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Unit Page
Title
No. No.
1. Metallurgy 5

2. p-Block Elements-I 14

3. p-Block Elements-II 22

4. Transition and Inner Transition Elements 31

5. Coordination Chemistry 41

6. Solid State 52

7. Chemical Kinetics 61

+2 CHEMISTRY QUESTION PAPER ANALYSIS MARCH 2020

Total Marks
Q. No. CONTENTS BOOK BOOK
BACK INTERIOR
1-15 ONE MARK 8 1
PART – II
TWO
16-24 4 4(Choice)
MARK
PART – III
THREE
25-33 3 6(Choice)
MARK
34-38 Five Mark 10 2
Total 25 !" 3
*By reading book back and GEM ADDITIONAL QUESTION AND ANSWER,
STUDENT CAN GET NEARLY 67 Marks Out of 70 (Volume I and II )
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1. Write the equation for the extraction of silver by leaching

with sodium cyanide and show that the leaching process
is a redox reaction.
2. Magnesite (Magnesium carbonate) is calcined to obtain
magnesia, which is used to make refractory bricks. Write
the decomposition reaction.
3. Using Ellingham diagram (fig 1.4) indicate the lowest
temperature at which ZnO can be reduced to Zinc metal
by carbon. Write the overall reduction reaction at this
temperature.
4. Metallic sodium is extracted by the electrolysis of brine
(aq. NaCl). After electrolysis the electrolytic solution becomes
basic in nature. Write the possible electrode reactions.

1. Bauxite has the composition

(a) Al2O3 (b) Al2O3.nH2O (c) Fe2O3.2H2O (d) None of these
2. Roasting of sulphide ore gives the gas (A). (A) is a colourless
gas. Aqueous solution of (A) is acidic. The gas (A) is
(a) CO2 (b) SO3 (c) SO2 (d) H2S
3. Which one of the following reaction represents calcinations?
(a) 2Zn + O2 → 2ZnO (b) 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2
(c) MgCO3 → MgO + CO2 (d) Both (a) and (c)
4. The metal oxide which cannot be reduced to metal by carbon is
(a) PbO (b) Al2O3 (c) ZnO (d) FeO
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5. Which of the metal is extracted by Hall-Heroult process?

(a) Al (b) Ni (c) Cu (d) Zn
6. Which of the following statements, about the advantage of
roasting of sulphide ore before reduction is not true?
(a) Gf 0 of sulphide is greater than those for CS2 and H2S
(b) Gr0 is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide
(c) Roasting of the sulphide to its oxide is thermodynamically
feasible.
(d) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for
metal sulphides.
7. Match items in column - I with the items of column - II and
assign the correct code.
Column-I Column-II
A Cyanide process (i) Ultrapure Ge
B Froth floatation process (ii) Dressing of ZnS
C Electrolytic reduction (iii) Extraction of Al
D Zone refining (iv) Extraction of Au
(v) Purification of Ni

A B C B
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
(c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
8. Wolframite ore is separated from tinstone by the process of
(PTA MQ, MAR 20)
(a) Smeting (b) Calcination
(c) Roasting (d) Electromagnetic separation
9. Which one of the following is not feasible?
(a) Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq)

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(b) Cu(s) + Zn2+(aq) → Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq)

(c) Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Ag(s) + Cu2+(aq)
(d) Fe(s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Cu(s) + Fe2+ (aq)
10. Electrochemical process is used to extract
(a) Iron (b) Lead (c) Sodium (d) silver
11. Flux is a substance which is used to convert
(a) Mineral into silicate
(b) Infusible impurities to soluble impurities
(c) Soluble impurities to infusible impurities (d) All of these
12. Which one the following ores is best concentrated by froth –
floatation method?
(a) Magnetite (b) Hematite (c) Galena (d) Cassiterite
13. In the extraction of aluminuium from alumina by electrolysis,
cryolite is added to
(a) Lower the melting point of alumina
(b) Remove impurities from alumina
(c) Decrease the electrical conductivity
(d) Increases the rate of reduction
14. Zinc is obtained from ZnO by
(a) Carbon reduction (b) Reduction using silver
(c) Electrochemical process (d) Acid leaching
15. Cupellation is a process used for the refining of
(a) Silver (b) Lead (c) Copper (d) iron
16. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with cyanide
ion. Silver is later recovered by (NEET-2017)
(a) Distillation (b) Zone refining
(c) Displacement with zinc (d) liquation
17. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following
metals can be used to reduce alumina? (NEET-2018)
(a) Fe (b) Cu (c) Mg (d) Zn

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18. The following set of reactions are used in refining Zirconium

Zr (impure) +2I 2  523K
→ ZrI 4 This method is known is
ZrI 4 
1800K
→ Zr ( pure ) + 2I 2
(a) Liquation (b) van Arkel process
(c) zone refining (d) Mond’s process
19. Which of the following is used for concentrating ore in
metallurgy?
(a) Leaching (b) Roasting
(c) Froth floatation (d) Both (a) and (c)
20. This incorrect statement among the following is
(a) Nickel is refined by Mond’s process
(b) Titanium is refined by Van Arkel’s process
(c) Zinc blende is concentrated by froth floatation
(d) In the metallurgy of gold, the metal is leached with dilute
sodium chloride solution
21. In the electrolytic refining of copper, which one of the
following is used as anode?
(a) Pure copper (b) Impure copper
(c) Carbon rod (d) Platinum electrode
22. Which of the following plot gives Ellingham diagram?
1
(a) ∆S Vs T (b) ∆ G0 Vs T (c) ∆G0 Vs (d) ∆G0 Vs T2
T
23. In the Ellingham diagram, for the formation of carbon
monoxide
 S0   G0 
(a)   is negative (b)   is positive
 T   T 
 ∆G 0 
(c)   is negative
 ∆ T 

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 ∆T  0  ∆G 0 
(d) initially  0 
is positive, after 700 C,   is negative
 ∆ G   ∆ T 
24. Which of the following reduction is not thermodynamically
feasible?
(a) Cr2 O 3 + 2Al  → Al2 O 3 + 2Cr
(b) Al 2 O 3 + 2Cr 
→ Cr2 O 3 + 2Al
(c) 3TiO 2 + 4Al  → 2Al 2 O 3 + 3Ti (d) none of these
25. Which of the following is not true with respect to Ellingham
diagram?
(a) Free energy, changes follow a straight line. Deviation
occurs when there is a phase change.
(b) The graph for the formation of CO2 is a straight line
almost parallel to free energy axis.
(c) Negative slope of CO shows that it becomes more stable
with increase in temperature.
(d) Positive slope of metal oxides shows that their stabilities
decrease with increase in temperature.

26. The method of zone refining of metals is based on the

principle of:
(a) Greater mobility of the pure metal than that of impurity.
(b) Higher melting point of the impurity than that of pure
metal.
(c) greater noble character of the solid metal than that of the
impurity.
(d) Greater solubility of the impurity in the molten state than
in the solid.

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27. Which of the following pairs of metal is purified by

Van-Arkel method?
(a) Ga and In (b) Ni and Fe (c) Ag and Au (d) Anglesite
28. Aluminium is extracted from alumina (Al2O3) by electrolysis
of molten mixture of?
(a) Al2O3 + KF+Na3AlF6 (b) Al2O3 + HF + NaAlF4
(c) Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2 (d) Al2O3 + CaF2 + NaAlF4
29. Assertion (A) : Pine Oil act as frothing agent in froth floation.
Reason (R) : Sulphide Ores are concentrated by froth
floation method.
(a) If A and R both are correct and R is correct explanation
of A
(b) If A and R both are correct and R is not correct explanation
of A
(c) Assertion if true but Reason is false
(d) Assertion if false but Reason is true
30. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanised iron but
the reverse is not possible it is because?
(a) Zn has lower melting point than iron
(b) Zn ha lower negative electrode potential than iron
(c) Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron
(d) Zinc is lighter than iron
31. Elements like silicon and Germanium to be used as a semi
conductor is purified by (PTA MQ)
(a) heating under vaccum (b) Van-Arkel Method
(c) zone refining (d) Electrolysis
32. Which method of purification represented by the equation?
Ti (impure) + 2I2  550K
→ TiI4 
1800K
→ Ti (Pure) + 2I2
(PTA MQ)
(a) Cupellation (b) Zone refining

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(c) Van-Arkel method (d) Mond’s process

33. The process of converting hydrated alumina into anhydrous
alumina is called. (PTA MQ)
(a) Roasting (b) Smelting
(c) Auto-reduction (d) Calcination

&' (
1. What is the difference between minerals and ores?
2. What are the various steps involved in extraction of pure
metals from their ores?
3. What is the role of Limestone in the extraction of Iron
from its oxide Fe2O3?
4. Which type of ores can be concentrated by froth floatation
method? Give two examples for such ores.
5. Out of coke and CO, which is better reducing agent for
the reduction of ZnO? Why? (PTA MQ)
6. Describe a method for refining nickel. (PTA MQ)
7. Explain zone refining process with an example using the
Ellingham diagram given below. (PTA MQ, MAR 20)
8. (A) Predict the conditions under which
(i) Aluminium might be expected reduce magnesia.
(ii) Magnesium could reduce alumina.
(B) Carbon monoxide is more effective reducing agent
than carbon below 983K but, above this temperature,
the reverse is true – Explain.
9. Give the uses of Zinc. (PTA MQ)
10. Explain the electrometallurgy of aluminium. (PTA MQ)
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11. Explain the following terms with suitable example.

(PTA MQ)
12. Give the basic requirement for vapour phase refining.
13. Describe the role of the following in the process mentioned.
(i) Silica in the extraction of copper
(ii) Cryolite in the extraction of aluminum.
(iii) Iodine in the refining of Zirconium.
(iv) Sodium cyanide in froth floatation
14. Explain the principle of electrolytic refining with an
example. (PTA MQ)
15. The selection of reducing agent depends on the
thermodynamic factor: Explain with an example.
16. Give the limitations of Ellingham diagram.
17. Write a short note on electrochemical principles of
metallurgy.

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1. What is Gangue? (PTA MQ)
2. Write a note on Gravity separation or Hydraulic wash.
3. Write a note on Leaching with an example.
4. What is Alkali Leaching? Give e.g.
5. What are the steps involved in extracting crude metal
from concentrated ore?
6. What is roasting? (PTA MQ)
7. Define calcination. (PTA MQ)
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8. What is smelting?
9. What is auto reduction? Give e.g.
10. What is Ellingham Diagram?
11. Write the application of Ellingham diagram.
12. Explain refining process of metal by distillation method.
13. Explain liquation with an example.
14. Write the applications of aluminium.
15. Write the applications of Iron.
16. Write the uses of copper.
17. Write the applications of gold.

)* (
1. Explain froth flotation process. (PTA MQ)
2. Explain Magnetic Separation.
3. Explain the reduction of metal oxides in different methods.

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1. Why group 18 elements are called inert gases? Write the

general electronic configuration of group 18 elements.

1. An aqueous solution of borax is

(a) neutral (b) acidic (c) basic (d) amphoteric
2. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule. (NEET)
(a) contains replaceable H+ ion (b) gives up a proton
(c) combines with proton to form water molecule
(d) accepts OH- from water, releasing proton.
3. Which among the following is not a borane?
(a) B2H6 (b) B3H6 (c) B4H10 (d) none of these
4. Which of the following metals has the largest abundance in
the earth’s crust?
(a) Aluminium (b) calcium (c) Magnesium (d) Sodium
5. In diborane, the number of electrons that accounts for
banana bonds is
(a) Six (b) two (c) four (d) three
6. The element that does not show catenation among the
following p-block elements is
(a) Carbon (b) silicon (c) Lead (d) germanium
7. Carbon atoms in fullerene with formula C60 have
(a) sp3 hybidised (b) sp hybridised (c) sp2 hybridised
(d) partially sp2 and partially sp3 hybridised

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8. Oxidation state of carbon in its hydrides

(a) +4 (b) -4 (c) +3 (d) +2
9. The basic structural unit of silicates is (NEET), (PTA MQ)
(a) (SiO3)2- (b) (SiO4)2- (c) (SiO)- (d) (SiO4)4-
10. The repeating unit in silicone is

R
(a) SiO2 (b)
Si O
R

(c) R O Si O (d) Si O O R
R R
11. Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass
silicone polymer?
(a) Me3SiCl (b) PhSiCl3 (c) MeSiCl3 (d) Me2SiCl2
12. Which of the following is not sp2 hybridised?
(a) Graphite (b) Graphene (c) Fullerene (d) Dry ice
13. The geometry at which carbon atom in diamond are bonded to
each other is
(a) Tetrahedral (b) hexagonal (c) Octahedral (d) none of these
14. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Beryl is a cyclic silicate (b) Mg2SiO4 is an orthosilicate
(c) SiO44- is the basic structural unit of silicates
(d) Feldspar is not aluminosilicate
15. AlF3 is soluble in HF only in the presence of KF. It is due to
the formation of (NEET)
(a) K 3 [ AlF3 H 3 ] (b) K 3 [ AlF6 ] (c) AlH 3 (d) K [ AlF3 H ]
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16. Match items in column-I with the items of column-II and

assign the correct code.
Column-I Column-II
A Borazole 1 B(OH)3
B Boric acid 2 B 3 N3 H 6
C Quartz 3 Na2[B4O5(OH)4]8H2O

A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) None of these
17. Duralumin is an alloy of
(a) Cu, Mn (b) Cu, Al, Mg (c) Al, Mn (d) Al, Cu, Mn, Mg
Solution: Al-95%, Cu-4%, Mn-0.5%, Mn – 0.5%
18. Thermodynamically the most stable form of carbon is
(a) Diamond (b) graphite (c) Fullerene (d) none of these
19. The compound that is used in nuclear reactors as protective
shields and control rods is
(a) Metal borides (b) metal oxides
(c) Metal carbonates (d) metal carbide
20. The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence
(a) Al < Ga < In < Tl (b) Tl > In < Ga < Al
(c) In < Tl < Ga < Al (d) Ga < In < Al < Tl

21. In borax bead test which compound is formed?

(a) Double Oxide (b) Tetra borate
(c) Meta-borate (d) Ortho-borate

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22. The stability of +1 oxidation state increase in the sequence:

(a) Al < Ga < In < Tl (b) TI < In < Ga < Al
(c) ln < Tl < Ga < Al (d) Ga < In < Al < Tl
23. Which one of the following anions is present in the chain
structure of silicates?
(a) Si 2 O 76- (b) (Si 2 O 52- ) n (c) (SiO 32- ) n (d) SiO 4-4
24. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?
(a) SiO2 (b) CO2 (c) SnO2 (d) CaO
25. Which of these is not a manomer for a high molecular mass
silicon polymer?
(a) MeSiCl3 (b) Me2SiCl2 (c) Me3SiCl (d) PhSiCl-3
26. The oxidising power of oxo acids follows the order (PTA MQ)
(a) HOX > HXO2 > HXO3 > HXO4
(b) HXO4 > HXO3 > HXO2 > HOX
(c) HXO3 > HXO4 > HXO2 > HOX
(d) HOX > HXO4 > HXO3 > HXO2
27. Assertion : Aqueous solution of potash Alum is acidic.
Reason : Aluminium sulphate undergo hydrolysis.
(PTA MQ)
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
28. Which of the following statement about H3BO3 is not correct?
(PTA MQ)
(a) It is a strong tribasic acid
(b) It is prepared by acidifying an aqueous solution of borax

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(c) It is a layer structure in which planer BO3 units are joined

by hydrogen bonds
(d) It does not act as proton donor but acts as a Lewis acid by
accepting hydroxyl ion
29. On hydrolysis BF3 gives Boric acid and converted to fluroboric
acid. The fluoroboric acid contains the species (PTA MQ)
(a) H+, F & BF3 (b) H+ & [BF4]-
(c) [HBF3]+ & F- (d) H+, B3+ & F-

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1. Write a short note on anamolous properties of the first
element of p-block.
2. Describe briefly allotropism in p-block elements with
specific reference to carbon.
3. Boron does not react directly with hydrogen. Suggest one
method to prepare diborane from BF3.
4. Give the uses of Borax.
5. What is catenation? Describe briefly the catenation property
of carbon. (or) Write the conditions for catenation.
(PTA MQ, MAR 20)
6. Write a note on Fisher tropsch synthesis. (PTA MQ)
7. Give the structure of CO and CO2.
8. Give the uses of silicones.
9. AlCl3 behaves like a Lewis acid. Substantiate this
statement.
It forms addition compounds with ammonia phosphine and
carbonyl chloride etc., So it behaves as Lewis acid AlCl3 .6NH 3 .

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10. Describe the structure of diborane. (PTA MQ)

11. Write a short note on hydroboration.
12. Give one example for each of the following.
i) icosogens ii) tetragen iii) prictogen iv) chalcogen
13. Write a note on metallic nature of p-block elements.
14. Complete the following reactions.
a. B ( OH )3 + NH 3 →
b. Na 2 B 4 O 7 + H 2 SO 4 + H 2 O 
→
c. B 2 H 6 + 2NaOH + 2H 2 O 
→
d. B 2 H 6 + CH 5OH 
→

e. BF3 + 9H 2 O 
→

f. HCOOH + H 2SO 4 
→

g. SiCl 4 + NH 3 
→

h. SiCl 4 + C 2 H 5 OH 
→
i. B + NaOH 
→
j. H 2 B 4 O 7  →
Re d hot

15. How will you identify borate radical? (PTA MQ)

16. Write a note on zeolites. (PTA MQ)
17. How will you convert boric acid to boron nitride? (PTA MQ)
18. A hydride of 2nd period alkali metal (A) on reaction with
compound of Boron (B) to give a reducing agent (C).
identify A, B and C.
19. A double salt which contains fourth period alkali metal
(A) on heating at 500K gives (B). Aqueous solution of (B)

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gives white precipitate with BaCl2 and gives a red colour

compound with alizarin. Identify A and B.
20. CO is a reducing agent, justify with an example. (PTA MQ)

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1. 18th-group elements are called as inert gases. Why? Write
the electronic configuration.
2. Write the ores of Boron.
3. Write the reduction of Boron trihalides.
4. Write the action of oxygen with boron on heating?
5. What is action of boron with acids and bases?
6. Write the uses of boron.
7. How borax is obtained from its ore?
8. What is the action of heat on borax?
9. Write the uses of Borax.
10. Write preparation of Boric acid.
11. What is the action of heat on Boric acid?
12. Explain the structure of Boric acid.
13. Write the uses of Boric acid.
14. Write the industrial manufacture of diborane?
15. What is inorganic benzene? How is it produced? (PTA MQ)
16. Write the uses of Diborane?
17. Explain the preparation of boron trifluoride.
18. Give the uses of boron trifluoride.

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19. Explain McAfee process of preparation of Aluminium

chloride.
20. Write the uses of aluminium chloride.
21. Write the preparation of Alum. (PTA MQ)
22. What is Burnt alum? How is it prepared?
23. Write the uses of alum.
24. Graphite conducts electricity. Why?
25. What are carbon nanotubes?
26. What is producer gas?
27. What is water gas (or) Synthetic gas?
28. What is phosgene? How is it prepared?
29. Write the uses of carbon monoxide.
30. How silicic esters are prepared?
31. Write the uses of silicon tetra chloride.
32. What are silicones? How is it prepared?
33. Explain the types of silicones.
34. What is water gas equilibrium? (PTA MQ)
35. There is only a marginal difference in decrease in ionisation
enthalpy form Aluminium to Thallium – Explain. Why?
(MAR 2020)
)* ( nd
1. Write the action of heat on diborane at different
temperature?
2. Write a note on Diamond.
3. Explain the carbon allotrope fullerenes.
4. Explain the types of silicates. (Any two types may be
asked in board exam)
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1. Write the products formed in the reaction of nitric acid

(both dilute and concentrated) with zinc.

1. In which of the following, NH3 is not used?

(a) Nessler’s reagent
(b) Reagent for the analysis of IV group basic radical
(c) Reagent for the analysis of III group basic radical
(d) Tollen’s reagent
2. Which is true regarding nitrogen?
(a) Least electronegative element
(b) has low ionisation enthalpy than oxygen
(c) d-orbitals available
(d) ability to form pπ-pπ bonds with itself
3. An element belongs to group 15 and 3 rd period of the
periodic table, its electronic configuration would be
(a) 1s2 2s2 2p4 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p3
(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
4. Solid (A) reacts with strong aqueous NaOH liberating a foul
smelling gas (B) which spontaneously burn in air giving
smoky rings. A and B are respectively.
(a) P4(red) and PH3 (b) P4(white) and PH3
(c) S8 and H2S (d) P4(white) and H2S
5. In the brown ring test, brown colour of the ring is due to
(a) a mixture of NO and NO2 (b) Nitroso ferrous sulphate
(c) Ferous nitrate (d) Ferric nitrate
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6. On hydrolysis, PCl3 gives

(a) H3PO3 (b) PH3 (c) H3PO4 (d) POCl3
7. P4O6 reacts with cold water to give
(a) H3PO3 (b) H4P2O7 (c) HPO3 (d) H3PO4
8. The basicity of pyrophosphorous acid (H4P2O5) is
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
9. The molarity of given orthophosphoric acid solution is 2M.
Its normality is
(a) 6N (b) 4N (c) 2N (d) none of these
10. Assertion : Bond dissociation energy of fluorine is greater
than chlorine gas
Reason : Chlorine has more electronic repulsion than fluorine
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
11. Among the following, which is the strongest oxidizing agent?
(a) Cl2 (b) F2 (c) Br2 (d) I2
12. The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halide
is (PTA MQ)
(a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(c) HCl > HF > HBr > HI (d) HI > HCl > HF > HBr
13. Which one of the following compounds is not formed?
(a) XeOF4 (b) XeO3 (c) XeF2 (d) NeF2
14. Most easily liquefiable gas is
(a) Ar (b) Ne (c) He (d) Kr
15. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis produces
(a) XeOF4 (b) XeO2F2 (c) XeO3 (d) XeO2

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16. On oxidation with iodine, sulphite ion is transformed to

(a) S4O62- (b) S2O62- (c) SO42- (d) SO32-
17. Which of the following is strongest acid among all?
(a) HI (b) HF (c) HBr (d) HCl
18. Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond
dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules? (NEET)
(a) Br2 > I2 > F2 > Cl2 (b) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > l2
(c) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (d) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
19. Among the following the correct order of acidity is (NEET)
(a) HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
(b) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
(c) HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO
(d) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
20. When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces
(a) Cu(NO3)2, NO and NO2 (b) Cu(NO3)2 and N2 O
(c) Cu(NO3)2 and NO2 (d) Cu(NO3)2 and NO

21. Which of the following species has a linear shape?

(a NO-2 (b) O3 c NO-2 d SO2
22. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) HF is a stronger acid than HCl.
(b) Among halide ions, iodide is the most powerful reducing
agent.
(c) Flurine is the only halogen that does not show a variable
oxidation state.
(d) HOCl is a stronger acid than HOBr.
23. Which of the following order is correct for the bond
dissociation energy of halogen molecules?
(a) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (b) Cl2 > Br2> F2 > I2
(c) Br2 > I2 > Cl2 > F2 (d) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2

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24. The correct geometry and hybridisation for XeF4 are?

(a) Trigonal Bipyramidal sp3d (b) Octahedral, sp3d2
(c) Square Planar, sp3d2 (d) Planar Triangle sp3d3
25. The basicity of hypophosphorous acid is (PTA MQ)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
26. Which of the following is caro’s acid? (PTA MQ)
(a) H2S2O8 (b) H2S2O7 (c) H2SO5 (d) H2SO3
27. The acid having O – O bond in its structure (PTA MQ)
(a) H2SO3 (b) H2S2O6 (c) H2S2O8 (d) H2S4O6
28. Formula for hyponitrous acid: (MAR 2020)
(a) HOONO b H2N2O2 (c) HNO2 (d) HNO4
29. Match the following: (MAR 2020)
(1) Fluorine (i) Identification of coloured metal ions
(2) Borax (ii) Strong oxidising agent
(3) Aluminium (iii) Chalgogens Present in volcanic ashes
(4) Sulphur (iv) Most abundant element
(a) (1)-iii, (2)-(ii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(i)
(b) (1)-ii, (2)-(i), (3)-(iv), (4)-(iii)
(c) (1)-iv, (2)-(iii), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i)
(d) (1)-ii, (2)-(iv), (3)-(i), (4)-(iii)

&' (
1. What is inert pair effect?
2. Chalcogens belongs to p-block. Give reason.
3. Explain why fluorine always exhibit an oxidation state of -1?
4. Give the oxidation state of halogen in the following.
a) OF2 b) O2F2 c) Cl2O3 d) I2O4
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5. What are interhalogen compounds? Give examples.

(PTA MQ)
6. Why fluorine is more reactive than other halogens?
7. Give the uses of helium.
8. What is the hybridisation of iodine in IF7? Give its
structure.
9. Give the balanced equation for the reaction between
chlorine with cold NaOH and hot NaOH.
10. How will you prepare chlorine in the laboratory?
(PTA MQ)
11. Give the uses of sulphuric acid.
12. Give a reason to support that sulphuric acid is a
dehydrating agent. (PTA MQ)
13. Write the reason for the anamolous behaviour of Nitrogen.
14. Write the molecular formula and structural formula for
the following molecules.
(a Nitric acid b Dinitrogen pentoxide
c Phosphoric acid d Phosphine
15. Give the uses of argon. (PTA MQ)
16. Write the valence shell electronic configuration of group-
15 elements.
17. Give two equations to illustrate the chemical behaviour
of phosphine. (PTA MQ)
18. Give a reaction between nitric acid and a basic oxide.
19. What happens when PCl5 is heated?
20. Suggest a reason why HF is a weak acid, whereas binary
acids of all other halogens are strong acids.

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21. Deduce the oxidation number of oxygen in hypofluorous

acid-HOF.
22. What type of hybridisation occur in
(a) BrF5 (b) BrF3
23. Complete the following reactions.
1. NaCl + MnO 2 + H 2 SO 4 
→
2. NaNO 2 + HCl 
→
3. IO -3 + I - + H + 
→
4. I 2 + S 2 O 2-3 
→
5. P4 + NaOH + H 2 O 
→ (PTA MQ)
6. AgNO 3 + PH 3 
→
7. Mg + HNO 3 
→
∆
8. KClO 3  →
Hot conc
9. Cu + H 2SO 4 
→
10. Sb + Cl 2 
→
11. HBr + H 2 SO 4 
→
12. XeF6 + H 2 O 
→
+
13. XeO 4-6 + Mn 2+ + H 
→
14. XeOF4 + SiO 2 
→
15. Xe + F2 
Ni/ 200 atm
400o C
→

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1. Nitrogen has inert nature – Give Reason.
2. Write the uses of Nitrogen.
3. Write the preparation of ammonia.

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4. Explain the reduction property of ammonia.

5. Explain the reduction property of ammonia.
6. Write the structure of ammonia.
7. How nitric acid is prepared?
8. Explain the nitration reaction of nitric acid.
9. What is the action of copper with dil. HNO3 and Con
HNO3?
10. Write the use of Nitric acid.
11. What is the oxidation number of nitrous oxide? Write its
preparation.
12. Write the different allotropic forms of phosphorus
13. What is the action of air with phosphorus?
14. Explain phosphorus is powerful reducing agent (or) Write
the preparation of phosphine?
15. Write the uses of phosphorus.
16. Explain the reduction property of phosphine.
17. Write the uses of phosphine.
18. Write the preparation of phosphorus trichloride.
19. Write the uses of PCl3 and PCl5. PCl3:
20. Write the preparation of phosphorus penta chloride.
21. Write the structures and basicity of H3PO3 and H3PO4.
22. Explain the preparation of ortho phosphoric acid (H3PO4).
23. Prove ozone is powerful oxidising agent (or) write the
test to estimate ozone.
24. Write the uses of oxygen.

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25. Write the allotrope of sulphur.

26. Explain oxidizing property and reducing property of
sulphur dioxide.
27. Write the uses of sulphur dioxide.
28. Prove that sulphuric acid is dibasic.
29. Write a test for detection of sulphuric acid.
30. Explain the preparation of chlorine.
31. How bleaching powder is prepared? (MAR 20)
32. Write the use of chlorine.
33. What is aqua regia? Write the action of aqua regia on gold.
34. The thermal stability of hydrogen halides decreases along
the group why?
35. What is action of HF on glass? (or) Why HF cannot be
stored in glass bottles? (MAR 20)
36. Write the oxidising order of oxyacids of halogen.
37. Write the preparation of xenon fluoride compounds.
38. Write the uses of krypton.
39. Write the uses of xenon.
40. Write the uses of Radon.
41. What is the hybridisation in XeOF2? Give its structure.
(PTA MQ)
42. Ozone (O3) acts as a powerful agent why? (PTA MQ)
43. What type of hybridisation occurs in the following
compounds?
a) BrF5 b) IF7 (PTA MQ)

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44. Nitrogen does not form any penta halides like

phosphorus why?
45. How is pure phosphine prepared from phosphorus acid?
(PTA MQ)
46. List any five compounds of Xenon and mention the type
of hybridisation and structure of the compounds?
(PTA MQ)
47. Write the molecular formula and draw the structure of
sulphurous acid and Marshall ′s acid. (MAR 20)
)* (
1. Explain Ostwald’s process of preparation of Nitric acid.
2. Explain the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact
process.
3. Explain the manufacture of chlorine by Deacon’s process.
4. Write the properties of interhalogen compounds.

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' % " ( % "

%

1. Compare the stability of Ni4+ and Pt4+ from their

ionisation enthalpy value.
2. Why iron is more stable in +3 oxidation state than in +2
and the reverse is true for manganese?

1. Sc (Z = 21) is a transition element but Zinc (Z = 30) is not

because
(a) both Sc3+ and Zn2+ ions are colourless and form white
compounds.
(b) in case of Sc, 3d orbital partially filled but in Zn these are
completely filled
(c) last electron as assumed to be added to 4s level in case of
zinc
(d) both Sc and Zn do not exhibit variable oxidation states
2. Which of the following d block element has half filled
penultimate d sub shell as well as half filled valence sub shell?
(a) Cr (b) Pd (c) Pt (d) none of these
3. Among the transition metals of 3d series, the one that has
highest negative M(2+

M )
(a) Ti (b) Cu (c) Mn (d) Zn
4. Which one of the following ions has the same number of
unpaired electrons as present in V3+?

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(a) Ti3+ (b) Fe3+ (c) Ni2+ (d) Cr3+

5. The magnetic moment of Mn2+ ion is
(a) 5.92BM (b) 2.80BM (c) 8.95BM (d) 3.90BM
6. Which of the following compounds is colourless?
(a) Fe3+ (b) Ti4+ (c) Co2+ (d) Ni2+
7. The catalytic behaviour of transition metals and their
compounds is ascribed mainly due to
(a) their magnetic behaviour (b) their unfilled d orbitals
(c) their ability to adopt variable oxidation states
(d) their chemical reactivity
8. The correct order of increasing oxidizing power in the series
(a) VO +2 < Cr2 O 72- < MnO -4 (b) Cr2 O 72- < VO +2 < MnO -4
(c) Cr2 O 72- < MnO -4 < VO +2 (d) MnO -4 < Cr2 O 72- < VO 2+
9. The alloy of copper that contain Zinc is
(a) Monel metal (b) Bronze (c) bell metal (d) brass
10. Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating?
(a) K2Cr2O7 (b) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (c) KClO3 (d) Zn(ClO3)2
11. In acid medium, potassium permanganate oxidizes oxalic
acid to
(a) Oxalate (b) Carbon dioxide (c) acetate (d) acetic acid
12. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) on passing H2S, through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, a
milky colour is observed.
(b) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volumetric analysis
(c) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange in colour
(d) K2Cr2O7 solution becomes yellow on increasing the PH
beyond 7
13. Permanganate ion changes to ........... in acidic medium
(a) MnO42- (b) Mn2+ (c) Mn3+ (d) MnO2

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14. A white crystalline salt (A) react with dilute HCl to liberate
a suffocating gas (B) and also forms a yellow precipitate.
The gas (B) turns potassium dichromate acidified with dil
H2SO4 to a green coloured solution (C). Identify A, B and C
are respectively.
(a) Na 2SO3 ,SO 2 ,Cr2 ( SO 4 )3 (b) Na 2S2 O3 ,SO 2 ,Cr ( SO 4 )3
(c) Na 2S,SO 2 ,Cr2 ( SO 4 )3 (d) Na 2SO 4 ,SO 2 ,Cr2 ( SO 4 )3
15. MnO -4 react with Br- in alkaline pH to give
(a) BrO3− , MnO2 (b) Br2 ,MnO24− (c) Br2 ,MnO2 (d) BrO− ,MnO24−
16. How many moles of I2 are liberated when 1 mole of
potassium dichromate react with potassium iodide?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
17. The number of moles of acidified KMnO4 required to
oxidize 1 mole of ferrous oxalate (FeC2O4) is
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 0.6 (d) 1.5
18. When a brown compound of Mn (A) treated with HCl, it
gives a gas (B). The gas (B) taken in excess reacts with NH3
to give an explosive compound (C). The compound A, B
and C are
(a) MnO2, Cl2, NCl3 (b) MnO, Cl2, NH4Cl
(c) Mn3O4, Cl2, NCl3 (d) MnO3, Cl2, NCl2
19. Which one of the following statements related to lanthanons is
incorrect?
(a) Europium shows +2 oxidation state.
(b) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from
Pr to Lu.
(c) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium
(d) Ce4+ solutions are widely used as oxidising agents in
volumetric analysis.

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Ans: (c) All the lanthanons are much more reactive

than aluminium
20. Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic?
(a) Eu2+ (b) Yb2+ (c) Ce2+ (d) Sm2+
21. Which of the following oxidation states is most common
among the lanthanoids?
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 3
22. Assertion : Ce4+ is used as an oxidizing agent in volumetric
analysis.
Reason : Ce4+ has the tendency of attaining +3 oxidation
state.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
23. The most common oxidation state of actinoids is (PTA MQ)
(a) +2 (b) +3 (c) +4 (d) +6
24. The actinoid elements which show the highest oxidation
state of +7 are
(a) Np, Pu, Am (b) U, Fm, Th (c) U, Th, Md (d) Es, No, Lr
25. Which one of the following is not correct? (PTA MQ)
(a) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
(b) In lanthanoid series ionic radius of Ln3+ ions decreases
(c) La is actually an element of transition metal series rather
than lanthanide series
(d) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because of lanthanide
contraction.

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26. Which of the following shows maximum number of oxidation

states?
(a) Mn (b) V (c) Cr (d) Fe
27. Which one of the following characteristics of the transition
metal is associated with their catalytic activity?
(a) variable oxidation states (b) Colour of hydrated ions
(c) Paramagnetic behaviour (d) High enthalpy of atomization
28. The aqueous solution containing which one of the following
ions will be colourless?
(a) Sc3+ (b) Fe3+ (c) Fe2+ (d) Mn2+
29. In which of the following pairs both the ions are coloured in
aqueous solution?
(a) Sc3, CO2+ (b) Ni2+, Cu+ (c) Ni2+, Ti3+ (d) Sc3+, Ti3+
(Atomic Number. Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Co = 27)
30. Reason of Lanthanide contraction is-
(a) Decreasing nuclear charge (b) Decreasing screening effect
(c) Increasing nuclear charge
(d) negligible screening effect of y – orbitals
31. In the dichromate anion (Cr2O7)2- (PTA MQ)
(a) 4 Cr – O bonds are equivalent
(b) 6 Cr – O bonds are equivalent
(c) All Cr – O bonds are equivalent
(d) All Cr – O bonds are non-equivalent
32. Chromyl chloride when dissolved in NaOH solution gives
yellow solution. The yellow solution contains (PTA MQ)
(a) Cr2 O 72− (b) CrO 24− (c) CrO5 (d) Cr2O3
33. Assertion : A small piece of Zinc dissolved in dilute nitric
acid but hydrogen gas is not evolved.

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Reason : HNO3 is an oxidising agent and this oxidizes

hydrogen. (PTA MQ)
(a) Both Assertion and Reason is true. Reason is a correct
explanation for Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason is true. Reason is not correct
explanation for the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is wrong
(d) Both assertion and Reason are wrong
34. Which of the following ions of salt is white in colour?
(PTA MQ)
(a) Cd2+ (b) Cu2+ (c) Co3+ (d) V3+
35. For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe &
Co) the stability of +2 oxidation state will be there in which
of the following order? (PTA MQ)
(a) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr (b) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr
(c) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe (d) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
36. The transition element which has only + 3 oxidation state is:
(MAR 2020)
(a) Ni (b) Mn (c) Cr (d) Sc

&' (
1. What are transition metals? Give four examples. (PTA MQ)
2. Explain the oxidation states of 4d series elements.
3. What are inner transition elements?

4. Justify the position of lanthanides and actinides in the

periodic table. (PTA MQ)
5. What are actinides? Give three examples.

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6. Why Gd3+ is colourless?

7. Explain why compounds of Cu2+ are coloured but those
of Zn2+ are colourless.
8. Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate.(PTA MQ)
9. What is lanthanide contraction and what are the effects
of lanthanide contraction? (PTA MQ)
10. Complete the following:
a) MnO 42- + H +  →?
b) C6 H 5CH 3 
acidified
KMnO 4
→
c) MnO -4 + Fe 2+ 
→?
∆
d) KMnO 4  →
Red hot

e) Cr2O 72- + I - + H + 
→?
f) Na 2 Cr2O 7 + KCl 
→?
11. What are interstitial compounds? (PTA MQ)
12. Calculate the number of unpaired electrons in Ti3+, Mn2+
and calculate the spin only magnetic moment.
13. Write the electronic configuration of Ce4+ and Co2+.
14. Explain briefly how +2 states becomes more and more
stable in the first half of the first row transition elements
with increasing atomic number.
15. Which is more stable? Fe3+ or Fe2+ - explain.
16. Explain the variation in E0M 3+ /M 2+ 3d series.
17. Compare lanthanides and actinides. (PTA MQ)

18. Explain why Cr2+ is strongly reducing while Mn3+ is

strongly oxidizing. (PTA MQ)

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19. Compare the ionization enthalpies of first series of the

transition elements.
20. Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element
than the lanthanoid contraction, why?
21. Out of Lu(OH)3 and La(OH)3 which is more basic and why?
(PTA MQ)
22. Why Europium (II) is more stable than Cerium (II)?
23. Why do zirconium and Hafnium exhibit similar properties?
24. Which is stronger reducing agent Cr2+ or Fe2+?
25. The E0M 3+ /M 2+ value for copper is positive. Suggest a possible
reason for this.
26. Predict which of the following will be coloured in aqueous
solution Ti2+, V3+, Sc4+, Cu+, Sc3+, Fe3+, Ni2+ and Co3+.
27. Describe the variable oxidation state of 3d series elements.
28. Which metal in the 3d series exhibits +1 oxidation state
most frequently and why?
29. Why first ionization enthalpy of chromium is lower than
that of zinc?
30. Transition metals show high melting points why?

'(
1. Write the common electronic configuration of d-block
and f-block element.
2. In 3d-series, the atomic radius does not decrease from
Left to Right. Give reason.

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3. The atomic radius of 5d-series elements resembles with

4d-series elements. Why?
4. Define: Standard electrode potential of transition metals
5. Explain Magnetic moment.
6. What is Zigler–Natta catalyst? How poly propylene polymer
is obtained.
7. Write the properties of interstitial compounds.
8. Why d-block elements form co-ordination complexes?
9. Write the thermal decomposition of potassium dichromate.
10. Potassium dichromate is a powerful oxidising agent in
acidic medium. Explain.
11. Write chromyl chloride test. (or) write the test for detection
of chloride ions in qualitative analysis. (MAR 2020)
12. Write the uses of potassium dichromate.
13. Explain the preparation of potassium permanganate.
(i) Ore: Pyrolusite (MnO2)
14. Draw the structure of permanganate ion.
15. What is the action of heat on potassium permanganate?
16. Write the oxidation states of Actinoides.
17. Classify the following elements into d-block and f-block
element (MAR 2020)
(i) Tungsten (ii) Ruthenium
(iii) Promethium (iv) Einsteinium

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)* ( nd
1. Explain the oxidation of potassium permanganate in
different medium.
2. Write the uses of potassium permanganate.
3. Find out the equivalent weight of KMnO4 in different
medium.
4. Write the causes of Lanthanide contraction.

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1. When a coordination compound CrCl3.4H2O is mixed

with silver nitrate solution, one mole of silver chloride is
precipitated per mole of the compound. There are no
free solvent molecules in that compound. Assign the
secondary valence to the metal and write the structural
formula of the compound.
2. In the complex, [Pt(NO2)(H2O)(NH3)2]Br, identify the
following.
3. Write the IUPAC name for the following compounds.
4. Give the structure for the following compounds.
5. A solution of [Co(NH3)4l2]Cl when treated with AgNO3
gives a white precipitate. What should be the formula of
isomer of the dissolved complex that gives yellow precipitate
with AgNO3. What are the above isomers called?
6. Three compounds A, B and C have empirical formula
CrCl3.6H2O. They are kept in a container with a
dehydrating agent and they lost water and attaining
constant weight as shown below.
Initial weight of Constant weight
Compound the compound after dehydration
(in g) (in g)
A 4 3.46
B 0.5 0.466
C 3 3
7. Indicate the possible type of isomerism for the following
complexes and draw their isomers.

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8. Draw all possible stereo isomers of a complex

Ca[Co(NH3)Cl(Ox)2].
9. The spin only magnetic moment of
Tetrachloridomanganate(II) ion is 5.9 BM. On the basis
of VBT, predict the type of hybridisation and geometry
of the compound.
10. Predict the number of unpaired electrons in [CoCl4]2- ion
on the basis of VBT.
11. A metal complex having composition Co(en)2Cl2 Br has
been isolated in two forms A and B. (B) reacted with
silver nitrate to give a white precipitate readily soluble in
ammonium hydroxide. Whereas A gives a pale yellow
precipitate. Write the formula of A and B. state the
hybridization of Co in each and calculate their spin only
magnetic moment.
12. The mean pairing energy and octahedral field splitting
energy of [Mn(CN6)] 3- are 28,800cm-1 and 38,500 cm-1
respectively. Whether this complex is stable in low spin
or high spin?
13. Draw energy level diagram and indicate the number of
electrons in each level for the complex [Cu(H2O)6]2+.
Whether the complex is paramagnetic or diamagnetic?
[Cu(H2O)6]2+
14. For the [CoF6]3- ion the mean pairing energy is found to
be 21000 cm-1. The magnitude of ∆0 is 13000 cm-1. Calculate
the crystal field stabilization energy for this complex ion
corresponding to low spin and high spin states.

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1. The sum of primary valency and secondary valency of the

metal M in the complex [ M(en) 2 (Ox) ] Cl is
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) -3 (d) 9
2. An excess of silver nitrate is added to 100 ml of a 0.01 M
solution of pentaaquachloridochromium (III) chloride. The
number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.002 (c) 0.01 (d) 0.2
3. A complex has a molecular formula MSO4Cl.6H2O. The
aqueous solution of it gives white precipitate with Barium
chloride solution and no precipitate is obtained when it is
treated with silver nitrate solution. If the secondary valancy
of the metal is six, which one of the following correctly
represents the complex?
(a) [ M(H 2 O) 4 Cl] SO 4 .2H 2 O (b) [ M(H 2 O)6 ] SO 4
(c) [ M(H 2 O)5 Cl] SO 4 .H 2 O (d) [ M(H 2 O)3 Cl] SO 4 .3H 2 O
4. Oxidation state of Iron and the charge on the ligand NO in
[ Fe(H 2 O)5 NO ]SO 4 are
(a) +2 and 0 respectively (b) +3 and 0 respectively
(c) +3 and -1 respectively (d) +1 and +1 respectively
5. As per IUPAC guidelines, the name of the complex
[Co(en)2 (ONO)Cl ] Cl is
(a) Chlorobisetylenediaminenitritocobalt(III) chloride
(b) chlorobis(ethane-1,2-diamine)nitro k-Ocobaltate(III) chloride
(c) chloridobis(ethane-1,2-diammine) nitrito k-Ocobalt(II)
chloride
(d) chloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine) nitro k-Ocobalt(III) chloride

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6. IUPAC name of the complex K 3 [ Al(C 2 O 4 ) 3 ] is

(a) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminium(III)
(b) potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate(II)
(c) potassiumtrisoxalatoaluminate(III)
(d) potassiumtroixalatoaluminate(III)
7. A magnetic moment of 1.73BM will be shown by one
among the following (NEET)
(a) TiCl 4 (b) [ CoCl6 ] (c) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ] (d) [ Ni(CN) 4 ]
4- 2+ 2-

8. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d5 octahedral

complex is
(a) -0.6∆0 (b) 0 (c) 2(P-∆0) (d) 2(P+∆0)
9. In which of the following coordination entities the
magnitude of ∆0 will be maximum?
(a) [Co(CN) 6 ] (b) [Co(C 2 O 4 ) 3 ]
3- 3-

(c) [Co(H 2 O) 6 ] (d) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]

3+ 3+

10. Which one of the following will give a pair of

enantiomorphs?
(a) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ][Co(CN) 6 ] (b) [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ] Cl
(c) [ Pt(NH 3 ) 4 ][PtCl 4 ] (d) [Co(NH 3 )4 Cl2 ] NO 2
11. Which type of isomerism is exhibited by [ Pt(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ] ?
(a) Coordination isomerism (b) Linkage isomerism
(c) Optical isomerism (d) Geometrical isomerism
12. How many geometrical isomers are possible for
[Pt(Py)(NH3)(Br)(Cl)]?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 0 (d) 15
13. Which one of the following pairs represents linkage isomers?
(a) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ][ PtCl 4 ] and [ Pt(NH 3 ) 4 ][ CuCl 4 ]
(b) [Co(NH 3 ) 5 (NO 3 ) ] SO 4 and [ Co(NH 3 )5 (ONO) ]

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(c) [Co(NH 3 ) 4 (NCS) 2 ]Cl and [Co(NH 3 ) 4 (SCN) 2 ] Cl

(d) both (b) and (c)
14. Which kind of isomerism is possible for a complex
[Co(NH3)4Br2]Cl? (PTA MQ)
(a) geometrical and ionization (b) geometrical and optical
(c) optical and ionization (d) geometrical only
15. Which one of the following complexes is not expected to
exhibit isomerism?
(a) [ Ni(NH 3 ) 4 (H 2 O) 2 ]
2+
(b) [Pt(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ]
(c) [Co(NH 3 ) 5 SO 4 ] Cl (d) [ Fe(en)3 ]
3+

16. A complex in which the oxidation number of the metal is

zero is
(a) K 4 [ Fe(CN) 6 ] (b) [ Fe(CN)3 (NH 3 ) 3 ]
(c) [ Fe(CO)5 ] (d) both (b) and (c)
17. Formula of tris (ethane-1,2-diamine) iron (II) phosphate
(a) [ Fe(CH 3 − CH(NH 2 ) 2 ) 3 ] (PO 4 ) 3
(b) [ Fe(H 2 N − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − NH 2 ) 3 ] (PO 4 )
(c) [ Fe(H 2 N − CH 2 − CH 2 − NH 2 ) 3 ] (PO 4 ) 2
(d) [ Fe(H 2 N − CH 2 − CH 2 − NH 2 )3 ]3 (PO 4 ) 2
18. Which of the following is paramagnetic in nature? (PTA MQ)
(a) [ Zn(NH 3 ) 4 ] (b) [Co(NH 3 )6 ]
2+ 3+

(c) [ Ni(H 2 O) 6 ] (d) [ Ni(CN) 4 ]

2+ 2-

(b) Co 3+ ( d 6 Low spin ⇒ t 62g ,e g0 ;diamagnetic )

(c) Ni 2+ ( d 8 Low spin ⇒ t 62g , e g2 ; paramagnetic )
(d) [ Ni(CN) 4 ]
2−
( dsp ;square planar, diamagnetic )
2

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19. Fac-mer isomerism is shown by

(a) [Co(en)3 ] (b) [Co(NH 3 ) 4 (Cl) 2 ]
3+ +

(c) [Co(NH 3 ) 3 (Cl) 3 ] (d) [Co(NH 3 ) 5 Cl] SO 4

20. Choose the correct statement.
(a) Square planar complexes are more stable than octahedral
complexes.
(b) The spin only magnetic moment of [Cu(Cl) 4 ] is 1.732
2-

BM and it has square planar structure.

(c) Crystal field splitting energy ( ∆ 0 ) of [ FeF6 ] is higher
4-

than the ( ∆ 0 ) of [ Fe(CN)6 ]

4-

(d) Crystal field stabilization energy of [ V(H 2 O) 6 ] is higher

2+

than the crystal field stabilization of [Ti(H 2 O) 6 ]

2+

21. Coordination number of Ni in [Ni (C2O4)3]4- is: (PTA MQ)

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
22. Which of the following does not show optical isomerism?
(a) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (b) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]0
(c) [Co(en)Cl2(NH3)2]+ (d) [Co (en)3]3+
(en = ethylenediamine)
23. Which one of the following complexes is not expected to
exhibit isomerism?
(a) [Ni(NH3)4](H2O)2]2+ (b) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(c) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2] (d) [Ni(en)3]2+
24. Which of the following complexes is used to be as an
anticancer agent?
(a) Na2COCl4 (b) Cis – K2[PtCl2Br2]

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(c) Cis – [PtCl2(NH3)2] (d) Mer – [Co(NH3)3Cl3]

25. Number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
will be (en = ethylene diammine)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
26. According spectrochemical series which of the following
ligand produces strongest field and cause maximum splitting?
(PTA MQ)
(a) F- (b) CO (c) H2O (d) Cl-
27. Which statement is incorrect? (PTA MQ)
(a) [Ni(CO)4] – Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic
(b) [Ni(CN)4]2- - Square planar, diamagnetic
(c) [Ni(CO)4] – Tetrahedral, diamagnetic
(d) [Ni(Cl)4]2- - Tetrahedral, paramagnetic
28. Among the following complexes, which one shows Zero
Crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is (PTA MQ)
(a) [Mn(H2O)3]3+ (b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
(c) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Co(H2O)6]3+

&' (
1. Write the IUPAC names for the following complexes.
2. Write the formula for the following coordination compounds.
3. Arrange the following in the order of increasing molar
conductivity.
i) Mg Cr ( NH 3 )( Cl )5  ii) Cr ( NH 3 )5 Cl  [CoF6 ]2
3

iii) Cr ( NH 3 )3 Cl 3 
4. Ni2+ is identified using alcoholic solution of dimethyl
glyoxime. Write the structural formula for the rosy red
precipitate of a complex formed in the reaction.

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[CuCl 4 ] exists while [CuI 4 ] does not exist why?

-2 2-
5.

 Ag + 
6. Calculate the ratio of in 0.2 M solution of
 Ag ( NH 3 )2 
+

NH3. If the stability constant for the complex  Ag ( NH 3 )2 

+

is 1.7 × 107
7. Give an example of coordination compound used in
medicine and two example of biologically important
coordination compounds.

[Cr(NH 3 )6 ]
3+
8. Based on VB theory explain why is
paramagnetic, while [ Ni(CN ) 4 ] is diamagnetic.
2-

9. Draw all possible geometrical isomers of the complex

[Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]
+
and identify the optically active isomer.
Cis isomer – optically active

[Ti(H 2O)6 ] is coloured, while [Sc(H 2 O) 6 ] is colourless –

3+ 3+
10.
explain. (PTA MQ, MAR 20)
11. Give an example for complex of the type [Ma 2 b 2 c 2 ]
where a, b, c are monodentate ligands and give the
possible isomers.
Example for [Ma2 b2 c2] is [Co (CN)2 Cl2 (NO2)2]
12. Give one test to differentiate [Co(NH 3 ) 5 Cl ] SO 4 and
[Co(NH 3 )5 SO 4 ] Cl .
13. In an octahedral crystal field, draw the figure to show
splitting of d orbitals.

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14. What is linkage isomerism? Explain with an example.

15. Write briefly about the applications of coordination
compounds in volumetric analysis.
16. Classify the following ligand based on the number of
donor atoms.
(a) NH3 (b) en (c) ox2-
(d) triaminotriethylamine (e) pyridine

17. Give the difference between double salts and coordination

compounds.
18. Write the postulates of Werner’s theory.

[ Ni(CN )4 ] is diamagnetic, while [ NiCl 4 ] is paramagnetic,

2- 2-
19.
explain using crystal field theory.
20. Why tetrahedral complexes do not exhibit geometrical
isomerism.
21. Explain optical isomerism in coordination compounds
with an example.
22. What are hydrate isomers? Explain with an example. (or)
Write any two hydrate isomers of the complex with the
molecular formula CrCl3.6H2O. (PTA MQ, MAR 20 )
23. What is crystal field splitting energy?
24. What is crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE)?
(PTA MQ)
25. A solution of [ Ni(H 2 O) 6 ] is green, whereas a solution of
2+

[ Ni(CN )4 ] is colourless Explain.

2-

[ Ni(H 2O)6 ]
2+

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26. Discuss briefly the nature of bonding in metal carbonyls.

27. What is the coordination entity formed when excess of
liquid ammonia is added to an aqueous solution of
copper sulphate?
28. On the basis of VB theory explain the nature of bonding
in [Co(C 2 O 4 ) 3 ] .
3-

29. What are the limitations of VB theory?

30. Write the oxidation state, coordination number, nature
of ligand, magnetic property and electronic configuration
in octahedral crystal field for the complex K 4 [ Mn(CN)6 ] .

'(
1. Explain the calculation of CFSE for Iron complex
[Fe(H2O)6]3+.
2. What are metal carbonyls?
3. Explain the classification of metal carbonyls based on the
number of metal atoms present in the complex.
4. Write the relation between dissociation equilibrium constant
and formation equilibrium constant.
5. Define stability constant (PTA MQ)
6. Write the IUPAC name of the following: (MAR 2020)
(A) [Ag(NH3)2]+ (B) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+
7. Calculate the magnetic moment and magnetic property
of [CoF6 ]3− . (MAR 2020)

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)* (
1. Explain the definition of important terms pertaining to
co-ordination compounds.
2. Explain types of complexes.
3. Explain the nomenclature of co-ordination compounds.
4. What is Co-ordination Isomerism? Give e-g.
5. Explain Ionization isomerism with example.
6. Explain geometrical isomers of co-ordination compounds
with example.
7. Write the postulates of valence bond theory. (PTA MQ)
8. Explain salient features of crystal field theory.
9. Explain co-ordination compound with bridged carbonyls.
(PTA MQ)
10. Relate Step wise formation constant and overall formation
constant.
11. Write the applications of co-ordination complexes.
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+ , %" ( %

1. An element has a face centered cubic unit cell with a

length of 352.4 pm along an edge. The density of the
element is 8.9 gcm-3. How many atoms are present in 100 g
of an element?
2. Determine the density of CsCl which crystallizes in a bcc
type structure with an edge length 412.1 pm.
3. A face centered cubic solid of an element (atomic mass
60) has a cube edge of 4A°°. Calculate its density.
4. Barium has body centered cubic unit cell with a length of
508 pm along an edge. What is the density of barium in
g. cm-3?

1. Graphite and diamond are

(a) covalent and molecular crystals (b) ionic and covalent crystals
(c) both covalent crystals (d) both molecular crystals
2. An ionic compound Ax By crystallizes in fcc type crystal
structure with B ions at the centre of each face and A ion
occupying centre of the cube the correct formula of Ax By
(a) AB (b) AB3 (c) A3B (d) A8 B6
3. The ratio of close packed atoms to tetrahedral hole in cubic
packing is
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:4
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4. Solid CO2 is an example of

(a) Covalent solid (b) metallic solid
(c) molecular solid (d) ionic solid
5. Assertion : monoclinic sulphur is an example of monoclinic
crystal system.
Reason : for a monoclinic system, a ≠ b ≠ c and α = γ = 90°,
β ≠ 90°
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
6. In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure the
coordination number of Ca2+ ion and F- ion are (NEET)
(a) 4 and 2 (b) 6 and 6 (c) 8 and 4 (d) 4 and 8
7. The number of unit cells in 8gm of an element X (atomic
mass 40) which crystallizes in bcc pattern is (NA is the
Avogadro number)
(a) 6.023 × 1023 (b) 6.023 × 1022
 6.023×1023 
(c) 60.23 × 10 23
(d)  
 8× 40 
8. The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond is
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 1 (d) 4
1
9. In a solid atom M occupies ccp lattice and   of tetrahedral
 3
voids are occupied by atom N. Find the formula of solid
formed by M and N.
(a) MN (b) M3N (c) MN3 (d) M3N2

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10. The composition of a sample of wurtzite is Fe0.93 O1.00 what

% of Iron present in the form of Fe3+?
(a) 16.05% (b) 15.05% (c) 18.05% (d) 17.05%
11. The ionic radii of A+ and B- are 0.98 × 10-10 m and 1.81 × 10-10 m.
The coordination number of each ion in AB is
(a) 8 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 4
12. CsCl has bcc arrangement, its unit cell edge length is 400pm,
its inter atomic distance
 3
(a) 400pm (b) 800pm (c) 3 ×100pm (d)   × 400 pm
 2 
13. A solid compound XY has NaCl structure. If the radius of
the cation is 100 pm, the radius of the anion will be
 100   0.732   0.414 
(a)   (b)   (c) 100 × 0.414 (d)  
 0.414   100   100 
14. The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is (MAR 20)
(a) 48% (b) 23% (c) 32% (d) 26%
15. The radius of an atom is 300 pm, if it crystallizes in a face
centered cubic lattice, the length of the edge of the unit cell
is
(a) 488.5pm (b) 848.5pm (c) 884.5pm (d) 484.5pm
16. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms in a
simple cubic is
 π  π  π   π 
(a)   (b)   (c)   (d)  
4 2 6 4 3 2 
17. The yellow colour in NaCl crystal is due to
(a) excitation of electrons in F centers
(b) reflection of light from Cl ion on the surface
(c) refraction of light from Na+ ion (d) all of the above

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18. If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic system; sc, bcc,
and fcc. Then the ratio of radii of spheres in these systems
will be respectively.
1 2 
(a)  a :
2 2
3
a:
2
a (
(b) 1a : 3a : 2a )
 
1 3 1  1 1 
(c)  a : a: a (d)  a : 3a : a
 2 4 2 2   2 2 
19. If ‘a’ is the length of the side of the cube, the distance
between the body centered atom in one corner atom in the
cube will be
 2   4   3  3
(a)   a (b)   a (c)   a (d)  a
 3   3   4   2 
20. Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest neighbour
distance 4.52A°. Its atomic weight is 39. Its density will be
(a) 915 kg m-3 ( b) 2142 kg m-3 (c) 452 kg m-3 (d) 390 kg m-3
21. Schottky defect in a crystal is observed when
(a) unequal number of cations and anions are missing from
the lattice
(b) equal number of cations and anions are missing from the
lattice
(c) an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site
(d) no ion is missing from its lattice.
22. The cation leaves its normal position in the crystal and
moves to some interstitial position, the defect in the crystal
is known as
(a) Schottky defect (b) F center
(c) Frenkel defect (d) non-stoichiometric defect
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23. Assertion : Due to Frenkel defect, density of the crystalline

solid decreases.
Reason : In Frenkel defect cation and anion leaves the crystal.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
24. The crystal with a metal deficiency defect is (PTA MQ)
(a) NaCl (b) FeO (c) ZnO (d) KCl
25. A two dimensional solid pattern formed by two different
atoms X and Y is shown below. The black and white squares
represent atoms X and Y respectively. The simplest formula for
the compound based on the unit cell from the pattern is
(a) XY8 (b) X4 Y9 (c) XY2 (d) XY4

26. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present

in a simple cube is:
(a) π (b) π (c) π (d) π
6 3 2 4 2 4
27. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The number of carbon atoms in an unit cell of diamond is 4.
(b) The number of Bravais lattices in which a crystal can be
categorized is 14
(c) The fraction of the total volume occupied by the atoms in
a primitive cell is 0.48
(d) Molecular solids are generally volatile.

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28. If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic systems: simple
cubic, body centered cubic and face centered cubic, then the
ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be
respectively.
1 3 2
(a) a: a: a (b) 1a : 3a : 2a
2 2 2
1 3 1 1 1
(c) a : a : a (d) a : 3a : a
2 4 2 2 2 2 2
29. AB crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with edge
length ‘a’ equal to 387 pm. The distance between two
oppositively charged ions in the lattice is:
(a) 300 pm (b) 335 pm (c) 250 pm (d) 200 pm

30. A metal crystallises within a face centred cubic lattice. The

edge of the unit cell is 408 pm. The diameter of the metal
atom is:
(a) 204 pm (b) 144 pm (c) 408 pm (d) 288 pm

31. The packing efficiency of a face centered cubic structure is

(PTA MQ)
(a) 74% (b) 68% (c) 52.38% (d) 48%
32. In FCC unit cell of the edge length is 8 2 pm. The radius of
the metal atom is ........... A° (PTA MQ)
8
(a) 0.04 (b) 0.02 (c) 8 × 10-2 (d)
2
33. The arrangement of crystallographic axes and angles
respectively in hexagonal crystal systems is (PTA MQ)
(a) a ≠ b ≠ c α = β = γ = 90°
(b) a = b ≠ c α = β = γ = 90°

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(c) a = b ≠ c α = β = 90° γ = 120°

(d) a = b = c α ≠ β ≠ γ = 90°
34. The crystal with a metal deficiency defect is (PTA MQ)
(a) NaCl (b) KCl (c) ZnO (d) FeO

&' (
1. Define unit cell. (PTA MQ)
2. Give any three characteristics of ionic crystals. (PTA MQ)
3. Differentiate crystalline solids and amorphous solids.
(PTA MQ)
4. Classify the following solids
(a) P4 (b) Brass (c) diamond (d) NaCl (e) Iodine
5. Explain briefly seven types of unit cell.
6. Distinguish between hexagonal close packing and cubic
close packing.
7. Distinguish tetrahedral and octahedral voids.
8. What are point defects?
9. Explain Schottky defect. (PTA MQ)
10. Write short note on metal excess (‘f’ centers) and metal
deficiency defect with an example. (PTA MQ)
11. Sketch face centred cubic unit cell (FCC) Calculate the
number of atoms in a fcc unit cell. (PTA MQ)
12. Explain AAAA and ABABA and ABCABC type of three
dimensional packing with the help of neat diagram.
(i) AAA type
13. Why ionic crystals are hard and brittle?

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14. Calculate the percentage efficiency of packing in case of

body centered cubic crystal.
15. What is the two dimensional co-ordination number of
molecule in square close packed layer?
16. Experiment shows that Nickel oxides has the formula
Ni0.96O1.00. What fraction of Nickel exists as of Ni2+ and Ni3+
ions?
17. What is meant by the term “Coordination number”? What
is the coordination number of atoms in a bcc structure?
18. An element has bcc structure with a cell edge of 288 pm.
the density of the element is 7.2 gcm-3. How many atoms
are present in 208 g of the element?
19. Aluminium crystallizes in a cubic close packed structure.
Its metallic radius is 125 pm. calculate the edge length of
unit cell.
20. If NaCl is doped with 10-2 mol percentage of strontium
chloride, what is the concentration of cation vacancy?
21. KF crystallizes in fcc structure like sodium chloride.
Calculate the distance between K+ and F- in KF. (Given:
density of KF is 2.48 g cm-3) (PTA MQ)
22. An atom crystallizes in fcc crystal lattice and has a density
of 10 g cm-3 with unit cell edge length of 100 pm. Calculate
the number of atoms present in 1 g of crystal. (PTA MQ)
23. Atoms X and Y form bcc crystalline structure. Atom X is
present at the corners of the cube and Y is at the cente of
the cube. What is the formula of the compound? (PTA MQ)
24. Sodium metal crystallizes in bcc structure with the edge
length of the unit cell 4.3 × 10-8 cm. Calculate the radius
of sodium atom.

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25. Write a note on Frenkel defect. (PTA MQ, MAR 20)

'(
1. Define: Isotrophy, anisotrophy.
2. Write the classification of crystal defects.
3. What are covalent solids?
4. What are Non-polar molecular solids?
5. What are polar molecular solids?
6. What is primitive unit cell?
7. What is non-primitive unit cell?
8. Write the co-ordination number of sc, bcc, and fcc.
9. Find out the total number atoms in bcc unit cell?
10. Write Bragg equation and explain the term. (PTA MQ)
11. Write the formula for density of unit cell.
12. Define packing fraction or packing efficiency.
13. Define crystal lattice.
14. If the no. of close packed sphere is 6, calculate the number
of Octahedral voids and Tetrahedral voids generated.
(MAR 2020)

)* (
1. Write the characteristics of solids.
2. Write the classification of solids.
3. Explain the classification of point defect with example.
4. Explain the impurity defects in crystals.

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+ - #* # $ #%

1. In a first order reaction A → products 60% of the given

sample of ‘A’ decomposes in 40 min. what is the half life
of the reaction?

2. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 2.3 × 10-4 s-1.
If the initial concentration of the reactant is 0.01 M.
What concentration will remain after 1 hour?

3. Hydrolysis of an ester in an aqueous solution was studied

by titrating the liberated carboxylic acid against sodium
hydroxide solution. The concentrations of the ester at
different time intervals are given below.

Time (min) 0 30 60 90

Ester concentration mol L-1 0.85 0.80 0.754 0.71

Show that, the reaction follows first order kinetics.

4. For a first order reaction the rate constant at 500 K is

8 × 10-4 s-1. Calculate the frequency factor, if the energy
of activation for the reaction is 190 kJ mol-1.

5. For a reaction, X + Y  → product; quadrupling [x],

increases the rate by a factor of 8. Quadrupling both [x]
and [y], increases the rate by a factor of 16. Find the
order of the reaction with respect to x and y. What is the
overall order of the reaction?

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"

6. Find the individual and overall order of the following

reactions using the given data.

2NO(g) + Cl 2 (g) 
→ 2NOCl(g)
7. Consider the oxidation of nitric oxide to form NO2
2NO(g) + O2(g)  → 2NO2(g)
(a) Express the rate of the reaction in terms of changes
in the concentration of NO, O2 and NO2.
(b) At a particular instant, when [O2] is decreasing at
0.2 mol L-1 s-1 at what rate is [NO2] increasing at
that instant?
8. Write the rate expression for the following reactions,
assuming them as elementary reactions.
i) 3A + 5B2  → 4CD
ii) X2 + Y2  → 2XY
9. Consider the decompostion of N2O5(g) to form NO2(g)
and O2(g). At a particular instant N2O5 disappears at a
rate of 2.5 × 10-2 mol. dm-3 s-1. At what rates are NO2 and
O2 formed? What is the rate of the reaction?
10. What is the order with respect to each of the reactant
and overall order of the following reactions?
(a) 5Br- (aq) + BrO 3− (aq) + 6H + (aq)
 → 3Br2(l) + 3H2O(l)
The experimental rate law is
Rate =k [Br-][ BrO3− ][H+]2
∆
(b) CH3CHO(g)  → CH4(g)+ CO(g) the experimental rate
law is

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"

3
Rate = k [CH 3CHO ] 2

11. The rate of the reaction x + 2y → product is 4 ×10-3 mol

L-1s-1, if [x] = [y] = 0.2 M and rate constant at 400K is 2 ×
10-2 s-1, What is the overall order of the reaction.
12. A first order reaction takes 8 hours for 90% completion.
Calculate the time required for 80% completion. (log 5 =
0.6989; log 10 = 1)
13. The half life period of a first order reaction x  →
products is 6.932 × 104 s at 500 K. What percentage of x
would be decomposed on heating at 500 K for 100 min.
(e0.06 = 1.06)
14. Show that in case of first order reaction, the time required
for 99.9% completion is nearly ten times the time
required for half completion of the reaction.
15. The rate constant of a reaction at 400 K and 200 K are
0.04 and 0.02 s-1 respectively. Calculate the value of
activation energy.
16. Rate constant of a reaction varies with temperature T
according to the following Arrhenius equation
Ea  1 
logk = logA −  
2.303R  T 
Where Ea is the activation energy. When a graph is plotted
1
for log k Vs is a straight line with a slope of –4000 K is
T
obtained. Calculate the activation energy.
17. For a first order reaction the rate constant at 500 K is
8 × 10-4 s-1. Calculate the frequency factor, if the energy
of activation for the reaction is 190 kJ mol-1.

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k = 8×10-1 s-1; R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1

T = 500K A=?

1. For a first order reaction A → B, the rate constant is x min-1. If

the initial concentration of A is 0.01M, the concentration of A
after one hour is given by the expression.
(a) 0.01 e-x (b) 1 × 10-2 (1-e-60x) (c) (1×10-2)e-60x (d) none of these
2. A zero order reaction X → Product, with an initial
concentration 0.02 M has a half life of 10 min. If one starts
with concentration 0.04 M, then the half life is
(a) 10s (b) 5 min (c) 20 min
(d) cannot be predicted using the given information
3. Among the following graphs showing variation of rate constant
with temperature (T) for a reaction, the one that exhibits
Arrhenius behavior over the entire temperature range is

(a) (b)

(c) (d) both (b) and (c)

4. For a first order reaction A → product with initial concentration
x mol L-1, has a half life period of 2.5 hours. For the same

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x
reaction with initial concentration   mol L-1 the half life
2
is
 2.5 
(a) ( 2.5 × 2 ) hours (b)   hours (c) 2.5 hours
 2 
(d) Without knowing the rate constant, t1/2 cannot be determined
from the given data
−d[ NH3 ]
5. For the reaction, 2NH 3 → N 2 + 3H 2 , if = k1 [ NH3 ] ,
dt
d [ N2 ] d [ H2 ]
= k 2 [ NH3 ] , = k3 [ NH3 ] then the relation between
dt dt
k1, k2 and k3 is
(a) k1 = k2 = k3 (b) k1 = 3k2 = 2k3
(c) 1.5 k1 = 3k2 = k3 (d) 2k1 = k2 = 3k3
6. The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low
pressure is a first order reaction. It is because the (NEET)
(a) rate is proportional proportional to the surface coverage
(b) rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage
(c) rate is independent of the surface coverage
(d) rate of decomposition is slow
7. For a reaction Rate = k [acetone]3/2 then unit of rate constant
and rate of reaction respectively is

( -1
) ( 1 -1
)
(a) ( mol L-1s -1 ) , mol 2 L 2 s -1 (b) mol 2 L 2 s-1 , ( mol L-1s -1 )
1

( L s ) , ( mol L s ) (d) ( mol L s ) , ( mol )

1 1 1 1
2 2 -1 -1 -1 -1 2
(c) mol L 2s
8. The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters
which of the following quantities? (NEET)

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(a) Enthalpy (b) Activation energy

(c) Entropy (d) Internal energy
9. Consider the following statements:
(i) increase in concentration of the reactant increases the
rate of a zero order reaction.
(ii) rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea = 0
(iii) rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if Ea = 0
(iv) a plot of ln (k) Vs T is a straight line.
1
(v) a plot of ln (k) Vs   is a straight line with a positive
T 
slope.
Correct statements are:
(a) (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (v) (d) (i), (ii) and (v)
10. In a reversible reaction, the enthalpy change and the activation
energy in the forward direction are respectively –x kJ mol-1
and y kJ mol-1. Therefore, the energy of activation in the
backward direction is
(a) (y – x) kJ mol-1 (b) (x + y) J mol-1
(c) (x – y) kJ mol-1 (d) (x + y) × 103 J mol-1
11. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate
doubles when the temperature is raised from 200 K to 400 K?
(R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1)
(a) 234.65 kJ mol-1 K-1 (b) 434.65 kJ mol-1 K-1
(c) 434.65 J mol-1 K-1 (d) 334.65 J mol-1 K1

12. This reaction follows first order kinetics.

The rate constant at particular temperature is 2.303 × 10-2
hour-1. The initial concentration of cyclopropane is 0.25 M.

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What will be the concentration of cyclopropane after 1806

minutes? (log 2 = 0.3010)
(a) 0.125M (b) 0.215M (c) 0.25 × 2.303M (d) 0.05M
13. For a first order reaction, the rate constant is 6.909 min-1 the
time taken for 75% conversion in minutes is (PTA MQ)
3 2  3  3  2  4
(a)   log 2 (b)   log 2 (c)   log   (d)   log  
2 3  2  4  3  3
14. In a first order reaction x → y; if k is the rate constant and
the initial concentration of the reactant x is 0.1 M, then, the
half life is
 log 2   0.693   ln 2 
(a)   (b)   (c)   (d) none of these
 k  ( ) 
0.1 k  k 
15. Predict the rate law of the following reaction based on the
data given below 2A + B → C + 3D.
Reaction [A] [B] Initial rate
number (min) (min) (M s-1)
1 0.1 0.1 x
2 0.2 0.1 2x
3 0.1 0.2 4x
4 0.2 0.2 8x
(a) rate = k [A]2 [B] (b) rate = k [A] [B]2
(c) rate = k [A] [B] (d) rate = k [A]1/2 [B]3/2
16. Assertion : rate of reaction doubles when the concentration
of the reactant is double if it is a first order reaction.
Reason : rate constant also doubles.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.

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(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
17. The rate constant of a reaction is 5.8 × 10-2 s-1. The order of
the reaction is (PTA MQ)
(a) First order (b) Zero order (c) Second order (d) Third order
1
18. For the reaction N2O5(g) → 2NO2(g) + O 2 ( g ) , the value of
2
rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given as 6.5 × 10-2 mol L-1 s-1.
The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively is
(a) ( 3.5×10-2 mol L-1s -1 ) and (1.3×10-2 mol L-1s -1 )
(b) (1.3×10-2 mol L-1s -1 ) and ( 3.25×10-2 mol L-1s -1 )
(c) (1.3×10-1 mol L-1s -1 ) and ( 3.25×10-2 mol L-1s -1 )
(d) None of these
19. During the decomposition of H2O2 to give dioxygen, 48 g O2
is formed per minute at certain point of time. The rate of
formation of water at this point is
(a) 0.75 mol min-1 (b) 1.5 mol min-1
(c) 2.25 mol min-1 (d) 3.0 mol min-1
20. If the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the
time for half reaction is also doubled. Then the order of the
reaction is
(a) Zero (b) one (c) Fraction (d) none
21. In a homogeneous reaction A → B + C + D, the initial
pressure was P0 and after time ‘t’ it was P. expression for
rate constant in terms of P0. P and t will be

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 2.303   2P0 
(a) k =   log  
 t   3P0 - P 
 2.303   2P0 
(b) k =   log  
 t   P0 - P 
 2.303   3P0 - P 
(c) k =   log  
 t   2P0 
 2.303   2P0 
(d) k =   log  
 t   3P0 - 2P 
22. If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes,
50% of the same reaction under the same conditions would
be completed in
(a) 20 minutes (b) 30 minutes (c) 35 minutes (d) 75 minutes
23. The half life period of a radioactive element is 140 days.
After 560 days, 1 g of element will be reduced to
1 1 1  1
(a)   g (b)   g (c)   g (d)   g
2 4 8  16 
24. The correct difference between first and second order
reactions is that (NEET)
(a) A first order reaction can be catalysed; a second order
reaction cannot be catalysed.
(b) The half life of a first order reaction does not depend on
[A0]; the half life of a second order reaction does depend
on [A0].
(c) The rate of a first order reaction does not depend on
reactant concentrations, the rate of a second order reaction
does depend on reactant concentrations.

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(d) The rate of a first order reaction does depend on reactant

concentrations: the rate of a second order reaction does
not depend on reactant concentrations.
th
 1 
25. After 2 hours, a radioactive substance becomes   of
 16 
original amount. Then the half life (in min) is
(a) 60 minutes (b) 120 minutes (c) 30 minutes (d) 15 minutes

26. Graph between log10 K and (1/T) is linear of slope S. hence

Ea is:
(a) R × S (b) S/R (c) R/S (d) 2.303 RS
27. For the reaction
2A + B  → 3C + D
Which of the following does not express the reaction rate?
d[D] d[A] d[C] d[B]
(a) (b) - (c) - (d) -
dt 2 dt 3 dt dt
28. If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes,
50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately:
(a) 50 minutes (b) 45 minutes (c) 60 minutes (d) 40 minutes
29. For the reaction
N2 + 3H2  → 2NH3
d[NH3 ] −d[H 2 ]
If = 2 × 10-4 mol L-1 S-1, the value of would
dt dt
be?
(a) 3 × 10-4 mol, L-1 S-1 (b) 4 × 10-4 mol L-1 S-1
(c) 6 × 10-4 mol L-1 S-1 (d) 1 × 10-4 mol L-1 S-1
30. The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters
which of the following quantities?

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(a) Enthalpy (b) Entropy

(c) Activation energy (d) Internal energy
31. The half life period of a first order reaction is 5 minutes, the
time required for 99.9% completion is nearly equal to
(PTA MQ)
(a) 99.9 minutes (b) 49.95 minutes
(c) 50 minutes (d) 10 minutes
32. The rate constant of a reaction at temperature 200 K is 10
times less than the rate constant at 400 K. What is the activation
energy of the reaction (R = gas constant) (PTA MQ)
(a) 1842.4 R (b) 921.2 R (c) 460.6 R (d) 230.3 R
33. What is the rate law of the reaction 2A + 2B  → C + 2D.
If the concentration of A is doubled at constant [B] the rate
of the reaction increases by factor 4. If the concentration off
B is doubled at constant [A], the rate is doubled. (PTA MQ)
(a) Rate = k[A][B]2 (b) Rate = k[A][B]
(c) Rate = k[A]1/2 [B]2 (d) Rate = k[A]2 [B]
34. Time required for the reactant concentration to reach one
half of its initial value is called: (MAR 2020)
(a) half life period (b) first order
(c) zero order (d) second order

&' (
1. Define average rate and instantaneous rate.
2. Define rate law and rate constant.
3. Derive integrated rate law for a zero order reaction
A → product.

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4. Define half life of a reaction. Show that for a first order

reaction half life is independent of initial concentration.
(Or) Derive an equation for half life period of First order
equation. (PTA MQ)

5. What is an elementary reaction? Give the difference

between order and molecularity of a reaction. (PTA MQ)
6. Explain the rate determining step with an example.
(PTA MQ)
7. Describe the graphical representation of first order reaction.
8. Write the rate law for the following reactions.
9. Explain the effect of catalyst on reaction rate with an
example.
10. The rate law for a reaction of A, B and C has been found
to be rate = k[A]2 [B][L]3/2. How would the rate of reaction
change when
11. The rate of formation of a dimer in a second order
reaction is 7.5 × 10-3 mol L-1 s-1 at 0.05 mol L-1 monomer
concentration. Calculate the rate constant. (PTA MQ)
12. For a reaction x + y + z → products the rate law is given
by rate = k [ x ] [y ]
3 1
2 2
what is the overall order of the
reaction and what is the order of the reaction with
respect to z.
13. Explain briefly the collision theory of bimolecular
reactions.
14. Write Arrhenius equation and explains the terms involved.
Arrhenius equation

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15. The decomposition of Cl2O7 at 500K in the gas phase to

Cl2 and O2 is a first order reaction. After 1 minute at 500 K,
the pressure of Cl2O7 falls from 0.08 to 0.04 atm. Calculate
the rate constant in s-1.
16. Give three example for Zero order reaction.
17. Explain pseudo first order reaction with an example.
(PTA MQ)
18. Identify the order for the following reactions.
19. A gas phase reaction has energy of activation 200 kJ mol-1.
If the frequency factor of the reaction is 1.6 × 1013 s-1.
Calculate the rate constant at 600 K. (e-40.09 = 3.8 × 10-18)
20. For the reaction 2x + y → L find the rate law from the
following data.
[x] [y] rate
(min) (min) (M s-1)
0.2 0.02 0.15
0.4 0.02 0.30
0.4 0.08 1.20

21. How do concentrations of the reactant influence the rate

of reaction?
22. How do nature of the reactant influence rate of reaction.
23. The rate constant for a first order reaction is 1.54 × 10-3 s-1.
Calculate its half life time. (PTA MQ)
24. The half life of the homogeneous gaseous reaction
SO2Cl2 → SO2 + Cl2 which obeys first order kinetics is

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8.0 minutes. How long will it take for the concentration

of SO2 Cl2 to be reduced to 1% of the initial value?
25. The time for half change in a first order decomposition
of a substance A is 60 seconds. Calculate the rate constant.
How much of A will be left after 180 seconds?
(i) Order = 1, t1/2 = 60 seconds: K = ?
(ii) [A0] = 100% t = 180s
K1 = 0.01155S-1 [A] = ?
26. A zero order reaction is 20% complete in 20 minutes.
Calculate the value of the rate constant. In what time will
the reaction be 80% complete?
27. The activation energy of a reaction is 225 k Cal mol-1 and
the value of rate constant at 40°°C is 1.8 × 10-5 s-1. Calculate
the frequency factor, A.
28. Benzene diazonium chloride in aqueous solution decomposes
according to the equation C6H5N2Cl → C6H5Cl + N2.
Starting with an initial concentration of 10 g L-1, the
volume of N2 gas obtained at 50°°C at different intervals
of time was found to be as under:
t (min): 6 12 18 24 30 ∞
Vol. of N2 (ml): 19.3 32.6 41.3 46.5 50.4 58.3
Show that the above reaction follows the first order
kinetics. What is the value of the rate constant?
29. From the following data, show that the decomposition of
hydrogen peroxide is a reaction of the first order:
t (min) 0 10 20
V (ml) 46.1 29.8 19.3

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Where t is the time in minutes and V is the volume of

standard KMnO4 solution required for titrating the same
volume of the reaction mixture.
30. A first order reaction is 40% complete in 50 minutes.
Calculate the value of the rate constant. In what time will
the reaction be 80% complete? (PTA MQ)

'(
1. Write the difference between Rate and Rate constant of
a reaction. (PTA MQ)
2. Give example for first order reactions
3. Derive the equation for half life period of zero order
reaction. (PTA MQ)
4. Show that in case of first order reaction, the time required
for 99.9% completion is nearly ten times the time required
for half completion of the reaction.
5. What are the factors affecting the rate of the reaction?
(PTA MQ)
6. Explain the rate of reaction is affected by surface area of
the reactant.
7. Derive Arrhenius equation to calculate activation energy
from the rate constant K1 and K2 at temperature T1 and
T2 respectively.
)* (
1. Derive integrated rate equation of first order reaction.
A → product. (PTA MQ, MAR 20)

"