26/06/2024 Code-A_(Phase-1)

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Motion in a Plane, Laws of Motion
Chemistry: Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Botany: Cell Cycle and Cell Division, The Living World
Zoology: Biomolecules-II: (Proteins, types and functions, Lipids, Nucleic acids, Enzymes, Cofactors), Breathing and Exchange of
Gases-I: (Upto mechanism of breathing)
CC-067 CC-067 CC-067 CC-067

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10
questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time t are 3. The position-time graph for a particle of mass 6 kg
given by x = αt3 and y = βt3. The speed of the particle at moving along x-axis is shown in figure. Then impulse on
time t is given by particle at t = 2 seconds is
−−−−−−
(1) 2
√α + β
2

−−−−−−
(2) 2 2
t √α + β
2

−−−−−−
(3) 2 2
3t √α + β
2

−−−−−−
(4) CC-067 CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
2 2
3t√α + β

2. A ball of mass 0.2 kg moves with a velocity of 20 m/s and

it stops in 0.1 s. Then the magnitude of force on the ball
is (1) 120 Ns
(1) 40 N (2) – 420 Ns
(2) 20 N (3) – 120 Ns
(3) 4 N (4) 60 Ns
(4) 2 N

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Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

4. According to Newton's 3rd law of motion 10. The acceleration of block A (of mass 10 kg), kept on a
smooth horizontal surface, when a force F of magnitude
(1) Action arises before reaction 10 N is applied on it as shown in figure will be
(2) Reaction arises before action
(3) Action and reaction always act on same body
(4) Action and reaction always act on different bodies

5. If a unit vector is represented by ˆ ˆ ˆ

0.5 i + 0.5 j + ck, then the
value of c is approximately
(1) 0.70
(2) 0.20
(3) 0.50 (1) 0.25 m/s2
(4) 0.25
CC-067 CC-067 m/s2
(2) 2CC-067 CC-067
6. Kinetic friction between two surfaces
(3) 1 m/s2
(1) Opposes the relative motion between them
Acts opposite to the direction of relative motion (4) 0.5 m/s2
(2)
between them
11. A body of mass m is projected with initial speed u at an
(3) Acts in same direction on both the surfaces angle θ with horizontal. The magnitude of change in
momentum after the body reaches its maximum height is
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) 2mu cosθ
7.
Two forces ˆ ˆ
(3 i + 4 j ) N and ˆ ˆ
(2 i + j ) N are acting on a (2) Zero
body of mass 1 kg, then magnitude of acceleration
(3) mu sinθ
produced in the body will be
(4) 2mu sinθ
(1) 5 m/s2
12. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point O is
(2) –
√2 m/s2 ˆ ˆ
(4 i + 7 j ) m/s . Its velocity (in m/s) at point A will be,
(3) –
5√2 m/s2 (g = 10 m/s )
2

(4) –
4√2 m/s2

8. Velocity vector and acceleration vector in a uniform

circular motion are related as
(1) Both are in the same direction
(2) Both are perpendicular to each other
(3) Both are in opposite direction
(4) Both are at acute angle

9. To the driver of a car A moving with velocity

⃗
vA
^ ^
= (3 i − 4 j ) m/s , a second car B appears to have a

velocity ^ ^
(5 i + 12 j ) m/s . The true velocity of the car B is

(1) ^ ^
CC-067
(−2 i − 16 j ) m/s CC-067 (1) CC-067 CC-067

(2) ^ ^
(8 i + 8 j ) m/s (2)

(3)
(3) ^ ^
(−8 i + 8 j ) m/s

(4)
(4) ^ ^
(2 i + 16 j ) m/s

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Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

13. The equation of motion of a projectile are given by x = 24t 18. A body is acted upon by two forces 3 N and 4 N. The
m and y = (32t – 10t2) m. The angle of projection with direction of forces are not known. The resultant force on
horizontal is the body may be

(1) 53° (1) 6 N

(2) 37° (2) 8 N

(3) 45° (3) 10 N

(4) 60° (4) 12 N

14. Tension in string PQ as shown in the figure is (g = 10 19. A projectile is thrown from level ground at some angle θ
from horizontal with speed u. The ratio of kinetic energy at
m/s2) point of projection to kinetic energy at point of landing for
projectile is
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
CC-067 CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
(3) 1 : 9
(4) 1 : 16

20. → → → →
(1) 500 N Unit vector of A = B + C where ˆ ˆ
B = 5i − j and
→
(2) 200

3
N C
ˆ ˆ
= −2 i − 3 j , will be given by
(3) 100 N (1) 1 ^ ^
(3 i + 4 j )
5

(4) 500
N
3
(2) ^ ^
5(4 i − 3 j )

15. A body of mass 2 kg is revolving with angular speed 2π

radian/s in a circular path of radius 1 m. The centripetal (3) ^ ^
5(3 i + 4 j )

force acting on body (in N) is

(4) 1 ^ ^
(3 i − 4 j )

(1) 8π2
5

21. If the net external force acting on a body is zero, then the
(2) 4π2 body

(3) 3π2 (1) Must be at rest

(2) Can move with constant velocity
(4) 2π2
(3) Must have zero acceleration
16. A circular race track of radius 120 m is banked at an
angle of 53°. The optimum speed of car to avoid wear (4) Both (2) and (3)
and tear of its tyres is (g = 10 ms–2) 22. A body of mass 1 kg is placed on a rough horizontal
surface having coefficient of friction μ = 0.5. If a horizontal
(1) 40 m/s
force of 2 N is acting on it, the frictional force on the body
(2) 20 m/s will be
(3) 30 m/s (1) 5 N
(4) 10 m/s (2) 2 N

17. A 4 kg block A is placed on the top of 8 kg block B which (3) 3 N

rests on smooth table. A just slips on B when a force of 20 (4) 4 N
N is applied only on A. The maximum horizontal force F
(in the diagram given below) required to make both A and
CC-067
B move together is
CC-067 CC-067
23. Trajectory of a particle projected atCC-067
an angle from earth
surface with speed 20 m/s is
(1) Straight line
(2) Circular
(3) Parabolic
(1) 36 N (4) Hyperbolic
(2) 5 N
(3) 40 N
(4) 60 N

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Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

24. A monkey of mass 60 kg climbs on a rope which can 29. A machine gun fires n bullets per second and the mass of
withstand a maximum tension of 900 N. For which of the each bullet is 20 g. If 100 m/s is the speed of each bullet
following value of acceleration, monkey will not be able to and a force of 10 N is required to hold the gun, then the
climb safely on the rope? value of n is

(1) 4 m s–2 (1) 1

(2) 2
(2) 5 m s–2
(3) 3
(3) 0.8 m s–2
(4) 5
(4) 8 m s–2 30. An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. If a force
→
25. A particle initially at rest, starts moving under the F = (3t
2ˆ ˆ
i + 9j) N acts on the object, then velocity of the
acceleration a⃗ = (2^i + ^j ) m/s . The velocity (in m s–1) of
2

object at t = 2 seconds (in m/s) is

particle after time 2 s is
(1)
(1) ^
CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
72 î + 12 ĵ
CC-067
2i
(2) ˆ
6i +
8

3
ˆ
j

(2) ^ ^
4 i + 2j

(3) 32 î + 6 ĵ
(3) ^ ^
2 i + 3j

(4) 8 ˆ ˆ
i + 6j
(4) ^
2j
3

31. A block of mass 10 kg is kept on smooth floor of a truck

26. If the momentum of a body varies with time t as and attached to its wall by a light string as shown in the
p = (5t + t + 1) kgm/s. The average force for the time figure. If the string can bear a maximum tension 250 N,
2

interval t = 0 to 2 s is then the maximum acceleration of truck in rightward

direction such that the block remains stationary with
(1) 22 N respect to the truck is
(2) 33 N
(3) 11 N
(4) 44 N
27. For the arrangement shown in figure, the ratio of tension
T1 and T2 is
(1) 25 m/s2

(2) 10 m/s2

(3) 15 m/s2

(4) 40 m/s2
(1) 1 : 2
32. Two objects A and B are thrown with velocities
(2) 5 : 8 →
^ ^
→
and u = ^i + ^j respectively from some
u A = 4 i + 5j B

(3) 2 : 1 point on horizontal ground. The magnitude of relative

velocity of object B w.r.t. object A at any point when they
(4) 4 : 5 are in air will be
28. In the arrangement shown in figure, acceleration of block (1) 3 m s–1
is
(2) 4 m s–1
CC-067 CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
(3) 5 m s–1

(4) 6 m s–1

33. A block of mass m = 5 kg is kept on rough horizontal disc

at a distance 2 m from the centre. The coefficient of
g friction between the block and the disc is μ = 0.8. If the
(1) 2
upward
disc is under uniform circular motion, then its angular
g
speed ω just above which the block will start sliding is
(2) 2
downward
(1) 0.25 rad/s
(3) g upward
(2) 0.5 rad/s
(4) Zero
(3) 1 rad/s
(4) 2 rad/s

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Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

34. Find contact force between blocks

(1) 20 N
(2) 40 N
(3) 60 N
(4) 50 N

35. What is the acceleration of 6 kg block, when acceleration

CC-067
of 3 kg block is 3 m s–2 as shown in figure? CC-067 CC-067 CC-067

(1) 3 m s–2

(2) 4 m s–2

(3) 1 m s–2

(4) 2 m s–2

SECTION-B

36. Two weights 10 kg each are attached by means of two 38. If acceleration of block A in case 1 is a1, in case 2 is a2
strings to the two ends of a spring balance, as shown in and in case 3 is a3, then a1 : a2 : a3 is
figure. The pulleys are frictionless. The reading of the
balance would be

(1) 100 N
(2) 500 N
CC-067 CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
(3) Zero
(4) 10 N

37. A boy of mass 40 kg wants to climb up a rope hanging (1) 1 : 3 : 6

vertically. The rope can withstand a maximum tension of
600 N. The maximum acceleration with which the boy can (2) 3 : 1 : 6
climb the rope is (g = 10 m/s2) (3) 4 : 1 : 2

(1) 10 m/s2 (4) 2 : 1 : 1

(2) 5 m/s2

(3) 2.5 m/s2

(4) 7.5 m/s2

5
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

39. A block can slide on a smooth inclined plane of 45. A block of mass 5 kg is pulled by a force of 30 N on
inclination θ fixed on the floor of an elevator. When the horizontal surface as shown in figure. If acceleration of
elevator is moving down with a retardation a, the block is 3 m s–2, then coefficient of friction is
acceleration of the block relative to the incline is
(1) (g + a)sinθ
(2) (g – a)
(3) gsinθ
(4) (g – a)sinθ
(1) 0.1
40. A lift is moving down with retardation of 5 m/s2. The
apparent weight of the man (whose mass is 50 kg) (2) 0.2
standing in the lift is (3) 0.3
(1) 250 N (4) 0.4
(2) 750 N CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
46. Breaking strength of a rope is 60%CC-067
of the weight of a
(3) 500 N person. With what minimum acceleration, the person
should slide down the rope, such that it does not break?
(4) 1000 N
g
(1)
41. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial 4

velocity 40 m/s. The range of the missile is (g = 10 m/s2) (2) 2g

(1) 60 m g
(3) 5
(2) 160 m
(3) 200 m (4) 3g

(4) 40 m 47. A stone of mass 4 kg is whirled in a horizontal circle by

attaching it to a 169 m long string. The string can
42. The vectors −^i + 3^j + 4k^
and ^ ^ ^
are
− i + 3 j + (α + 2) k withstand a maximum tension of 4 N. The maximum
equal, then value of α is speed of revolution of the stone such that the string does
not break is
(1) –1
(1) 10 m/s
(2) –2
(2) 13 m/s
(3) 2
(3) 16 m/s
(4) −
1

4
(4) 12 m/s
43. If a truck moving with a constant speed of 2 m/s on a level
48. A body of mass 10 kg is suspended by a spring balance
road can take a sharp circular turn of radius 2 m, then the
on an inclined plane as shown in figure. The spring
minimum value of coefficient of friction between tyres of
balance measures
truck and road so that it does not skid is (Take g = 10
m/s2)
(1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.4
44. All the strings shown in figure are massless. If horizontal
force 12 N isCC-067
applied on 3 kg, then tensionCC-067
in the string CC-067 CC-067
AB is
(1) 50 N
(2) 100 N
–
(3) 50√2 N

–
(4) 100√2 N

(1) 2 N
(2) 3 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 12 N

6
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

49. A particle is moving along a circular path with uniform

speed. Through what angle does its angular velocity
change when it completes half of the circular path?
(1) 180°
(2) 360°
(3) 90°
(4) 0°

50. An insect trapped in a circular groove of radius 12 cm

moves along the groove steadily and completes 7
revolutions in 100 s. The Linear speed of the insect is
(1) 5.3 cm/s
(2) 3.2 cm/s
(3) 6.3 m/s CC-067 CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
(4) 7.2 m/s

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. The maximum number of orbital(s) that can be associated 54. Which of the following oxide is neutral in nature?
with the following quantum numbers is
n = 4, l = 1, ml = 0 (1) Na2O

(2) NO
(1) 1
(2) 2 (3) Cl2O7

(3) 3 (4) Al2O3

(4) 5 55. Which among the following elements show diagonal

relationship with beryllium?
52. In the modern periodic table, the element with atomic
number 33 belongs to (1) Mg

(1) 5th periodCC-067

and 15th group CC-067 (2) SiCC-067 CC-067
(3) Al
(2) 3rd period and 13th group
(4) Na
(3) 4th period and 13th group
56. Which of the following element has the highest first
(4) 4th period and 15th group ionisation potential?
(1) C
53. Which of the following orbitals has a dumb-bell shape?
(2) B
(1) s
(3) N
(2) p
(4) O
(3) d
(4) f

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Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

57. Given below are two statements. 63. Electromagnetic radiation which has longest wavelength
Statement I : The radius of 2nd orbit of He+ ion is 1.058 is
Å. (1) Visible light
Statement II : Splitting of spectral line in electrical field is
called stark effect. (2) Microwave
Choose the correct option from the following: (3) Radio wave
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect (4) Gamma rays
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
64. Consider the following statements
(3) Both statements are incorrect (a) Variation of heat capacity of solids can be explained
by particle nature of electromagnetic radiation
(4) Both statements are correct (b) Diffraction of light can be explained by wave nature of
58. Which among the following is the incorrect set of quantum electromagnetic radiation
numbers? (c) Work function of lithium is lesser than sodium
The correct statement(s) is/are
n l m s
CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
(1) (a) only CC-067
(1) 4 2 –1 +
1

2
(2) (a) and (b) only
(2) 5 1 1 −
1

2 (3) (b) and (c) only

(3) 2 0 0 +
1

2
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) 3 2 3 −
1
65. The correct order of negative electron gain enthalpy is
2

(1) O > S > Se > Te

(1) (1)
(2) S > O > Se > Te
(2) (2)
(3) S > Se > Te > O
(3) (3)
(4) Se > S > Te > O
(4) (4)
66. Which quantum number gives information about spatial
59. Among the following (
e
) ratio is maximum for orientation of the orbital with respect to standard set of co-
m

ordinate axes?
(1) Electron
(1) Principal quantum number
(2) Proton
(2) Azimuthal quantum number
(3) α-particle
(3) Magnetic orbital quantum number
(4) Neutron
(4) Spin quantum number
60. Chalcogens are elements belonging to
67. Correct order of atomic radii of F, O, C and N is
(1) Noble gases
(1) F > O > N > C
(2) Transition elements
(2) C > N > O > F
(3) Representative elements
(3) N > C > O > F
(4) Inner-Transition elements
(4) O > F > C > N
61. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?
68. Eka-silicon is also called as
(1) H+ (1) Gallium
(2) Li+ (2) Aluminium
(3) Indium
(3) Na+ CC-067 CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
(4) Germanium
(4) Mg2+
69. If a particle of mass 0.5 g is moving with a velocity of 200
62. The general electronic configuration of p-block elements m/s then the wavelength associated with the particle is (h
is
= 6.625 × 10–34 Js)
(1) ns1–2np0–6
(1) 6.625 × 10–32 m
(2) ns0np1–6
(2) 6.625 × 10–33 m
(3) ns2np0–6
(3) 6.625 × 10 –34 m
(4) ns2np1–6
(4) 6.625 × 10–36 m

8
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

70. Two electrons occupying the same orbital can be 77. Consider the following statements about cathode rays:
distinguished by (a) They are negatively charged particles
(b) The characteristics of cathode rays do not depend
(1) Principal quantum number upon the material of electrodes used.
(2) Azimuthal quantum number (c) They start from anode and move towards cathode.
The correct statements are:
(3) Spin quantum number
(1) (a) and (b) only
(4) Magnetic quantum number
(2) (b) and (c) only
71. Select the ion of largest size in gas phase among the
given species (3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
(1) Mg2+
78. Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted when
(2) O2–
a light of frequency 1.1 × 1012 Hz is irradiated on a metal
(3) Na+ surface whose threshold frequency is equal to 1.0 × 1011
CC-067 CC-067 Hz, isCC-067
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s) CC-067
(4) N3–
(1) 6.6 × 10–25 J
72. Number of angular and radial nodes present in 5p orbital
are respectively (2) 1.8 × 10–21 J
(1) 2 and 1
(3) 5.1 × 10–20 J
(2) 1 and 2
(4) 6.6 × 10–22 J
(3) 1 and 3
(4) 3 and 1 79. In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is
followed by a statement of reason (R).
73. On the basis of Rutherford model of atom radius of Assertion (A) : The second Ionisation enthalphy of an
nucleus is about element will be lesser than the first Ionisation enthalphy.
Reason (R) : It is more easier to remove an electron from
(1) 10–10 m a positively charged ion than from the neutral atom.
In the light of above statements choose the correct
(2) 10–12 m answer.
(3) 10–15 m Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) 10–20 m
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
74. If shortest wavelength in Lyman series of H-atom be 'x' Å, not the correct explanation of the assertion
then the longest wavelength in Balmer series of He+ (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
would be (in Å)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(1) 36x

5 80. Kinetic energy of an electron present in the third excited

(2) x state of Li2+ ion will be

(3) 9x (1) 6.04 eV

5

(2) 7.65 eV
(4) 27x

20
(3) 1.51 eV
75. Which of the following pairs are isobars? (4) 13.6 eV
(1) 12
6
C and
14
6
C 81. If the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is 100 nm

(2) 14 14
CC-067 CC-067 then CC-067 CC-067
the energy of the quanta will be (h = 6.625 × 10–34J
C and N
s; c = 3 × 108 ms–1)
6 7

(3) 12 16

(1) 6.25 × 10–18 J

C and O
6 8

(4) 16 14

8
O and
7
N
(2) 3.75 × 10–19 J
76. Orbital angular momentum of electron present in a 3p (3) 6.625 × 10–17 J
orbital is
(1) −−
√12 ℏ
(4) 1.99 × 10–18 J
–
(2) √6ℏ

–
(3) √2ℏ

(4) 4ℏ

9
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

82. Identify the incorrect match from the options. 84. Angular momentum of electron in the third orbit of
Name IUPAC Official Name hydrogen atom is

a. Unnilbium (i) Nobelium (1) h

2π

b. Unnilquadium (ii) Rutherfordium

(2) 2h

c. Unnilseptium (iii) Bohrium 3π

d. Unnilennium (iv) Dubnium (3) 3h

2π

(1) a, (i) (4) h

3π

(2) b, (ii)
85. The number of elements present in sixth period
(3) c, (iii)
(1) 18
(4) d, (iv)
(2) 8
83. Maximum number of electrons in a shell having principal
(3) 32
CC-067
quantum number equal to 6 is CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
(4) 2
(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 36
(4) 72

SECTION-B

86. Which of the following is a s-block element? 90. Given below are two statements.
Statement I : Heisenberg uncertainty principle rules out
(1) Ca existence of definite paths or trajectories of electrons and
(2) Fe other similar particles.
Statement II : Heisenberg uncertainty principle is
(3) O significant both for the motion of microscopic and
(4) Xe macroscopic objects.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
87. Correct order of electronegativity of the given elements is answer.
(1) P > N > C > Si (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(2) N > P > C > Si (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) N > C > P > Si (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) N > P > Si > C (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

88. The correct order of energy of given orbitals in 91. Which among the following is not a representative
multielectron species is element?
(1) 4d > 5p > 5s (1) Sn
(2) 5p > 5s > 4d (2) Sb
(3) 5p > 4d > CC-067
5s CC-067 (3) SrCC-067 CC-067
(4) 5s > 5p > 4d (4) Ce
89. Which among the following elements belong to 92. The amphoteric oxide among the following is
Chalcogen family?
(1) CaO
(1) Br
(2) SrO
(2) Se
(3) BeO
(3) As
(4) BaO
(4) Kr

10
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

93. Most electropositive element among the following is 97. Which of the following transitions will emit photon of
minimum wavelength?
(1) Na
(1) n4 → n1
(2) Mg
(3) Al (2) n4 → n2

(4) Be (3) n3 → n1

94. Spectral line of which series does not belong to infrared (4) n2 → n1
region?
98. Outer shell electronic configuration of the most
(1) Pfund electronegative element is
(2) Brackett
(1) 2s22p4
(3) Paschen
(2) 2s22p5
(4) Balmer
CC-067
95. The wave number CC-067
for longest wavelength transition in the CC-067
(3) 3s 23p4 CC-067
Lyman series of atomic hydrogen is (RH = Rydberg (4) 3s23p5
constant for hydrogen)
99. Element which does not have ns2np1 configuration?
(1) 1

4
RH

(1) B
(2) RH

(2) C
(3) 3
RH
4
(3) Ga
(4) 5

36
RH (4) In

96. Numbers of neutrons and protons respectively present in 100.The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence
Br are
80 electron of potassium atom (Z = 19) is
35

(1) 35, 45 (1) 4, 1, 0, + 1

(2) 35, 35 (2) 4, 0, 0, + 1

(3) 45, 35
(3) 4, 0, 1, +
1

2
(4) 45, 45
(4) 3, 1, 0, − 1

BOTANY

SECTION-A

CC-067 CC-067 CC-067 CC-067

101.All of the following phenomena may occur twice in 102.Mango and potato belong to same
meiosis, except
(1) Family
(1) Spindle formation
(2) Class
(2) Uncoiling of chromosomes
(3) Genera
(3) DNA duplication
(4) Order
(4) Centriole duplication

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Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

103.Read the following statements and choose the correct 110.ICBN stands for
option.
(1) Indian Code for Botanical Nomenclature
Assertion : During zygotene stage, chromosomes start
pairing together and this process is called terminalisation. (2) International Code for Biological Nomenclature
Reason : Anaphase-I begins with simultaneous splitting
of centromeres of each chromosome. (3) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (4) Indian Code for Biological Nomenclature
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion 111. The interphase does not include
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2) (1) G1 phase
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (2) G2 phase

(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (3) M phase

104.Interkinesis is a stage between a and b . (4) S phase

CC-067 CC-067 CC-067 CC-067

¯¯¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯¯¯
112.Splitting of centromeres and separation of chromatids
(1) (a) Telophase II; (b) Prophase I
occurs at
(2) (a) Telophase II; (b) Prophase II
(1) Telophase
(3) (a) Telophase I; (b) Prophase I
(2) Anaphase
(4) (a) Telophase I; (b) Prophase II
(3) Prophase
105.What will be the amount of DNA in a meiosis-II product, if (4) Metaphase
the meiocyte contains 40 pg DNA in G1 phase?
113.Which of the given statements is not true for binomial
(1) 20 pg nomenclature system?
(2) 80 pg Biological names are generally in Latin or Latinised
(1)
(3) 10 pg irrespective of their origin

(4) 5 pg (2) Both the words if hand written are underlined together
Name of the author is written after specific epithet in
106.Which of the following statement is correct for prophase? (3)
an abbreviated form
(1) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosome
First word represents the genus, which starts with a
(4)
(2) Centromere split and chromatids separate capital letter
(3) Chromatids move to opposite poles 114.During which phase of cell cycle, genetic material
becomes double?
Chromosomal material condenses to form compact
(4)
chromosomes (1) Gap2 phase
107.Asters are (2) Synthesis phase
(1) Formed by centromere and astral rays (3) Gap1 phase
(2) Seen in all plants (4) Quiescent phase
(3) Formed during prophase
115.In quiescent phase, cells
(4) Absent in animals
(1) Undergo rapid proliferation
108.Branch of science which deals with the study of principles (2) Are metabolically active
and procedures for grouping of organisms is
(3) Are in G1 phase
(1) Classification
(2) Identification (4) Continuously increase in size
CC-067 CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
(3) Taxonomy 116.Morphology of chromosomes is best studied in

(4) Nomenclature (1) Metaphase

109.Biodiversity is referred as (2) Anaphase

(1) Diverse environment of a particular species (3) Prophase

(2) The number and types of organisms on earth (4) Telophase

Availability of different food resources for a specific 117.The most dramatic period of the cell cycle is
(3)
organism (1) Interphase
(4) Variation among the offspring of an organism (2) M-phase
(3) S-phase

(4) G0-phase

12
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

118.When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis, it 126.Taxonomy along with evolutionary relationships is called
results in the
(1) Systematics
(1) Entrance of the cell into G0 phase (2) Classification
(2) Formation of cell plate (3) Taxonomic hierarchy
(3) Haploid stage of the cell (4) Taxonomical aids
(4) Formation of syncytium
127.Synapsis occurs between
119.Family which includes genera Felis and Panthera is (1) Two sister chromatids
(1) Muscidae (2) Two homologous chromosomes
(2) Felidae (3) Two non-homologous chromosomes
(3) Canidae (4) Sex chromosomes only
(4) Convolvulaceae
128.Anaphase I differs from anaphase of mitosis as in the
CC-067
120.In final stage of prophase-I of meiosis
CC-067 CC-067
former CC-067
(1) Chiasmata formation occurs Separation of homologous chromosomes does not
(1)
occur
(2) Crossing over occurs
(2) Splitting of centromere occurs
(3) Recombinase enzyme gets fully activated
(3) Sister chromatids do not separate
(4) Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place
(4) Chromosomes cluster at the poles
121.Activity of recombinase enzyme occurs during
129.______ marks the end of the cell division.
(1) Leptotene Select the correct option to complete the statement.
(2) Pachytene (1) Formation of metaphasic plate
(3) Diplotene (2) Division of nucleus into two daughter nuclei
(4) Diakinesis (3) Reappearance of Golgi bodies in the cells
122.Which one is not a significance of mitosis? (4) Division of cytoplasm into two daughter cells
(1) Growth of multicellular organisms 130.During cytokinesis in an animal cell
(2) Restoration of nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio of cell Furrow starts at the centre of the cell and grows
(1)
(3) Replacement of older cells outwards

(4) Increase genetic variability in the population Furrow starts at the periphery and then moves
(2)
inwards
123.Interphase lasts about ______ of the duration of cell
(3) Phragmoplast is formed by golgi complex
cycle.
(4) Cytoplasm divides centrifugally
(1) Less than 5%
(2) 10% – 20% 131.How many tetrads will be formed if a diploid cell that
contains 18 chromosomes?
(3) More than 95%
(1) 18
(4) Less than 10%
(2) 9
124.There are five different stages of prophase-I i.e.,
(3) 27
Leptotene (L), Pachytene (P), Diplotene (D), Zygotene (Z)
and Diakinesis (Di). (4) 36
Arrange the stages in correct sequence.
CC-067 CC-067 132.The CC-067 CC-067to _____ of
Muscidae of housefly is equivalent
(1) D → P → L → Di → Z mango. Complete the statement by selecting correct
option to fill up the blank.
(2) L → Z → P → D → Di
(1) Sapindales
(3) Z → L → Di → P → D (2) Anacardiaceae
(4) P → L → Z → Di → D (3) Dicotyledonae
125.During M phase, the complete disintegration of the (4) Poales
nuclear envelope marks the start of
(1) Metaphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

13
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

133.A chromosome after S phase (seen in Prophase) has 135.How many mitotic divisions are required to produce 64
cells from one cell?
(1) Two chromatids
(1) 64
(2) Four chromatids
(2) 16
(3) A single chromatid
(3) 63
(4) Three chromatids
(4) 8
134.Dyad of cells appears at
(1) Telophase I
(2) Telophase II
(3) Prophase I
(4) Anaphase I

CC-067 CC-067 CC-067 CC-067

SECTION-B

136.Duration of one cell cycle for yeast cell is about 141.Rules of Binomial nomenclature were given by
(1) 90 hours (1) Robert Hooke
(2) 24 minutes (2) Rudolf Virchow
(3) 90 minutes (3) Carolus Linnaeus
(4) 24 hours (4) Ernst Mayr
137.Chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by 142.If a human cell completes its cell cycle in 24 hours then
the approximate time for its actual cell division will be
(1) Chromatids about
(2) Kinetochores (1) 23 hours
(3) Satellite (2) 10 hours
(4) Telomere (3) 6 hours
138.The lowest and basic category of classification is (4) 1 hour
(1) Species 143.In which of the following aspects, anaphase of mitosis is
(2) Genus similar to anaphase II?
(3) Class (1) Occurrence only in diploid cells

(4) Family (2) Separation of homologous chromosomes

139.The scientific names ensure that each organism has (3) Splitting of centromere

(1) Two names – one local and one taxonomic name (4) Formation of two metaphasic plates

(2) Two names – one vernacular and one Latin name 144.Lion, leopard and tiger are all species of the genus

(3) A name that has been used for other known organism (1) Felis

(4) Only one name, which is universally accepted (2) Panthera

CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
(3) Canis CC-067
140.Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. mitosis.
Daughter cells and parent cell are identical to each (4) Musca
(1)
other 145.Which of the following plants does not belong to the order
It is required during gametogenesis of haploid Polymoniales?
(2)
organisms (1) Potato
(3) It was first observed by Strasburger in plant cell (2) Petunia
(4) It does not occur in the gonad cells of animals (3) Datura
(4) Wheat

14
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

146.At which of the given stages of prophase-I of meiosis, 148.What will be the content of DNA in a diploid cell at the
nucleolus disappears and nuclear envelope end of S-phase if its meiotic product has 5 picogram of
disintegrates? DNA?
(1) Zygotene (1) 20 pg
(2) Pachytene (2) 10 pg
(3) Diplotene (3) 5 pg
(4) Diakinesis (4) 40 pg

147.What will be the number of chromatids in prophase I of a 149.Chiasmata or X-shaped structures become visible during
cell having 10 bivalents?
(1) Diplotene stage
(1) 20
(2) Zygotene stage
(2) 40
(3) Pachytene stage
(3) 80
CC-067 CC-067 CC-067stage
(4) Leptotene CC-067
(4) 60
150.All the following events occur in the resting phase of cell
cycle, except
(1) Condensation of chromatin material
(2) Duplication of cell organelles
(3) Duplication of genetic material
(4) Growth of cell in size

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151.Most abundant protein in whole of the biosphere is 154.In a single nucleotide, _______ bond is present between
phosphate and ribose sugar.
(1) RuBisCO
(1) Hydrogen
(2) Collagen
(2) Ester
(3) Albumin
(3) Phosphodiester
(4) Globulin
(4) Disulphide
152.The heterocyclic nitrogenous base which is not
considered as a pyrimidine is 155.Assertion (A): When an enzyme is subjected to
temperature higher than its optimum value, its enzymatic
(1) Adenine activity declines.
(2) Thymine Reason (R): Heat denatures proteins.
In the light of above statements, select the correct
(3) Cytosine answer from the options given below.
(4) Uracil Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(1)
explanation of (A)
153.How many C-atoms are present in arachidonic acid
CC-067 CC-067
excluding the carbon of carboxylic acid group?
CC-067 CC-067
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(2)
explanation of the (A)
(1) 19
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false
(2) 20
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) 16
(4) 15

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Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

156.You isolate an unidentified liquid ‘X’ from a sample of 161.Most enzymes are ______ in nature. Choose the option
beans. You add the liquid ‘X’ to a beaker of water and that correctly fills the blank.
shake it vigorously. After few minutes, water and the liquid
(1) Fats
‘X’ get separated into two layers where ‘X’ floats on water.
The unknown liquid ‘X’ is most likely to be a/an (2) Carbohydrates
(1) Enzyme (3) Proteins
(2) Protein (4) Steroids
(3) Lipid 162.Triglyceride is formed by
(4) Carbohydrate (1) 1 Glycerol + 3 Fatty acids
157.During conversion of substrate to product, transition (2) 3 Glycerol + 1 Fatty acid
states formed are
(3) 3 Glycerol + 3 Fatty acids
(1) Stable and transient
(4) 3 Glycerol + 2 Fatty acids
(2) Temporary and unstable
CC-067 CC-067 163.DNACC-067 CC-067
consists of two complementary nucleotide chains. If
(3) Low energy states the sequence of nucleotide in one of the chains is
(4) Permanent altered structural states AGCTTCGA, then the nucleotide sequence in the other
chain shall be
158.Match column I and column II and choose the correct
(1) TAGCATAT
code.
Column I Column II (2) GATCCTAG
Enzymes catalyses hydrolysis (3) TCGAAGCT
a. Hydrolases (i)
of peptide bonds.
(4) GCTAAGCT
Enzymes catalysing the linking
b. Dehydrogenases (ii)
together of two compounds 164.During normal expiration in humans
Enzymes catalysing oxidation
(1) Volume of thoracic cavity increases
c. Ligases (iii) and reduction between two
substrates (2) Pressure within thoracic cavity decreases
Enzymes catalysing removal of (3) External intercostal muscle relaxes
d. Lyases (iv) groups from substrates and
leaving double bonds. (4) Diaphragm contracts
165.In humans, part(s) of respiratory system which is/are not
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings is/are

(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (1) Trachea

(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) Tertiary bronchi

(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) Initial bronchioles

159.Addition of which molecule from options given below can (4) Alveoli
help to overcome competitive inhibition of enzyme 166.Branchial respiration is shown by
succinate dehydrogenase?
(1) Aquatic arthropods
(1) Malonate
(2) Flatworms
(2) Oxaloacetate
(3) Sponges
(3) Succinate
(4) Terrestrial reptiles
(4) Malate
167.Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence.
160.Assertion (A) : Prosthetic group binds tightly with
apoenzyme CC-067 CC-067with CC-067 CC-067
(i) Utilisation of O2 by tissues
while the association of co-enzyme
apoenzyme is only transient. (ii) Breathing / Inspiration
Reason (R) : Prosthetic group is an organic co-factor (iii) Exchange of gases between oxygenated blood and
while co-enzyme is an inorganic co-factor. tissue
In the light of above statements, choose the correct (iv) Exchange of gases between deoxygenated blood
option. and alveoli
Select the correct option.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
(1) (1) iv → iii → ii → i
the correct explanation of the Assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not (2) ii → iii → iv → i
(2)
the correct explanation of the Assertion (3) i → ii → iii → iv
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (4) ii → iv → iii → i
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

16
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

168.Haemoglobin has 2 α-chains and 2 β-chains. The highest 175.The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally and ventrally
level of organization exhibited by it is respectively by
(1) Primary (1) Vertebral column and Sternum
(2) Secondary (2) Sternum and Vertebral column
(3) Tertiary (3) Ribs and Sternum
(4) Quaternary (4) Diaphragm and Clavicle

169.The rate of breathing in a healthy human adult under 176.Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in
normal physiological conditions is stabilizing the three-dimensional tertiary structure of most
proteins?
(1) 38-44 times/min
(1) Hydrogen bonds
(2) 12-16 times/min
(2) Electrostatic interactions
(3) 70-72 times/min
(3) Hydrophobic interactions
CC-067
(4) 20-24 times/min CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
(4) Peptide bonds
170.Pulmonary ventilation takes place between
177.How many of the following factors affect the enzymatic
(1) Atmospheric air and alveolar air activity?
(2) Lungs and pulmonary capillaries (a) Temperature
(b) pH
(3) Tissue capillaries and tissue (c) Change in substrate concentration
(4) Tissue and cells (d) Absence of co-factors
Select the correct option.
171.Function not performed by conducting part of human
(1) Four
respiratory tract is
(1) Humidification of inhaled air (2) Three
(3) Two
(2) Trapping of foreign particles
(4) One
Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
(3)
atmospheric air 178.The correct representation of palmitic acid is
Bringing the temperature of inhaled air to body (1) CH3 – (CH2)16 – COOH
(4)
temperature
(2) CH3 – (CH2)14 – COOH
172.The heterocyclic nitrogenous bases containing double
ring in their structure, found in RNA are (3) CH3 – (CH2)7 CH = CH (CH2)7 COOH
(1) Adenine and Guanine (4) CH3 – (CH2)18 – COOH
(2) Uracil and Thymine
179.How many base pairs would be found in a B-DNA double
(3) Cytosine and Thymine helix, that is 170 Å long?
(4) Cytosine and Guanine (1) 3.4

173.Contraction of which of the following muscles increases (2) 34

the volume of thoracic cavity in the dorso-ventral axis? (3) 50
(1) Internal intercostal muscles (4) 100
(2) Diaphragm
180.Read the following given statements and choose the
(3) External intercostal muscles correct option.
Statement A : The lungs are situated in the thoracic
(4) Both diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
chamber. CC-067
174.Read the following statements and choose the correct Statement B : Anatomically, thoracic chamber is an air-
option. tight chamber.
Statement (A): Respiration is an anabolic process which (1) Both statements A and B are incorrect
leads to the formation of carbon dioxide.
Statement (B): During respiration, CO2 produced by the (2) Both statements A and B are correct
cells is released out. (3) Only statement A is correct
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct (4) Only statement B is correct
(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
(3) Only statement (A) is correct
(4) Only statement (A) is incorrect

17
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

181.Choose the correct sequence of events 183.Which of the following does not represent a polymer?
a. Active site of enzyme breaks the chemical bonds of the
(1) RuBisCO
substrate.
b. The enzyme releases the product of reaction. (2) Cellulose
c. Substrate binds to active site of enzyme.
d. Binding of substrate induces enzyme to alter its shape. (3) Collagen
e. Enzyme product complex is formed. (4) Palmitic acid
(1) a → b → c → d → e 184.Proteins can be described as all the following, except
(2) c → d → a → e → b (1) Homopolymers
(3) c → a → d → e → b (2) Polymer of different amino acids
(4) c → d → e → a → b (3) Macromolecules
182.If cytosine is 18% in DNA of an organism then calculate (4) Heteropolymers
percentage of adenine in DNA of that organism
185.The sequence of amino acids i.e., the positional
(1) 32% CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
information in a protein is revealed CC-067
by which level of
(2) 18% structural organisation of a protein?

(3) 64% (1) Primary structure

(4) 38% (2) Secondary structure

(3) Tertiary structure
(4) Quaternary structure

SECTION-B

186.All of the following are proteinaceous enzymes, except 190.The movement of air into and out of the lungs is carried
out by creating a pressure gradient between the lungs
(1) Lysozyme and atmosphere. Inspiration can occur if
(2) Ligase (a) Intra-pulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric
pressure
(3) Deoxyribonuclease (b) There is increase in the volume of thoracic chamber in
(4) Ribozyme the antero-posterior axis
(c) There is increase in pulmonary volume
187.With the increase in substrate concentration, the velocity Select the option that includes correct statements only.
of the enzymatic reaction rises and ultimately reaches a
(1) Only (a)
maximum velocity. What happens to the enzymatic activity
when more substrate is added in this condition? (2) (b) and (c) only
(1) It will decrease (3) Only (c)
(2) It will increase (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) It will remain unchanged 191.Trachea divides at which level into right and left primary
(4) It will first increase then it will decrease bronchi in humans?

188.Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to (1) 5th cervical vertebra
complete the analogy.
Fishes : gills : : Earthworms : _____________. (2) 5th thoracic vertebra

(1) Lungs CC-067 CC-067 (3) 7CC-067

th cervical vertebra CC-067
(2) Moist skin (4) 5th lumbar vertebra
(3) Tracheal tubes
192.Choose the correct pathway of air during expiration.
(4) Book lungs
Alveoli →Bronchi → Bronchioles → Pharynx
(1)
189.DNA structurally resembles RNA, as both have → Nostrils

(1) Same sugar Pharynx →Bronchi → Trachea → Alveoli

(2)
→ Nostrils
(2) Adenine and uracil nitrogenous bases
Alveoli →Bronchioles →Bronchi → Larynx
(3) Identical structural stability (3)
→ Nasal cavity → Nostrils

(4) Nucleotides as monomer units

Bronchi →Trachea → Pharynx → Larynx
(4)
→ Nostrils

18
Fortnightly Test Series 2024-25_RM(P1)-Test-02A

193.Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. human sound box. 197.Identify the structure given below and select the correct
statement.
(1) It is a cartilaginous structure
(2) It is also called larynx
(3) It is common passage for food and air
It is covered by a cartilaginous flap, epiglottis, during
(4)
swallowing

194.Read the following features:

i. Presence of thin flattened simple squamous epithelium
ii. Absence of cilia (1) It is a nucleotide, cytidylic acid
iii. Absence of cartilage
Choose the option which fulfills all the above criteria. (2) It contains only ester bond

(1) Primary bronchi (3) It is present in only DNA

(2) Pharynx (4) It contains deoxyribose sugar

CC-067 CC-067 CC-067 CC-067
(3) Alveoli 198.Km represents

(4) Trachea (1) Maximum velocity of reaction

195.A co-factor which forms coordination bonds with side (2) Half the maximum velocity of reaction
chains at the active site of enzyme carboxypeptidase and The temperature at which an enzyme shows optimum
with its substrate is (3)
activity
(1) Calcium
(4) The concentration of substrate at Vmax

2
(2) Zinc
(3) Haem 199.Enzymes isolated from thermophilic organisms can retain
their catalytic potential upto
(4) Vitamin
(1) 80°C – 90°C
196.Match the following Column I and Column II
(2) 40°C – 50°C only
Column I Column II
(3) 37°C – 40°C only
a. Trypsin (i) Hormone
b. Insulin (ii) Intercellular ground substance (4) 50°C – 60°C only
c. Antibody (iii) Fight infectious agents 200.Assertion (A) : Lecithin is an example of phospholipid.
d. Collagen (iv) Enzyme Reason (R) : In lecithin, two –OH groups of glycerol are
Select the correct option. esterified with two fatty acids and one –OH group is
esterified with phosphate group.
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is
(1)
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not
(2)
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

CC-067 CC-067 CC-067 CC-067

19