for takeoff ?

A
When the runway has

 standing water
 Heavy rain is falling
 heavy rain or severe turbulence is expected after takeoff

23

Q
What correction do you need to apply to the Flex temp in case of drop in QNH ? Use
of ENG Anti ice ?

A
QNH reduction of 1 or 2 hPa = -1°c
ENG anti ice = -5°c

24

Q
Following a change in QNH or the use of ENG anti ice for takeoff, what do you need
to check for the new Flex temp ?

A
If the OAT or TREF is reach by applying the reduction in Flex temp then a new
takeoff perf need to be computed.

25

Q
What are the TREF(flat temperature, lowest temp you can use as flex for takeoff.) for
A319, A320, A321 ?

A319 = ISA +30°C

A320 = ISA +29°C
A321= ISA +15°C

26

Q
Can wing anti-ice be use when using APU bleed ?

A
No
 27

Q
When is a rolling takeoff not permitted ?

A
when a TOGA takeoff shall be performed due to takeoff performance limitation.
(RWY/OBS)

28

Q
On the takeoff roll when is the nosewheel steering disconnected from the rudder
pedal ?

A
At 130 kt (wheel speed), the connection between nosewheel steering and the rudder
pedals is removed.

29

Q
What does MAX REC FL mean ?

A
It provide the Aircraft with a buffet margin of 0,3g.

Pilot may enter a higher FL as long as it allow a margin of 0,2g

30

Q
What is the maximum value Vapp can be increased to with respect to Vls ?

A
VLS+15kts in case of gusty or crosswind greater than 20kts

31

Q
When do you need to go around if the landing checklist is not completed ?

A
 The checklist has to be completed by 500ft.

32

Q
What are the stabilisation criteria ?

A
Aircraft shall be stable at 1000ft and must be at 500ft (400ft on circling)

 A/C in landing config

 On correct lateral and vertical flight path
 Target final approach speed +10/-5
 Bank angle max 15° (for circling +-30° from final track)

note :

PAPI visual slope indications and FMS Baro VNAV path indications may not be
aligned when OAT differs from ISA. When OAT is significantly above ISA, PAPI
indications may indicate “4 whites” while following FMS vertical path. In this condition,
the approach can be continued provided the FMS vertical guidance is followed.

33

Q
For RNP approach what is requirement with respect to GPS ?

A
1 FMS must be GPS Primary

34

Q
On an approach with Final APP when should the approach be armed ?

A
At least 2NM before the final descent point

35

Q
Can you continue an RNP approach if one side as lost GPS Primary ?
 A
Yes as long as you use the other side AP/FD where GPS Primary is still active

36

Q
For RNP approach, if degradation occurs and not visual, what situation requires you
to discontinue the approach ?

 GPS Primary lost on both NDs

 XTK > 0.3NM
 NAV FM/GPS POS Disagree on ECAM
 NAV Accuracy downgrade on both FMGS
 For LNAV/VNAV when deviation below vertical path of more than ¾ dot (75ft)

37

Q
Can you continue an RNP approach if too steep path is displayed after the final
descent point ? What about an RNP AR ?

A
Yes you can continue but FINAL APP cannot be use, you need to use NAV FPA or
TRACK FPA

For RNP AR you can’t continue this approach, another approach must be selected

38

Q
where can you find if your Aircraft as RNP AR capability ?

A
In the QRH Aircraft Configuration Summary in Operational Data

39

Q
RNP AR, before the IAF what is required to continue the approach ?
 A
Both GPS and FMS must be available

40

Q
RNP AR, when does the PM call deviation ?

A
LDEV > ½ dot (1 dot is 0,1NM)
VDEV > ½ dot ( 1 dot is 100ft)

41

Q
RNP AR, When does a go around must be initiated ?

A
LDEV reach 1RNP (value on the ND not lateral scale)

VDEV reach ¾ dot below profile (75ft)

42

Q
RNP AR, What happen if you have a system failure before the IAF ?

A
Discontinue the approach and refer to the RNP AR equipment requirement

43

Q
RNP AR, after the IAF when can the approach be continued ?

A
In case of single Failure of :

 GPS Primary lost on one ND (use remaining AP/FD)

 Nav accuracy downgrade on one FMGS (use the remaining AP/FD)
 GPS (MMR)
 FMGS
 EFIS DU
 MCDU
 AP (use the remaining one)

44

Q
RNP AR, after the IAF, when do you need to discontinue the approach due to failure
if not visual ?

 Final APP doesn’t engage

 Loss of GPWS terrain
 FM/GPS position disagree
 FMS1/FMS2 Pos Diff
 GPS primary loss on both ND
 Dual nav accuracy downgrade
 Dual loss of FMGC or dual loss of Final APP mode
 Dual AP failure if RNP < 0.3NM

45

Q
What are the minimum equipment to start an RNP approach ?

 One FMGC
 One GPS
 One MCDU
 One FD
 One PFD on the PF side
 Two NDs
 Two FCU channel
 Two IRS

46
Q
What are the required equipment for an RNAV visual approach ?

A
1 FMS
1 GPS or 2 DME to update FM Position
Additional requirement if indicated on approach chart

47

Q
What define the touchdown zone if no marking ?

A
⅓ of the runway or 1000m whichever is less

48

Q
What is required for the autobrake to trigger automatically on landing ?

A
The ground spoiler have to be deployed

49

Q
When will the ground spoiler deployed ?

A
upon landing when rev is set, they will still deploy even if not armed

50

Q
After touch down what is the latest point you can go around ?

A
You have to go around before REV are deployed. As soon as the REV Have been
deployed it must be a full stop landing

51
Q
How do you activate Go Around soft ?

A
Set to toga then Flex/MCT

52

Q
What is the balked landing procedure ?

A
Captain says “I HAVE CONTROL” and press and hold takeover push button

Annonce TOGA

Adjust pitch to climb away from the ground

Do not change config until captain says Go around flaps

Note: it may trigger Config Flaps not in TO position => disregard

53

Q
When is maintenance due after landing when you check the brakes temp ?

A
If temp diff between two brakes of the same gear are more than 150°C and one of
these is above 600°C

If temp diff between two brakes of the same gear are more than 150°C and one of
these is below 60°C

If temp diff between left and right gear is more than 200°C

Brakes temp more than 900°C

54

Q
During approach what are the standard call for flight parameter deviation ?

A
 “SPEED” if the speed decreases below the speed target -5 kt or increases above
the speed target +10 kt.
 “SINK RATE” when V/S is greater than -1000 ft/min.
 “BANK” when bank angle becomes greater than 7°.
 “PITCH” when pitch attitude becomes lower than -2.5° or higher than +10°
(A319/A320)/+7.5° (A321).
 “LOC” or “GLIDE” when either localizer or glide slope deviation is 1/2 dot for LOC
or GS.
 “CROSSTRACK” when greater than 0.1nm deviation from inbound track in FINAL
APP mode.
 “V-DEV” when greater than half dot deviation from approach path in FINAL APP
mode.
 “COURSE” when greater than 1/2 dot (VOR) or 5 degrees (ADF).
 “__FT HIGH/LOW” at altitude checks points.

55

Q
During RNP AR approach what are the standard call for deviation ?

 “LAT-DEV” when L/DEV reaches ½ dot

 “VDEV” when ½ dot deviation above or below path
 “SINK RATE” when the descent rate exceeds 1000 ft/min
 “BANK” when the bank angle goes above 30°.

56

Q
During landing what are the standard call (touch down) ?

A
During landing, the PM announces:

“PITCH PITCH”, if the pitch attitude approaches the tail strike pitch limit indicator or
reaches +10° (A319/A320)/+7.5° (A321).
“BANK BANK”, if the bank angle reaches 7°.

57

Q
During go around what are the standard call ?

A
During a go-around, the PM announces:

“BANK”: If the bank angle becomes greater than 7°,

“PITCH”: If the pitch attitude becomes greater than 20° up or less than 10° up,

“SINK RATE”: If there is no climb rate.

58

Q
What are the restriction on airports with arrestor gear ?

A
TRAMPLING OF CABLES IN A RIGGED/UP STATE

General Information

The take off run should be started after any RIGGED/UP cable or from a point such
that the speed is <40 kt as the aircraft crosses the cable.

During the take off roll there should be no operational concern for crossing a
RIGGED/UP cable provided the aircraft does not exceed the 40 kt limitation at the
point of crossing the cable.

Trampling a RIGGED/UP cable at greater than 40 kt is not recommended: In the

event that a cable is trampled in excess of 40 kt, contact MOC for an inspection
procedure.

In the case of a high speed abort and subsequent crossing of a departure end
RIGGED/UP cable at speed, then a check is to be done of the undercarriage to
confirm no damage: refer to MOC.

TRAMPLING OF CABLES IN A RIGGED/DOWN STATE

There are no restrictions on operations on runways where the cables are in the
RIGGED/DOWN position.

Operational Caution Notes:

Check with the local Airport Authorities that they have not published any specific
operating restrictions.

Landing beyond the cables reduces the possibility of damage.

If landing beyond the cables is not feasible, inspect the aircraft in order to check that
there is no damage.

If the cable is raised taxi slowly, with a maximum transit speed of 40 kt.

For cable laid to the runway surface, there is no technical objection to cross the cable
at a speed > 40 kt.

Do not cross the cables at maximum reverse thrust.

Take into account the above recommendations for the performance computation.

Carefully monitor the tyre pressure of your aircraft to avoid rolling over the cables
with less that recommended tyre pressure.

Inspect the landing gear to detect any damage caused by the arresting device in the
case of trampling a RIGGED/UP cable >40 kt.

59

Q
What is the TREF and when is it used ?

A
TREF is the flat rating temperature, meaning the lowest temp you can use as flex for
takeoff.

It is used for takeoff as the TFLEX has to be above the TREF

FCOM EFB TOF 20 20 20

60

Q
 Shear pin failure, when does the nose gear need to be inspected ?

A
Shear Pin Failure

In the event of a shear pin failure during pushback:

 if push stop immediately after failure then no inspection is required

 nose gear must be inspected when there is separation and overrun of the towbar
by A/C, Push-turn operations, when the towbar arm touches the tractor after a
failure of the turning towbar shear pin only.

61

Q
What are the limitations associated with steeper angle approach with respect to
landing technique and type of approach ?

A
No autoland

No CAT III/II

OMB 2.4.26

62

Q
What is part of the SOP on the aircraft acceptance ?

 Press RCL more than 3s to see cleared or canceled ECAM

 ECAM pages (OXY, HYD, ENG (oil))
 Tech log
 Aircraft configuration summary
 OEB

63

Q
 When is it not required to to the computation of the RLDW ?

A
The computation of DISPATCH LDG PERFORMANCE is not required if the flight
crew can ensure that RLDW is limited by maximum structural landing weight, this is
only applicable when DRY or WET runway surface conditions are expected.

OM B Chapter 3 Abnormal
procedures
1

Q
What action should be done following a lightning strike ?

A
Consult MOC for engineering inspection
File a ASR

Q
What should you do following a Hard landing / Overweight landing ?

A
In case of auto print load report 15 :
- call MOC to arrange check
- Fill an ASR

If no print out (overwheight)

- call MOC, they will assess if maintenance is required

Q
On Take off when will the ECAM inhibits take place ?
A
non essential warning will be inhibits from 80kts to 1500ft, any inhibited should be
considered as significant.

Q
What call should be made to the cabin crew following an RTO ?

A
Full stop : Attention crew at station
With out full stop : Cabin crew normal operations

Q
On an RTO when will the spoiler and auto-brakes automatically deploy ?

A
If the speed as exceeded 72kts otherwise they will not deploy

Q
Following an RTO with a full stop using max autobrakes how do you release the
brakes ?

A
You will have to disarm the spoiler to release the brakes and taxi.

Q
On a pre planned emergency landing what call should be made during the
approach ?

A
Passing 2000ft descending :
“Cabin crew take up landing position”
Passing 500ft :
“brace brace”
 8

Q
What call should be made on an unplanned emergency landing prior to land ?

A
“Attention crew brace brace”

Q
What are the cockpit assigned duties for an evacuation ?

 Take High vis

 Take load form
 Take emergency equipment
If possible to reach cabin
Captain :
 last person to leave cockpit
 go in cabin and help pax, last person to leave the A/C
 Evacuate via the rear pax door or others if unreachable
 On ground he takes the lead until rescue team
FO :
 Proceed to cabin
 Evacuate via available exit
 Help Pax on ground

OM B Chapter 4 Performance
1

Q
What is the climb gradient requirement on take off with OEI ?

A
 Second segment 2,4%
First segment 1,2%

Q
What is the net takeoff flight path ?

A
It’s the actual flight path minus 0,8% fro two engine A/C. It’s start at 35ft above the
end of take off distance.
Must clear all obstacle by a vertical distance of 35ft

Q
What is taken into account as obstacle on the net takeoff flight path ?

A
If the track doesn’t change by more than 15° then the obstacle with a lateral distance
of 600m are not taken into account.
all other, lateral distance of 900m

Q
when can you not follow the EOSID ?

A
once above MSA or in VMC

Q
When is the engine secured ?

A
• Engine flameout………Engine Master OFF.
• Damage…………………..Discharge of Agent 1.
• Fire………………………….Discharge of Agent 1 (and Agent 2 if necessary).

6
Q
What is the maximum time at takeoff thrust ?

A
10min OEI
5min all engines

Q
What is the standard EOSID ?

A
Climb straight head until 1000ft AAL push to level off then clean up
accelerate to green dot then OPEN Climb MCT and at 1500ft AAL then turn to HP

Q
What should you do if you have an eng failure below the one ENG Acceleration alt ?

A
follow the ENG out procedure

Q
After an eng failure and above 1500ft AAL Can you turn to nearest HP ?

A
Yes, a radius of 30NM is survey for obstacle and allow you to turn toward an holding
above 1500ft

Above 1500 ft, a radius of 30 NM is surveyed for limiting obstacles. This ensures that
obstacle clearance is available for engine failure in the SID routing as well as
transition to the ENG FAIL HP. All SID routes are normally included in the calculation
of the engine failure procedures. If the engine fails when already established on a
SID, turn the nearest way to the ENG FAIL HP

10
Q
What is the first segment ?

A
First Segment - at the end of the takeoff distance at a screen height of 35’ and a
speed of V2. On a wet runway, the screen height is reduced to 15’. Operating
engines are at takeoff thrust, the flaps/slats are in takeoff configuration and landing
gear retraction is initiated once safely airborne with positive climb. The first segment
ends when the landing gear is fully retracted.

11

Q
What is the second segment ?

A
Second Segment - begins when the landing gear is fully retracted. Engines are at
takeoff thrust and the flaps/slats are in the takeoff configuration. This segment ends
at the higher of 400’ or specified acceleration altitude. In most cases, the second
segment is the performance limiting segment of the climb.

12

Q
when is a runway considered Wet ?

A
When there is any visible dampness or water up to 3MM.

13

Q
Is the benefit of thrust reverser for takeoff perf taken into account on a dry runway ?
Wet runway ?

A
Takeoff performance is calculated without the benefit of thrust reversers.
takeoff performance on a wet runway can be calculated with the benefit of thrust
reversers. However, it is not allowed to take off at a weight higher than the weight on
dry runway. Flexible takeoff and derated takeoff are allowed for a takeoff from a wet
runway.

14

Q
What is the maximum allowed thrust reduction on a Flex takeoff ?

A
Not more than 25% of the rated thrust

15

Q
When is a flex takeoff prohibited ?

A
On a contaminated runway
dispatched with landing gear extended

16

Q
What is the max crosswind for takeoff when the runway is slippery when wet ?

A
Max 25Kt

17

Q
When is a runway considered as contaminated ?

A
when more than 25% of one third of the runway is contaminated in the relevant
section with :
- a layer of contaminant
- a hard contaminant

More than 3mm of : dry snow, wet snow, standing water, slush
or a hard contaminant such as compacted snow, ice or wet ice
 18

Q
What are the limitation associated with a take off on contaminated runway ?

A
Toga thrust
Captain PF

19

Q
When is a takeoff prohibited with a contaminated runway (thickness of the
contaminant) ?

A
More than 13mm of standing water
30mm wet snow
100mm dry snow

20

Q
What are the requirement for dispatch on a narrow runway ?

A
Minimum 30m
Nosewheel steering working
all brakes working

No autoland

21

Q
What is the minimum missed approach climb gradient ? what A/C config

A
2,5% based on Go around flaps
one eng inop
 running eng at Toga
gear up

22

Q
What is the actual landing distance (ALD) ?

A
it’s the horizontal distance necessary to land and stop from 50ft above rwy.

23

Q
What is the required landing distance (RLD) ?

A
DRY RWY: ALD DRY × 1.67 = RLD DRY

WET RWY: ALD DRY × 1.92 = RLD WET

CONTAMINATED RWY: ALD CONTAMINATED × 1.15 = RLD CONTAMINATED

24

Q
What is the difference between inflight landing perf and landing perf dispatch ?

 The IN-FLIGHT LDG PERF assessment is used to determine the Factored

Landing Distance (F-LD) which is used to assess actual margins on LDA. It is
based on actual reported conditions at the aerodrome, including RWYCC. It also
allows the flight crew to determine the most appropriate selections to be made for:

Landing Flaps configuration (CONF3 or CONF FULL)

Thrust Reversers (IDLE or MAX)

Braking Mode (Auto Brake LOW/MED or Max Manual Braking)

 The DISPATCH LDG PERF is the actual landing distance (ALD) time a factor to
obtain the required landing distance (RLD).
Actual landing distance been horizontal distance from 50ft to stop
Required landing distance will be ALDx1,67= RLD dry, ALDx 1,92= RLD wet

25

Q
When do you use the RWYCC (global reporting format) ?

A
For in flight performance.
For takeoff and dispatch perf you should use the depth of contaminants and if
required for takeoff use the Runway condition determinator

26

Q
When would you use the RCAM (runway condition assessment matrix) ?

A
With GRF concept, the RCAM is normally only used by flight crew to determine the
Maximum Crosswind for Landing (Gust included).

OM B Chapter 5 Flight planning

1

Q
Fuel loading, what is the fuel burn of APU, Taxi, and holding ?

A
APU : 2Kg/Min so 60Kg/30min
Taxi: 10Kg/min two engines, 7Kg/min One engine
Holding : 40Kg/min so 400kg/10min

2
Q
What is the impact on consumption of engine anti-icing and wing anti ice for climb,
cruise and holding ?

A
Climb:
Eng AI : 1,1kg/min
Eng and wing AI : 2kg/min

Cruise :
Eng AI : 1kg/min
Eng and wings AI : 2kg/min

Holding :
Eng AI : 2kg/min
Eng and Wings : 3kg/min

Q
What is the increased consumption when the distance is increased by 1NM or
decreased ?

A
Extra NM = 5KG
Reduction NM = -4kg

OMB Chapter 7 Loading

1

Q
What is the standard loading from A319 ?

A
up to 150bags, all in the rear (maximise use of CPT4, if required 50bags in CPT5)
overspill in CPT1
 2

Q
What is the standard loading of A320 ?

A
Load Cpt 1 (around 85bags)
remaining in cpt 4

Q
During LMC, when is a new loadsheet required ?

A
Increase in pax by more than 10, or reduction more than 20pax

Q
What is the max change in KG for the perf to remain valid without changing the perf
in the FMGS ?

A
+/- 250kg and within +-2%trim

FCOM Memory items Flashcards

1

Q
What are the memory actions of LOSS OF BRAKING ?

A
Call “Loss of braking”

Reverse = > Max

Release brake pedals
 A/skid = > Ask for off
Brakes pedals = > Press
Max Braking = > 1000Psi

if still no braking
Park brake => Use

Q
What are the memory actions of EMER DESCENT ?

A
Call “emergency descent”

PF :
1 - Crew oxy mask on
2- Emer descent initiate :

 ALT = > turn Pull

 HDG = > Turn Pull
 SPD = > Pull

3 - FMA Announce
4- if ATHR not active, THR levers = > Idle
5- SPD Brakes = > Full

PM

1- Crew oxygen mask on

2- Sign = > On
3- FMA check

Q
What are the memory actions of STALL RECOVERY ?

A
Call “Stall, I have control”
Nose down pitch control = > Apply
Bank = > Wings level

When out of stall :

Thrust = > Increase smoothly
Speedbrakes = > Check retracted
Flight Path = > Recover smoothly

If clean and below 20000ft :

Flaps 1 => Select

Q
What are the memory actions of STALL AT LIFT OFF ?

A
call “Stall, TOGA 15”

Thrust = > TOGA

Pitch attitude => 15°
Bank => Wings level

Q
What are the memory actions of UNRELIABLE SPEED ?

A
Call “Unreliable speed”

AP => OFF
A/THR => OFF
FD => OFF

Pitch/thrust:
Below thrust red alt => 15°/TOGA
Above thrust red alt but below FL100 => 10°/CLB
Above thrust red alt and above FL100 => 5°/CLB
Flaps = > Maintain config but not more than Flaps 3
Speedbrakes => Check retracted
L/G => UP

At or above MSA => Level off for troubleshooting

Q
What are the memory actions of GPWS/EGPWS CAUTION (terrain terrain, too low
terrain, caution terrain or caution obstacle ?

A
During Night/IMC

AP=> OFF
Pitch => Pull up (full backstick)
Thrust levers => TOGA
Speedbrakes lever => Check retracted
Bank => Wings level or adjust
Do not change A/C Config until clear of obstacle

During daylight and VMC with terrain in sight

Flight Path => Adjust

Q
What are the memory actions of GPWS/EGPWS CAUTION (SINK RATE/GLIDE
SLOPE) ?

A
Above 1000ft AAL in IMC Or above 500ft AAL in VMC
Flight path => Adjust
For Glide slope, if deliberate below G/S GS Mode => OFF

Below 1000ft AAL or below 500ft AAL in VMC

Go around => Consider

8
Q
What are the memory actions of GPWS/EGPWS CAUTION (Too low Gear, Too low
Flaps) ?

A
Go around => Perform

Q
What are the memory actions of GPWS/EGPWS WARNING (Pull Up, Terrain ahead
Pull up, Avoid terrain) ?

A
Call “PULL UP TOGA”
AP => OFF
PITCH => PULL UP (Full backstick)
THRUST LEVERS => TOGA
Speedbrakes => Check retracted
BANK => Wings level or adjust
DO NOT CHANGE config until clear of obstacle

10

Q
What are the memory actions of TCAS WARNINGS ?

A
Call “TCAS I HAVE CONTROL” or “TCAS Blue”

RA without AP TCAS
AP => OFF
both FD => OFF (call A/THR Speed)
Follow RA

RA With AP TCAS
Follow FDs Order

11
 Q
What are the memory actions of WINDSHEAR ?

A
At take off :

Before V1 => Reject

After V1 thrust lever => TOGA
At VR => Rotate
SRS Order => Follow

Airborne, climb and landing

Thrust lever => TOGA
AP => Keep on
SRS => Follow SRS
DO NOT change config until out of windshear

12

Q
What is the engine failure during cruise (standard strategy) ?

 All thrust to MCT

 Disconnect ATHR
 Set HDG and pull
 determine engine out recovery altitude (MAX EO on prog page)
 Set speed 0,78/300kt and pull
 Set the engine out recovery altitude and pull open descent
 When Vs more than 500ft/min set VS-500ft/min and pull
 A/THR on
 AT EO recovery alt manage speed

13

Q
What is the engine out in cruise obstacle strategy ?
 A

 All thrust to MCT

 Disconnect ATHR
 Set HDG and pull
 determine engine out recovery altitude (MAX EO on pref crz page)
 Set speed green dot and pull
 Set the engine out recovery altitude and pull open descent
 When clear of obstacle revert to standard startegy

Regulation
1

Q
What are the certificates to be carried ?

A
Paper certificate

Certificate of Airworthiness
Certificate of Registration
Radio License

EFB :
Air Operator Certificate
Noise Certificate
Third Party Insurance Certificate
Airworthiness Review Certificate

Q
What are the flight documentation to be carried ?
A
OFP
Load Form
Tech Log

Q
What are the manuals to be carried ?

A
Nav Charts
OM A
OM B
OM D
CSPM
FCOM
GHM
MEL/CDL
AIcraft specification
NTC
LIDO route manual

general Knowledge
1

Q
What is easyJet aircrafts categories

A
All Cat c with Vat from 121 to 140kt

Q
What is the minimum fuel required ?
 A
The minimum fuel required is:

1. Taxi Fuel.
2. Trip Fuel.
3. Contingency Fuel.
4. Alternate Fuel (if required).
5. Additional Fuel (if required).
6. Final Reserve Fuel.
7. Extra Fuel if required by the Commander.

Q
What is trip fuel ?

A
Fuel for take-off and climb to from departure aerodrome to cruise altitude taking into
account the expected departure routing; and

Fuel for cruise including step climbs if any; and

Fuel for descent, taking into account the expected arrival procedure; and

Fuel for approach and landing at the destination aerodrome.

Q
What is the contingency fuel ?

A
cover possible deviations from plan and actual (wx, cruise alt, route, wind…)

Is the greater of if SCF:

- 95% coverage (CONT95), or 99% coverage (CONT99) for selected city pairs,
based upon operational factors, and;
- an amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination
aerodrome in standard conditions.
 Or
is the greater of if no SCF:

-5% of the planned trip fuel, and;

-an amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination
aerodrome in standard conditions.

Q
What is alternate fuel ?

A
Fuel to reach the alternate aerodrome, taking into account:

1. Fuel from a missed approach from the applicable MDA/DH at the destination
aerodrome to the missed approach altitude taking into account the complete
missed approach procedure.
2. Fuel from the missed approach altitude to climb, cruise and descent to the
alternate aerodrome from an en-route transition point using the expected arrival
procedure.
3. Fuel for the approach and landing at alternate aerodrome.
4. When two destination alternates are required, alternate fuel should be sufficient to
proceed to the alternate which requires the greater amount of alternate fuel.

Q
What is the final reserve fuel ?

A
Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above destination alternate
aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with estimated weight on
arrival at the alternate or the destination when no alternate is required.

Q
where can you find the list of reportable occurence ?
 A
OMA 11.9

Authority, Duties and Responsibilities

of the Commander
1

Q
Where will you find the Authority, Duties & Responsibilities of a Commander listed?

A
OM-A 1.4

Q
Name the primary responsibility of the Commander.

A
Responsible for the safe operation of the aircraft & for the safety of

the occupants / cargo.

Q
Name some responsibilities of the Commander.

 Can refuse INAD or deportee if the safety of the A/C or occupants might be
endangered
 has authority to remove any pax/cargo which may be a potential hazard.
 Not allow pax to be drunk to extent a/c safety is endangered.
 Must ensure that all operational procedures and checklists are complied with in
accordance with the operations manual
 decide on acceptance of the aircraft with unserviceabilities in accordance with the
configuration deviation list (CDL) or the minimum equipment list (MEL);
 Ensure that the pre-flight inspection has been carried out

Q
What is the Commanders duty / responsibility

in an emergency situation that requires an

immediate decision / action?

A
To take any action he considers

necessary under the circumstances.

In such an event, he

may deviate from rules,

operational procedures

and methods

in the interestes of safety.

Q
How many Commanders can there be on any give flight?

A
easyJet will nominate one of the pilots to be the Aircraft Commander

for each flight or series of flights.

Q
What commands may the Commander give?

A
 He may give commands necessary to secure the safety of aircraft & of occupants.

All persons carried shall obey such commands.

Q
Does a Commander have to accept an aircraft in all circumstances?

A
NO.

He may decide

whether or NOT

to accept an aircraft

with unserviceabilities

ALLOWED by the CDL or MEL.

Q
What are the company responsibilities of the commander ?

 uniform standard
 while taxiing, flying and relevant that all passengers are properly secured in their
seats, and all cabin baggage is stowed in the approved stowages.
 continuous listening watch is maintained on the appropriate radio communication
frequencies at all times when in flight.
 post-flight de-brief is completed with the crew as deemed appropriate.
 Flight deck door closed
 All relevant information relating to the flight is transmitted by ACARS
Low visibilty System and procedures
1

Q
When is the RED autoland light become active ?

A
Below 200ft on one of the RA
one AP engage and Flare mode or Land mode

Q
What will generate the Red warning light to come on ?

A
Turn on when :
- Loss of LOC above 15ft
- Loss of Glide above 100ft
- Loss of both AP
- Deviation from LOC/GS
- RA discrepancy more than 15ft
- FMGS detect long flare
- FMGS detect untimely/early flare

Cold weather OPS Flashcards

1

Q
When do you need to run the engine at idle for 5min (NEO) ?

A
When the outside temp is below -29°C for the oil temp to reach 19°C for takeoff
 2

Q
When should you delay the extension of the flaps/slats ?

A
After deice/anti-icing, the slats/flaps and flight controls can be moved, because they
no longer have ice, UNLESS on slush-covered, or snow-covered taxiways: Flap
selection should be delayed until reaching the holding point.

Q
What is the minimum oil temperature for takeoff ?

A
A319/A320 : -10°C
A320Neo/A321Neo: +19°C

Q
When is tankering not advised ?

A
when takeoff or landing on contaminated rwy is expected or slippery/icy rwy

Q
What should be the minimum approach speed in case of ice accretion ?

A
Config FULL VLS+5kts
Config 3 VLS+10kts

Q
When should you not retract the flaps/slats after landing

A
If the approach was made in icing conditions, or if the runway was contaminated with
slush or snow, do not retract the flaps and slats until after engine shutdown and after
the ground crew has confirmed that flaps and slats are clear of obstructing ice.

Q
When should the taxi in time be recorded in the techlog ?

A
When taxiing in icing condition and temp at or below 3°C.