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Test Batch: XI

FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES (FST) No.02 [NEET INT & NON–INT BATCH]

Date: 16.03.2025 Time: 3 hrs Marking Scheme: +4, –1 Total Marks: 720

PHYSICS
1. Sound waves transfer
(A) both energy and momentum (B) only energy not momentum
(C) momentum (D) energy
2. A uniform disc is given a linear velocity vo on a rough surface as shown. Regarding angular momentum of the disc,
mark the correct option

(A) Angular momentum of disc remains conserved about point C

(B) Angular momentum of disc is conserved about point O
(C) Angular momentum of disc is conserved about any point lying on a vertical line passing through point O
(D) Angular momentum is not conserved about any point
3. A cylindrical vessel of radius R and height H is half filled with liquid. It is rotated with angular speed  about the
central axis as shown. The free surface of the liquid takes paraboloidal shape. The value of w for which vertex of the
parabola is at a distance H/2 below P is

2gH 3gH gH gH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R R R 3R
4. The mean free path of molecules of a gas (radius r) is inversely proportional to
(A) r3 (B) r2 (C) r (D) r
Cp
5. The ratio of the specific heats   in terms of degrees of freedom (n) is given by
Cv
 2  n  1  n
(A)  1   (B)  1   (C)  1   (D)  1  
 n   2   n   3
6. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 3 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total
internal energy of the system is
(A) 15 RT (B) 9 RT (C) 11 RT (D) 4 RT
7. Statement 1: The base of Laplace correction was that exchange of heat between the region of compression and
rarefraction in air is negligible
Statement 2: Air is bad conductor of heat and velocity of sound in air is quite large
(A) Statement-1 is false, Statement -2 is true
(B) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for statement-1
(D) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
8. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 5 kg are dropped gently from the top of a tower. At a point 20 cm from the ground, both
the bodies will have the same
(A) Momentum (B) Kinetic energy (C) Velocity (D) Total energy

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Test Batch: XI
9. The potential energy of a body is given by, U = A – Bx2 (Where x is the displacement). The magnitude of force acting
on the particle is
(A) Constant (B) Proportional to x
(C) Proportional to x2 (D) Inversely proportional to x
10. Which one of the following is not a conservative force
(A) Gravitational force (B) Electrostatic force between two charges
(C) Electrostatic force between two charges (D) Frictional force
11. Work done in raising a box depends on
(A) How fast it is raised (B) The strength of the man
(C) The height by which it is raised (D) None of the above
12. Hookes law essentially defines
(A) Stress (B) Strain (C) Yield point (D) Elastic limit
13. Longitudinal strain is possible in the case of
(A) Gases (B) Liquid (C) Only solids (D) Only gases & liquids
14. The Young's modulus of a perfectly rigid body is
(A) infinity (B) some finite non-zero constant (C) zero (D) unity
15. According to Hooke's law of elasticity, if stress is increased, then the ratio of stress to strain
(A) remains constant (B) increases (C) becomes zero (D) decreases
16. A train moves from rest with acceleration a and in time t1 covers a distance x. It then decelerates to rest at constant
retardation  for distance y in time t2. Then
x   t y x t
(A)  (B)  2 (C) x = y (D)  1
y   t1 x y t 2
17. If the radius of the opening of a dropper is r = 5 × 10–4 m, density of liquid  = 103 kg m–3, g = 10 m s–2 and surface
tension T = 0.11 N m–1, the radius of the drop when the drop detaches from the dropper is approximately
(A) 1.4× 10–3 m (B) 3.3 × 10–3 m (C) 2.0×10–3m (D) 4.1 × 10–3 m
18. A trolley of mass 5 kg on a horizontal smooth surface is pulled by a load of mass 2 kg by means of uniform rope ABC
of length 2m and mass 1 kg. As the load falls from BC = 0 to BC = 2m. its acceleration in m/s2 changes-

20 20 20 30 20 30
(A) To (B) To (C) To (D) None of these
6 5 8 8 5 6
19. The internal energy of an ideal gas decreases by the same amount as the work done by the system
(A) the process must isothermal (B) the process must be adiabatic
(C) the process must isobaric (D) the temperature of the system must increase
20. The acceleration of a marble in a certain fluid is proportional to the speed of the marble squared and is given (in SI
v2
units) by a   for u > 0. If the marble enters this fluid with a speed of 1.50 m/s, how long will it take (in s) before
3
the marble's speed is reduced to half of its initial value?
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 2
21. A bob of mass M is suspended by a massless string of length L. The horizontal velocity v at position A is just sufficient
to make it reach the point B. The angle  at which the speed of the bob is half of that at A, satisfies
 7 
( cos 1    1510 )
 8 

    3 3
(A)   (B)  (C)  (D) 
4 4 2 2 4 4

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Test Batch: XI
22. A diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure. The fraction of the heat energy used to increase the internal energy is
3 3 5 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 7 7 9
23. Two rods of the same length and areas of cross-section A1 and A2 have their ends at the same temperature, K1 and K2
are the thermal conductivities of the two rods. The rate of flow of heat is same in both rods if
A K A K
(A) 1  1 (B) 1  2 (C) A12 K1  A22 K2 (D) A1K12  A2 K22
A2 K2 A 2 K1
24. In the arrangement shown, m1 = 1 kg, m2 = 2 kg, the pulleys and strings are ideal and all surfaces in contact are
frictionless. The value of M for which the mass m1 moves with constant velocity is

(A) 6 kg (B) 4 kg (C) 8 kg (D) 10 kg

25. With O as the origin of the coordinate axis, the X and Y-coordinates of the centre of mass of the system of particles
shown in the figure may be given as:

 b   b   b   b 
(A)   , 0  (B)   , b  (C)   , b  (D)   , b, b 
 2   2   3   3 
26. Mass M is uniformly distributed only on curved surface of a thin hemispherical shell. A, B and C are three points on the
circular base of hemisphere, such that A is the centre. Let the gravitational potential at points A, B and C be V A, VB, Vc
respectively. Then:

(A) VA > VB > Vc (B) Vc > VB > VA (C) VB > VA and VB > Vc (D) VA = VB = Vc

27. If pressure P, velocity V and time T are taken as fundamental physical quantities, the dimensional formula of force is
(A) PV2T2 (B) p–1v2T–2 (C) PVT2 (D) p–1VT2
28. When a ceiling fan is switched off, its angular velocity reduces by 50% while it makes 36 rotations. How many more
rotations will it make before coming to rest? (Assume uniform angular retardation)
(A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 12 (D) 13
29. A mass 1 kg is suspended by a thread. It is (i) lifted up with an acceleration 4.9 m/s2. (ii) lowered with an acceleration
4.9 m/s2.The ratio of the tensions is
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 5
30. A uniform sphere is placed on a smooth horizontal surface and a horizontal force F is applied on it at a distance h above
the surface. The acceleration of the centre:
(A) Is maximum when h = 0 (B) Is maximum when h = R
(C) Is maximum when h = 2R (D) Is independent of h
31. If the radius of the earth suddenly contracts to 1/n of its present value without any change in its mass, the duration of
one day will become approximately
(A) 24/n hours (B) 24/n2 hours (C) 24 n hours (D) 24 n2 hours
32. A force acts on a 3.0 gm particle in such a way that the position of the particle as a function of time is given by x = 3t –
4t2 + t3, where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The work done during the first 4 second is
(A) 450 mJ (B) 528 mJ (C) 490 mJ (D) 570 mJ

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Test Batch: XI
33. A block of mass 50 kg can slide on a rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between the block and the
surface is 0.6. The least force of pull acting at 30° to the upward drawn vertical which causes the block to just slide is
(g = 9.8 m/s2)
(A) 26.12 kg wt (B) 219.6 N (C) 20.96 kg wt (D) 288.3 N
34. A body is projected horizontally from a height of 5 m. It reaches the ground at a horizontal distance of 10 m. The speed
of the particle when it reaches the ground is (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 10 m/s (B) 10 2m / s (C) 20 m/s (D) 20 2m / s
35. A particle, initially at rest, starts moving in a straight line with an acceleration a = (6t + 4) m/s2. The distance covered by
it in 3 s is
(A) 3 m (B) 30 m (C) 45 m (D) 60 m
36. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If the percentage error in the determination of L is 2% and that in F is
4%, the permissible error in pressure is
(A) 2% (B) 4% (C) 6% (D) 8%
37. A hole is made in a metal plate, when the temperature of metal is raised then the diameter of the hole will :-
(A) Decrease (B) Increase
(C) Remain same (D) Answer depends upon the initial temperature of the metal
38. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 120 K to 480 K. If at 120 K the root mean square velocity of the gas
molecules is v, at 480 K it becomes
v v
(A) 4v (B) 2v (C) (D)
2 4

39. A force F  4iˆ  3jˆ  4kˆ is applied on intersection point of x = 2 plane and x- axis. The magnitude of torque of this force
about a point (2, 3, 4) is ………….. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)
(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 50
40. The graph as shown in figure below describes the motion of a ball rebounding from a horizontal surface being released
from a point above the surface. Assume that the ball collides each time with the floor inelastically. The quantity
represented on the y-axis is the ball's (take upward direction as positive)

(A) Position (B) Velocity (C) Acceleration (D) Momentum

41. A projectile is given an initial velocity of ˆi  2jˆ . The cartesian equation of its path is (g = 10ms–2)
(A) y = x – 5x2 (B) y = 2x – 5x2 (C) y = 2x –15x2 (D) y = 2x – 25x2
42. Two vessels A and B have the same base area and contain water to the same height, but the mass of water in A is four
times that in B. The ratio of the liquid thrust at the base of A to that at the base of B is:

(A) 4:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:1 (D) 16 :1

43. The P – V diagrams of two different masses m1 and m2 for an ideal gas at constant temperature T is given in figure.
Then

(A) m1 = m2 (B) m1 > m2 (C) m1 < m2 (D) Data is insufficient

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Test Batch: XI
44. The frequency v of an oscillating liquid drop may depend upon radius (r) of the drop, density () of liquid and the
surface tension (s) of the liquid as: v = rab sc. The values of a, b and c respectively are
 3 1 1 3 1 1 3 1 1  3 1 1
(A)   ,  ,  (B)  ,  ,  (C)  , ,   (D)   , , 
 2 2 2   2 2 2   2 2 2   2 2 2
–2
45. If the value of force is 100 N and value of acceleration is0. 001ms , what is the value of mass in this system of units?
(A) 103kg (B) 104kg (C) 105kg (D) 106kg

CHEMISTRY
46. The angular velocity of the electron in nth orbitof Bohr hydrogen atom is :-
(A) directly proportional to 'n' (B) inversly proportional to 2
(C) inversly proportional to n2 (D) inversly proportional to n3
47. Correct statement regarding H-spectrum is :-
(A) For limiting line of lyman series n1 = 1 and n2 = 10
16
(B) Wavelength for second line of balmer series 
3R
(C) Maximum frequency for paschen series (v) = RC
(D) For first line of brackett series n1 = 5 and n2 = 6
48. The value of Kc = 4.24 at 800K for the reaction CO(g)  H2 O(g)   CO2 (g)  H2 (g) then calculate the equilibrium
concentration ratio of CO(g) & CO 2(g). If only CO and H2O are present initially at concentration of 0.1 M each :-
1 1
(A) K c (B) (C) (D) 2 & 3 both
Kc Kp
49. What will be the pH and h (degree of hydrolysis) respectively for the salt BA of 0.1 M concentration?
(Given: Ka for HA = 10–6 and Kb for BOH = 10–6)
(A) 5, 1% (B) 7,10% (C) 9, 0.01% (D) 7,0.01%
50. If 100 mL, 0.1 N H2SO4 solution is mixed with 100 mL, 0.1 M Ba(OH)2 solution then pH of resulting solution will be :-
(A) 1.3 (B) 12.7 (C) 7 (D) 1
51. 100 mL, 0.1 M FCH2COOH is mixed with 100 mL, 0.05 M BOH(strong base) then pH of resulting solution will be
(Ka for FCH2COOH = 3 × 10–5) :-
(A) 5.48 (B) 4.52 (C) 6.3 (D) Can't predict
52. The number of gram atoms of oxygen present in 0.3 gram mole of (COOH) 2. 2H2O is:
(A) 0.6 (B) 1.8 (C) 1.2 (D) 3.6
53. In the reaction N2(g) + 3F2(g)  2NF3(g), 5.6L N2(g) at NTP reacts with 19 g of F 2(g). The maximum mass of NF3
obtained is :-
(A) 11.33 g (B) 5.6 g (C) 23.66 g (D) 47.33 g
54. Heat of combustion of ethanol (C2H5OH(  )) at constant pressure and at temperature 298 K is found to be –q J mol–1.
Hence, heat of combustion (in J mol–1) of ethanol at the same temperature at constant volume will be :-
(A) 298 R – q (B) –(q + 298 R) (C) q – 298 R (D) q + 298 R
55. The entropy change in the conversion of one mole of liquid water at 373 K to vapour at the same temperature is :
(Latent heat of vaporization of water = 2.257 kJ/g) :-
(A) 105.9 JK–1 (B) 102.9 JK–1 (C) 108.9 JK–1 (D) 119.9 JK–1
56. Enthalpy of formation of CH3COOH will be; if enthalpy of combustion of C, H2 and CH3COOH are –94 kCal, –68 kCal
& –210 kCal respectively :-
(A) –114 kCal (B) +114 kCal (C) –116 kCal (D) –196 kCal
57. Heat of neutralisation of oxalic acid is –106.7 kJ mol–1 using NaOH hence H of : C H2 C2 O4   C2O42  2H is :-
(Given heat of neutralisation = – 57.1 kJ/equivalent)
(A) 5.88 kJ mol–1 (B) –5.88 kJ mol–1 (C) –13.7 kCal mol–1 (D) 7.5 kJ mol–1
58. Assertion : Hybridisation influences the bond length and bond enthalpy (strength) in organic compounds.
Reason : The sp hybrid orbital contain more s– character and hence it is closer to its nucleus and form shorter and
stronger bond then the sp3 hybrid orbital.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
59. Which IUPAC sequence pair, first have correct and second incorrect name -
(A) 2–Dimethylpentane and 2,2-Dimethylpentane
(B) But-4-ol-1-yne and But-3-yn-1-ol
(C) 2-Chloro-4-methylpentane and 4-Chloro-2- methylpentane
(D) 2,5,7-Trimethyloctane and 2,4,7-Trimethyloctane

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Test Batch: XI
60. Which of the following compounds will shows cis-trans isomerism -
(A) (CH3)2C=CH–C2H5 (B) CH2 = CBr2 (C) C6H5CH = CH–CH3 (D)

61. Which of the following oxide is least acidic oxide

(A) Cl2O7 (B) SO3 (C) CO2 (D) SiO2
62. Which of the following molecules consist of only  bond in these structure.
(A) B2 and C2 (B) N2 and O2 (C) NO and N2 (D) Li2 and H2
63. Which of the following will have most negative electron gain enthalpy.
(A) Cl (B) F (C) O (D) S
64. In which of the following the bond lengths are equal.
(A) SF4 (B) PF5 (C) IF7 (D) SF6
65. Which of the following oxide reacts with both acids and bases.
(A) CaO (B) SO3 (C) C12O7 (D) SnO
66. Consider the following adduct formation reaction and identify the correct statement.

 
(A) Bond angle of H  N  H bond increases (B) Bond angle of F  B F bond decreases
(C) Hybridisation state of B is change from sp2 to sp3 (D) All of these
67. In which of the following the diagonal relationship is due to nearly similar atomic and ionic size
(A) Be and Al (B) B and Si (C) Li and Mg (D) Be and Mg
68. Select the correct order of bond order :
(A) O22  O2  O2 (B) N2  N2  N2 (C) C2  C2  C2 (D) B2  B2  B2
69. Select the incorrect order of ionisation energy :
(A) Mg > Al (B) P > S (C) N > O (D) N > F
70. The number of hydrogen bonded watermolecules are present in CuSO·5H 2O
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 1
71. Select the correct order of there reactivity in terms of oxidising properties is:
(A) F > Cl >O >N (B) F > O > Cl > N (C) Cl > F > O > N (D) O > F > N > Cl
72. Match the columns:
Column – I Column – II

For the equilibrium

(A)  NH3 (g)  HI(g) , if pressure is increased at
NH4 I(s)  (p) Forward shift
equilibrium
(B)  2NH3 If volume is
For the equilibrium N2  3H2  (q) No change
increase at equilibrium
 H2 (g)  CO2 (g) ,
For the equilibrium H2 O(g)  CO(g) 
(C) (r) Backward shift
if inert gas is added at constant pressure at equilibrium

 PCl3  Cl2 what happens if

For the equilibrium PCl5  More N2 and H2 are
(D) (s)
more PCl5 is added formed

(A) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s) (B) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p)
(C) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r) (D) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
73. 10 g of a sample of CaCO3 gave 3.3 g of CO2 on treatment with an excess of HCl. The percentage purity of the sample
is :- CaCO3 + 2HCI  CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O
(A) 50 (B) 60 (C) 70 (D) 75
74. A hypothetical reaction x  2y proceeds by the following sequence of steps
1/2 xz, H1 = q1
z  2w, H2 = q2
w 1/2y, H3 = q3
The value of H of reaction is :-
(A) q1 + q2 + q3 (2) 2q1 + 2q2 + 3q3 (C) 2(q1 + q2 + 2q3) (D) 2(q1 + q2 + q3)

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Test Batch: XI
75. Incorrect statement for

Newmann's projection of ethane

(A) Any other intermediate conformer between A and B are called skew conformation.
(B) A have more torsional strain than B
(C) Energy barrier between A and B are very small (12.5 kJ mol –1)
(D) Bond angle and bond length are different in A and B.
76. Incorrect order for given properties –
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) CH3 – (CH2)3 CH3< (CH3)4C Boiling point

77. Select the correct order of given properties.
(A) B > Tl > In > Ga > Al : electronegativity (B) B > Tl > Ga > Al : ionisation energy
(C) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl : Atomic radius (D) All of these
2
78. In which of the following the formal charge atoxygen atom is not
3
(A) CO3 2 (B) NO3 (C) SO3 2 (D) ClO3
79. Which of the following has highest dipole moment.
(A) H – F (B) H2O (C) NH3 (D) NF3
80. Select the correct order of bond length:
(A) C = C > C = N (B) C = O > N = O (C) C = N > N = O (D) C  N > C  C
81. The de-Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball mass 60g moving with a velocity of 10 m/s is Approximately
(A) 10–16m (B) 10–25m (C) 10–33m (D) 10–31 m
82. 12 lit. of H2 and 11.2 lit. of Cl2 are mixed and exploded. The composition by volume of mixture is-
(A) 24 lit. of HCl (g) (B) 0.8 lit. Cl2 and 20.8 lit. HCI (g)
(C) 0.8 lit. H2 and 22.4 lit. HC1 (g) (D) 22.4 lit. HCl (g)
83. When the molecules N2, N2O and N2O4 are arranged in order of decreasing N-N bond length, which order is correct?
(A) N2O4, N2O, N2 (B) N2, N2O, N2O4 (C) N2O, N2, N2O4 (D) N2, N2O4,N2O
84. The strength of bonds by 2s – 2s, 2p – 2p and 2p – 2s overlapping has the order :-
(A) s – s > p – p > s – p (B) s – s > p – s > p – p (C) p – p > s – p > s – s (D) p – p > s – s > p – s
85. In a chemical reaction equilibrium is established when:
(A) Opposing reaction ceases (B) Concentrations of reactants and product are equal
(C) Velocity of opposing reaction is the same as that of forward reaction
(D) Reaction ceases to generate heat
86. If at 298 K the bond energies of C–H, C–C, C=C and H–H bonds are respectively 414, 347, 615 and 435 kJ mol–1. the
value of enthalpy changes for the reaction;
H2C  CH2 (g)  H2 (g)   H3C  CH3 (g)
298 K will be -
(A) + 125 kJ (B) –125 kJ (C) +250 kJ (D) –250 kJ
87. Which of the following is incorrect about diborane?
(A) It has two 3C – 2e– banana bonds
(B) In diaborane B is sp3 hybridized among one hybrid orbital remains vacant
(C) Bond length of bridge B–H bond is greater then terminal B–H bond
(D) Diborane has max. four atoms in one plane.

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Test Batch: XI
88. How many geometrical isomers are possible for
H3C–CH=CH–CH=CH–CH=C=C=C–CH3
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12
89. The IUPAC name for

(A) 1-Chloro-2-nitro-4-methyl benzene (B) 1-Chloro-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene

(C) 2-Chloro-1-nitro-5-methyl benzene (D) m-Nitro-p-chlorotoluene
90. A Fischer projection of (2R, 3S)-2, 3- butanediol is:-
(A) (B) (C) (D)

BIOLOGY
91. In dicotyledonous stem, a layer which is known as starch sheath is found in;
(A) endodermis. (B) hypodermis. (C) pericycle. (D) pith.
92. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following.
(A) Nucleus - Camillo Golgi (B) Ribosomes - George Palade
(C) Golgi body - Robert Brown (D) Chromatin – Nicolson
93. Statement I: In green plants, H2O is the hydrogen donor and is oxidised to O2.
Statement II: The O2 evolved by the green plants comes from H2O, not from carbon dioxide.
(A) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (B) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(C) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. (D) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
94. Assertion (A): Conjoint vascular bundles are common in stems and leaves.
Reason (R): In stem and leaves xylem and phloem within a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner on
different radii.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true, but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
95. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs in;
(A) diplotene. (B) pachytene. (C) zygotene. (D) diakinesis.
96. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct option.
List – I List – II
I. Deuteromycetes A. Puffballs
II. Basidiomycetes B. Imperfect fungi
III. Ascomycetes C. Sac-fungi
(A) I-B, II-C, III-A (B) I-B, II-A, III-C (C) I-C, II-B, III-A (D) I-A, II-B, III-C
97. Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
(A) Roots in some plants are modified for support, storage of food and respiration.
(B) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious roots of sweet potato, get swollen and store food.
(C) Hanging structures that support a banyan tree are called stilt roots.
(D) Pneumatophores help to get oxygen for respiration.
98. Identify the correct statements from the following.
A. Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus and move
towards the maturing face.
B. A number of proteins synthesized by ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum are modified in the cisternae of Golgi
apparatus before they are released from its trans face.
C. Mitochondria possess a single circular ds DNA molecule, a few RNA molecules, ribosomes (70S) and the
components required for the synthesis of proteins.
D. In 70S, „S‟ (Svedberg‟s Unit) stands for the sedimentation coefficient; it is indirectly a measure of density and size of
a ribosome.
Choose the correct option.
(A) A and D only (B) B and D only (C) A and C only (D) All of these

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99. Statement I: In animals, mitotic cell division is only seen in the diploid somatic cells with few exceptions.
Statement II: M Phase starts with the nuclear division, corresponding to the separation of daughter chromosomes
(cytokinesis) and usually ends with division of cytoplasm (karyokinesis).
(A) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(B) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(C) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(D) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
100. How many turns of Calvin cycle are required to synthesize one molecule of glucose?
(A) Two (B) Four (C) Six (D) Eight
101. Choose the correct statement from the following.
(A) Ethephon is not readily absorbed in an aqueous solution.
(B) Ethephon is an adenine derivative.
(C) Ethephon promotes female flowers in cucumbers thereby increasing the yield.
(D) Ethephon decreases abscission in flowers and fruits.
102. Statement I: Xylem is a simple permanent plant tissue.
Statement II: Parenchyma and sclerenchyma are simple tissues with living cells.
(A) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (B) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(C) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. (D) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
103. Choose the incorrect statement from the following w.r.t ATP synthase.
(A) It is also known as complex V.
(B) It consists of two major components, F0 and F1.
(C) The F1 headpiece is an integral membrane protein complex and contains the site for synthesis of ATP from ADP and
inorganic phosphate.
(D) F0 is an integral membrane protein complex that forms the channel through which protons cross the inner
membrane.
104. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
(A) Phylogenetic classification systems - based on evolutionary relationships.
(B) Numerical taxonomy - based on chromosome number, structure and behaviour.
(C) Cytotaxonomy - based on cytological information.
(D) Chemotaxonomy - uses chemical constituents of plants.
105. Choose the incorrect statement about Paramoecium.
(A) It is an autotrophic protozoan.
(B) Actively moving organism because of the presence of thousands of cilia, which also help the food to be steered into
gullet.
(C) Has a cavity (gullet) that opens to the outside of the cell surface.
(D) Is a ciliated protozoan.
106. The food is stored as floridean starch which is very similar to amylopectin and glycogen in structure is found in;
(A) green algae. (B) brown algae. (C) red algae. (D) all algae.
107. In 1971, T.O. Diener discovered a new infectious agent that caused ____A____ disease. The RNA of the viroid was of
____B_____ molecular weight.
(A) A – potato spindle tuber, B – high (B) A – mosaic of tobacco, B – low
(C) A – bovine spongiform encephalopathy, B – high (D) A – potato spindle tuber, B – low
108. Match List – I with List – II to find out the correct option.
List – I List – II
I. Double membrane A. Vacuole
II. Single membrane B. Mitochondria
III. Non-membranous C. Mesosome
IV. Extension of plasma membrane D. Ribosome
(A) I–C, II–D, III–A, IV–B (B) I–A, II–B, III–C, IV–D
(C) I–B, II–A, III–D, IV–C (D) I–C, II–B, III–A, IV–D
109. „Kranz‟ anatomy‟ is found in the leaves of C4 plants. „Kranz‟ means ____A____ and is a reflection of the
_____B_____.
(A) A – square, B – arrangement of thylakoids (B) A – wreath, B – location of chloroplasts
(C) A – square, B – location of thylakoids (D) A – wreath, B – arrangement of cells
110. Assertion (A): The respiratory pathway is considered an amphibolic pathway.
Reason (R): The respiratory pathway is involved in both anabolism as well as catabolism.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true, but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.

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111. Which among the following statements correctly defines the apical dominance?
(A) The growing apical bud inhibits the growth of the lateral (axillary) buds.
(B) The growing lateral (axillary) bud inhibits the growth of the apical buds.
(C) The growing apical bud promotes the growth of the adventitious shoots.
(D) The growing lateral (axillary) bud inhibits the growth of the adventitious shoots.
112. Concentration of CO2 at which C4 plants show saturation is;
(A) 240 μlL–1 (B) 360 μlL–1 (C) 450 μlL–1 (D) 540 μlL–1
113. Choose the incorrect statement from the following w.r.t kingdom Plantae.
(A) It includes all prokaryotic chlorophyll-containing organisms commonly called plants.
(B) A few members are partially heterotrophic such as the insectivorous plants or parasites.
(C) The plant cells have an eukaryotic structure with prominent chloroplasts and cell wall mainly made of cellulose.
(D) Life cycle of plants has two distinct phases – the diploid sporophytic and the haploid gametophytic – that alternate
with each other.
114. Identify the incorrect statement.
(A) Biological names are generally in Latin and written in italics.
(B) The first word in biological name represents the genus while the second component denotes the specific epithet.
(C) When hand written, both words of biological names are separately underlined.
(D) Both the words of biological name start with capital letter.
115. Choose the correct statement about algae.
(A) Through respiration, at least a half of the total carbon dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by algae.
(B) They decrease the level of dissolved oxygen in their immediate environment.
(C) Chlorella, a unicellular alga, rich in proteins is used as food supplement even by space travellers.
(D) Many species of Gelidium, Gracilaria and Selaginella are among the 70 species of marine algae used as food.
116. In dicotyledonous roots, a few layers of thick-walled parenchymatous cells, that lies next to endodermis are referred to
as;
(A) epidermis. (B) casparian strips. (C) pericycle. (D) conjuctive tissue.
117. Nucleolus and the nuclear envelope reappear at which stage of mitosis?
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Anaphase (D) Telophase
118. The type of vascular bundle shown below is generally found in;

(A) stems. (B) leaves. (C) roots. (D) stems and leaves.
119. The correct equation for respiratory quotient is;
(A) RQ = volume of O2 consumed/volume of CO2 evolved.
(B) RQ = volume of CO2 evolved/ volume of O2 consumed.
(C) RQ = volume of O2 evolved/volume of CO2 consumed.
(D) RQ = volume of CO2 consumed/volume of O2 evolved.
120. Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This
ability is called;
(A) dedifferentiation. (B) plasticity. (C) differentiation. (D) development.
121. Identify the correctly matched pair.
(A) Gymnosperms - albuminous cells absent (B) Angiosperms - sieve tube elements absent
(C) Gymnosperms - sieve tubes present (D) Gymnosperms - companion cells absent
122. In the electron transport system, cytochrome c oxidase is also known as;
(A) Complex I. (B) Complex II. (C) Complex IV. (D) Complex V.
123. Assertion(A): Hypogynous flowers have superior ovaries.
Reason(R): In hypogynous flowers, gynoecium occupies the highest position while, petals, sepals and stamens are
situated below the ovary.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true, but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
124. Choose the option that represents different genera included within pteridophytes.
(A) Dryopteris, Pinus, Cedrus, Selaginella and Salvinia.
(B) Selaginella, Lycopodium, Equisetum and Dryopteris.
(C) Funaria, Polytrichum, Sphagnum and Lycopodium.
(D) Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria, Sargassum and Fucus.

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125. Statement I: Centromere holds two chromatids of a chromosome.
Statement II: In acrocentric chromosome, the centromere is situated close to its end forming one extremely short and
one very long arm.
(A) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(B) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(C) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(D) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
126. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of mitosis?
(A) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes.
(B) Formation of mitotic apparatus.
(C) Appearance of recombination nodules.
(D) Formation of diploid daughter cells from diploid parent cells.
127. Which among the following is a correct group of “phylum/division” category?
(A) Chordata, Angiospermae, Insecta. (B) Arthropoda, Angiospermae, Chordata.
(C) Anacardiaceae, Chordata, Primata. (D) Arthropoda, Primata, Diptera.
128. Anaphase stage is characterised by;
A. Attachment of spindle fibres to the kinetochores of chromosomes.
B. Splitting of centromeres and separation of chromatids.
C. Moving of chromosomes to spindle equator and getting aligned along metaphase plate through spindle fibres to both
poles.
D. Moving of chromatids to the opposite poles.
Choose the correct option.
(A) A and C (B) C and D (C) B and D (D) All of these
129. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct option.
List – I List – II
I. Carboxylation A. Primary CO2 acceptor is a 3-carbon molecule
II. Reduction B. Most crucial step of C3 cycle
III. Calvin cycle C. Primary CO2 acceptor is a 5-carbon molecule
C4 pathway Use of photochemically made ATP and NADPH for reduction
IV. D.
per molecule of CO2 fixed
(A) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C (B) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
(C) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A (D) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
130. Tap root system is found in;
(A) mustard. (B) Monstera. (C) grass. (D) wheat.
131. Identify the correct class of fungi on the basis of given statements.
A. Mushroom is one of the commonly known forms of this class.
B. The sex organs are absent, but plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of different
strains or genotypes.
C. Sexual spores are produced exogenously.
(A) Phycomycetes (B) Ascomycetes (C) Basidiomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes
132. Statement I: Ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two chambered due to the formation of the false septum in
Dianthus and Primrose.
Statement II: When the ovules are borne on central axis and septa are absent, as in mustard and Argemone, the
placentation is called free central.
(A) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (B) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(C) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. (D) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
133. Identify the incorrect statement from the following w.r.t the gymnosperms.
(A) They are the plants in which the seeds that develop post-fertilisation, are not covered, i.e., are naked.
(B) The roots are generally tap roots.
(C) The stems are unbranched in Pinus, Cedrus or branched in Cycas.
(D) They are heterosporous; they produce haploid microspores and megaspores.
134. Match List-I with List-II w.r.t TCA cycle to find out the correct option.
List – I List – II
First formed stable
I. A. Succinyl CoA
intermediate
II. Substrate of 1st reaction B. α-Ketoglutaric acid
Product of 1st
III. C. Citric acid
decarboxylation reaction
Product of 2nd
IV. D. Acetyl CoA
decarboxylation reaction
(A) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A (B) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A (C) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B (D) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C

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135. Assertion (A): The non-cyclic photophosphorylation is called the Z-scheme.
Reason (R): In the Z-scheme, the characteristic shape is formed when all the carriers are placed in a sequence on a redox
potential scale.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
136. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct option.
List – I List – II
I. Cytokinin A. Stimulates closure of stomata
II. Ethylene B. Respiratory climactic
III. Gibberellin C. Cell division promoting activity
IV. Abscisic acid D. Causes fruits like apple to elongate and improve its shape
(A) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B (B) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D (C) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C (D) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
137. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with how many electrical leads?
(A) Three, one to each ankle and one to the left wrist.
(B) Three, one to each wrist and one to the right ankle.
(C) Three, one to each wrist and one to the left ankle.
(D) Four, one to each wrist and one to each ankle.
138. Select the incorrect statement.
(A) Arteries are the vessels which carry blood away from the heart to different organs.
(B) Adult human RBCs are enucleated, so that all their internal space is available for oxygen transport.
(C) 120/80 mm Hg is considered as an ideal blood pressure in humans.
(D) Compared to our blood, our lymph has more RBCs and less WBCs.
139. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option w.r.t thoracic chamber.
List – I List – II
(A) Vertebral column I. Ventral
(B) Sternum II. Dorsal
(C) Ribs III. Lower side
(D) Diaphragm IV. Lateral
A B C D
(A) I II III IV
(B) III IV II I
(C) II I IV III
(D) I III II IV
140. Which among the following does not form the part of thin filaments of a skeletal muscle fibre?
(A) Globular actins (B) Troponin (C) ATP binding sites (D) Tropomyosin
141. All the given statements are correct w.r.t. human heart, except;
(A) The myocardium of heart is made of cardiac muscles.
(B) The walls of ventricles are much thicker than that of the atria.
(C) Valves prevent any backward flow of blood.
(D) AV node is called pacemaker of the heart.
142. The first heart sound (lub) is associated with the;
(A) closure of mitral valve and tricuspid valve. (B) opening of tricuspid valve and mitral valve.
(C) closure of semilunar valves. (D) opening of semilunar valves.
143. Arrange the following statements in a sequence to explain the catalytic action of an enzyme.
A. Substrate fits into the active site of enzyme.
B. The active site of enzyme breaks the chemical bonds of substrate.
C. The enzyme is released from enzyme-product complex.
D. The substrate binding induces the enzyme to alter its shape and fits more tightly with substrate.
Select the correct option.
(A) A → C → B → D (B) A → B → D → C (C) D → A → B → C (D) A → D →B → C
144. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option.
List – I List – II
Visceral nervous system Comprises whole complex of nerves,
(A) I.
fibres, ganglia and plexuses
Nissl‟s granules Fibres transmit impulses towards the cell
(B) II.
body
(C) Dendrites III. Protein synthesis
(D) Axon IV. Branched distal end

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A B C D
(A) II I III IV
(B) I III II IV
(C) II III IV I
(D) I II IV III
145. How do sympathetic neural signals affect the working of heart?
(A) Reduce heart rate. (B) Increase cardiac output.
(C) Heart rate increases but cardiac output decreases. (D) Decrease the strength of ventricular contraction.
146. Select the correct statements.
A. Breathing is the process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells.
B. Respiration is for energy consumption.
C. Breathing is commonly known as respiration.
D. Moving up and down of the chest is caused due to breathing.
(A) Only A, C & D (B) Only B, C & D (C) Only B & C (D) Only A & D
147. Select the correct match.
(A) Sea urchin and sea hare – Echinodermata
(B) Fighting fish and saw fish – Osteichthyes
(C) Vulture and dolphin – Mammalia
(D) Apple snail and tusk shell – Mollusca
148. Joint between which of the following bones allow limited movement?
(A) Flat skull bones (B) Adjacent vertebrae (C) Atlas and axis (D) Carpal and metacarpal
149. Choose the correct statement.
(A) The transfer of fluid from the glomerulus to Bowman's capsule occurs via active transport.
(B) Collecting duct descends deep into the renal medulla only in juxta medullary nephrons.
(C) Collecting duct passes urine to the renal pelvis.
(D) Cortical nephrons are extremely important for water conservation in mammals.
150. For which of the following functions, association areas of human brain are not responsible?
(A) Memory (B) Intersensory associations (C) Motivation (D) Communication
151. Choose the option that indicates incorrect fact associated with the given event.
(A) Normal inspiration – Contraction of external intercostals muscles
(B) Forceful expiration – Contraction of additional muscles of abdomen
(C) Normal expiration – Diaphragm arches upward
(D) Normal inspiration – Volume of thoracic cavity decreases
152. A hormone ____X____ stimulates the formation of erythrocytes. From the given options select the correct location from
where 'X' is produced.
(A) Alpha cells of pancreas (B) The bone marrow cells
(C) The cells of neurohypophysis (D) Juxtaglomerular cells
153. The typical osmolarity of human blood under normal physiological conditions is;
(A) 600 mOsmol L–1 (B) 300 mOsmol L–1 (C) 30 mOsmol L–1 (D) 1200 mOsmol L–1
154. Which of the following colours does starch give when treated with iodine solution?
(A) Green (B) Orange (C) Blue (D) Brown
155. The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be estimated by using a;
(A) Spirometer (B) Sphygmomanometer (C) ECG (D) Stethoscope
156. Choose the incorrect statements regarding structure of protein.
(A) Biologists describe the protein structure at four levels.
(B) The sequence of amino acids i.e., the positional information in a protein, which is the first amino acid, which is
second, and so on is called the primary structure of a protein.
(C) The first amino acid is also called as C-terminal amino acid. The last amino acid is called the N- terminal amino
acid.
(D) In proteins, only right handed helices are observed.
157. Select the feature from the options given below that is correct for alveoli.
(A) Cells are multi-layered in appearance. (B) Vascularised bag-like structures.
(C) Presence of branched muscle fibres. (D) Absence of blood vessels and basement membrane.
158. The number of carpals in one forelimb in an adult man is equal to the number of;
(A) Facial bones (B) Cranial bones (C) Cervical vertebrae (D) Ribs
159. Which of the following phenomenon takes place during muscle contraction?
(A) Release of Ca2+ and its binding to troponin complex.
(B) Closing of actin binding site.
(C) I-band remains unchanged.
(D) H-zone remains unchanged.

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160. Besides vasa recta, the U-shaped part of nephron‟s ____X____ plays a very significant role in production of
concentrated urine in case of mammals.
Identify 'X' and choose the correct option.
(A) PCT (B) DCT (C) Collecting Duct (D) Loop of Henle
161. The reason that explains why uric acid is excreted by birds is;
(A) Uric acid is readily soluble in water.
(B) Uric acid is metabolically less expensive to synthesise than other excretory products.
(C) Uric acid requires little water for its removal.
(D) Uric acid excretion allows birds to live in plenty of water.
162. Select the odd one among the following w.r.t. presence of tail.
(A) Salamandra (B) Hippocampus (C) Chameleon (D) Loligo
163. Which of the following hormones is associated with Addison's disease?
(A) Adrenaline (B) Cortisol (C) Aldosterone (D) Both (B) and (C)
164. The sugar present in DNA is;
(A) Ribose (B) Galactose (C) Deoxyribose (D) Sucrose
165. Additional volume of air, which a normal person can inspire by forcible inspiration averages to about;
(A) 2000-2500 mL (B) 2500-3000 mL (C) 1000-1100 mL (D) 1500-2000 mL
166. A person is suffering from a disorder called arthritis. Which parts of the body would mainly be affected by this?
(A) Kidney (B) Joints (C) Heart (D) Liver
167. Choose the correct statement.
(A) All coelenterates are vertebrates. (B) All chordates have notochord in their adult life.
(C) All cyclostomes lack jaw, scales and paired fins. (D) Comb jellies are not exclusively marine.
168. Choose the correct match from the options given below.
(A) Tissue level of organisation – Obelia and Physalia (B) Alternation of generation – Culex and Pheretima
(C) Segmented body – Adamsia and Gorgonia (D) Acoelomate, triploblastic – Apis and Pila
169. Select the correct option w.r.t. the hormone responsible for causing contractions of myometrium during parturition and
its source gland. Identify Hormone Source and gland respectively
(A) Vasopressin, hypothalamus. (B) Oxytocin, hypothalamus.
(C) Oxytocin, Adenohypophysis. (D) ADH, hypothalamus.
170. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option.
List – I List – II
(A) Melatonin I. Growth of ovarian follicle
(B) FSH II. Sleep-wake cycle
Adrenaline Stimulates formation of alveoli in
(C) III.
mammary glands
(D) Progesterone IV. Increase glucose concentration in blood
A B C D
(A) I II III IV
(B) II I IV III
(C) III II I IV
(D) II IV III I
171. All of the following animals are characterised by moist skin and presence of cloaca, except;
(A) Hyla (B) Bufo (C) Salamandra (D) Pteropus
172. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option.
List – I List – II
(A) SAN I. Lower left corner of right atrium
(B) AVN II. Thick fibrous tissue
(C) Atrio-ventricular septum III. Thin muscular wall
(D) Inter-atrial septum IV. Upper right corner of right atrium
A B C D
(A) IV I III II
(B) I IV III II
(C) IV I II III
(D) I II IV III
173. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. the structure of contractile protein.
(A) Both actin and myosin filaments are arranged as rod-like structures perpendicular to each other.
(B) A complex protein troponin is present at regular intervals on the tropomyosin.
(C) Tropomyosin runs close to the F-actin throughout its length.
(D) The isotropic band is composed of actin filaments.

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174. Select the correct option to complete the analogy.
Ultrafiltration : ________ :: Storage of urine : Urinary bladder.
(A) Proximal convoluted tubule (B) Malpighian body
(C) Henle's loop (D) Column of Bertini
175. All of the following are the bases of differences between cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons, except;
(A) Length of Henle's loop. (B) Their number and distribution in the human kidneys.
(C) Presence of Malpighian body, PCT and DCT. (D) Presence of vasa recta.
176. In humans, respiration involves several steps. Choose the option that represents third step among the following during
respiration.
(A) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane.
(B) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions.
(C) Transport of gases by the blood.
(D) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.
177. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cockroach.
(A) Blood vascular system of cockroach is an open type.
(B) Malpighian tubules help in removal of digestive waste from the haemolymph.
(C) Each compound eye consists of 2000 hexagonal ommatidia.
(D) Cockroaches are dioecious and both sexes have well developed reproductive organs.
178. Mark the incorrect match from the following.
(A) Grave‟s disease - Pituitary gland (B) Acromegaly - Pituitary gland
(C) Addison‟s disease - Adrenal gland (D) Diabetes mellitus – Pancreas
179. Assertion (A): The coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling is present in forebrain.
Reason (R): Hypothalamus lies at the base of the coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
180. Select the incorrect match.
(A) Vasopressin – Stimulates reabsorption of water and electrolytes by DCT
(B) Melatonin – Influences menstrual cycle
(C) MSH – Regulates pigmentation of the skin
(D) Somatostatin – Stimulates the release of growth hormone from pituitary
200. Assertion (A): In frog, the ventricle opens into asac- like conus arteriosus on the ventral side of theheart.
Reason (R): A circular structure called sinusvenosus joins the right atrium in frog.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.

MENTORS ACADEMY 15
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