12/03/2025 Code-B

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane
Chemistry: Amines, Biomolecules, Principles Related to Practical Chemistry
Botany: Ecosystem, Biodiversity and Conservation
Zoology: Animal Kingdom

General Instructions :
Duration of Test is 3 hrs.
The Test consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
There are four parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology having 45 questions in each part of equal
weightage.
Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered/unattempted
questions will be given no marks.
Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
Dark only one circle for each entry.
Dark the circle in the space provided only.
Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.

CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005

PHYSICS

1. Which of the following is not equal to joule? 4. In the measurement 2870.5 m, there are
(1) watt × second (1) 4 significant figures
(2) coulomb × volt (2) 4 reliable digits

(3) (ampere)2 × ohm (3) 5 significant figures

(4) volt × ampere × second (4) Both (2) and (3)

2. The displacement of a particle moving in a straight line is 5. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: All zeros between two non-zero digits are
given as x = (a + bt + ct2 ) m, where, a, b and c are significant only if the number does not have decimal point.
constants. The [
2
ab
] is equal to the unit of Statement II: For a number with a decimal, the trailing
c
zero(s) are significant.
(1) Area In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(2) Volume
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Area per second
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Volume per second
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
3. If 1 kg2 m2 s–2 = n g2 cm2 s–2, then n is equal to (4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(1) 107

(2) 108

(3) 109

(4) 1010

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

6. Which of the following formula for kinetic energy (k) can be 9. A particle is projected at angle 60° with horizontal with an
ruled out on the basis of dimensional arguments. (Where –
initial speed 20√2 m s . When it makes an angle 45° with
−1

symbols have their usual meanings.) horizontal, its speed v is

(a) k = m2v2
(1) 10 m s–1
(b) k = m v 1

2
2

(c) k = ma (2) 20 m s–1

(d) k = m v
3 2

16
(3) –
10√2 m s
−1

(e) k = mvt
(1) (a) and (c) only (4) –
10√3 m s
−1

(2) (a), (c) and (d) only 10. A particle is moving with angular speed of 20π rad s–1 in a
(3) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only circular orbit of radius 10 cm. Its centripetal acceleration is
(4) (a), (c) and (e) only equal to [given π2 = 10]

7. A particle is moving in xy-plane. If it is at point P1 at time t1 (1) 40 m s–2

and at point P2 at time t2, then direction of average
(2) 4 m s–2
→
acceleration ( a ) is best represented by
(3) 400 m s–2

(4) Zero

11. A boat is sent across a river in a perpendicular direction

with a velocity of 4 km/h. If the resultant velocity of the boat
is 5 km/h, then velocity of the river is
–
(1) 3√2 km/h

(2) −−
√41 ms
−1

(3) 4 km/h
(4) 3 km/h
CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005
12. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a certain speed. It
(1) passes through the same point at 4 seconds and 8 seconds
from the start. The maximum height achieved by the ball is
(1) 90 m
(2)
(2) 180 m
(3) 80 m
(3)
(4) 160 m

(4)

8. A boy stands on the edge of a roof 4.9 m above the ground

and throws a stone horizontally with a speed of 9.8 m s–1.
The stone will hit the ground at an angle of θ with
horizontal, where θ is
(1) 45°

(2) tan–1(2)

(3) –1 1
tan ( )
2

(4) 60°

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

13. For the given velocity-time (v-t) graph of a particle moving in 14. The acceleration-time (a-t) graph of a particle moving in a
a straight line, choose the correct acceleration-time (a-t) straight line is shown in the figure. If initial velocity of
graph. particle is 2 m s–1, then velocity at t = 3 s is

(1)
(1) 6 m s–1

(2) 8 m s–1

(3) 5 m s–1

(4) 7 m s–1

15. A balloon is moving upwards with a constant speed of 20 m

s–1. A stone is dropped from balloon at t = 0, when the
balloon is at height 25 m above the ground. The stone hits
(2)
the ground with a speed of [g = 10 m s–2]
–1
CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 (1) 20 mCC-005
s CC-005 CC-005
(2) 30 m s–1

(3) 40 m s–1

(4) 60 m s–1

16. The position of a body moving along x-axis as a function of

time t is given as, x = t2 + 2t (metre). The velocity of the body
(3) at t = 1 s is
(1) 4 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 7 m/s
(4) 9 m/s
17. A particle moving with a constant acceleration in a straight
line passes through two points A and B with speed 15 m s–
1 and 20 m s–1 respectively. The speed of particle at mid-
point of AB is

(4) (1) 16 m s–1

25 −1
(2) ms
√2

27 −1
(3) ms
√2

(4) 20 m s–1

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

18. Velocity vs displacement graph of a particle moving in a 22. The distance travelled by an object starting from rest and
straight line is shown below. The acceleration of the particle moving with an acceleration m/s , in the 3rd second is
3 2

is 4

(1) 15

8
m

(2) 15

7
m

(3)
10
m
3

(4) 13

3
m

23. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with velocity of 20 m/s

from top of multistorey building 30 m high. How high will the
ball rise above ground (g = 10 ms–2)?
(1) A non-zero constant
(1) 40 m
(2) Increasing linearly with x
(2) 45 m
(3) Increasing parabolically with x
(3) 50 m
(4) Zero
(4) 60 m
19. The mean length of an object is 5 cm. The measurement
which is most accurate among the following is 24. The velocity of particle at any time t is given by
v = bt + where a and b are constants. The dimension of
a

(1) 4.9 cm t

a
is
(2) 4.805 cm b

(3) 5.25 cm (1) [MLT2]

(4) 5.4 cm (2) [M0L0T2]

20. Choose the correct equation of trajectory for a ground to (3) [ML–1T–1]
ground projectile. (Where symbols have their usual
meanings) 0 –1
CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 (4) [M LT
CC-005
] CC-005 CC-005
2

(1)
gx
y = x tan θ +
2u
2
cos
2
θ
25. A projectile with same speed of projection has same range
R for two angles of projection. If T1 and T2 are the time of
flights in two cases, then
2

(2)
gx
y = x tan θ– 2 2
2u cos θ

R
gx (1) T1T2 =
(3) y = x tan θ–
2u2
cos 2
θ
g

2R
2 (2) T1T2 =
(4) y = x tan θ +
gx

2
g

2u cos θ

2g

21. (3) T1T2 =

∣ →∣ ∣ →∣ → → R

Let ∣P ∣ = ∣Q ∣ = P . If P and Q are at an angle 120° with

∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ R
(4) T1T2 = 2g
→ →
each other, then the magnitude of resultant of P and Q is
26. An object revolves uniformly in a circle and completes 200
(1) P revolutions per minute. The time period of revolution is
(2) 2P (1) 0.6 s
(3) –
√2P (2) 0.3 s
(4)
–
√3P (3) 1 s
(4) 2 s

27. A particle is moving in straight line with a velocity v = (3 + 6t)

cm/s. The displacement of the particle in the time interval
from t = 0 s to t = 2 s, is
(1) 10 cm
(2) 12 cm
(3) 18 cm
(4) 24 cm
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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

28. Dimensional formula for coefficient of self-induction is 32. Velocity-time (v-t) graph of a particle moving in a straight
line on x-axis is shown below.
(1) [ML2T–2A–2]

(2) [MLT–2A–2]

(3) [ML2T–1A–2]

(4) [ML2T–2A–1]

29. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius ‘R’ as

shown in the figure. If it starts from point A, then
Corresponding to above v-t curve, match the corresponding
displacement of the particle after rotating through 780° is
entries in column-I with those of column-II (where symbols
have their usual meaning).
Column-I Column-II
a. a-t graph (i) Straight line with zero slope
b. v-x graph (ii) Parabola with decreasing slope
c. x-t graph (iii) Parabola with increasing slope
d. a-v graph (iv) Straight line with positive slope

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

(1) –
R√3
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
–
(2) R√2
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) R
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Zero
33. Two trains of length 120 m and 80 m are running in
30. √ABC 2 opposite directions with speed 36 km/h and 54 km/h
A physical quantity P =
3
is determined by respectively. In what time, they will completely cross each
D

measuring A, B, C and D separately with the percentage other?

error of 2%, 2%, 4% and 1% respectively. Maximum
CC-005 CC-005
percentage error in the value of P will be
CC-005 CC-005 (1) 8 s CC-005 CC-005 CC-005
(2) 16 s
(1) 7%
(3) 24 s
(2) 9%
(4) 40 s
(3) 12%
34. A projectile is fired horizontally with speed 10 m s–1 from a
(4) 6%
tower of height 30 m. After 1 second, the tangential
31. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as acceleration of the projectile is
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion (A): Magnitude of average velocity can never be (1) g
greater than average speed. (2) Zero
Reason (R): Magnitude of displacement can be greater
than distance.
g
(3) 2

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the
(1)
g

correct explanation of the assertion (4) √2

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not 35. The kinetic energy (k) depends upon momentum (P) and
(2)
the correct explanation of the assertion
mass (m) of a particle as k ∝ Pxmy , then value of (x – y) is
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false equal to
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (1) 1
(2) –1
(3) 2
(4) 3

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

36. The equation of path of a projectile, projected obliquely 40. Velocity–time graph of two objects moving in same direction
from the ground under gravity is given by y = 2x − x , 5 2 is given in the figure below. Ratio of acceleration of object
4
(2) to that of object (1) is
where 'x' and 'y' are in metre. x and y are along horizontal
ground and vertical direction respectively. The speed of
projection is

(1) –
2√3 ms
–1

(2) –
2√5 ms
–1

(3) –
2√7 ms
–1

(4) –
2√2 ms
–1 (1) 1
(2) 16/9
37. The position of a particle is expressed as
→ 3
r = (2t î + 6t ĵ ) m. Which of the following statement is (3) 9/16

wrong? (4) 4/5

(1) Velocity in y-direction is independent of time 41. The equation of real gas is given as

(2) Acceleration in x-direction is directly proportional to time (P +

a
2
) (V − b) = nRT , then which of the following term is
V

(3) Particle is moving in z-direction without any acceleration dimensionless? (All symbols have their usual meanings)

(4) Magnitude of velocity at t = 0 is 6 m/s (1) a/V2

38. If least count of an instrument is taken as absolute error, (2) b

then relative error in measurement of length 31.4 cm by a ab

metre scale is (3) V

2

(1)
0.01

(4)
2
PV
31.4
a

(2)
0.1
42. Two particles A and B are projected with same speed from
CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 the ground
CC-005 CC-005 CC-005If H1,
31.4

at angles of 30° and 60° with horizontal.

(3)
1.0

31.4 H2 are heights and R1, R2 are ranges at 30° and 60°
respectively, then
(4) 0.001

31.4

(1) R1 > R2
39. A point object moves in a straight line so that its position
(2) H1 > H2
x(m) at any instant t(s) is given by x = t2 + 2. Acceleration of
the object at t = 1 s is (3) H1 < H2
(1) 1 m/s2 (4) R1 < R2
(2) 2 m/s2 43. The angle of projection of a projectile for which range is
double the maximum height, will be
(3) 3 m/s2
(1) θ = tan–1(2)
(4) 4 m/s2
(2) θ = tan–1(4)

(3) θ = 45°

(4) θ = tan
−1
(
1

2
)

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

44. The physical quantities having same dimensions are

(1) Momentum and planck’s constant
(2) Stress and energy density
(3) Tension and surface tension

(4) Speed and

1

​
( μ0 ε0 ) 2

45. A motor vehicle left the point A and reached the point B by
travelling in a straight line for 2 hours. The vehicle travelled
half of the distance at a speed of v1 = 40 km/h and other
half at a speed of v2 = 60 km/h. The distance between A
and B is
(1) 86 km
(2) 96 km
(3) 76 km
(4) 106 km

CHEMISTRY

46. Given below are the two statements. 49. Select the correct statement among the following.
Statement I: Reaction of glucose with hydroxylamine
(1) Fibrous proteins are generally soluble in water
confirms the presence of carbonyl group in glucose.
Statement II: Reaction of glucose with acetic anhydride (2) Albumin is an example of fibrous protein
confirms the presence of 2-OH groups in glucose.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer Change in pH does not affect the primary structure of
(3)
protein
CC-005
(1) Statement I is correct CC-005 CC-005
but statement II is incorrect CC-005 (4) Alanine
CC-005
is a dipeptide
CC-005 CC-005
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
50. Given below are two statements:
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct Statement-I : The two strands of DNA are complementary
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect to each other.
Statement-II : In DNA, hydrogen bonds are formed
47. Consider the following statements regarding fructose between specific pairs of bases.
(a) It is a ketohexose. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
(b) It is a natural disaccharide answer from the options given below
(c) It is used as a sweetener in it’s pure form.
(d) It is a levorotatory compound. (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
The correct statement(s) is/are (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) (b) and (c) only (4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) (b) only 51. Lactose is composed of
(4) (a) and (d) only (1) α-D-Galactose and α-D-Glucose
48. Which among the following is a non-reducing sugar? (2) α-D-Galactose and β-D-Glucose
(1) Fructose (3) β-D-Galactose and α-D-Glucose
(2) Glucose (4) β-D-Galactose and β-D-Glucose
(3) Sucrose
(4) Lactose

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

52. Identify the correct structure of sugar moiety present in DNA 55. Given below are the two statements.
Statement I: Phenolphthalein (HPh) is the best suitable
reagent for strong base-weak acid type of titrations.
Statement II: Stability of lyophobic sols is due to charge on
colloidal particles.
(1) In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) 56. On addition of β-naphthol to diazonium salt, coupling
reaction takes place to form a dye of
(1) Scarlet red colour
(2) Pink colour
(3) Brown colour
(4) Yellow colour
(3)
57. Consider the following reaction

(4)

(i) ‘P’ and ‘R’ are positional isomers

53. WhichCC-005 CC-005
of the following base CC-005
is not found in RNA? CC-005 (ii) ‘P’ and
CC-005
‘R’ are identicalCC-005 CC-005
(iii) ‘A’ reacts with Br2 water at room temperature to give
(1) Adenine white precipitate
(2) Guanine The correct statement(s) is/are

(3) Thymine (1) (i) only

(4) Uracil (2) (ii) and (iii) only

54. The structure of the compound with IUPAC nomenclature N, (3) (i) and (ii) only
N-diethylbutan-1-amine is (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(1) C2H5—NH—CH2CH2CH2CH3 58. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Acetylation of –NH2 group of aniline reduces
its activating effect towards electrophilic substitution.
(2)
Statement-II: Acetyl group attached to benzene ring has
electron withdrawing nature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
(3) C2H5—NH—C2H5
answer from the options given below
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

59. Match List-I with List-II 64. Choose the option with correct number of white precipitates,
List-I List-II among the following
(Colour of the flame observed by (Metal AgI, (COO)2Ca, BaCrO4, AgBr, AgCl, PbS
naked eyes) ion) (1) 5
(a) Green flame with blue centre (i) Sr2+ (2) 4
(b) Crimson red (ii) Cu2+ (3) 3
(c) Apple green (iii) Ca2+ (4) 2

(d) Brick red (iv) Ba2+ 65. Sodium carbonate extract of a salt with sodium
nitroprusside gives purple (or violet) coloured complex. The
Choose the correct option. possible anion present in the given salt is
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(1) NO
−

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2) 2−
CO3
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (3) NO
−

60. The correct order of basicity of the given amines in aqueous (4) S2–
solution is
66. Consider the following reaction sequence
(1) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)3N > NH3

(2) NH3 > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N

(3) C2H5NH2 > NH3 > (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N

(4) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 > NH3

If ‘C’ is an amine then C and A respectively are
61. Given below are the two statements.
Statement I: Lead chromate is insoluble in hot sodium
hydroxide solution.
CC-005
Statement CC-005
II: Lead sulphate is solubleCC-005
in ammonium CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005
acetate solution due to formation of tetraacetoplumbate (II)
ions. (1)
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (2)

62. Identify ‘X’ in the following reaction

X + SCN– → Blood red colour solution.
Choose the correct option.

(1) Ca2+
(3)
(2) Al3+

(3) Ba2+

(4) Fe3+

63. Lyophilic and lyophobic sol respectively are

(1) Egg albumin and starch (4)

(2) Starch and gum

(3) Aluminium hydroxide and starch
(4) Starch and arsenic sulphide

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

67. Consider the following reaction 71. The correct structure of β-D-glucopyranose is

(1)

Identify Y in the reaction

(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)

68. The following reaction

(4)
CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005
is known by the name
(1) Acetylation reaction
72. In Borax bead test, compound formed is metal _______
(2) Schotten-Baumann reaction
(3) Friedel-Crafts reaction (1) Metaborate
(2) Tetraborate
(4) HVZ reaction
(3) Borazine
69. Among the following, the essential aromatic amino acid is
(4) Orthoborate
(1) Tryptophan
73. Cation that gives brown residue on charcoal cavity test is
(2) Arginine
(3) Tyrosine (1) Pb2+

(4) Valine (2) Cd2+

70. Enzyme which is responsible to convert sucrose into (3) As3+
glucose and fructose, is
(1) Invertase (4) Zn2+

(2) Zymase 74. Chromyl chloride test is given by

(3) Urease (1) Na2S
(4) Pepsin (2) NaBr
(3) NaI
(4) NaCl

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

75. Salt reacts with warm dilute H2SO4, gives rotten egg like 79. Glucose on heating with HI gives
smell, indicates the presence of (1) Gluconic acid
(1) Cl– (2) Saccharic acid

(2) CO2– (3) Hexanal

3

(4) n-Hexane
(3) S2–
80. Which of the following amino acid contain sulphur?
(4) NO–

(1) Lysine
76. Compound (A) having molecular formula C5H13N on
(2) Glutamine
reaction with Hinsberg’s reagent gives compound (B) which
is insoluble in aqueous alkali. The compound (A) could be (3) Proline
(4) Methionine
(1) 81. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The α-form of glucose is obtained by the
crystallisation from concentrated solution of glucose at 303
K.
Statement II: Maltose is a reducing sugar.
(2) In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3)
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(4) 82. Incorrect statement about starch is

(1) Amylopectin is one of its component
CC-005 which cannot
77. The compound CC-005 CC-005
be synthesised by Gabriel CC-005 (2) Amylose
CC-005 CC-005
constitutes about CC-005
15-20% of starch
phthalimide synthesis is…. (3) Cereals and roots have high content of starch

(1) (4) It is a polymer of β-D-fructose

83. Fat insoluble vitamin among the following is
(1) Vitamin-K
(2) (2) Vitamin-C
(3) Vitamin-D
(4) Vitamin-E
84. The solution of compounds which turn blue litmus red
(3) among the following are

(4)

78. CH3NHCH3 and (CH3)3N can be chemically distinguished (1) I, II only

by
(2) II, III and IV only
(1) Carbylamine test
(3) III and IV only
(2) Benedict test
(4) I, II, III and IV
(3) Hinsberg’s reagent
(4) Lucas test

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

85. Which among the following is an optically inactive amino 88. H2 / Ni

acid? CH3 − C ≡ N −−−→ Product

(1) Proline The product is,

(2) Lysine (1) CH3 – NH2

(3) Glycine (2) CH3 – CH2 – NH2
(4) Alanine CH3 − N − CH3

(3) |

86. Working pH range of methyl orange indicator, is H

(1) 3.1 to 4.5

(4) CH3 – CH3
(2) 4.2 to 6.2
89. Consider the following statements
(3) 6.2 to 8.2
(a) AgI is insoluble in ammonia solution
(4) 8.2 to 10.2 (b) Na2S on treatment with concentrated HNO3 give SO2
gas
87. Out of the following aromatic compounds, choose the one (c) AgCl is soluble in excess of ammonia solution.
which will yield significant amount of meta nitro product on The correct statement are
nitration.
(1) (a) and (b) only

(1) (2) (a) and (c) only

(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) 90. Nitrobenzene undergoes reaction with zinc dust and aq.
NaOH to give

(1)
(3)

CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 (2) CC-005 CC-005 CC-005

(4) (3)

(4)

BOTANY

91. All of the following are correct for ecological pyramids, 92. The rate of biomass production is expressed in terms of
except
(1) (kcal m–2)yr–1
(1) Saprophytes are not given any place in pyramid.
(2) (kcal m–1)yr–2
It does not take into account the same species
(2)
belonging to two or more trophic levels. 2

(3) kcal m

The base of any pyramid is occupied by the herbivorous yr 2

(3)
organisms.
(4) gm–2yr2
(4) It assumes only simple food chain.

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

93. Find the odd one out w.r.t. ecosystem function. 97. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Annual net primary productivity of oceans is more than
(1) Productivity that of terrestrial ecosystem.
(2) Decomposition (b) Temperature does not affect the primary productivity of
the ecosystem.
(3) Stratification (c) The rate of formation of new organic matter by
(4) Energy flow consumers is called secondary productivity.

94. The following graph shows the species area relationship. (1) All (a), (b) and (c)
Select the correct option for it. (2) Only (a) and (c)
(3) Only (a)
(4) Only (c)
98. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. energy flow in
ecosystem.
Sun is the only source of energy for all the ecosystems
(1)
and food chains on earth including DFC
(2) Plants capture only 2 – 10% of the PAR
Energy flow is unidirectional towards higher trophic
(3)
levels
Photosynthetic and chemosynthetic bacteria contribute
(4)
to primary productivity of ecosystem

99. Which type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with

The rectangular hyperbola (represented by a) is formed the following data?
(1) Primary producer: 4 kg m–2
on the basis of equation S = ACZ
Primary consumer: 18 kg m–2
In the equation of species-area relationship, the value of
(2) Z lies between 0.6 to 1.2 for very large area like an Primary carnivore: 32 kg m–2
entire continent
CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 (1) Inverted
CC-005 CC-005
pyramid of energy CC-005
The slope of line (as represented in b) becomes much
(3) (2) Upright pyramid of number
steeper for small areas
(3) Inverted pyramid of number
The slope of the line are different for the plants in Britain,
(4) birds in California or molluscs in New York and varies (4) Inverted pyramid of biomass
between 2.1 – 2.8.
100.Find the wrong one w.r.t. productivity.
95. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. mineralisation that
GPP is the available biomass for consumption to
occurs during the decomposition of detritus. (1)
heterotrophs.
It is not an important step in the process of
(1) Annual NPP of whole biosphere is approximately 170
decomposition (2)
billion tons of organic matter.
It involves degradation of detritus into simpler organic
(2) Deserts and deep sea are the least productive
substances by fungal and bacterial enzyme. (3)
ecosystems.
It is the process of accumulation of light coloured
(3) GPP is rate of production of organic matter by producers
amorphous substance (4)
per unit area and time.
It is the release of inorganic substances from humus or
(4) 101.Identify the incorrectly matched pair.
organic matter

96. The number of trophic levels in the GFC is restricted (1) The Amazon rain forest – Lungs of the planet
because Western Ghats of India – Very low level of species
(2)
Only 10% of the energy is transferred to the next trophic richness
(1)
level from lower trophic level (3) Fruit eating birds – Frugivorous
(2) Standing crop is highest at the producer level (4) Higher biodiversity – Higher productivity
The amount of biomass produced at the first trophic
(3)
level is not enough to support further trophic level
(4) It does not include decomposers in the food chain

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

102.Tropics are rich in biodiversity because 107.Identify A, B and C in the given figure showing global
biodiversity of proportionate number of species related to
(1) It has undergone frequent glaciations in past major taxa of eukaryotes having cell walls.
(2) It receives less solar radiations compared to poles
(3) Its cold temperature is favourable for speciation
Its environment is less seasonal, relatively more
(4)
constant and predictable
103.Select the correct match w.r.t. bird species found in different
countries.
(1) Greenland- 56 species
(2) Colombia - 3000 species
(3) New York - 200 species
(4) India – <1000 species A B C
104.Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to (1) Fungi Angiosperms Lichens
a. Increased variability in certain ecosystem processes. (2) Angiosperms Lichens Fungi
b. Lowered resistance to environmental perturbations.
c. Decline in productivity. (3) Algae Lichens Mosses
The correct one(s) is/are (4) Mosses Ferns Algae
(1) Only a
(1) (1)
(2) Only a and b
(2) (2)
(3) Only b and c
(3) (3)
(4) All a, b and c
(4) (4)
105.Species which are more susceptible to extinction have all
108.In a food chain, which level typically has the least amount of
the following population characteristics, except
energy?
(1) Fixed habitat and migratory routes
CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 (1) Primary
CC-005
producers CC-005 CC-005
(2) Large body size
(2) Herbivores
(3) Small population size and low reproductive rate
(3) Primary consumer
First trophic level in food chain with high reproductive
(4) (4) Top consumer
rate
109.The term, 'biodiversity' was popularised by
106.Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a. As we move on Earth from low to high latitude, the (1) Robert May
biodiversity increases.
b. According to Paul Ehrlich, loss of the key species from an (2) Edward Wilson
ecosystem may cause serious threat to ecosystem. (3) Paul Ehrlich
c. India possesses 8.1% species diversity of the world.
Select the correct option. (4) Alexander von Humboldt
(1) b and c only 110.Identify the correct example of in situ conservation of
biodiversity.
(2) b only
(1) Botanical garden
(3) All a, b, and c
(2) National park
(4) a and c only
(3) Seed bank
(4) Wildlife safari park

111. Identify the incorrect one w.r.t. characteristic of an

anthropogenic ecosystem.
(1) Has little diversity
(2) Shows high productivity
(3) Exhibits a complex food chain
(4) Performs little cycling of nutrients

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

112.Select the incorrectly matched pair from the following. 118.Read the given statements and select the correct option.
(A) Sparrow can be primary as well as secondary
(1) Secondary consumers – Feed on herbivores consumer.
(2) Producers – Convert light energy into chemical energy (B) Occurrence of food web provides stability to the
ecosystem.
(3) Secondary carnivores – Feed on primary consumers
(1) Only (A) is correct
Top carnivores – May be primary, secondary or tertiary
(4) (2) Only (B) is correct
carnivores
113.Identify the correct example of the first order consumer. (3) Both (A) and (B) are correct

(1) Frog (4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect

(2) Tadpole 119.In a forest, trees occupy top vertical strata, shrubs the
second and herbs and grasses occupy the bottom layers.
(3) Panther Technically it is called
(4) Snake
114.Which factor typically limits primary productivity in deep sea (1) Stratification
ecosystem? (2) Biome distribution
(1) Light availability (3) Scarification
(2) Temperature (4) Speciation
(3) Lack of minerals 120.Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for the
(4) Dissolved organic nutrients identification of
(1) Insect species
115.Among the following, which can be considered as the most
productive ecosystem? (2) Microbial species
(1) Coral reef (3) Amphibian species
(2) Tundra (4) Plant species
(3) Lake 121.Read the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and
CC-005
(4) Desert CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 choose CC-005
the correct option.CC-005 CC-005
Assertion (A): Conservation of biodiversity is essential for
116.Key species refers to a species that the maintenance of ecosystem services.
Reason (R): The services like pollination and water
(1) Is abundant in an ecosystem. purification are directly linked to the variety of species within
(2) Is invasive and outcompetes the native species. an ecosystem.

(3) Contributes to the stability of an ecosystem. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1)
explanation of (A)
(4) Is found in a particular habitat and nowhere else.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
117.Biodiversity hotspots are the regions (2)
explanation of (A)
(a) With low levels of species richness
(b) With high degree of endemism (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) That require maximum protection (4) (R) is true but (A) is false
(d) Of accelerated habitat loss
How many of the above is/are incorrect? 122.Which of the following is not an example of an invasive
alien species in India?
(1) Three
(1) Lantana
(2) One
(2) Eicchornia
(3) Two
(3) Clarias gariepinus
(4) Four
(4) Rauwolfia vomitoria
123.How many native species of birds became extinct as a
result of colonisation of tropical Pacific Islands by humans?
(1) More than 2000
(2) Less than 500
(3) More than 14,000
(4) Less than 700

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

124.Read the following assertion (A) and reason (R) statements 129.Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
and select the correct option. Statement A: Steller’s sea cow became extinct due to over
Assertion (A) : Pyramid of energy is always upright and exploitation.
can never be inverted. Statement B: Carrot grass is a weed that exterminate many
Reason (A) : When energy flows from a particular trophic herbs and shrubs of the area where it grows.
level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as
(1) Only statement A is correct
heat at each step.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (2) Only statement B is correct
(1)
explanation of (A) (3) Both statements A and B are correct
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2)
explanation of (A)
130.Maximum biodiversity is of
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
Insects in vertebrates, fishes in invertebrates, and
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (1)
lichens in plants
125.In the given ecosystem, if the NPP of grass is Molluscs in invertebrates, amphibians in vertebrates
(2)
400 (kcal m–2) yr–1, then what would be the secondary and mosses in plants
productivity at third trophic level in the given food chain? Insects in invertebrates, fishes in vertebrates and
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake (3)
angiosperms in plants
(1) 4000 (kcal m–2) yr–1 Crustaceans in vertebrates, birds in invertebrates and
(4)
algae in plants
(2) 40 (kcal m–2) yr–1
131.The process by which water-soluble inorganic nutrients go
(3) 4 (kcal m–2) yr–1 down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as
unavailable salts is known as
(4) 0.4 (kcal m–2) yr–1
(1) Catabolism
126.Match the following columns and select the correct option. (2) Mineralisation
Column-I Column-II
(3) Humification
Sacred Protection of animals (fauna) from all
a. (i)
groves types of exploitations (4) Leaching
CC-005 CC-005 CC-005
Threatened reservoir of plants and
CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005
b. Sanctuaries (ii) 132.The Earth Summit (1992) was held in
animals life on earth
c. Hotspots (iii) Species confined to a particular area (1) Rio de Janeiro
d. Endemism (iv) Islands of pristine forests (2) Johannesburg

(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) Australia

(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) Mauritius

(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) 133.India has A biosphere reserves, B national parks and
¯¯¯¯ ¯
¯¯¯
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) C wildlife sanctuaries.
¯
¯¯¯
Select the correct option for A, B and C.
127.According to David Tilman
(1) A-14, B-90, C-448
(1) Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity.
(2) A-90, B-14, C-448
Plots with more species showed more year to year
(2)
variation in total biomass. (3) A-24, B-89, C-468
A stable community shows much variation in productivity (4) A-89, B-24, C-428
(3)
year-to-year.
A stable community must not be resistant or resilient to
(4)
occasional disturbances.
128.For which of the following food chains, pyramid of biomass
is inverted?
(1) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog
(2) Grass → Deer → Fox
(3) Phytoplanktons → Zooplanktons → Fish
(4) Tree → Birds → Parasite

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

134.When a host fish species become extinct, its unique

assemblage of parasites also meets the same fate. This
exemplifies
(1) Alien species invasion
(2) Over-exploitation
(3) Endemism
(4) Co- extinction
135.Sacred groves of Khasi and Jaintia Hills are situated in
(1) Meghalaya
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Karnataka

ZOOLOGY

136.Alimentary canal in roundworms is 140.A similarity between Sycon, Taenia and Hirudinaria is that
all of them
(1) Incomplete
(1) Are monoecious
(2) Complete without pharynx
(2) Show indirect development
(3) Complete with muscular pharynx
(3) Show external fertilisation
(4) Absent
CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 (4) Exhibit
CC-005 CC-005
extracellular digestion of food CC-005
137.Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. hemichordates.
141.The organisms exhibiting radial symmetry are
The body is cylindrical and is composed of anterior
(1) (i) Spongilla
proboscis, a collar and a long trunk.
(ii) Pennatula
(2) Circulatory system is of closed type. (iii) Adamsia
(iv) Taenia
(3) Respiration takes place through gills. Choose the correct option.
(4) Fertilisation is external and development is indirect. (1) (i) and (ii)
138.The lowest taxonomic group to which Trygon, Salamandra (2) (ii) and (iii)
and Felis belongs to, is
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(1) Tetrapoda
(4) (i) and (iv)
(2) Gnathostomata
142.Consider the following features.
(3) Vertebrata a. Commonly known as sea walnuts or comb jellies
(4) Chordata b. The body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb
plates
139.Consider the given features c. Digestion is only extracellular
(a) Presence of epidermal scales or scutes How many features mentioned above is/are associated with
(b) Number of chambers in heart is similar to that of frog's ctenophores?
heart Choose the correct option
(c) Mode of fertilisation is similar to that of Psittacula
All of the above given features are true for which of the (1) One
following sets of animals? (2) Two
(1) Struthio, Rana (3) Three
(2) Testudo, Hemidactylus (4) Zero
(3) Chameleon, Crocodilus
(4) Salamandra, Ichthyophis

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

143.A mesodermal endoskeleton made of calcareous plates or 149.Consider the following characteristics
ossicles is seen in Tympanum, cloaca, eyelids, trunk, homeotherm, two-
chambered heart, external fertilization, viviparous, scales.
(1) Ophiura How many of the above mentioned
(2) Euspongia characteristics/structures are found in most amphibians?

(3) Octopus (1) 4

(4) Meandrina (2) 5

144.Common feature among Pavo, Vipera and Rattus is (3) 6

(1) Indirect development (4) 7

(2) External fertilisation 150.Most unique mammalian feature without any exception is
(3) Internal fertilisation (1) Presence of mammary glands

(4) Oviparity (2) Viviparity

145.The type of heart in which oxygenated and deoxygenated (3) Oviparity

blood is completely separated, is present in all of the (4) Flying capability
following, except
151.Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option.
(1) Crocodilus Sponges : Choanocytes :: _____ : Cnidoblasts
(2) Psittacula (1) Roundworms
(3) Delphinus
(2) Flatworms
(4) Vipera
(3) Coelenterates
146.Select the correct statement w.r.t. Betta, Myxine and (4) Sea walnuts
Chelone.
152.Select the correct set of organisms which show indirect
(1) They all possess a dorsal heart.
development and are found only in marine habitat.
They all exhibit internal fertilisation and direct (1) Ascaris and Ctenoplana
(2)
development.
CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 (2) Planaria
CC-005 CC-005
and Pleurobrachia CC-005
(3) They all possess paired fins/limbs.
(3) Saccoglossus and Ophiura
They all lack the capacity to regulate their body
(4)
temperature. (4) Fasciola and Dentalium

147.Which among the following statements is not true about 153.Which of the following phyla of the animal kingdom includes
Neophron? organisms where bilateral symmetry appeared for the first
time?
(1) Their forelimbs are modified into wings
(1) Aschelminthes
Their hindlimbs generally have scales and are modified
(2)
for walking (2) Arthropoda
(3) They are oviparous and exhibit external fertilization (3) Annelida
(4) Their endoskeleton is fully ossified (4) Platyhelminthes
148.Consider the following features 154.In sponges, the mode of reproduction is
(a) Unisexual
(b) True metamerism (1) Only asexual by fragmentation
(c) Oviparity (2) Only asexual by binary fission
Select the correct set of animals which possess all the
above mentioned features. (3) Only sexual by formation of gametes

(1) Nereis, Adamsia, Bombyx (4) Both sexual and asexual

(2) Pheretima, Clarias, Panthera

(3) Neophron, Apis, Chelone
(4) Locusta, Planaria, Hyla

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

155.Pennatula and Pleurobrachia are similar as they 160.Read the following features:
(a) Exhibit similar body symmetry (a) Most primitive of all vertebrates
(b) Possess similar level of body organisation (b) Notochord persists throughout the life
(c) Are diploblastic (c) Ectoparasites on some fishes
(d) Show similar mode of digestion (d) Sucking and circular mouth with jaws
Select the correct option. How many of the above given features hold(s) true for
Lamprey?
(1) Only (a) and (c)
(1) Four
(2) Only (a)
(2) Three
(3) Only (b) and (d)
(3) Two
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(4) One
156.Select the incorrect option w.r.t. water vascular system and
water canal system. 161.All of the following organisms possess scales, except
(1) Former is seen in brittle star (1) Petromyzon
(2) Both the systems assist in locomotion (2) Calotes
(3) Latter is seen in bath sponge (3) Pristis
Both the systems assist in food gathering and (4) Corvus
(4)
respiratory exchange
162.Choose the incorrect statement.
157.Assertion (A): In arthropods, circulation is of open type and
blood is pumped by heart. (1) In reptiles, external ear openings are absent.
Reason (R): In arthropods, blood is circulated through a (2) In amphibians, the skin is smooth having mucus glands.
series of vessels and capillaries of varying diameters and
pumped into haemocoel via heart. (3) In cartilaginous fishes, mouth is located terminally.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option. (4) In adult mammals, heterodont dentition is present.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 163.Select the correct match.
(1)
explanation of (A)
(1) Delphinus – Performs branchial respiration
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2) CC-005of (A) CC-005
explanation CC-005 CC-005 (2) Scoliodon
CC-005 CC-005
– Swims constantly CC-005
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) Crocodilus – Contains only one ventricle in its heart
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (4) Ichthyophis – Tailed amphibian with limbs

158.Triploblastic acoelomate animals exhibiting organ-level of 164.Select the characteristic which is not common between
body organisation among the following are Psittacula and Pteropus.
(1) Planaria and Taenia (1) Homeothermy
(2) Fasciola and Ctenoplana (2) Ossified endoskeleton
(3) Ancylostoma and Petromyzon (3) Viviparity
(4) Pavo and Planaria (4) Pulmonary respiration
159._______ possesses a cartilaginous vertebral column and 165.Amongst the organisms mentioned below, choose the one
cranium. that resides in freshwater.
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(1) Sea horse
(1) Angel fish
(2) Magur
(2) Flying fish
(3) Sea cucumber
(3) Hag fish
(4) Sting ray
(4) Devil fish
166.Select the correct set of organisms that are viviparous and
show internal fertilisation with direct development.
(1) Hyla and Hemidactylus
(2) Locusta and Labeo
(3) Columba and Camelus
(4) Canis and Felis

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

167.All of the following animals exhibit tissue level of body 172.Read the given statements (a to e) and select the option
organisation, except which correctly states them as True (T) or False (F).
a. Respiration in flying fox is by lungs
(1) Sea-fan
b. Fertilisation is internal in Ornithorhynchus
(2) Brain coral c. Heart is four-chambered in Chameleon
d. Salamandra is an aquatic reptile
(3) Fresh water sponge e. Air sacs in Psittacula supplement respiration
(4) Sea anemone (1) a-T, b-F, c-F, d-T, e-T
168.How many animals mentioned in the box below are (2) a-T, b-F, c-T, d-T, e-T
considered as economically beneficial insects?
(3) a-T, b-T, c-F, d-F, e-T
Apis, Bombyx, Anopheles, Aedes, Culex, Laccifer
(4) a-T, b-T, c-T, d-F, e-F
(1) 3
173.The notochord of chordates lies between
(2) 4
(1) Nerve cord and vertebral column
(3) 5
(2) Nerve cord and gut
(4) 2
(3) Vertebral column and gut
169.Select the odd one from the following w.r.t phyla
(4) Muscles and bony skeleton
(1) Sea lily
174.Select the correct statement.
(2) Sea cucumber
(1) All flatworms are endoparasites.
(3) Sea urchin
(2) All chordates have a closed circulatory system.
(4) Sea hare
(3) All molluscs have a calcareous exoskeleton.
170.Members of which of the following phyla do not show true
metamerism? (4) All members of the kingdom Animalia are multicellular.

(1) Annelida 175.Select the correct match w.r.t. organism, its phylum and
characteristic feature.
(2) Mollusca
Organism Phylum Characteristic
CC-005
(3) Arthropoda CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005
feature
(4) Chordata (1) Liver fluke Platyhelminthes Have both
hooks and
171.A new animal was discovered and brought to the lab for suckers
scientific observation and study. The following characteristic (2) Scorpion Annelida Body is divided
features were documented about it. into head,
(i) Had two pairs of limbs. thorax and
(ii) A lot of differences were observed between its larvae abdomen
and adult form.
(3) Cuttle fish Mollusca Monoecious
(iii) The tail was absent in the adult, while present in the
and oviparous
larvae.
(iv) Adult could live both on land and in water. (4) Brain Cnidaria Gastrovascular
The organism most likely belongs to the coral cavity with a
single opening
(1) Phylum Arthropoda
(1) (1)
(2) Super class Pisces
(2) (2)
(3) Sub phylum Protochordata
(3) (3)
(4) Class Amphibia
(4) (4)

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-01B

176.Match column I with column II w.r.t organisms and the type 179.Assertion (A): The organisms belonging to the class Aves
of respiratory structure/system present in them. have a streamlined body and hollow long bones with air
Column I Column II cavities.
Reason (R): All the birds are feathered bipeds that have
a. (i) Feather-like gills
functional wings and show anatomical and morphological
flight adaptations.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1)
explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
explanation of (A)
b. (ii) Tracheal system (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true
c. (iii) Book lungs 180.Read the following statements:
Statement A : Members of the class Chondrichthyes have a
bony endoskeleton and possess a heterocercal caudal fin.
Statement B : All chordates possess a mouth with an upper
d. (iv) Gills and a lower jaw, without any exception.
Choose the correct option.
(1) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) Both statements A and B are correct
Select the correct option. (3) Only statement A is incorrect
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) Only statement B is incorrect
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005 CC-005
177.Sea anemone represents
(1) Umbrella-shaped polyp form
(2) Medusa form which is formed via asexual reproduction
(3) Cylindrical polyp form
(4) Medusa form which is formed via sexual reproduction
178.Select the incorrect statement.
(1) All bilaterally symmetrical animals are triploblastic.
(2) Porifers are the most primitive unicellular animals.
(3) Housefly belongs to the Muscidae family.
(4) A silkworm undergoes metamorphosis to form an adult.

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