Class: 9TH NEET MODEL Date: 04-10-2024

Time: 3 hrs WTN-16 Max. Marks:720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

 Section I- Physics (1 to 45)

 Section II- Chemistry (46 to 90)
 Section III- Biology (Botany & Zoology) (91 to 180) Total Number of Questions: 180.
 The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question
carries 4marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum
marks are 720.
 The answers to these questions should be answered in single OMR sheet only.
-:Note:-
Physics : 01 to 45
Chemistry : 46 to 90
Botany : 91 to 135
Zoology : 136 to 180

SUBJECT PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY ZOOLOGY

BRANCH VIJ COS BLR-SINDHUBHAVAN NLR-NCS HYD-LBN-COS
PHONE NO 9000730356 7090694351 8985269689 8179880529

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Exam Syllabus

CIRCULAR MOTION: Introduction to Uniform and Non uniform Circular Motion, Terms related
to ciruclar motion: angular position, angular displacment, angular velocity, angular
acceleration, Relation between angular and linear variables., Equations of motion under
uniform angular acceleration, Acceleration and Force in uniform Circular motion (Centripetal
acceleration and Centripetal force-inertial frame), Acceleration and Force in Non-uniform
Circular motion,
PHYSICS
Centripetal,Tangential and net acceleration, Centripetal,Tangential and net Force,
Centrifugal Force and its applications (non inertial frame), Turning of a vehicle on horizontal
circular road and banking of roads - only friction, only banking, both friction and banking
LAWS OF MOTION (Friction): Friction on vertical surface, Friction on inclined surface, Angle
of repose..., Friction on inclined surface applications, Friction due to block on block (Simple
applications), Applications

CHEMICAL BONDING: Molecular Orbital theory - Energy level diagrams

Bond order Molecular Orbital theory - Energy level diagrams
CHEMISTRY Bond order , Resonance , Hydrogen bonding, Types & Consequences of hydrogen bonding
Types of hybridisation (Sp, Sp2, Sp3, Sp3d and Sp3d2) (excluding complex compound),
Structur of PCl3F2, SF4 CLF3 and Bond length of P-Cl in PCl5, VSEPR theory, Dipole moment &
applications

ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS: Introduction 6.1 The Tissue Systsem, 6.1.1 Epidermal
Tissue System, 6.1.2 Ground Tissue System, 6.1.3 The Vascular Tissue System, 6.2.1 Dicot Root
BOTANY
MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS: Leguminosae, Graminae

Breathing And Exchange Of Gases: 14.2 Mechanism Of Breathing, 14.2 Mechanism Of

Breathing 14.2.1 Respiratory Volumes And Capacities, 14.3 Exchange Of Gases
ZOOLOGY
BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES: Disorders Of Digestive System, 14 Introduction,
14.1 Respiratory Organs, 14.1.1 Human Respiratory System

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01. A body is sliding down an inclined plane have coefficient of friction 0.5. If the
normal reaction is twice that of resultant downward force along the incline. Find
the angle between the inclined plane and the horizontal.
1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 00
02. A body of mass ‘m’ slides down a smooth inclined plane having an inclination of
450 with the horizontal. It takes 2sec to reach the bottom. If the body is placed on
a similar plane having coefficient of friction 0.5. The time taken for it to reach the
bottom is
1 1
1) 2 2) 3) 2 2 4)
2 2 2
03. A stone of mass 2 kg is tied to the end of a string of 2m length. It is whirled in a
horizontal circle. If the breaking tension of the string is 400N. the maximum
velocity of the stone is
1) 20 m/s 2) 10 m/s 3) 40 m/s 4) 80 m/s
04. A train runs along an unbanked circular track of radius 30 m at a speed of 54
km/hr. the mass of the train is 106 kg . The angle of banking required to prevent
wearing out of the rail is
1) 530 2) 450 3) 370 4) 600
05. A book of weight 20 N is pressed between two hands and each hand exerts a force
of 40 N. If book just starts to slide down coefficient of friction is
1) 0.25 2) 0.2 3) 0.5 4) 0.1
06. A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a
wall. The coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. the weight
of the block is

1) 20 N 2) 50 N 3) 100 N 4) 2 N
07. A body is moving down a long inclined plane of angle of inclination ' ' for which
the coefficient of friction varies with distance x as   x   kx ,where k is a constant.
Here x is the distance moved by the body down the plane. The net force on the
body will be zero at a distance x0 is
k tan 
1) tan  2) k tan  3) 4)
tan  k

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08. A 30kg block is to be moved up on inclined plane at an angle 300 to the horizontal
with a velocity of 5 m/s. If the frictional force retarding the motion is 150 N. The

horizontal force required to move the block up the plane is (in newton)  g  10m / s 2 

200
1) 200 3 2) 200 3) 300 4)
3
09. The linear velocity of a person at equator of the earth due to its spinning motion
is (nearly) in m/s (Radius of the earth = 6400 km)
1) 465 2) 365 3) 565 4) 765
10. A particle revolving in a circular path completes first one third of circumference
in 2 sec, while next one third in 1sec. the average angular velocity of the particle is
2 4 2 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 9 3 3
1
11. The angular displacement of a particle is given by   0t   t 2 , where 0 and 
2
are constant and  0  1 rad / st ,   1.5 rad / s 2 angular velocity at time t  2sec is

1) 5 rad / s 2) 4 rad / s 3) 3 rad / s 4) 1 rad / s

12. The angular velocity of a particle is   1.5t  3t 2  2 . The time at which its angular
acceleration becomes zero is
1) 0.5 sec 2) 0.75 sec 3) 0.25 sec 4) 1 sec

13. A disc starts from rest, it gains an angular acceleration   3t  t 2 . Then the
angular velocity after 2 sec is
5 10
1) rad / s 2) 2 rad / s 3) rad / s 4) 1 rad / s
3 3
14. The centripetal force required by a 1000kg car that takes a turn of radius 50m at
a speed of 36 kmph is
1) 1000 N 2) 3500 N 3) 1600 N 4) 2000 N
15. identify the increasing order of angular velocities of following
a) Earth rotating about its own axis
b) Hour’s hand of clock
c) Seconds hand of clock
d) Fly wheel of radius 2m making 300rpm
1) a, b, c, d 2) b, c, d, a 3) c, d, a, d 4) d, a, b, c

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16. Two blocks A and B of masses 6 kg and 3 kg rest on a smooth horizontal surface
as shown in the figure. If coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.4, the
maximum horizontal force which can make them without separation is

1) 72 N 2) 40 N 3) 36 N 4) 20 N
17. The angle which the rough inclined plane makes with the horizontal when the
body placed on it just starts sliding down is called
1) angle of Friction 2) angle of repose
3) critical angle 4) Brewster's angle
18. A box is placed on an rough inclined plane. If it slides down with acceleration then
the angle of inclination is
1) Equal to angle of friction 2) More than angle of friction
3) Equal to angle of repose 4) Greater than angle of repose
19. The coefficient of static friction between contact surfaces of two bodies is 1. The
contact surfaces of one body support the other till the inclination is less than
1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 900
20. The angle of inclination of an inclined plane is 60°. Coefficient of friction between
10kg body on it and its surface is 0.2, g  10 ms 2 The acceleration of the body
down the plane in ms 2 is
1) 5.667 2) 6.66 3) 7.66 4) Zero
21. A block slides down a rough inclined plane of slope angle  with a constant
velocity. It is then projected up the same plane with an initial velocity v. The
distance travelled by the block up the plane before coming to rest is
v2 v2 v2 4 gv 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 g sin  2 g sin  g sin  sin 
22. The minimum force required to start pushing a body up a rough (frictional
coefficient  ) inclined plane is F1 while the minimum force needed to prevent it

from sliding down is F2 . If the inclined plane makes an angle  with the horizontal
F1
such that   2 , then the ratio is
F2
1) 4 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3

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23. Statement-I: Angle of repose is equal to angle of limiting friction.

Statement-II: When the body is just at the point of motion, the force of friction
in this stage is called as limiting friction.
1) Statement-1 is true and statement-II is true
2) Statement-1 is true and statement-II is false
3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true
4) Statement-I is false and statement-II is false
24. A block A of mass 3kg and another block B of mass 2 kg are connected by a light
inextensible string as shown in figure. If the coefficient of friction between the
surface of the table and A is 0.5. What maximum mass C is to be placed on A so
that the system is to be in equlibrium?

1) 3 kg 2) 2 kg 3) 1 kg 4) 4 kg
25. A man slides down on a telegraphic pole with an acceleration equal to one-fourth
of acceleration due to gravity. The frictional force between man and pole is equal
to (in terms of man's weight W)
W 3W W
1) 2) 3) 4) W
4 4 2
26. A particle is placed at rest inside a hollow hemisphere of radius R. The coefficient
1
of friction between the particle and the hemisphere is   . The maximum
3
height up to which the particle can remain stationary is
R  3 3 3R
1) 2) 1  R 3) R 4)
2  2  2 8

27. A body is released from the top of a smooth inclined plane of inclination  . It
reaches the bottom with velocity v. If the angle of inclination is doubled for the
same length of the plane, what will be the velocity of the body on reaching the
ground
1 1
1) v 2) 2v 3)  2 cos   2 v 4)  2 sin   2 v

28. A cube of weight 10N rests on a rough inclined plane of slope 3 in 5. The coefficient
of friction is 0.6. The minimum force necessary to start the cube moving up the
plane is
1) 5.4 N 2) 10.8 N 3) 2.7 N 4) 18 N

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29. A body is sliding down an inclined plane having coefficient of friction 1/3. If the
normal reaction is three times that of the resultant downward force along the
inclined plane, the angle between the inclined plane and the horizontal is
1   2  3
1) tan 1   2) tan 1  2  3) tan 1   4) tan 1  
2  3  2
30. A body is projected up along an inclined plane from the bottom with speed is 2v.
If it reaches the bottom of the plane with a velocity v, if  is the angle of inclination
with the horizontal and µ be the coefficient of friction.
5 3 1 1
1) tan  2) tan  3) tan  4) tan 
3 5 5 5
31. A block of mass m is kept on an inclined plane of a lift moving down with
acceleration of 2ms 2 . What should be the coefficient of friction to let the block
move down with constant velocity relative to lift

1 3
1)   2)   0.4 3)   0.8 4)  
3 2
32. A smooth inclined plane of length L, having an inclination  with horizontal is
inside a lift which is moving down with retardation a. The time taken by a block
to slide down the inclined plane from rest will be
2L 2L
1) 2)
a sin  g sin 

2L 2L
3) 4)
 g  a  sin   g  a  sin 
33. In a non-uniform circular motion
1) Tangential acceleration  aT  is zero

2) radial acceleration  aR  is zero

3) Both (1) & (2) are correct
4) Both aT & aR are non-zero
34. A particle moves in a circle of radius 25 cm with   2 revolutions per second. The
acceleration of the particle in m / s 2 is
1)  2 2) 8 2 3) 4 2 4) 2 2

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35. A car of mass m moves in a horizontal circular path of radius r metre. At an

instant its speed is Vm/s and is increasing at a rate of a m/sec². then the
acceleration of the car is
2
V2 2 V 2  V2
1) 2) a 3) a   4) a
r  r  r

36. The maximum speed of a car on a road turn of radius 30 m; if the coefficients of
friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4; will be
1) 9.84 m/s 2) 10.84 m/s 3) 7.84 m/s 4) 5.84 m/s
37. A stationary wheel starts rotating about its own axis at uniform angular
acceleration 8rad/s². The time taken by it to complete 77 rotations is
1) 5.5 sec 2) 7 sec 3) 11 sec 4) 14 sec
38. A circular disc is rotating about its own axis at uniform rate completes 30

rotations in one minute. The angular velocity of disc in rad sec1 is

 
1) 2 2)  3) 4)
2 4

39. A cyclist goes round a circular path of circumference 34.3 in 22 sec. The angle
made by him, with the vertical, will e
1) 45° 2) 40° 3) 42° 4) 48°
40. If ar and at represent radial and tangential accelerations respectively, the motion

of a particle will be uniformly circular if

1) ar  0 and at  0 2) ar  0 and at  0

3) ar  0 and at  0 4) ar  0 and at  0

41. Assertion: A body of mass 1 kg is making 1 rps in a circle of radius 1 m.

Centrifugal force acting on it is 4 2 N

mv 2
Reason: Centrifugal force is given by F 
r
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
of assertion
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false

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42. The acceleration of an object moving with uniform speed v in a circle of radius r is
v2 v
1) towards the centre 2) away from the centre
r r
v r
3) away from the centre 4) towards the centre
r2 v2
43. A wheel is rotating at 900 rpm about its axis. When the power is cut off it comes
to rest in 1 min. The angular retardation in rad/s² is
   
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 6 8
44. A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with constant speed and time period of
0.2 s . The acceleration of the particle is
1) 25 m / s 2 2) 36 m / s 2 3) 5 m / s 2 4) 15 m / s 2
45. An automobile enters a turn of radius R. If the road is banked at angle of 45° and
the coefficient of friction is 1, the minimum speed with which the automobile can
negotiate the turn without skidding is

rg rg
1) 2) 3) rg 4) Zero
2 2

46. The hybridisations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO 2 , NO 3 and NH 4

respectively are
1) sp.sp 3 , and sp 2 2) sp 2 , sp 3 , and sp

3) sp and sp 2 , sp 3 4) sp 2 sp and sp 3
47. Which is not a linear molecule
1) CO2 2) C2H 2 3) HCN 4) H 2O

48. Hybrid orbital having maximum p – character is

1) sp 3d 2) sp3 3) sp 4) sp 3d 2
49. The type of overlapping in Br – F bond in Br molecule is
1) sp 3  p 2) sp 2  p 3) sp 3d  p 4) sp 3d 2  p
50. Hybridisation in molecule is
1) sp 2) sp2 3) sp3 4) sp 3d
51. The shape of gaseous PCl5 is
1) Tetrahedral 2) Square pyramidal
3) Trigonal bipyramidal 4) T- shape

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52. Which one of the following is the correct set with reference to molecular formula,
hybridisation of central atom and shape of the molecule?
1) CO2, sp2, bent 2) H2O, sp2, bent
3) BeCl2, sp, linear 4) H2O, sp3, linear
53. The shape of AB3E molecule (B = bond pair, E = lonepair)
1) Tetrahedral 2) Pyramidal 3) Angular 4) T-shape
54. The shape of CH4; ; is
1) Trigonal planar 2) Angular
3) Tetrahedral 4) Trigonal bipyramidal
55. The geometry of ClO3  ion according to Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion

(VSEPR) theory will be

1) Planar triangular 2) Pyramidal
3) Tetrahedral 4) Square planar
56. In which of the following orientation of electron pairs and shape of the ion is
similar

1) ClO 4 2) ClO 3 3) ClO 2 4) ClO 

57. The shape of AB2E molecule (B = bond pair, E = lonepair)

1) Tetrahedral 2) Pyramidal 3) Angular 4) T-shape
58. In which of the following pairs, both the species have the same hybridisation?

1) SF4 , XeF4 2) I 3 , XeF2 3) ICl 4 ,SiCl 4 4) CIO3 ,CO32

59. The s-character in the hybrid orbital of the central atom, present in a molecule
having the shape of an octahedron is
1) 25% 2) 75% 3) 40% 4) 16.66%
60. Hybrid orbital with least s - character is
1) sp3d 2) sp2 3) sp3 4) sp
61. The dipole moment of H 2 S is 0.95D and the bond angle is 970 Then the bond

moment is  COS 48.50  0.662 

1) 0.51D 2) 1.24D 3) 7.2 D 4) 0.717D

62. Which one of the following arrangements of molecules is correct on the basic of
their dipole moments?
1) BF3  NF3  NH 3 2) NF3  BF3  NH3

3) NH 3  BF3  NF3 4) NH 3  NF3  BF3

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63. Anti – bonding molecular orbital is formed by

1) Addition of wave functions of atomic orbitals
2) Subtraction of wave functions of atomic orbitals
3) Multiplication of wave function of atomic orbitals
4) Finding the arithmetic means
64. The incorrect statement among the following is
1) Bonding molecular Orbital possess less energy that combining atomic orbital
2) Bonding molecular orbital are denoted by  *, * , etc.
3) Every electron in bonding molecular orbital contributes to attraction between
atoms
4) Bonding molecular orbital contributes towards the stability of molecule.
65. During change of NO   NO, the electron is added to

1)   orbital 2)   orbital 3)  *  orbital 4)  *  orbital

66. The number of antibonding electron pairs in O22 molecular ion on the basis of
molecular orbital theory is (Atomic number of O is 8)
1) 3 2) 2 3) 5 4) 4
67. Which one of the following is paramagnetic and has bond order 0.5?
1) H 2 2) H 2 3) N 2 4) F2

68. The energy of  2s orbital is greater than  * 1s orbital because

1)  2s orbital is bigger than that of  1s orbital
2)  2s orbital is a bonding orbital whereas,  *1s is an antibonding orbital
3)  2s orbital has a greater value of n than  *1s orbital
4) All of these
69. The bond order of a molecule is given by
1) The difference between the number of electrons in bonding and antibonding
orbitals
2) Total number of electrons in bonding and antibonding orbital
3) Twice the difference between the number of electrons in bonding and
antibonding orbitals
4) Half the difference between number of electrons in bonding and antibonding
orbitals
70. Which of the following species is not paramagnetic?
1) B2 2) NO 3) CO 4) O2

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71. The low density of ice compared to water is due to

1) Hydrogen bonding interactions
2) Dipole – dipole interactions
3) Dipole – induced dipole interactions
4) Induced dipole induced dipole interactions
72. Which of the following is correct regarding the stability of O2 , O2 , O2 and O22
(decreasing order)
1) O2  O2  O2  O22 2) O2  O2  O2  O22

3) O2  O22  O2  O2 4) O22  O2  O2  O2

73. According to molecular orbital theory which of the following is correct?
1) C2 molecule is diamagnetic 2) C2 ion is paramagnetic
3) Bond order of C2 molecule is 2 4) All of these
74. Intermolecular hydrogen bond is not present in
1) Ammonia 2) Water
3) Hydrofluoric acid 4) Salicylaldehyde
75. The m.pt. of o- hydroxybenzaldehyde is lower than that of p –
hydroxybenzaldehyde because
1) o- hydroxybenzaldehyde has intermolecular H – bonding and p –
hydroxybenzaldehyde has intramolecular H – bonding
2) Both have intermolecular H- bonding
3) Both have intramolecular H - bonding
4) o- hydroxybenzaldehyde has intramolecular H – bonding and p –
hydroxybenzaldehyde has intermolecular H - bonding
76. Match the column I with column II correctly
Column – I Column – II
(Molecules/Species) (Bond order)

A N2 I 1.0

B O2 II 2.0

C F2 III 2.5

D O +2 IV 3.0

Choose the correct combination:

A B C D A B C D
1) IV II I III 2) I III IV II
3) I II IV III 4) IV III I II

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77. Which of the following species is diamagnetic in nature?

1) He 2 2) H 2 3) H 2 4) H 2

78. According to MOT theory

1) O +2 is paramagnetic and bond order is greater then O2

2) O +2 is paramagnetic and bond order is less then O 2

4) O +2 is diamagnetic and bond order is less then O 2

3) O +2 is diamagnetic and bond order is more then O 2

79. In a polar molecule, the ionic charge is 4.8  10 10 esu. If the inter ionic distance is
1A 0 unit, then the dipole moment is.
1) 41.8 debye 2) 4.18 debye 3) 4.8 debye 4) 0.48 debye
80. Which of the following species have same bond order?
1) CN -and NO + 2) CN - and CN + 3) O -2 and CN - 4) NO + and CN +

81. Number of bonding and anti bonding electrons present in C2 molecule is

1) 4,6 2) 8,4 3) 4,4 4) 6,6

82. Chelation is observed in
1) p- nitro phenol 2) O-nitrophenol 3) Benzaldehyde 4) HF
83. Which of the following does not have sp 3 hybridisation?

1) BF4 2) H 3O  3) OF2 4) BF3

84. Stability of species Li2 , Li2 , Li2 increases in the order

1) Li2  Li2  Li2 2) Li2  Li2  Li2

3) Li2  Li2  Li2 4) Li2  Li2  Li2

85. The equatorial and axial angles in PCl 5 are

1) 900, 900 2) 1200, 900 3) 900, 1200 4) 1200, 1200

86. Which of the following resonating structures is not correct for CO2

•• -
•• 
•••
1) •O=C=O• •
•O --C O••
• 2)

    
3) • 4) •

•O

--C  O O
• -- C  O



87. The weakest hydrogen bond is
1) H  F ...H  F 2) H  O...H  O 3) H  S ...H  S 4) H  N ...H  N

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88. In which of the following substance hydrogen bonding is absent

1) HF 2) H2O 3) CCl4 4) salcylaldehyde
89. The bond angle formed by different hybrid orbitals are in the order
1) sp2  sp  sp3 2) sp3  sp 2  sp

3) sp3  sp 2  sp 4) sp  sp2  sp3

90. For which of the following molecule significant   0 ?

i) ii) iii) iv)

1) (i) and (ii) 2) Only (iii) 3) (iii) and (iv) 4) Only (i)

91. A distinct monocot character shown by the flowers of poaceae is

1) Hypogynous 2) Actinomorphic
3) Parallel venation 4) Bisexual
92. Select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
a) Br i) Corolla
b) K ii) Perianth
c) C iii) Calyx
d) P iv) Bracteate
1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
3) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii 4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
93. The given floral diagram belongs to ______ family

1) Poaceae 2) Malvaceae
3) Caesalpinaceae 4) Papilionaceae

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94. The number and arrangement of stamens in papilionaceae family is

1) A2+4 2) A(9)+1 3) A(10)+1 4)

95. Fruit lomentum is the characteristic feature of the subfamily
1) Papilionaceae 2) Caesalpinaceae
3) Mimosaceae 4) All of the above
96. Stamimodes commonly occur in
1) Liliaceae 2) Poaceae
3) Graminae 4) Caesalpinaceae
97. The given figure represents vexillary aestivation the suitable lables for P, Q & R

P Q R
1) Keel Wing Standard
2) Standard Keel Wing
3) Wing Keel Standard
4) Standard Wing Keel
98. What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea
1) Basal 2) Axile 3) Free central 4) Marginal
99. In grasses perianth is represents by
1) Glumes 2) Lemma 3) Lodicules 4) Palea
100. Among the bean, moong, Sugar cane, Bajra, Soyabean, Pea, cacia how many
plants have superior ovary
1) 5 2) 6 3) 7 4) 4
101. The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called
1) Corona 2) Carina 3) Pappus 4) Vexillum
102. Select the option that contains all plants which produce non endospermic seeds
1) Gram, Pea, Bean, Groundnut
2) Castor, Peanut, Orchid, Wheat
3) Coconut, Walnut, Hibiscus, Rice
4) Gram, Castor, Maize, Coconut, Orchid

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103. The specific character of Fabaceae root is

1) Much branched and store food
2) Make soil alkaline
3) Root nodules with N2 fixing bacteria
4) All of these
104. Caryopsis fruit is found in
1) Wheat 2) Rice 3) Maize 4) All of these
105. The 3 sub families of leguminosae are distinguished mainly on the basis of
1) Nature of gynoecium 2) Name of fruit
3) Nature of corolla and stamens 4) Nature of habit of the plants
106. Tamarindus indica and cassia belongs to the family
1) Papilionaceae 2) Caesalpinaceae
3) Mimosaceae 4) None of the above
107. Statement-1: Fabaceae members show epigynous flowers
Statement-2: Fabaceae members have their odd petal towards the posterior side
1) Statement 1 & 2 are true
2) Statement – 1 & 2 are false
3) Statement -1 is true and statement -2 is false
4) Statement -1 is false and statement -2 is true
108. Which one of the following plants show vexillary aestivation and diadelphous
stamens
1) Pisum sativum 2) Allium sepa
3) Sorghum vulgare 4) Triticum aestivum
109. Marginal placenatation is seen in
1) Rice, Wheat 2) Wheat, Pea
3) Jowar, Cassia 4) Pea, Cassia
110. Botanical name of Bajra is
1) Oryza sativa 2) Sorghum vulgare
3) Pennisetum typhoideum 4) Zea mays
111. Spike of spikelets inflorescences is commonly occurs in
1) Cruciferae 2) Papilionate 3) Solanaceae 4) Poaceae
112. In graminae the perianth is represented by small scaly lodicules which are
generally
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5

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113. Diadelphous stamens are found in

1) Liliaeeae (Onion) 2) Fabaceae (Pea)
3) Poaceae (Wheat) 4) Malvaceae
114. Ground tissue consist of
1) Epidermis & Cortex
2) All tissues internal to endodermis
3) All tissues external to endodermis
4) All tissues except epidermis and vascular tissue
115. Arrangement of vascular bundles in a dicot root is
1) Collateral 2) Radial 3) Bicollateral 4) Conjoint
116. Closed vascular bundles are the ones which
1) Contain cambium 2) Lack cambium
3) Lack xylem 4) Possess lysigenous cavity
117. Select the incorrect statement from the following
1) Trichomes help in preventing water loss due to transpiration
2) Cuticle prevents loss of watger
3) Cuticle is absent in roots
4) Epidermis is made up of elongated, loosely arranged cell, which forms
continuous layer
118. Select the correct features w.r.t trichomes in shoot system
a) Usually unicelled
b) Branched (or) Unbranched
c) May be secretory
d) Soft (or) Stiff
e) Preventing water loss due to transpiration
1) a, b, d & e 2) All except c & d
3) All except ‘a’ 4) a, c & e
119. Stomal apparatus consists of
1) Guard cells 2) Stomatal aperture
3) Subsidiary cells 4) All of the above
120. Which of the following is true about stomata
1) Formed by gurard cells
2) Regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange
3) Mainly present on epidermis of leaves
4) All of the above
121. In grasses, the guard cells are
1) Bean shaped 2) Dumb-bell shaped
3) Irregular shaped 4) Spherical

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122. Conjoint vascular bundle is present in

1) Monocot stem 2) Dicot stem 3) Leaf 4) All of these
123. A layer of suberized cells below the general cortex of root is
1) Second epidermis 2) Hypodermis
3) Exodermis 4) Endodermis
124. In dicot root
1) Vascular bundles are scattered with cambium
2) Vascular bundles are open and arranged in a ring
3) Xylem and phloem are radial
4) Xylem is always endarch
125. A diagram of T.S of dicot root is given select the option which correctly labels A,
B, C, D & E

1) A-Protoxylem B-Metaxylem C-Pericylcle D-Phloem E-Endodermis

2) A-Metaxylem B-Protoxylem C-Phloem D-Pericycle E-Endodermis
3) A-Metaxylem B-Protoxylem C-Endodermis D-Phloem E-Pericycle
4) A-Endodermis B-Pericycle C-Phloem D-Protoxylem E-Metaxylem
126. Casparian strip is a characteristic feature of
1) Endodermis 2) Pericylce
3) Periblem 4) Hypodermis
127. The tissue system that consist of all kinds of simple tissues is
1) Epidermal tissue system 2) Ground tissue system
3) Vascular tissue system 4) More than two are correct
128. All of the following statements are incorrect for guard cells except
1) They are bean shaped in grasses
2) Non green cells
3) They do not enclose a stomatal pore
4) Their outer walls are thin and inner walls are thick

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129. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the epidermis

1) It is the outer most layer of the primary plant body
2) It is often covered by cuticle externally
3) It is usually multi layred
4) It is made up of compactly arranged cells
130. In leaves the ground tissue consists of thin walled chloroplast containing cells
1) Mesophyll 2) Exodermises
3) Endodermis 4) Hypodermis
131. Stele consists of
1) Cortex, Pericycle, pith 2) Pericycle, V.B, pith
3) Endodermis, cortex, pith 4) Cortex, V.B, pith
132. The epidermal tissue system of plants comprises
a) Epidermal cells
b) Stomata
c) Cortex
d) The epidermal appendages- the trichomes and hairs
1) a, b & d 2) a, b & c 3) b, c & d 4) b, c & d
133. Lateral roots are originated from
1) pericycle 2) Endodermis 3) Cortex 4) Pith
134. The part of a root with intercellular spaces is
1) Pericycle 2) Cortex 3) Epidermis 4) Endodermis
135. Observe the pictures and select the correct option

1) A-conjoint closed, B-conjoint open, C-radial

2) A-Radial, B-conjoint open, C- conjoint closed
3) A-conjoint closed, B-radial, C- conjoint open
4) A-radial, B-conjoint closed, C-conjoint open

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136. Simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories leads to a condition called

_________
1) Marasmus 2) Indigestion
3) Hypercholesterolemia 4) Excess nutrition
137. Skin and eye balls turn yellow due to deposition of bile pigments in the case of
1) Jaundice 2) Diarrhoea
3) Constipation 4) Pancreatitis
138. When breast feeding is replaced by a high calorie-low protein diet in a child more
than one year in age is likely to suffer from
1) Marasmus 2) Rickets 3) Kwashiorkar 4) pellagra
139. The reflex action during vomiting is controlled by the vomit centre in
the ___________.
1) Pons 2) Medulla 3) Cerebellum 4) Hypothalamus
140. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead
to
1) Vertigo 2) Jaundice 3) Diarrhoea 4) Indigestion
141. Name the condition in which food is not properly digested, leading to a feeling of
fullness.
1) Vomiting 2) Indigestion 3) Constipation 4) Both (1) and (3)
142. The covering of the lung in human beings is called:
1) Pericardium 2) Pleural membrane/pleura
3) Peritoneum 4) Perichondrium
143. The function of conducting part in respiratory system of human beings is
1) Clears foreign particles 2) Humidifies atmospheric air
3) Brings the air to body temperature 4) More than one option is correct
144. If A–Primary bronchi, B–Alveolar duct, C–Alveoli, D–Secondary bronchi, E–
Terminal bronchiole then starting from T-Trachea, which sequence of branching
is correct from the given options?
1) T  A  E  D  C  B 2) T  A  D  E  B  C
3) T  A  D  E  C  B 4) T  E  A  D  B  C
145. Which is the site of actual diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
atmospheric air?
1) Exchange part of respiratory system
2) Conducting part of respiratory system
3) Inner pleural membrane
4) Bronchus

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146. Which set of animals have same respiratory organs?

1) Aquatic arthropods and Earthworm
2) Sponges and Insects
3) Reptiles and Mammals
4) Amphibians and Insects
147. Conducting part of respiratory system in human body extends from the:
1) External nostrils up to tertiary bronchi
2) External nostrils up to terminal bronchioles
3) Primary bronchi up to tertiary bronchi
4) Trachea up to secondary bronchi
148. Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps involved in respiration?
A-Utilization of oxygen by body cells
B-Transport of gases by blood
C-Pulmonary ventilation
D-Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
E–Exchange of gases between blood and tissues
1) D  B  E  A  C 2) C  D  B  E  A
3) D  E  B  C  A 4) C  E  B  D  A
149. Which of the following options is incorrect about the larynx?
1) It is a bony box.
2) Glottis is the opening into the larynx.
3) During swallowing of food glottis is covered by epiglottis to prevent food entry
into the larynx.
4) All of these
150. Which of the following steps not involved in respiration?
1) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
2) Transport of gases by the blood

3) Provide nutrients and O2 to all the living cells of body

4) Utilization of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of

CO2

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151. Match the columns and find out the correct combination:
Column-I Column-II
A) Larynx I) Lid of larynx
B) Trachea II) Air sacs
C) Alveoli III) Sound box
D) Epiglottis IV) Wind pipe
V) Common passage
1) A-III, B-V, C-II, D-IV 2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-V 4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
152. Match the columns and find out the correct combination:
Column – I Column -II
A) Tracheal tubes I) Birds
B) Branchial respiration II) Insects
C) Only Pulmonary respiration III) Aquatic arthropods
D) Cutaneous respiration IV) Frog
1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II 2) A-II, C-III, B-I, D-IV
3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
153. Which of the following statement(s) are correct?
A) The branching network of bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli comprises the lungs.
B) Lungs are covered by double layered pleural membrane.
C) Pleural fluid reduce friction on lung surface.
D) Diaphragm relaxes during inspiration.
1) A, B & C 2) A & D 3) A, C & D 4) B, C & D
154. Assertion (A): The nasal chamber opens into the pharynx.
Reason (R): The pharynx opens through the larynx region into the trachea.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation
of the Assertion.
3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
4) Assertion is False but Reason is True.

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155. Given below are two statement

Statement-I: Trachea is a straight tube extending up to end or entire length of
thoracic cavity
Statement-II: It divides at the level of 12th thoracic vertebra into a right and left
primary bronchi
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
156. Which among the following organ is affected due to jaundice?
1) Gall bladder 2) Liver 3) Pancreas 4) Stomach
157. During inspiration
1) Diaphragm and external intercostals muscles relax
2) Diaphragm and internal intercostals muscles relax
3) Diaphragm and external intercostals muscles contract
4) Diaphragm and internal intercostals muscles contract
158. Contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of thoracic chamber in the
1) Antero-posterior axis 2) Dorso-ventral axis
3) Ventro lateral axis 4) Dorso lateral axis
159. Normal Breathing rate of Healthy human on an average is
1) 70-75 times/minute 2) 65-90 times/minute
3) 12-16 times/minute 4) 8-10 times/minute
160. The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be estimated by using a
1) Stethoscope 2) Thermometer
3) Spirometer 4) Sphygmomanometer
161. Which of the following is utilised during breakdown of simple molecules like
glucose, amino acids, fatty acids in the cells to derive energy?
1) Nitrogen 2) Carbon 3) Oxygen 4) Hydrogen
162. A person breathing normally at rest, takes in and expels approximately half a litre
of air during each respiratory cycle. This is called
1) Inspiratory reserve volume 2) Tidal volume
3) Expiratory reserve volume 4) Vital capacity

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163. Which of the following factors affect the rate of diffusion of gases?
1) Pressure/concentration gradient of diffusion gases
2) Solubility of gases
3) Thickness of diffusion membrane
4) All the above
164. The solubility of CO2 is ___ times higher than that of O2
1) 10 – 15 times 2) 20 – 25 times
3) 30 – 35 times 4) 210 times
165. Diffusion membrane is made up of
1) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli
2) Endothelium of alveolar capillaries
3) Basement substance
4) All the above
166. Partial pressures (in mm Hg) of O2 in atmospheric air, alveoli, deoxygenated blood,
oxygenated blood and tissues are
1) 159, 104, 40, 95, 40 2) 104, 40, 40, 95, 159
3) 0.3, 40, 45, 40, 45 4) 159, 104, 45, 95, 40
167. Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration
is called
1) TLC 2) RV 3) ERV 4) VC
168. Volume of air that remain in the lungs after a normal expiration is called
1) FRC 2) TLC 3) ER 4) VC
169. Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture of gases is called
1) Optimum pressure 2) Partial pressure
3) Parietal pressure 4) Standard pressure
170. The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of
the ___A____ will be reflected in the ____B_____.
1) A-Thoracic cavity; B-Pulmonary cavity
2) A-Pulmonary cavity; B-Thoracic cavity
3) A-Abdominal cavity; B-Lung cavity
4) A-Thoracic cavity; B-Abdominal Cavity
171. Marasmus is characterized by
1) Thinning of limbs 2) Skin becomes dry, thin and wrinkled
3) Growth rate declines 4) More than one option is correct

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172. A healthy man can inspire or expire approximately ________ mL of air per minute
1) 5000 mL 2) 6000-8000 mL
3) 8000-10000 mL 4) 8000-9000 mL
173. Additional volume of air a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration is
1) IRV 2) ERV
3) 2500mL to 3000mL 4) Both (1) and (3)
174. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in between blood and tissues by
1) Active transport 2) Simple diffusion
3) Facilitated transport 4) non specific
175. Expiratory Capacity (EC) is equal to
1) TV + ERV 2) TV + IRV
3) ERV + RV 4) TV + ERV + RV
176. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide is minimum in the
1) Atmospheric air 2) Alveoli
3) Deoxygenated blood 4) Oxygenated blood
177. In expiration, diaphragm becomes
1) Flattened 2) Remains flat
3) Straightened 4) Arched/Dome
178. The contraction of ____________ muscles lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing
an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis
1) External inter-costal 2) Internal inter-costal
3) Diaphragm 4) Both (1) and (2)
179. We can increase the strength of inspiration and expiration by the help of
additional muscle in
1) Abdomen 2) Neck 3) Pelvis 4) Head
180. Residual volume is
1) Greater than vital capacity 2) Greater than tidal volume
3) Lesser than tidal volume 4) Greater than IRV

*** END OF THE QUESTION PAPER ***

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